Law Make

Sense

solved objective questions#answers#indian constitution

#judiciary#indian law

1.The model code of conduct for Political parties and candidates to be followed during election is:
A. Laid down in the constitution of India
B. Specified in the representation of the People Act. 1951
C. Enjoined by the supreme court
D. A voluntary agreement among recognized political parties.
Ans: B
2. Who is the chairman of the Lok Sabha ?
A. President
B. Minister of Parliament affairs
C. Speaker
D. Prime Minister
Ans: C
3. Which one of the following Articles empowers the President to Appoint Prime Minister of India ?
A. Article 74
B. Article 75
C. Article 76
D. Article 77
Ans: B
4. The constituent Assembly formed the drafting committee of India constitution on:
A. 29th August 1947
B. 30th August 1948
C. 29th August 1949
D. 29th August 1950
Ans: A
5. Which one of the following sets of Bills is Presented to the Parliament along with the Budget ?
A. Direct taxes bill and Indirect taxes bill
B. Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill
C. Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill
D. Finance Bill and Contingency Bill
Ans: C
6. Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian Constitution ?
(A) British Constitution
(B) U.S. Constitution
(C) Irish Constitution
(D) The Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: D

7. In which article of the Constitution of India has the Joint Sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha been provided ?
(A) Article 101
(B) Article 108
(C) Article 133
(D) Article 102
Ans: B
8. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Upper House within:
(A) 10 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 30 days
Ans: B
9. Name the committee for formulating the framework of restructuring railways:
(A) Jain Committee
(B) Venkatachelliah
(C) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(D) Dinesh Goswami Committee
Ans: C
10. Who among the following is/are not appointed by the President of India ?
(A) Governors of the States appointed by CJI HC
(B) Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts
(C) Vice-President
(D) Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court
Ans: C
Q.11. Which of the following Committees are Committees of Parliament?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Ans: A
12. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of
A. six years
B. for six years or the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
C. during pleasure of the President
D. for five years or the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
Ans: B
13. Kamraj Plan was a plan formulated in 1963 by:
A. Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the senior ministers were asked to leave government and work to rejuvenate the party
B. Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new Constitution for the Indian National Congress was proposed
C. Chief Minister of Madras, whereby a new set of principles for accepting donations for the party work was proposed
D. Chief Minister of Madras to root out corruption from India
Ans: A
14. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of
A. declaration of the election results
B. its first meeting
C. issue of notification for the conduct of elections of the Panchayat
D. taking oath of office by the elected members
Ans: A B

15.What does Article 17 of the Constitution Say?

(a) Untouchability is abolished
(b) The practice of untouchability is forbidden
(c) Practice untouchability is an offence
(d) All of the above
Ans: D
16. Who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces in India?
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Commander-in-chief
(c) The President of India
(d) Minister of Defence
Ans: C
17. Who is known as the sculptor of the constitution of India?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) V.V. Giri
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Ans: C
18. What is known as the Little India?
(a) City
(b) Town
(c) Village
(d) State
Ans: C
19. Who decides disputes relating with the allotment of symbols to Political Parties:
(A) Representation Act 1952
(B) Representation Act 1953
(C) Representation of the People Act 1951
(D) Election Commission
Ans: D
20. What was the privy purse in the context of the history of Modern India?
A. A purse given privately by one organization to another
B. A purse given by the government of India to dignitaries for service rendered
C. A grant given by the Government of India to the erstwhile Princes of India
D. A gift given by an erstwhile Prince of India to the Government of India
Ans: C
21. The term of Member of the Rajya Sabha is:
A. 5 Yr.
B. 6 Yr
C. Same as that of the Lok Sabha
D. Two years
Ans: B
22. Finance commission in India are set up from Time to time:
A. To lay down financial policies of Union govt.
B. To evolve a satisfactory tax-structure for economic development of the country
C. To promote foreign trade
D. For transfer of economic resources from center to states
Ans: D
23. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or Not ?
A. President
B. Chairmen of Rajya Sabha
C. Speaker of Lok sabha
D. Minister of Parliamentary affairs
Ans: C
24. The concept lok Adalat is mainly to expedite cases relating to:
1. Matrimonial dispute
2. murder
3. motor vehicle accidents
4. suits relating to banks
Which one of these statements are correct ?
A. 1,3 and 4
B. 3,4 and 5
C. 1,2 and 4
D. 1,3
Ans:A
25. Who among the following did not serve as the Vice president before becoming president of India ?
A. Dr. S Radhakrishnan
B. Dr. Zakir Hussain
C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
D. R. Venkataraman
Ans: C
26. A federal structure of India was first put forward by the
(A) Act of 1909
(B) Act of 1919
(C) Act of 1935
(D) Act of 1947
Ans: B
27. Which writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority to perform a function that it was not performing ?
(A) Writ of Certiorari
(B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(C) Writ of Mandamus
(D) Writ of Quo Warranto
Ans: C
28. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office:
(A) By the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) By the President
(C) On the basis of a resolution of the Cabinet
(D) On the basis of proved misbehaviour by 2/3rd majority of both Houses of Parliament
Ans: D
29. If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha intends to vacate his office before the expiry of his term, he sends his resignation to the:
(A) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(B) Leader of the House (Lok Sabha)
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) President of India
Ans: C
30. In which case did the Supreme Court of India determine that the Parliament has power to make amendment in fundamental rights, but it cannot make any
change in the basic structure of the Constitution ?
(A) Golak Nath case
(B) Keshavanand Bharati case
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans: B

2 COMMENTS LEAVE A COMMENT


SEPTEMBER 12, 2016

AKANKSHA SHARMA (M.SC IT,OCA,OCP,LLB,LLM,NET)

UNCATEGORIZED

Solved objective questions #with answer#judiciary #indian

law#solved previous year paper

1. An executing court cannot determine the questions relating to which of the following?
(A) Execution of decree
(B) Discharge of decree
(C) Satisfaction of decree
(D) Modification of decree
Ans:-D
2. A person against whom summons has been issued may be compelled under Sec. 32 of C.P.C. to attend by
1. Issue of a warrant
2. Attachment and sale of his property
3. Imposing a fine
4. Ordering him to furnish security for his appearance
Select the correct answer with the help of the code given below
Code:
(A) l and 4
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Ans:-C
3. Provision for interpleader suit is contained in which of the following sections of C.P.C.?
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 88
(C) Section 89
(D) Section 90
Ans:-B
4. Which one of the following is not a suit relating to immovable property?
(A) Suit for recovery of immovable property
(B) Suit for partition of immovable property
(C) Suit for redemption of mortgaged property
(D) Suit for rent in respect of immovable property
Ans:-D
5. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 came into force on
(A) 1St April, 2002
(B) 1st June, 2002
(C) 6th June, 2002
(D) 1st July, 2002
Ans:-D
6. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided according to the provision of
(A) Section 17 of C.P.C.
(B) Section 18 of C.P.C.
(C) Section 19 of C.P.C.
(D) Section 20 of C.P.C.
Ans:-B
7. In which of the following provisions mesne profit has been defined in the C.P.C.?
(A) Section 2(4)
(B) Section 2(8)
(C) Section 2(12)
(D) Section 2(14)
Ans:-C
8. The period of limitation within which defendant shall submit his wrtn statement is
(A) 30 days from service of summons
(B) 40 days from service of summons
(C) 60 days from service of summons
(D) 90 days from service of summons
Ans:-A
9. In which of the following writs, the doctrine of res judicata is not applicable?
(A) Certiorari
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Habeas Corpus
Ans:-D
10. Which one of the following properties is liable to attachment and sale in the execution of a decree?
(A) Right to future maintenance
(B) A promissory note
(C) Book of account
(D) A right of personal service
Ans:-B
11. Which one of the following is not a suit of civil nature under C.P.C.?
(A) A suit against deprivation from attending social functions
(B) A suit for arrears of salary
(C) A suit for right of burial
(D) A suit for restitution of conjugal rights
Ans:-A
12. Which one of the following does not find a place under the provisions of Sec. 94, C.P.C. relating to supplemental proceedings?
(A) Arrest before judgement
(B) Attachment before judgement
(C) Temporary injunction
(D) Appointment of executors
Ans:-A
13. Which one of the following is not required in filing a representative suit under Order 1Rule 8 of the C.P.C.?
(A) Numerous parties
(B) Same interest
(C) Leave of the court
(D) Written permission of those who are being represented
Ans:-D
14. The provision for the institution of suits is given in which of the following sections of C.P.C.?
(A) Section 26
(B) Section 30
(C) Section 28
(D) Section 25
Ans:-A
15. A right to sue for damages is
(A) An actionable claim
(B) Not an actionable claim
(C) Not only a mere right to sue
(D) Transferable
Ans:-B
16. The doctrine of part performance as given in Sec. 53-A of T.P. Act is
1. A statutory right
2. An equitable right
3. Available in defence
Code:
(A) l and 3
(B) l and 2
(C) 2
(D) 2 and 3
Ans:-D
17. Assertion (A): Property is a comprehensive term and includes copyright.
Reason (R) : Transfer of property Act deals with all kinds of property including patents.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-B
18. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?
1. Mesne profit Actionable Claim
2. Claim of a Muslim wife for unpaid dower Actionable Claim
3. Unsecured debt Actionable Claim
4. Profit under a sale of goods contract Actionable Claim
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Code:
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) l and 4
Ans:-A
19. Remedy of foreclosure is available in which one of the following mortgages?
(A) Usufructuary mortage
(B) Simple mortgage
(C) Mortgage by condition sale
(D) English mortage
Ans:-C
20. Which one of the f6llowing is not an essential element of sale?
(A) Parties
(B) Subject matter
(C) Transfer or conveyance
(D) Payment of price in cash
Ans:-D
21. Rule against double possibilities was recognised in which one of the following cases?
(A) Girjesh Dutt V/s Datadin
(B) Whitby V/s Mitchell
(C) Ardeshir V/s Dadabhoy
(D) Sopher V/s Administrator General of Bengal
Ans:-B
22. Which one of the following sections of T.P. Act deals with doctrine of substituted
security?
(A) Section68
(B) Section70
(C) Section71
(D) Section73
Ans:-C
23. Which is correct answer in the following?
(A) Section 60 of T.P. Act is enforceable on mortagage decrees
(B) Sale or purchase agreements are saleable properties and liable for attachment
(C) Hereditary profession is liable for attachment
(D) Motor pump which is used in irrigation is liable for attachment
Ans:-A
24. Ram Coomar Kundoo V/s Mc Queen (1872) is related to
(A) Lis pendens
(B) Ostensible owner
(C) Part performance
(D) Mortgage
Ans:-B
25. The principle of the maxim nemo dat quad non habet is incorporated in which of the following sections of T.P. Act?
(A) Sections 41, 42, 43 and 44
(B) Sections 41, and 42
(C) Sections 41 and
(D) Sections 41 and 43
Ans:-A
26. Doctrine of Marshalling has been provided in which of the following sections of the
T.P. Act?
(A) Sections 56 and 81
(B) Sections 56 and 82
(C) Sections 56, 81, 82
(D) Sections 81 and 82
Ans:-A
27. Section 58 (a) of the T.P. Act defines
(A) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgagee and mortgage money
(B) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgagee and mortgage deed
(C) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgagee, mortgage money and mortgage deed
(D) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgage money and mortgage deed
Ans:-C
28. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, a mother is
(A) Entitled to live along with her sons family
(B) Not entitled to live along with her sons family
(C) Morally entitled to her sons care
(D) Entitled to have separate accommodation from her son
Ans:-D
29. Which of the following ancient forms of marriages were not approved by Hindu Law?
1. Gandharva
2. Arsha
3. Prajapatya
4. Asura
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) l and 4
Ans:-D
30. A boy of 17 years marries a girl of 15 years. The marriage is
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid and not punishable
(D) Valid and punishable
Ans:-D
31. (A) marries B, the widow of his elder brother. The marriage is
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) None of these
Ans:-B
32. An adoption made by a Hindu male without the consent of his wife is
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) Invalid
Ans:-A
33. Coparcenary property of a Hindu
1. Devolves by succession
2. Devolves by survivorship
3. Can be partitioned
4. Cannot be partitioned
Select the correct answer with the help of code give below
Code:
(A) l and 2
(B) 2 and3
(C) l and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Ans:-B
34. The statement While there is no rose which has no thorn but if what you hold is all thorn and no rose, better throw it sway relates to-
(A) Restitution of conjugal rights
(B) Judicial separation
(C) Divorce by mutual consent
(D) Irretrievable break-down of marriage theory of divorce
Ans:-C
35. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 a female Hindu has the capacity to take a son or daughter in adoption if
(A) She is not married
(B) She is married
(C) She is widow and has no son or daughter but has a widowed daughter-in-law
(D) She cannot adopt at all
Ans:-A
36. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 contains the provision regarding divorce in
(A) Section 10
(B) Section 11
(C) Section 13
(D) Section 15
Ans:-C
37. Which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act provides for the restitution of conjugal
Rights?
(A) Section 9
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 12
(D) Section 13
Ans:-A
38. Which one of the following is not included in the term Hindu used in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) Sikhs
(B) Jams
(C) Parsis
(D) Buddhists
Ans:-C
39. A marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 between two persons within prohibited degrees of relationship is
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) Irregular
Ans:-B
40. Adultery by a Hindu husband is
(A) Ground of divorce only
(B)Not a ground of divorce
(C)Ground of judicial separation only
(D)Ground of divorce and Judicial separation of the both
Ans:-D
41. The natural guardian of a minor Hindu boy is
(A) Only mother
(B) Only father
(C) Grand father
(D) Father and mother both
Ans:-D
42. Which one is not a source of Muslim Law?
(A) The Quran
(B) Shariat
(C) Hadis
(D) Ijmaa
Ans:-B
43. On the ground of fosterage a Muslim marriage is
(A) Void (Batil)
(B) Vaild (Sahih)
(C) Irregular (Fasid)
(D) Muta
Ans:-A
44. Which of the following are sources of Muslim Law ?
(A) Quran
(B) Ijmaa
(C) Kiyas (Qiyas)
(D) All the above
Ans:-D
45. The legal guardian of a muslim minor female is
(A) Father
(B) Grandfather
(C) Mother
(D) Maternal uncle
Ans:-C
46. Which one of the following is not essential for a valid marriage under Muslim Law?
(A) Offer and acceptance
(B) Competent parties
(C) Fosterage
(D) Free consent
Ans:-C
47. Dower in Muslim Law is
1. Dowry
2. An obligation imposed upon the husband as a mark of respect for wife
3. Consideration for marriage
4. A legal right of the wife
Select the correct answer by using the code given below
Code:
(A) 1,3 and 4
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2,3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
Ans:-C
48. Talak-ul-biddat is
(A) Complete and irrevocable divorce
(B) Incomplete and irrevocable divorce
(C) Complete and revocable divorce
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
49. In respect of family relations, the law applicable in India is
(A) Secular law in India
(B) Statutory law
(C) Religious law
(D) Personal law of the parties
Ans:-D
50. Under the Constitution of India, all aspects of family law are in the
(A) Union list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C

1 COMMENT LEAVE A COMMENT

SEPTEMBER 10, 2016

AKANKSHA SHARMA (M.SC IT,OCA,OCP,LLB,LLM,NET)

UNCATEGORIZED

Solved objective questions # all subjects # Indian law #judiciary

1)an application for bringing on records the legal representative of the party has to be filed with in

A) 30 days of death

B) 80 days of death

C) 15 days of death

D) 90 days of death

Ans D

2) STALKING defined in

A)354 A

B)354 B

C)354 C

D) 354 D

Ans -D
3) Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 specifies certain grounds of divorce which are available to

(A) Husband as well as wife (B) Husband only (C) Wife only (D) None of them

Ans c

4) Under which one of the following school of Muslim Law Muta Marriage is recognised ?

(A) Hanifi school (B) Shafii school (C) Ismaili school (D) Ithna Asheri school

Ans-D

5) Amendments of pleadings may be allowed by the court:

A. Before framing the issues

B. Before close of the evidence

C. At any stage of the proceedings

D. None of the above

Ans -C

6) A right of divorce by Lian is available to the wife when the husband accuses the wife
(A) of re-embracing her initial faith (B) of cruelty (C) of conversion to other faith (D) of adultry

Ans D

7) The court may reject a plaint if it does NOT disclose cause of action under:

A. Order 7 R 10

B. Order 7 R11

C. Order 7 R 12

D. Both A and B

Ans -B

8) Section 9 of C.P.C speaks about the jurisdiction of:

A. Criminal court

B. Revenue Court

C. Civil Court

D. Tribunals

Ans -C

2 COMMENTS LEAVE A COMMENT

SEPTEMBER 10, 2016

AKANKSHA SHARMA (M.SC IT,OCA,OCP,LLB,LLM,NET)

UNCATEGORIZED

Freedom of speech and expressions # with reasonable

restrictions # point wise notes

1) freedom of speech and expression is most basic freedom granted to the citizen of india

Article 19(1)(a)

2) in romesh thaper vs state of madrasstated that freedom of press also comes in the zone of freedom of speech and expression

3) purpose of freedom of speech

Allows individuals to attain self Fulfillment

Assists the discovery of truth

4) in prabhu datta vs uoi 1982sc held that right to know about the functioning of goby in comes into freedom of speech

5) restrictions on freedom

Of speech and expressions article 19(2)

In interest of

Soverginity and integrity of the country

Security of the state

Friendly relations with the foreign states

Public order

Decency and morality

Defamation

Contempt of court

Incitement of an offence

6) to preserve the democratic way of life its essential that people should have freedom to express their feelings
7) press is strong method of communication so comes under purview of article 19(1)(a)
8) but its not expressly mentioned in the article 19(1)(a)
9) in romesh thaper vs state of madras and brij bhusan vs state of Delhi sc took granted that freedom of press essential for freedom to speech
10) freedom of press guarded by first amendment to the us constitution was later on adopted by Indian constitution
11) in Indian express vs uoi it had been held that press plays a very singinificant role in democratic machinery
12) in sakal papers vs uoi the daily newspaper the freedom of press is suppressed by the legislature ie to fixed the no of pages and size held ultravire a to the
constitution
13) in Bennett Coleman vs uoi the validity of newsprint control order which fixes the max no of pages was struck down

Thank you readers

Keep study and grow

0 COMMENTS LEAVE A COMMENT

SEPTEMBER 8, 2016

AKANKSHA SHARMA (M.SC IT,OCA,OCP,LLB,LLM,NET)

UNCATEGORIZED

THE SIGNIFICANCE OF ARTICLE 370# short notes # quick revise

# law # Indian law # constitutional law

1) this article is related with state of j and Kashmir .. This was blunder done by Nehru Ji by following the decision of lord Mountbatten to blindly that the final
decision of accession would be ratified by the constitute to assembly of Jammu and Kashmir
Due to it some temporary provisions added into as article 370 in our constitution
2) according to this those parts other than which pertains into defense , external affair , and communication parliament needs the consultation of state govt for
applying them
Thus the state live under separate set of laws including related to citizenship , ownership , and fundamental rights
3) this article gives the special status to j n k
4) the abrogation of article 370 would terminate this special status this demand is raised by bjp but there is no constitutional procedure for it
5) this provision drafted by sheikh Abdullah who is appointed by pm of j n k maharaja hari Singh and jawahar lal Nehru
6) Indian citizen from other states can not purchase land or property in j n k
7( center can not declare financial emergency but in case of war and external aggression center can
8)it comes into part 21 named temporary , transitional and special provisions

0 COMMENTS LEAVE A COMMENT

SEPTEMBER 8, 2016
AKANKSHA SHARMA (M.SC IT,OCA,OCP,LLB,LLM,NET)

UNCATEGORIZED

International law # basic concepts # point wise easy discription

# Only 35 ru # grab your copy now

4 COMMENTS LEAVE A COMMENT

SEPTEMBER 8, 2016

AKANKSHA SHARMA (M.SC IT,OCA,OCP,LLB,LLM,NET)

UNCATEGORIZED

Talaq #muslimlaw # simple

1) the word talaq orinates from repudiation or rejection

2) only husband can pronounce the talaq but he can delegate his power to his wife or to the third person termed as talaq e tafweez
3) requirements of marriage
In Shia law sound mind , attained age of puberty , must be pronounced before two witnesses
In Sunni law sound mind , attained puberty
Talaq pronounced under intoxication or compulsion is effective
4) there is no need of presence of wife during pronouncement of talaq
Fulchand vs navab Ali chaudhary
5) talaq ul sunnat talaq according to the prophet
Most appropriate kind
Can be ahsan and Hassan
In ahasan talaq pronounce in a single sentence than iddat must be followed by wife . It is revocable during iddat after it become irrevocable
In hasan kind of talaq there is 3 successive pronouncement by the husband in. 3 tuhar stage . It becomes irrevocable after third pronoucement
6) talaq ul biddat disapproved and sinful talaq
Introduced by ommeyyada
In this mere three pronouncement if tuhr in a single turh made the talaq irrevocable
7) ila vow of continence means husband sweas before god that he will not hv sexual inter course with the wife
8)Zihar injurious assimilation means if a husband compares wife with his mother or to any female relative who comes under prohibited relationship
9)talaq e tafweez a husband may delegate his power to the third party or his wife
10) Khula talaq on request of wife so wife pay consideration for it
11) mubarat divorce by mutual agreement
No consideration is required becoz both are agree
12) lian -false charge of adultery
13) fask cancellation by qazi
13) judicial divorce by Muslim marriage dissolution Act 1939
Contain 9grounds for obtaining decree of divorce
1) absence of husband -4 yrs
2) failure to maintain 2 yrs
3) imprisonment of husband 7 yrs
4) failure Perform marital obligation 3 years
5) impotency of husband
6) insanity , le procy , veneral disease
7) repudiation. Of marriage
8) cruelty by husband
9) grounds allowed by Muslim law ila , Zihar , Khula , mubarat
Thank you readers

0 COMMENTS LEAVE A COMMENT

SEPTEMBER 8, 2016

AKANKSHA SHARMA (M.SC IT,OCA,OCP,LLB,LLM,NET)

UNCATEGORIZED

Law of tort #short notes yet sufficient notes #point wise

description # grab it now

0 COMMENTS LEAVE A COMMENT

SEPTEMBER 8, 2016

AKANKSHA SHARMA (M.SC IT,OCA,OCP,LLB,LLM,NET)

UNCATEGORIZED

4 main laws # point wise discription #Hindu law rs 50 # Contract

act rs 35# Muslim law rs 35# transfer of property act # grab your
copy now # easy to grasp # with leading cases # with some
objective solved questions

0 COMMENTS LEAVE A COMMENT


SEPTEMBER 8, 2016

AKANKSHA SHARMA (M.SC IT,OCA,OCP,LLB,LLM,NET)

UNCATEGORIZED

Indemnity#contract act#in simple 10 points

1) the leading case regarding indemnity is adamson vs Jarvis . Indemnity means a promise to save a person harmless from the consequences of the act

2) all types of insurances other than life insurance covered into indemnity

3) section 124 explains the term indemnity said

A contract by which one party to promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person is
a contract of indemnity
4) essential elements of indemnity

There must be a loss

The loss must be caused either by the promisor or by the other person

Indemnifier is responsible for the loss

5) rights of indemnity holder

Section 125 enumerates the rights of indemnity holder . These are

Right of recovering damages

Right of recovering costs

Rights of recovering sums

6) the rights of indemnity holder is not absolute

7) indemnity can be either expressed or implied .

8) this contract is contingent in nAture and is enforceable only when the loss occurs

9) if indemnity holder followed all the conditions he entitled to get benefit of contract

10) loss must be actual

Thank you readers

Keep study and keep grow

0 COMMENTS LEAVE A COMMENT

SEPTEMBER 8, 2016

AKANKSHA SHARMA (M.SC IT,OCA,OCP,LLB,LLM,NET)

UNCATEGORIZED
 OLDER POSTS

Blog at WordPress.com.