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1) A lead acid battery is considered fully charged when?

a) SG reaches 1.180
b) Cells gas freely
c) SG + voltage remain constant for specified period
2) Preferred method of Battery charging a Ni-Cad Battery is constant?
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Power
3) Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically are associated with
a) Elevators
b) Rudder
c) Ailerons
4) In an aircraft control system employing servo-tabs instillation of external ground locks to main control surface
a) is unnecessary since system is irreversible and therefore control surface cannot be displace by the wind
b) would not prevent movement of control column
c) would also prevent movement of control column
5) Air above Mach 0.7 is
a) Compressible
b) Incompressible
c) Compressible only when above speed of sound
6) Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the
a) Pressure to increase, velocity to increase
b) Pressure to decrease, velocity to increase
c) Pressure to increase, velocity to decrease
7) An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant true airspeed. Its Mach number will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Not change
8) Spongy brakes are usually a result of
a) Air in system
b) Internal leakage
c) External leakage
9) Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the
a) Wheel hub
b) Wheel flange
c) Brake drum
10) Blow out panels are fitted to floors of pressurised aircraft to
a) Provide access for pressurising aircraft
b) Relieve pressure if maximum differential is exceeded
c) Provide venting should a differential pressure build up across floor
11) If an aircraft were yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab?
a) To the left
b) To the right
c) To the centre
12) If an aircraft were flying with left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?
a) up
b) down
c) moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation
13) When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?
a) To increase lift
b) To re-energise the boundary layer
c) To allow flap to be retract in to it when it retracts
14) A purpose of a cut out in a hydraulic system
a) is to limit loss of fluid in event of pipe fracture
b) is to prevent creep of jack operated services which have several selected positions
c) is to relieve pump of load when operation of services is completed and accumulator charged with fluid
15) Hydraulic pressure can be restored by
a) the use of pressure/heat exchanger
b) compressing the air charge in an accumulator
c) compressing the fluid in a reservoir
16) Auto pilot servo brake is energised
a) to actuate off
b) at same time as the clutch
c) to actuate on
17) Hand held mikes are not permissible on
a) Public transport aircraft
b) Public transport or aerial work
c) Private aircraft only
18) Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at
a) 10,000 ft alt
b) 2500 ft alt
c) 1000 ft alt
19) A cross feed valve is usually in
a) Open position
b) Closed position
c) Its last position
20) Full time yaw damper system detects
a) Only low frequencies
b) All frequencies
c) Band pass frequencies
21) What is radio altitude track altitude?
a) 500 ft
b) 2500 ft
c) 10,000 ft
22) Which category are hand mikes considered essential?
a) Light aircraft
b) Aerial work aircraft
c) Heavy passenger aircraft
23) Emergency frequency is?
a) 121.5
b) 123.5
c) 125.5
24) Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on
a) High pressure systems
b) Low pressure systems
c) Air or vapour systems
25) Cargo and baggage compartments in which fire is completely confined come under
a) Class B
b) Class C
c) Class D
26) When a current transformer is disconnected wheat should be done?
a) Terminals shorted
b) Resistor placed across terminals
c) Left open circuit
27) What does a differential sensing coil sense?
a) Current
b) Volts
c) Power
28) 121.5 MHz is what frequency?
a) VHF
b) ILS
c) VOR
29) 121.5 MHz is what frequency?
a) VOR
b) ILS
c) VHF
30) Where does the GCU get its power?
a) PMG
b) Battery
c) RAT
31) Galley loads are wired in
a) Series
b) Parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption
c) Either series or parallel depending on design
32) On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?
a) Cellulose only
b) Not cellulose
c) Polyurethane
33) A current limiter
a) limits current flow to a load
b) opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded
c) can be used as a radio suppresser
34) When a load is shed from a busbar
a) busbar voltage increases
b) current consumption from the busbar decreases
c) busbar voltage decreases
35) In an unparalleled AC generation system the phase rotation on one generator in relation to the others
a) Is unimportant
b) Must be synchronised prior to paralleling
c) Must be BCA
36) In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is protected by?
a) over current and under current protection circuits
b) over voltage and under voltage protection circuits
c) over excitation and under excitation protection circuits
37) Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by?
a) Equalising circuits which control the speed of generators
b) Equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators
c) Automatic load sharing
38) Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by
a) Brushes positioned on MNA
b) Weak spring tension
c) Rotating field diode failure
39) Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from aircraft
a) allow to stabilise for one hour
b) take the temperature of the electrolyte
c) carryout a capacity test
40) When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna
a) use cellulose paint
b) use any paint
c) do not use cellulose paint
41) On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is controlled by pins
a) AB
b) CD
c) EF
42) Over voltage protection circuits are activated
a) before the over voltage limit is exceeded
b) dependant on the magnitude of the over voltage
c) after fixed time delay
43) With respect to flight spoilers they
a) only operate on the ground
b) only operate in flight
c) can operate both on ground and in flight
44) Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with/
a) Oxygen
b) Co2
c) Helium
45) As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000 ft) the cabin altitude must?
a) Stay the same
b) Increase
c) Decrease
46) A refrigerant is used in which of the following?
a) Air cycle machine
b) Pneumatic pump
c) Vapour cycle
47) With aircraft lights which of the following is true?
a) Starboard light red, port light green, tail light red
b) Starboard light red, port light green, tail light white
c) Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white
48) An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions
a) Aircraft on the ground with one engine running
b) Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on
c) Aircraft in the air with both engines running
49) With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?
a) The up going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron
b) The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle
c) The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron
50) How many axis does the autopilot control?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
51) A diode connected across a coil will?
a) prevent back EMF and allow faster switching
b) suppress arching when relay is opening and closing
c) prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way
52) Which fault does not trip the GCR?
a) Under frequency and under volts
b) Over frequency and over volts
c) Over frequency and under frequency
53) differential protection in a generating system
a) detects voltage difference between source and load
b) detects current difference between source and load
c) uses the volts coil to trip the GCR
54) Open phase sensing on a current transformer
a) is detected using all phases
b) is detected using any phase
c) is detected on generator neutral circuit
55) Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then
a) the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to main base
b) the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired
c) the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only
56) A white light must be
a) of five candela showing from starboard side through an angle of 110 degrees in the horizontal plain
b) of at least three candela showing through an angle of 110 degrees from dead astern in the horizontal plain
c) of at least three candela showing through 70 degrees from dead astern to each side in horizontal plain
57) If a battery is switched off in flight the
a) battery is disconnected from bus
b) generator voltage falls to zero
c) captains instruments will be powered from standby bus
58) To flash a generator field
a) generator must be stationary
b) rotate but not on line
c) online and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage
59) A hydraulic motor generators voltage and current is controlled by
a) the swash plate
b) the constant speed drive
c) the voltage regulator
60) The ground interlock pins are numbered
a) A and B
b) C and N
c) E and F
61) A nose down change of trim (tuck under) occurs due to shock induced on
a) tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
b) tip stall on a delta wing aircraft
c) root stall on a delta wing aircraft
62) Zone 320 under the ATA system is
a) vertical stabiliser
b) central fuselage
c) horizontal stabiliser
63) When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is
a) 0.005 ohms
b) 1/50 ohms
c) 50 milliohms
64) Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a pitot static leak check?
a) Altimeter
b) Air speed indicator
c) Vertical speed indicator
65) The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical section and will therefore provide side-load
a) only when the rudder is moved
b) if a suitable angle of attack develops due to either yaw or rudder movement
c) only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw
66) An aircraft left wing low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit would be
a) moved up causing the left aileron to move down
b) moved up causing the left aileron to move up
c) moved down causing the left aileron to move down
67) The bearing used in a fibre pulley is
a) a roller bearing
b) a plain bearing
c) a ball bearing
68) The real time on a CMC is when
a) existing faults page is selected on CDU
b) ground test page is selected on the CDU
c) fault history page is selected on the CDU
69) The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will cause
a) the cabin pressure to decrease
b) the cabin pressure to increase
c) it will not effect the cabin pressure
70) A spill valve opens
a) to control the air from the cabin to outside
b) to control the flow to the cabin
c) to prevent an excessive pressure difference
71) An aircraft aerofoil is exposed to supersonic flow. The boundary layer
a) is subsonic
b) increases in depth
c) is supersonic
72) A brake debooster valve is provided for
a) decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes
b) applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the brakes quickly
c) increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly
73) A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of 0 degrees. A shock wave will form
a) on the upper surface only and moving aft
b) on the upper and lower surfaces and will move aft until the point of maximum camber
c) on the upper and lower surface and will move aft
74) One of the inputs in a CMC is auto pilot controls. The data will be stored in
a) volatile memory
b) non-volatile memory
c) erased only after end of sector
75) The runway heading is
a) QDH
b) QDR
c) QDM
76) A spar web will take loads in
a) shear
b) tension
c) bending
77) What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?
a) soft rubber
b) fire-proof grommets
c) none required
78) A fuel cross-feed valve is powered from
a) AC busbar
b) The battery
c) DC busbar
79) A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated
a) by the fuel
b) by internal cooling
c) by air
80) A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13 000 ft by
a) bellows in the outflow valve
b) altitude sensor
c) cabin over pressure relief valve
81) How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightening strike?
a) Bonded strip
b) Earthing strip
c) Special paint
82) ILS marker beacon lights are
a) green, blue, amber
b) blue, amber, white
c) blue, white, green
83) 111.1 MHz is
a) an ILS frequency
b) a VOR frequency
c) a HF frequency
84) An auto pilot PFCU servo brake is
a) energised on
b) energised off
c) energised at the same time as the clutch
85) A florescent tube contains
a) orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
b) phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
c) iodine coatings and rare gases
86) Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery
a) when fully charged
b) at any time
c) only in the battery workshop
87) Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates
a) excessive charging current
b) not enough charging current
c) low electrolyte temperature
88) The aviation distress frequency is
a) 122.5 MHz
b) 121.5 MHz
c) 121.5 kHz
89) A radio altimeter in track mode is effective to
a) 2000 ft
b) 100 ft
c) 2500 ft
90) During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by
a) undervoltage
b) underfrequency
c) overcurrent
91) 112.1 MHz is
a) an ILS frequency
b) a VOR frequency
c) an ADF frequency
92) What does a Decca navigation system operate on?
a) Low frequency
b) High frequency
c) Very high frequency
93) What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat or fixed structure?
a) 24 inches
b) 26 inches
c) 28 inches
94) In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC
a) all faults are recorded in Volatile memory
b) all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
c) only primary faults are recorded
95) Adhesive bonding is
a) wetting + gripping
b) wetting + setting
c) spread + setting
96) Tension is the stress of
a) twisting
b) elongation or stretch
c) crush or compression
97) What is the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201-301 people?
a) 3 BCF
b) 4 Methyl Bromide
c) 4 Fire Extinguishers
98) On an aircraft with asymmetrical ailerons what happens to induced drag when banking right?
a) Drag on inside aileron goes up but not as much as the outer
b) Drag on the outer aileron increases
c) Drag on the outer aileron is less
99) When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted
a) a clearance exists at the secondary stops
b) the secondary stops will just be in contact
c) the secondary stops have been over-ridden
100) Excessive wear on both sides of a control cable pulley groove is evidence of
a) pulley misalignment
b) cable misalignment
c) excessive cable tension
101) A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed
a) with the aileron in the neutral position
b) with the aileron in the down position
c) when the aircraft is in level flight attitude
102) A flying control static friction check
a) can only be carried out during flight
b) will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls
c) demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls
103) Anoxia is due to
a) release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood
b) lack of oxygen
c) low air pressure on the body
104) The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant
a) inlet and outlet
b) outlet and vary the inlet
c) inlet and vary the outlet
105) The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control
a) the rate of pressurisation
b) cabin differential pressure
c) cabin air flow
106) Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is
a) more important in descent
b) equally important in ascent and descent
c) more important in ascent
107) With a pressurised aircraft at max differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs, the differential capsule in the pressure
a) have a constant mass flow
b) let all pressurising air to be spilled over board
c) let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure
108) If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum
a) a warning light comes on in the cockpit
b) compressor delivery is automatically boosted
c) an inward relief valve opens
109) Fuel cross feed valves are lubricated by
a) fuel
b) special lubricant
c) no lubrication needed
110) Fuel cross feed valves are operated by
a) 28 v dc bus
b) battery bus
c) 115 v ac
111) What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?
a) white
b) green
c) yellow
112) Which of the following has hyperbolic curve?
a) VOR
b) DME
c) Loran C
113) What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?
a) Boric acid
b) Bicarbonate of soda
c) Distilled water
114) A GPS satellite will come into view
a) 20 degrees above the horizon with respect to the viewer
b) 15 degrees above the horizon with respect to the viewer
c) 10 degrees above the horizon with respect to the viewer
115) Apparent drift is a function of
a) sin x latitude
b) cos x latitude
c) tan x latitude
116) What is an aileron balance cable for?
a) To allow the cable to be tensioned
b) To allow aircraft to fly hands off
c) To correct for wing heaviness
117) With an increase in the Mach number, the boundary airflow
a) remains constant
b) decreases thickness
c) increases thickness
118) A comfortable cabin altitude rate of climb is
a) 500 ft per min
b) 300 ft per min
c) 100 ft per min
119) Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to
a) aerial work and transport category aircraft
b) transport category aircraft only
c) private category
120) A white steady light is required
a) of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern
b) of at least 10 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern
c) of at least 10 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern
121) Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to prevent
a) overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines
b) voltages spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits
c) large circulating currents developing
122) Consumer loads are connected to a busbar
a) in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced
b) in series so when loads are shed current is reduced
c) in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced
123) A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for
a) negative sequence protection
b) overload protection
c) differential protection
124) Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares
a) generator current to busbar current
b) generator voltage to busbar voltage
c) ambient pressure to cabin to cabin pressure
125) When a current transformer is disconnected
a) a shorting link should be fitted
b) a resistor should be installed
c) no further precautions required
126) In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation
a) must be synchronised prior to paralleling
b) must be out of phase prior to paralleling
c) is of no consequence after paralleling
127) Diodes are placed across a contactor to
a) speed up operation by reducing back EMF
b) prevent contact bounce
c) ensure smooth contactor operation
128) Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will
a) isolate the battery from the main busbar
b) disconnect all power to the main busbar
c) shut down the APU
129) The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is
a) to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway
b) to limit the range of control movement
c) to allow the pilot to override
130) Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is important to maintain generator outputs at the same voltage
a) to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs
b) to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators
c) to prevent CSD shock loading
131) A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field
a) uses a current coil in parallel with generator output
b) uses a voltage coil in series with generator output
c) uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output
132) CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate
a) high oil pressure, low oil temp
b) low oil pressure, high oil temp
c) low oil pressure, underfrequency
133) The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by
a) a hydraulically actuated swash plate
b) an IDG
c) a CSD
134) An AC generator used with a CSD
a) does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant
b) does not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant
c) needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load
135) Power to a GCU is supplied
a) initially by a field tickling supply and then PMG output
b) generator output only
c) battery bus or rectified generator output
136) Trip signals for a GCR are
a) underfrequency and overcurrent
b) differential protection and undervoltage
c) overfrequency and undervoltage
137) Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of
a) high oil temp/low oil pressure
b) high oil temp/low oil quantity
c) low oil quantity/low oil temp
138) Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with
a) Nomex
b) Teflon
c) PVC
139) A heat gun should be operated at
a) 100 degrees above the specified
b) 100 degrees below the specified
c) at the specified temperature
140) High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because
a) it will damage the drive shaft
b) it will cause high circulating current in the bus/other generators
c) it will trip the GCR
141) Over voltage condition trips the generator. Time taken to trip the GCU depends on
a) closing of fuel and hydraulic valves
b) amplitude of voltage
c) time delay circuit
142) Speed of HMG is controlled by a
a) swash plate
b) CSD unit
c) ID unit
143) Track mode of RA is operational
a) from 1.0 to 100 feet
b) from 0 to 2500 feet
c) above 10000 feet
144) Permanent magnet should have
a) low retentivity, high coercivity
b) high retentivity, low coercivity
c) low retentivity, low coercivity
145) How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 25%
146) How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
147) Wavelength of X band radar is?
a) 3cm
b) 5cm
c) 10m
148) Precipitation static is caused by
a) HF radiation
b) Lightening strikes
c) Skin to air particle collisions
149) HF aerials have weak points designed at
a) front end
b) back end
c) both ends
150) How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?
a) By a motor load test
b) Motor test and Go-Nogo gap measurement
c) Screwdriver torque test
151) What is reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?
a) 1000 MHz
b) 1030 MHz
c) 1090 MHz
152) How often do hand held extinguishers have to be weighed?
a) Annually
b) Bi-annually
c) Every 5 years
153) CAT II RVR limit is
a) 10,000 ft
b) 1200 ft
c) 1000 ft
154) Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be
a) 3 inches
b) 4 inches
c) 5 inches
155) Dissimilar Metal Fusion Bonding is best for
a) high strength and high stiffness
b) high strength and toughness
c) high strength and ductility
156) A fuselage station is a
a) longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage
b) lateral point on aircraft fuse
c) lateral point on aircraft wing
157) Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use
a) solvent etch
b) alkaline etch
c) acid etch
158) What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?
a) the hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery
b) the battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode
c) the power supply to the battery will be interrupted
159) The purpose of a slot in a wing is to
a) act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer
b) speed up the airflow and increase lift
c) provide housing for the slat
160) The purpose of primer is to
a) help bonding of the top coat
b) provide shiny surface for the top coat
c) provide flexible surface for the top coat
161) Large flap deployment
a) causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface
b) causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface
c) has no effect on spanwise flow
162) At speeds greater than Mach 1 airflow in the boundary layer is
a) subsonic
b) supersonic
c) stationary
163) A machmeter works
a) above 10000 ft
b) always
c) always except on ground
164) With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft (nose up) range of movement of the elevator is restricted
a) for up travel movement
b) for down travel movement
c) would make no difference to the movement
165) Acrylic windows must be able to flex in situ because they have
a) lager coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
b) smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
c) slight shrinkage due to age
166) Engine wing fire bottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15 degrees C to
a) 1500 psi
b) 1250 psi
c) 600 psi
167) When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the SG will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain the same
168) Radio marker info is displayed on
a) HSI
b) ADI
169) Angle of attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Rectification is to
a) move probe up
b) move probe down
c) move probe laterally
170) When does auto trim operate at lower speed?
a) when flaps are down
b) when gear is down
c) when flaps are up
171) A water separator is located
a) downstream of the turbine
b) downstream of heat exchanger
c) upstream of the turbine
172) A cargo bay must have signs stating
a) no hazardous cargo
b) max dimensions
c) max loadings
173) Where is alpha angle used?
a) accelerometer
b) IRS
c) Angle of attack
174) A fire that can be put out by a crewmember in a cargo bay is a
a) class a
b) class b
c) class d
175) Spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to
a) 15 deg
b) 30 deg
c) 60 deg
176) Fuel systems that are interconnected must have
a) air spaces interconnected
b) separate venting for each tank
c) no airspace
177) As fuel level increases, system capacitance
a) decreases
b) increases
c) no change
178) When refuelling
a) the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full
b) it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank
c) it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank
179) Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?
a) Tip stalls first
b) Root stalls first
c) Both stall together
180) Composite material is bonded by
a) copper wire
b) special paint
c) aluminium wire
181) Cargo nets are manufactured from
a) hessian
b) polypropylene
c) nylon
182) With an auto pilot engaged which control surface is inhibited?
a) Elevators
b) Ailerons
c) THS
183) When flaps are lowered the automatic trim system will
a) increase the angle of incidence of the THS
b) decrease the angle of incidence of the THS
c) angle of incidence remains the same
184) During flight an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly
a) left wing low
b) right wing low
c) nose up
185) In auto pilot the control column
a) does not move
b) moves in pitch
c) moves in pitch and roll
186) Where is the spinup/rundown brake?
a) Inner gimbal
b) Outer gimbal
c) Rotating vane
187) On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would
a) carry out a check swing after fitment
b) fit the serviceable pre indexed flex valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed fro
c) align the aircraft onto its A quotient so that no error is induced
188) In airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?
a) QFE
b) QNH
c) 1013.25
189) Zone D cargo compartment windows
a) are made from fire retardant Perspex
b) must have blinds pulled down
c) must be blanked off
190) A hyperbolic system is
a) ILS
b) VOR
191) A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a fire is
a) class A
b) class B
c) class E
192) When is autothrottle disengaged?
a) On selection of reverse thrust
b) After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TOGA can be selected in case of emergency
c) On landing
193) On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust it?
a) In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel
b) On the GCU
c) By means of a remote trimmer
194) Tubeless tyres are stored
a) horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter on top
b) vertically
c) At 15 to 20 P.S.I.
195) Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is
a) by angle of swash plate
b) by IDG
c) by CSU
196) Aircraft with auto pilot and auto trim, a pitch command input will cause
a) column to move and trim system to move
b) column to move and trim system not to move
c) column will not move and trim system will move
197) ATA 100 is
a) upper fuse
b) lower fuse
c) Left hand wing
198) On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is
a) top of wheels closer together
b) bottom of wheels closer together
c) front of wheels closer together
199) In regard to aircraft transponder, what is pulse frequency?
a) Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second
b) Number of pulses per signal
c) Amount of times reply signal is sent per second
200) Weight of extinguisher is stamped
a) on base of body
b) on head fitting
c) on bracket
201) In a CMC system where would you find real time fault?
a) In test
b) In fault
c) In fault history
202) Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by
a) cooling fan on timer switch
b) thermal protection
c) water cooling
203) In a capacitive fire detection system, if
a) there is a break the system will work but will not test satisfactory
b) there is a short to earth the system will work but not test satisfactory
c) there is a break the system will not work
204) Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of
a) air
b) CO2
c) Nitrogen
205) When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment
a) it is applied wet and flushed out
b) it is applied dry and left
c) it is added to the fuel and burnt
206) Microbial growth is
a) brown black slime
b) red dots
c) green sludge
207) Vibration monitoring signals are sent
a) direct to the gauge
b) via a wave rectifier to the gauge
c) via a signal conditioner to the gauge
208) The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is from
a) ambient and minus
b) zero and minus
c) zero and positive
209) Solid burning oxygen units have a burn time of
a) 15 min
b) 30 min
c) 45 min
210) A direct reading bordon gauge has a restriction in the inlet, this is to
a) prevent FOD ingestion
b) dampen sudden pressure changes
c) allow for calibration
211) Windshield heating provides
a) impact resistance enhancement
b) increases strength to resist cabin pressure
c) thermal expansion for a tighter fit
212) CAT 2 RVR limit is
a) 800m
b) 400m
c) 200m
213) When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system, it dumps
a) the whole system
b) just the moisture trap
c) the system between compressor and regulator valve
214) The pneumatic system pump is
a) rotor vane
b) piston
c) centrifugal
215) A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will
a) wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced
b) be ok, and provide better grip
c) produce loss of fluid
216) At what press and temp is anti ice fluid applied?
a) 70 deg F at 100 psi
b) 7 deg F at 100 psi
c) 70 deg at 10 psi
217) In a semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by
a) stringers
b) frames
c) bulkheads
218) Wing bending and shear loads are taken by
a) spar cap
b) main spar
c) skin
219) The dilutor demand regulator functions
a) when the user breathes in
b) all the time
c) only when the supply valve is opened by the user
220) A maintainer valve in an hydraulic system will
a) allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply
b) dampen pressure inputs
c) maintain a high pressure to all systems
221) In a pneumatic system the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to
a) essential equipment
b) non-essential equipment
c) all equipment
222) A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is
a) 500ft per min
b) 300ft per min
c) 100ft per min
223) The hot junction of a thermocouple is
a) in the instrument
b) in the combustion chamber
c) aft of the combustion chamber
224) With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will
a) lower
b) rise
c) not be affected
225) Before carrying out a ground pressure check
a) check all pitot and static lines are fitted
b) turn on all instruments
c) set altimeter to QNH
226) The electrical connector to a remote aircraft component must be
a) .5in wide
b) 0.25in wide and 22 AWG
c) 22 AWG
227) To measure moisture in an oxygen system use
a) a glass plate
b) litmus paper
c) a hygrometer using the dew point method
228) Most large transport aircraft skins are
a) 2024
b) 7075
c) 5056
229) Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?
a) In the pressure line
b) In the suction line
c) In the case drain
230) How much oxygen is allowed in a tyre?
a) 5% by volume
b) 15% by volume
c) 5% by pressure
231) A tyre specification 32 x 10.75 14. What does the 10.75 refer to?
a) Bead diameter
b) Section width
c) Overall diameter
232) What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?
a) Increase in pressure
b) Increase in temperature
c) Fluid loss
233) What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?
a) Increase viscosity
b) Increase acidity
c) Increase alkalinity
234) When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?
a) The leg is serviceable the separator has bottomed
b) Leaking air/oil seals
c) Separator plate stuck open
235) When does auto trim operate at lower speed?
a) When flaps down
b) When gear down
c) When flaps up
236) What force is an I-beam subjected to?
a) Bending
b) Tension
c) Shear
237) How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?
a) Energised open
b) Energised closed for fail-safe
c) Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection
238) How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?
a) Via tray
b) Vent reservoir to atmosphere
c) By pressurising
239) When a ni-cad battery is fully charged
a) the electrolyte level stays the same
b) the electrolyte level is higher level than normal
c) the electrolyte level is lower than normal
240) How many programs can a FMC store?
a) One current
b) Two. One active and one standby
c) Two. Both active
241) EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at
a) cruise
b) take off
c) approach
242) How does an IRS calculate velocity?
a) Integration of accelerometers
b) Double integration of accelerometers
c) Differential of laser gyro
243) What is the arc of a landing light?
a) 11 degrees
b) 15 degrees
c) 20 degrees
244) In an auto pilot what controls pitch mode?
a) Glideslope
b) VOR
c) Localiser
245) Glideslope controls auto pilot in
a) pitch
b) yaw
c) roll
246) Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at
a) low current levels
b) high voltage levels
c) all voltage levels
247) Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by
a) a GCU
b) a BPCU
c) an IRS
248) When a rad.alt. Reaches 2500ft what happens to the display?
a) rad.alt. out of view
b) rad.alt. flag in view
c) error warning in view
249) A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by
a) Bonding strips
b) Special conductive grease
c) Conductive paint
250) An aspect ratio of 8 would mean
a) span 64, mean chord 8
b) mean chord 64, span 8
c) span squared 64, chord 8
251) Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?
a) PLI washers can be used more than once, providing they are used in critical bolted joints
b) PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication
c) PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once
252) Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of
a) frame stations, water lines and buttock lines
b) frames stations, vertical lines and lateral lines
c) longitudinal, vertical and lateral lines
253) Windscreen delamination is
a) windscreen peeling away from the airframe
b) bubbling of glass due to overheat
c) separation of the glass from the vinyl layer
254) What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?
a) 50 degrees F to 70 degrees F
b) 30 degrees C to 50 degrees C
c) 50 degrees C to 70 degrees C
255) What is the maximum temperature of warm water, which is used to clean dirty aircraft acrylic panels?
a) 104 degrees F
b) 40 degrees F
c) 125 degrees F
256) Pitot tubes are heated
a) electrically
b) by compressed bleed air
c) by kinetic heating
257) Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems
a) provide additional fluid if leaks occur
b) are only ever used in an emergency
c) store fluid under pressure
258) A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of
a) Butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon
b) natural rubber
c) synthetic rubber
259) Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in
a) acidity
b) alkalinity
c) viscosity
260) The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is
a) aerodynamic shape is not disturbed
b) more efficient
c) less of a fire hazard
261) The type of fluid used in an oleo strut will depend upon
a) type of fluid most readily available
b) the type of seal material
c) heat generated in operation of the system
262) A restrictor valve
a) may be used to slow down undercarriage extension
b) restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage
c) speed up the flow in one direction
263) The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to
a) damp the rebound
b) absorb the landing shock
c) ensure the separator does not bottom
264) The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to
a) separate the oil from the air
b) restrict the compression of the air
c) permit free flow during compression and restriction of oil during compression
265) Oxygen cylinder test dates
a) are painted in white on the cylinder
b) may be stamped on the neck of the cylinder
c) are variable depending on discharge
266) Fluorescent tubes are made up of
a) phosphates, rare gases and mercury
b) oxides, rare gases and mercury
c) ionides, rare gases and mercury
267) A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its secondary. What is the current draw
a) 3A
b) 1.2A
c) 0.3A
268) What is B-RNAV?
a) Ability to store 6 waypoints
b) Indicates true airspeed
c) Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint
269) An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters
270) After engine start using a Nicad battery, the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator, an initial high current draw followed by
a) there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines
b) the battery is faulty
c) no cause for concern
271) Topping up a Nicad battery in situ
a) is not allowed
b) is only allowed in the shop
c) is permitted
272) What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?
a) Frames
b) Stringers
c) Bulkheads
273) The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is
a) 11 degrees
b) 110 degrees
c) 140 degrees
274) What is the wavelength of C band radar?
a) 3cm
b) 4m
c) 7cm
275) O2 system pressure has leaked away after charging. What is the most probable cause?
a) Supernumarator regular
b) Temperature compensator
c) Breathing regulator
276) Made up wheels should be stored
a) vertical at 20/30 PSI charge
b) horizontal no more than 4 high
c) vertical at working pressure
277) High pressure pneumatic source is a
a) reciprocating pump
b) centrifugal compressor
c) butterfly pump
278) High pressure pneumatic pump is a
a) spur gear
b) butterfly pump
c) reciprocating pump
279) Before an aircraft reaches critical mach
a) the nose pitches up because the CP moves forward
b) the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear
c) the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave
280) A cantilever wing is
a) top wing of a biplane
b) normal airliner wing
c) swept back wing
281) A horn balance control will
a) increase degree of movement at high speed
b) decrease degree of movement at low speed
c) decrease degree of movement at high speed
282) The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is
a) above ambient pressure
b) below ambient pressure
c) above zero pressure
283) In normal flight if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will
a) move up
b) move down
c) remain in line with the elevator
284) In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the left, then the aileron on the right wing will
a) increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing
b) decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing
c) keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant
285) On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a control column is moved forward, the elevons will
a) remain stationary
b) both move up
c) both move down
286) Extended a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?
a) increase the angle of attack
b) decrease the angle of attack
c) no effect on the angle of attack
287) To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are
a) installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip
b) installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root
c) installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root
288) On a standard day at which altitude will the speed of sound be the greatest?
a) sea level
b) 10,000 ft
c) 20,000 ft
289) Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an airfoil?
a) using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back
b) increasing the aspect ratio of the wings
c) decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings
290) As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region the centre of pressure tends to
a) move forward
b) move rearward
c) turn into a shock wave
291) Which of the following is an example of a fail safe structure?
a) Spar
b) Stringer
c) Longeron
292) Damage tolerant design
a) allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance
b) allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure
c) is applied only to secondary structure
293) What is primary radar?
a) Land based
b) Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse
c) Radar that gives height and position
294) Lead acid battery after numerous checks one cell has low reading.
a) It is defective
b) It must be replaced
c) It needs topping up
295) What is ILS marker beacon frequency?
a) 50 MHz
b) 75 MHz
c) 100 MHz
296) TCAS is selected
a) automatically
b) by a switch on by pilot on selector panel
c) not available in cruise
297) The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 20 or more is
a) 15 inches
b) 24 inches
c) dependant on aircraft type
298) A short range passenger aircraft has a complete electrical failure. What time duration would the battery be expected to power essen
a) forever
b) 30 minutes
c) 60 minutes
299) An external power plug has two short pins, these are used for
a) the interlock circuit
b) ground handling bus
c) a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket
300) What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?
a) Yellow, cyan, magenta
b) Red, blue, yellow
c) Red, blue, green
301) Wing navigation lights must be visible from which angle?
a) 110 degrees
b) 180 degrees
c) 125 degrees
302) The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is
a) to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck
b) to monitor total current load
c) to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised
303) The manual VOR input is for
a) RMI
b) Course deviation bar
c) Glideslope
304) In an aircraft where the auto pilot is controlling a turn
a) 1 aileron is up, 1 aileron down for the duration of the turn
b) both ailerons down for the duration of the turn
c) 1 aileron up, 1 aileron down to set the bank angle and then ailerons back to neutral
305) In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of
a) 400
b) 600
c) 800
306) Which area of the aircraft is subjected to hoop stress?
a) Wings
b) Pressure cabin
c) Control surfaces
307) In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?
a) Longerons
b) Stringers
c) Skin
308) Which anti corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?
a) Cadmium plating
b) Zinc plating
c) Nickel plating
309) What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?
a) Aluminium alloys
b) Magnesium alloys
c) Ferrous alloys
310) When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft what method of measurement is normally used?
a) Steel tape and spring balance
b) Longitudinal alignment method
c) Lateral alignment method
311) How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage?
a) By door stops
b) By the pressure seal
c) Through a latching mechanism
312) Passenger cabin windows are constructed with two panes and a seal between them. Under normal conditions which pane(s) take th
a) Both
b) Inner
c) Outer
313) How are passenger seats secured to the floor?
a) By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle
b) By the front legs while the back attachment provides anti rattle
c) By both front and back legs
314) On a monospar wing, what gives the wing its contour?
a) The position of the spars
b) Milled stringers
c) Ribs
315) A normal hydraulic system will
a) show pressure and source of hydraulics
b) show fluid temperature and quantity
c) illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is ready
316) A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when
a) the system and the extinguishing system are the same
b) the system is the same but the extinguishant is different
c) the system is different but the extinguishant is the same
317) On touch down of the aircraft
a) the cabin pressure will be zero
b) the outflow valve will be shut
c) the outflow valve will be fully open
318) A galley trolley will be designed to
a) not exceed the floor loading limits
b) not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour
c) does not matter as the trolleys move
319) Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the
a) battery bus
b) battery bus and ground services bus
c) ground services bus
320) When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detection system test is carried out
a) a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to produce the warning
b) the signal passes through the centre and back through the outer to give the warning
c) it checks the integrity of the contacts
321) A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing is
a) soft rubber
b) aluminium
322) The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed
a) 20 feet per second
b) 40 feet per second
c) 120 feet per second
323) To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with
a) symmetrical flight control trim
b) integrated fuel monitoring system
c) automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements
324) After MLG down and securely locked a red light is illuminated in the flight deck. The possible causes are?
a) shorted sensor
b) out of adjustment sensor
c) wiring problem
325) A wings leading edge would have provisions and linkages for slats and
a) slots
b) leading edge flaps
c) trailing edge flaps
326) A yaw damper gain could be fitted with
a) increased sensitivity for increased speed
b) decreased sensitivity for decreased speed
c) decreased sensitivity for increased speed
327) To confirm the state of charge of a nicad battery
a) subject each battery to load and check voltage
b) measure the discharge time
c) subject the battery to load, check voltage and check the SG of each cell
328) Circulating currents are associated with
a) AC generators in parallel
b) DC generators in parallel
c) AC and DC generators in parallel
329) In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external ground locks between the control surface and the balance
a) is unnecessary since the system is irreversible
b) would prevent the movement of the control column
c) would not prevent the movement of the control column
330) Supersonic air going though an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed and
a) decrease temperature and increase density
b) increase temperature and decrease density
c) increase temperature and increase density
331) Generator brush bedding
a) should not be done on the aircraft
b) should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the length is already being done
c) can be done on the aircraft
332) when loading a cargo aircraft
a) the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads
b) the C of G limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances
c) the weight limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances
333) What is the amperage at the shunt of the generator to the nearest amp?
a) 100 Amps
b) 102 Amps
c) 105 Amps
334) The two switches for pitch trim are located
a) on the central column with the Captain having priority over the First Officer
b) on the central column acting like an AND switch
c) on the central column acting like an OR switch
335) The mach trim is initiated by
a) the auto pilot motor
b) an electric motor
c) a PCU
336) When checking for alignment of a MLG, check
a) symmetry, tracking, camber
b) symmetry, splay, tracking
c) symmetry, twist, tracking
337) If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may be
a) flap tracks out of rigging
b) flap motor internal leakage
c) bearing seized
338) Alpha vane signal could be fed to ----?-----,-----?----- when close to stall.
a) thrust levers
b) fast/slow switch
c) flap position
339) If an O2 system is leaking, where would you find the cause?
a) Thermal Relief Valve
b) Loose connection
c) Breathing mask
340) Pitot tubes are heated by
a) AC
b) DC
c) AC or DC
341) Shear stress is described as
a) compressing forces
b) pulling forces
c) slip away under the acting of forces
342) The ground cable must be
a) copper stranded 0.5 mm cross sectional area
b) single strand copper wire 0.5 mm cross sectional area
c) single strand 18 AWG
343) What is the colour of the middle marker?
a) White
b) Blue
c) Amber
344) On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper system is
a) independent on each side with different power sources
b) independent on each side but with the same power source
c) one system for both sides but with the same power source
345) Where on the aircraft is FS245, RWS45?
a) 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing
b) 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing
c) 245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing
346) When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system, and a quick release disconnect connection i
a) a full test of the system should be carried out
b) a full test of the system should be carried out only if the manufacturer recommends to do so
c) the allowances for the system should be halved
347) For aircraft certified after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance for the system would be
a) +/- 200 feet +/- 50 feet for instrument error
b) +/- 500 feet for the system overall
c) +/- 300 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument errors
348) A GPS system is formed from
a) space, control, user
b) satellites, processing unit, display unit
c) receiver, processing unit, interactive console
349) For aircraft with dual ACMS, when only one ACMS is available, it
a) must be connected to the left side
b) must be connected to the right side
c) can be connected to either side
350) These markings are found on a tyre 32 x 10,45 R14. What does the number 32 mean?
a) Inner diameter
b) Outer diameter
c) Width
351) With reference to differential aileron control
a) drag increases on the inner wing
b) drag decreases on the outer wing
c) drag increases on the outer wing
352) H S I provides information on
a) VOR, ILS, plan, attitude
b) VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar
c) VOR, ILS, map, radar, attitude
353) Laser gyros are
a) aligned to the aircraft structure
b) aligned to the magnetic north
c) aligned to the true north
354) Laser gyros
a) have rotational parts
b) do not have rotational parts
c) have moveable parts
355) The sensing element of the flux valve
a) aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised
b) aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns
c) remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure
356) As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres
a) the O2 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended
b) the O2 masks deploy automatically and the FD crew must activate the system from the cockpit
c) the O2 masks deploy automatically and the FA crew activates the system from the emergency panel
357) Paint remover substances
a) are damaging to some aircraft parts
b) are not damaging for aircraft parts
c) should only be used once
358) How is the radome protected from lightening strikes?
a) Diverter strips
b) Special paint
c) Special grease on the hinges
359) Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called
a) minimum equipment
b) controlled equipment
c) uncontrolled equipment
360) Galley trolleys must have placards indicating
a) location, position, flight number
b) maximum weight, position, flight number
c) must be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence
361) When inspecting Lavatory installations
a) No Smoking sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays
b) the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder
c) the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material
362) Lavatories must have in the disposal container
a) water/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged
b) Freon extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged
c) Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged
363) Fire detection loop as must be capable of
a) detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the condition is no longer pre
b) using master warning visual and aural signals
c) using master warning visual signals only
364) Paralleling is used for
a) AC and DC electrical generators
b) AC electrical generators only
c) DC electrical generators only
365) When testing emergency slide bottles
a) all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body
b) one pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at one time
c) any pin could be checked by connecting directly to ground
366) Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA
a) Chapter 24 Section 21
b) Chapter 24 Section 31
c) Chapter 31 Section 21
367) In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is
a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length
b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact
c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length
368) In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by
a) transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another
b) symmetrical application of aileron
c) operation of elevator
369) A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents
a) breather points
b) the light part of the tyre
c) military reference
370) In detachable flange type wheels, the flange is secured by
a) bolts
b) a lock ring
c) a retainer plate
371) Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by
a) press type rivets
b) contact adhesive
c) bolts
372) fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are
a) for overpressure protection
b) for over temperature protection
c) to deflate the tyre before removal
373) A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is
a) to provide strength
b) to provide a wear indication
c) to indicate the position for the tyre levers
374) Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with
a) pressure and quantity gauge
b) oxygen purity gauge
c) temperature gauge
375) To remove a rivet
a) chisel off the head, and remove the shank with a metal punch
b) Drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head and remove the shank with a metal pun
c) Drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head and remove the shank with a metal
376) When acrylic and sheet metal is joined together, allowance should be made for
a) expansion of the acrylic due to heat
b) expansion of the metal due to heat
c) galvanic corrosion of the metal
377) Most aircraft skins are made of
a) 2024
b) 7075
c) 2017
378) Dutch roll is movement in
a) yaw and roll
b) pitch and roll
c) yaw and pitch
379) A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out by
a) tanks completely empty
b) tanks completely full
c) tanks empty with unusable fuel amount
380) A radio coupled approach is
a) localiser first, followed by glideslope
b) glideslope first, followed by localiser
c) in any order
381) Aileron signal is fed to rudder channel
a) for turn coordination
b) for yaw damping compensation
c) for turn command back-up
382) Yaw damping rate changes with
a) airspeed
b) altitude
c) flap position
383) After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at
a) engine inlet
b) tank outlet
c) tank shut-off valve point
384) In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes place
a) below the fungal colonies
b) the bottom 2 inches of the tank
c) the top of the tank
385) In a compass swing: North error 2 degrees, South error 2 degrees. The coefficient of C is
a) 0 degrees
b) +2 degrees
c) 2 degrees
386) If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging, this is
a) caused by a leaky seal
b) normal
c) due to excessive charging pressure
387) A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens
a) when 100% selected
b) when breathing
c) all the time
388) Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with
a) a demand regulator
b) an over temperature indicator
c) an overpressure indicator
389) American made crew oxygen cylinders are
a) green in colour with a RH thread
b) green in colour with a LH thread
c) black in colour with a RH thread
390) The rate of G/S warning in GPWS
a) changes with radio altitude
b) changes with barometric altitude
c) does not change
391) If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together, what would the gauge read?
a) 0
b) full scale deflection
c) centre scale
392) What is the main purpose of a frize aileron?
a) Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads
b) Increase drag on the up going wing
c) Decrease drag on the up going wing
393) What frequency are VOR and ILS?
a) VHF
b) UHF
c) HF
394) On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system, after an overheat how is the heater reset?
a) On ground only by engineer
b) After it cools the pilot resets
c) After cooling below 300 degrees C it auto resets
395) Constant pressure hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services are being used?
a) Pressure relief valve
c) Return line back to pump
396) If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain
a) all the system
b) between the compressor and the PRV
c) just the moisture trap
397) Which connector has a left hand thread?
a) O2
b) N2
c) Freon
398) When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is
a) 1 degree
b) 3 degrees
c) 5 degrees
399) What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is removed?
a) Unpressurised
b) Goes to neutral
c) Droops
400) Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by
a) Tachogenerator
b) Feedback from control surface
c) Feedback from servo motor
401) Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by
a) 4%
b) 7%
c) 10.321%
402) The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of the pitot head is carried out with
a) an inclinometer
b) micrometer
c) spirit level
403) A red dot/triangle on an aircraft tyre means
a) breather points
b) the light part of the tyre
c) military reference
404) Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is
a) 71 degrees F
b) 144 degrees F
c) 144 degrees C
405) If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by
a) constant voltage
b) constant current
c) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage
406) Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA
a) Chapter 24 Section 21
b) Chapter 24 Section 31
c) Chapter 31 Section 21
407) In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is
a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length
b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact
c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length
408) The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is
a) stationary
b) fluctuating
c) pulse width modulating
409) In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by
a) transformers and transistors
b) diodes and transformers
c) zeners and transistors
410) Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by
a) voltage coil
b) current coil
c) voltage and current coil
411) Increasing the real load primarily
a) decreases frequency
b) decreases output voltage
c) increases output voltage and increases frequency
412) Inductive reactive load causes
a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
c) increase in torque only
413) The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of
a) apparent power from the generator that does work
b) reactive power from the generator that does work
c) real power from the generator that does work
414) The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by
a) angle of swash plate
b) IDG
c) Restriction valve
415) Differential protection in an AC system protects against
a) A reverse current flowing from the battery
b) Short circuits
c) Line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
416) When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
a) stationary
b) rotating at idle
c) rotating at Nsync
417) One of the main purposes of a CSD is to
a) enable generators to be paralleled
b) prevent engine overload
c) maintain constant load on the generator
418) In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is
a) activation of the time delay circuit
b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs
c) energises the bus tie relay
419) If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the
a) CSD drive shaft had sheared
b) Phase sequence detection circuit has operated
c) Bus tie interlock is inoperative
420) Assuming all systems are operating normally, as an aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage will
a) decrease and amperage output increase
b) increase and amperage output increase
c) remain constant and amperage output increases
421) Battery trays are
a) metal for earthing purposes
b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte
422) When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in
a) parallel
b) series
c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option
423) What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?
a) Ground to earth
b) Positive to battery relay
c) Positive to external power relay
424) On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is
a) a faulty selector valve
b) a faulty actuator
c) gear lowered at too high an airspeed
425) A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for
a) weather radar
b) HF communications
c) Marker beacons
426) A wing mounted stall warning vane
a) moves up at impending stall
b) moves down at impending stall
c) gives a visual indication of impending stall
427) During an auto pilot controlled turn
a) ailerons and rudder will move
b) ailerons, rudder and elevators will move
c) ailerons, rudder and THS will move
428) A Systron-Donnor fire detection system uses
a) nitrogen gas
b) helium gas
c) oxygen gas
429) A toilet is fitted with thermal protection
a) to protect against freezing at altitude
b) to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat
c) to protect against continuous flushing
430) On a fully fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by
a) flight augmentation computer
b) flight control computer
c) flight management and guidance computer
431) In a fly-by wire aircraft what controls the roll spoilers?
a) Flight control computer
b) Flight augmentation
c) Flight management computer
432) If an aircraft has the ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to
a) shut off fuel before structural damage
b) provide overflow facility to dump fuel
c) stop engine from using tank during transfer
433) if an aircraft is aerodynamically stable
a) C of P moves back
b) Aircraft becomes too sensitive
c) Aircraft returns to trimmed attitude
434) What is the principle of O2 generators?
a) sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator producing O2 when mixed with air
b) sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electric detonator
c) sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electric detonator
435) Prior to securing a leading edge de-icing boot you must
a) remove all paint
b) shave rivet to prevent further abrasion
c) paint the surface
436) Where would you find information regarding galley equipment?
a) AWN99
b) BCARs
c) ANO
437) A large flap deployment causes
a) increased spanwise flow from root to tip on the wing lower surface
b) reduced spanwise flow from root to tip on the wing lower surface
c) no effect on spanwise flow
438) On a fully fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by
a) flight augmentation computer
b) flight control computer
c) flight management and guidance computer
439) The primary purpose of sealant used in pressurised aircraft is?
a) to seal the cabin
b) to provide external streamlining
c) to prevent corrosion
440) What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motors?
a) Prevent toilet freezing
b) Stop motor running beyond 10 second if timer becomes unserviceable
c) Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard
441) How is RAT driven?
a) Airstream
b) Compressor
c) Fan
442) How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?
a) Weighed
b) Check the telltale wire
c) Check the pressure
443) What external warning is there for an APU fire?
a) Red light
b) Aural
c) Both
444) Which of the following is perspex resistant to?
a) kerosene
b) MEK
c) Acetone
445) What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?
a) 1800 PSI
b) 3000 PSI
c) 300 PSI
446) Ditching control is used to
a) achieve rapid depressurisation
b) maintain cabin pressure at sea level
c) close the outflow valve
447) How often are life jackets inspected?
a) In accordance with the AMM
b) In accordance with the manufacturers specification
c) Every 12 months
448) What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?
a) Displacement
b) Tied down
c) Space
449) Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by
a) AC
b) DC
c) AC or DC
450) Hydraulic systems normally operate at
a) 3000 PSI
b) 300 PSI
c) 1800 PSI
451) When flushing hydraulic systems
a) flush with same hydraulic oil
b) flush with any hydraulic oil
c) flush with methylated sprit
452) When replenishing a hydraulic system
a) use the same/correct hydraulic fluid
b) use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer
c) use any hydraulic fluid
453) When replacing a flexible pipe
a) use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting
b) do a bonding check
c) tighten only hand tight
454) How is an aircraft battery rated?
a) Ampere hours
b) Watts
c) Joules
455) Mass balance weights are used for
a) counteract flutter on control surfaces
b) balance tabs
c) balance trailing edge of flying control surfaces
456) When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be
a) All closed
b) All open
c) Removed
457) Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be carried out
a) every two years
b) only when equipment items fail random tests
c) every five years
458) Portable fire extinguishers are operated by
a) breaking tell tale/tamperproof seal operated by handle
b) one single operation until the fire extinguisher is empty
c) turn upside down and squeeze button/trigger
459) Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured
a) green
b) red
c) white
460) When fitting a tyre the red dot should be positioned
a) adjacent to the charging valve
b) opposite the charging valve
c) on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve
461) Composite brake units
a) have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures
b) have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures
c) weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high temperatures
462) Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by
a) the battery bus
b) DC handling bus
c) AC handling bus
463) A radio altimeter system can be self tested
a) on the ground only
b) in the air only
c) both
464) A modern aircraft CMC uses
a) magnetic fault indicator
b) CRT screen
c) LED display
465) Ailerons control the aircraft in the
a) longitudinal axis
b) lateral axis
c) directional axis
466) Oxygen storage cylinders once charged should be
a) turned on and safety wired
b) turned off
c) turned on by crew
467) In a fuel system with interconnecting vents
a) the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity
b) the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity
c) an expansion space is not required
468) In a pressurised aircraft cabin window, the differential pressure is felt
a) on the inner pane
b) on the scratch panel
c) on both panes
469) On an aircraft travelling at speeds greater than Mach 1 the boundary layer
a) thicker than if the aircraft were travelling slower than Mach 1
b) Stationary
c) Supersonic
470) At speeds above Mach 1 shockwaves will form above and below the wing
a) at the leading edge
b) at the trailing edge
c) at both leading edge and trailing edge
471) A cantilever wing is
a) a swept back wing
b) the upper wing of a biplane
c) a wing without any external struts or bracing
472) Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test, it is necessary to
a) disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve
b) set QFE
c) reset/disable the pressure controller
473) On a hot rod type of ice detector, it is switched on
a) all the time
b) when in the air
c) when selected by the crew
474) Ice formation on wings is due to
a) suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing
b) ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing
c) supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing
475) When installing a Hi-lock bolt, it is necessary to
a) lubricate the shank and threads
b) lubricate the collar
c) simple fit the bolt as they are pre-lubricated
476) The web of an I beam takes mainly what type of load
a) shear
b) tension
c) bending
477) A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused, is know as
a) bending
b) shear
c) strain
478) Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:
a) according to SB instructions
b) according to separate manufacturers documentation such as BAC
c) according to AMM and SRM chapter 51
479) PTV type entertainment equipment
a) is not part of maintenance schedule
b) has no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting
c) is installed with seat electronic unit multiplexing techniques
480) Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control surface assembly
a) is meant to trim CG of control surfaces
b) serves as servo system of balance
c) has the same effect of the balance tab
481) The purpose of the vinyl interlayer in window construction is
a) to increase static strength
b) to improve on brittle behaviour
c) to enable inclusion of heater film
482) Semi-monocoque construction
a) offers good damage resistance
b) is used only for the fuselage
c) utilises the safe-life design concept
483) In a typical vapour cycle system, the subcooler
a) is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour
b) cools the vapour further to prevent slugging
c) delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on the ground
484) The apparent wander for directional gyros is
a) compensated for by applying a constant torque
b) maximum at the pole
c) dependant on longitude
485) Active load control involves
a) varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft
b) limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed
c) intervention & monitoring the human pilot
486) The mid-spar is found in large aircraft to
a) support fitting the engine mount & landing gear mount
b) assist the main spar with operational loads
c) provide redundant design
487) How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?
a) Vent to atmosphere
b) Tray
c) Pass through a restriction
488) A thermal compensator is used in
a) a hydraulic system
b) an oxygen system
c) a fuel system
489) An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and thrust reverser deployment what happens to autothrottle?
a) Automatically switches off
b) Stays armed for go around in an emergency
c) Advances throttles
490) How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
491) Pilots instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned
a) on right side of control wheel
b) on side of control wheel furthest away from throttles
c) on left side of control wheel
492) Active load control uses
a) elevator and stab
b) elevator and aileron
c) aileron and spoiler
493) The directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for
a) toppling
b) drift
c) erection
494) A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is
a) energised to the run position
b) de-energised to start the pump
c) used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure
495) A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a
a) calibration check
b) continuity check
c) function check
496) When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the warning lamp on the flight deck
a) goes out immediately
b) goes out after one more cycle
c) goes out after a set period of time
497) De-misting of passenger windows is provided by
a) an electric heating element
b) air from the cabin
c) sealed window
498) ILS and VOR operate in which range
a) UHF
b) HF
c) VHF
499) An anti-balance tab is used
a) for trimming the aircraft
b) to relieve stick loads
c) to give more feel to the controls
500) The fin helps to give
a) directional stability about the longitudinal axis
b) directional stability about the normal axis
c) longitudinal stability about the normal axis
501) A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in
a) reduced torque and increased speed
b) increased torque and reduced speed
c) increased torque and speed
502) When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is
a) passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep temperature down
b) passed into bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient
c) passed into bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature
503) The purpose of the auto pilot servo-motor torque setting is to
a) damp the system oscillation
b) protect the servo motor
c) prevent control surface runaway
504) Random drift of a gyro is caused by
a) error in roll when aircraft is turning
b) gyro friction and unbalance
c) aircraft turning with an error in roll
505) Structural members are designed to carry
a) side loads
b) end loads
c) side and end loads
506) Most radio aerials are
a) bonded
b) not bonded
c) insulated from the fuselage
507) A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener also acts as a
a) shear tie
b) jury strut
c) tear stopper
508) Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?
a) Charging connection
b) Shut-off valve
c) Line valve
509) A restrictor valve can be used
a) to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension
b) to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension
c) to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction
510) Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars), when do they exert the most amount of influence?
a) When parallel to each other
b) When 45 degrees apart
c) When 90 degrees apart
511) In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on ground and
a) thrust levers are deployed
b) brakes are deployed
c) weight on ground switch is activated
512) In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by
a) electric flight control unit
b) Flight Augmentation Computers
c) Flight Guidance and management Computer
513) FMC secondary is selected
a) on the ground by the pilot
b) by calendar date monthly
c) in the air by the pilot
514) On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug for oil and water trap is left open for long periods of time, the system would
a) lose all pressure
b) lose pneumatic pressure partially
c) lose pressure from the compressor side only
515) What are the faying surfaces of a repair?
a) Edges of repair metal
b) Material under repair
c) Middle of repair
516) Why is a joggle joint used?
a) So countersunk rivets do not need to be used
b) Smooth contour of surface
c) Added strength
517) With the engine static EPR gauge reads just above 1.
a) This is ok
b) Transmitter is unserviceable
c) Gauge requires re-calibration
518) Aileron input is fed into yaw damper system to
a) prevent nose pitching down
b) prevent adverse yaw in a turn
c) prevent nose pitching up
519) Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when
a) 100% selected
b) less than 500 psi in bottle
c) user breathes in
520) When the fire handle is operated it
a) cuts off fuel and hydraulics. Generator remains on line to provide electrical power
b) cuts off field current, hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers
c) operates fire extinguishers
521) Coefficient A is adjusted
a) 270 degrees
b) 360 degrees
c) any heading
522) With an aircraft which has more than one compass system
a) Both are adjusted on each heading
b) Master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card
c) Master and slave adjusted, correction card for master only
523) GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give
a) amber warning
b) red caption and aural whoop whoop pull up
c) red caption and aural pull up undercarriage, flaps, throttle
524) DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?
a) So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass
b) 20 inches
c) 24 inches
525) The components of an ILS are
a) a localizer and glide slope
b) a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
c) a localizer and the marker beacons
526) In ILS, the glide slope provides
a) lateral steering
b) vertical steering
c) distance checks
527) If the 90 Hz tone predominates in a localizer receiver, the deviation bar will show
a) the flag
b) fly right
c) fly left
528) Autopilot will operate after
a) 1000 ft
b) 750 ft
c) 500 ft
529) Which pitot probe provides info to the captains instruments?
a) Upper
b) Lower
c) Both
530) On the AMD, what does amber indicate?
a) Warning
b) Present status
c) Cautionary info
531) Which instrument shows Decision Height?
a) HSI
b) ADI
532) Where does the HSI receive GND speed info from?
b) Pitot static probes
c) INS
533) What will happen if the master dim and test switch is switched to the on position?
a) All lights will illuminate
b) Dome lights will illuminate
c) Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate
534) What is the radio alt track altitude?
a) 500 ft
b) 10000 ft
c) 2500 ft
535) A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses
a) VOR
b) Glide slope
c) ADF
536) EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that can be selected in
a) take off
b) cruise
c) approach
537) Inertial Nav unit uses pin programming for
a) Aircraft type
b) Location
c) Magnetic orientation
538) How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?
a) data plate on FMC
c) FMC via CDU
539) What are the 2 short prongs for on an AC plug?
a) Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit
b) Prevent arcing during plug connection/disconnection
c) Local telephone connection
540) A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a
a) voltage regulating coil in parallel
b) voltage regulating coil in series
c) current regulating coil in series
541) A de-icer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to
a) Prevent electrical static build up
b) Smoother airflow over leading edge
c) More efficient de-icer cycles
542) The weak link on a wire aerial is at
a) the front
b) the middle
c) the rear
543) GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:
a) Radio altimeter
b) Pressure altimeter
c) Air speed indicator
544) What is the contamination monitor for in a Systron Donner fire detection system?
a) Integrity comparitor
b) Dirty contacts
c) Volts drop
545) A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for
a) extra supply in case of emergency
b) additional flight crew
c) changes in altitude
546) Pitch trimming in an autopilot is initiated by
a) C of G movement
b) Continued pitch input
c) Pitch of aircraft in cruise
547) Jet engines are usually mounted by
a) welded steel tubing
b) forged mounts and to aircraft structure
c) aluminium castings
548) In a cockpit window heater system the autotransfomer
a) steps up output for severe weather conditions
b) supplies AC power for heating
c) supplies DC power for heating
549) A high speed aircraft with MACH warning will
a) warn the Mcrit is reached
b) warn when Mach 1 has been exceeded
c) warn when coming to limits of upper envelope
550) A constant delivery pump has its output varied with
a) servo pressure
b) regulators
c) gears
551) When power is switched off the gimbal brake
a) stops outer gimbal
b) restricts outer gimbal
c) restricts inner gimbal
552) In an air conditioning system heat is added to air by
a) restricting compressor inlet
b) restricting compressor outlet
c) restricting duct outlets
553) Two compressors driven by separate engines use
a) NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other
b) PRVs
c) Interconnected to share loads
554) Fuel tanks interconnected must have
a) vents to allow overfueling
b) tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet
c) protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system
555) IRS has mercury switches on
a) inner gimbal
b) outer gimbal
c) all gimbals
556) ACMs
a) provide ATA tech log reference for all faults
b) provides source of fault
c) supplies CMC with source of fault
557) After successful ditching, use of life rafts must be
a) displayed clearly on leaflet in pouch in front of seat
b) shown how to be deployed by stewardesses
c) clear instructions given with ease of use on raft
558) Secondary bonding is usually with
a) stranded copper 0.25 inch
b) single strand 0.25 inch
c) 18 AWG
559) What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?
a) To prevent backflow of current in the EMF coil
b) To speed up the operation
c) To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay
560) Eddy currents are
a) caused by resistance of the coil
b) circulating currents
c) caused by heating effect of the coil
561) Differential aileron control will
a) cause a nose down moment
b) cause a nose up moment
c) prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input
562) How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401-500 people?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 8
563) Toilets must have a smoke detection
a) light in cockpit
b) aural and visual warning in the main cabin
c) connected to a pump to pump smoke out
564) When an undercarriage is lowered, it tends to creep back up. The fault could be
a) a leaky selector valve
b) a stuck relief valve
c) the emergency system
565) Escape route lighting must not have more than
a) 10% obscured
b) 15% obscured
c) 20% obscured
566) Fireproofing of cabin material should be done
a) every 2 years
b) when a sample fails
c) every 5 years
567) How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?
a) None
b) 10%
c) 25%
568) The angle of a runway turn off light is
a) 40 degrees
b) 50 degrees
c) 60 degrees
569) The small pins in the power connector plug are
a) positive
b) negative
c) neutral
570) Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with
a) 115 V AC
b) 28 V AC
c) 28 V DC
571) On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?
a) SEC
b) ELAC and SEC
572) When an overvolt is present on an ac generator system the tripping circuit
a) trips at a set level
b) trips after a time delay
c) trips after a time delay inversely proportional to the overvolt amplitude
573) In an AC distribution system the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to
a) provide interconnection between the generator load busbars
b) supply essential services
c) provide a means of monitoring the load
574) When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to
a) soft reversion
b) hard reversion
c) mechanical reversion
575) Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is
a) across the generator output
b) in series with the field windings
c) in parallel with the field windings
576) A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for
a) differential protection
b) phase sequence monitoring
c) load monitoring
577) Zener diodes are for
a) voltage stabilisation
b) voltage regulation
c) rectification
578) Generator output indications are
a) KW
b) KW & KVAR
c) KVA & KW
579) A Flight Data Recorder is activated when
a) the helicopter takes off
b) the helicopters engines are started
c) when power is applied to the helicopter
580) On an EADI the command bars show
a) required flight path compared with horizon
b) required flight path compared to planned flight path
c) required flight path compared with aircraft position
581) The air data computer inputs to
a) mach meter, standby altimeter, ASI
b) cabin rate sensors, mach meters, ASI, altimeter
c) altimeter, FMC, secondary radar
582) If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach the aircraft must fly
a) up
b) down
c) nowhere-this is a normal approach
583) Load shedding allows
a) more current to the busbar
b) less current to the busbar
c) more voltage to the busbar
584) How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?
a) Slightly variable DC
b) Pulse width modulated DC
c) Variable AC
585) In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system, how is power maintained to the essential a
a) By power fed from static inverter only
b) By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only
c) By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter
586) Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the field power supply to the generator exciter?
a) Generator control relay
b) Generator line contactor
c) Generator power pilot relay
587) In what units are static inverters rated?
a) kW
b) kVA
c) kVAR
588) What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?
a) 150 Hz right of runway centre line, 90 Hz left of runway centre line
b) 150 Hz left of runway centre line, 90 Hz right of runway centre line
c) 90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide path
589) What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?
a) 2.5 degrees
b) 10 degrees
c) 6 degrees
590) In an automatic flight control system when may yaw damper be applied?
a) During automatic control only
b) During manual control only
c) During either manual or automatic control
591) In what frequency range does the automatic direction finder (ADF) system operate?
a) 108.0-117.95 MHz
b) 1025-1150 KHz
c) 190-1759 KHz
592) In a generator system, a stability winding is used
a) in series with the field to prevent oscillations
b) to prevent voltage overshoot
c) to control output current
593) On engine shut down what prevents GCR being tripped?
a) undervolt
b) underfrequency
c) under current
594) How is a real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?
a) Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator fields
b) Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. Output voltage is controlled by adjustment of generator
c) Real load by control of generator fields, Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives
595) How are passenger reading lights normally tested?
a) Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel
b) By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel
c) By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel
596) In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system during flight?
a) OFF
b) Armed
c) ON
597) How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other aircraft?
a) By using an alternate frequency
b) By modulation of an audio tone
c) By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal
598) From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance-radio-magnetic-indicator (DDRMI)?
a) From VOR and ADF systems
b) From VOR only
c) From ADF only
599) How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?
a) As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb)
b) As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the a
c) As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an evacuated capsule a
600) Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?
a) VHF and UHF
b) HF
c) VHF
601) Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication system?
a) To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length
b) To select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF band
c) To electrically lengthen or shorten aerial for optimum matching of impedance
602) What would be the purpose of an input from an internal reference system being connected to a weather radar?
a) To provide stabilisation for the rear antenna
b) To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display
c) To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground
603) Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)?
a) Flaps/undercarriage
b) Autothrottle
c) Rudder/ailerons
604) In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and where is it normally fitted?
a) Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft
b) Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips
c) A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft
605) The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. How does it operate?
a) Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN
b) It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies
c) It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS
606) Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system, when is the charger switched off automatically?
a) When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system
b) When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as starting
c) When the alternators are fully loaded
607) The FMS nav data base is updated
a) after a B or C check has been completed
b) every 28 days
c) daily
608) An RMI has inputs from VOR and
a) no other sources
b) an azimuth gyro
c) a remote compass input
609) The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is
a) in series with the generator field
b) in parallel with the generator volts coil
c) in series with the generator volts coil
610) When a field relay trips the generator off line it can be reset
a) on the ground only
b) by cycling the generator switch
c) after the fault has been cleared
611) An overvoltage condition trips the generator, the time taken to trip is dependant upon
a) amplitude of voltage
b) time delay circuit
c) closing fuel and hyd valves etc..
612) In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must be in synch and
a) CBA must equal ABC
b) Phase rotation does not matter
c) CBA must equal CBA
613) When loads are shed from a bus bar automatically
a) bus bar voltage rises
b) bus bar current rises
c) bus bar current decreases
614) In a modern HIS, the displays are
a) course and direction
b) course and attitude
c) direction and attitude
615) In an IRS system you would expect to find
a) ring laser gyros
b) three strap down accelerometers
c) an azimuth gyro system
616) In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass
a) suspended between two springs in a tube
b) suspended in free air
c) a remotely mounted mass on the airframe
617) In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for
a) reporting defects on the aircraft automatically
b) communications between the aircraft and base
c) as part of the passenger telephone system
618) What controls the output from a generator?
b) GCU
619) The term empannage incorporates
a) elevators, stabiliser, rudder
b) elevators, stabiliser, ailerons
c) rudder, ailerons, spoilers
620) Which of the following are primary control surfaces?
a) Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs
b) Elevators, ailerons, rudder
c) Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs
621) Flutter can be prevented by
a) mass balance
b) trim tabs
c) balance panels
622) Vent holes are found on
a) tubeless tyres
b) tubed tyres
c) split wheel tyres
623) Which of the following can be used on the ground?
a) Turbo brake
b) Turbo compressor
c) Turbo fan
624) Pressure refuelling is carried out at
a) 15 psi
b) 20 psi
c) 40 psi
625) What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?
a) must be filtered
b) must be pressure controlled
c) must be temperature controlled
626) What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a squib?
a) Bottles are fired
b) Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage
c) A continuity check
627) Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from
a) tank to tank
b) left tank to right tank
c) any tank to any engine
628) What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vaporisation?
a) anti corona device
b) nozzle
c) corona device
629) Specific gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of
a) charge
b) electrolyte level
c) electrolyte temperature
630) If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14,000ft
a) masks drop automatically
b) attendant must drop masks
c) passenger must get mask from overhead storage
631) During normal engine shut down the generator
a) breaker is tripped
b) breaker and control relay tripped
c) control relay tripped only
632) At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?
a) 150 deg C
b) 200 deg C
c) 250 deg C
633) Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
634) In a CMC warning signals are generated by
a) Warning computer
b) CMC
c) FMC
635) Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for
a) high strength high ductility
b) high strength high toughness
c) low strength high toughness
636) In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power
a) servos move to neutral and lock
b) servos remain stationary and provide damping
c) servos lock at last position
637) A variable angled pump starts at
a) maximum stroke
b) minimum stroke
c) half way position
638) At what height does the rising runway appear?
a) 500ft
b) 300ft
c) 200ft
639) An H on the EHSI indicates
a) DME hold
b) VOR hold
c) ILS approach
640) What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used
a) increases
b) decreases
c) Depends on altitude
641) What are the main areas of the autopilot?
a) Error, correction, follow up, demand
b) Error, correction, demand, resolved
c) Error, correction, follow up, command
642) VHF frequency is
a) 108-112MHz
b) 108-136MHz
c) 108-118MHz
643) The call system for the captain will have the audio
a) two tone chime
b) horn
c) hi tone chime
644) Channel 3 on a CVR records
a) first officer
b) captain
c) flight deck
645) DME works on the frequency of
a) VHF
b) UHF
c) HF
646) A radial is referenced
a) from a beacon
b) to a VOR
c) on a compass
647) ADF works by using
a) loop aerial
b) sense aerial
c) both loop and sense aerial
648) The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are
a) 20deg C to 30deg C and humidity below 70%
b) 15deg C to 25deg C and humidity below 75%
c) 15deg C to 25deg C and humidity above 60%
649) When an aircraft is put into storage for medium/long periods, the fuel tanks should be
a) empty
b) full
c) some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out
650) The generator warning light will come on when
a) voltage too high
b) voltage above battery voltage
c) voltage below battery voltage
651) Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs
a) faster
b) slower
c) same speed
652) Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed container lids at a temperature above
a) 45 degrees C
b) 55 degrees C
c) 65 degrees C
653) Windshield rain repellent is applied
a) before rain and spread on window surface by wipers
b) when rain is on windows and spread by wipers
c) when heavy rain so vision is unobscured
654) In a gas fire wire system, what causes the fire wire caption to come on when heat is applied?
a) Capacitance increase
b) Continuity
c) Pressure
655) In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate
a) autopilot must be engaged
b) autopilot need not be engaged
c) operation of the trim controls is required
656) Fluid viscosity
a) increases with an increase in temperature
b) decreases with an increase in temperature
c) decreases with a decrease in temperature
657) A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents
a) pump cavitation
b) reverse flow
c) overpressure
658) A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from
a) compressor inlet
b) compressor outlet
c) reservoir
659) What is apparent drift?
a) earths rotation
b) errors when aircraft banking
c) gyro pivot friction
660) Integral fuel booster pumps
a) require no cooling
b) require ram air cooling
c) the fuel does cooling
661) Toilet fire detection can be found in
b) AWN 80
c) AWN 83
662) The outside casing of a fire wire has
a) 28vdc potential above ground
b) 115vdc potential above ground
c) same potential as ground
663) The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is for
a) the shimmy damper
b) alignment for the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage extension
c) align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction
664) An aircraft airspeed indicator has
a) pitot to the capsule
b) static to the capsule
c) pitot to the capsule and static to the outside of the capsule
665) What is tyre creep related to?
a) Tyre moving around the wheel
b) Horizontal movement of the tyre
c) Vertical movement of the tyre
666) Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a
a) horizontal line
b) vertical line
c) wing line
667) The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are
a) spar, rib, stringers, skin panels
b) spar, rib, longerons, skin panels
c) spar, rib, bulkheads, skin panels
668) The main undercarriage is attached to
a) front main spar
b) rear main spar
c) aircraft structure
669) In an autopilot co-ordinated turn, when the turn angle is reached
a) both ailerons are down
b) one aileron is up and one is down
c) the ailerons are faired
670) A flat planer radar dish
a) is used for RF transmissions only
b) is a parabolic dish
c) is a series of wave guides with slots cut in them
671) Above 2500ft the rad alt
a) pointer goes to zero to show system is being monitored
b) pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view
c) continues to indicate but with a warning flag
672) When replacing a current transformer
a) it can only be fitted one way round
b) it can be fitted any way round
c) voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting
673) How is the next database on the FMC activated?
a) Manually, on the ground
b) Automatically by due date
c) Manually in the air
674) The economy coil on a relay
a) makes it cheaper to make
b) reduces current required to hold closed
c) reduces current required to close
675) The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical separation of the fuselage during crash
a) is 10%
b) 15%
c) 25%
676) What is the function of the generator control relay?
a) Control output voltage
b) Bring the generator online
c) Connect the generator to the bus bar
677) How is automatic AoA protection provided?
a) Autothrottle applying more power
b) Fast/Slow indication
c) Reduce flap deployment
678) What is the output angle of a landing light?
a) 11 degrees
b) 15 degrees
c) 20 degrees
679) What sort of etch solution is used on Aluminium alloys
a) Alkaline etch
b) Acid etch
c) Solvent etch
680) What are the types of true bonded joints?
a) cemented and specific
b) mechanical and specific
c) mechanical and cemented
681) Where would you find information on life-raft deployment?
a) Cabin safety onboard card
b) Cabin operations manual
c) JARs
682) What GPWS mode gives a WHOOP WHOOP, PULL UP command
a) mode 2
b) mode 3
c) mode 6
683) How does a mach meter work?
a) true airspeed/indicated airspeed
b) true airspeed and true speed of sound
c) indicated airspeed/temperature
684) A machmeter works
a) always
b) always except on the ground
c) above 10,000ft
685) On a standard day at which altitude will the speed of sound be the highest?
a) Sea level
b) 5,000ft
c) 10,000ft
686) The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to
a) prevent control surface runaway
b) dampen oscillations
c) provide autopilot
687) The current consumed by a DC starter motor will
a) increase as the engine speed increases
b) decrease as the engine speed increases
c) remain constant
688) The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by
a) earthing
b) static wicks
c) bonding
689) Why is a joggle used?
a) To provide a flush fit
b) To add strength
c) To provide a smooth contour to surface
690) Air conditioning systems
a) Increase the temperature of air
b) Increase and decrease the temperature of air
c) Decrease the temperature of air
691) How do oxygen cylinders show over pressure?
a) Green rupturing disc
b) Audible warning
c) Red rupturing disc
692) Slats
a) keep the boundary layer from separating for longer
b) increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing
c) act as an air brake
693) Aquaplaning can be reduced by
a) anti-skid
b) lowering slats
c) increased flaring
694) An air cycle machine turbine
a) drives compressor to pressurise aircraft
b) drives compressor to increase temperature
c) drives compressor to decrease temperature
695) On passenger aircraft of 2 or more zones
a) seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits
b) there should be at least one exit per zone
c) emergency exits are to be clearly signed
696) In a pressurised cabin there is a gauge that shows
a) cabin differential pressure
b) cabin pressure altitude
c) aircraft altitude
697) Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight
a) nose should be raised increasing AoA
b) nose should remain the same position maintaining same AoA
c) nose should be lowered reducing AoA
698) Flight spoilers
a) can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn
b) can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing
c) can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed
699) If the aircraft is flying nose heavy which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?
a) Down to move the elevator up
b) Up to move elevator up
c) Up to move elevator down
700) When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings
a) a leak check is not required
b) a leak check is always required
c) a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer
701) The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than
a) 18 SWG for a single wire
b) 22 SWG x 0.5 inches
c) 22 SWG x 0.25 inches
702) A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is
a) borax powder
b) citric acid
c) distilled water
703) In a split bus power distribution system
a) generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus
b) each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation
c) power is slit between 115V AC and 28V DC
704) Wing tip vortices are strongest when
a) flying high speed straight and level
b) flying slowly at high angles of attack
c) flying in to a headwind
705) Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM
a) will have increased pressure and temperature
b) will have decreased pressure and temperature
c) no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor
706) The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is
a) to ensure that all available fuel can be used
b) to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination
c) to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently
707) Pneumatic rain removal systems
a) use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen
b) use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers
c) are not permitted on large transport aircraft
708) A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be
a) Mode A
b) Mode C
c) Mode S
709) Main deck cargo windows, for fire regulations, must have
a) blinds drawn
b) fireproof covers
c) windows unobscured
710) When using an air data tester, the maximum rate of airspeed that can be applied to the aircraft is
a) 4500 ft/min
b) 2500 ft/min
c) 1500 ft/min
711) What time interval should fire protection checks be carried out on cabin furnishing?
a) 10 years
a) 5 years
b) 2 years
4 255 487 5 256 488
7 261 490 8 262 491
7 261 500 8 262 501
14 267 501 15 268 502
20 274 506 21 275 507
21 280 510 22 281 511
27 281 511 28 282 512
30 282 525 31 283 526
36 284 529 37 285 530
38 289 530 39 290 531
40 289 552 41 290 553
47 303 568 48 304 569
47 312 584 48 313 585
50 316 596 51 317 597
54 326 602 55 327 603
63 326 607 64 327 608
64 327 610 65 328 611
66 330 619 67 331 620
70 330 621 71 331 622
71 332 621 72 333 622
75 335 629 76 336 630
94 338 635 95 339 636
102 338 637 103 339 638
107 339 637 108 340 638
115 365 640 116 366 641
120 368 643 121 369 644
128 375 645 129 376 646
133 386 649 134 387 650
133 388 650 134 389 651
134 390 650 135 391 651
136 394 673 137 395 674
137 394 676 138 395 677
139 397 683 140 398 684
141 403 685 142 404 686
152 410 689 153 411 690
156 418 689 157 419 690
164 421 696 165 422 697
177 423 699 178 424 700
185 425 699 186 426 700
195 430 704 196 431 705
195 440 196 441
213 442 214 443
225 447 226 448
237 448 238 449
240 463 241 464
240 465 241 466
241 470 242 471
242 470 243 471
250 472 251 473
254 480 255 481

1 C 51 B 101 A 151 C 201 B

2 B 52 C 102 C 152 A 202 B
3 C 53 B 103 B 153 B 203 B
4 B 54 C 104 C 154 A 204 B
5 A 55 A 105 B 155 C 205 C
6 B 56 C 106 A 156 A 206 A
7 B 57 A 107 B 157 C 207 C
8 A 58 A 108 A 158 C 208 A
9 B 59 C 109 A 159 A 209 A
10 C 60 C 110 A 160 A 210 B
11 A 61 C 111 B 161 B 211 A
12 A 62 A 112 C 162 A 212 B
13 B 63 C 113 A 163 B 213 B
14 C 64 A 114 B 164 A 214 B
15 B 65 B 115 B 165 B 215 A
16 A 66 A 116 A 166 C 216 A
17 A 67 C 117 C 167 B 217 B
18 B 68 A 118 A 168 B 218 B
19 B 69 B 119 B 169 B 219 A
20 C 70 B 120 A 170 C 220 A
21 B 71 A 121 A 171 A 221 B
22 A 72 B 122 A 172 C 222 A
23 A 73 C 123 C 173 C 223 C
24 C 74 B 124 A 174 B 224 B
25 C 75 C 125 A 175 C 225 A
26 A 76 A 126 A 176 A 226 A
27 A 77 B 127 A 177 B 227 C
28 A 78 C 128 A 178 C 228 A
29 A 79 A 129 C 179 A 229 C
30 A 80 B 130 B 180 B 230 A
31 B 81 A 131 C 181 C 231 B
32 B 82 B 132 B 182 C 232 B
33 B 83 A 133 A 183 B 233 B
34 B 84 B 134 C 184 B 234 A
35 A 85 B 135 C 185 C 235 C
36 B 86 A 136 B 186 B 236 A
37 B 87 A 137 A 187 B 237 B
38 B 88 B 138 A 188 C 238 C
39 A 89 C 139 C 189 C 239 B
40 C 90 A 140 C 190 C 240 B
41 C 91 B 141 B 191 A 241 B
42 B 92 A 142 A 192 A 242 A
43 C 93 B 143 B 193 C 243 A
44 B 94 B 144 B 194 B 244 A
45 C 95 B 145 C 195 A 245 A
46 C 96 B 146 B 196 A 246 A
47 C 97 C 147 A 197 B 247 B
48 B 98 C 148 C 198 B 248 A
49 C 99 A 149 B 199 C 249 C
50 B 100 A 150 C 200 B 250 A

251 C 301 A 351 A 401 B 451 A

252 A 302 A 352 B 402 A 452 A
253 C 303 B 353 A 403 B 453 A
254 A 304 C 354 B 404 B 454 A
255 A 305 C 355 C 405 A 455 A
256 A 306 B 356 A 406 B 456 B
257 C 307 C 357 A 407 B 457 B
258 A 308 A 358 A 408 A 458 A
259 A 309 B 359 C 408 C 459 B
260 A 310 A 360 C 410 C 460 A
261 C 311 A 361 B 411 A 461 B
262 A 312 C 362 B 412 B 462 C
263 B 313 A 363 B 413 C 463 C
264 C 314 C 364 A 414 A 464 B
265 B 315 A 365 A 415 B 465 B
266 A 316 A 366 B 416 A 466 A
267 B 317 C 367 B 417 A 467 B
268 C 318 A 368 B 418 A 468 A
269 B 319 B 369 A 419 A 469 B
270 C 320 C 370 B 420 C 470 C
271 A 321 A 371 A 421 B 471 C
272 B 322 C 372 B 422 C 472 C
273 C 323 A 373 A 423 C 473 C
274 C 324 B 374 A 424 A 474 C
275 C 325 B 375 B 425 B 475 C
276 A 326 A 376 A 426 A 476 A
277 A 327 B 377 A 427 B 477 C
278 C 328 A 378 A 428 B 478 C
279 B 329 B 379 C 429 B 479 C
280 B 330 C 380 A 430 B 480 C
281 A 331 A 381 A 431 A 481 B
282 C 332 A 382 A 432 A 482 A
283 B 333 B 383 A 433 C 483 B
284 A 334 B 384 A 434 B 484 A
285 C 335 A 385 A 435 A 485 A
286 B 336 A 386 A 436 A 486 B
287 B 337 B 387 B 437 A 487 B
288 A 338 C 388 A 438 B 488 B
289 A 339 B 389 A 439 C 489 A
290 B 340 C 390 A 440 C 490 C
291 A 341 C 391 A 441 A 491 B
292 A 342 B 392 C 442 A 492 C
293 B 343 C 393 A 443 C 493 B
294 B 344 A 394 B 444 A 494 A
295 B 345 C 395 B 445 A 495 B
296 B 346 B 396 B 446 C 496 C
297 A 347 A 397 A 447 B 497 B
298 B 348 A 398 C 448 B 498 C
299 A 349 A 399 C 449 B 499 C
300 C 350 B 400 A 450 A 500 B

501 C 551 B 601 C 651 A 701 A

502 B 552 B 602 A 652 A 702 A
503 C 553 A 603 A 653 B 703 B
504 B 554 C 604 B 654 C 704 B
505 C 555 C 605 A 655 A 705 A
506 A 556 C 606 B 656 B 706 B
507 C 557 C 607 B 657 B 707 A
508 A 558 C 608 B 658 C 708 C
509 B 559 A 609 C 659 A
510 C 560 B 610 B 660 C
511 A 561 C 611 A 661 C
512 B 562 B 612 C 662 C
513 C 563 A 613 C 663 C
514 C 564 A 614 A 664 C
515 B 565 C 615 A 665 A
516 B 566 B 616 A 666 B
517 C 567 C 617 B 667 A
518 B 568 B 618 B 668 C
519 C 569 A 619 A 669 C
520 B 570 A 620 B 670 C
521 C 571 B 621 A 671 B
522 B 572 C 622 A 672 A
523 B 573 A 623 C 673 B
524 A 574 A 624 C 674 B
525 B 575 B 625 A 675 C
526 B 576 A 626 C 676 B
527 B 577 B 627 C 677 A
528 C 578 C 628 A 678 A
529 A 579 A 629 A 679 B
530 C 580 C 630 A 680 B
531 B 581 B 631 A 681 B
532 C 582 B 632 B 682 A
533 C 583 B 633 A 683 C
534 C 584 C 634 A 684 A
535 B 585 C 635 A 685 A
536 A 586 A 636 B 686 A
537 C 587 B 637 A 687 B
538 C 588 A 638 C 688 C
539 A 589 B 639 A 689 A
540 C 590 C 640 B 690 C
541 A 591 C 641 C 691 A
542 C 592 B 642 B 692 A
543 A 593 B 643 A 693 A
544 B 594 A 644 C 694 B
545 B 595 C 645 B 695 C
546 B 596 B 646 A 696 A
547 B 597 C 647 C 697 C
548 A 598 A 648 B 698 A
549 A 599 B 649 C 699 A
550 B 600 A 650 C 700 B