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ANESTHESIA ALL IN ONE BY RALI

These past papers were just a bunch of irreguler sentences , incomplete nd


haphhazard stems I tried to make it easy for evryone,, completed the stems ,
marked the bcqs. Still there are a lot questions which I coulnt handle, I
highlighted them with yellow all red text is added by me, so, really read them
with a critical point of viewmany papers were repeated, I deleted them for
sake of ur time management. still there would b mistakes, m sori for them.

Best of luck guys, making prayers for u , remember me also in ur prayers

ANESTHESIA PAPER MARCH 2017

A request to everyone , donot learn these questions, only bear in mind the
topics asked and prepare them well, errors are possibly there, forgive us for
them

Compiled by Dr Rali (Nishtarian)


Dr Usman Saqib (Amcolian)
Dr Basit (Amcolian)

BEST OF LUCK
1. A Acrosomes of sperms are formed by And
Golgi apparatus ( ref Wikipedia) acrosome
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum reaction by
Rough endoplasmic reticulum lysosomes

2. A Basic structure of Organs in Embryo laid down by:


6 weeks
2 months
3 months (right)
4 months
6 months
3. A Basophillia of pancreatic cells is due to exocrine
SER cells show
RER (right) basophilia
Ribosomes becz of the
Nucleus presence of
Golgibodies RER
4. A Best dietary supplement
Vegetables (right)
Eggs
Milk
5. A Blood supply of Thymus Its from
Internal intercostal and inferior thyroid (right) int.thoracic
Costocervial trunk artery p.s
Thoracocervical trunk sup and
Subclavian infthyroid.
REF google

6. A Bone removed during surgery , which of the following is responsible for


producing the majority of new bone , that ll renuite the two fragments
Periosteum (right)
Haversian canal
Spongy bone
Compact bone
7. Internal capsule is medial to Intrnl
Globus pallidus (right) capsule lies
Caudate nucleus b/w two
Medial to it
is caudate
nulceus
Lateral to it
is globus
pallidus nd
putaman
It , itself is
medial to
globus
pallidus
&lateral to
caudate
nucleus of
thalamus
8. A Calcium in Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum of Skeletal muscles is bound by Read
Calcequestrin (right) comparison
Desmin between all
different
types of
muscles
9. A pt presented after accident with Complete paralysis of intercostal muscles with Level
intact spontaneous respiration, lesion is at which level of spinal cord ?? appropriat
C6 e was at t6
T4
T12
10. A Correct sequence of events in Infective Endocarditis
Valve damage-Thrombus-perforation- emboli B true
Valve damage--thrombus-bacterimia perforation (right) Correct
Damage valve-bacterimia-thrombus-perforation sequence is
DTBP
11. A Critical Temperature of oxygen is -118.6*c
-118 (right) REF google
30
60
12. A Cross section of Medulla Oblongata right bellow pons will show Ref page
Sensory decussation( 387 kaplan
Pyramidal decussation (right) fig.IV-5-2F

13. A Dermatome bellow clavicle I will be


C5 follow the pic of dermatomes from netter (right) sharing a
T1 pic of
T2 dermatome
s in group
with a few
points
14. A Difference between osmolarity of Plasma and Interstitial fluid
1 mosm/L (right)
1.5 mosm/L
3 mosm/L
15. A Dose of Dopamine that will cause increased blood flow to Kidneys 3-10
13
3-10 (right)
10-50
16. A Face and upperlimb palsy, dilated pupil, which artery damaged Poor
ACA recall,reme
MCA (right) mber for
PICA upper
ASA limbs
MCPoorrec
all,rememb
er for
upper
limbs MCA
and for
lowerlimbs
ACA,do
read brain
lesions
17. . A Facemask is cleaned with Against
0.5% Hypochlorite organisms ,
Phenol pasturizatio
Ethylene oxide (right) n
18. Seq of arteries in kidney
Renal artery > interlobar> arcute> affernt arteriole
Renal artery>interlobar>arcuate> interlobuler>affernt arteriols (right)
19. A FiO2 that can be given to mother without risk of Retrolental fibroplasia to Wiki says
mother its o.5 ,
0.35 seniors say
0.50 0.65 ,, go
0.65 (right) for 0.65
0.80
20. A Fluid of Choice in Aciduria Normal
Lacated ringers Saline.
Ringers
Dextran
Normal saline (right)
21. A For measuring Cardiac Output by dilution method sample should be taken from Dye
Aorta (right) injected is
Continuously from an Artery cardiogree
Saphenous vein n, sample
taken from
the artery
cloesest to
heart,
mainly
aorta
22. A Glomerulus is primarily controlled by serum levels of
Sodium
Potassium (right)
ADH
Renin
ACTH
23. A Heparin and Histamine are released by Contained
Basophils in basophils
Eosinophills , released
Mast cells (right) by mast
Megakaryocytes cells,, read
hemotolog
y section of
first aid,
its
controversi
al mcq

24. A Insulin Independent glusoce uptake is in which organ: Remember


Brain (right) BRICK-L
Skeletal Muscle at rest brain,rbc,in
Skeletal muscle in action testine,cor
Adipose tissue nea,kidney,
liver for
insulin
independe
nt glucose
uptake
25. A volatile anesthetic is converted to vapur form will be governed by which law: Read all gas
Charles laws
Henrys (right)
Daltons
Boyles

26. A Maximum therapeutic dose of which of the following can be given in renal failure Chloramph
Ampicillin enicol is
Ceftazidine non renally
Tetracycline excreted
Quinolones thats all I
could say,al
options are
excreted
renally
27. A Moa of quinolones Acts on
DNA DNA gyrase
Reverse trascriptase , inhibit
Gyrasesomethine DNA
replication,
exact
options r
not
properly
recalled
28. A MoA of Sulphonyleurea Acts on
Decreases gluconeogenesis from liver beta cells
Increase insulin release (right) closing k
channels
and
increase
insulin
release
29. A Most important mediator of allergy Prefer
Bradykinin (right) eosinophill
s if in
options
30. A Most protein bound local anesthetic is Rabia ali
Prilocaine mcq
Procaine
Lignocaine
Bupivacaine (right)
31. In which of following there is no role of chromosomal movement Not Sure. I
Meiosis 1 did
Meiosis 2 cleavage.
Mitosis
Asexual reproduction
Cleavage
32. A NIDDm patient drug of choice metformin.
Metformin .ref first
Tolbutamide aid.
33. A Numbness in arms lateral side,bicep reflex diminished, root values injured C5-6.
C3-4
C5-6
34. A Outermost laver of nerve Its
epineuriem
Epineurium (right)
Endoneruium
c.perineurium
35. A Patient hit side of face, swelling in temporal region True ref
Maxillary division of Ext Carotid head n
Anterior meningeal (right) neck
Posterior meningeal section
snell
36. A Patient in the habit of chewing something develops Fibrosis of sublingual This leads
mucosa, what kind of change is it to
Metaplasia submucosal
Dysplasia fibrosis
Premalignant (right) which is
Malignant premaligna
nt
37. A Patient with diarrhea has Option A
Normal anion gap metabolic acisosis (right)
Low anion gap metabolic acidosis
High anion gap metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
38. A patient with epilepsy can discontinue treatment after Rabia ali
2 years without symptoms mcq
5 years symptoms free with treatment (right)
No seizure activity on eeg
2 more about plasma levels

39. A Patient presented after bout of Hysteria,, with PH 7.4 Resp.alkalo


Resp Acidosis sis ,, asim
Compensated Resp Acidosis shoaib
Resp Alkalosis (right) anesthesia
Met Alkalosis
Met Acidosis
40. A Perception of thirst is decreased somewhat by SIADH will
SIADH (right) decrease
Increased osmolarity of water plasma
Gastric filling osmolarity
hence
decrease
thirst.
41. A Policeman case of Opioid and Cannabis abuse, first reaction will be Opoid side
Denial effects is
Depressed mood euphoria,
Authoritarian? further
Euphoria (right) confirm it
42. A Potassium sparing diuretic Amiloride +
Ethacrynic acid spironolact
Amiloride (right) one +
Furesimide triamteren
Hydrochlorthiazide e are also
K sparing
diuretics
43. A RBCs lose nuclei in which stage of development late
Reticulocyte normoblast
Late normoblast (right)
Early normoblast

44. A Scenario of Dysphagia and Hoarseness, which of the following injured Guessing
Upper part of Nucleus Ambiguous upper part
Middle part of Nucleus Ambiguous of nucleus
Lower part of Nucleus Ambiguous ambiguous`
Dorsal Ganglia of X Nerve ,read nuclei
in nuro
section of
first aid
45. Which anesthetic agent decompose in light
Halothane (right)
46. A Sesamoid cartilage is present in Rabia ali
Ala of nose (right) mcq
Epiglottis
Pinna of ear

47. Bilateral nerve lesion causing death


Fascial nerve
Accesry
Vagus (right)
48. A Shortest acting Insulin Lente
NPH insulin
Lente insulin (right)
Glargine
49. A Single breath Nitrogen is used to measure: Anatomical
Residual Volume dead space
FRC
Physiological deadspace
Anatomical dead space (right)

50. A Sodium nitroprusside acts by Asim


Directly acting on vessels (right) shoaib mcq
Decreasing blood volume
adenylcyclase?

51. A Sodium potassium ATPase activity is increased by Adrenaline


Insulin may
Adrenaline berechec
Noradrenaline k please
Dopamine

52. A Spinal Cord at level of L4 does not have Lat horn


Lateral horn (right)
Anterior horn
Posterior horn
Grey matter
White matter
53. A Time taken by depolarization pulse to reach from Endocardium to Epicardium is QT
QT interval (right)
PR interval
Vent activation time
QRS
54. A True about abdominal aorta right.
Gives Bil branch to Supra renal glands (right)
Gives superior phrenic artery immediately after formation
Splenic vein lies posterior

55. Acetazolamide used with caution because of increased risk of CAUSES


Metabolic alkalosis HYPERKALE
MIA AND
THIS WILL
LEAD TO
METAB.ACI
DOSIS
56. Amenorrhea during pregnancy is due to If asked
Decreased GnRH from Hypothallamus (right) durning
Dec Prolactin lactation go
for
prolactin
57. At therapeutic dose fine tremors is a side effect of: .
Lithium (right)
Terbutaline
58. Based on cell history which of the following is different B
a. Osteoblast
b. Osteoclast (right)
c. Osteocyte
d. Chondroblast
e. Chondrocytes
59. Beclomethasone. As a matter
a. Is available in inhalational form of fact,
b. Had potent mineralocorticoid activity both these
c. options r
right.
Prefer B
60. Blood group scenario Blood group of mother is A.. Blood group of first child is O, Fathers
Blood group of 2nd Child is AB, Blood group of father is blood gp
a. B (right) has to be B
b. Both the children have different father
61. Capnography A
a. Increased baseline shows rebreathing (right)

62. Captopril acts by A


a. Decreasing blood volume (right)
b. Decreasing heart rate
63. Cardiac Plexus A
a. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic (right)
64. Case of ambiguous genitalia A
a. CAH (right)
65. Cervical branch of facial supplies A
a. Platysma (right)
b. Geniohyoid
c. Sternohyoid
66. Cervical change in uterine prolapsed Not sure,
a. Ulcer may b its
b. Dysplasia metaplasia
c. Metaplasia
67. Charles law A
a. Constant pressure (right)
68. Cheilosis, corneal vascularisation cause is
a. Riboflavin (right)
b. Niacin
c. Zinc
69. Child of consanginuous marriage showing short limbs, which trait A
a. Autosomal dominant (right)
70. Child with acute severe asthma treatment should begin with A
a. Nebulized salbutamol (right)
b. Inhaled ipratropium
c. Iv antihistamine
d. Oral prednisone
71. Choice of Antibiotic in a child with fever and stiff neck,has allergy as well D
a. Benzylpenicillin
b. 1st gen ceph
c. 2nd gen ceph
d. 3rd gen ceph (right)

72. Common complication of diabetes Most


a. Wet common is
b. Dry (right) dry if
c. Raynauds superimpos
ed
infection
thn wet,,,
diabetic
foot is
example of
wet
gangrene
73. Cortocospinal tract is closely associated in function to Rubro
a. Vestibulospinal tract correct
b. Rubrospinal tract (right)
74. CSF is absorbed from A
a. Arrachnoid villi (right)
75. action of Asprin by A
a. Decreasing Prostaglandins (right)
76. action of Nsaids by A
a. inhibiting COX (right)

77. Data collected on basis of presence or absence of vomiting A


a. Nominal (right)
78. Dorsal Leminiscus injured which sensation lost A
a. Vibration (right)
b. Temperature
c. Crude touch
d. Pain
79. Drug of choice in cerebral edema Correct
a. Mannitol (right)
b. Furosemide
c. Acetazolamide

80. Epidural space extends from Confirm


a. Foramen magnum to sacrococcygeal ligament (right) right.
b. Foramen magnum to s1 vertebra
c. C1 to Sacrococcygeal membrane
d. C1 to S1
81. Esophagus is most constricted at Doubtful.
a. Cricoid Rali saying
b. Left broncus crosses it cricopharyn
c. At diaphragm gus. I did A.
d. At junction with stomach Cricophary
e. Cricophyrageus (right) ngeus is
most
constricted
part in the
body
except
vermiform
appendix
82. Essential for mets
a. Loss of E cadherin (right)
b. Migration of tumer cells
83. Femoral hernia passes posteriorly to A
a. Inguinal ligament (right) read
b. Femoral vein boundaries
c. Lacunar ligament of femoral
canal and
triangle
84. Fibro Cartilage is present in: A
a. Disc of Joints (right)
85. First sign of bupivacaine toxicity
a. Tinnitus (right)
86. First sign of lignocaine toxicity
a. Nausea and vomiting (right)
87. Foreign body in
a. right bronchus (right)
b. Left bronchus
88. Fourth Heart sound B
a. Rapid ventricular filling
b. Ventricular filling due to Atrial systole (right)
c.
89. Gastric motility decreased by Magnesium
a. Aluminium hydroxide (right) hydroxide
b. Magnesium hydroxide cause inc
gastric
motility
90. Grade 4 liver failure
a. Paracetamol (right)
91. Heat loss in patient on ETT A according
a. Convection to
b. Conduction usman,for
c. Evaporation (right) me its
d. Radiation evaporatio
n
92. Heavy water is used to measure A
a. Total body water (right)
b. Interstitial fluid volume
c. Plasma volume
d. ECF
e.
93. Heparin antidote A
a. Protamine (right)
b. Ffps
c. Warfarin
94. Hiv patient operated OT will be cleaned with
a. 1% gluteraldehyde
b. 2% gluteraldehyde (right)
c. Ethylene oxide
95. In moderate exercise minimul change in circulation will be
a. Brain (right)
96. Isoosmolar with blood volume
a. 9 gm of nacl in 1000 ml (right)
b. 0.9 gm in 1000ml
c. 0.9 gm in 1000ml
d. 1.8 gm in 2000ml
97. Late respiratory depression in spinal is caused by
a. Morphine (right)
98. MAC is reduced in Confirm
a. Hypoxia (right) right.
b. Chronic alcoholism
c. Thyroid dysfunction
99. Max conc in blood after block Intercostal
block
100. Maximum water reabsorbtion Pct true
a. PCT (right)
b. DCT
c. Loop of henle
101. Morphine is used in A
a. Chronic malignancy (right)
102. Most common lesion in Anthrax
a. Skin lesions (right)
b. GI hemorrhage
c. Liver failure
d. Septicemia
103. Most ECF volume is increased by A
a. Hypertonic saline (right)
104. Most imp Chemotactic factor A
a. LTB4 (right)
b. C3b
c. C5a
105. Most of drug in combined form is
Temp inactive (right)
106. Most potent antiemetic A
a. Ondensatron (right)
107. Most significant mediator of allergy A
a. Bradykinin (right)
108. Myopia commonest cause
a. Axial length of eyeball (right)
b. Axix of eyeball
109. Neurovascular bundle lies between
a. internal and innermost muscles
b. External nd intercostals
c. Inner most nd endothoracic fascia
110. Nitrous oxide pressure 750 psi is used to supply gas, what ll happen to pressure till
last drop
a. Pressure becomes zero
b. Decreases abrubtly
c. Pressure decreases with rate of flow
d. Pressure doesnot change (right)
111. Nodes of Ranvier A
a. Absent myelin sheath
112. Obstructed bronchus blood in that broncus will have Poor recall
a. Lower CO2 thn mixed veous blood (right) mcq, can b
incorrect
113. Oncotic pressure of blood depends on
Albumin (right)
114. One bcq about rate of respiration not changed in Poor
a. No change in blood oxygen content recall,respir
b. No change in PO2 of blood atory
c. physiology
must be on
ur
fingertips
115. Patient of spinal TB, LP was done. 6 ml fluid drawn, complain of headache due to A
a. Stretch of Falxcerebri (right)
b. Stretch of tentorium cerebri
116. Patient with history of vomiting, drug of choice during anesthesia will be A
a. Ondansatron (right)
b. Metoclopramide
117. Diabetic Patient presented in comatosed state A
a. Regular Insulin (right)
118. Patient with Hypovolemic shock, which is increased A
a. Anaerobic respiration (right)
b. Venous return
c. Contractility
119. Patient with low HR, low bp, low cvp, low co Confusion
a. Hypovolemic shock between A
b. cardiogenic shock & D,, m
c. cardiac temponade with septic
d. septic shock
120. Patient with pruritis 2 years, jaundice 6 months, bilirubin raised, alt raised, ggt 220 Read the
a. Extrahepatic cholistasis (right) significance
b. Intrahepatic cholestasis of liver
c. Haemolytic anemia enzymes
d. Hepatocelluer Ca from git
section first
aid please
121. PBC
a. Antimitochondrial antibodies
122. Pneumothorax after RTA A
a. Lungs collapse inwards and chest outwards (right)
123. Portocaval anastomosis Esophagus
a. Esophagus and anal
b. Anal both are
correct,I
chose
esophagus
124. PR interval is decreased by A
a. WPS syndrome (right)
b. First degree heart bloack
c. 2nd
d. 3rd
e.
125. Primary protection against microorganism Skin
126. Prolonged action of succinyl choline
Pseudocholinesterase
127. Protection againt malignancy
Apoptosis
128. Pulse pressure increased by A
a. Stroke volume (right)
129. Pyogenic Lung abscess A
a. Staph Aureus (right)
130. Quickest induction A
a. Desflurane (right)
131. Radial artery cut, baroreceptor compensatory response will be through Because
a. C fibers (right) they are
b. B fibers sympatheti
c. A fibers c
postganglio
nic
132. Regarding motor inervation of muscles which is true I did C
a. End plate potential at motor endplate is 20 mV less than the surrounding C is better
b. One fiber innervates one muscle only in these
c. Innervates fibers close to endplate options
133. Regarding respiration in Pregnancy Asim
a. Dec Total Lung Capacity (right) shoaib mcq
b. Increase PCO2
134. REM sleep has I did C
a. High amplitude waves
b. Low amplitude waves
c. Associated with dreaming (right)
d. Increased muscle tone in adult
e. More in children than adults
135. Renal Column Contains A
a. Interlobar artery (right)
b. Sermental
c. Interlobular
136. Sample for microscopy of leprosy can be taken from A
a. Genital sore (right)
137. Special feature of 6th thoracic vertebra Read back
a. Upper nd lower surfaces of thoracic vertebrae r heart shape (right) and spinal
cord in
detail
138. Subacute endocarditis A
a. Strep Virridans (right)
139. s Swollen parotid. Ductal stone. Atrophy due to
a. Apoptosis (right)
140. The ADH acts by Read how
a. cAMP (right) hormones
actthere
is a table in
the endo
section in
first aid dnt
miss it
141. Therapeutic toxic effect of loop diuretics
a. Hypokalemia
b. Dec blood volume (right)
142. Thyroid isthmus crosses B
a. Tracheal segment 3-4
b. 2-3-4 (right)
c. Hyoid
143. True about CSF A
a. More acidic thn Plasma (right)
b. More proteins thn plasma
c. More pressure thn venous sinuses
d. Absorbed by choroid plexus
144. True about pseudostratifies epithelium A
a. all cells lying at basement membrane (right)
b. All have nuclei at the same level
c. All reach the apex
145. Two stage sampling age thn random A
a. Stratified random sampling (right)
146. Type E cylinder providing gas at 10 Liters per mins, how long will it last A true becz
a. 60 mins (right) it has
b. 30 capacity of
c. 1.5 hours almost
d. 2 hours 700litres,re
ad table in
morgan
page 12
147. Types of cartilage in tissue repair C
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3 (right)
d. 4
e. 5
148. Uv light causes
Non lethan damage to gene (right)
149. Vitamin A deficiency , first sign
a. Night blindness (right)
b. Dermatitis
150. Wave A to C on Jugular pulse is due represented on ECG by A
a. PR segment (right)
151. Which anti TB drus causes severe adverse effects if reused after withdrawl A
a. Ethambutol
b. Other 1st line drugs
152. Which Depolarizing muscle relaxant in asthma cisatra

153. Which of the following organs will be solely dependent on glucose


a. Brain (right)
b. Rbcs
154. Which of the following will have increase O2 demand and decrease O2 supply to Doubtful. I
heart did
a. Hypertension hypertensi
b. Tachy on because
it increases
Afterload
and causes
LVH.
155. Sample taken for ABGS will in
Heparanized syringe arterial blood

156 Angle of loius has

Azygous vein draining into svc (right)

Upper cuvature of aortic arch


End of thoracic duct
156. Student observing surgery for the first time, faint because of
Dec blood volume
Dec peripheral vascular resistance (right)
Dec cardiac output
Inc stroke volume
November 2016
Compiled by Dr. Rali
Helped out by great whatsapp fellows , Dr Fahad (admin) Dr Basit , Dr Usman
Saqib , Dr Afzaal

1 ) thermisters & wired thermometers work on principles of


Wheatstone bridge

2) local anesthetic conc is most in blood after


A) intercosal (right )
B) epidural
c) spinal
d) caudal
if in option there is interalveolar then , thats best

3) local anesthetic agents are most likely to bind with


A) Albumin
B) globulin
c)alpha 1 glycoprotein (right )
all local anesthetics r weak bases so , bind with alpha glycoprotein

4) the therapeutic drug used in Rx of thyroid disease in pregnancy, which cross placenta and affect
fetus
A) PTU (right)
B) thyroxin
C) TSH
D) steroid
E) propranolol
PTU , used in pregnancy, cross placenta , can cause fetal damage

5) plegra caused by deficiency of


A) Niacin ( right )
B) Riboflavin
C) ascorbic acid

6) antipsychotics do action via inhibiting


A) serotonin
B) GABA
C) D1
D) D2 (right)

7) Most local anesthetics have Pka around


A) 4-5
B) 5-6
C) 7-8
D) 8-9 (right)

8) drug safely used in pts taking MAO inhibitors


A) Codiene
B) morphine
C) Buprinorphine
D) Fentanyl (right)

9) epinephrine used for elevating systolic BP has following effect on heart


A) Increases (right)
B) decreases
C) Dec systolic BP
D) Effect only in relatively high doses

10) pt taking morphine are likely to have withdrawal symptoms with use of
A) Buprinorphine (right)
B) naloxone
C) Pentozocine
D) nalorphine

11) CVP indicated in


A) neurosurgery pts to remove embolism ( right )
B) for hyperlemination
C) For maintenance of icp

12) fluid given in 2 canula at same height , second canula has half of lumen diameter as compared to
first one , flow would b
A) 4 times
B) 16 times
C) 1/16 Times (right)
D) 2 times

13) 2% lignocaine solution in 4ml has drug


A) 80mg (right)
B) 40mg
C) 20mg

14) flow through lumen is dependent on


A) density
B) viscosty (right)
C) specific gravity

15) flutec 4 vaporizer is


Temp dependent
16) vapour pressure of a volatile liquid is directly proportional to
Temp of the liquid itself nd its moleculer branching

17) boiling point of which is highest


A) Isoflurane
B) Desflurane
C) Halothane
D) sevo (right)

18) afferent fibers to ciliary ganglion comes from


A) occulomoter (right)
B) short ciliary
C) long ciliary
1st order : from edinger westphal nucleus to ciliary ganglion is throu Occulomoter,,, 2 nd order : from
ciliary ganglion to pupillary sphincter muscles is through short cilliary nerves,, causing mieosis

19) nor epi converted to epi by the action of


A) dopamine (right)
B) serotonin
Nor epi conversion to epi needs the presesnce of SAM( s-adenosyl methionine),, actually dopa is
converted into Nepi ( requires vit C) which is converted to epi ( requires SAM)

20) which drug causes methemoglobinemia


A) prilocaine ( right )
B) bupivacaine
C) Lodocaine

21) cardiotoxic effects of prilocaine act through


Methemoglobenimia

22) local anesthetic act by


A) blocking Na channel (right)
B) Blocking K channels

23) visual hallucinations are feature of


A) Alcohol
ketamine also cause auditory nd visual hallucinations, exact stem not properly recalled

24) pt had rheumatic fever , now presented with SOB , nd has atrial fib , murmurs ll b heard at
A) systolic murmur at aortic area (right)
B) systolic in pul area
C) machinery murmurs

25) O2 hb dissociation curve is best defined by


A) PaO2 60 ,SaO2 90 (right)
B) PaO2 238 , SaO2 98
C) PaO2 134 , SaO2 95
26) bupivacaine safe dose
A) 150 mg (right)
B) 200 mg
C) 250 mg

27) train of four , having 2 twitches


A) 90 %
B) 80 % (right)
C) 70 %

28) CVP indication


A) preop pt in a cachetic state
B) neurosurgey pt
C) preop pt for cholicystectomy
D) pul edema estimation (right)

29) side effect of edrophonium


A) light headedness
B) nausea (right)
C) Anhydrosis
D) bradycardia

30) at 45 mmHg of CO2 , how much of it is dissolved in blood


A) 0.3% volume
B) 2.5% ( only 5% dissolved in blood , so may b this one is right)
C) 7.5 %

31) antipsychotic receptor for chlorapramine


Non specific blockade of 5HT , NE reuptake

32) best way to induce withdrawal in opoid addict


A) buprinorphine (right)
B) naloxone
C) pentozocine

33) vol of distribution depend on


Plasma half life

34) in first order reactions, increasing the dose , ll


A) inc rate of elemination ( right)
B) dec rate of elemination
C) remains constant rate of elemination

35) bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis , the position of vocal cords will b
A) cadeveric
B) full abduction
C) gentle abduction
D) median
E) paramedian ( right)

36) why nitroglycerin not given orally , because it has


A) 1st pass effect (right)
B) 2nd pass effect

37) reversal of paracetamol poisoning


A) N-acetylcysteine

38) temp sensitive vaporizer


A) enflurane
B) halothane & enflurane
C) Desflurane ( right )

39) action of post arytenoid


A) abduction (right)
B) Adduction
C) Tense

40) true about nalbuphine


A) cause same resp depression as morphine
B) as potent as morphine (right)

41) in deficiency of pallegra , what is given


A) niacin ( right)
B) Pentothenic acid
C) riboflavin

42) in pre operative assesment pt taking digoxin , ECG ll show


A) norml ST segment
B) prolongation of PR intrvl ( right )
C) prolong ST segment
D) widening of QRS complex

43) repeated doses of terbutaline given to pregnant women to arrest premature labour, wt ll u find
A) hyperkelimia
B) acidosis (Right)
C) hypernatremia
44) CHO metabolism which is irreversible reaction ( glucose metabolism)
Glucose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6 biphosphate

45) which LA has Pka nearest to physiological Ph


A) cocaine 8.7
B) mepivacaine 7.7
C) lidocaine 7.8
D) procaine 8.9
So , mepivacaine is right here
46) A child got ribs fractured in an accident , which LA ll b best
A) Bupivacaine (right)
B) Lignocaine

47) which LA is safe in pregnancy


A) lidocaine
B) benzocaine (right)
C) bupivacaine

48) pseudomonas infection DOC


A) Ciprofloxacin (right)
B) ceftriazone
C) ticarcillin
D) ampicillin

49) meningococcal meningitis DOC


A) Penicillin (right)
B) cefazoline
C) cotrimoxazole

50) Venous pressure inc by 8mm , capilry pressure would b


A) no change (right)
B) inc by 8mm

51) whats common between pulmonary nd skeletal muscle capilaries


A) Inc hydrostatic pressure

52) tramadol mechanism of action


Weak meu

53) strong B1 nd B2 agonist


A) nor epi
B) Epi (may b , this one is right,, please confirm)
C) dobutamine
D) dopa

54) O2- Hb curve shifts to right


A) Inc temp (right)
B) alkalosis
C) dec temp

55) rapidly adopting receptor


A) Pain
B) touch
C) vibration (right)
D) baroreceptors
56) MgSO4 safe therapeutic plasma level , with narrow therapeatic index level is
A) 1-2 mg/dl
B) 2-4
C) 4-8
(couldnt find the answer, plz confirm urself)

57) middle thyroid vein drain into


A) Braciocephalic vein
B) intranl juguler vein (right)
C) extrnal jugular vein

58) sceneria of achondroplasia


A) autosoml recessive
B) autosoml dominant (right)

59) 30 degree arm abduction by


A) Supraspinatus (right)
B) infraspinatus
C) deltoid

60) below nd right side of umblicus stab wound of 3cm , hypovolemia due to
A) IVC rupture (right)
B) ileal branch of IMA
C) SMA
D) IMA

61) abdominal angina due to


A) SMA (right)
B) Celiec trunk

62) vestibuler nerve consists if which fibers


A) affernt only
B) effernt only
C) affernt , effenrt nd cholinergic (right)

63) block for pain in upper abdomin viscera


A) celiec block (Right)
B) epidural
C) intercostal

64) MAC of anesthetic drugs depend on


A) Temperature

65) irregularly irreguler pulse in


A) atrial fib (right)
B) Atrial flutter
C) vent fib

66) hormone which has steriod composition


A) calcitonin
B) FSH
C) progesterone (right)

67) neural tube formed by


A) 3RD week (Right)
B) 4th week
C) 5TH week

68) Left gastric artery part of


A) celiec trunk (right)
B) SMA
C) IMA

69) most common side effect of PDEIs


A) hypotension
B) nausea nd vomiting (right)

70) in pregnancy , wt u ll use to control DM


A) Insulin (right)
B) sulfonylurea

71) cutting power of diathermy depends upon


A) Current density (right)
B) current intensity

72) end of 3rd week which is formed


A) Stomach rotates
B) primordial heart ventral to foregut (right)
C) heart forms

73) volume of distribution is inverse to


A) plasma conc

74) anticonvulsant in severe pre eclampsia


A) MgSO4

75) Endotoxins released when


Bacteria die

76) pt having worm infestation , wt ll b high in his blood


A) basophils
B) eosinophils (right)
C) neutrophils

77) viral infection , wt ll b high


A) lymphocytes (right)
B) basophils
C) eosinophils
78) ADH nd oxytocin released by
A) hypothalamus (right)
B) neuro hypophysis
C) adenohypophysis

79) which of the followng not related to mickel diverticulum


A) Is ramnent of urachus
B) lies 60cm proximl to iliocecal valve
C) lies 60cm distl to iliocecal valve (right)
D) all of above

80) thoracolumber
Sympathetic

81) pt unable to void aftr injury , nerve injured


A) S2,3,4 (right)
B) S3,4,5

82) GFR clinicaly measured by


A) PAH
B) inulin
C) creatinine clearance (right)

83) true about larynx


A) C2-4
B) bony structure
Located at level of C3-6 vertebrae , made up of 6 cartilages , 3 paired ( arytenoid , corniculate,
cuneiform) 3 unpaired cartilages ( epiglottic , thyroid, cricoid)

84) Penetrating trauma to left side of neck , which structure is damaged


A) Laryngeal nerve
B) Left subclavian artery
C) Vocal cords
According to options , A is better than others

85) milk ejection from breast caused by


A) estrogen
B) prolectin nd estrogen
C) prolactin nd oxytocin
D) Oxytocin , prolactin , cortisol (right)

86) lower limit of rectus sheath


A) arcuate line (right)
B) pectinate line

87) which drug needs daily serum monitoring


A) vancomycin (right)
B) penicillin
C) clindamycin

88) hallmark of reversible injury


Cellular swelling

89) hallmark of irreversible injury


Cell membrane damage

90) buccopharyngeal membrane separate


A) Stomidium from foregut (right)
B) nose from pharynx

ANAESTHESIA
(SEPTEMBER.2016)
PAPER-1
85% from tanveer notes so I am not compiling it .. go
through tanveer notes for paper 1.

PAPER-2
1.hypertrichosis is the side effect of --- phenytoin

2.sore throat, group-b streptococcus ,antibiotic of choice ---benzathine


penicillin

3.horner syndrome plus loss of sensations over face, artery involved ---
PICA

4.neurolepanalgesia---- droperidol+fentanyl
5.patient came with unconscious in ER known case of diabetic , insulin
used is --- regular

6.pseudomembraneous colitis --- clindamycin

7.APCKD associated with ---cerebral hemorrhage

8.luadanosine is metabolite of--- atracurium

9.local anesthetic mechanism --- inhibit Na channel

10. most common side effect of steroids----osteoporosis and recurrent


fractures

11.true about ECG--- ST segment shows ventricular depolarization

12.nephrotoxicity is the side effect of --- aminoglycosides

13.digitalis toxicity includes--- hypokalemia

14.lying on bed undressed heat loss will be through--- conduction

15.metoclopramide mechanism of action --- gastric emptying

16.true about isofluorane --- blood gas coeficient is 1.3

17.true for cryoprecipitate--- paradoxical bleeding may occur during


transfusion

18.PTU (propyl thiouracil) mechanism of action --- inhibits thyroid


harmone synthesis

19.beta blocker increases--- a)hypoglycemia (right) b)lipolysis


c)gluconeogenisis

20.dietry constituent of high caloric value.--- fats


21.HIV + patient undergone surgery. After surgery floor will be washed
with -----2 % hypochlorite solution

22.silica is added to sodalime --- to increase hardness

23.inspiratory ramp signals are produced from dorsal respiratory


neurons . their rate increases in response to impulses from--- a)stretch
receptors in lung b) pnumptaxic centre in pons (asim shoaib key )

24.marked increase in cardiac output during --- exercise

25.aorta passes posterior to : find it urself cux I forgot the options n I


did tukka :p

26.in which conditions there is metabolic alkalosis---


hyperaldosteronism

27.during blood transfusion, free hemoglobin is bound to---


haptoglobin

28.mechanism of action of sulphonylureas--- augmentation of beta cell


insulin secretion

29.diabetic gastropresis drug indicated --- metoclopramide

30.regarding use of vaporizers---- all new vaporizers are calliberated by


output concentration

31.the process of equalization of molecular concentration of gas across


a membrane ---- diffusion

32.nalbuphine--- as potent as morphine

33.drug to diagnose myasthenia grevis --- edrophonium


34.assuming pressure is same but increase in diameter is tripled wot
will be increase in flow velocity of fluid ---- 81 times

35.radford normogrammeasure of tidal volume and paCO2

36.measurement of cardiac output by thermodilution--- involves


measuring of integral temp change over time

37.in an adult lower limit of subarachnoid space is --- S2-S3

38. 5 years child with asthma came to ER--- inhaled salbutamol

39. reason for formation of frost and dew in reducing valves of N2O
tanks---- heat is necessary to vapourize a liquid and to expand gas

40.a transducerconverts one form of energy into another

41.muscle involved in quite breathing its diaphragm but it wasnt in


options so according to options it was external intercostals

42.plateau of action potential in cardiac muscle ---- Ca influx

43. in which condition cardiac output is maximum increased---- exercise

44.three bronchopulmonary segments are found in--- right upper lobe

45.COX-2 inhibitor --- celecoxib

46.post ganglionic sympathetic neurotransmitter--- nor-epinephrine

47.wheatstone bridge principle is used to measure --- cardiac output

48.corticospinal tract after decussation in medulla becomes ----


pyramidal tract ? lateral corticospinal tract

49.in premature baby decrease surfactant causes--- increase surface


tension and dec compliance
50.in hirsgprugs disease sigmoid colon is involved .. wot is the nerve
root involve --- a)S1-S2 b)S2-S3 right c)L4-L5

51.metabolite of sevofluorane hexafluoroisopropanalol

52.suxamethinium depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent

53.nerve supply of anterior triangle of neck --- C2-C3

54.redox reaction ---oxido reductase

55.lateral ventricles are connected by --- septum pellucidum

56.ph=2, pco2=60, hco3=11 ----- metabolic and respiratory acidosis

57.pre-medication with hepatic disease---a) meperidine b)diazepam c)


remifentanil right

58.herpes labialis drug of choice --- acyclovir

59.resperidone --- extrapyramidal effect

60.one minute apnea level of co2---- a)2mm hg b)4mm hg c)6mm hg


d)8mm hg e)10mm hg right

61.sciatica case nerve root involved ---L4-L5

62.tenth intercoastal nerve enters rectus sheath through -----


a)umbilicus may b this one is right, confirm urself b)pyramidalis c)
xiphisternum

63.half life of pseudocholinesterase---- 12 hours

64.vagus nerve --- enter through middle of foramen magnum

65.volume of N2O cylinder --- 1590


66.phospholipase c activation includes---- a)role in penile errection
b)adh (right)

67.local anesthetic action --- inhibit Na pump

68.CVP is inserted ---- a)to detect pulmonary edema right b) to limit


fluid after jejuno something shunt .. c)in cachexic patient before
surgery for fluid replacement d) I forgot

(if there is option of tip of cvp in right atrium , then ,that is best option

69.site for pleural aspiration --- upper border of rib at maximum


dullness

70.clonidine --- orthostatic hypotension (right, alpha2 agonist)

71.accident and fracture of ribs the patient died due to fracture of


which vertebra--- a)atlas b)axis (right)

72.diabetic patient ----a) telbutamide b ) glabinclamide c) metformin


right

73.isotonic to plasma ---- 0.9% NaCl

74.location of reticular formation--- floor of aqueduct of sylvius

75.fastest conduction--- A alpha

76.motor activity --- simultaneously activate alpha and gamma fibres

77.contraindication in peptic ulcer--- aspirin

78.indication in cerebral edemaa)mannitol right b)acetazolamide

79.muscle relaxant given suddenly the patient stopped breathing and


became cyanosed --- a)pancuronium (right) b) diazepam
80.anatomy of optic chiasm realtions .. present variably above
pituitary gland

81.sodium cromolyn ---a) prevent asthma b) treat brochial asthma


C)prevent antigen associated mast cell degranulation (right)

82.glabella is found --- btw super cilliary ridges

83.lower motor nerve lesion --- flaccid paralysis

84.edema is caused by --- increased capillary permeability

85.esophagus constricted by---- left atrium enlargement

86.dopamine increases GFR by --- increased renal blood flow

87.not isotonic to plasma --- 5 % dextrose ( I think yeh paper one ka


tha)

88.carotid bodies--- carotid baroreceptors

Bus itny he recall kr paye hm log ..

Compiled by:

Dr. Kashif

Dr. Faisal Saddique

Dr.Erum Sardar
I have tried to make it as error free as possible. And I have compiled
all anesthesia I found uptil now. Except our september 2016 paper. do
search if you find anything doubtful. And re upload after corrections.
Try to do these in last ten days and after doing asim anesthesia twice
as many mcq are incomplete extract of asim anesthesia. I wasted alot
of time searching for answers in options. Only to realize in last days
that they were from asim with correct option missing. I have
corrected the ones I could find in quick revision. Hope it helps.. best of
luck!! remember in prayers. I did these twice too.

ANAESTHESIOLOGY

Paper 1

9th May 2016; Morning


1- Patient with cancer; stage T4,N1,M1. What will be seen: cachexia
2- Patient with cyanosis: deoxyhemoglobin >5%
3- Massive pulmonary embolism. Where did embolus originate from: a) long saphenous
vein b) pelvic veins c) popliteal veins d) femoral artery
4- 11 years old girl, where will be the last secondary centre of ossification present in the
humerus: a) lateral epicondyle b) medial epicondyle c) trochlea d) olecranon e)
capitulum
5- Bleeding from tracheostomy. Which vessel is responsible: a) inferior thyroid artery b)
vein connecting anterior jugular veins
6- Collagen atrophy: a) injury causes bleeding b) rheumatoid arthritis
7- Characteristic of exudates: a) decreased vascular permeability b) inflammatory cells c)
increased lipids d) specific gravity < 1.012 (no option of protein present)
8- Maximum glycogen stored in: a) liver (5-6% of liver fresh weight) b) skeletal muscles (1-
2% of muscle mass
9- Elastic cartilage when freshly cut appears yellow and clear because of: a) elastic fibers b)
collagen fibers c) basophils
10- True about hypertrophy: a) unlimited extent b) increased DNA content c)occurs in
endocrine glands
11- Neurotransmitter release in synaptic cleft depends on a) presynaptic calcium release b)
presynaptic action potential (RIGHT)
(neurotransmitter release depends on presynaptic calcium uptake , not on release
12- A thirsty patient with urine osmolality of 950 and serum osmolality of 297. What is the
diagnosis: a) water deprivation b) SIADH c) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
13- Increased vagal stimulation causes: a) increased PR interval
14- Ameboid locomotion is seen in: a) WBCs
15- Potassium secretion: a) Aldosterone b) ANP c) Angiotensin
16- Which one amongst the following is benign: a) Melanoma b) Lymphoma c) Adenoma d)
Hepatoma
17- Axillary sheath is formed by: a) pretracheal fascia b) prevertebral fascia c) superficial
cervical fascia
18- ICAM and VCAM: a) leucocyte adhesion
19- Hyaline cartilage present in: a) Intervertebral disc b) Pinna c) TMJ articular d) Epiglottis
20- Secondary cartilaginous joint is: a) Pubic symphysis
21- Anterior relationship of right kidney: a) Liver b) 2nd part of duodenum c) hepatic flexure
d) small intestine.. all these r anterior relations, I think the question is of not, and right
option is missing
22- In normal quiet respiration, resonance of chest in mid-scapular line posteriorly is
present till: a) 7th rib b) 8th rib c) 9th rib d) 10th rib e)11th rib
23- G6PD deficiency presents most commonly as: a) drug induced hemolysis b) favism
24- A girl was asked a question in a lecture; her face became red. What is the mechanism:
a) Active hyperemia b) Passive hyperemia c) Increased congestion
25- A man with history of chronic alcohol abuse but no medical illness is working well and
comes to a doctor for routine checkup. Examination is unremarkable. AST=40, ALT=40,
Total bilirubin =1.1; most likely microscopic feature is: a) fatty liver b) hypertrophy of
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
26- Parasympathetic stimulation causes: a) relaxation of detrusor muscle b) contraction of
sphincters c) erection d) decreased gut motility
27- Abnormal protein synthesis. Misfolded proteins degraded by: a) Peroxisome b)
Proteasome c) Nucleosome
28- Increased WBC count in viral infection. Which cells are responsible: a) Lymphocytes b)
Neutrophils c) Eosinophils d) Basophils
29- AIDs characterized by: a) decrease in T helper cells
30- Spinal cord is suspended in dura meter by: a) denticulate ligament b) alar ligament
31- Rapid filling of ventricle produces vibration responsible for which heart sound: a) 1 st
heart sound b) 2nd heart sound c) 3rd heart sound d) 4th heart sound (atril systole)
32- Test for typhoid in 1st week of infection: a) blood culture b) complement fixation c)
Widals test
33- Most potent anti-oxidant: a) vitamin A b) vitamin C c) vitamin E d) Transferrin
(glutathione not in options)
34- Aldosterone causes: a) increased tubular reabsorption of sodium b) most active
mineralocorticoid
35- Many WBCs lining the endothelium is called: a) Adhesion b) margination c)
pavementation d) diapedisis e) chemotaxis
36- Visceral afferent ; parotid
37- Most appropriate about cardiac muscle is a) supplied by autonomic nervous system b)
striated
38- Osmolarity of normal saline in mOsm/L : a) 280 b) 320
39- Research about risk of MI and level of exertion 24 hours prior to MI. 3 result values
given for mild, moderate and severe level of exertion. This is best represented by: a) bar
chart b) pie chart
40- 4 fold or 2 x 2 contingency table: Chi square test
41- Regarding mode of action of aspirin: a) COX inhibitor
42- Vitamin D deficiency causes: a) Rickets
43- Iron absorption increased by: a) Ferrous form b) oxalate intake
44- Cortisol causes: a) decreased intake of glucose into cells
45- Girl talking to a doctor in a seductive tone. What should doctor do: a) refer to other
doctor b) ask open ended questions c) call in a nurse
46- Factor 8 released by: a) endothelium ANSWER b) liver
47- 4th layer of scalp is: a) loose connective tissue b) dense connective tissue
48- Which drug acts by inhibition of H+/K+ pump: a) Omeprazole b) cimetidine c) ranitidine
49- Infection between investing layer of deep fascia and pretracheal fascia. Where can it
spread: a) retropharyngeal space b) posterior to sternocleidomastoid c) superior border
of manubrium sternum d) anterior to pericardium ANSWER e) oesophagus
50- Right bronchial artery arises from: a) 2nd intercostals artery b) right 3rd intercostals
artery (right) c) thoracic aorta d) arch of aorta
51- Isthmus of thyroid is present in front of: a) 2nd, 3rd, and 4th tracheal rings
52- Secretion of proteins from kidney is prevented by: a) podocyte foot processes b)
basement membrane c) fenestrations
53- Renal clearance of a substance depends on: a) increase in GFR b) aldosterone
54- Patient with adrenalectomy. Taste preference for: a) sodium chloride
55- Sign of reversible injury: a) cellular blebs b) swelling of endoplasmic reticulum
56- Extraembryonic coelom derived from: a) intraembryonic coelom b) lateral mesoderm c)
paraxial mesoderm d) intermediate mesoderm
57- Stratified cuboidal epithelium present in: a) lining of salivary duct b) urethra
58- Structure passing through the oesophageal opening of thoracic diaphragm: a) right
vagus nerve b) right phrenic nerve c) hemiazygous vein
59- Nitroglycerine should not be given orally because: a )inactivated during first passage
through liver
60- Best investigation for diagnosing diabetic nephropathy: a) urine albumin
61- Edema in renal pathology is the result of: a) sodium retention b) hypoalbuminemia c)
sodium retention and hypoalbuminemia
62- What decreases in pregnancy: a) PaCO2 b) minute ventilation
63- Food which causes a decrease in risk of cancer: a) chocolate bonbon b) smoked meat c)
apples d) rum
64- Treatment of enteric fever: a) ciprofloxacin
65- Mothers blood group is A. Childs blood group is O. Other childs blood group is AB.
What is the blood group of the father? : a) B b) children have 2 different fathers
66- Amniocentesis shows karyotype XXY. Diagnosis: a) Klinefelters b) Turners c) Androgen
insensitivity syndrome
67- Active tubular secretion of: a) Streptomycin b) Penicillin
68- Medical ethics: a) covered by Hippocratic oath b) code of professional conduct c) code
of moral conduct of a doctor

68- Increased age causes a decrease in: a) vital capacity b) heart rate c) blood pressure d) pulse
pressure
69- Warfarin therapy in DVT: a) not to be given in pregnancy b) can be quickly reversed by
FFPs c) vitamin K will work in short term
70- Air flows to the alveoli more at the base because of: a) increased compliance at the
base b) increased blood flow at the base
71- What passes through vena caval opening of thoracic diaphragm: a) right phrenic nerve
72- Drug causing red man syndrome: vancomycin
73- Patient with stroke. Repair of brain tissue by: a) glial cells b) oligodendrocytes
74- Adenoma derived from: a) epithelial cells b) glands
75- Major buffer of blood: a) hemoglobin b) bicarbonate c) proteins

Anaesthesiology
Paper 2
9th May 2016; Morning
I have marked a few asim anes mcq I remembered n that came
in this paper just to stress on its importance. But dont rely on
just asim anes. Try to have the best prep possible

1- Treatment of Gille de touretter syndrome: a) Haloperidol b) Methylphenidate


2- Mapelson A breathing system. FGF 1.5 x minute volume to prevent rebreathing of
alveolar air
3- Regarding beta selectivity: a) Timolol- beta 1 selective b) Betaxolol- beta 1 selective c)
lebuvolol- beta 1 selective d) betaxolol- beta 2 selective e) levobulol- beta 2 selective
4- True about internal capsule: a) somatosensory fibers in anterior limb b) thalamus lies
medial to posterior limb c) corticospinal fibers are present in anterior limb
5- 80 years old male unable to sleep at night. Came to a doctor. BP was 160/80. Not on any
antihypertensives. Didnt have any blood pressure problems before. Most likely cause of
increased blood pressure in this patient is: a)decreased aortic compliance b) unable to
sleep at night
6- Neuromuscular blocker with maximum release of histamine: a) Tubocurare b)
Atracurium c) Succinylcholine
7- Percentage of oxygen in a mixture of 2% halothane and air is: a) 20.4% b) 40% c) 50% d)
15.4% e)60%
8- Decreased hypothalamic function will result in an increase in one of the following: a)
prolactin b) TSH
9- L5 slides over sacrum anteriorly such that it is nearer to the sacral promontory. What is
this condition called? : a) Spondylosis b) Spondylolisthesis
10- Carbondioxide in tissues is transported to the alveoli mainly in the form of: a) plasma
bicarbonate b) carbonic hemoglobin
11- HR = 75 and ventricular systole is 0.3 seconds. When HR increases to 225, what will be
the duration of ventricular systole: a) 0.9 sec b) 0.1 sec c) 0.6 sec
12- TMJ dislocates mostly in which direction: a) anteriorly b) posteriorly c) laterally d)
medially
13- How does thiazide diuretics decrease edema: a) decreasing sodium absorption
14- Gyri longus and brevis present in which area of brain: a) Frontal lobe b) Parietal lobe c)
Temporal lobe d) Occipital lobe e) Insula
15- Salbutamol causes: a) bradycardia b) hypokalemia c) increase uterine contractions
16- A girl with pheochromocytoma to be operated. For control of blood pressure what
should be given: a) alpha and beta blocker b) beta blocker c) alpha blockerasim anes
mcq
17- Dobutamine primarily acts on: a) beta 1 receptor b) beta 1 and 2 receptors c) alpha and
beta receptors d) beta 1 and 2 receptors and dopamine receptor
18- In a patient with heart failure, mannitol should be given with caution because of risk of:
a) precipitating pulmonary edema b) increasing intracranial pressure c) decreasing
concentrating ability of kidneysasim anes mcq
19- Furosemide useful in: a) acute pulmonary edema b) open angle glaucoma asim anes
mcq
20- Lady can understand speech but unable to speak. Lesion is in which area of brain: a)
Brocas area b) Wernickes area
21- Bleeding from duodenal ulcer. Most likely: a) posterior duodenal ulcer and erosion of
gastroduodenal artery b) anteriorly duodenal ulcer and erosion of gastroduodenal
artery
22- Mode of action of methylxanthines (theophylline): a) Phosphodiesterase inhibiton
(right) b) aldosterone receptor antagonism asim anes mcq
23- Damage to medullary cuneatus and gracilis causes: a) analgesia b) anesthesia
c)asteriognosis
24- Drug safe in pregnancy: a) Ibuprofen B) Naproxen c) ketorolacasim anes mcq
25- Regarding electrical isolation of circuit with use of ECG monitoring for placing a CVP line:
a) use of transducer for converting electrical signals to light b) a current leak of 200
milliamperes can cause ventricular fibrillation c) using something that gives a warning
when leakage of current is of 50 milliamperes d) using a non conducting wire over a
conducting wireasim anes mcq
26- Organophosphorus poisoning: a) Physostigmine b) Neostigmine c) Pralidoxime d)
Edrophonium
27- Cromolyn sodium: a) used in acute asthma b) all asthma c) prevents antigen associated
mast cell degranulation d) used in children cause added effects?
28- Fibers of corpus collosum most likely called: a) commissural fibers b) projection fibers
29- Trismus is one of the first sign of a developing malignant hyperthermia with use of IV
succinylcholine in what percentage of patients: a) <50% b) 50% c) 75% d) 80% e) >85%
30- Patient on multi-drug resistant ATT. After a while, red-orange color blindness due to: a)
Ethambutol b) Isoniazid c) Streptomycin d) Pyrazinamide
31- Key components of a sensory modality: a) type of receptor, receptive filed, adaptation
b) type of receptor, location in body, adaptation c) cant recall other options
32- Upper lung lobe has: a) increased dead space
33- Patient with blood loss between 15-20%. What should be given via infusion: a) normal
saline b) ringers lactate c) colloids d) whole bloodasim anes mcq
34- Thirst increased by a decrease in: a) baroreceptor firing b) increased plasma volume
35- Conduction velocity of propagation in an axon is increased by: a) decrease in membrane
resistance b) decrease in axon diameter c) increased refractory period d) excitability
36- Toxic effects of local anesthetics: a) bupivacaine cardiac effects seen more than that of
lidocaine
37- Solution used for scrubbing: a) chlorhexidine b) potassium permagnate c) alcohol
38- Cleaning or disinfection of skin: a) chlorhexidineasim anes mcq
39- Most important for preventing transmission of infection in ICU: a) frequent hand
washing between patients b) wearing gowns c) wearing glovesasim anes mcq
40- ETT breathing system ( cant recall at all)
41- Regarding autoregulation of blood from most sensitive to least sensitive: a) cerebrum >
cerebellum > spinal cord b) cerebellum > cerebrum > spinal cord
42- Regarding epinephrine: a) causes bronchodilation by acting on beta 2 receptors
43- True regarding alpha motor neurons: a) myelinated b) unmyelinated c) innervates
motor end plates d) innervates intrafusal fibers
44- PR interval best represented on JVP curve by: a) a to c wave b) a, c and x c) c wave by
atrial systoleasim anes mcq
45- Which analgesic is safest for use with MAO inhibitors: a) Fentanyl b) Buprenorphineasim
anes mcq
46- Blood supply of cingulated gyrus: a) anterior choroidal artery b) posterior choroidal
artery c) middle cerebral d) anterior cerebral
47- Lateral curvature loss causes: a) kyphosis b) lordosis c) scoliosis
48- Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli at height of 14000 feet? Where barometric pressure
is 450 mm Hg: a) 84 b) 40 c)104asim anes mcq
49- If pH=7.4, ratio of [NaHCO3] to [H2CO3] is: a) 1:20 b) 1:25 c) 1:30 c) 1:5
50- Greatest potential difference in the wall of stomach achieved by: a) aspirin
51- Autonomic nervous system supply of stomach: a) parasympathetic increases motility b)
parasympathetic increase secretion of enzymes
52- Re-entry circuit causes: a) atrial fibrillation b) atrial flutter c) paroxysmal atrial
tachycardia d) paroxysmal nodal tachycardia
53- Selective COX-2 inhibitor: a) Meloxicam
54- Digitalis indicated in: a) atrial flutter b) ventricular tachycardia (for rate control in atrial
flutter nd fib)
55- Greatest chance of pneumothorax while inserting CVP is with which route: a) internal
jugular b) external jugular c) right subclavian d) left subclavian
56- Regarding thermoreceptors, best is: a) large receptive field b) changing temperature
causes a dynamic response
57- Patient with RTA has memory loss. Damage to which lobe has occurred: a) temporal
lobe b) parietal lobe
58- Rapid treatment for SVT: a) adenosine b) amiodarone c) propanolol d) verapamil e)
lidocaine
59- An anti-anginal drug that causes constipation and edema: a) diltiazem b) hydralazine c)
nitroglycerine d) propanolol e) isosorbide dinitrate
60- Cimetidine causes: a) liver enzyme inhibition b) SLE
61- What ascends from thorax to root of neck, behind sternoclavicular junction: a) SVC b)
arch of aorta c) right subclavian d) left subclavian
62- 3rd lower molar tooth extraction under GA. Loss of sensation of lateral tongue on that
side. Nerve damaged is: a) Inferior alveolar nerve b) lingual nerve
63- To differentiate between myasthenia crisis and cholinergic crisis, what is used? A)
edrophonium b) neostigmine c) pyridostigmine d) physostigmine
64- Blood supply of spinal cord: a) vertebral artery b) basilar artery c) PCOM
65- Membrane resting potential is due to a) K+ efflux b) Na+/ K+ pump
66- Fetal blood leaving the placenta carry how much PO2: a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40 e) 50
67- Consistent finding of hypokalemia is present in: a) persistent vomiting b) respiratory
alkalosis c) DKA
68- Anterior surface of heart is mainly formed by: a) RA b) RV c) LV d) LA
69- 3rd space fluid loss. Replace it with: a) ringers lactate b) normal saline c) 5% dextrose
70- Fluid not isotonic with plasma: a) normal saline b) 5% dextrose c) 1.2% sodium
bicarbonate d) Hartmans solution (ringers lactate)
71- Sign of lignocaine overdose: a) prolonged convulsions b) perioral anesthesia
72- Paracetamol overdose. What should be given: a) acetylcysteine
73- Abrasion causing bleeding. 1st change seen will be: a) vasoconstriction
74- AV node supplied mostly by: a) RCA b) LCA
75- Force of heart contraction depends on: a) pre-existing length of muscle fiber b) gap
junctions
76- Increase in ESR with: a) increased fibrinogen b) albumin c) cholesterol
77- 3rd degree burn complication: a) contracture b) neuroma
78- Anion gap between :a) measured anions and cations
79- Primordial germ cells incorporated in gonads in sex cord in: a) 3rd week b) 4th week
80- Gyri longus and brevis are present in which area of brain: a) frontal lobe b) parietal lobe
c) temporal lobe d) occipital lobe e) insula
81- Cingulate gyrus lies in which lobe: a) temporal b) parietal c) insular d) frontal
82- Satiety is mediated by: a) impulses from GIT b) increased blood glucose levels c) uptake
of glucose into cells via insulin
83- To check vitamin D status in body, what should be measured? : a) 1 alpha hydroxylase b)
cholecalciferol c) 1, 25 vitamin D d) 25 vitamin D
84- If membrane potential decreases, it is due to: a) K+ efflux b) Na+ efflux c) Cl- efflux
85- Neural crest cell derivative: a) dorsal root ganglion b) preganglionic autonomic fiber c)
adrenal cortex d) astrocytes and oligodendrocytes
86- Partial pressure of halothane at 20 degree Celsius is : a) 184 b) 568 c) 243asim anes mcq
87- True about propofol: a) conjugated to glucoronide and sulfate in liver b) prepared in
propylene glycolasim anes mcq..
88- Ideal circuit for controlled mechanical ventilation: a) Mapelson A b) Mapelson B c)
Mapelson C d) Mapelson D e) Mapelson E
89- Carbondioxide will be best absorbed by one of the following: a) alkalies, silicates and
14-18% moisture b) barium hydroxide and calcium hydroxideasim anesthesia
90- Tract from the cerebrum ending on anterior horn cells in lateral and central part
(controlling distal musculature) of spinal cord is a) rubrospinal b) reticulospinal (No
option of corticospinal was present)
91- Drug contraindicated in intracranial hypertension: a) Ketamine b) Propofol
92- In treatment of nausea and vomiting: a) metoclopramide is less effective against
cytotoxic drug induced vomiting
93- Feature of a non-depolarising neuromuscular blocker is: a) poor sustained tetanic
contraction
94- Cimetidine is given preoperatively to: a) reduce gastric volume b) reduce gastric acidity
95- Patient is given spinal anesthesia and became hypotensive. Cause is: a) loss of
vasomotor tone
96- Patient allergic to bupivacaine and procaine. Which local anesthetic can be used? : a)
etidocaine b) lidocainean ester would be better option
97- Shortest acting non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker: a) rocuronium b) mivacurium
98- Recent memory and alertness associated with: a) anterior thalamic nucleus b) reticular
formation
99- Critical temperature is defined as: a) temperature to which a gas should be cooled to
be liquefied by pressure aloneasim anes
100- About pancuronium: a) steroid b) natural steroid c) synthetic steroidasim anes

Compiled by Dr. Saqiba Tahir


Special thanks to Dr. Ayesha Fatima, Dr. Rifah Zia, Dr. Tasneem, Dr. Madiha Khan, Dr.
Wajiha, Dr. Adil Thandwarani, Dr. M. Asad Chaudhary, Dr. Hanan Ayub, Dr. Waqar Dahri,
and Dr. Nabeel Hassan for help in compilation of both papers!
Vote of thanks to the administrators of the anesthesia whatsapp group: Dr. Fahad Rafiq
Butt and Dr. Aly Samnani for providing a platform for preparation of part-1 anesthesia
exam!
Please remember all of us in your prayers!

Anesthesia April 2016 Paper 2

1- Function of estrogen : Sec sexual characteristic

2- Most important function of progesterone :


a- alveolar duct development
b- dec uterine contractions
c- Secretory phase of endoetrium ( somethong like this not exact wording )

3- Patient was given thiopentone he developed severe pain what should be the management :
a- Naloxone
b- Lignocaine
c- Epinephrine

4- Which of the following decrease thyroid hormone : Propyl thio uracil


5- What is the role of thiopentone in head injury : Dec oxygen consumption
6- Patient with biliary colic what should be given along morphine to reduce the pain :
a- Pethidine
b- Hyoscine butyl bromide
7- Patient underwent limb surgery now complain of moderate pain on 3rd post op day what should
be given
a- Paracetamol
b- Ketorolac
8- Lumbar puncture should be performed : abve the L4 spine
9- Capnography oxygen above zero indicate
a- Spontaneous breath in controlled ventilation
b- Rebreathing

10- Chlorthalidone causes :


a- Hypercalcemia
b- Hyperuricemia
11- Metabolic alkalosis is a prominent feature of : Hyperaldosteronisim
12- Which drug increase potassium : captopril
13- Prevention of heat loss in anesthetized person
a- Space blanket
b- Humidification of inspired air
14- Another bcq about heat loss cant recall stem and only option I remember is : heat loss can b
prevented more by humidification of inspired air than by warming inspired air

15- P02 in arterial blood is less than that in alveoli reason


a- 02 req diffusion pressure to get in artery
b- Coronary arteries drain into coronary sinus

(there was no option that indicated shunting of blood )

16- Paramagnetic cylinder is used for (this is not the exact wording of stem ) :
a- N20
b- C02
c- 02
d- Halothane
17- True about N20 : Supports combustion
18- True about cautery : amount of cutting depends upon density of current
19- Which agent releases maximum histamine
a- Tubocurarine
b- Atracurium
20- Longest acting NMB :
a- Doxacurium
b- Pancuronium
21- Buffer to be most effective : pka should be near ph
22- Dead space increases in :
a- Lung collapse
b- Pulmonary edema
c- Hypertension
d- Hypotension
e- Atelectasis
23- 3% choloroprocaine has fast onset than 2% lignocaine why :
a- Concentration
b- Ester and amid factor
c- Pka
d- Protein binding
e- Lipid solubility
24- Molecular weight of isoflurane :
a- 144
b- 184.5
25- E cylinder of oxygen will last for how many minutes if flow is at 6 lit / min
a- 80 min
b- 114 min
c- 134 min

26- Nalbuphine :
a- Causes same resp depression as morphine
b- As potent as morphine
27- Mech of action of tramadol :
a-Weak meu
c- Kappa and meu
28- Septum pellucidum : weird options combo cant recall
29- Neuro muscular blockade is prolonged by : Gentamycin (Aminoglycoside)
30- Which of the drug is aminoglycoside : Amikacin
31- Patient underwent liver transplant which of the drug you will prescribe which is nephrotoxic and
doesnt causes bone marrow depression
a- Cyclophosphamide
b- Cyclosporine
c- Prednisolone
32- True about actions of glucocorticoid : dec peripheral glucose utilization
33- Abrupt withdrawal of glucocorticoid causes : adrenal supprsion
34- The advantage of dexamehasone over hydrocortisone is it doesnot causes
a- Hyperglycemia
b- Salt retention
35- In CNS myelination is a function of : oligodendroytes
36- Which cell in the CNS resembles Schwann cells : oligodendrocytes
37- EEG synchronization is caused by :
a- non specific thalamic nuclei
b- locus cerulus
controversial bcq
38- Oil in 02 reducing valve will cause explosion of what type : Adiabatic
39- Why high dose of non depolarizing agent is required in burn patients :
a- Increase no of receptor
b- High protein binding

40- Hyperthyroid lady with ventricular tachycardia heart rate of 180 pulse irregulary regular
treatment of choice :
a- Propanolol
b- Amiodarone
c- Verapamil
41- The volume of air remained in lung after maximal expiration is
a- 1200
b- 1400
42- Digoxin toxicity is increased by :
a- Increase intracellular potassium
b- Increase intracellular calcium
43- Antacid causing dec gastric emptying : aluminium hydroxide
43- Esophago gastric junction lies at :
a- T10
b- T11
c- L1
44- Venous pressure increased 8mm what will be the effect on capillary pressure :
a- Inc by 8 mm
b- Inc markedly
c- Dec by 6 mm
d- No change (right)
e- Dec by 8 mm

45- Jejunum is supplied by : Superior mesenteric artery


46- If v/q in inc blood p02 and pc02 will be same in :
a- Expired air
b- Venous blood
c- Atmosphere
d- Arterial blood
e- Humidified inspired air
47- Low molecular weight heparin :
a- Inc binding to factor 10a
48- The chance of bleeding in a patient with epidural will be greatest in :
a- Patient on warfarin
b- On heparin
c- On aspirin
d- On LMWH
49- More local anesthetic concentration in the blood by :
a- Epidural block
b- Caudal block
c- Spinal block
d- Brachial plexus block
e- INTERCOSTAL
50- Acetaminophen poisoning N-acetylcsytein will cause :
a- Excrete acetaminophine
b- Break into non toxic metabolites
c- Converts to acetylated metabolites

51- Edema reduced by diuretic by excretion of :


a- Na excretion
b- K excretion
c- Hydrogen excretion

52- Suxa causes tachycardia by :


a- Direc acting on post synaptic muscuranic receptor of SA node
b- Act on nicotinic receptor of ANS
c- By releasing histamine
53- Test to do before starting valproate
a- Cbc
b- Lfts
c- Rfts
54- Most of posterior intercoastal arteries are braches of : thoracic aorta
55- Deep cervical artery is a branch of :
a- costo cervical trunk
b- superior thyroid
c- inferior throid
d- externa carotid
56 CSF contains :
a- 20mg-40mg protein
b- 120mg glucose
56- Regarding surfactant component missing is :
a- Calcium
b- Protein
c- Neutral lipid
d- Lecithin
57- Advantage of crystalloid in fluid resusitation is : improve coronary flow
58- Young girl with severe ronchi breathlessness PEFR less than 50 % of predicted management :
a- Bronchodilators
b- Inhaled steroids
c- Ipratropium
d- Iv steroids plus bronchodilators
59- Patient having asthma treatment to be given
a- IV steroid
b- IV theophiline
(no option of inhaled agent al were IV)
60- Patient solving airthematic problem EEG wave present :
a- Alpha
b- Beta
61- Levodpa given it will cause : orthostatic hypotension
62- Structure that doesnt pass thru diaphragm :
a- Lymphatics of pleura
b- Right phrenic nerve
c- Greater splanchinc nerve

63- Spinal cord ends at


a- L2
b- L1
64- CVP : measure of right atrial filling pressure
65- K sparing diuretic like spiranolactone acts by :
a- Increasing GFR
b- Adh inhibition
c- Inhibtinh H/K exchange in collecting duct
66- Mid diastolic murmumr irregularly regular what will b seen :
a- Ince pressure gradient against mitral valve
b- Pmitrale
c- Increase r-r interval
67- High anion gap in :
a- Uncontrolled diabetes
68- Most potent vasoconstrictor : Cocaine
69- In General anesthesia dec heat production is by :
a- inhibition of Na/K atpase
b- dec muscle tone (right)
70- most immediate anterior relation to internal jugular vein after jugular foramen :
a- internal carotid artery
b- Accessory nerve
71- temperature at which vapour pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure : boiling point
72- Method of face mask sterilization :
a- Wash with soap and water
b- 5% phenol
c- Form aldehyde
d- Ethylene oxide (right)
73- Method of face mask sterilization for prevention against organism :
a- Steam sterilization
b- Ethylene oxide gas
c- Phenol
d- Pasteurization
74- Why ranitidine is preferred over cimeteidine : low cns side effect
75- For acute blood pressure management : baroreceptor
76- Which system has maximum feedback gain in controlling cardiac pressure
a- Baroreceptor
b- Renal volume pressure mechanism
77- Warfarin dose should be adjusted in patient taking : cimetidine
78- Slow adapting receptor (not exact statement )
a- Slowly decreasing action potential
b- Absence of action potential

79- Result of ischemia on brain auto regulation :


a- Auto regulation curve shifts right
b- Curve Shift left
c- Leads to ablation of auto regulation

Special thanks to Dr. Maliha Hanif , Dr. Sana Shaikh and Dr. M. Asad
Chaudhary for helping me compile this paper please remember us all in
your prayers !! best of luck

31st december 2015 anesthesiology paper

Paper 1 around 85 to 90 repeats from Rabia Ali, Asim shoaib and Past Papers

Paper 2

1- Suxamethonium phase 2 can be seen- after repeated dose (asim MCQ)

2- Regarding suxamethonium- reapeated dose causes bradycardia

3- Side effect of salbutamol- hypokalemia

4- A lady is complaining of neuropathy and nausea due to a drug she is taking, she has hyperchloremic
meatbolic acidosis, which drug is she on? (options: carbonic anhydrase inhibitor/ furosemide/ thiazide
diuretics/ mannitol)

Side effects ; acidosis , hyperchloremia , hypokelimia , paresthesia , renal stones

5- Which drug causes paradoxical hypertension with propanolol? (options: hydralazine/ minoxidil/ alpha
blocker) CLONIDINE AND BETA BLOCKER
6- Effect of epinephrine- bronchodilation via beta 2 receptors (past paper MCQ)

7- About sympathetic nerves- most of the sympathetic nerves are adrenergic (1 or 2 other options also
looked right, choose the one you are confident with)

All parasympathetic plus post sympathetc r colinergic

Pre ganglionic sympathetcs r adrenergic

8- To reduce the levels of dopamine following drug is used (options: chlorpromazine/ lithium/
benzodiazepine)

9- H2 receptor blockers are not of therapeutic value in which condition? (options: umcoplicated ulcer/
esophagitis/ mendelson's syndrome/ zollinger ellison syndrome) ANSWER mendelson syndrome

10- Regarding thoracic wall- external inercostal muscles have fibres going downward and outward

11- Regarding vertebral column- cervical vertebrae are 7

12- 1.3cm of H2O is equal to- 1mm Hg (asim MCQ)

13- Normal atmospheric pressure is (options: 13 pounds per square inch/ 700 mm Hg/ 100 cm H2o/
1000 cm H20) 760 mm hg or 1033 cmh20

14- 10 mEq rise of HCO3- will raise- 7mm Hg of C02 (past paper MCQ)

15- 10 mm Hg of CO2 will raise chronically how much bicarbonate- 3mEq (past paper MCQ)

16- Regarding thoracic wall- upper six intercostal spaces are supplied by internal thoracic artery
aneriorly (1 or 2 other options also looked right, choose the one you are confident with)

17- Regarding midbrain- trochlear nucleus present in it ( plus oculomotr nuclei )

18- After decussation in medulla motor fibres become- lateral corticospinal tract

19- Fine movements in a miniature artist are conrolled by- corticorubrospinal tract

20- Amoxicillin dose as prophylaxis for dental surgery (options: 2 mg before or after surgery/ 2.5 mg
before surgery/ 1 mg/ 1.5 mg) 2g before 1 hour of surgery

21- Drug affecting the levels of thyroxine- PTU

22- Beta blocker safe in COPD- metoprolol (ateno,biso,betox carveda meto, esmo, nebi)

23- Blood culture of a patient taken from two different sites shows cocci present in clusters, which
antibiotic should be given? Cloaxicillin (murad MCQ) staph aeurus
24- Which antibiotic interferes with neuromuscular transmission? (options: sulphadiazine/
aminoglycosides/ penicillin/ cephalosporins) dec ach release , resulting in inc effect of muscle
relaxants

25- Compilance is defined as (options: flow per unit change in pressure/ pressure per unit change in
volume/ volume per unit change in pressure/ pressure per unit change in flow/ volume per unit change
in flow)

26- Patient is heavy smoker and diabetic with CCF, which drug should be used? Captropril , protective of
diabetic nephropathy..

27- Use of methylxanthines in COPD is controversial because- high chances of toxicity at or little above
the therapeutic dose

28- Lab showing partially compensated metabolic acidosis- pH 7.3,HCO3- 19mEq, CO2 30mm Hg

29- Barbiturates are not used for- analgesia

30- Bronchoscope when advanced to right main bronchus, first structure seen is- right upper bronchus
(asim MCQ)

31- Ropivacaine is used as an epidural anesthetic for obs patients because- it is less cardiotoxic than
bupivacaine (asim MCQ)

32- About ropivacaine- same pKa as bupivacaine

33- Regarding lumbar plexus- obturator nerve is a branch (anterior branch)

34- Regarding tetanus toxiod- can be lethal

35- Regarding paracetamol toxicity antidote (options: activated charcoal can not be used/ theoretically
N-acetylcystine can be given 2 hours after ingestion/ N-acetylcystine can not be given before 24 hours of
ingestion) ???????????????????????????? should b given within 12 hours so b option is right

36- A drug used in general anesthesia that causes increase in intraocular pressure (options: ketamine/
N2O/ halothane) raise icp nd iop

37- Which of the following undergoes highest metabolism? methoxyflurane (ajay yadav MCQ)

38- Regarding fail safe system- shuts off N2O when oxygen supply is low (asim MCQ)

39- Free nerve endings carry which sensation? Pain , multisynaptic

40- Which of the following are major sensory modalities? (options: in all five options there were
combinations of pain, touch, temperature, pressure, vibration, priopioception, cold, warmth)

41- A patient fell from height and is now unable to void urine, which levels of spinal cord are damaged?
S2, S3, S4 (asim MCQ)
42- Bell's phenomenon occurs due to- lower motor neuron lesion of CN 7

43- Which of the following is malignant? Glioma (past paper MCQ)

44- Which of the following decreases in pregnancy? pCO2 hyperventilation In preg

45- Regarding trigeminal nerve- g anglion is present in middle cranial fossa, in the lateral wall of
cavernous sinus (past paper MCQ)

46- What happens in aspirin toxicity? Hyperventilation (most common cause of inc BT)

47- Regarding optic chiasma (options: is present variably above pituitary gland/ is separated from
pituitary gland by several millimetres of sella turcica/ anteriorly inertnal carotid artery is present)

48- Nerve supply of abdominal muscles- lower 6 thorarci and l1

49- Regarding back- L4-L5 is the preferred space for LP

50- Solution isotonic to plasma (options: 5% dextrose/ 10% dextrose/ 0.9 molar NaCl/ ringer's lactate)

51- Regarding sensations- all sensations pass through dorsal root (1 or 2 other options also looked right,
choose the one you are confident with)

52- An old man is a newly diagnosed case of DM, which drug should be given to him? tolbutamide (past
paper MCQ)

53- Why is hetastarch preferred for volume replacement? it does not cause interferance with blood
grouping (asim MCQ)

54- Renoyld's number should rise about what value to make the flow turbulent? 2000 above 3000
velocity also inc

55- Regarding tractus solitarius (options: contains cell bodies of 1st order neurons/ contains cell bodies
of 2nd order neurons).. FOR taste sensations, 7,9,10

56- Due to chronic use of diuretics characteristic change in blood seen is- increase in pCO2 right is
decrease chloride asim mcq 426

57- A patient has a paracentral tumor, most likely his presenting complaint would be- loss of sensations
of lower limb

58- Which drug blocks H+/K+ ATPase? omeperazole

57- Hyperpolarization of the membrane would occur due to- Cl- influx (past paper MCQ)

58- Solution used for scrubbing- chlorhexidine (past paper MCQ)

59- Regarding disinfection


60- A patient is lying uncovered in the OT, maximum heat loss would be through- radiation and
conduction (past paper MCQ)

Anaesthesia FCPS 2011

1. what is true about critical temperature:


a. applies on mixture of gas.
b. of co2 is 31c
c. of oxygen is 121c
d. of nitrogen is 21c
e. is temperature below which pressure can keep gas liquid

2. Humidity in OT should be
a.27
b.45
c.37

b its 55

3. Ropivacaine is used for epidural anaesthesia instead of bupivacaine during labour,because


a. it is less toxic
b. no effect on fetus
c. recovery is quick
d. prolonged action

a
( in epidural ropi preffered over bupi because of its short duration of action)
4. half life of pseudocholine esterase is
a. 2 hours
b. 1 week
c. 3 days
d. 12 hours

d 8-16hrs

5.regarding phosphodiestease inhibitor (I can just recall there was some option regarding its
inactivation of cAMP,,which I ticked..but dont remember exactly now what the other options were )
It is inhibtor of cAmp ,, theophline , inamrinone( most common complications r nausea nd vomiting)

6. volume of distribution depends on following except


a. age
b. gender
c. lipid solubility of a drug

7. what is true about FRV volume.


a. increased in shallow breathing
b. nitrogen breath test can measure it
c. it is part of minute ventilation
d. can be measured by helium dilution metho

d
8. regarding coanda effect what is true
a. can explain ischemia of myocardium
b. do not explains vascular flow
c. explains unequal distribution of air in alveoli

9. regarding flow of gas in a tube,directly proptional to


a. radius
b. pressure difference
c. viscosity

b
flow directly proportional to pressure difrnce nd inverse to resistance

10.flow of inhalational gases across memebrane is directly propotional to..


a. surfactant produced
b. trans alveolar pressue
c. hypoxia

11. which one of following anti emetic has max bioavalability

a- ondansteron
b- cyclizine
c- droperidol
d- metoclopramide
e- porcholrperazine

12.which one of following drug worsens angina


a.verapamil
b.isossorbidedinitrate
c.propanolol
d.lisinopril

c used in angina of effort contraindicated in vasospastc angina

13.which one of following used in CCF but is not a vasodilator


a.verapamil
b.nifedipine
c.nimodipine
d.metoprolol
e.diltiazem

14.drug of choice in prizmental angina


a.isosorbidedinitrate
b.nitoglycerine
c.diltiazem

15.nitous oxide is a ..
a.analgesic,,
b.vasodilator

16. regarding paracetamol what is true


a.increases PT (inc BT)
b.is nephrotoxic (IN HIGH DOSES)
c.not an anti inflammatory
d.more potent analgesic than codeine (no)
e.causes met-Hb.emia more frequently than Phanacetin

17.child with burn 6 hour back brought to ER for dressing. Family history of sibling died under GA is
positiveyou are cautious regarding using succinylcholine in this patient why?
a. Chances of malignant hyper thermia increases
b. hyperkalemia
c. due to increased risk of prolonged muscle contractions
a

18.sensory supply of dura is by all except


a.trigeminal nerve
b.cervical nerves
c.vagus nerve
d.hypoglossal nerve
d
19.Mac of isoflurane is
a.0.3
b.0.5
c.1.2
d.1.5
c

20.mac is reduced in
a. duration of anaesthesia
c. hypoxia,

22. which one irritates larynx..


a. desflurane
b. isoflurane
c. sevoflurane
d. nitrous oxide
a

23.isoflurane effects cardiac activity by: (options dont remember exactly,but the main theme was how
isoflurane actually suppresses cardiac activity,mechanism of action )
a. decreasing AV conduction
b. inhibiting intracellular phospateases
c. bidirectional block (something like that ,exact term dont remember but it was bi- )
d.
dec systemic resistent + coronary vasodilation.. reduce perfusion
24. all of the following are tributaries of internal jugular vein except:
a. sigmoid sinus
b. lingual vein
c. superior thyroid
d. oocipital vein

d
middle thyroid vein
sup thyroid vein
lingual vein
fascial vein
pharyngeal vein
inf petrosal sinus

25. After induction of anesthesia by 10 mg/kg thiopentone, pt is hypotonic. Cause ?


a. hypersensitivity
b. dec HR
c. dec contractility

a
26.which one of following has steroid nucleus.
a.ketamine
b.profol
c.thiopental
d.midazolam
Etomidate not in options here
Pancuronium is also steroid

27.which one is potent bronchodilator,can be used in asthmatic patients


a.ketamine
b.propofol

A
k-e-s ketamine , ephidrine , sevo bronchodilatrs
28.regarding isoflurane one correct statement..
a.recommended for anaesthesia induction,,
b.
c.

29.thiopental effects on cvs:


a.transient fall in bp
b.
dec mayocardial contractility esp with high doses , or if inj is rapidly administered causing
mayocardial depression
30. ketorolac drug of choice in
a.. a patient of thoracotomy wid oozing wounds
b. diabetic patient undergoing hemicolectomy
c.
d.
ANS BBB
Ketorolacs cant b used for bleeding wounds

31. correct statement regarding inferior vena cava


a.commences at L5
b.tributaries similar to aorta
c.lies posterior to right adrenal gland
d.is related to bare area of liver
a
32. regarding left adrenal vein drains into
a. inferior vena cava
b. left renal vein
b

33. adrenaline is added to local anaesthetic to restrict its


a.toxicity

34. regarding cvp whats true.


a. always low in all types of shock.
b. give accurate measurement when catheter in rt atrium
c. gives clue about pulmonary edema
d. reading 5cm H2o is equal to 10 mmhg

35.patient in ot undressed..heat loss is by


a.radiation n conduction

conduction if body is in contact with surface...


radiation if naked...but no contact
convection...if medium is present like humidity
radiation if temp is mentioned in senario

36.if ventilation increased.


a.dead space develops

37.laminar flow what is true.


a. directly proportional to viscosity

38. transducer is
a .convert one energy form into another
39.patient on htnsive drug now comes in shock ,known hypertensive,,
Serum Potassium is 5..Diagnosis?
a.hemolysis
b.CRF
c.ARF

should b arf.. or if diuretc mention then that would b best choice

40. whats true about montoux test..


a.reaction type is type 4

41.prednisolone..( cant recall what they asked,just remember there was a question regarding it as well )

42.in isotonic exercise wats not increased.


a.heart rate
b.cardiac output
c.respiratory rate
d.blood pressure
e.TPR

e
43.pulse pressure
a. is differance of systolic and diastolic pressures
b. decreases in old age

44. cardiac index is..


a. cardiac output to body surface area (BSA),
b.difference of end systolic volume and end diastolic
a
volumehttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cardiac_index

45. lysosomes
a. produced by golgi apparatus
b. has hydrolases n catalases
c. has oxidases
ONLY contain HYDROLASES

46.regarding carotid sheath,correct statement is:


a.contents are carotid artery, vagus nerve,internal jugular vein
b.formed by condensation of pretracheal fascia

46.adenosine mode of action


a.on AV and SA node dec conduction,, Gi coupled dec in cAMP

47.dopexamine ACT ON b1 and b2

48.bronchial tone circadian rhythm max at


a.early morning

49.3rd space fluid loss.fluid of choice is


a. blood,plasma
b.10%dextrose
c. ringers lactate
d. normal saline

50.class three antiarhythmic name


a. quinidine
b. pilocarpine
c. lidocaine

none
AMIODARONE AND SOTALOL
51.10-15% blood loss,,replace by ..
a. whole blood
b. three times normal saline
c. ringers lactate
c

52.pulmonary ligament is
a. in which lung root sinks during respiration
b. a recess in parietal pleura
c. formed by condensation of Sibson fascia

53.supra pleural fascia is .. Sibson fascia


a.thickining of pretrachial fascia
b.attached to first rib
c.moves with respiration,
d.subclavian vessels crosses it superiorly

54. chorda tympani,select one false..


a. supplies posterior 2/3 of tongue, (ant 2/3rd taste )
b .leaves ear through styloid mastoid foramen..
c. passes over upper part of medial side of tympanic membrane
ans b (pterytympanic fissure )

55.all are mesoderm derivative except

spleen , somites and muscles r derivative of mesoderm

56.road traffic accident ,patient now having bleeding from left ear n left eye pupil dilated,which cranial
nerve damaged
a.occulomotor
b.trigeminal
c.trochlear
d.facial

57.thoracic part of sympathetic trunk supplies all except..


a. heart,
b. lungs,
c. aorta,
d. parietal pleura

58.respiratory quotient is
a.carbondioxide produced per oxygen utilization
59.mac of sevoflurane with 60% N2O
a. 0.66-0.68

60.which of following joint is immoveable


a.manubrosternal
b.sternoclavicular
c.symphsis pubis
d.shoulder joint

61.dorsal rami of cervical spinal nerves supply


Muscles of back
62.regardingbronchopulmonary segments correct statement is
a.has a segmental bronchus
b.anatomical ,surgical,functional unit of lung

63.which of following organism causes menigites sec. to pyogenic lung abcess


a.streptococcus
b.staphyllococcus
c.h.influenza
d.neisseria
b

64.true regarding trachea


a. contains macrophages in alveoli
b. incomplete cartilages in airway tract tubes
c. cilliated epithelium uptil terminal bronchus

65.nitrogen breath test can be used for


a.measuring dead space .
(also march atempt 2017)

66.regarding right brachiocepahilcvein,what is true


a. has valve
b. right is longer than left
c. commences at level of t4
d. is vertical

67.filling of ventricle produces which heart sound .


S3

68.lymph is drained into


a.spleen
b.thymus
c.lymph node
c

69.regarding inferior vena cava,what is true ..


a.commences at L5
b.lies posterior to right renal gland
c.related to bare area of liver
d.has tributaries similar to aorta
a

70.regarding internal jugular vein


a.continuation of sigmoid sinus,
b.hypoglossal nerve crosses it anteriorly,,
c.lingual nerve is its tributary,
a plus c is also correct
71.anterior inferior cerebellar artery is a branch of
a.pica
b.basillarartey
c.vertebral artery
d.posterior cerebral artery
b AICA ND PICA , post cereral artery r branches of basiler artery
72.which of following doesnt have any sensory supply
a.hypoglossal nerve,
b.vagus nerve,
c.occulomotor nerve,,
d.trochlear nerve
d
73.a patient is inducted with an inhalational agent,he develops bronchospasm n airway irritation, (I
think in question it was also mentioned about mac of that agent and it was < 0.1 ,,dont remember
exactly )
which agent is responsible for this:
a.isoflurane
b.desflurane
c.halothane
d.sevoflurane
b
74.what is true about amide local anaesthetics:
a.they are bound to albumin
(all local anesthetics r weak bases.. so , should bound to alpha gylcoproteins)

75.regarding ropivacaine what is true


a.less cardiotoxic
b.long duration of action
c.equally effective than bupivacaine
d.pKa is equal to that of bupivacaine
A d also correct
76.most toxic local anaesthetic is:
a.bupivacaine
b.ropivacaine
c.lidocaine
d.dimethocaine
a

77.suxamethonium causes tachycardia in a patient ,,what is the mechanism ?


a.it blocks nicotinin receptors at post synaptic junction
b.it blocks nicotinic receptors at autonomic ganglia
c.it blocks muscarinic receptors at postsynaptic terminal
muscarinic post synaptc

78.you have given a dose of suxamethonium in a patient ,now u have to give another dose,you are very
cautious regarding second dose,why ?
a.because of hyperkalemia
b.because of hypocalcemia
aaa

79.regarding ropivacaine what s true:


a.low ph increases its shelf life
b.more toxic than bupivacaine
c.it is a recemic mixture
b nd c are incorrect safer than bupivacaine , not a racemic mixture. Has same PKA as bupivacaine

80.piperacurium is preferred over pancuronium because


a.renal excretion is less
b.cardiovascular stability is more

81.which local anaesthetic causes methaemoglobinemia:


a.lidocaine
b.bupivacaine
c. Prilocaine
c
its metabolism is in lungs

82.half life of pseudocholinesterase is: 12 hours 8 to 16 hrs


a.12-16 weeks
b.3 hours
c.2 days

83.orifice of a tube is small,flow of gas through small orifice affected by which parameter:
a.presseure difference
b.density
c.radius
b
flow of gas through a tube is dependent on viscosity (TV)
through an orifice dependent on density (OD)
acc to asim shoaib
84.what is true about viscosity? In liquid on inc temp viscosity dec while in gas inc temp inc viscosity
a.it decreases on increasing temperature

85.in pregnancy respiratory rate increases which hormone is responsible for that :
a.estrogen
b.prolactin
c.thyroid
d.progesterone

86.inhuntingtons chorea succinyl choline is contraindicated ,why?


a.pseducholine esterase is deficient

87.ace inhibitor acts in ccf by ..


a.reducing cardiac out put pre load n after load dec so a here
.b.by decreasing av conduction
c.by decreasing SA and AV conduction

88.which one of following is correct


a. po2 90 spO2 1OO%
b. po2 60 spO2 90%
c. po2 50 spO2 60% (march 2017)

89.in how many percentage of population malignant hyperthermia chances exist?


a.
b. 60% 1 in 1 lac 0.001 % to 1 in 5000 0.02 %
c. 80%

90.cisatrecurium is preferred over atricurium why?

a.due to less production of metabolites


b.dosesnot release histamine

91.preganglionic sympathetic supply to sublingual gland is transmitted along which cranial nerve
Facial chorda tympani

92.regarding why nitrous not used in abdominal surgeries correct statement is:
a.distends intestine

93. ECG of a patient shows progressively increasing PR intervals followed by dropped beat. What is the
condition?
a) Third degree heart block
b) Mobitz Type 1
c) Sinus arrhythmia
d) Mobitz Type 2
b

94.one case scenerio was given in which ph was 7.4,,pCO 2 was 60,,and HCO3 was 26
a.respiratory acidosis
b.type 1 respiratory failure and compensated respiratory acidosis
c.type 2 respiratory failure and compensated respiratory acidosis
d.metabolic alkalosis type 1 : po2 dec pco2 normal or dec not inc type 2 po2 dec pc02 inc

95.best indicator of preload is:


a.pulmonary capillary wedge pressue
b.ventricular end diastolic volume
c.end systolic volume
d.organ perfusion

96.All are the branches of Vagus nerve EXCEPT a) Auricular b) Lacrimal c)Pharyngeal d) Recurrent
Laryngeal

APE SCRAP
AURICULAR
PHARYNGEAL
ESOPHAGIAL
SUP LYRNGEAL
CARDIAC BRANCHES
RECURENT LARYNGEAL
ANT VaGAL TRUCK
POST VAGAL TRUNK

97.About CSF most appropriate statement is a) it is ultrafilterate of Plasma b) has more glucose than
blood c) has cushioing effect d) absorbed in Choroid Plexus

98.sodium in blood is electrically balanced by


.chloride ion
.bicarbonate
.rest options dont remember
chloride
99.maximum map is in
a.ivc
b.svc
c.pulmonary artery
d.capillaries

100.glucosetranports across membrane due to its concentration difference,it is called:


a.diffusion
b.facilitated diffusion
c.activetranport
d.sec. active tranport

AAA

101.cell is in complete depolarization phase in :


a.qrs complex
b.QT interval
c.ST segment
d.T wave

c qt show both depolarization nd repolarization


st shows cmplt ventricles depolarization

102. Muscle relaxant that can be given to an asthmatic pt


a. atracurium
b. tubocurare
c. cisatracurium
d. suxa

103.RegardingLaudanosine,all true except (exact options dont remember but I guess they were like this
)
a.metabolite of atra and cis curium
b.lessconc . produced by cis than atracurium ALL are correct
c. crosses blood brain barrier
d.cns depression

104.regarding intracranial part of facial nerve what is true:


a.give rise to greater petrosal nerve
b.nerve to submandibular gland
c.nerve to tensor tympani
a

1.Pericardiophrenic artery : artery adjacent to phrenic nerve

2.LCA divide into LAD and LCA

3.Basal ganglia initiate movement

4.U wave hypokalemia

5.Wegner granulomatosis
Pauci immune vasculitis nd nephritis

Autoimmune disease , medium nd small size vessles , nasolacriml duct obstruction , proptosis ,
arthralgia , cresent necrotizing glomerulonephritisFOR diagnosis c-ANCA , immunoflorescenes ,
ELISA

6.Vagus nerve

7.TB-AFB

8.Alpha receptor-mydriasis

9.posterior communicating artery below third nerve, connect ica nd pca

10.Platelet adhesion- roungh endothelium

11.mucous acini sub lingual gland

12.Bioavailabilty -oral root

100% for iv route

Dec in oral route due to incmpte absorption nd fst pass metabolism

13. iv fluids- immediate management in RTA pt with hypotension

14.Urimic nephropathy-anemia : normocytic normochromic

15.Dec TPR-skeletal muscle local metabolite

16. Diabetic foot- angiopathy plus neuropathy

17.RH antibodies- RH +ve fetus igg

18.Vanticular systole ; qrs prior to vent systole

19.P.falciprum-cerebral malaria ; short pre erythocyte stage , malignant tertian malaria

Longest pre erythrocyte stage in p.malarae, quartan malaria

20. End arteries-vital organs spleen nd heart , retina

21.marathon-inc glucagon plus DEC insulin

22.Def of metaplasia functional change of epi

23.local edema-allergy

24. Gas gangrene-toxemia


25.chemotaxis-C5a ,, LTB4

26.Pretracheal facia Enclose thyroid gland

27.Chronic irritation-metapalsia

28.Bitemporal heminopia optic chiasm

29.blood transfusion-Hbv/Hcv

30.DNA-mitochondria

31.factor VII not in intrinsic pathway

32.Alleles-non identical genes on same locus

33.Inc insulin-GIP (If not in options then prefer vip)

34.Pituitary gland-drain into dural venous sinuses supplied by superior hypophysial arteries frm intrnl
carotid

35.Microscopic feature of malignant tumor: pleomorphism

36.ADH inhibition- alcohol

37.Diarrhoea-metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap (march 2017)

38.Golgi tendon- muscle tension

39.Bar body-turner

40.Hemosiderin-iron overload

41.Counseling-know about himself

42.Radiation damage-depend on dose

43.Trigeminal nerve

44.Inc potasium Inc aldosterone

45.P.falciparum-black water fever tertian malarae

46.benzedine ; carcinogen causing leukemia

47.protein urea-basement membrane

48.Broca's area-MCA

49.Fetal endo+syntico : last trimester placental membrane


(Stratum functionalis formed by : stratum compactum nd spongiosum)

50.herniated disc-posterior root damage + spinal nerve

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RE: FCPS Anesthesia Paper 12 November 2014

51.Pigment stone in pregnancy by GGT


non preg by alp

52.Greatest blood-Veins

53.SER- detoxification + contain calcium + form peroxisomes

54.chronic hepatitis- fibrosis

55.staging of malignant tumour-invasion

56.Spinal anaesthesia , pt became hypotensive -loss of vasomotor tone

57.Pulmunory emboli-thromboembolism

58.Catecholamine derivative of-tyrosine

59.charotid sinus- response to dec bp

60.CD-4 cells induce- plasma cell formation MHC 1 CLASS

61.edema-urine protein

62.OCP's thromboembolism

63.Dead space-warm,humidify air

64.ascorbic acid-collagen synthesis


65.pinocytosis

66.DEC pupil size-PANS

67.Physiological jaundice yellow scelera after 2-3 days of birth

68.left renal vein anterior to aorta and left renal artery

69.Denial :baby suffering from non curable condition

70.prevalance-disease in mass

71.incidence-disease in new cases

72. Vital capacity MAX expire aftr max ins 5500 ml

73.Alpha plus gamma motor neurons by main descending pathways to spinl cord

74.Rubella-congenital cataract

75.DEC thirst-inc ECF volume

76.liquefactive necrosis : brain

77. helper T cells, CD4 cells ; plasma cell formation

78.active transport-not for all drugs

79.acetyl co-A -kreb cycle

80.diagnostic of malignant tumor - metastasis

81.medial leminscus-not include in fast pain pathway

82.adrenogenital syndrome : Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, also called adrenogenital syndrome, any
of a group of inherited disorders that are characterized by enlargement of the adrenal glands resulting
primarily from excessive secretion of androgenic hormones by the adrenal cortex.

83.Bicep reflex - C5 + C6 (march 2017)

84.Bucophrangeal fascia sperate mouth and phraynx

85.Betal nuts - submucous fibrosis

86.Dec Na in macula densa- Inc renin release

87.amniotic membrane?? Non immunogenic

88.pretracheal Infection spread to anterior mediastinum


89.urine albumin-diabetic nephropathy

90.heart apex-8cm from mid line

91.posterior fontanelle-smaller than anterior

92.adrenalectomy-Nacl

93.Dec Magnesium-Dec Calcium

Bt severe hypomegnesemia leads to hypercalcimia

94.coronary blood flow- auto regulation

95.RH in compatibility-IGG

96.Dec Na-excessive sweating

97.Pyogenic meningitis-dec glucose

98.drug absorption-lipid solubility

99.epical mitochondrial -ciliated cells

100.hyaline cartilage- no fiber visible in tmj

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RE: FCPS Anesthesia Paper 12 November 2014

FCPS Anesthesia Paper 2

FCPS Past Paper November 2014


1.ipratopium bromide-blok muscuranic receptor

2.n2o half life 3-5 minutes

3.isoflurane not inc ICP (ketamine inc icp, desflurane in dose related manner , sevo at vry high doses )

4.anaphylaxis thiopentol

5.ketamine emergence delerium

6.esmolol metabolized by blood esterases ( erythrocytes)

7.inhaled anesthetics reticular activating system

8.propofol used in lipid solution

9.inc blood urea - steroid therapy

10.nimodipine - sah

11.levodopa converted to dopamine by dopa decarboxylase ( aromatc amino acid decarboxylase )

Dopa derivative of tyrosine

12.muscuranic receptor present on ???? M1 on cns,, M2 on heart,, M3 on glands and smooth muscles

13.safe dose of bupivacaine 150 mg (2.5mg/kg) (first sign of toxicity is tinnits , later on arrhythmias )

14.xylocaine WD adrenaline 7mg/kg

15.norepinephrine released from symp postganglionic terminal

Preganglionic sympathetic all ACH acting on nicotinic receptors

Post ganglionic sympathetic ACH , NE , DOPA

Pre ganglionic para ach on nicotinic

Post ganglionic para ach on muscarinic

16.lidocaine DEC sodium permibility

17.NM blockade - train of four ratio

18.sweating not adrenergic MUSCARINIC , ACH MEDIATED , post ganglion , SYMPATHETIC , cubiodal
epi

19.stellate ganglion - inf cervical ganglion+ 1st thoracic ganglion

20.right lower lobe- foreign body


21.fifth cranial nerve-sensory supply to cornea

22.intercoastal arteries -branches of interna thoracic : 6 ant IC artry rest 7 onwards musculophrenic br

Post 1 n 2 highest intercoatsal rest : thoracic aprta

23.elastic recoil-quiet expiration

24.innervation of abdominal muscles -lower six thoracic and ist lumbar

25.umbilicus -t10

26.abdominal aorta - left sympathetic trunk

27.esophageus enter mediastinum slight right to midline

28.sup inguinal ring-ext oblique aponeurosis (Intrnl inguinal ring in fascia tranversalis )

29.3,7,9,10- parasympathetic cranial nerves

30. Hydrocephalus -aqueduct of sylivus

31.optic tract- homonymous heminopia ( rite or left )

32.a-c wave-qrs complex

A wave ; atrial systole

C wave ; buldging of tricuspid into rite atrium in right vent ejection

33.most sensitive and easiest method of cvp recording is manometer with mineral oil (explanation: d/t
diff in specific gravity mercury moves 1 unit and mineral oil 13.75 unit which expand scale for easier and
more precise measurement)

34 . transducer mein pressure wali option thi function pucha tha trancducer ka

35.volatile anesthetics-henry law (also march 2017)

36.def of boiling point at which vapr pressure becom equal to atmphrc temt,, and liquid becomes gas

37.silica in soda lime inc hardness(ref Morgan)

38.fluotec-4 vaporizer fr halothane and enflurane

TEC 6 for desflurane

39.t4/t1 fr NM blokade-25%

40.Laplace law - ventricular wall tension and pressure


41.enkephlin- opiod receptor

Rest r meu , kappa and dalta receptors

42.t tubule -action potential spread inwRd in skeletal muscles

43.acetylcholinestrase break ACH

44.Lambert Eton syndrome anti calcium channel antibodies

45.muscuranic receptors cause pulmonary vasoconstriction by M3 Para sympathetc

B2 dilate by sympathetc

46.in resting condition actin covered by :tropomyosin

47.serotonin - behavior and emotion

48.suxamethonium-fasciculations

49.map 88

50.vsd -pansystolic murmur (also in mitral nd tricuspid regurgitation )

51.high center impulses-pulmonary ventilation

52.hypoxia -pulmonary artery pressure pulmonary vasoconstriction

53.co poisoning -extreme left deviation of HB curve

54.diffusion -surface area

55.pleural stab wound ???? ipsilateral lung collapse and chest spring out

56.DEC potassium intake-patient not eating on ice cubes ?????????

57.low voltage ECG complex I cause is : hypokalemia

58.transverse diameter-ext intercoastal muscles

Vertical diametr inc by diaphragm

59.trachea C6-T4 esophagus also start at c6 hyoid nd larynx at C3

60.azygos vein formed -right ascending lumbar vein WD right subcostal veins

61.thymus-4th costal cartilage wali option arise from 3rd pharyngeal pouch , regress after birth

62.alveloi :efficient gas exchange occurs here


63.bronchial intubation in child bcz both bronchi at same angle up to 3 yrs

64.16 flow Waly question mein

65.paracetamol- encephalopathy reye syndrome

66.ketamine analgesic used in burn dressing

67.ketamine used in thoractomy

68.pethidine inc heart rate

69.ketorolac immediate post operative period mein use hte (ref Morgan)

70.aspirin DEC prostaglandins inhibition of cyclooxygense (march 2017)

71.aspirin DEC fever by DEC prostaglandin synthesis

72.anesthetic act on CNS and analgesic at spinal level

73.propranolol beta blocker

74.etomidate-adrenal supresion (ref Morgan) steroid nucleus

75.right left shunt slow onset of induction

76.pilocarpaine direct acting muscuraic agonist

77.norepinephrine infusion stimulate baroreceptor and DEC heart rate XXXXXXXXX

78.clonidine-orthostatic hypotension

79.immediate precursor of epinephrine is nor epinephrine

80.beta2 receptor stimulation by adrenaline cause bronchodilation

81.dopamine -a1+a2+b1+b2

82.dobutamine-b1 main effect

83.clonidine centrally acting antihypertensive

84.atropine competitive muscurinic antagonist ( ipratropium nd tiotropium )

85.verapami and ditiazeml-non dihydropyridine ( act on SA nd AV node, dec conduction , class 4


antiarrythmic ; used in intra op SVT )

86.IV adrenaline-anaphylaxis

87.diazepam-status epilepticus (also used r phynetoin , fosphenytoin and lorazepam for status
epilepticus)

1ST line is lorazepam , due to prolong action

88.adrenaline bronchodilation by b2

89.ACH reversals acetylcholinesterase

90.beta bloker mech of DEC bp-dec heart and myocardial contractily(ref Morgan pharmacology portion)

91.1:200,000 adrenaline-5mcg/kg

92.ephidrine cause release of nor epinephrine from symp terminal (post synaptc ganglion)

93.acetylcystine convert paracetamol to acetylated product

94.inhaled anesthetic+calcium bloker-hyperthermia (it is malignant hyperthermia ref Morgan )

95.ant wall MI v2-v4

96.left ventricular failure

97.inc HCO3 secretion ( by pancrease undr action of secretin )

98.nifedipine/verapamil/diltiazem Ca chaneel blockers

99.phenylephrine constricts nasal vessels

100.women with peptic ulcer and arthritis analgesic used ?

celecoxib
REST PPRS

I am posting 17th august anaesthesia papr from difrnt grps


specialy thanks to #takotsubo TK
do remeber us guys for our result, need lots of prayers smile emoticon

PAPER #1

1) Klinfelter scenerio wid karyote asked XX > XXY


2) Hamartoma definition diorganised overgrth in same
tissue polyp
3) Serology performed for following
Ameobic liver abscess
Giardia
Hydatid cyst
4) Receptors in adrenal medulla of ANS : NICTNC
5) Second pharyngeal arch derivative...stylohyoid lig
6) COPD 70yrs man wid tachycardia 6b/min resp rate....pulm
emboli
7) Positive predictive value.. no of actual positive cases
8) Smoker vs non smoker in ca lung case control
9) GH...polypeptide or act on sk ms via somatomadin
10) Insulin dependent gluc uptake in wich cells?? Adipose
tissue and muscle (2017 , asked in vice versa manner)
11) Na act on wich receptors.... Osmo
12) Cystic fibrosis scenerio..wich vit given as supplement
ADEK K is best
13) 2-3 ques on baroreceptors
14) Intense response to hypovolemia (intense was the exact
n only word) I think dec urine output
15) BT inc in...von wille
16) MAP formula...dias plus 1/3 pulse pressure...or 80mmhg
value
17) Lf kidney grossly diff from rt...hilum..or surface anatomy
18) Btoncigenic ca...smoking or asbestosis
19) A + blood wich antibody in plasma Anti B
20) Interstitial osmolarity is how much diff from plasma osmo..
1mmol/L. (march 2017)
21) Interstitial fluid is inc due to : inc hydrostatic
22) Plasma colloid mentained by wid type of protein... Alpha
globulin,beta, gamma,albumin firbronogen (march 2017)
23) Sodium 65% absorbed...pct
24) Wich is nt malignant...options given...hepatoma adenoma
25) Root of rite lung crossed by AZYGYOUS Vein
26) Serotonin Nor epi....COMT MAO
27) Facial nerve palsy signs/,bt food remains in mouth cz of
lesion of which nerve (muscle of mastication)... Options main
both mandibular n facial n maxillary bhi thi
28) Sub capsular sinus in a lymph organ wid
afferents...lymoh node.
29) Hormone wich increases protein content in sk
muscle...testosterone, dihydrotesto,
estro,progesterone,cortisol
30) Corona radiata formed by...granulosa or teca externa or
interna
31) Oxidase in wich organelle peroxisomes
32) Metaplasia...irreversible reversible
33) Colon cancer marker CEA

PAPER # 2

Papef 2 raaj k anatomy n acid base..anasthesia sy

1) Charles law at contnt pressure vol is directly proprtnl to temp


(march 2017)
2) Relation of flow wid ....pressure/4th power radius/ viscosity (posilue
equation )
3) 10 mmHg HCO3 will need how much PCO2 for compensation...
0.3,1, 3,5,7 (kch aise he values thi wid 7 being max in them) 7
Answer
4) 10 mmHg PCO2 need how much HCO3 for compensation.... 3, 7 ,10,
15 (such kinda whole no. Values) 3 answer
5) Sea level is always at...pressures were give sometjing like 700, 1000
etc 760 mm hg or 1033 cmco2
6) Mm Hg pressure given...converted into diff presure units (none
amonhst the SI units) 1mmhg = 1.35 cm h20

7) Max hepatic metabolism...drugs methoxy flurane


8) Increase IOP drugs : Sux and ketamine
9) Chlorthiazide...hyperuricemia, hyper calcemia
10) 2 mcqs in wich pic of metabolic acidosis given n asked wat ll be
the values of ABGs....both for abnormal or compensation
2 scenerios of resp alkalosis with n widout compensation
11) Local anasthetic increased by...local PH change or
vasoconstrction...vasodilation etc vasoconstriction is answer
12) Lower lumbar vetebrae... Preganglionic visceral
efferent/afferent, post gang visceral/somatic..somatic nerves
(something like this) ???
13) Urinary incontinence n diff to void after fall from 2 storey..
Lumber to sacral diff levels given... Bt lumber !levels given were L4 n
below S2-S4
14) Hatstarch why preferred : Npt interfare with bllod grouping
Veterbra...thoracic n sacral IV disc more thicker/latertla dislocation
called lardosis etc etc ??
These are some of the questions I recall from paper 2 anesthesia, dec
31st,2015.Rest of the questions you can find in the files section uploaded
by a group member.

1. Half life of pseudocholinesterase - 12 hours/7 days/10 days (I wasn't


sure of the answer)

2. Long term side effect of Heparin - Osteoporosis

3. Ventral root of lower lumbar nerves contain - Motor fibres

4. Chlorothiazide will most likely cause - both hyperuricemia and


hypercalcemia were in options and both are correct. I chose
hypercalcemia since hyperuricemia is also caused by loop diuretics and
they were asking specifically for thiazide diuretics.

5. Difference between physostigmine and neostigmine is - options included


A. physostigmine is orally ineffective
B.neostigmine is orally ineffective
C.physostigmine has more CNS side effects (ans)

6.Anterior 6 intercostal arteries - branches of internal thoracic artery

7. H2 blockers ineffective in - Mandelson's Syndrome / esophagitis / zes


mendelson

8.Before giving sodium valproate,following should be done -


Options included
A. CBC is mandatory
B. LFTs should be assessed

Both these options are correct acc to me coz valproic acid can cause
thrombocytopenia and it is also hepatotoxic.but I chose A.choose acc to
your knowledge and justification.

9. Following is an effect of glucocorticoids -


Options included
A. Hepatic glycogen store is decreased
B. Decreased peripheral glucose utilization (ans) also dec corticotropin +
adrenal suppresion

10. Laminar flow of a gas across a tube is directly related to - Pressure


gradient across the tube

10) corticospinal and corticobulbar tract pass through a-tegmentum (ans) b-


tectum

11) sterilization, after hiv pt- 2% glutaraldehyde

sterilization
a- ethanol for pvc instruments ethylyne oxide
b- chlorhexidine and ethanol for vegetative bacteria and spores...See More

12 ) infected tissue ph-6.9, pka of lignocaine 7.9. what amount of drug is


ionized
a-90% b-99% c-50% d-1% e-10%

13) analgesic not contraindicated in renal insufficiency


a-fentanyl b-dont remember other options iv :mild : paracetamol mild to
mod tramadol severe alfentanil fentanyl buprenorphine oral :
hydromorphone or oxycodone

15) sulphonylurea mechanism of action- augment release of insulin


(march 2017)
16) What's treatment of beta hemolytic streptococcus infection
a-Benzathine penicillin
b-Benzyl penicillin
17) acute asthma attack- salbutamol inhaler
18) most potent vasodilator- a-isoproterenol b- albuterol
prostacyclin pulmonary vasoldilatrt (potent vasoconstrictor is
cocaine ,, having intrinsc sympathomimetc effct )
19) cimetidine action- h2 receptor blocker
20) neuropeptide digested by enteropeptidase
a- vip b-something with y (dont remember) NeUROPEPTIDE Y
???? trypsin
21) transducer- changes one form of energy to other
22) neuroleptanalgesia- drug combinations were given, easy
options, neuroleptic and opioid combination had to be selected
23) hyperosmolar ketotic coma in diabetic patient- regular insulin
24) radford normogram- tidal volume and paco2
25) gentamicin contraindicated in end stage renal disease
26) nerve root compression in sciatica a L3-L4 b L4-L5 c S1-S2
27) central venous line necessary
a- all asa-3 patients for regular surgery
b- in neurosurgery for monitoring intracranial pressure
28) medial lower temporal lobe- cingulate gyrus ??? (ppr1 ka tha ya
2 ka dont remember exactly)
29) midbrain reticular formation- a-lies in periacqueductal region,
b-1 option was about function (Sleep pain cvs habituation motor_)
located in brain stem , control consciousness like alertness nd sleep

30) lmn lesion- flaccid paralysis


31) motor fibres after decussation are called a-lateral corticospinal
tract (ans) b-pyramidal tract c-medial lemniscs

Thanks a lot.keep doing good work

25th may, 2010


PAPER 1 and 2.

DO CONFIRM THE ANSWERS

1
ECG changes can be seen in the following conditions EXCEPT
a) Change in body position
b) MI
c) Sleep
(http://ajpregu.physiology.org/cgi/content/full/292/3/R1320)
d) Mitral stenosis
e) Aortic regurgitation
Ans:
c

2
About NEURAL TUBE
a) Forms primitive streak
b) Forms notochord
c) Cns develops from it
d) Forms three germ layers
e)
Ans;
C (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neural_tube )
3
SACRALIZATION
a) Union of 1st sacral vertebra with 5th lumbar
b) Union of 5th lumbar with 1st sacral
c) Fusion of all sacral vertebra to form sacrum
d) Flexion at sacrum
e)
Ans:
B http://wiki.answers.com/Q/What_is_sacralization_of_the_l-5
4
Stroke volume
a) Cardiac output depends on it
b) Heart rate determines stroke volume
c) Increases in haemorrhage
d) Independent of venous return
e)
Ans; AAA

5
Central venous pressure
a) Inc. in haemorrhage
b) Dec in gram negative septicemia
c) Dec in heart failure
d)
e)
ans;
b http://books.google.com.pk/books?id=-V3k-
2MnDQcC&pg=PA275&dq=cvp+is+decreased+during+gram+negative+sep
sis&hl=en&ei=LSEpTPu_NMaAlAeNmY2ACA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=re
sult&resnum=9&ved=0CE0Q6AEwCA#v=onepage&q=cvp%20is%20decre
ased%20during%20gram%20negative%20sepsis&f=false

6
What change occurs from lying to standing position?
a) Venous pressure inc
b) Arterial pressure inc
c) Sweating
d) Cutaneous vasoconstriction
e) .
Ans;
A http://www.cvphysiology.com/Cardiac%20Function/CF017.htm

7
A simple senario of hurshspring disease
8
Which hepatitis dangerous in pregnancy
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Ans;
e
9
A lady, whos been deliverd in a remote village, presents with shock,
septicemia, bleeding from venae sites.whats diagnosis

DIC
10,
Most common cause of pulmonary embolism?
a) Heart failure
b) Dvt
c) Cancer lung
d) Pneumonia
e)
ans;
B
11,
Regarding vit. D synthesis
a) 1 hydroxylation ocurs in kidney
b) 25 ocurs in kidney
c) 1 ocurrs in liver
d) 25 in lung
e) Both in skin
Ans;
A http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitamin_D
12,
Treatment of erythroblastosis fetalis? Blood is B+
a) Exchange transfusion with b +ve
b) With b _ve
c) Ab +ve
d) Anti D
e)
ans;

13,
WHICH IS NOT SUPLIED BY OCULOMOTOR N.
a) Medial rectus
b) Lateral rectus
c) Inf oblique
d) Sup rectus
e) Inf rectus

14,

About external juglar vein


a) Formed by retromandibular and ant. Auricular v.
b) Content of carotid triangle
c) Pierces deep fascia behind sternocleidomastoid
d)
e)
ans;
c

15,

Cephalic vein
a) Present in deltopectoral groove

16,
A lil senario of cervical rib i, e weakness and paresthesia along ulnar nerv
course
17,
A qs about CSF findings, which 1 true etc

More acidic than blood (march 2017)

18
Diagnosis of typhoid in 1st week
Ans blood culture

19,
Most common cause of SUBACUTE BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS
(march 2017)
a) Staph aureus
b) Sterp. Viridans
c) Strep pneumonae
d) Staph epidermiditis
e)
ans;
b

Acute by staph aureus


20,

Cause of gas gangrene (C. perferringens ws not givn)


a) C.botulinum
b) C. C. ljungdahlii
c) Tetanus toxin
d) C. septicum
e)

ans;
d http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gas_gangrene

21,
Type of omental necrosis?
a) Caseous
b) Gangrene
c) Fat
d) Coagulative
e) Fibrinoid
Ans;
C
http://books.google.com.pk/books?id=c41BJkHrniEC&pg=PA25&dq=oment
al+fat+necrosis&hl=en&ei=8iopTKykIaWlsQaB9JzEBA&sa=X&oi=book_res
ult&ct=result&resnum=4&ved=0CDYQ6AEwAzgK#v=onepage&q=omental
%20fat%20necrosis&f=false

22,
Most of bicarbonate absorption ocurs in
a) Proxial c. tube
b) Distal c. tube
c) Loop of henle
d) Collecting duct
e) .
Ans;
A
http://books.google.com.pk/books?id=pekX0WUKzMoC&pg=PA414&dq=bi
carbonate+reabsorption&hl=en&ei=oCspTPu0CIO0lQftobD-
Bw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CCYQ6AEwAA#v=
onepage&q=bicarbonate%20reabsorption&f=false
23,
There were 4_5 qs about aldosterone

24,
Stimulus for aldosterone release
a) Hypernatremia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hyperkalemia
d) Alkalosis
e)
ans;
c

25,
Aldosterone causes
a) Hypercalcemia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Acidosis
d) Hypernatremia
d)
ans;
d

26,
Dec aldosterone will lead to
a) Hyponatremia

27,
ADH acts on
a) Loop of henle
b) Distal c. tube
c) Collecting duct
d) Bowman capsule
Ans
c

28,
For circardian rhythm optic nerve sends fibers to
a) Optic chiasma
b) Medial geniculate body
c) Lateral geniculate body
d) Suprachiasmatic n.
e) Upraoptic n.
Ans;
D http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Circadian_rhythm
29,
A person suffering from dehydration, which ion replacement is most
important?
a) Ca
b) Mg
c) Na
d) K
e) Cl
Ans;
C

30,
What to give to Inc vitamen in diet
a) Nuts
b) Yougurt
c) Egg
d) Green vegetables
e) Margarine (sumthin like it)
Ans;
D

(march 2017)

31
Natural anticoagulant
a) Heparin
b) Warfarin
c) Aspirin
d) Plasminogen
e) Fibrin
Ans;
D
(heparin is antithrombotic)

32,
Endogenous pigment in chronic hemolysis
a) Hemosiderin
b) Lipofuscin
c) Anthracotic pigment
d)
e)
Ans
A

33,
In a ward, at a children hospital, all the children there have some
permanent disabilitythe parents of such children are suffering from
a) Denial
b) Anger
c) Bargaining
d) Depression
e) Acceptance

34,
Square root of variance
a) Mean
b) Variation
c) Standard deviation
d) Median
e) Acuracy
Ans
C

35,
Mean Inc with
a) Inc in sample size
b) Dec in sample size
c) Inc in standard deviation
d)
e)
ans;
b http://www.stat.berkeley.edu/~stark/Java/Html/SampleDist.htm

36,
What is therapeutic index of a drug?

Safety margin

37,
Drug contraindicated in renal failure
a) Amikacin
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Vancomycin
d) Pencillin
e)
ans;
a

(march 2017 with tricky change in stem)

38,
Drug for hyperthyroidism in pregnancy
a) Methimazolepropylthyrouracil
b) Ppu
c) Radioactive iodine
d) Total thyrodectomy
e) Ligol solution
Ans
B

39,
Which will not b present in a lung hamartoma (it ws senario of pulmonary
hamartoma and qs ws asked at the end of senario)
a) Coin lesion on xray chest
b) Mostly asymptomatic
c) Mostly Discovered incidently
d) Benign
e) Cartilage in lesion area
Ans
E doubtfull it was A in rabia

EEE Accrdng to me Rali

40,

Difference BW hyperplasia and benign tumor


a) Hyperplasia invades surrounding tissues
b) Benign tumor metastasize to tissues
c) Benign tumor shows aggressive growth
d) Hyperplasia shows pleomorphisim
e) Benign tumor is surrounded by capsule
Ans
E

41,
Atrophy means
a) Dec in cell size

42,
Premalignant condition of oral cavity
a) Erythroplakia
b) Leukoplakia
c) SCC
d) Lichen planus ( pre malignant lesion )
e)
ans
b
43,
A senario was about sturge webber syndrome in which he gave
neurological symptoms I,e seizures and convulsions then asked that what
other symptom can be found in that child and ans ws GLUCOMA . Point to
note that they did not talk about PORT WINE STAIN (birth mark) on face or
forehead
44,
Submucosal glands are present in
a) Stomach
b) Gall bladder
c) Duodenum
d) Small intestine
e) Pancreas
Ans
C

45,
After gastrectomy what can happen

a) Malabsoprtion
b) Steatorhea
c) Anemia
d)
e)
ans
c

46,
After gastrectomy B12 is not absorbed due to deficiency of
a) Parietal cells (pernicious anemia )
b) Chief cells
Ans
A
47,
Gastroparesis treatment (last part1 me b tha)
a) Metoclopramide
48,
Absorption of long chain fatty acids?
a) Ileum
acc to S.K jejunum

Short chain fatty acids in colon


49,
Bile salts are absorbed where?
a) Terminal ileum

50,
Bile acids are conjugated with which amino acid to form bile salts
a) Taurine

51,
Which hormone Inc gastric contraction?
A) GASTRIN
B) CCK
C) Secretin
c) Gip
Ans
A
52,
Rupture of post wall of duodenal ulcer will damage
a) Gastroduodenal artery
53
Left renal vein relation to aorta
a) Ant
b) Post
Ans
A
54,
Final common motor pathway
a) Corticospinal tract
b) Alpha motor neurons
c) Upper motor neurons
d) Cerebral cortex
e)
ans
b

55,
There was a qs about injury at T4,T8 level and dy askd about wat will
happen , choices were not straight forward e,g askin sum tract lesion etc
dts y not remeberd
56,
Stretch reflex maintains
a) Muscle tone
b) Balance
c) Length
d)
e)
ans
c

57,
There was qs in which options were (forgot qs)
a) Pancinian corpucles vibration
b) Messiners corposccles temp
c) Ruffinis end organssteady velocity
d) Golgi tendons tension
e) .

58,
Regarding pulmonary wedge pressure
a) Called so cz measured by a wedge shaped catheter
b) Usually bw 10-15 mmhg
c) Measure of rit atrial pressure
d)
e)

ans
b

59,
During systole
a) Both ventricles contract simultaneously
b) 50% filling of ventricles occurs
c) Blod flow inc in coronary arteries
d) ..
e) ..
ans
a

60,
Fastest conducting fibers in heart
a) Purkinje
61,
Glomerular pressure inc due to
a) Afferent constriction
b) Efferent constriction
Ans
b
62,
A senario was about dijoxin toxicity

Due to hyperkelimia ; metabolic alkalosis


63,
Treatment of acute asthma
a) Terbutaline

64,
Isoniazid side effects can be prevented by
a) Pyridoxine

65,
Not a cause of cardiogenic shock
a) Cardiac temponade
b) Mi
c) Arrythmias
d) Hemorrhage
e) Aortic dissection
Ans
d

66,
A pt with deformed nose, AFB +ve
a) Leprosy

67,
Most imp point of exudative inflamation
a) Sp gravity < 1.020
b) Neutrophils
c) Protein >2g| dl
d) .
e)
ans
c

68,
Monocytes
a) Most abundant cells in circulation (neutrophils)
b) Do not go out of vessels
c) Not phagocytic ( Lympho not phagocytic )
d)can transfer into multinucleated gaint cells in chronic inflammation
e)
DDD
69,
Tuberculous meningitis
a) Inc lymphocytes in csf

70,
Bladder ca caused by
a) Schistosoma haematobiam

71,
Which tumor does not hav bone metastasis?
a) Thyroid
b) Liver
c) Lung
d) Breast
e) Kidney
Ans
b

72,
ESTROGEN OCPs can cause
a) Breast ca
b) Ovary ca
c) Endometrial ca (hi estrogen containing OCPS )
Ans
a
thromboembolism >>> breat ca
Low estrogn ocps cause hepatic adenoma
73,
Residual vol. 1200 ml
a) Amount of air left in the lung after a max exhalation

74,
Vital capacity
a) After a max inspiration, max expired volume is vc 5500

75,
Cardiac output
a) Measured by fick principle

76,
Regarding sup parathyroid gland
a) Located in close proximity to INF thyroid artery and recurrent laryngeal
nerve at the level of cricothyroid junction. (Remembr that sup glands hv
more constant position while INF r variable in position.thats y dy askd
about sup glands location.its imp)
77,
Digastric triangle
a) Bounded anteriorly ant. Belly of digastric, posteriorly by post. Belly

78,
Which is not covered by deep cervical fascia
a) Thyroid
b) Parotid
c) Sternocleidomastoid
d) Submandibular gland
e) Sublingual
Ans
e

79,
Circumduction
a) Combination of flexion, extension, aduction and abduction

80,
For surgery tibia should b aproached from medial side, why
a) Dnt remember choices, sory
B)
C)
D)
to avoid damage of common peroneal nerve

81,
Micturation reflex centre is located in
a) Brainstem (pontine micturation centre). There s also a sacral micturation
centre but it ws not in the choices

82,
Diagnosis of pneumothorax?
a) Xray chest

83,
Approach to intercostal space for pleural effusion drainage
a) Lower part of space (neurovascular bundle in upper part os SPACE but
lower part of RIB)
84,
Pt having uppr respiratory tract INF, then chest pain that relieved by sitting
up
a) Pericarditis

85,

In nephron fluid which substance conc is higher than plasma


a) Na
b) Bicarbonate
c) Glucose
d) Urea
e) Albumin
Ans
d

86,

Renal plasma flow is determined by


a) PAH

88,
Jaundice, hepatitis, diarrhea 10days after bone marrow transplant
a) Graft vs host disease
89
Erythroblastosis fetalis, type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a) 2

90,
WHICH VACCINE IS NOT LIVE
A) Measles
B) Mumps
C) Rubella
D) Yellow fevr
E) Tetanus
Ans
e

91,
Tissue for HLA typing (there were two same qs in each paper)
a) Buccal mucosa
b) Leukocytes
c) Skin
d) Bone marrow
Ans
b

92,
LP done at
a) L4-L5 (l3-l4 also correct but it ws not in choices, thanks ALLAH Dy did
NT gv both choices simultaneously :-)

93,
Cauda equina
a) Collection of nerve roots and rootlets

94
Pilocarpine is nicotinic
a) Agonist
b) Antagonist

95
Diagnosis of klinefeltrs syndrome
a) Barr body

96
Which drug interers with warfarrin
a) Cemetidine

97
Adverse effect of chlorpromazine

a) Extrapyrimidal

98
Mechanism of action of captopril
a) Ace inhibitor

99
Feature of ca
a) Plomorphisim
b) Nuclear ratio
c) Hyperplasia
d) Invasion
Ans
d

100

Most cancers hav which fillament in them


a) Kerratin
b) Desmin
c) Vimentin
d) Neurofibrilary
e)
ans
a

101
Paraneoplastic syndrome is associated with
a) Ca breast
b) Adeno ca lung
c) Small cell ca lung
d) Ca prostate
Ans
C

102
Hepatitis b Infection is monitored by
a) Surface antigen
b) Srface antibody
c) Core antibody
d) E antibody
A
103

Hepatitis A inf, which test to perform


a) Hep A nd B VIRUS
b) Bilirubin
c) Sgpt
d) Albumin
Ans
c

104
Which hormone inhibits insulin secretion?
a) Secretin
b) Cck
c) Somatostatin
d) Glucagan
e) Vip
Ans
c
(As a general rule all git hormone stimulate insulin release and knwn as
INCRETIN)
105
MOST IMP STRESS HORMONE (it was also in last part1)
a) Epinephrine
b) Insulin
c) Growth
d) Cortisol
e) Acth
Ans
d
If short term during surgery against resistance stress asked than
epinephrine is best one
Otherwise follow this sequence cortisol > acth > epinephrine

106
In Cushing syndrome
a) Neutrophils are Inc, lymphocytes and eiosiniphils are Dec
107
A simple senario of graves disease anti thyroid antibodies
108
Whats pattern of antibodies in multiple myeloma (options were vry weird, nt
exactly remembrd)
a) They hav igA, M, G in different ratios and %ages e, g
IgA 5gm, M 15gm, G 20gm
b) IgM: igG S 1:20

109
HLA type in RA
a) HLA DR4
110
ABSOLOUTE LYMPHOCYTOSIS NOT PRESENT IN
a) Sle
b) Inf. Mononeucleosis
c) Walders (sumthin like that) granulomatosis
d)
e)
ans
a (nt sure)

111

Pt with arithritis, butterfly rash, photosensitivity (these symptoms wr in the


form of a simple senario), WATS diagnosis
a) SLE

112
Platelets contraindicated in
a) Splenomegaly
b) Acute immune thrombocytopenia
c) Coagulopathy
d) Dic
Ans
b

113
Water moves through
a) Pores
b) Membrane matrix
c) Protein channels
d) Fascilitated difusion
Ans
A (water channels)

114
Fascilitated diffusion
a) Passive transport through protein channels or carrier protiens

115
Which factor strenthen pt doc relationship
a) High professional skills
b) High social skills
c) Highly qualified
d) Logical answers to qs
e) Active listening
Ans
E
http://docs.google.com/viewer?a=v&q=cache:B-
90RsYl_QIJ:www.racgp.org.au/afp/200512/200512robinson.pdf+active+list
ening+for+a+doctor&hl=en&gl=pk&pid=bl&srcid=ADGEEShL3aencNeNL6
PcDL75akSth1myGNOsIBbWqXMO-
BxP5X7QKVmiu16qKkAOUhwMcNerrFuT2x-kVNZ-
Zz84Xr5Gy1K7AJJfrUhJoOWFb7PnEI52oZ3VXT9v3ZAKmA31w_Eh-
Ea0&sig=AHIEtbTDPrtyezt44aYcvJMnrIDzau8oZw

116

Which is more aggressive (also in last part1)


a) Basal cell ca
b) Squmaous cell ca
c) Melanoma
Ans
b

117
Nissel bodies are
a) RER
b) SER
c) Mitichondria
d) Golgi bodies
Ans
a

118
Greatest area of cerebral cortex is covered by
a) Elbow
b) Knee
c) Thumb
d) Shoulder
e) Ankle
Ans
C

119

Deviation of tongue on protrusion, which N. is damaged


a) Fascial
b) Hypoglossal
c) Submandibular
d) Edenger westphal
e)
ans
b

120

A pt with diastolic murmur in aortic area and colapsing pulse, diagnosis


a) Aortic stenosis
b) Mitral stenosis
c) Aortic R. (early diastolic murmur ;also in pul regurg)
d) Mitral R
e)
ans
c

121

SUB-DURAL HEMATOMA CAUSE


A) SUP CEREBRAL VEIN
B) INF CEREBRAL VEIN
C) ANT DIVISION OF MA
D) Post. Division of MA
Ans
A

122

Csf absorbed by
a) Arachnoid villi
b) Choroid plexuses
Ans
A

123
Which is pierced during LP
A) Dura matter

124
Inf spreads retroperitonealy, which will b infected
a) Spleen
b) Jejunum
c) Transverse colon
d) Descending colon
e)
ans
d

125
Ant pituitary loss will result in Dec in size of
a) Zona glomerulosa
b) Zona fasiculata
c) Parafolicular cells of thyroid
d) Adrenal medulla
e)
ans
b
126
Factor Dec wound healing
a) Vit c deficiency

127
How thrombocytes play role in thrombosis
a) Sorry forgotn the choices

128
Accomodation reflex intact, light reflex absent. Damage to?
a) Edenger westphal n.
b) Optic nerve
c) Optic tract
d) Optic chiasma
e) Pretectal area
Ans
E

129
Part of portal system draining esophagus
a) Azygous v.
b) Hemiazygous
c) Rit gastric
d) Lft gastric vein
Ans
D
http://books.google.com.pk/books?id=21e4wArL7hQC&pg=PA18&dq=porta
l+system+draining+esophagus+is&hl=en&ei=N7w0TNLEDKjonQefitGDBA
&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CCkQ6AEwAA#v=one
page&q&f=false

130
Bronchopulmonary segment
a) Anatomical and functional unit iof lung

131
Temp set point is in
a) Ant hypothalamus
b) Post hypothalamus

132
Antibodies are produced by
a) Plasma cells

133
Virulence of bacteria is associated with
a) Dose
b) Duration of exposure
c) Toxin production
d) Body resistence
e)
ans
c

134
For a blood donor what is not required (choices not well remembrd.actualy
dy askd that which factor should not b there in a GENERAL HEALTHY
DONOR)
a) Age
b) Sex
c) Systemic disease

135
Which one is not a epithelium tumor
a) Adenocarcinoma
b) Sq ca
c) Liposarcoma
Ans
C

136
Which receptor r involvd in acid production
a) H1
b) H2
c) Acetylcholine
d)
e)
ans
b

137
Which is present in slow wave sleep
a) Dopa
b) Acetylcholine
c) Serotonin
d) Norepinephrine
e)
ans
c

138
Hemibalismus due to damage to
a) Subthalamic N.

139
A child having dyspnea when lyng down
a) Retrosternal goiter

140
Best buffer of body
a) Protein
b) Hb
c) Hco3
d) Phosphate
Ans
C

141
Protein utilization is chekd by
a) Urinary NO2
b) Blood NO2
Ans
A

142
A pt has fluid loss, now his urine is concentrated. Its due to
a) Aldosterone
b) Adh
c) Acth
d) Cortisol
Ans
B

143
Ph 7.4 po2 65 pco2 33 hco3 19

a) Metabolic acidosis
b) Metabolic alkalosis
c) Compensated resp alkalosis
d) Resp alkalosis

144
What happens on mountain aclimitization?
a) Ventilation inc

145
Syphilis dignosis material taken from
a) Blood
b) Urine
c) Semen
d) Genital sores (lesion)
e) Saliva
Ans
D

(march 2017)
146
Best indicator of serum iron stores
a) Serum iron
b) Serum ferritin
c) Hemosiderin
d) TIBC
Ans
B

147
Why more oxygen goes to alveoli at apex than at base?
a) Inc compliance
b) Inc blood flow
c) Inc v\q
d) Inc pulmonary pressure
Ans
c

148
Urinary incontinence with overflow and excessive voiding, damage to (qs nt
remembrd well)
a) S2, 3,4
b) S2, 3
c) L2, 4,s1
s2,3,4
149
Hypospedias is due to defect in
a) Urogenital tubercle
b) Urogenital fold
c) Urachus
Ans
B

150
Cephalic vein
a) Begins in anatomical snuff box
b) Lies lat. To radial a.
c) Lat. To biceps
d) Ends in axilla
Ans
a
151
Upper part of anal canal is
a) Lined by stratified sq epi simple columner epi
b) Drained by sup inguinal nodes interal iliac L.nodes
c) Drained by inf rectal vein superior rectl vein
d) Sensitive to touch sensitive only to light touch nd pain
e) Sensitive to pain
so can b D or E,, stem incomplete
152

Normal fetal heart rate


a) 40. 60
b) 60. 100
c) 100. 120
d) 120. 160
e) 160. 200
Ans
D

153
One qs was about CVP.about its inc or dec in specific condition
Dec in gram neg infections

154
Inc in systemic filling preesure causes
a) Inc venous return

155

Beta-blockers do not cause


a) Inc renin
b) Vasoconstriction
c) Bronchiodilation
d)
e)
ans
a
156

Lidocaine
a) Inc PR interval
b) Dec AP
c) Dec automaticity
Ans
A +B

157

A diabetic pt with BS 20mmole\l , obese,no complication,its 1st visit to a


doc. What shold be the treatment?
a) Insulin
b) Insulin + sulphonylurea
c) Sulphonylurea
d) Biguanides
e) Biguanides +sulphonylurea
Ans
D

158

Pendulous knee jerk, cause


a) Cerebellar lesion
b) Upper motor neuron
c) Lower motor neuron
d) S2, 3,4
Ans
A

159

In which parasite the respiratory symptoms predominate?


a) Ascaris
b) Cystecercosis
c)
d)
e)

160
Diagnosis of H.influnzae meningitis
a) Csf culture
b) Blood culture
c) Inc lymphocyte in csf
d)
e)
an
a

161
Antibody to TB bacteria is (dnt remember exact choices but they did ask
regarding antibody against TB)
a) Cell bound
b) Membrane bound
c) in plasma
d) In saliva
A

162
In which phase os cell dividion the chromosomes are arranged in
chromatids
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase

163
Atrial contraction coresponds to
a) C wave
b) P wave
c) Qrs A wavw
164

Dorsal roots supply which musscles?


a) Internal intercostal
b) Externat intercostal
c) Innermost intercostal
d) Some back musscle
Ans D
165

Internal spermatic fascia is derived from


a) External oblique
b) Internal oblique
c) Transvesalis fascia
d) Transversus abdominus
Ans
C

166
Inputs to cerebellum
a) From vestibular system

167
Resolving power of lens
a) That enables to see closely related subjetcs seperatly

168
Parasympathetic stimulation causes
a) Ciliary muscle contraction

169
RTA, 1.5L blood loss, skin is calm and cold due to
a) Vasoconstriction
b) Vasodilation

170

Most common manifestation of septic pt


a) Tachycardia
b) Hypotension
c) Inc GFR
Ans
AAA

171

Premalignant condition
a) Basal cell nevus
b) Dysplastic nevus syndrome
Ans
B

172

Tumor involving lymph vessels


a) Angiosarcoma
b) Cystic hygroma
Ans
B

173
A female having very high levels of prolactin, suffering from homonymous
hemianopia. Its due to
a) Compression of optic nerve
b) Damage to optic tract
c) Damage to optic radiation
d) Compression of upper part of optic chiasma
e) Compression of oculomotor n.
Ans
D

174

What u find in primary hyperaldosteronism


a) Inc k
b) Dec k
c) Hypotension
d) Inc renin
e) Inc angiotensin 2
Ans
B

175
Which take part in synthesis of aldosterone
a) Angiotensin 1
b) Angiotensin 2
c) Cortisol
d)
e)
hi K lead to renin stimulation , whch lead to ang 1 which lead to ang 2, so
aldosterone formed
176

Inc k causes
a) Inc aldosterone
b) Inc ADH
c) Dec aldosterone
d) Dec ADH

177
HYDROCHLORTHIAZIDE CAUSES
A) Inc k
B) Inc ca
C) Inc mg
D) Inc na

178
Hydrops fetalis occurs to RH ve mother and RH +ve father. What type of
hypersensitivity reaction occurred?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
179
Blood supply of eye except cones and rods
a) Central artery of retina

180
They gv senario of klinefeltr and askd what u will find most common
a) Gynecomastia

181

Aldosterone causes
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hyponatremia
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Hypokalemia
e) Acidosis

Wishing all the part1 candidates GUDLUCK

FCPS I - 26th MARCH' 08


ANESTHESIA start k few mcq are from chandkian anesthesia portion..
wasted my time on it realized a few days before exam its the same :/

1. If a drug is taken orally. How will u assess the drug?


a. plasma drug conc
b. blood drug conc
c. urine drug conc

2. Regarding Nitroglycerine, all are true except


a. extensive 1st pass effect
b. venodilator
c. dec venous return
d. dec HR
e. t1/2 is 3-5 min

3. Warfarin, effect inc by


a. Cimetidine
4. Why the dose of theophylline in infant is smaller than in adults
a. dec metabolism
b. dec plasma protein binding

5. Enzyme induction occurs in:


a. liver
b. kidney
c. heart
d. adrenals

6. Digoxin toxicity
a. Inc K*
b. Inc Mg*
c. dec Ca**
d. dec Na*
e. alkalosis

7. Secondary active transport occurs thru


a. glucose
b. Na*
c. K*
d. Urea

8. 2 liters of 2 different gases of diff mol wt contain


a. equal no. of molecules
b. equal no. of atoms

9. Capillary permeability is inc by


a. hypertension
b. plasma colloid osmotic pressure
c. intersitial hydrostatic press
d. altered permeability

10. PG in inflammation dec by:


a. aspirin
b. corticosteroids
c. phosphodiesterase inhibitors

11. Which is true.


a. all parasymp are cholinergic
b. all sympathetic are adrenergic
c. all post-gang parasymp are cholinergic
A and c both correct
12. Gastric motility is inc by:
a. inc gastrin
b. ACh
c. Secterin
d. Somatostatin

13. Gastric acid is inc by


a. Gastrin
b. ACh
c. Secterin
d. Somatostatin

14. Basal level of bile

15. Alph a receptors effects ?


a. inc HR
b. lipogenesis
c. mydriasis
d. piloerector contraction
e. bronchodilator

16. Beta effect ?


a. Inc HR and force of contraction
by B 1 RECPTRS

17. ACh effect?


a. Inc salivation
b. inc sweating
c. constipation

18. Thirst is dec by:


a. ADH
b. aldosterone
c. Ag II
d. baroreceptor efferent
e. inc Hematocrit
19. promotes each others actions
a. atropine and reserpine
b. amytriptyline and reserpine
c. atropine and amitryptyline

20. After induction of anesthesia by 10 mg/kg thiopentone, pt is hypotonic.


Cause ?
a. hypersensitivity
b. dec HR
c. dec contractility

21.In hypertonic obs cardiomyopathy, which Ca** channel blocker is used:


a. Nifedipine
b. Nicardipine verpamil

22. Loop diuretics + thiazides enhance each others effect ( Dec NaCl abs)
at:
a. descending loop of Henle
b. ascending loop of Henle
c. proximal convoluted tubule
d. distal convoluted tubule
e. collecting duct

23. Pt with mild CCF. Treatment started. 1 week later pt complains of


severe pain at Rt big toe. Cause:
a. thiazide
b. furosemide
c. ACEi
d. amiodarone

24. Metastatic pleural effusion. Drug to be given:


a. streptomycin
b. clindamycin
c. corticosteroids
d. bleomycin

25. Monotherapy for mild CCF:


a. digoxin
b. captopril
c. nifedipine
d. propranolol

26.Pacemaker for complete heart block. Terminals shd be in:


a. SA node
b. AV node
c. Rt atrium
d. purkinje
e. Rt ventricle ..............(correct)

27. Infant with renal abnormality (renal artery stenosis). Drug responsible:
a. ACEi
b. Ca** channel blocker
c. amiodarone

28.Lungs inactivate Bradykinin by:


a. enz involved in converting kallikrein to plasma protein

29.After loss of 1 litre of blood in 5 min:


a. diastolic press dec
b. systolic press dec
c. aldosterone inc
d. no change

30. CO = VR. Large hump on left of cardiac pacing mentions:


a. inc contractility
b. inc HR
c. inc end-diastolic vol

31. Amiodarone.........> MOA


Act on phase 3 of cardiac cycle, slow that.. inc APD nd effctv refractry
period

32. Lidocaine. MOA?


a. dec abnormal tissue conduction and no effect on normal tissue
b. inc PR interval
c. dec atrial contraction
d. dec AV conduction
e. inc QRS
f. inc QT
33. Class IA antiarrythmic drugs
a. Lidocaine 1B
b. quinidine , procainamide also 1A
c. procainide
d. amiodarone

34. Lidocaine as antiarrrythmic:


a. blocks Na* channels
b. Beta blocker
c. K* channel blocker

35.Verapamil ..... as antiarrythmic ?


Dec SA nd AV nodal activity

36.Drug that inc extracellular K* (moves K* out of the cell):


a. Angiotensin
b. H2CO3
c. Carbonic anhydrase
d. pH
e. exercise (heavy exercise also do so )

37. Sec K* in renal cells


a. metabolic alkalosis
b. carbonic anhydrase

38. Consistent finding in hypoKalemia


a. prolong vomiting
b. diarrhea
c. ureters attached to colon

39. Metabolic alkalosis


a. renal failure

40. ARF- most effect.


a. PCT
b. DCT
c. LOH
d. CD

41. Hb 8.0, HCO3- inc (35), pH Inc, Ca++ dec. Cause


a. ARF
b. Vit D def
c. folic acid deficiency
d. PTH answer
Answr, arf

42. Anesthetics differ from anelgesics in:


a. only alter A delta and C fibers
b. Anesthetics effect at cerebral level and analgesics at spinal cord
level
c. affects only pain and temp and no other sensory modalities

43. High output cardiac failure


a. Thiamine
b. B2
c. B6
d. Folic acid

44. 90 yrs old lady with purplish large patch on Rt hand and arm. No itching
or pain. No comorbids, Otherwise Normal. Reason?
a. Capillary abn
b. Prothrombin
c. Vit K dependent clotting factors

45. 10 yrs old girl from Baluchistan c/o fatiguw, lethargy, mild jaundice,
discoloration of skin, enlarged spleen. Hb 8.0, MCV 58, S. Ferritin 1000.
Appropriate treatment?
a. deferroxamine
b. blood transfusion
c. iron transfusion

46. Death d/t embolism after accident


a. Fat
b. tumor cells
c. air
d. thromboembolism

47. Warfarin, effects on:


a. Factor VIII
b. factor III
c. Prothrombin

48. Ibpratopium bromide given by nebulization:


a. dec ACh release in bronchi
b. vasodil
c. inc secretion

49. Mast cell stabilizer.


a. Na chromoglycate

50. T1/2 of desmethyl diazepam, an inactive metabolite of diazepam is:


a. 20-50 hrs
b. 50-100 hrs
c. 100-200 hrs
d. 36-200 hrs ................... (correct)

51. Post menopausal women with brease ca. DOC


a. Tamoxifen

52. Sec released from thyroid gland entering circulation is:


a. Thyroxine
b. Free T3 if active then t 3
c. free T4
d. TSH
e. TRH

53. Cushing's triad:


a. Inc ICP, HTN, Bradycardia
b. Inc ICP, hypoTN, bradycardia
c. inc ICP, hypoTN, tachycardia
d. inc ICP, HTN. tachycardia
e. dec ICP, HTN, tachycardia

54. CSF
a. total 150 ml
b. production rate 20 ml/hr
c. produced by ependymal cells of choroid plexus
d. drained by lymphatics
C also correct.. absorb by arachnoid villi
55. CSF:
a. Inc K* than plasma
b. dec glucose
c. dec specific gravity

56. PTH
a. inc PO4 abs from renal tubules
b. inc Ca resorption from bones
c. CRF
d. Anemia

57. Imp buffer in interstitial fluid


a. H2CO3
b. Hb
c. plasma pr.
d. PO4

58. Cell wall synthesis inhib


a. Penicillin

59. Sulphonamides inhibit


a. tetrahydrofolate in bacteria

60. Dark urine after starting ATT.


a. Rifampin

61. 1 week after starting of ATT, pt c/o pain in big toe. Reason
a. INH
b. Rifampin
c. Ethambutol
d. PZA

62. Needle inserted at paramedian vertebral canal pierces:


a. ant spinal lig
b. post spinal lig
c. supraspinal lig
d. interspinal log
e. ligamentum flavum

63. Pseudomembrane colitis linked to:


a. clindamycin
b. penicillin
c. cephalosporins
d. erythromycin

64. Regarding chemotherapy all are true, except:


a. often multi therapy is not curative
b. req daily dosing of multiple drugs for long time

65. Flumazenil
a. onset of action 30-60 min
b. all unconscious pts must be screened by this drug
c. paradoxical tachycardia
d. max safe dose 1 mg/day

66. Isoflurane
a. MAC 1.9
b. req special vaporizer
c. dec HR
All wrong

66. Sevoflurane
a. dec HR
b. req use of normal vaporizer

67. MAC of Sevoflurane with 60% NO


a. 0.66-0.68

67. Ether causes


a. autonomic stimulation + delay induction nd recvry

68. Enflurane
a. EEG typical of seizures
b. not concerned to dose / conc adm
c. inc ICP
d. nonevident facial spasm

69. More pungent.


a. Isoflurane
b. enflurane
c. desflurane at MAC <1

70. Halothane

Flu tec 4

71. Metabolism of halides to release fluroide levels in descending order:


a. desfurane < isoflurane < enflurane < sevoflurane < halothane <
methoxyflurane

Methoxy > enflu > sevo > des


0.02 0.2 2.5 3 - 5 20

72. Blood flow regulation


a. cerebrum > cerebellum > sp. cord
b. sp. cord > cerebellum > cerebrum
c. cerebrum > sp. cord > cerebellum

73. N2O shd not be used in elderly with intestinal obs d/t:
a. risk of inc distension

74. Cylinder half filled with liquid N2O. Pressure in the cylinder? 750psi

75. Pressre of N2O cylinder is 750 psi. Pressure in the cylinder till the last
drop evaporates? I think it remains same (march 2017)

76. T1/2 N2O ?


a. does not undergo metab and is exc unchanged

77. Myocardial toxicity to a L/A?


a. Bupivacaine

78. cardiovascular collapse


a. bupivacaine
79. MetHbemia
a. Prilocaine

80. Fracture 5, 6th rib. longest acting L/A to be given


a. Bupivacaine

81. MAC related to:


a. Bl / gas solubility
b. oil / gas solubility
c. alveolar air conc.

82. Hyperoxia. All true except 1.


a. retrolental fibroplasia
b. atelectasis
c. dec surfactant prod
d. CV depression
e. anemia

83. PG released in inflammation are inhibited by:


a. aspirin
b. corticosteroids
c. serotonin
b
84. Muscle relaxant that can be given to an asthmatic pt
a. atracurium
b. tubocurare
c. cisatracurium
d. suxa

cisatracurium

85. Muscle relaxant, renally exc, long duration of action


a. tubocurare
b. vancuronium
c. pancuroniun
d. gellamine
pancuronium

86. For disinfection hands shd be washed with


a. phenol
b. alcohol with chlorhexidine
c. formaldehyde

87. The operating room shd b cleaned with the following drug, following
surgery of HIV pt:
a. 10% gluteraldehyde
b. 1% phosphoenol
c. 2% gluteraldehyde
d. H2O2

88. Following is true regarding sterilization:


a. repeated heating denatures polyvenyl tubings
b. autoclaving is heating objects at 121 degC at 15 psi for 3 min
c. radiation (UV light)
d. dry heat
e. formaldehyd

89. Reason for heat generation when CO2 is passed thru soda lime
a. formation of CaCO3
b. CaO formation
c. friction b/w soda and CO2 see asim anesthesia mcq 343 then decide.. I
think the answer is nt recalled :p

90. Flowmeter stops working when


a. flow of N2O > O2
b. flow of O2 > N2O
c. breakage / disruption of control valve.
91. Laminar flow (MURAD QS)
a. flow directly prop pressure
b. resistance independent

92. When Rynolds no. exceeds 3000


a. viscosity dec
b. density dec
c. velocity dec

93. Flow meter


a. used towards expiration
b. kept vertical to keep the dial needle at zero
c. not affected by humidity
d. cannot be attached to the ventilator

94. Regarding transducer all are true except


a. changes signal from 1 form of energy to another
b. capacitanc transducer can be used on body

95. Movement of molecules from high conc they layer/ surface:


a. diffusion
b. osmosis
c. doppler effect

96. Critical temp is:


a. the temp at which gas must be cooled to become liquid

97. Latent heat of vaporization:


a. temp at which liquid converts to vapour / gas without the utilization
of external heat
b. becomes zero with gain of energy

98. Relation of vol of a subs to its weight is:


a. density
b. viscosity
c. conc

99. To convert Celcius scale to Farenheit scale:


a. 9/5 *F- 32
b. 5/9 *F x 32
c. 5/9 *F + 32
d. Subract 32 and multiply by 5/9
e. add 32 and multiply by 9/5

100. Pt lying uncovered in operating room. Max heat is lost by:


a. Conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation controversial some say conduction :/
conduction more better than radiation.. othrwise both in option
101. Pt with ETT tube. Heat is lost by:
a. Conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation

evaporation

102. As the gas flows thru the vaporizer


a. gas is heated
b. outside of the container is cooled
c. surface vapour with highest energy is evaporated
c by denior

103. Humidity is measured by:


a. hygrometer
b. thermometer

104. Apart frm measuring end tidal CO2 conc., capnograph can also
measure
a. CO2 saturation
b. PO2
c. reduced Hb
d. oxyHb

105. Regarding Capnograph


a. rise of baseline indicate failure of valve
b. rise of height indicate valve failure

106. O2 is measured by all techniques except ......................(MURAD QS)


a. mass spectrometry

107. alpha waves with eyes closed


a. convert to beta when eyes open
b. convert to delta in REM
c. followed by slow frequency, high altitude wave

108. During diathermy when neutral plate is disturbed: ( Burn inc as current
density inc, but independent of freq )
a. pt may get a burn even at ECG electrodes ( Burn can occur at all
frequencies )
b. depends it is operating at cutting or coagulation mode
c. depends on current frequency
burn inc as density inc

109. Strong magnetic instruments may not be used in a remote village d/t
side effects. Instrument that can be used is:
a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. Angioplasty

110. Resistance in series:


a. inc as the wire is stretched
b. known as strain gauge used as pressure transducer
c. proportional to current flow

111. Wheatstone bridge


a. measures changes of resistsnce
b. no current flows when bridge is balanced

112. Pulse oxymetery


a. signals occur at 0.5 sec
b. light emitted by filtered light source
b may be
113. Variance is related to:
a. variability
b. square root of std deviation
c. range

114. Which measure of central tendency is used most frequently in clinical


practise
a. mean
b. mode
c. median
d. 50th percentile
e. Wilcoxon rank sum test

115. t-test
a. shows relation of 2 paired means

116. Surgeon treats 200 pts of heamorrhoids. He randomly divides the pts
into surgically treated and pharmacologically treated groups. After 1 yr he
reasses the pts and finds that surgically treated pts have better outcome.
This is called:
a. case - control study
b. cohort study
c. prospective cohort
d. randomized control trials
in chandkians its b.. but m with d
117. Treatment of strep pneumonia by sulphonamide and penicilline by
random selection is called:
a. single blind
b. double blind
c. tripple blind
in chandkian its probability sampling , bt m with AAA
118. O2 carried most in fetal circ.
a. Umblical artery
b. Umblical vein
c. Superior vena cava
d. Aorta

119. Esophagus histology


a. covered by squamous ep
b. has str. sq in upper 1/3
c. has str. sq. in lower 1/3
d. has 3 layers of muscles
e. esophageal opening acting as anatomical sphincter

120. Length of larynx.


a. 15 cm average
b. cricoid to T2 cartilage

121. Esophageal opening


a. at left crus of diaphragm
b. Left phrenic nerve also passes thru this opening
c. at level of T12 vert
d. acts as anatomic sphincter to the stomach
AT right crus of diaphragm , and some says left crus
122. Pt complains of chest pain for more than 30 min . ECG shows
changes in V1- V4. It denotes:
a. anterior wall MI
b. anterolateral MI
c. Inferior wall MI
d. Lateral wall MI
e. Inferior wall MI

123. Groove for subclavian artery at


a. clavicle
b. 1st rib
c. 2nd rib
d. 6th rib

124. Structures entering thorasic inlet


a. accessory nerve
b. aorta
c. superior vena cava
d. azygous vein
e. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve

125. Diaphragm is directly not attached to:


a. T10 vertebral body
b. L1 vertebral body
c. xiphisternum
d. 10th rib

126. Fibrous pericardium and parietal layer of serous pericardium is


supplied by
. phrenic nerve
b. cardiac plexus
c. esophageal plexus
d. intercostal nerves

127. Needle inserted at 5th intercostal space on the left of the sternum
pierces:
a. internal intercostal muscle
b. internal membrane
c. left atrium
d. left ventricle
e. right ventricle
128. Which is untrue. 1st branch of ascending aorta is:
a. RCA from anterior aortic sinus
b. LCA from arch of aorta
c. left subclavian

129. 2nd heart sound is produced d/t :


a. closure of aortic and pulmonary valves

130. S2 splitting occurs d/t


a. delayed closure of pulmonic valve

131. Spinal cord ends at the level of lower border of:


a. L2 vertebra
b. L3 vertebra
c. L4 vertebra
d. L5 vertebra
e. S1 vertebra

132. Which is a branch of posterior division of sacral plexus


a. pudendal nerve
b. posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
c. common peroneal nerve
d. nerve to quadratus femoris
e. perforating cutaneous nerve

133. Aortic pressure tracing is highest at which phase of cardiac cycle:


a. isovolumetric relaxation
b. rapid ejection phase
c. slow ejection phase
d. isovolumetric contraction

134. Muscle of quiet inspiration


a. diaphragm
135. Damage to pneumotaxic centre leads to:
a. apneusis
b. deep inspiration
c. short expiratory phase
d. irregular breathing
e. apnea

pneumotaxic in pons , limits inspiration, means limiting over expansion of


lungs as in inspiration. So when it is damaged , nthng to stop lungs
expanding, , hence deep inspiration

apneusitc produce abnrml inspiation

136. Thich filaments:


a. actin
b. myocin
c. tropomyocin
d. actin and myocin
e. troponin

137. Example of carrier mediated counter transport:


a. Na- glucose transport

138. Depolarization of cell is maintained by:


a. Na influx

139. Inhaled foreign body lodges in which part of lung


a. Rt apical bronchus

while standing goes in rt apicl

while horiznt rt lowr bronchus

140. At the end of expiration:


a. intra-alveolar pressure is subatmospheric
b. intra-pleural pressure is subatmospheric
141. Action potential thru large nerve fiber:
a. 300 ms
b. 30 ms
c. 3 ms
d. 0.3 ms
e. 0.03 ms

120 m/s

142. Blow to the lateral surface of knee joint damages:


a. medial meniscus, medial collateral lig and anterior cruciate lig.

(unhappy triad, medial meniscus attached to medial collateral ligamnt , so


more prone to b torned)

143. Knee joint is supplied by:


a. L3-L4

144. Vagus forms the efferent pathway of:


a. Hering- Breur reflex ( affernt by vagus, efrnt by phrenic )
b. J- receptors of pulmonary capillaries
c. Bain Bridge reflex (both affernt nd effernt by vagus )

145. Leftwatd shift of oxy-Hb curve is called:


a. Bohr effect ( right shift)
b. Haldane effect
c. Chloride shift

146. Ventilation perfusion mismatch in which Ventilation > Perfusion is


called as:
a. shunt
b. dead space

147. Most important buffer is interstitial fluid


a. Hb
b. H2CO3
c. H2PO4
d. Proteins

148. Damage to what part of brain will result in central cease of respiration
a. medulla

149. Pacinian corpuscles related to


a. touch
b. vibration
c. pressure
d. rapidly adapting pain
e. slowly adapting pain

150. Medullary respiratory group of neurons part of ascending reticular


system
a. True
b. false

151. Anion gap increases in:


a. Uncontrolled DM

152. Bile from liver is different from that from GB in:


a. has more HCO3- ( bile from liver has more hco3 nd water )
b. has more mucous and pigments (GB has more mucous nd pigments)

c. has more anions

153. Dry mouth increases all except


a. thrist
b. ADH
c. Ag II
d. Plsma osmolarity
e. Plasma vol
154. H* sec from nephron is inc by
a. acidosis
b. alkalosis

155. Coronary blood flow is maintained by:


a. autoregulation

156. Increased filtration thru capillary is fascilitated by:


a. Inc plasma colloid osmotic pressure
b. inc hydrostatic pressure of cap
c. inc hydrostatic pressure of ISF
d. inc oncotic pressure of ISF

157. General anesthesia influences


a. motor is affected 1st
b. pain neurons blocked 1st
c. sensory neurons blocked 1st
d. autonomic neurons blocked 1st

158. Middle cerebral artery supplies


a. leg foot area of motor and sensory cortex.......... true / false

Supply brocas area

159. Stretch reflex afferent 1a fibers .................... true/false

righttt

160. Mediators of inflammation


a. C3a
b. C5a
c. IL1
d. TNF alpha

161. Largest total cross-sectional and surface area is of:


a. artery
b. arterioles
c. capillaries
d. venules
e. veins

162. Blood flow regulation is mediated by:


a. arterioles
b. precepillary sphincter
c. capillaries
d. venules

163. If heart rate is 80 beats/min


a. duration of PR interval wld be b/w 0.12 - 0.16 sec

Heart Rate: 60 - 90 bpm PR Interval: 0.12 - 0.20 sec

164. Lung function that cannot be measured by spirometry:


a. Residual vol

165. FRC = ?
a. ERV + RV

166. Hypoglycemia increases


a. SSK
b. Somatostatin
c. Gastrin
d. VIP
e. Secretin?

glucagon

167. Gastric acid is stimulated by:


a. Gastrin
b. CCK
c. Secterin
d. GIP
e. VIP

168. Somatostatin dec sec of which hormone


a. ADH
b. Insulin
c. Oxytocin
d. Prolactin
e. Thyroid hormone

169. A postmenopausal women suffered fracture d/t osteoporosis. Her Ca**


is Inc, PO4 is dec. Reason?
a. Estrogen ?
b. Cortison
c. PTH
d. CRF
e. Calcitonin

170. Physics... Capacitance

Subject Fwd: mdrfurkan@gmail.com

From ravi kumar <36ravimoolchandani@gmail.com>

To aneelkumar1973@yahoo.com <aneelkumar1973@yahoo.com>

Date Mon, Sep 14, 2015 at 8:13 PM

45.cimetidine

a.dec the gastric acidity

34.warfarin

a.vit k given for toxicity in long term

b.fresh frozen plasma in acute

c.contraindicated in pregnancy
all correct

28.gram molecular wt.

a.wt. of a substance expressed in grams

23.involved in arousal/alertness

a.reticular formation

27. vapour pressure

a.inc with inc temp inside the container

44.Atropine

a.dec tracheal secretions

b.inc heart rate

bbb more imprtnt

43.if the diameter of the orifice is halved flow dec by

a.1/4

b.1/16

c.1/2

37.verapamil given in

a.supraventricular tachycardia

b.ventricular tachycardia

FEB 12,2014

1.needle in epidural moves through

a.epidural space,dura matter,sub dural,membrane

18. about inf vena cava

a.rt.supra renal vein directly drains in IVC

b.ends at T12

c.forms ant boundary of epiploic foramen


69.pt in shock, emergency management

a.I/V epinephrine

59.clinical manifestation of long term use of anti depressant

a.rebound phenomenon

b.tolerance

c.dependence

d.withdrawal

30.biguanide side effect

a.GIT disturbance

31. Meninges attach at coccyx, begins from where?

Coccygeal 1

32.heart supplied by T1-T5, which has least contribution

a.T1

B.T2

C.T3

D.T4

E.T5

79.inhibition of menstruation during lactation due to inhibition of

a.GnRH

b.prolactin

(march 2017)

ETOMIDATE....

i ticked 3/4th is protein bound...

56.larngospasm by

a.desflurane with MAC 1


b.sevoflurane

c.isofluraned.enflurane

1..fluid of choice for acedemic urine

a.0.9% Nacl

b.ringer lactate

c.5% dextrose

d.25% dextrose

(march 2017)

2. loss of fine controlled movements of distal limbs, structure involved

a.cerebellum

b.basal ganglia

c.corticospinal tract

3.larngospasm by

a.desflurane with MAC 1

b.sevoflurane

c.isoflurane

d.enflurane

4.lateral curve of spine is called

a.kyphosis ant curvev lost

b.scoliosis

c.lordosis post curve lost

5.which is correct

a.ropivacaine safer than bupivacaine

b.ROPIVACAINE is an amide thats prepared as a racemic mixture of bupivacaine

10.advantage of dexamethasone over betamethasone


a.dnt depress ACTH

b.better glycemic control

c. immunospressant

11..biguanide side effect

a.GIT disturbance

b.hypoglycemia

12.clinical manifestation of long term use of anti depressant

a.rebound phenomenon

b.tolerance

c.dependence

d.withdrawal

13..FEV1/FVC(normal)=

a.0.80

b.0.82

14..pt in shock, emergency management

a.I/V adrenaline

15. about inf vena cava, correct is

a.rt.supra renal vein directly drains in IVC

b.ends at T12

c.forms ant boundary of epiploic foramen

16.best about blood supply of brain

a.pre cappillary anastomosis

b.is equally perfused

c.inc blood flow dec pH


ccc is correct

17..needle in epidural moves through


a.epidural space,dura matter,sub dural,membrane

18..verapamil given in

a.supraventricular tachycardia

b.ventricular tachycardia

19..if the diameter of the orifice is halved flow dec by

a.1/4

b.1/16

c.1/2

21.prolonged blockadge with suxamethonium

a.pseudocholinesterase deficiency

22.VECURONIUM

a.prolonged onset in infants than adults

b. prolonged duration of action in infants

c.decreased duration in old

23. vapour pressure

a.inc with inc temp inside the container

24.Metochlopramide

a.drug that increases both motility and upper stomach sphincter

25.involved in arousal/alertness

a.reticular formation

26..non irritant hand wash

a.chlorhexidine

27. gram molecular wt.

a.wt. of a substance expressed in grams

28.40 yr recently diagnosed diabetic,what should be given alongwith diet n exercise


a.biguanide

29..hydrocephalus

a.obstruction of aqueduct of sylvius

30..T wave

a.ventricular repolarisation

32.gaseous exchange occurs in

a.alveoli

b.alveolar duct

c.resp. bronchiole

d.terminal bronchiole

33..after surgery of HIV pt. floors disinfected with

a.1% hypochlorite

b.2% glutaraldehyde

c.5% hypochlorite

34.furosemide n thiazide act collectively at

a.DCT

35..ketorolac

a.given to pt in pain with drug seeking behavior ---

Non diabetic or post op pain

bbb

36..mixed cranial nerve

a.glosopharyngeal

37..boiling point

a.point at which liquid n vapour exist in equilibrium with each other

b.it inc with dec in atmospheric pressure


c.it dec with dec in atmospheric pressure

aaaaaaa

38. rate of flow

a. inversely proportional to SQUARE ROOT of mol weight

39..sensory loss of lateral aspect of foot,dec ankle jerk

a.compression of S1

b.sciatic nerve injury

40.venturi duct scenario

a.bernouli's law

b.poiseulli's law

41.dec liver blood flow

a.halothane

42. rapidly adapting receptors controlling fine touch

a.pacinian

b.meissener

c.ruffini

43..hyperkalemia treatment

a.calcium gluconate

45..intercostal nerves damage in

a.inf border of rib

46.comparison of density of fluid to dat of CSF

a.baricity

47.viscosity

a.dec with heat

48.ph 7.2 co high bicarb high


a. non compensated resp acidosis

49.skeletal muscle

a.motor end plate

50. in GIT, bicarbonate secretion is inc by

a.secretin by pancrease

b.cholecystokinin

51..loss of affect, recent memory

a.limbic area

b.perilimbic area

52.muscle blood flow regulated by

a.local metabolites

53.for general anaesthesia by non depolarizing NMB confirmation is done by

a.double burst

b .train of four (fading) ??

c.double twitch

d.4 twitch

e.tetanic stimuli

train of four

54. root value of knee

a.L4

b.L3

55.cells resembling schwan cells

a.oligodendrocites

b.astrocytes

56.needles sensation in lower limb, which anti TB drug?


a.isoniazid

b.pyrazinamide

c.rifampicin

57.anti epileptics

a.should b stopped when eeg is free of seizures

b.should be stopped after 5years of symptom free period

c.should be stopped after 5years of dec conc in blood

(march 2017)

58..rapid solubility in blood and body fluids

a.CO2

b.CO

c.N2

59..metabolic alkalosis causes

a.hypokalemia will lead to met alkalosis

b.hyperkalemia

60.ribs fracture,longer acting local

a.bupivacaine

b.lignocaine

61.Cl- shift,ion involved

a.K

b.Na

c.HCO3-

62..loss of mass reflex

a.complete section of spinal cord

b.hemisection of spinal cord


63..Na nitroprusside in acute heart failure

a.arteriolar dilator

b.venodilator

NA nitroprusside cause more arteriolr dilation than veno

Bt nitropruside acts more on veins

Kaplan pharma

64.lidocaine causes

a.seizures

65..succinylcholine contraindicated in

a.10 days burn pt. in burn patient dont use for 6 months

b.CRF

66.drug not given in gout

b.probenecid

c.colchicine

d.allopurinol

a.aspirin

67.vasoconstriction in lungs due to

a.dec pO2

b.inc pCO2

68.structure carried with esophagus through esophageal opening in diaphragm

a.azygous vein

b.hemiazygous vein

c.left vagus nerve

69..pain modulation by
a.substantia gelatinosa

b.dorsal horn

c.spinothalmic tract

70.regarding nalbuphine

a.overdosage results in same resp depression as morphine

b.given in withdrawal of morphine

71..inc bleeding if warfarin given with

a.imipenem

b.penicillin G

72. for the treatment of MG on long term basis,,,,which drug can be given

a.carbachol

b.methacholine

c.neostigmine

d.edrophonium

73. not act on uterus blood vessel

a.epinephrine

b.methoxamine

c.phenylephrine

74.aspirin

a.COX 2 inhibitor

75..cushing triad's

a.inc BP,inc CSF pressure,bradycardia

76..corticosteroids in diabetes

a.alter glycemic control


77..status asthmaticus

a.salbutamol inhalation

b.i/v salbutamol

78.cell bodies present in

a.grey matter

b.white matter

79.drug of choice for enteric fever

a.ciprofloxacin

80..nephrotoxic drug

a.gentamycin

81..FRV+RV=

a.FRC

82.cimetidine

a.dec metabolism of theophylline

83..foreign body in which lobe of lung

a.rt. inf lobe

84.in the treatment of vomitting,

a.metochlopramide is less effective than ondansetron

85..methemoglobinemia caused by

a.prilocaine

86.antidote for paracetamol

a.N-acetylcystine

87.cimetidine

a.dec the gastric acidity

6.fluid of choice for acedemic urine


a.0.9% Nacl

b.ringer lactate

c.5% dextrose

d.25% dextrose

Mcqs for imm by Dr. Sana Imtiaz

1...Which nerve is spared in Axillary block?

Intercostobrachial nerve

2.Drug of choice as muscle relaxant in Pheochromocytoma??

Vecuronium

3. Which part of circuit is not included in low pressure system?

Pipeline. Intermediate system

4. How much is half life of Factor. 8??? 8 to 12 hours

5.What does IT stand for?

Implant tested

6.Volume of spinal canal in female??

20ml

7. Incidence of headache with 25 gauge pencil point needle??? 2%

8.How many dermatomes can be blocked by Spinal anaesthesia at L4-5 level???

9.Which hormone. Is not released under stress??

Insulin ( confirm it yourself) right

10.Effect of thiopental on cerebral. Blood flow??? Increase??

Thiopental dec cerebrl blood flow , blood volume nd icp nd dec o2 utilization

11. Which opoid causes late respiratory depression??

Morphine

(right)
(march 2017)

12.Which reflex is absent in fourth stage of Anaesthesia??

Carinal reflex

13. What size of LMA will be used in child of 4 years of age?? LMA sizes ~ weight (kg) / 20 + 1 (round to
nearest 0.5) 1- 5 yers 2 and 5 to 10 years 2.5

Answer 2

14. Which nerves are first blocked by Local anaesthetics??

autonomic.. c fibers

15. Narrowest part of airways of children??

Subglottis ie cricoid cartilage

16. TURP syndrome caused by

Glycine

2. Humidity in OT should be

a.27

b.45/// (55)repeated paper :)

c.37

7. what is true about FRV volume.

a. increased in shallow breathing

b. nitrogen breath test can measure it

c. it is part of minute ventilation

d. can be measured by helium dilution metho

26.which one of following has steroid nucleus.

a.ketamine

b.profol

c.thiopental

d.midazolam
e.etomidate

13.which one of following used in CCF but is not a vasodilator

a.verapamil

b.nifedipine

c.nimodipine

d.metoprolol

e.diltiazem

3. Ropivacaine is used for epidural anaesthesia instead of bupivacaine during labour,because

a. it is less toxic

b. no effect on fetus

c. recovery is quick

d. prolonged action

20.mac is reduced in

a. duration of anaesthesia

c. hypoxia,///

22. which one irritates larynx..

a. desflurane

b. isoflurane

c. sevoflurane

d. nitrous oxide

23.isoflurane effects cardiac activity by: (options dont remember exactly,but the main theme was how

isoflurane actually suppresses cardiac activity,mechanism of action )

a. decreasing AV conduction

b. inhibiting intracellular phospateases

c. bidirectional block (something like that ,exact term dont remember but it was bi- )
d

by coronary vasodilatation + low resistance

Which is the following is true about BP study. N = 75; Mean BP= 80 mmHg; SD = 10. How many
percentages

have blood pressure greater than 10 mmHg?

A. 48%

B. 64%

C. 16%

D. 84%

E. 96%

15 General anesthesia influences

a. motor is affected 1st

b. pain neurons blocked 1st

c. sensory neurons blocked 1st

d. autonomic neurons blocked 1st

16. Which of the following drug should be given in sustained release oral dosage form?

a. An anti-arrhythmic drug with a plasma half life of 10 seconds used for acute treatment of PSVT

b. An anti-inflammatory drug with a plasma half life of 24 hr

c. A hypnotic drug with a plasma half life of 2 hours

d. An antihypertensive with a plasma half life of 3 hours*

17. A 30 year old patient, Sunder Rao on digoxin therapy has developed digitalis toxicity. The plasma
digoxin

level is 4 ng/ml. Renal function is normal and the plasma t 1/2 for digoxin in this patient is 1.6 days. How
long

should you withhold digoxin in order to reach a safer yet probably therapeutic level of 1 ng/ml?

a. 1.6 days
b. 2.4 days

c. 3.2 days*

d. 4.8 days

18. An agent that activates natural killer cells and is useful in renal cell carcinoma is

a. Aldesleukin* also inc lymphocyte differentiation , used Also in metastatic melanoma

b. Etanercept

c. Leflunomide

d. Thalidomide

19. In a patient Sarwan having hypertension, propranolol was given. Though the drug controlled
hypertension

but it reduced resting heart rate to 50/min. Which of the following blockers can be used in this patient
as an

effective substitute which does not cause bradycardia?

a. Pindolol*

b. Timolol

c. Bisoprolol

d. Atenolol

20. A college student is brought to emergency after taking an overdose of a non prescription drug. The
patient

is confused and lethargic. He has been hyperventilating and dehydrated. Arterial blood gas analysis

demonstrates metabolic acidosis. In the management of this patient, which is NOT likely to be of any

therapeutic value?

a. Alkalinization of urine

b. Correction of metabolic acidosis

c. Gastric lavage

d. Treatment with acetyl cysteine* can b use with in 12 hours

21. Rasburicase is a newer drug used in gout. It act by


a. Decreasing urate synthesis

b. Increasing urate oxidation drug is urate oxidase convert urc acid to allonton

c. Decreasing intestinal absorption of uric acid

d. Increasing renal excretion of uric acid

22. A 40-year-old politician suffered from attacks of chest pain diagnosed as angina pectoris. He had a
tense

personality, resting heart rate was 96/min blood pressure 170/104mm Hg, but blood sugar level and
lipid

profile were normal. Select the most suitable antihypertensive for initial therapy in his case.

a. Nifedipine

b. Hydrochlorothiazide

c. Atenolol*

d. Methyldopa

23. A 47-year old male, Anil, exhibited signs and symptoms of acromegaly. Radiologic studies showed
the

presence of a large pituitary tumor. Surgical treatment of the tumor was only partially effective in
controlling

the disease. At this point, which of the following drugs is most likely to be used as pharmacological
therapy?

a. Desmopressin

b. Leuprolide

c. Octreotide*

d. Somatropin

24. A 52 year-old postmenopausal patient has evidence of low bone mineral density. She and her
physician are

considering therapy with raloxifene or a combination of conjugated estrogens and


medroxyprogesterone

acetate. Which of the following patient characteristics is MOST likely to lead them to select raloxifene?
a. Previous hysterectomy

b. Recurrent vaginitis

c. Strong family history of breast cancer *

d. Troublesome hot flushes

1. Patient with defect in lumen of allantois

A. Umblical Sinus/fistula

B. Urachal fistula

C. Urachal cyst

D. Urachal Sinus

2. Co2 diffusion in lung is greater than O2 is due to:

A. Greater Solubility coefficient

B. Increased Co2 partial pressure in lungs

C. Increased density of Co2

Greater diffusion coefficient

3. Inhibition of menstaration due to inhibition of

A. GnRH

B. Prolactin factor

4. heart supplied by T1-T5 least contribution

T1 T2 T3 T4 T5 ???

5. Best abt blood supply of brqin

A. Precapillary anastomosis

B. Is equally perfused

C. Increase blood flow dec pH resp acidosis causes increase cerebral blood flow

6. loss of effect, Recent memory

A. limbic area
B. paralimbic area

7. Rapid solubility in blood & body fluids

A. Co2

B. CO

C. N2

8. Increase bleeding if warfarin given with

A. Impenam

B. Pencillin G

Maqs ; macrolides , azoles , quinolones , sulfonamides hav hi incidence of warfarin toxicity

Q13..Mean systemic filling pressure regulates

a.Mean arterial pressure

b.Pulmonary vascular resistence

c.Right arterial pressure

d.Systemic vascular resistance

e.Venous return

Anesthetic differ forn analegics in

A only alter A delta n C fibers

B Anestheisa affect at cerbral level nd analgesics at spinal level

C affect only pain n temp no other sensory modality

20.mac is reduced in

a. duration of anaesthesia

c. hypoxia,

44. cardiac index is..

a. cardiac output to body surface area (BSA),

b.difference of end systolic volume and end diastolic volume


45. lysosomes

a. produced by golgi apparatus

b. has hydrolases n catalases

c. has oxidases

9.3rd space fluid loss.fluid of choice is

a. blood,plasma

b.10%dextrose

c. ringers lactate

d. normal saline

50.class three antiarhythmic name : amiodrano sotalol Dofetilide

a. quinidine

b. pilocarpine

c. lidocaine

51.10-15% blood loss,,replace by ..

a. whole blood

b. three times normal saline

c. ringers lactate

52.pulmonary ligament is

a. in which lung root sinks during respiration

b. a recess in parietal pleura

c.formed by condensation of Sibson fascia

53.supra pleural fascia is .. sibsons fascia


a.thickining of pretrachial fascia

b.attached to first rib

c.moves with respiration,

d.subclavian vessels crosses it superiorly

66.regarding right brachiocepahilc vein,what is true

a. has valve

b. right is longer than left

c. commences at level of t4

d. is vertical

72.which of following doesnt have any sensory supply

a.hypoglossal nerve,

b.vagus nerve,

c.occulomotor nerve,,

d.trochlear nervea

78.you have given a dose of suxamethonium in a patient ,now u have to give another dose,you are very

cautious regarding second dose,why ? mainly cox of brady

a.because of hyperkalemia

b.because of hypocalcemia

7. What is true about FRC volume.

a. increased in shallow breathing

b. nitrogen breath test can measure it

c. it is part of minute ventilation

d. can be measured by helium dilution method

answer: d

100.glucose tranports across membrane due to its concentration difference,it is called: a.diffusion
b.facilitated diffusion
diffusion c.active tranport d.sec. active tranport

101.cell is in complete depolarization phase in : a.qrs complex b.QT interval c.ST segment d.T wave

Here are a few questions I recalled from paper 2 of anaesthesia. I m confused about 2/3 questions. They
may b new questions

b from paper 1. S. Osama Farooq

1. Trigeminal nerve

a. Has motor supply to tongue muscles.

b.Has sensory supply to posterior 2/3rd of tongue.

c. Has sensory supply to angle of mandible.

d. Has sensory supply to cornea. Ans

2. Which of the following directly acts as agonist on cholinergic receptors.

a. Atropine

b. Pilocarpine Ans

3. Dobutamine acts on

a. 1 & 2 receptors

b. , & dopamine receptors

c. & receptors Ans this is correctt look it up

4. Which of the following has agonist effect on adrenergic receptors directly and also releases
norepinephrine

a. Ephedrine Ans

b. isoprenaline

c. Dobutamine
5. Urea is increased by all except

a. dehydration

b. pregnancy ?

c. steroid

d. tetracyclines

6. the temperature at which vapour pressure of liquid equals atmospheric pressure is

a. critical temperature

b. boiling point Ans

c. dew point

7. after administration of neuromuscular blocking agent, two lines in train of four stimulation indicates
how

much blockade?

a. 25% b. 50% (cnfrm it) c. 75% d.80% e. 90%

8. most efficient gaseous exchange occurs at

a. alveolar sac b. alveolar ducts c. alveoli Ans d. respiratory bronchiole e.terminal bronchiole

9. centrally acting antihypertensive

a. clonidine

10. the extent of neuromuscular blockade is mostly determined by

a. double burst stimulation

b. train of four stimulation Ans

c. tetanus stimulation

11.ASA grade 1 patient with no co morbid was given neuromuscular blocking drug. He went into shock.
The

drug to be given is

a. i/v dopamine
b. i/v adrenaline Ans

c. i/v nor adrenaline

12. after RTA, a patient presented with fractured pelvis, rt femur and lt tibia. What shud b the 1st line

management?

a. i/v inotropes

b. i/v fluids Ans

c. counseling and assurance

d. i/v antibiotics

13. patient has homonymous hemianopia. Where is the lesion?

a. optic nerve b. geniculocalcarine tract c. optic tract (Ans ) d. optic nerve e. optic chiasma

14. intercostal arteries are

a. Branch of musculophrenic artery

b. branch of internal thoracic

c. branches of thyrocervical trunk

d. branches of thoracic aorta Ans (anterior I/C by internal thoracis and posterior I/C by aorta but they
had similar question in asim. written branch with internal thoracic)

accompanied by intercostal veins (also asked in this way)

15. Abdominal wall is supplied by

a. T10 to 12 b. T4 to 10 c. T7 to 12 ( Ans ) d. T6 to 10

16. Esophagus

a. enters abdomen at T12

b. enters thru Rt crus of diaphragm Ans

c. enters a little left to the midline

d. is covered by peritoneum from front and right side

17. The movement of inhalational anaesthetic from alveoli to blood across the membrane is governed
by
which law?

a. boyles b. Charles c. Piosuelles d. Henry Ans

18. in light of Laplace law, which pair has inverse relation

a. venous return and stroke volume

b. wall tension and circumference Ans

19. inhaled forein body will lodge into

a. Lt lower lobe b. Carina c. Rt middle lobe d. Rt lower lobe Ans

20. intubation in neonates usually becomes endobronchial because

a. they have high epiglottis

b. short neck (I selected this) trache is hort

c. Rt and Lt bronchi are at same angle c is right

21. Pulmonary hypoxic vasoconstriction

a. maintains pulmonary B.P

b. not useful in prenatal period

c. maintains V/Q ratio in certain diseases Ans

22. which receptor causes smooth muscle constriction of pulmonary vessels

a. 1

b. 1

c.2

d. Muscarinic Ans m3

e. Nicotinic

23. a patient has diastolic pressure of 66 mmHg, systolic 132 mmHg and central venous pressure of
1mmHg.

What is his mean arterial pressure?

a. 77 b. 88 c. 99 d. 100 e. 11

MAP = 1/3 diastolic + pulse pressure


22+66= 88

24. the analgesic which causes tachycardia at therapeutic doses is

a. Ketorolac

b. Pethidine Ans

c. Morphine

d. Fentanyl

25. on 3rd post op day of limb surgery, a pt complains of moderate pain. Which analgesic should be
given?

a. Fentanyl

b. Diazepam

c. Morphine

d. Ketorolac Ans

26. a 35 year old female has gastric ulcer and arthritis. Which analgesic can she take?

a. Indomethacin

b. ibuprofen

c. celecoxib Ans

d. ketoprofen

27. most sensitive and easy to calibrate CVP monitoring manometer is

a. closed mercury

b. closed water

c. closed mercury and water

d. open mercury

e. open water Ans (not sure about this) OIL MINERAL IS BEST

28. -agonist effect is

a. mydriasis Ans

b. increased skin temperature


c. increased gastric secretions

d. increased gastric motility

29.most sensitive area to inhalational anaesthetics is

a.cerebral cortex

b. medulla

c. reticular activating system Ans

d. cerebellum

e. midbrain

30. Fluotec-4 vaporizer.

a. can work as vaporizer in circuit Ans (not sure)

b. is calibrated for halothane and enflurane , can b used simultaneously for en & halothane,,, m not
sure about A

31. safe dose of bupivacaine in a 70 kg person is

a. 100mg b. 150mg Ans c. 250mg d.300mg

32. dose of lignocaine with epinephrine is

a. 2mg/kg b. 7mg/kg c. 10mg/kg

33. Propranolol

a. has and antagonistic effects

b. is a prodrug of antagonism Ans

c. has partial -agonistic activity as well.

34. Esmolol

a. is metabolized in liver

b. is metabolized by erythrocyte esterases. Ans

c. is excreted unchanged in kidneys

35. in Left anterior wall MI, there will be

a. ST elevation at V5-V6
b. ST elevation at V4-V6

c. ST elevation at V2-V4 Ans

(ST elevations in leads 2, 3 and AVF inf wall MI )

d. left axis deviation

some more questions i recalled from paper 2, with answers.

37. neurotransmitter in behavior control and emotions is

a. Norepinephrine

b. Epinephrine

c. Histamine

d. Serotonin Ans

e. Dopamine

38. in Acetaminophen toxicity, N-Acetylcysteine is given because

a. it increases acetaminophens renal clearance

b. it degrades the toxic metabolites ( by increasing GSH synthesis which gets depleted)

c. it stops formation of toxic metabolites.

39. Patient with dyspnoea and pulmonary edema. Caused by

a. Rt ventricular hypertrophy

b. Lt ventricular failure (Ans)

c. Mitral stenosis

40. Pansystolic murmur at aortic area with long standing pulse and left axis deviation is caused by
???????

a. Aortic regurgitation

b. Aortic stenosis (Ans) ?????

c. tricuspid regurgitation

d. Mitral stenosis

41. inhalational anaesthtic given with Calcium channel blocker will cause
a. Hypertension

b. Tachtcardia

c. Hypotension (Ans) (malignant hyperthermia ll b better option)

42. The diameter of an i/v cannula is doubled. The flow will increase by factor of

a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16 (Ans) e. 32

43. Ketamine is given in dressing of burn patients because

a. it is a good anaesthetic

b. it is a powerful analgesic (Ans)

c. it causes amnesia

44. Atropine exerts its effects by

a. competitively binding to Acetylcholine receptor (Ans)

b. increasing ACh degradation

c. inhibiting release of ACh from presynaptic receptors

aa correct

45. Verapamil is

a. Dihydropyridine

b. Non- Dihydropyridine (Ans) + diltiazem

46. Patient has muscle weakness. On investigation, anti calcium channel antibodies were found. He is

suffering from

a. Duschene atrophy

b. Beckers atrophy

c. Lamber-Eaton syndrome (Ans)

d. Myasthenia gravis

47. drug given for Sub Arachnoid hemorrhage is

a. Nimodipine (Ans)
b. Nefidipine

c. Verapamil

d. Amlodipine

48.a c interval in jvp relates to which phase of cardiac cycle?

a. diastole

b. ventricular depolarization

c. systole (Ans)

49.ECG of a patient shows QRS waves with low height and U waves. What is the electrolyte imbalance?

a. hypokalemia (Ans)

b. hyperkalemia

c. hypercalcemia

d. hyponatremia

50.Half life of nitric oxide is

a.10-15sec

b.30-45min

c. 3-5min (Ans)not sure about this

nitric oxide half life is 6-10 sec

while nitrous oxide half life is 5 mints

1) Patient experiences difficulty in breathing post operatively. Which drug is responsible?

Pentozocine

Halothane ??? as it cuses sptum retention ?

Diazepam

Suxa

2) Patient has hypotonia with an UMN lesion. Which area is damaged?

Cerebellum
Basal Ganglia

Cerebrum

3) Suxa is not used in patients with burn wounds because of

Hyperkalemia

4) Ketamine is used in burns dressings because

Potent analgesic

5) Induction would be slower than expected in patients with

Shock

Anemia

Liver failure

Renal failure

Right to left shunt???

6) Patient on chemo. Drug given as an anti emetic would be?

Ondensetron

Metaclopramide

Domperidone

7) Cimetadine increases the affect of Warfarin because

Decreases its metabolism by the liver

8) Cimetadine reduces acid production by the stomach by

Blocking H2 receptors

9) Sodium cromoglycate is used

To treat bronchial asthma

To prevent bronchial asthma prophylaxis

10) Which of the following can be used in the same vaporizer successively : Halothane and en in floutec
4 ??? not in option

Isoflurane and Enflurane


Halothane and sevoflurane

Halothane and Isoflurane

Halothane and desflurane

11) Plasma drug concentration depends on

Rate of clearance

Volume of distribution

12) Isoflurane is not used in cardiac patients because

It induces the coronary steal syndrome Ref ajay yadav

It is a potent vasodilator

It is a direct myocardial depressant

13) Person is allergic to Procaine and Bupivacaine. Which LA is best for him?

Lidocaine

Cocaine

Prilocaine

14) When should antibiotics be started in an immunocompromised patient?

After settling down of fever with anti pyretics.

After determination of the susceptible organism by the lab.

After samples are taken from him.

15) Patient experiences post op intestinal paresis. Drug to be used?

Metaclopramide

16) Max amount of N2O concentration allowed inside the OT by the National Institute of blah blah blah?
(Not

sure of the options in this one!)

5ppm

10ppm

50ppm (25 is right)


500pm

1000ppm

17) Respiratory irritation caused by?

Desflurane under 1 MAC

Isoflurane

18) Effect of digoxin as an anti arrhythmic on cardiac conduction? Inhibition of Na-k ATPase, inc
intracellulr Na, inc contractilty

19) Used for scrubbing?

Chlorhexidine?

Gluteraldehyde

20) Skin disinfectant?

Chlorhexidine?

Gluteraldehyde

21) Abnormal curvature of lumbar region? If lateral then

Scoliosis

Lordosis

Kyphosis

Normal curvature

22) Proper handling of oxygen cylinders.

23) A female patient makes wears revealing clothing and tries to get touchy with a male doctor. What
should

he do?

Refuse to check her.

Ask her questions regarding her problem.

Call in a nurse.

24) Pressure exerted by nitrogen (or was it Nitrous Oxide?! :s) at sea level? 1013mbar.. or equal to
100kPA
25) Suxa:

Stable in solution

Potentiates affects of Atracurium

26) Anaphylactic shock, drug used?

Adrenaline

28) Onset of action of LA depends on?

Pka

MAC

Vd

Protein binding

29) Henderson hasselbalch equation was given. We wrte asked about the ratio of ions i think.

30) Limb ataxia, ptosis and loss of pain and temperature. Artery damaged?

PICA

ASA

Posterior cerebraL

Also called ant spinal artery syndrome

Bilateral deficit of spinothalamic causing sensory deficit ,bilateral corticospnl tract causing motor
deficit

31) 4 nuclei in the spinal cord and their tracts. No idea about this one!

32) Thumb and the little finger's relationship to each other and to nucleus cuneatus amd gracilis. The
question

asked something like which is medial or lateral or dorsal or ventral. I had no idea about this one either.
Medial and ltrl cuneatus

33) Morphine

Increases gastric emptying time

Decreases tone of intestinal sphincters

Increases gastric emptying


Increases intestinal motility

34) Aspirin's anti platelet function TA2

COX 1 inhibition

35) Albuterol is a drug used to treat Asthma. It targets which receptors?

B2

36) COX 2 inhibitor

Celecoxib

37) Edrophonium increases effect of which drug? (side effect is nausea , 2016 nvmbr paper )

Suxa

Tubocurarine

Atracurium

38) Tetanus prevention in population:

Toxoid

39) External jugular vein and its relations.

40) Indomethacin

Used to prevent gouty attacks

Closes patent PDA

41) Mechanism of action of heparin act via antithrombin 3 , activate facter 10a

42) Mechanism of action of Warfarin act on prothrombin, inhibit facter 2,7,9,10

43) Fibroblasts

Reticular fibers only

Connective tissue

Elastic fiber

Is most common connective tissue , secrete collagen nd extra cellulr matrix

44) Flow through an orifice


Velocity dependent

Density dependent

Viscosity dependent

45) CVP measurement

Open manometer with mineral oil?

46) Cerebellum

Purkinje CELLS are the only output TRUEE

47) Pregnant female, normal Hb, changes in hematocrit:

Normal physiological change

48) Ventilation difference in the lung.

(Lower at apex, higher at base)

v/q ratio is highest at apex

49) Marker used to measure plasma volume:

PAH

Evans blue

50) Glucose absorption at the luminal side of nephron:

Simple diffusion

Facilitated diffusion

Co transport

Counter transport

51) Use of loop diuretics

In hypercalciuria

Pulmonary edema

52) Inhibits gastric emptying

CCK
53) Progesterone produced during last 7 months of pregnancy

Placenta

Corpus luteum

54) Sequence of intercostal nerve and vessels (cephalad to caudal)

VAN

NAV

55) Fastest conduction

Purkinje fibers

SA node

AV node

56) Structure which traverses the superficial inguinal ring?

Ilioinguinal nerve

Iliohypogastric nerve

57) Structure formed by the thickening of lower border of aponeurosis of external oblique muscle

Lacunar ligament

Inguinal ligament

58) Laminae of adjacent vertebrae are connected by

Interspinous ligament

Posterior longitudinal ligament

Ligamentum flavum

Intervertebral disc

59) Question on rotameter

60) BISS index/monitor or something. Depth of anesthesia

61) Captopril's mechanism of action in HF dec preload nd aftrload, leading to dec in cardiac output,
dec blood volume ( march 2017)

62) Greatest resistance offererd by a connector is when?


The options referred to the various shapes and angles of a connector.

Right angle connecter with side suction tube

63) Obese diabetic, drug which should be prescribed to him?

Metformin

64) Diabetic drug leaving metallic taste in mouth.

Metformin

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