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CONTENT COURSE (PEDAGOGY)

FOCUS: (I) Use different teaching approaches, techniques and instructional materials for
teaching English, Filipino, Science, and Mathematics which are appropriate to the
learners.
(II) Employ appropriate assessment techniques to measure specific learning targets in
English, Filipino, Science, and Mathematics.

TEST ITEMS IN PEDAGOGY:


1. In an experiment you need a Bunsen burner to heat a metal. This burner is an expensive
equipment and is not available in your school. What will you do?
a. Read the results from the book.
b. Substitute it to a locally made gas burner.
c. Do not perform the experiment anymore.
d. Guess what would happen to the metal when heated.
2. With a group of children gathered around Ms. Ubia, she strikes a tuning fork on the rim of
a basin and touches the vibrating fork that causes waves to spread out in all directions.
She tells the class, This is what happens in the air but we cannot see the waves. Sound
travels in waves through the air just like these waves we see in the water.What kind of
strategy does Ms. Ubia employ?
a. Lecture b. inductive c. discussion d. lecture demonstration
3. You were asked to teach a science lesson using the inquiry method. Which of these steps
are you going to follow?
1. Formulating a problem
2. Gathering of data
3. Formulating a hypothesis
4. Testing the hypothesis
5. Formulating generalization
a. 1_2_3_4_5 b. 1_3_2_4_5 c. 2_1_3_4_5 d. 5_4_3_2_1
4. Miss Ilao noticed that her class retains science concepts more permanently when the
experimental method is used. Which learning situation describes this method?
a. The teacher explains and the pupils listen
b. The pupils are actually doing things themselves
c. Selected pupils perform an activity and the rest observe
d. An invited guest shows how plants could be propagated
5. Mrs David wants to develop the social skills of her pupils as they learn the different phases
of matter. How can she do this?
a. Explain to them how to distinguish a liquid from gas and solid
b. Give them examples and non-examples of solids, gases and liquids
c. Group pupils with equal abilities together and let them perform an experiment on
the phases of matter
d. Group pupils with different abilities together and let them perform an experiment
on the phases of matter
6. What will you do if controversial issue is raised in Science & Health class?
a. Call on the bright learners to resolve the issue
b. Give your own opinion regarding the issue to put an end to the discussion
c. Discourage the learners from indulging to such a time-wasting discussion
d. Encourage learners to form their conclusions after all the facts have been presented
7. What is the advantage of the Laboratory Method over the Demonstration Method in
Science?
a. It requires more time
b. It is learning by doing
c. It develops manipulative skill
d. It allows the teacher to finish her work immediately

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8. Mrs. del Prado, a Science teacher thought of giving all the groups of V-Matalino the chance
to perform the experiment. However, the chemicals are not sufficient. What method should
she use?
a. Demonstration c. Project
b. Laboratory d. Lecture
9. Which method is suited if the object is to describe the effect of heat on the matter?
a. Laboratory Method c. Expository Method
b. Project Method d. Problem Method
10. In the present curriculum, one of the basic skill areas in mathematics is communication.
Which best explains the reason for this?
a. Because Mathematics id taught in English
b. Because we use English books in Mathematics
c. Because Mathematics presents information through figures & letters
d. Because Mathematics, pupils/students need to predict, explain and represent.
11. A grade three pupil could not visualize the number of chairs there are in the room with 9
rows and 7 chairs in a row. What problem solving strategy can a teacher use to help the
pupils visualize the situation?
a. Guess and check c. Construct a table
b. Look for a pattern d. Draw a diagram
12. Which lesson in Mathematics can you use Laboratory Method?
a. Multiplying Decimals
b. Interpreting a Scale Drawing
c. Constructing a Rectangular Prism
d. Finding the Simplest Form of Fractions
13. Which is the main reason why drill method is used in teaching Mathematics?
a. To recall the previous lessons
b. To present a new lesson in another way
c. To automatize certain facts, habits and skills
d. To bridge the gap between the present lesson and the past lesson
14. Mrs Francisco would like to inculcate love for learning Mathematics among her pupils.
Which technique should she employ?
a. Give the slow learners more homework to do
b. Let the fast learners teach the slow learners
c. Provide exercises which they can easily answer
d. Make meaningful experiences to apply what they learned
15. Mrs Balagtas would like to test her pupils understanding of the generalization which was
just formulated in Mathematics class. In which part of Inductive Method would she do it?
a. Analysis c. Application
b. Presentation d. Comparison and Abstraction
16. Mr Borlagdan presented plane figures classified as circle, square, triangle and rectangle.
Later she asked the pupils to define each of the classification. What method did she use?
a. Inductive c. Laboratory
b. Deductive d. Expository
17. Mrs Calamlam uses this method if her math lesson needs more explanation from her so
her students will understand the lesson. What method is this?
a. Expository Method c. Laboratory Method
b. Inquiry Method d. Discovery Method
18. Anong kahusayan/talino ang gusto mong idebelop kung ginagamit mo ang mga
sumusunod na estratehiya; pagbi-visualize ng mga larawan, paggamit ng simbulong
grapiko, color cues, picture metaphors, at idea sketching?
a. Kinetiko b. Spatial C. Matematikal d. Linggwistika
19. What method of assessment is appropriate for the objective construct a model of solid,
liquid and gas to show the structure of matter?
a. Performance-based c. Self-report
b. Objective Test d. Essay Test

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20. You have your own conclusion but your classmate has a different conclusion after
performing the same experiment. He has more evidences than you have. He repeated the
experiment several times and averaged the results. Clearly, his conclusion is correct. What
should you do?
a. Accept his conclusion c. Postpone giving a conclusion
b. Insist your own conclusion d. Do not accept his conclusion
21. Which objective is best measured using essay test?
a. Constructs a star map
b. Explains why there are high and low tides
c. names the things seen in the sky during the day
d. Observes the changes in temperature from time to time
22. Which can be appropriately measured using an objective test?
a. Draws a picture to represent a word problem
b. Identifies the 1st , 2nd , up to 10th object in a given set
c. Solves problem involving multiplication of decimals
d. Demonstrates positive attitude towards addition of fractions
23. Ms Navarro, a new teacher, wants to develop manipulative skills among her grade VI
students. How can she do this?
a. By giving them a seatwork
b. By giving them a research work
c. By letting them observe the fish in the aquarium
d. By letting them perform an experiment on liquids
24. Ito'y isang kagamitang nagpapakita ng pinalaking imahe ng transparency sa itaas at likod
ng gumagamit.
a. Overhead projector c. Presentasyong power point
b. Opaque d. Ginupit na larawan
25. Ms Natal wanted to employ pure discovery in her grade VI science class. Which topic would
be the most appropriate for this strategy?
a. Homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures
b. Latest inventions and discoveries
c. Lives of Scientist
d. Volcanic earthquake
26. There are several reasons why problem solving is taught in Mathematics. Which is the
LEAST important?
a. It is the main goal for the study of Mathematics
b. It provides pupil opportunity to develop critical and analytical thinking
c. It provides pupils an opportunity to relate Mathematics with the real world
d. It provides the content in which concepts and skills are learned and applied
27. When would calculators be allowed to use in mathematics class?
a. Whenever computation is needed
b. Whenever pupils are tied of doing tedious computations
c. Whenever pupils are taught about technologies in Mathematics
d. Whenever computational skill is not the main focus of instruction
28. Ginagamit ito upang matutuhan ng mga mag-aaral ang pagsulat ng mga usapan sa isang
diyalogo na may kasamang larawan.
a. Pocket tsart b. Flannel board c. Mobile d. Komik istrip
29. The grade one pupils of Mrs Regalado are poor in solving problems. She uses the strategy
Act It Out to helped her pupils understand word problems. Which of these problems can
be solved through this strategy?
a. How much time did you spend in coming here?
b. How many meters of wire are needed to fence the garden?
c. What number is 168 more than the product of 34 and 6925?
d. Eight boys were playing at the corridor. Five boys joined them. How many boys
were there?

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30. Which is the best way to present Manuels answer on the problem about showing the
percentages of his routinary activities in a day?
a. By means of a table c. By looking for a pattern
b. By means of a graph d. By guessing and checking
31. In which situation will the Demonstration Method most likely be the best method to use?
a. Yhe teacher wants to motivate the pupils
b. The lesson calls for the use of varied materials
c. The lesson calls for the use of dangerous materials
d. The pupils are noisy and busy with a pre-assigned task
32. Which is the best way to present Marks analysis on the numbers of sides, faces, and
vertices of spatial figues?
a. By means of the table c. By looking for a pattern
b. By means of a graph d. By guessing and checking
33. The newer and broader concept of method gives more emphasis on the why rather than
the how. This is relevant to the suggested response in teaching methodology. It implies
that
a. there is one single method
b. a typical one will b good for any subject
c. these methods should be standardized for different subject
d. teaching strategies should favor inquiry and problem solving
34. Which of the following questions involve the highest degree of critical thinking on the part
of the learners?
a. Why did the people join the rally?
b. What were the causes of the mass lay-off?
c. Did the president agree to the plan of the cabinet members?
d. What is the best alternative to lower the cost of gasoline?
35. Which of the following objectives is best measured using performance-based assessment?
a. Differentiates potential from kinetic energy
b. Describes how forests prevent soil erosion
c. Identifies some activities of human beings to meet their needs
d. Practices precautionary measures to avoid getting hurt from the suns heat and
light
36. Ms Ubia required her students to make a project for the different spatial figures to
measure the objective construct different spatial figures. Was the method of assessment
appropriate for such objective? Why?
a. No, because such requirement is impractical for the pupils
b. No, because the teacher can simply prepare an essay test
c. Yes, because such require matches with the given objective
d. Yes, because the project can be preserved to have ready instructional materials of
the topic for the next year
37. Which of the following is the main purpose of teaching Communication Arts?
a. To know language and consequently be able to use it effectively
b. To develop expertise in constructing grammatically correct sentences
c. To pronounce words as accurately as the native speakers of the language
d. To master the structure of the language
38. Which of the following BEST characterizes communicative competence?
a. accuracy and fluency in using language
b. appropriateness and effectiveness in the use of language
c. mastery and eloquence in language use
d. precise pronunciation and impressive vocabulary
39. Which of the following strategies could enable learners to see relationships among
concepts?
a. deduction c. problem-solving
b. visual organizer d. mastery teaching

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40. Which of the following theories hold that ones experiences play a significant role in
language development?
a. Psycholinguistics c. Sociolinguistics
b. Constructivism d. Metacognition
41. Mrs Tercero wants her Grade VI pupils to process ad remember information from a Social
Studies text. Which of the following strategies could help her pupils to understand the text
better, develop more confidence in themselves as well as in relating effectively with
others?
a. Lecture Method c. Cooperative Learning
b. Inductive Method d. Mastery Learning
42. Teacher Bel must explain important concepts to be understood by the students well. Which
of the following should she use?
a. Expository Method c. Laboratory Method
b. Inquiry Method d. Discovery Method
43. Which of the following methods would BEST make the learners familiar with the parts and
uses of a microscope?
a. Discovery c. Inductive Teaching
b. Expository Teaching d. Experimentation
44. Mr. De Vega presented examples and non-examples of omnivorous animals to his Grade II
class. What teaching strategy did he use?
a. discovery c. concept attainment
b. demonstration d. group investigation
45. Mrs Jimenez would like to know the quality of learning her students gained after discussing
the issues involved in the bombing of the World Trade Center last Sept 11,2001. Which
strategy will BEST serve her purpose?
a. Note taking c. SQ3R
b. KWL d. Learning Log
46. Which of the statements is TRUE in the selection of an appropriate instructional material
for a lesson?
a. Choose the most attractive and commercially available devices
b. Consider the maturity and developmental characteristics of the learners
c. Find out what materials are available in the school before deciding on the objectives
of the lesson
d. Select a technologically-advanced instructional material
47. In gauging students learning, which of the following types of assessment tools provide the
richest source of information about the learners?
a. Quizzes c. Portfolio
b. Recitation d. Practical Exam
48. Mr. Castillo is preparing a lecture on ways of conserving and preserving marine life in their
barangay. He would like to make his lecture more meaningful and understandable by using
some devices. What is the most important thing he should consider in the selection and
utilization of teaching aids and devices?
a. Availability of these devices.
b. Attractiveness of these devices.
c. Degree of interest that could be aroused in the students.
d. Goals to be achieved in the teaching-learning process.
49. Which activity uses Practical Work strategy?
a. The teacher lets his/her students manipulate multiple blocks and bars in developing
the concepts of place value.
b. The teacher lets his/her students do imagining in developing the concept of place
value.
c. The teacher lets his/her students do peer tutoring in developing the concept of the
place value.
d. The teacher lets his/her students manipulate numbers in developing the concept of
place value.

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50. Mrs. Olivarez wants her pupils to find out the number of complete circuits in a parallel
connection. What teaching strategy should she use?
a. discussion c. concept attainment
b. experimentation d. lecture-demonstration

1. B
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. D
11. D
12. C
13. C
14. D
15. C
16. A
17. A
18. B
19. A
20. A
21. B
22. B
23. D
24. A
25. A
26. A
27. D
28. D
29. D
30. B
31. C
32. A
33. D
34. D
35. D
36. C
37. A
38. B
39. B
40. B
41. C
42. A
43. B
44. C
45. D
46. B
47. C
48. D
49. A
50. B

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CONTENT COURSE (SCIENCE)

FOCUS: (I) Demonstrate understanding of the nature, principles, and processes underlying:
(A) Energy
1. Simple Machines
2. Electric Circuits
3. Electromagnetism
(B) Materials
1. States and Properties of Materials
2. Mixtures and Solutions
3. Physical and Chemical Changes
(C) Earth, Sun, and Moon
1. Earth and Moon Movement
2. Phases of the Moon, Eclipses, Tides
3. The Solar System
4. Stars and Constellations
(D) Animals and Plants
1. Classification/ Body Structure
2. Adaptation
3. Reproduction and Protection

(II) Relate ecology with relevant issues, concerns, and problems in the community/
society/ environment.

TEST ITEMS IN PHYSICS:

1. In physics, work is done


a. in pushing against the wall
b. in supporting an object on your shoulder
c. in preparing school lessons
d. in lifting an object from the floor to the table
2. The amount of potential energy possessed by an elevated object is equal to
a. the distance it is lifted c. the force needed to lift it
b. the power used to lift it d. the work done in lifting it
3. A job is done slowly and an identical job is done quickly. Both jobs require the same amount
of work but different amounts of
a. energy c. both energy and power
b. power d. none of them
4. Which of the following statements is true about an object thrown upward under the influence
of the earths gravity alone?
a. kinetic energy increases potential energy increases
b. kinetic energy decreases potential energy increases
c. kinetic energy increases potential energy decreases
d. kinetic energy decreases potential energy decreases
5. Which of the following statements is true regarding simple machines being used with the
presence of friction?
a. work input is always greater than work output
b. work input is always smaller than work output
c. work input is always equal to the work output
d. cannot be determined

6. What will happen to the energy of a system when work is done on it?
a. It will increase. c. It will decrease.
b. It stays the same. d. It is equal to zero.

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7. What will happen to the energy of a system when work is done by it?
a. It will increase. c. It will decrease.
b. It stays the same. d. It is equal to zero.
8. The soft splat produced upon the impact of the stone on the ground, indicates that some of
the energy of the stone was transformed into ___________.
a. kinetic energy c. mechanical energy
b. sound energy d. thermal energy
9. The power rating of machines indicates which of the following?
a. The amount of power dissipated per unit time.
b. The amount of energy consumed per unit time.
c. The total amount of work done by the machine.
d. The amount of fuel required to make the machine function.
10. Electrical energy is used to power a light bulb. How does the amount of electrical energy used
to compare to the amount of light energy produced?
a. less than the amount of light energy produced.
b. more than the amount of light energy produced.
c. the same as the amount of light energy produced
d. depends on the wattage produced by the light bulb
11. Which of the following forms of energy travels through empty space?
a. chemical energy c. sound energy
b. radiant energy d. all of them
12. Which energy changes takes place in a flashlight with batteries?
a. chemical electrical light C. light chemical electrical
b. electrical light chemical D. chemical light electrical
13. Which device can convert electrical energy to mechanical energy?
a. battery c. motor
b. generator d. photo voltaic cell
14. When we say that chemical reactions in the cell waste energy, we mean that:
a. energy is being destroyed.
b. pieces of chemicals are being broken.
c. chemical energy is being converted to heat energy which is lost.
d. cells use only the chemicals they need and get rid of all excess chemicals.
15. If you lift two loads up one story, how much work do you do compared to lifting one load up
one story?
a. twice as much c. the same amount
b. four times as much d. one half as much
16. Suppose a moving car has 2000 J of kinetic energy. If the cars speed doubles, how much
kinetic energy would it then have?
a. 8000 J c. 4000 J
b. 6000 J d. 2000 J
17. An arrow in a bow has 70 J of potential energy. Assuming no loss of energy due to heat, how
much kinetic energy will it have after it has been shot?
a. 140 J c. 50 J
b. 70 J d. 35 J
18. If you lift one load up two stories, how much work do you do compared to lifting one load up
only one story?
a. twice as much c. the same amount
b. four times as much d. one half as much

19. How many joules of work is done on an object when a force of 10 N pushes it 5 m?
a. 50 J c. 5 J
b. 10 J d. 2 J
20. How much power is required to do 100 J of work on an object in 2 seconds?
a. 200 W c. 50 W
b. 100 W d. 0

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21. The law of conservation of energy states that
a. there is no loss of energy when heat is converted to other forms
b. energy cannot be transformed to other forms
c. when heat is converted to other forms energy is lost
d. energy can be created and destroyed
22. How is energy converted in a television set?
a. from electrical to sound and light energies
b. from light energy to sound energy
c. from sound and light energies to electrical energy
d. from electrical energy to mechanical energy
23. What is the unit to express power?
a. Joule / s c. Watt /s
b. Joule / m d. Newton meter
24. A 2 kg book is held 1 m above the floor for 2 seconds. The work done on the book is
a. 10 J c. 980 J
b. 100 J d. 0
25. Cutting a piece of cloth using a pair of scissors shows how a kind of simple machine works.
Identify it.
a. first class lever c. third class lever
b. second class lever d. simple lever
26. Which of the following is not a simple machine/
a. wheel and axle c. pulley
b. screw d. sewing machine
27. Among the simple machines, which is identified as the one that brings two pieces together?
a. inclined plane c. pulley
b. screw d. wedge
28. Which among these simple machines work to change the direction of the force?
a. inclined plane c. screw
b. pulley d. wedge
29. A knife is an example of a (an)
a. inclined plane c. ramp
b. wedge d. pulley
30. The efficiency of a simple machine is
a. always less than 100% c. always 50%
b. equal to 100% d. always more than 100%
31. A construction worker wants to lift steel bars to the top of the building. What machine would
help him do the job efficiently?
a. escalator c. fixed pulley
b. elevator d. block and tackle pulley
32. Which type of lever is a wheelbarrow?
a. first class lever c. third class lever
b. second class lever d. simple lever
33. If a large force is exerted on an object, no work is done if
a. the object moves c. the object does not move
b. the power is too large d. there is no friction
34. Machine multiple
a. work c. energy
b. power d. force
35. The resistance force divide by the effort force is called
a. work c. mechanical advantage
b. power d. efficiency
36. The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is found by dividing the length of the plane by
its
a. effort force c. effort distance
b. resistance force d. height

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37. A block and tackle pulley has a mechanical advantage
a. greater than one c. equal to one
b. less than one d. equal to zero
38. An example of a compound machine would be a
a. school bus c. pliers
b. crowbar d. ramp
39. Energy is the ability to do
a. motion c. work
b. power d. acceleration
40. The suns energy source is
a. mechanical energy c. electromagnetic energy
b. chemical energy d. nuclear energy
41. Gravitational potential energy is dependent on
a. speed and height c. time and weight
b. weight and height d. acceleration and kinetic energy
42. The energy conversions involved in heat engines are
a. electromagnetic mechanical thermal
b. chemical electromagnetic thermal
c. chemical thermal mechanical
d. mechanical chemical thermal
43. A stretched rubber band has
a. kinetic energy c. electromagnetic energy
b. elastic potential energy d. nuclear energy
44. If a material becomes positively charged after being rubbed, what does it indicate?
a. it gains protons c. it gains electrons
b. it loses protons d. it loses electrons
45. If you comb your hair and the comb becomes negatively charged, your hair becomes
a. positively charged c. neutral
b. negatively charged d. cannot be determined
46. Electric charges A and B are attracted to each other. Electric charges B and C repel each other.
If A and C are held close together, they will
a. attract c. not affect each other
b. repel d. cannot be determined
47. The difference between electrical forces and gravitational forces is that electrical forces include
a. attractive interactions c. repulsive interactions
b. the inverse square law d. all of them
48. Which of the following is the SI unit of charge?
a. ampere c. farad
b. tesla d. coulomb
49. What law states that the force of electrostatic interaction between two point charges is directly
proportional to the product of their charges and is inversely proportional to the square of their
separation distance?
a. Ohms Law c. Faradays Law
b. Coulombs Law d. Amperes Law
50. When one light bulb in a parallel circuit containing several light bulbs burns out
a. the other bulbs burn brighter
b. none of the other light bulbs will light up
c. the other light bulb burn dimmer
d. nothing changes in the rest of the circuit
51. A rod with unknown charge attracts a plastic ball. Which of the following statements may
describe them?
a. the rod is positive and the ball is negative
b. the rod is negative and the ball is positive
c. the rod is charged and the ball is neutral
d. all of the above

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52. Which type of force is responsible in binding atoms together to form molecules?
a. electrical force c. nuclear force
b. magnetic force d. gravitational force
53. Which of the following devices does not use an electromagnet?
a. electric bell c. household light bulb
b. telephone d. none of them
54. The charge of body A is half as much as body B. Compared to the force on body B, the force
on body A is
a. half as much c. four times as much
b. twice as much d. the same
55. Electric energy is measured in
a. ohms c. watts
b. kilowatt hours d. volts
56. Circuit breakers and fuses protect a circuit from becoming
a. discharged c. overloaded
b. insulated d. grounded
57. There are different paths for an electric current to take in a (an)
a. series circuit c. open circuit
b. parallel circuit d. closed circuit
58. Electricity cannot flow through which of the following?
a. series circuit c. open circuit
b. parallel circuit d. closed circuit
59. When electrons move back and forth reversing their direction regularly, the current is called
a. direct current c. leakage current
b. alternating current d. eddy current
60. On which pair of particles would a force of repulsion occur?
a. proton neutron c. proton electron
b. electron electron d. neutron neutron
61. In a magnet, magnetic forces are strongest
a. at the center c. around the edges
b. at the poles d. in the magnetic field
62. Which of the following is not a magnetic material?
a. lodestone c. cobalt
b. glass d. nickel

63. The particle responsible for an atoms magnetic properties is the


a. electron c. proton
b. neutron d. nucleus
64. Which of the following will make a magnet lose its magnetic properties?
a. stroking the magnet
b. dropping the magnet
c. hanging the magnet from a string
d. cutting the magnet
65. The purpose of a generator is to
a. convert mechanical energy into electric energy
b. convert electric energy into mechanical energy
c. use magnetism to do work
d. measure electric current
66. Which of the following are the major parts of a complete electric circuit?
a. battery, wires, switch, and capacitor
b. battery, wires, switch, and bulb
c. switch, wires, capacitor, and bulb
d. battery, switch, capacitor, and bulb
67. Most fires occur during summer months. The month of March is known as the fire prevention
month. Among the following, which can help prevent fire by blocking the path of electricity?

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a. switch c. capacitor
b. resistor d. fuse
68. Rubbing an inflated balloon on your hair can make the balloon stick to a wall. This happens in
a low humidity environment. What charging process in involved?
a. charging by friction c. charging by induction
b. charging by contact d. charging by polarization
69. If you suspend a bar magnet by a string from its center, the magnet will
a. swing around until it stops in some random position
b. line up with the earths gravitational field
c. line up with the earths magnetic field
d. oscillate back and forth around the earths magnetic field
70. If the north pole of one magnet is brought near the south pole of another magnet, the poles
will
a. attract each other
b. repels each other
c. attract and then repel each other
d. not interact with each other at all
71. Which of the following would not give you an electric shock?
a. hitting power lines with a kite
b. sticking fork into an electrical outlet
c. staying away from the power lines
d. dropping a radio into a bathtub
72. Which of the following would be the best conductor of electricity?
a. air c. space
b. glass d. saltwater
73. Why are people with heart trouble often shocked with electricity?
a. It startles them, much like during hiccups.
b. There is low on electric current, and they need a boost.
c. A powerful charge is required to overcome the resistance of the muscles.
d. Electric shock briefly stops the heart, allowing the muscles to regain rhythm.
74. How does a basic switch work?
a. The switch changes polarity, which determines the currents direction.
b. The switch closes the circuit, which turns off the current.
c. The switch opens the circuit, allowing the current to flow.
d. Two conductors move together and apart to control the currents flow.
75. Which of the following is not an example of static electricity at work?
a. Getting a shock across a rug on a dry day.
b. Toner in a photocopier being attracted to paper.
c. A magnet picking up iron fillings.
d. A bolt of lightning striking thee earth.
76. A compass is used to determine direction geographically. The needle deflects in response to
a. earths geographic pattern c. earths electric field
b. earths magnetic field d. earths gravitational field
77. Which of the following will be able to create an electromagnet?
a. nail, wire, switch c. nail, wire, battery
b. nail, wire, magnet d. nail, switch, battery
78. Magnetic field strength is
a. strongest close to a magnet
b. strongest from a magnet
c. constant everywhere around the magnet
d. is zero.
79. Permanent magnets can be made by
a. stroking material containing iron with a magnet
b. placing a piece of iron in a strong magnetic field such as in a solenoid
c. both of them

12
d. none of them
80. The reason a magnet can attract unmagnetized nail is that
a. nails become permanently magnetized in a magnetic field
b. nails become temporarily magnetized in a magnetic field
c. nails really are magnetized
d. a magnet cant attract anything that isnt also magnetized
81. When current passes through a wire, a magnetic field is created around the wire only if
a. the wire is absolutely straight
b. the wire is curved in a loop
c. the current makes a complete loop
d. Nonsense! A magnetic field is always created around the wire.
82. Magnetic field lines surrounding a magnet are conventionally drawn ______________.
a. from north to south
b. from south to north
c. either way
d. from edge to edge of the magnet
83. An iron rod becomes magnetic when
a. positive ions gather at one end and negative ions at the other end
b. positive charges line up on one side and negative charges on the other side
c. the net spins of its electrons point in the same direction
d. its electrons stop moving and point in the same directions
84. Which compose the nucleus of almost all atoms?
a. only protons c. protons and neutrons
b. only neutrons d. neutrons and electrons
85. Electric charges between charges are strongest when the charges are
a. far apart
b. close together
c. the electrical force is constant everywhere
d. there is not enough information
86. To be safe in the unlikely case of a lightning strike, it is best to be inside a building that is
framed with
a. steel c. either building will just be safe
b. wood d. neither building will be safe
87. Two charges separated by a distance of 1 m exert a 1 N force on each other. If the charges
are pulled to a separation of 2 m, what will be the force on each charge?
a. 0.25 N c. 2 N
b. 0.5 N d. 4 N
88. Two charged particles held close to each other are released. As they move, the force on each
particle increases. Therefore, the particles have __________.
a. the same sign
b. the opposite signs
c. are not really charged
d. there is not enough information given.
89. An electroscope is charged positively, as shown by foil leaves that stand apart. As a negative
charge is brought close to the electroscope, what happens to the leaves of the electroscope?
a. the leaves do not move c. the leaves move closer together
b. the leaves move further apart d. none of the above
90. Two charges separated by a distance of 1 m exert a 1 N force on each other. If the charges
are pushed to a separation of m, what will be the force on each charge?
a. 1 N c. 8 N
b. 4 N d. 16 N
91. A student plans to make a light bulb glow. All of the following objects can be used to complete
the circuit except
a. a copper coin
b. a plastic strip

13
c. a metal hairclip
d. a container filled with saltwater
92. Which among the following is a characteristic of a series connection?
a. the current flowing through each load varies
b. there is only one current through each load
c. there is a common potential drop across all the loads
d. the sum of the resistance is lesser than the total resistance of the circuit
93. Which of the following best describes a parallel connection?
a. has a common potential drop across all the loads
b. has one current through each load
c. has different potential drops across the loads
d. has a total resistance equal to the sum of the individual resistance
94. Several pins dangle from the south pole of a magnet. What is the induced pole in the bottom
of the lowermost paper clip?
a. North pole c. North or South pole
b. South pole d. cannot be determined

95. The force between two charged particles is F. What happens to this force if the charge of the
particles is doubled?
a. 4F c. F/2
b. 2F d. F/4
96. What happens to the force between electrons if their separation distance is halved?
a. doubled c. halved
b. quadrupled d. quartered
97. Which statement is true about a negatively charged object?
a. It contains more electrons than protons.
b. It contains more protons than electrons.
c. It contains equal number of protons and electrons.
d. It contains more negatively charged molecules than positively charged ones.
98. Which of the following is true about a magnet that is broken into two pieces?
a. Both pieces are as magnetic as the original magnet.
b. Both magnets are stronger than the original magnet.
c. Both magnets will have a north pole and a south pole.
d. One of the pieces is a north pole and the other is a south pole.
99. What is the difference between a fuse and a circuit breaker?
a. A fuse is cheaper than a circuit breaker.
b. A fuse is connected in parallel while a circuit breaker is connected in series.
c. A fuse protects a parallel circuit while a circuit breaker protects a series circuit.
d. A fuse needs to be replaced once used and a circuit breaker maybe used more than once.
100. Which statement is true about a positively charged object?
a. It contains more electrons than protons.
b. It contains more protons than electrons.
c. It contains equal number of protons and electrons.
d. It contains more positively charged molecules than negatively charged ones.

1. D
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. B
9. B
10. B

14
11. B
12. A
13. C
14. C
15. A
16. A
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. C
21. A
22. A
23. A
24. D
25. A
26. D
27. B
28. B
29. B
30. A
31. D
32. B
33. C
34. D
35. C
36. D
37. A
38. A
39. C
40. D
41. B
42. C
43. B
44. A
45.
46. A
47. C
48. D
49. B
50. D
51. D
52. A
53. C
54. D
55. B
56. C
57. B
58. C
59. B
60. B
61. B
62. B
63. A
64. B
65. A

15
66. B
67. D
68. A
69. C
70. A
71. C
72. D
73. D
74. D
75. C
76. C
77. C
78. A
79. C
80. B
81. D
82. A
83. C
84. C
85. B
86. A
87. A
88. B
89. C
90. D
91. B
92. B
93. A
94. B
95. A
96. B
97. A
98. A
99. D
100. B

TEST ITEMS IN CHEMISTRY:

1. Which of the following is not a physical property?


a. the ductility of a metal c. the hardness of a metal
b. the freezing point of a liquid d. the corrosiveness of an acid
2. Which statement describes a chemical property?
a. Hemoglobin molecules have red color
b. Water boils below 1000C on top of a mountain
c. Fertilizers help increase the agricultural production
d. When ice cubes are left on the table, it gradually melts.
3. Which is an example of a chemical change
a. boiling of water c. souring of milk
b. melting of butter d. dissolving salt in water
4. Which is an example of a physical change?
a. rusting of iron c. ripening of mango
b. lighting a matchstick d. dissolving sugar in water
5. How will you distinguish between an acid and a base?
a. test with litmus paper b. compare their boiling point

16
c. compare their density d. test for the solubility of water
6. Which of the following is an example of an intensive property?
a. density c. volume
b. mass d. length
7. What do you call a mixture that scatters light passing through it?
a. solution c. suspension
b. colloid d. all of them
8. Some cough syrups are shaken first before they are used. What characterizes these
products?
a. solution c. suspension
b. colloid d. mixture
9. Louise wanted to know the nature of carbonated drink. She used a blue litmus paper. She
observed that it turned red after ten seconds. What type of compound is it?
a. acid c. salt
b. base d. any of them
10. When a candle is lighted, it melts. The wax then vaporizes. Finally, it burns. Which is the
correct order of changes that took place?
a. chemical, physical, physical c. physical, physical, chemical
b. physical, chemical, chemical d. chemical, chemical, chemical
11. A solid was heated, and decomposed into black solid and white smoke. What is the solid
that was heated?
a. metal c. mixture
b. element d. compound
12. The common name of hydrochloric acid is muriatic acid. What is the chemical name for
baking soda?
a. sodium bicarbonate c. sodium hydroxide
b. sodium carbonate d. calcium carbonate
13. Colloids maybe dispersed in a gas, liquid, or solid. Which of the following colloidal systems
show a liquid dispersed in a gas medium?
a. clouds c. paint
b. smoke d. beaten egg white
14. Which of the following acid groups is found in vinegar?
a. nitric acid c. sulfuric acid
b. acetic acid d. ascorbic acid
15. How do solutions differ from compounds?
a. solutions are heterogeneous mixtures; compounds are homogeneous.
b. solutions vary in composition; compounds have definite composition
c. solutions have definite composition; compounds vary in composition
d. solutions are formed in chem. reactions; compounds combine physically
16. Which of the following statements about boiling is true?
a. The normal boiling point of water is 1000C
b. Water boils when vapor pressure becomes equal to atmospheric pressure
c. The boiling temperature increases as the atmospheric pressure increases.
d. All of the above.
17. Which of the following is an endothermic process?
a. condensing of steam c. subliming of mothballs
b. freezing of water d. all of them
18. The spoilage of meat is delayed when kept in the refrigerator because the cold
temperature
a. keeps the flies insects away C. slows down the action of bacteria
b. changes the color and odor of meat D. turns the water component to ice
19. When a solution of an acid and a base are mixed together,
a. a salt and water are formed
b. they lose their acid and base properties
c. both are neutralized

17
d. all of the above are correct
20. Whicx of the following will conduct an electric current?
a. pure water
b. a water solution of a covalent compound
c. a water solution of an ionic compound
d. none of the above
21. A yellowish solution extracted from a leaf has a pH of 8. How would you describe the
solution extract?
a. acidic b. basic c. saturated d. supersaturated
22. You want to add exactly 35.00 g of salt to a solution. What instrument must you use to
measure this amount?
a. beaker c. thermometer
b. graduated cylinder d. triple beam balance
23. The following describe chemical change except
a. A chemical change takes place when a solid is changed to liquid then changed to gas
b. For a chemical change to take place, heat, light, or electricity is either needed or given
off.
c. Some examples of chemical change are souring of milk, ripening of fruit, and digestion
of food.
d. In a chemical change, a new substance is formed, with chemical properties that are
different from, the original substance.
24. The constant temperature at which solid is changed in its liquid form
a. melting point c. dew point
b. boiling point d. all of them
25. Urine has a density of 1.02 g/mL. What is the volume of 25 g of urine?
a. 24.5 mL c. 0.04 mL
b. 25.5 mL d. 25.0 mL
26. Which of the following statements best describes a liquid?
a. It has definite shape
b. It has definite volume
c. It expands to fill its container
d. Its particles are tightly packed with each other
27. Copper is used for electrical wires because it is ductile. Which of the following describes
ductility of metals?
a. the softness of metals
b. can be drawn into fine wires
c. the hardness of metals
d. can be hammered forming this sheets
28. What is the process of changing solid to gas without passing the liquid state?
a. condensation c. sublimation
b. evaporation d. freezing
29. Why are burns caused by steam more damaging than the one caused by boiling water?
a. Water has a higher temperature
b. Steam is a vapor of water molecules
c. Steam has more energy per kilogram
d. Steam is easily formed than boiling water
30. What happens when vapor condenses into a liquid?
a. it absorbs heat c. its temperature increases
b. it releases heat d. its temperature decreases
31. Which of the following best describes a nonmetal?
a. they are ductile and malleable c. they have high tensile strength
b. they are good insulators d. they are hard and brittle
32. Which is an example of a heterogeneous mixture?
a. distilled water c. Agua oxinada
b. rubbing alcohol d. concrete

18
33. Which of the following phase changes are exothermic?
a. sublimation and melting c. evaporation and condensation
b. condensation and freezing d. evaporation and deposition
34. Which grouping is composed of pure substances only?
a. fog, dew, brine c. dew, dry ice, vinegar
b. ice, dry ice, table sugar d. ice, table salt, fog
35. Which of the following best describes a mixture?
a. It is homogeneous
b. It has a definite composition
c. It changes the colors of common indicators
d. Its components are combined in any proportion
36. The state of matter that is characterized by strong attractive forces.
a. solid c. gas
b. liquid d. plasma
37. The components of ink can best be separated using
a. evaporation c. centrifugation
b. filtration d. chromatography
38. All of the following are chemical properties except
a. toxicity c. solubility
b. corrosiveness d. flammability
39. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Light has mass c. Air has volume
b. Heat occupies space d. Sound has both mass and volume
40. Which of the following is an extensive physical property?
a. mass c. color
b. density d. boiling point
41. When a pure crystalline yellowish substance is heated in vacuum, a greenish gas and a
red powdery substance were produced. In which of the following will you classify the
yellowish substance?
a. element c. mixture
b. compound d. pure substance
42. Large quantities of calcium carbonate are dumped into polluted lakes to fight the effect of
acid rain. It is inferred from this action that calcium carbonate is a/an__________.
a. acid c. base
b. neutral substance d. powdered substance
43. A student reaches one hand into a magnetic box filled with smooth objects. The student
feels the object but does not look into the bag. Which property of the objects can the
students most likely identify?
a. shape c. ability to reflect light
b. color d. ability to conduct electricity
44. Many people confuse mass with volume. Which of the statements below will illustrate the
relationship between mass and volume?
a. Objects with large mass always have large volume
b. Mass and volume are both measured in kilograms
c. Volume is a measure of space; mass is a measure of the actual amount of matter in a
body
d. Objects with greater mass ahs greater inertia and hence will have greater volume
45. Pollutants like cellophanes and plastic cups are classifies as
a. toxic c. non biodegradable
b. biodegradable d. organic materials
46. An aerosol can of deodorant contains liquefied gas under pressure. The aerosol can is a
hollow solid. What are the properties of the can?
a. It has a definite volume and flow easily.
b. It is easily compressed and has a high density.
c. It has a definite shape and difficult to compress.

19
d. It takes the shape of the container and is easily compressed.
47. Maria accidentally mixed walnuts, potato chips, and orange juice. What are the techniques
than can be applied to separate them?
a. sieving
b. filtering
c. applying magnet, evaporation
d. decanting, picking
48. Some students were studying properties of water. One student placed a cup containing 90
mL of water in a freezer. Another student placed an identical cup containing 40 mL of
water in a different freezer. Which of the following will be the same for both cups of
water?
a. the temperature at which water freezes
b. the time it takes the water to freeze
c. the volume of the frozen water
d. mass of the frozen water
49. On a hot summer day, water from the lake evaporates. Which of the following occurs
during evaporation?
a. Molecules escape from the liquid bulk.
b. Water molecules escape from the liquid surface.
c. Steam and oxygen escape from the water in the lake.
d. Hydrogen and oxygen escape from the liquid surface.
50. A teaspoon of dry sand is added to a cup of warm saltwater. What is most likely to happen
after the mixture is stirred and then placed on a table for five minutes.
a. The cup will heat up. c. The sand will settle to the bottom.
b. The salt will float to the top. d. The amount of water will increase.
51. The following are biodegradable materials except
a. paper c. wood
b. plastics d. dry leaves
52. A student heated a solid sample. She saw a red glow spread through the sample. At the
end of the experiment, a black solid had been formed. Which statement about the black
solid is true?
a. It is a separation of mixture.
b. It is a product of an element.
c. It is an evidence of the formation of a compound.
d. It is an indication that a physical change has occurred.
53. A student has a ball of clay that sinks when placed in a pan of water. Which property
should he change to make the clay float?
a. color c. mass
b. texture d. shape
54. Elena buried some things in wet ground. Several years later, they were dug up. Which is
most likely to have stayed the same?
a. an old book c. a banana peel
b. an egg shell d. a plastic container
55. Which of these should the students avoid while doing this activity?

SCIENCE ACTIVITY

Some students mixed a spoonful of vinegar


with a small amount of baking soda in a bowl. They
wrote a description of what they observed.
a. using a metal teaspoon c. stirring the vinegar
b. using a plastic bowl d. tasting the mixture
56. When a glass jar is placed over a lighted candle, the flame goes out. What is the best
explanation of this phenomenon?

20
a. The oxygen needed for burning is used up.
b. The temperature of the glass gets too high.
c. Carbon dioxide is accumulated in the glass.
d. The glass jar causes coldness near the candle area.
57. Which of the following substances are elements?
a. hydrochloric acid and carbonic acid
b. carbon dioxide and water
c. oxygen and helium
d. water and oxygen
58. Which of the following is true about the information that can be found on a carton of a
fruit juice?
a. Orange juice turns all the vitamins into vitamin C.
b. Orange juice provides vitamin C to the body.
c. Orange juice removes vitamin C from the body.
d. Orange juice causes the body to need vitamin C.
59. A copper wire with a wooden handle is being held in a flame. Which of the following
elements is true?
a. flame is matter c. light occupies space
b. the heat has mass d. the flame has no mass
60. Which properties of copper make it ideal for pans?
a. It is shiny, light for its size, and does not corrode.
b. It is easily deformed and resists heat change.
c. It is a good heat conductor and does not rust.
d. It is hard, strong, cheap, and it does not rust.
61. Which of the following physical quantities has the correct measuring device and the
corresponding unit?
PHYSICAL QUANTITY UNIT INSTRUMENT
A height of a door gram tape measure
B weight of an orange meter meterstick
C width of a washing machine meter weighing scale
D capacity of a bucket of water liter graduated cylinder

62. People crave for ice cream especially during the summer. What happen s to ice cream
molecules as the ice cream melts?
a. release heat and move farther apart
b. absorb heat and move farther apart
c. absorb heat and move closer together
d. release heat and move closer together
63. Matter is usually defined as anything that
a. has a consistent weight unless subdivided
b. has a specific volume, but in any shape or size
c. occupies space and emits energy in the form of visible light
d. occupies space and has mass
64. One of the physical properties of a metal, compared to a non metal, is that the metal is
malleable. This means you can
a. see you reflection in it
b. use it to conduct electricity
c. pound it into thin sheet
d. pull it into a wire that will conduct electricity
65. A sample of matter has an indefinite shape and takes the shape of its container. This
sample must be in which phase?
a. gas c. wither gaseous or liquid
b. liquid d. solid
66. A sample of salt and water solution is homogeneous throughout. Is this sample a mixture
or a pure substance?
21
a. a pure substance, since it is the same throughout
b. a mixture, because it can have a variable composition
c. a pure substance, because it has a definite composition
d. a mixture, because it has fixed, definite composition
67. A pure substance that cannot be decomposed by chemical change into simple substances
with a fixed mass ratio is called a (an)
a. element c. mixture
b. compound d. isotope
68. A pure substance that can be decomposed by chemical change into simple substances
with a fixed mass ratio is called a (an)
a. element c. mixture
b. compound d. isotope
69. Which of the following is not a solution?
a. seawater c. sand
b. carbonated water d. brass
70. Atmospheric air is a homogenous mixture of gases that is mostly nitrogen gas. The
nitrogen is therefore (the)
a. solvent c. solution
b. solute d. any of them
71. A homogeneous mixture is made up of 95 percent alcohol and 5 percent water. In this
case, the water is (the)
a. solvent c. solution
b. solute d. any of them
72. Matter that consists of two or more substances mixed together but not chemically
combined is called a (an)
a. element c. pure substance
b. compound d. mixture

73. The simplest type of pure substance is a (an)


a. compound c. element
b. alloy d. solution
74. The basic building block of matter is the
a. molecule c. element
b. atom d. compound
75. Pure substances made or more than one element are called
a. compounds c. alloys
b. mixtures d. solutions
76. Density is calculated by dividing mass with volume. Both mass and volume are physical,
extensive properties. Thus, density is an example of
a. chemical, extensive property c. physical, intensive property
b. physical, extensive property d. chemical, intensive property
77. Which of the following mixtures can best be separated by using a magnet?
a. pulverized charcoal and iron fillings
b. green and yellow mango seeds
c. sugar and salt
d. iron nails in a salt solution
78. Jessie added one tablespoon of sugar in a mixture of instant coffee and hot water. The
resulting solution tastes sweet. Which characteristic of mixtures is best illustrated in the
situation?
a. The components can be mixed in any proportion.
b. The mixture may be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
c. The characteristics of the components are retained in the mixture.
d. The components of the mixture may be separated by ordinary physical means.
79. Your chemistry teacher asked you to prepare a heterogeneous mixture. Which of these
materials will you be using?

22
(1) sand (2) water (3) iodized salt (4) sugar (5) ethanol
a. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2, 4, and 5
b. 2, 3, and 4 d. 2, 3, and 5
80. Tungsten: pure substance while _________: mixture.
a. sugar c. iron
b. steel d. acetic acid
81. Carbon, titanium, and gold are examples of elements. Which of the following best
describes an element?
a. Element is the simplest form of matter.
b. Element can be broken down into simpler substances.
c. Element can be classified as homogeneous and heterogeneous.
d. Element is inert since they are commonly found free in nature.
82. An odorless, colorless Liquid A boils at a temperature range of 105 1100C. What
inference can you draw based from this observation?
a. Liquid A is a mixture. c. Liquid A is an element.
b. Liquid A is a compound. d. Liquid A is a pure substance
83. Filtration is best used in separating mixtures that are composed of
a. two miscible liquids c. two miscible solids
b. a soluble solid in a liquid d. an insoluble solid in a liquid
84. Why is it not advisable to drink soft drinks when one is hungry?
a. It could lessen ones appetite.
b. It increases the acidity of the stomach.
c. it is a practice that has to be followed.
d. It contains a stimulant, which causes nausea.
85. A tire has a volume of 300 cm3. Francis pumped 200 mL of air into the tire while Steven
managed to pump another 200 mL. What will then be the volume of the air in the tire?
a. 100 mL c. 300 mL
b. 200 mL d. 400 mL
86. 10.0 g of salt is dissolved in 100. g of water. The solution is left under the sun for 3 days.
After three days, the mass of the solution is just 50.0 g. How many grams of salt are
there in the 50 g solution?
a. 5.0 g c. 10.0 g
b. 7.5 g d. cannot be determined
87. If you will be asked to prepare a homogeneous mixture, which of the following materials
below will you use?
(1) ethanol (2) oil (3) water (4) butter
a. 1 & 2 c. 3 & 4
b. 2 & 3 d. 1 & 3
88. Group IB are referred to as the coinage metals since these metals (copper, gold, silver)
are used for many centuries to make coins and jewelries too. All of the following are
characteristics of the metals except
a. Metals are malleable and ductile.
b. Metals are good insulators.
c. Metals have high tensile strength.
d. Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity.
89. All of the following are organic compounds except
a. Calcium carbonate c. Acetone
b. Ethyl alcohol d. Methane
90. Halo halo: heterogeneous while _________: homogeneous.
a. fog c. mayonnaise
b. marshmallow d. vinegar
91. Which of the following best describes pure substances?
a. It has a definite composition.
b. It may be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
c. It changes the color of common indicators.

23
d. Its components can be separated by chemical means.
92. Which sample of matter does not undergo melting?
a. ice c. butter
b. ice cream d. mothballs
93. All of the following are inorganic compounds except
a. butane c. carbon dioxide
b. hydrazine d. calcium carbonate
94. Two beakers contain boiling water. Beaker A has a volume of 150 mL while beaker B has a
volume of 600 mL. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Both beakers are at equal temperatures.
b. Both beakers have the same thermal energy.
c. Beaker A has more thermal energy than beaker B.
d. Beaker A has a higher temperature than beaker B.
95. Isotopes are atoms that have the same atomic number but different mass numbers. It
means also that isotopes are atoms that have
a. the same number of electrons but different number of protons
b. the same number of neutrons but different number of electrons
c. the same number of protons but different number of neutrons
d. the same number of protons but different number of electrons
96. Chemistry involves the study of matter. This can be explained by the following statement
except
a. Chemistry is about the properties of matter.
b. Chemistry is about the study of forces and energy.
c. Chemistry is about what things or objects are made of.
d. Chemistry is about finding ways of changing matter to useful products.
97. Which does not belong to the group?
a. Sodium c. Lead
b. Copper d. Oxygen
98. Solutions and suspensions
a. are both examples of heterogeneous mixtures
b. are both examples of homogeneous mixtures
c. can be separated into separate components by physical means
d. both b and c
99. Which phase of matter is characterized by low average kinetic energy of the particles?
a. solid c. gas
b. liquid d. plasma
100. Which of the following is not a pure substance?
a. blood c. water
b. iron d. oxygen

1. B
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. A
14. B
15. B

24
16. D
17. C
18. C
19. D
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. C
30.
31. B
32. D
33. B
34. B
35. D
36. A
37. D
38. C
39. C
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. A
44. C
45. C
46. C
47. D
48. A
49. B
50.
51. B
52. C
53. D
54. D
55. D
56. A
57. C
58. B
59. A
60. C
61. D
62. B
63. D
64. C
65. C
66. B
67. A
68. B
69. C
70. A

25
71. B
72. D
73. C
74. C
75. A
76. C
77. A
78. C
79. A
80. B
81. A
82. A
83. D
84. B
85. C
86. C
87. D
88. B
89. A
90. D
91. A
92. D
93. A
94.
95. C
96. B
97. D
98. C
99. A
100. A

TEST ITEMS IN EARTH SCIENCE

1. In majority of stars, the most common element is


a. helium c. argon
b. hydrogen d. oxygen

2. The color of the hottest star is


a. orange c. yellow
b. red d. blue
3. Black holes are difficult to locate because they
a. move very quickly
b. have very low gravity
c. do not give off light
d. are far away from any stars
4. What do you call the point in the orbit of a planet where it is farthest from the sun?
a. apogee c. aphelion
b. perigee d. perihelion
5. What is the hottest planet in the solar system?
a. Mercury c. Earth
b. Venus d. Mars
6. What is the biggest natural satellite in the Solar System?
a. Ganymede c. Europa
b. Callisto d. Io
7. The type of galaxy to which our own galaxy belongs is called a(n)

26
a. spiral galaxy c. irregular galaxy
b. elliptical galaxy d. barred galaxy
8. On which planet can the greatest volcano in the Solar System be found?
a. Saturn b. Jupiter c. Mars d. Uranus
9. What planet is known for its top like motion?
a. Jupiter c. Uranus
b. Saturn d. Neptune
10. A lunar eclipse can happen only when the moons phase is
a. new c. gibbous
b. full d. crescent
11. The name for a chunk of rock, as it travels from space to the earths surface
a. meteoroid,meteor, meteorite
b. meteoroid,meteorite, meteor
c. meteor,meteoroid, meteorite
d. meteor,meteorite, meteoroid
12. Where can the asteroid belt be found?
a. between Earth and Mars
b. between Jupiter and Saturn
c. between Mars and Jupiter
d. between Venus and Earth
13. Viewed from earth, what is the brightest star in the evening sky?
a. Sirius c. Proxima Centauri
b. Betelgeuse d. Rigel
14. What do you call the slow movement of the earths axis with a period of 26,000
years?
a. rotation c. precession
b. revolution d. none of the them
15. Which of the following conditions regarding the positions of the earth, moon and the
sun could possibly result to a solar eclipse?
a. the sun is between the earth and the moon
b. the moon is between the sun and the earth
c. the earth is between the sun and the moon
d. the earth, moon, and sun are at right angles to each other
16. Mars is a planet named after the Roman god of war Ares. What are the two natural
satellites of Mars?
a. Phobos and Deimos c. Ganymede and Callisto
b. Titan and Triton d. Europa and Io
17. The planet named after the Roman goddess of beauty. It is also known as the
morning and the evening star although it is not a star.
a. Mercury c. Mars
b. Venus d. Jupiter
18. A moon that rotates in an opposite direction from its planets rotation
a. Ganymede c. Triton
b. Titan d. Europa
19. In which group are the parts listed from the oldest to the youngest?
a. solar system, Milky Way galaxy, universe
b. Milky Way galaxy, solar system, universe
c. universe, solar system, Milky Way galaxy
d. universe, Milky Way galaxy, solar system
20. Which three planets are known as terrestrial planets because of their high density
and rocky composition?
a. Mercury, Venus, Mars
b. Jupiter, Saturn Uranus
c. Venus, Neptune, and Pluto
d. Uranus, Neptune, Pluto

27
21. How long does it take the moon to go through all of its phases?
a. 24 hours c. 29 days
b. 27 1/3 days d. 1 year
22. Which of the following describes the umbra?
a. darker than the penumbra
b. the same as the penumbra
c. lighter than the penumbra
d. none of them
23. If a solar eclipse occurred 2 weeks ago, what would be the phase of the moon
today?
a. first quarter c. last quarter
b. full d. new
24. When does a lunar eclipse occur?
a. when the moon moves into its own umbra
b. when the moon moves into the suns umbra
c. when the moon moves into the earths umbra
d. none of the above
25. The time it takes the moon to rotate along its axis once is
a. 24 hours c. 29 days
b. 27 1/3 days d. 1 year
26. If Venus is the twin sister of the Earth, which planet is considered the twin of
Neptune?
a. Jupiter c. Saturn
b. Pluto d. Uranus
27. The time it takes for the precession of the earths axis to complete one turn is
a. 1 year c. 1000 years
b. 100 years d. 26000 years
28. What is Saturns largest satellite called?
a. Titan c. Triton
b. Rhea d. Callisto
29. Which of the following statements is true?
a. water gives Neptune its blue cloud color
b. helium gives Neptune its blue cloud color
c. methane gives Neptune its blue cloud color
d. butane gives Neptune its blue cloud color
30. The thermonuclear fusion that takes place within the interior of the earth involving
the nuclei of atoms fusing together is due to
a. extremely high pressure
b. pressure of radioactive materials
c. explosion occurring within the sun
d. extremely high temperatures and extremely high pressures
31. On the moon, smooth lowland areas are called
a. maria c. highlands
b. rilles d. craters
32. A common feature of a giant planet is
a. no atmosphere c. one or no moon
d. slow rotation
b. a thick atmosphere
33. What do you call the earths motion around the sun?
a. rotation c. precession
b. revolution d. none of these

34. When the moon is between the earth and the sun, what kind of eclipse occurs?
a. solar eclipse c. partial eclipse
b. lunar eclipse d. none of them

28
35. The measure of the stars brightness is called its
a. intensity c. color index
b. parallax d. magnitude
36. Which of the objects listed below is the largest in size?
a. stars c. planets
b. nebula d. galaxies
37. Compared to the earths gravity, the moons gravity is
a. as much c. 1/3 as much
b. as much d. 1/6 as much
38. Which of the following terms means Earth centered?
a. heliocentric c. both of them
b. geocentric d. none of them
39. Compared to the other stars, the sun is
a. small c. medium sized
b. large d. incomparable
40. The phases of the moon depend on the position of the
a. moon only c. earth and moon only
d. earth, moon, and sun
b. earth only

41. The planets in the solar system


a. can support human life
b. revolve around the sun
c. have the same surface temperature
d. are exactly the same size
42. The universe is believed to be composed of units called galaxies. Galaxies appear
very bright because they are composed of billions of luminous bodies. Which of these
are considered luminous bodies that make up a galaxy?
a. nova c. satellites
b. planets d. stars
43. Which among these tools first invented in 1500 which until now are used for viewing
distant objects?
a. kaleidoscope c. spectroscope
b. microscope d. telescope
44. The star Alpha Centauri which is often considered as the closes star to our solar
system is about 4.7 light years away from earth. If the star emits a beam of light, how
long will it take the light to reach earth? Express your answers in years?
a. 1.0 year c. 4.7 years
b. 4.0 years d. 4700 years
45. Antares is a red star, Arcturus is an orange star, while the Sun is a yellow star. Which
among these stars is the youngest star?
a. Antares c. Sun
b. Arcturus d. not enough information
46. Andromeda is a galaxy classified as an elliptical galaxy with a reddish color, while
Milky Way, our own galaxy, is classified as a spiral galaxy with whitish nucleus and
bluish arms. On which galaxy will we probably observe the birth of a new star?
a. Andromeda c. Milky Way
b. Irregular Galaxy d. not enough information.

47. Antares is a red star, Arcturus is an orange star, while the Sun is a yellow star. Which
is an arrangement according to star age from youngest to oldest?
a. Antares, Arcturus, Sun c. Arcturus, Antares, Sun
b. Sun, Antares, Arcturus d. Sun, Arcturus, Antares
48. Which of the objects listed below is largest in size?
a. stars b. nebula

29
c. planets d. galaxies
49. Which among the following is evidence that the universe is an expanding universe?
a. motion of the sun around an external axis
b. motion of the earth around the sun
c. precession of planets
d. red shift phenomenon
50. Which main-sequenced star is the most massive?
a. blue c. red
b. orange d. yellow
51. Which of the objects listed below are the smallest in size?
a. galaxies c. planets
b. nebula d. stars
52. Which color of stars has the lowest surface temperature?
a. blue c. red
b. orange d. yellow
53. Which main-sequenced stars are the least massive?
a. blue c. red
b. orange d. yellow
54. In the last 1500, Nicolaus Copernicus made a sweeping discovery that the
earth is one of the wonderers and that the sun is the center of the solar system. This is
a contradictory statement to the Ptolemaic system that the sun is one of the wanderers
and the earth resides at the center of the solar system. Which among the following is
also known as the Copernican Theory of the Universe?
a. Big Bang Theory c. Geocentric Theory
b. Binary Star Theory d. Heliocentric Theory
55. The sun is considered as a luminous body. This means that it is capable of
producing and emitting its own light by combining 4 hydrogen nuclei to form a single
helium atom that resides at the center and becomes part of the core of the sun. Which
among the processes is described?
a. nuclear radiation c. nuclear fission
b. nuclear decay d. nuclear fusion
56. Planetary alignment or conjunctions occurs every after several years. In this
phenomenon, planets are viewed to follow a straight-line path as traced out on the sky.
Conjunctions have appeared in the years 2000, 2002, and 2005. What two planets
exhibited conjunction and formed a smiling face with the moon last December 1, 2008?
a. Jupiter and Venus c. Jupiter and Saturn
b. Saturn and Venus d. Venus and Mars
57. If full moon occurs on May 5, 2009, when will the next full moon be?
a. May 31, 2009 c. June 3, 2009
b. June 1, 2009 d. June 5, 2009
58. The solar system is composed of the Sun, planets, and the minor members.
Identify the 3 minor members of the solar system.
a. asteroids, comets, meteors
b. asteroids, comets, meteorites
c. asteroids, comets, meteoroids
d. asteroids, comets, variable stars
59. Mercury is said to orbit the Sun in about 88 earth days. If your twin brother
landed on Mercury when he was 15 years old, how old are you when your brother
reaches 20 years old?
a. 15.2 years old c. 17.2 years old
b. 16.2 years old d. 18.2 years old
60. Which among the planets is known as the morning and evening star as
viewed from Earth?
a. Mars c. Neptune
b. Mercury d. Venus

30
61. Which is the correct arrangement of the Jovian planets according to their
decreasing size or diameter?
a. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
b. Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus
c. Saturn, Jupiter, Neptune, Uranus
d. Neptune, Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus
62. Among the terrestrial planets, which exhibits greenhouse effect due to
extreme amount of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere?
a. Earth c. Mercury
b. Mars d. Venus
63. Which among the theories explains the origin of the Universe?
a. Accretion Theory c. Capture Theory
b. Big Bang Theory d. Nebular Theory
64. What type of type occurs when high tides are lower than usual and low tides
are higher than usual?
a. spring tides c. high tides
b. neap tides d. low tides
65. Of all the planets in the solar system, which is the closest to the Earth in
terms of size and mass?
a. Biyo c. Mercury
b. Mars d. Venus
66. What will happen if the moons period of rotation and period of revolution is the
same?
a. The moon will eventually move faster in its orbit that the earth.
b. Observers on earth will clearly see all the surfaces of the moon.
c. Observers on earth will only see half of the surface of the moon always.
d. The moon will eventually capture the atmosphere of the earth
67. The solar system formed from
a. an expanding galaxy c. an enormous explosion
b. a cloud of gas and dust d. a black hole
68. When the solar system formed, the spheres that lost most of their gases became the
a. inner planets c. outer planets
b. comets d. asteroids
69. What layer are you looking at when you see a photograph of the sun?
a. photosphere c. chromosphere
b. corona d. core
70. What solar feature can increase the solar wind, sometimes causing electrical power
problems on earth?
a. prominences c. solar flares
b. sunspots d. core emissions
71. What do all the inner planets have in common?
a. They have the same diameter.
b. They have the same period of rotation.
c. They have the same period of revolution.
d. They are small and have rocky surfaces.
72. Venus and Earth are much alike in terms of
a. their size and density c. their atmospheres
b. their rates of rotation d. their direction of rotation
73. The atmospheres of the gas giant planets cannot escape into space because
a. these gases are too heavy
b. these gases solidify at higher elevations
c. these planets have very strong gravity
d. although they are big, the planets have little mass
74. What do the outer planets have in common?
a. They are much larger than the earth and are solid.

31
b. They are about the same size as the earth and are solid.
c. They are much larger than the earth and do not have solid surfaces.
d. They are about the same size as the earth and do not have solid surfaces.
75. Europa is considered a good place to look for life because
a. it is the same size as the earth
b. volcanic activity keeps it warm
c. its equator has tropical temperatures
d. there may be liquid water under its icy crust
76. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the orbits of planets around
the Sun?
a. The planets move in a counterclockwise direction.
b. The orbits are in the form of a circle.
c. The planets move around the Sun at the same speed,
d. Some planets revolve in a clockwise direction
77. The brightness of a star depends on its
a. size and temperature c. color and temperature
b. distance and temperature d. distance and color
78. The red shift of visible light waves that is observed by astronomers on Earth
is used to determine the
a. sizes of nearby galaxies
b. relative motions of distant galaxies
c. densities of the planets
d. rotation periods of the planets
79. Which motion causes the constellation Orion to be visible at midnight from
New York State in winter but not in summer?
a. rotation of Earth c. revolution of Earth
d. revolution of Orion
b. rotation of Orion

80. Evidence that the universe is expanding is best provided by the


a. red shift in the light from distant galaxies
b. change in the swing direction of a Foucault pendulum on Earth
c. parallelism of Earths axis in orbit
d. spiral shape of the Milky Way Galaxy
81. Which statement describes the general relationship between the temperature
and the luminosity of main sequence stars?
a. As temperature decreases, luminosity increases.
b. As temperature decreases, luminosity remains the same.
c. As temperature increases, luminosity increases.
d. As temperature increases, luminosity remains the same.
82. As viewed from Earth, most stars appear to move across the sky each night
because
a. Earth revolves around the Sun
b. Earth rotates on its axis
c. Stars orbit around Earth
d. Stars revolve around the center of the galaxy
83. Compared with our Sun, the star Betelgeuse is
a. smaller, hotter, and less luminous
b. smaller, cooler, and more luminous
c. larger, hotter, and less luminous
d. larger, cooler, and more luminous
84. Why would the tail of a comet grow larger and always point away from the
sun?
a. because comet is made up of big balls of ice, glowing gases and small pieces
of rocks

32
b. because gases are light and easily blown by the wind
c. because it takes thousands of years for a comet to complete one trip around
the sun
d. because the comet breaks apart into fragments as it passes the sun
85. These dark areas which appears on the suns surface which affects the earths
climate are called
a. corona c. photosphere
b. solar flares d. sunspots
86. One of the most known and useful constellation in the sky is the Ursa Minor or
the Little Bear. Why is this constellation important?
a. because it resembles a bear in many civilizations
b. because it has seven bright stars, two of which are called the pointers
c. because it is host to Polaris, position very close to the celestial north pole
d. because it is opposite the Big dipper
87. Which of the following shows the relationship between the brightness and
distance of stars?
a. The nearer the star, the brighter it appears as we see it.
b. The nearer the star, the dimmer it appears as we see it.
c. The farther the star, the brighter it appears as we see it.
d. Distance has nothing to do with the apparent brightness of the star.
88. Which of these stars is farthest from the earth?
a. Sun b. Vega c. Sirius d. Procyon
89. It is the most well known constellation of all. Its shape and group of bright
stars dominate the winter sky. It contains more bright stars clustered together than any
other single group.
a. Orion b. Polaris c. Cepheus d. Big Dipper
90. As viewed from Earth, most stars appear to move across the sky each night
because
a. Earth revolves around the Sun
b. Earth rotates on its axis
c. Stars orbit around Earth
d. Stars revolve around the center of the galaxy
91. Which of the following stars would have the longer life spans?
a. the less massive
b. the more massive
c. all have the same life span
d. between the more massive and the less massive
92. Large craters found on Earth support the hypothesis that impact events have
caused
a. a decrease in the number of earthquakes and an increase in sea level
b. an increase in solar radiation and a decrease in Earth radiation
c. the red shift of light from distant stars and the blue shift of light from nearby
stars
d. mass extinctions of life-forms and global climate changes
93. Terrestrial planets move more rapidly in their orbits than the Jovian planets because
terrestrial planets are
a. rotating on a tilted axis c. more massive
b. more dense
d. closer to the Sun
94. Earth is farthest from the Sun during the Northern Hemispheres summer, and
Earth is closest to the Sun during the Northern Hemispheres winter. During which
season in the Northern Hemisphere is Earths orbital velocity greatest?
a. winter c. spring
b. summer d. fall

33
95. How do you describe the positions of the earth, moon, and the sun if the high
tide is lower than average and the low tide is higher than average?
a. they are perpendicular to each other
b. they are aligned with each other with the moon in between
c. they are aligned with each other with the earth in between
d. they are aligned with each other with the sun in between
96. The least range between high tides and low tides occurs during
a. full moon c. quarter moon phases
b. new moon d. an eclipse
97. Which of the following planets has a rotational period (day) longer than its
revolutional period (year)?
a. Venus b. Jupiter c. Mars d. Saturn
98. The universe is approximately ________ years old.
a. 4.6 billion c. 10 billion
b. 14.7 billion d. 20 billion
99. Which of the following refers to the brightest stars that can be seen with the naked
eyes?
a. first magnitude stars c. third magnitude stars
b. second magnitude stars d. fourth magnitude stars
100. Which of the following is the best description of Pluto?
a. it is the smallest planet in the Solar System
b. it is the largest Kuiper Belt object beyond the orbit of Neptune
c. it is a long period comet formed in the Oort Cloud
d. It is an asteroid that can also be considered as a planetoid

1. B
2. D
3. C
4.
5. B
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. C
10.
11. A
12. C
13. A
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. C
19. D
20. A
21. C
22. A
23. B
24. C
25. B
26. D
27. D
28. A
29. C
30. D

34
31. A
32. B
33. B
34. A
35. D
36. D
37. D
38. B
39. C
40. D
41. B
42. D
43. D
44. C
45. C
46. C
47. D
48. C
49. D
50. A
51. C
52. C
53. C
54. D
55. D
56. A
57. C
58. C
59. B
60. D
61. A
62. D
63. B
64. B
65. D
66. C
67. B
68. A
69. A
70. C
71. D
72. A
73. C
74. C
75. D
76. A
77. A
78. B
79. C
80. A
81. C
82. B
83. D
84. B
85. D

35
86. C
87. A
88. D
89. A
90. A
91. D
92. D
93. D
94. A
95. A
96. C
97. A
98. A
99. B
100. -
TEST ITEMS IN BIOLOGY
1. As green plants make food, they are
a. first order consumers c. decomposers
b. second order consumers d. producers
2. The producers in a pond are usually
a. tadpoles c. bacteria
b. algae d. small fish
3. A series in which each organism serves as food for the next organism is a
a. food chain c. community
b. population d. niche
4. Substances from dead plants and animals are returned to the water by
a. producers c. decomposers
b. consumers d. top consumers
5. The special role of each organism in a food pyramid is its
a. system c. physical environment
b. niche d. community
6. The consumers in a food chain in a pond are the
a. algae c. bacteria
b. plants d. animals
7. If you study how a fish is fitted for life in a quiet water, you are studying its
a. food pyramid c. interdependence
b. adaptation d. population
8. All the plants and animals in a pond form
a. an environment c. a population
b. a community d. an ecosystem
9. Many interdependent food chains in a forest make up a
a. food pyramid c. food web
b. pyramid of biomass d. habitat
10. The second order consumers in a food pyramid get their food directly from
a. carnivores c. producers
b. decomposers d. herbivores
11. All the plants and animals on earth
a. create new matter c. create new energy
b. recycle the same matter d. recycle the same energy
12. An animals heartbeat and breathing are slowed down when it
a. enters a habitat c. occupies a niche
b. hunts for food d. hibernates
13. If you catch a fish and eat it, you may be
a. a first order consumer c. a decomposer
b. a second order consumer d. a scavenger

36
14. Thea.part
redof light
sunlight absorbed most rapidly by water is c. violet light
b. blue light d. green light
15. The increased effect of a pesticide on organisms that feed on each other in a lake is called
a. biological conservation c. eutrophication
b. biological magnification d. nitrification
16. Plants and animals in the same ecosystem usually have similar
a. shapes c. ways of obtaining food
b. sizes d. environmental needs
17. Which of the following refers to a secondary carnivore?
a. eats only plants
b. gets energy directly from the sun
a. gets energy through photosynthesis
b. has less food energy available to it than consumers at lower tropic levels

18. Which of the following statements is true regarding a food chain?


a. there are more herbivores than carnivores
b. each higher trophic level has more energy available to it
c. the number of organism at each trophic level is not related to energy
d. the biomass of third order consumers is greater than the biomass of second
order consumers
19. Which of the following is the result of biological magnification?
a. energy is lost at each trophic level of the food chain
b. the greenhouse effect will be most significant at the poles
c. top level predators may be most harmed by toxic environmental chemicals
d. DDT has spread throughout the ecosystem and is found in almost every organism
20. Why are green plants considered autotrophs?
a. They have many pigments that capture light.
b. They can build simple inorganic substances into complex organic substance.
c. They can build any kind of substances.
d. They depend on other sources for their food.
21. In what trophic level of the food pyramid are consumers greatest in number?
a. first trophic c. third trophic
b. second trophic d. fourth trophic
22. In a pond or desert, light, warmth, water, minerals, carbon dioxide, and oxygen make up the
a. ecosystem c. population
b. community d. physical environment
23. Why do most plants look green?
a. The chlorophyll in plants captures green light for photosynthesis.
b. The chlorophyll in plants reflects wavelengths of green light.
c. The chloroplasts in plants are surrounded by two green membranes.
d. The chloroplasts in plants make green sugar during photosynthesis.
24. Green plants make glucose from
a. water and carbon dioxide c. water and oxygen
b. chlorophyll and sunlight d. oxygen and carbon dioxide
25. A male structure in the flowering plant is the
a. ovary c. pistil
b. ovule d. stamen
26. Transfer of pollen from the stamen of one flower to the pistil of another is
a. fertilization c. self pollination
b. cross pollination d. reproduction
27. Cuttings and graftings are examples of
a. adaptation c. vegetative propagation
b. fertilization d. seed dispersal
28. Both gymnosperms and angiosperms

37
a. produce flowers c. have needle like leaves
b. produce seeds d. lose all their leaves in the fall
29. Water and minerals are carried upward in plant stems in the
a. phloem c. guard cells
b. xylem d. stomata
30. Vegetative reproduction is a form of
a. pollination
b. seed dispersal
c. sexual reproduction
d. asexual reproduction

38
31. Corn and other monocots have each of the following structures except
a. parallel veins c. a layer of cambium
b. seeds d. xylem and phloem
32. Green plants store the energy of sunlight by the process of
a. cellular respiration c. oxidation
b. photosynthesis d. reproduction
33. In plants, food is usually made in the
a. roots c. leaves
b. stems d. rootlets
34. One function of roots is to
a. take in carbon dioxide c. anchor plant to the soil
b. give off oxygen d. produce food
35. Multicellular plants have many specialized structures. What function does xylem perform in
multicellular vascular plants?
a. The xylem transports water and minerals from the roots to the leaves.
b. The xylem is the place where photosynthesis takes place in a plant.
c. The xylem breaks down sugar into a form that plant cells can use.
d. The xylem is a woody tissue that fills the stem of a plant.
36. Which is not a primary function of the stem?
a. absorption b. conduction c. support d. storage
37. Ginger is a________.
a. bulb b. corm c. rhizome d. tuber
38. The primary functions of the root are ___________.
a. conduction and storage c. anchorage and absorption
b. storage and anchorage d. absorption and conduction
39. Carbon dioxide used in photosynthesis enters the leaves through the
a. root system c. phloem
b. stomata d. fibrovascular bundles
40. All of the following reduce loss of water from plants except
a. bark c. closing of stomata
b. waxy layers on leaves d. opening of stomata
41. The primary functions of leaves are_________.
a. photosynthesis and transpiration
b. transpiration and respiration
c. respiration and digestion
d. respiration and photosynthesis
42. Which of the following is not a correctly stated difference between monocots and dicots?
a. parallel veins in monocots; branching, netlike venation in dicot leaves
b. vascular bundles scattered in monocot stems; central vascular stele in dicot stems
c. flower parts in threes in monocots; flower parts in multiples of four or five in dicots
d. usually only primary growth in monocots; secondary growth in many dicots
43. How are the processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration connected?
a. both processes begin with oxygen
b. both processes require sunlight
c. each processes takes place only in plant cells
d. each process makes the material needed in the other process
44. Why do cells need oxygen?
a. Oxygen is used during the process of fermentation.
b. Oxygen is used during the process of cell division.
c. Oxygen is used during the process of cellular respiration.
d. Oxygen is used during the process of meiosis.
45. What is the result of cellular respiration?
a. Energy is produced from radiant sunlight and carbon dioxide.
b. Energy is produced from sugar molecules and oxygen.
c. Sunlight is converted into sugar molecules and oxygen.
d. Sunlight is converted into water molecules.
46. Which of these describes a reproduction method of sexual organism?
a. forming a tuber c. producing runners
b. fusing of sex cells from two d. division through binary fission
parents
47. The diaphragm is used in breathing by each of the following animals except the
a. kangaroo c. frog
b. baboon d. human
48. Each of the following vertebrates is cold blooded except
a. fish c. birds
b. amphibians d. reptiles
49. The embryo develops within the mother in most
a. mammals c. amphibians
b. reptiles d. fish
50. A feature that relates the platypus to the reptiles is
a. egg laying c. scales
b. cold bloodedness d. a diaphragm
51. The sea urchins body is organized around the organisms center, like the spokes of a wheel.
What kind of symmetry does the sea urchin have?
a. bilateral c. asymmetrical
b. radial d. unilateral
53. Most vertebrates reproduce sexually. When does fertilization occur in sexual reproduction?
a. when a male animal releases sperm and a female animal releases eggs
b. when part of an organism breaks off and begins to grow independently
c. when the cells of an embryo begin to differentiate and become specialized
d. when the nucleus of a sperm cell fuses with the nucleus of an egg cell
54. Which of the following is a difference between invertebrates and vertebrates?
a. Vertebrates have exoskeletons, and invertebrates have endoskeletons.
b. Invertebrates reproduce only asexually, vertebrates only reproduce sexually.
c. Vertebrates have a backbone, while invertebrates do not.
d. Invertebrates have bilateral symmetry, while vertebrates have radial symmetry.
55. Which of the following is a function of the reproductive system?
a. to produce all the bodys hormones
b. to regulate the body temperature
c. to make the hormones that fight disease
d. to regulate the development of male and female characteristics
56. The animal phylum that contains the largest number of different species is the
a. echinoderms c. arthropods
b. chordates d. roundworms
57. A hydra, which has two layers of body cells, is
a. a coelenterate c. an echinoderm
b. a flagellate d. a porifera
58. Unlike amphibians, reptiles
a. are covered with scales c. are cold blooded
b. have a circulatory system d. lays eggs
59. Both an octopus and a clam are
a. arachnids c. tunicates
b. crustaceans d. molluscs
60. A fruit is a _________.
a. ripened ovule c. ripened bud
b. ripened ovary d. ripened stigma
61. An imperfect flower is one that lacks either _________.
a. sepals or petals c. petals or stamens
b. stamens or pistils d. pistils or sepals
62. Pollination is the ________.
a. union of a person nucleus with an egg nucleus
b. growth of a pollen tube in a style
c. penetration of an embryo sac by a pollen tube
d. transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma
63. The protist which can cause malaria when transmitted by the bite of the female anopheles
mosquito is ________.
a. Plasmodium falcifarum c. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium ovale d. Plasmodium
64. The arthropod which is an arachnid is the ________.
a. butterfly c. beetle
b. spider d. cockroach
65. The squid belongs to phylum ________.
a. Chordata c. Echinodermata
b. Mollusca d. Nemathelminthes
66. A dinner in a seafood restaurant includes clams, squid, and tuna. What phyla are
represented?
a. porifera and mollusc c. mollusca and chordate
b. cnidaria and chordate d. mollusca and arthropoda
67. The body temperature of cold blooded animals
a. is 00C c. changes with the environment
b. is 1000C d. remains constant
68. Each of the following is a primate except a
a. tarsier c. kangaroo
b. gorilla d. human
69. Development from a fertilized egg to adult may occur in either two ways. What do you call
animals that are born resembling adults of the species, just like man?
a. viviparous c. ovoviviparous
b. oviparous d. none of them
70. Vivian and Carlo are two amateur fossils hunters, who were unable to unearth a complete
fossil of mammals. How could they determine whether it was a herbivore, carnivore, or
omnivore?
a. based on the skull c. based on the phalanges
b. based on the type of teeth d. based on the vertebral column

71. Amphibians have adaptations that protect them from very cold and very warm temperatures.
During the cold winter months they become inactive. They bury themselves in mud until the
temperature warms up. What do you call the period of inactivity during winter?
a. hibernation c. incubation
b. aestivation d. adaptation
72. Amoeba proteus is a very common amoeba that you use in the laboratory for experiments.
You have probably observed their mode of motility. What do they use for locomotion?
a. cilia c. pseudopodia
b. flagella d. feet
73. What is the relationship between the cattle and the bacteria and protozoa living within their
stomachs?
a. parasitism c. mutualism
b. commensalism d. predation
74. What is formed when two or more groups of different organisms live together and interact
with each other in the same area?
a. community c. niche
b. population d. ecosystem
75. A green alga provides a fungus with nutrients and water. The fungus protects the alga from
the sun and high temperatures. What relationship is illustrated in the given example?
a. parasitism c. mutualism
b. commensalism d. predation
76. Which is an example of a renewable energy source?
a. oil c. solar power
b. natural gas d. coal
77. Which is a source of biomass energy?
a. water c. geysers
b. wind d. plants
78. Which of the following refers to commensalism?
a. both organisms benefit
b. both organisms are harmed
c. one organism benefits and the other is harmed
d. one organism benefits and the other is unaffected
79. What ecological structure is formed by a group of individuals of the same species living
together in the same area?
a. niche c. population
b. community d. ecosystem
80. All members of a group stem from a common ancestor and are capable of interbreeding. The
taxonomy category referred to here is _______.
a. class c. species
b. order d. family
81. Which of the following is an abiotic factor that may affect the types and numbers of animals
that live in an area?
a. the range of temperatures experienced in the area
b. the types of plants available for food sources
c. the number and types of predators in the area
d. the number of plants available for food sources
82. What do you call animals that feed on both plant and meat?
a. herbivores c. omnivores
b. carnivores d. insectivores
83. After drinking dirty water, a student developed bloody diarrhea and liver problems in a few
weeks later. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the disease?
a. paramecium c. amoeba
b. dinoflagellates d. euglena
84. Chemical produced by some bacteria that can kill or weaken other bacteria
a. antitoxins c. antibiotics
b. antibodies d. antiseptic
85. At what stages in its life cycle is a butterfly most active?
a. egg and larva b. larva and adult
c. pupa and adult d. adult and egg
85. Insecticides are used to control insect populations so that they do not destroy crops. However,
over time, a new insecticide has to be developed as they become less effective in killing the
insects. Why?
a. Insecticides build up in the soil.
b. Insecticides are concentrated at the bottom of the food chain
c. Surviving insects pass their resistance to insecticides to their offspring.
d. Surviving insects have learned to include insecticides as a food source.
86. Not all organisms are harmful. Which of these is done by yeast?
a. encourage disease food d. Promotes the rising of bread for
b. cause milk to become cheese baking
c. cause Yakult to be milky
87. Which of the following organisms is used to convert milk to cheese?
a. bacteria b. protozoa c. virus d. algae
88. Why is it not quite possible for viruses to live and multiply in the outer layers of our skin?
a. The outer layer of the skin has dead cells only
b. The outer layer of the skin has oil which is harmful to viruses.
c. The outer layer of the skin has a lower temperature unsuitable for viruses.
d. The outer layer of the skin has salt from perspiration which is harmful to viruses
89. Young people stand straight. Very old ones usually stoop. Why?
e. Sedentary lives of the old.
f. Habit of stooping developed in the old.
g. Greater gravitational pull on the old than on the young.
h. Bones of the old have become weak and soft and their joints become loose.
90. Which of the following factors contribute to greenhouse effect?
a. destruction of the forests
b. use of carbon dioxide by land plants
c. depletion of minerals in the soil by overfarming
d. use of solar glass panels to capture radiant energy
91. Angiosperms are also known as
a. cone bearing c. flower bearing
b. seed bearing d. spore bearing
92. Some animals have the ability to produce a lost body part such as lizard, starfish, and brittle
star. This method is known as
a. regeneration c. budding
b. fragmentation d. fission
93. Metamorphosis is the change in structure from a larva to an adult. The following animals
follow definite stages in their life cycle except
a. fly c. butterfly
b. frog d. turtle
94. One of the principal causes of acid rain is
a. Waste and acid from chemical factories being pumped into rivers.
b. Acid from chemical laboratories evaporating into the air.
c. Gases from burning coal and oil dissolving in water in the atmosphere.
d. Gases from air conditioner and refrigerators escaping into the atmosphere.
95. While observing some plants, a student notices some very small plants found attached on
rocks. The plants most likely belong to
a. angiosperms c. tracheophytes
b. gymnosperms d. bryophytes
96. A certain plant with needle like leaves and cone bearing usually grow and reproduce in
cold places. What is the classification of this plant?
a. angiosperms c. bryophytes
b. gymnosperms d. monocots
97. This is an offshoot of water pollution resulting from an accumulation of phosphates and
nitrates from waste materials, detergents, and fertilizers. What is this phenomenon that kills
aquatic life?
a. acid rain c. dynamite fishing
b. eutrophication d. cyanide fishing
98. Animals are grouped based on their structural similarities. Identify which pair of animals is
closely related.
a. snake and toad c. bat and monkey
b. whale and shark d. salamander and turtle
99. The following practices promote sustainable development except
a. reforestation c. selective hunting
b. recycling d. cyanide fishing
100. Ant returning from a new food source marks a trail for other ants to follow. This chemical
signal is called
a. hormones b. enzymes c. catalyst d. pheromones

1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. C
10. D
11. B
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. B
16.
17. B
18. A
19. C
20. B
21.
22. D
23. B
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. D
29. B
30. D
31. C
32. B
33. C
34. C
35. A
36. A
37. C
38. C
39. B
40. D
41. A
42. B
43. D
44. C
45. B
46. B
47. C
48. C
49. A
50. A
51.
52.
53. D
54. C
55. D
56. C
57. A
58. A
59. D
60. B
61. B
62. D
63. C
64. B
65. B
66. C
67. C
68. C
69. A
70. B
71. C
72.
73. C
74. A
75. C
76. C
77. D
78. D
79. C
80. C
81. A
82. C
83. C
84. C
85. B
86. D
87. A
88. A
89. H
90. A
91. C
92. A
93. D
94. C
95. D
96. B
97. B
98. C
99. D
100. D