IIMCATWALK presents Endeavor Mock CAT 2

INSTRUCTIONS

Before the Test:

1. DO NOT REMOVE THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL TO START IS
GIVEN.
2. Keep only Pencil, Sharpener, Eraser and ballpoint pen with you. DO NOT KEEP with you
books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators, cellular phone, pagers,
stopwatches or any other devices or loose papers.
3. Use only HB pencil to fill in the Answer sheet.

At the start of Test:

1. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the booklet.

2. This booklet contains 29 printed pages excluding the front page and blank pages provided
for rough work.
3. Please check whether all the pages are printed properly. In case of any problem with the
booklet, contact the invigilator immediately.

How to answer:

1. This test has three sections, which examine various abilities. In all, there are 135
questions. You will be given two hours to complete the test. In distributing the time over the
three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all
the three sections.
2. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read
these directions carefully and answer the question by darkening the appropriate circles on
the answer sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question.
3. Each section carries 50 marks. Each section is divided into sub-sections. Section 1 is
divided into three sub-sections 1A, 1B and 1C. Each question of Section 1A carries
mark each for first 8 question and 1 mark each for the rest of the questions while in 1B all
the questions carries 2 marks each. Section 2 is divided into two parts 2A and 2B. Section
2A carries mark each for first 8 question and 1 mark each for the rest of the questions
and in 2B all the questions are of 2 marks each. Section three is divided into two parts 3A
and 3B. Section 3A carries 1 mark each and 3B carries 2 marks each. Wrong answers
carry negative marks.
4. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the answer sheet.

After the Test:

1. At the end of test, remain seated. The invigilator will collect the Answer Sheet from your
seat. Do not leave the room until the invigilator announces to do so.

Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving assistance from any source in answering

questions or copying in any manner in the test will be asked to leave the room and the
candidate will have no right to argue.

CAT 05 / EMC / 3
 IIMCATWALK presents Endeavor Mock CAT 2

Section 1
Subsection 1A: Questions 1- 8 carry half marks each and questions 9 to 38 carry 1 mark each

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-8) : Each question has a main statement followed by four statements labeled A, B, C
and D. Choose the ordered pair of statements where the first statement implies the second and the two
statements together are logically consistent with the main statement.

1. All those who are insane, would either read this or answer this.

(A) You read this but you did not answer this
(B) You are not insane
(C) You answered this but you did not read this
(D) You are insane

(1) AB (2) BA (3) DC (4) CD

2 When it is night, it is dark and also cloudy

(A) It is neither dark nor cloudy

(B) It is not night
(C) It is a dark and clear sky
(D) It is night

(1) AB (2) CB (3) Both (4) None of these

3 Whoever climbs the mountain is kicked from the summit

(A) Taziz was kicked from the summit

(B) Taziz was not kicked from the summit
(C) Taziz climbed the mountain
(D) Taziz did not climb the mountain

(1) AC (2) CA (3) BD (4) DB

4 When I say its correct, it turns out to be wrong and when I say its not correct it turns out to be not
wrong

(A) I said that its not correct

(B) It turned out to be wrong
(C) I said that its correct
(D) It turned out to be not wrong

(1) AD (2) BC (3) AB (4) None of these

5 Whenever any person is ill, he runs fever otherwise he is born-ill

(A) Nitika is running fever

(B) Nitika is born-ill
(C) Nitika is not running fever
(D) Nitika is ill

(1) AD (2) CB (3) BC (4) None of these

6 Whenever employees get their salary, they clear the pending bills or they do not take the salary.

(A) Monica cleared the pending bills

(B) Monica did not take the salary
(C) Monica did not clear pending bills
(D) Monica got the salary

(1) AD (2) CB (3) BC (4) None of these

CAT 05 / EMC / 3
 IIMCATWALK presents Endeavor Mock CAT 2

7 The one who works hard fails in the exam

(A) Arun worked hard

(B) Arun did not work hard
(C) Arun failed in the exam
(D) Arun passed in the exam

(1) BD (2) DB (3) AD (4) None of these

8 Any body who writes the CAT second time, clears it

(A) Mr. Mouse wrote the CAT for the first time.
(B) Mr. Mouse could not clear the CAT.
(C) Mr. Mouse could clear the CAT in his second attempt
(D) Mr. Mouse did not appear in CAT for the second time.

(1) AB (2) BD (3) DB (4) None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 9 and 10: Each question has a set of four statements. Each statement has
three segments. Choose the alternative where the third segment in the statement can be logically deduced
using both the preceding two, but not just from one of them.

9. A. Many singers are not writers. All poets are singers. Some poets are not writers.
B. Giants climb beanstalks. Some chicken do not climb beanstalks. Some chicken are not giants.
C. All explorers live in snowdrifts. Some penguins live in snowdrifts. Some penguins are explores.
D. Amar is taller than Akbar. Anthony is shorter than Amar. Akbar is shorter than Anthony

(1) A only (2) B only (3) B and C (4) D only

10. A. A few farmers are rocket scientists. Some rocket scientists catch snakes. A few
farmers catch snakes.
B. Poonam is a kangaroo. Some kangaroos are made of teak. Poonam is made of teak.
C. No bulls eat grass. All matadors eat grass. No maradors are bulls.
D. Some skunks drive Cadillacs. All skunks are polar bears. Some polar bears drive Cadillacs.

(1) B only (2) A and C (3) C only (4) C and D

DIRECTION for questions 11 to 14: A and B are two sets (e.g., A = mothers, B = women). The elements
that could belong to both the sets (e.g., women who are mother) is given by the set C = A.B. The elements
which could belong to either A or B, or both, is indicated by the set D = AOB. A set that does not contain any
elements is known as a null set, represented by (for example, if none of the women in the set B is a
mother, then C = A.B is a null set, or C = ).

Let V signify the set of all vertebrates; m the set of all mammals; D dogs; F fish; a alsatian and P, a
dog named Pluto.

11. Given that X = M.D, such that X = D, which of the following is true?

1. All dogs are mammals.

2. Some dogs are mammals.
3. X = .
4. All mammals are dogs.

12. If Y = F. (D.V) is not a null set, it implies that

1. All fish are vertebrates.

2. All dogs are vertebrates.
3. Some fish are dogs.
4. None of the above.

CAT 05 / EMC / 3
 IIMCATWALK presents Endeavor Mock CAT 2

13. If Z = (P.D)OM, then

1. The elements of Z consist of Pluto the dog or any other mammal.

2. Z implies any dog or mammal.
3. Z implies Pluto or any dog that is a mammal.
4. Z is a null set.

14. If P.A. = and POA = D, then which of the following is true?

1. Pluto and alsatians are dogs.

2. Pluto is an alsatian.
3. Pluto is not an alsatian.
4. D is a null set.

Directions for Questions (15-19): Refer to the following

STATE AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT EMPLOYMENT AND SALARY, BY OCCUPATION AND SEX, 1977
By Occupation (100 % = 4,415,000)

Official/ Administrative
Service/ Maintenance 5%
18%
Professional
18%

Skilled Craft
9%

Technical
10%

Office/ Clerical
18%
Protective Service
14%
Paraprofessional
8%

Female As a Percent of the Total By Occupation

Median Annual All Occupations 38

Salary
(Follows the order Official/ Administrative 20.7
given in the adjacent
bar graph) Professional 41.7

Male Female
Technical 34.2
$12,390 $9,093
Protective Service 6.6
18,723 14,066
Paraprofessional 67.7
15,740 12,650
12,885 9,445 Office/ Clerical 86.2

13,622 9,827 Skilled Craft 6.1

9,054 7,761
Service/ Maintenance 17.4
9,723 8,456
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
11,657 8,892
Percent
9,547 7,307

CAT 05 / EMC / 3
 IIMCATWALK presents Endeavor Mock CAT 2

15. Approximately what percent of state and local government employees were male?

(1) 38% (2) 52% (3) 58% (4) 62%

16. State and local governments employed approximately how many more office/clerical employees
than skilled craft employees?

(1) 384,000 (2) 397,500 (3) 650,500 (4) 825,600

17. For state and local government employees, the median annual salary for males was approximately
what percent greater than that for females?

(1) 30% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 35%

18. For state and local government employees, approximately what was the difference between the
number of females employed as professionals and the number of females employed in
service/maintenance occupations?

(1) 75,000 (2) 185,000 (3) 265,000 (4) 1,070,000

19. Which of the following statements about state and local government employees can be inferred from
the data?
1
I. Fewer than of those in paraprofessional occupations were males.
3
II. There were more than 5 times the number of females in the technical occupations as in the
skilled craft occupations.
III. There were more than 6 times the number of females in the professional occupations as in
the official/administrative occupations.

(1) I only (2) II only (3) I and II only (4) I, II and III

DIRECTIONS for questions 20 to 22: There are six companies, 1 through 6. All of these companies use six
operations, A through F. The following graph shows the distribution of effort put in by each company in these
six operations.

120
% Distribution of Effort

100
15.7
22.2 18.2 23.4 19.7 17.6 F
80 E
23.5 21.8 23.6
25.9 28.6
28.6 D
60
15.7
7.4
16.3
7.7
11.8 C
11.2
40 9.8 9.3 10.9 13 13.8 B
8.2
17.6 16.7 16.4 10.3 16.1 17.6 A
20
17.7 18.5 16.4 18.5 15.1 15.6
0
1 2 3 4 5 6

20. Suppose effort allocation is interchanged between operation B and C, then C and D, and then D and
E. If companies are then ranked in ascending order of effort in E, what will be the rank of company
3?

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

CAT 05 / EMC / 3
 IIMCATWALK presents Endeavor Mock CAT 2

21. A new technology is introduced in company 4, such that the total effort for operations B through F
gets evenly distributed among these. What is the change in the percentage of effort in operation E ?

(1) Reduction of 12.3 (2) Increase of 12.3

(3) Reduction of 5.6 (4) Increase of 5.6

22. Suppose the companies find that they can remove operations B, C and D and re-distribute the effort
released equally among the remaining operations. Then, which operation will show the maximum
across all companies and all operations?

(1) Operations E in company 1 (2) Operation E in company 4

(3) Operation E in company 5 (4) Operation E in company 6

Directions for questions 23 26. The figures given below give the information about the gross fixed
assets, revenue receipts, gross profits, net profits and shareholders funds of an India company. Answer the
questions below on the basis of the information provided in these graphs.

G RO SS FIXED ASSETS Gross profits

10000
9000 1600
8000 1400
7000 1200
Rs. in lacs
Rs. in lacs

6000 1000
5000 800
4000 600
3000 400
2000 200
1000 0
0
1979 1981 1983 1985 1987
1979 1981 1983 1985 1987
Years Years

NET PROFITS Gross profits

600 1600
500 1400
1200
Rs. in lacs

400
Rs. in lacs

1000
300 800
200 600
400
100 200
0 0
1979 1981 1983 1985 1987 1979 1981 1983 1985 1987
Years Years

SHARE HOLDER'S FUND

5000
4000
Rs.in lacs

3000
2000
1000
0
1979 1981 1983 1985 1987
Years
6

CAT 05 / EMC / 3
 IIMCATWALK presents Endeavor Mock CAT 2

23. Which of the following showed maximum percentage increase in any one value over the previous
value?

(1) Gross Profits (2) Net profits

(3) Shareholders funds (4) Gross fixed assets

24. The ratio of the net profit to the gross fixed assets was minimum in which year?

(1) 1987 (2) 1983 (3) 1981 (4) 1979

25. The ratio of the average value over the five years shown to the maximum value in 1987 is maximum
for which of the following?

(1) Net profits (2) Revenue receipts (3) Shareholders funds (4) Gross fixed assets

26. The average gross profits are what percent of the average revenue receipts for the five years
shown?

(1) 7.22% (2) 8.87% (3) 10.8% (4) 11.67%

Directions for questions 27 30: In a company XYZ pvt ltd, each workmen is paid on a base rate (for 0-4
hrs @ x Rs/hr) depending on their efficiency. Weekly hour requirement per workman per day and their wage
formula are given below. Answer the following questions on the basis of the given information:

12
HOURS WORKED

10
8
6
4
2
0
M T W Th F S
DAYS

0 4 Hours : Rs.x per hour

Next 4 Hours : 20% extra (per hour) over Rs.x
Next 4 Hours : 45% extra (per hour) over Rs.x

27. Ramesh one of the workmen came to work only on Thursday. If in Rameshs case base rate is
Rs.12 then his salary for the week was

(1) Rs.156.40 (2) Rs.182.20 (3) Rs.175.20 (4) none of these

28. Ganesh a third workman works on only 3 days of the week (for him x = 10). If he earned Rs.228
then he most likely worked on

(1) Monday, Wednesday and Friday (2) Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday
(3) Tuesday, Thursday and Saturday (4) Thursday, Friday and Saturday

29. Mukesh wanted to earn exactly Rs.205. If his hourly rate was Rs.20 then on which day should he
have come to work.

(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) Thursday (4) Friday

30. If the company plans to change the policy next year and has the following four options which of them
will reduce wage bill by maximum value?

CAT 05 / EMC / 3
 IIMCATWALK presents Endeavor Mock CAT 2

(1) 0 4 hrs : Rs x per hour ; Next 4 hrs: 30%; Next 4 hrs: 30%
(2) 0 4 hrs : Rs x per hour ; Next 4 hrs: 25%; Next 4 hrs: 40%
(3) 0 4 hrs : Rs x per hour ; Next 4 hrs: 15%; Next 4 hrs: 60%
(4) 0 4 hrs : Rs x per hour ; Next 4 hrs: 10%; Next 4 hrs:90%

DIRECTIONS for questions 31-38: Each question is followed by two statements. You have to decide
whether the information provided in the statements is sufficient for answering the questions.

Mark 1 If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered
using the other statement alone.
Mark 2 If the question can be answered using either statement alone.
Mark 3 If the question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered
using one statement alone.
Mark 4 If the question cannot be answered by using both statement together.

31. A thread 21 inches long is cut into three pieces. What is the length of the longest piece?

(1) One piece is 11 inches long

(2) One piece is 5 inches long, other pieces are even numbered in length.

32. There are four envelopes E1, E2, E3 , E4 in which one was supposed to put letters L1, L2 , L3 , L4
meant for C1, C2, C3 , C4 respectively but by mistake the letters got jumbled up and went in wrong
envelopes. Now if C2 is allowed to open an envelope at random then how will he identify the
envelope containing the letter for him?

(1) L2 has been put in E1.

(2) The letter belonging to C3 has gone in the correct envelope.

33. Is x>0 ?

(1) xy>0 (2) x-y>0

34. In the five term series 3, A, B, N, 12 find the value of N.

(1) The third term is twice the first term

(2) The fourth term is twice the second term

35. How many of the integers a, b, c and d are odd?

(1) The product of a, b, c and d is odd

(2) The Sum of a, b, c and d is even

36. What are the values of m and n?

(1) n is an even integer, m is an odd integer, and m is greater than n.

(2) Product of m and n is 30.

37. Is Country Xs GDP higher than country Y's GDP?

(1) GDPs of the countries X and Y have grown over the past five years at compounded annual
rate of 57% and 67% respectively.
(2) Five years ago, GDP of country X was higher than that of country Y.

38. What is the value of X ?

(1) X and Y are unequal even integers, less than 10, and X/Y is an odd integer.
(2) X and Y are even integers, each less than 10, and product of X and Y is 12.

CAT 05 / EMC / 3
 IIMCATWALK presents Endeavor Mock CAT 2

Section 1C
Questions 39-46 carry two marks each
DIRECTIONS for Questions 39 42 : Given below is the answer sheet of CAT 2005 paper. The paper
contains three sections of 50 questions each. Questions 1 to 50 form Section A i.e. Verbal Ability Section.
Questions 51 to 100 form Section B i.e. Quantitative Aptitude Section. Questions 101 to150 form Section C
i.e. Data Interpretation Section.
Section A Section B Section C
Question no Answer Question no Answer Question no Answer
1 1 51 1 101 2
2 4 52 1 102 4
3 2 53 2 103 1
4 1 54 3 104 2
5 3 55 1 105 1
6 3 56 2 106 4
7 2 57 1 107 2
8 3 58 4 108 1
9 4 59 4 109 2
10 2 60 1 110 3
11 3 61 3 111 4
12 1 62 2 112 4
13 2 63 3 113 1
14 4 64 3 114 4
15 1 65 3 115 3
16 4 66 4 116 1
17 1 67 2 117 2
18 3 68 3 118 3
19 2 69 1 119 2
20 1 70 4 120 1
21 2 71 2 121 3
22 4 72 1 122 3
23 3 73 3 123 2
24 2 74 3 124 4
25 2 75 2 125 1
26 1 76 2 126 4
27 4 77 1 127 2
28 3 78 2 128 4
29 4 79 2 129 3
30 4 80 4 130 2
31 3 81 1 131 1
32 2 82 1 132 1
33 3 83 4 133 2
34 1 84 4 134 2
35 3 85 2 135 1
36 2 86 2 136 3
37 4 87 3 137 4
38 1 88 4 138 2
39 2 89 2 139 3
40 1 90 4 140 2
41 4 91 1 141 3
42 4 92 4 142 1
43 2 93 4 143 4
44 3 94 3 144 1
45 4 95 3 145 3
46 2 96 3 146 4
47 1 97 1 147 3
48 4 98 2 148 3
49 1 99 1 149 4
50 3 100 2 150 2
9

CAT 05 / EMC / 3
 IIMCATWALK presents Endeavor Mock CAT 2

39. Chandu ram has not prepared for CAT 2005 and he decides that he will mark answers in the pattern
123412341234If every correct question fetches 1 mark and every wrong answer fetches 0.25
what will be his net score?

(1) >40 (2) >0 (3) <0 (4) 0

40. If Chandu ram would have adopted a different strategy and marked 1 as an answer for each
question, he would have score maximum in which section, marking remaining same as in question
39?

(1) Verbal Ability (2) Data Interpretation

(3) Quantitative Aptitude (4) Both Verbal Ability and Data Interpretation

41. If Chandu ram aims to score equal in each section what option should he mark, if he decides that he
will attempt all the questions and mark the same option in all the questions?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

42. If Chandu ram decides that he will attempt all the questions and will mark only one option, which
option will fetch him the maximum marks

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

DIRECTIONS for questions 43-46: Read the passages and answer the questions based on the information
given.

43. A merchant ship was sighted and the pirates were closing in to attack when a giant sea serpent was
seen close to the pirate ship. Captain Lafoot quickly gave orders to change course and approach
what appeared to be an island that would serve as a temporary refuge. What all hands thought to be
terra firma was in reality a fish of immense size known as an island fish. This monsters method
was to float on the surface, giving the appearance of an island, and engulf its unsuspecting prey as
it came near.

From the statements A to E find out how large the fish was and what was the result of the
encounter?

A. If the island fish were one or three leagues long and wide, then a freak cyclone lifted the pirate
ship and deposited it out of the reach of the giant fish.
B. If the island fish were not one or four leagues long and wide, then it was so large and slow that it
could not move quickly enough to catch the fleet pirate ship.
C. If the island fish were four leagues long and wide, then it had just consumed three sailing ships
and a whale, so was not interested in the pirate ship.
D. If a freak cyclone lifted the pirate ship and deposited it out of the reach of the gigantic fish, then
it was three leagues long and wide.
E. If the great fish had just consumed three sailing ships and a whale, so was not interested in the
pirate ship, then it was two leagues long and wide.

(1) The fish was two leagues long and wide and too slow to catch the pirate ship.
(2) The fish was four leagues long and uninterested.
(3) The fish was four leagues long and it consumed the ship
(4) Cannot be determined

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CAT 05 / EMC / 3
 IIMCATWALK presents Endeavor Mock CAT 2

44. During an uneventful period on the open sea, Captain Lafoot and his four mates decided to try their
skill with muskets. They placed target behind the forecastle and, keeping score, they took turns
shooting at it. Based on the following statements, what was Captain Lafoots rank?

(A) Captain Lafoot did not rank third unless Red Beard ranked fifth.
(B) If Long John ranked second, then Black Jack did not rank either first or third.
(C) If Will Kidd did not rank first, then Red Beard ranked second and Long John ranked fourth.
(D) If Black Jack did not rank first, then Long John ranked second and Captain Lafoot ranked
fourth.
(E) If Black Jack did not rank second, then neither did Captain Lafoot nor Red Beard, unless Will
Kidd ranked fourth.

(1) first (2) second (3) fifth (4) fourth

45. Captain Lafoot spied a merchant ship and prepared to give chase. Again the pirates were
interrupted, as a giant octopus rose from the depths and fastened its powerful tentacles on the pirate
ship. Just as the ship was about to be pulled beneath the surface by the octopus, a further menace,
the sea serpent, appeared. It attacked the giant octopus, which released the pirate ship, enabling it
to flee to safety. The two monsters were so large and ferocious and the experience so frightening
that, of Captain Lafoot and his four mates, the hair on the heads of two of them turned white. From
the statements A to F that follow, whose hair turned white?

(A) If Will Kidds hair turned white, then Red Beards hair turned white.
(B) If Black Jacks hair turned white, then Red Beards hair did not turn white.
(C) If Long Johns hair turned white, then Captain Lafoots hair did not turn white.
(D) Will Kidds hair turned white, if Captain Lafoots hair turned white.
(E) If Red Beards hair turned white, then Long Johns hair did not turn white.
(F) If Captain Lafoots hair did not turn white, then Black Jacks hair did not turn white.

(1) Lafoot & Black Jack

(2) Red Beard only
(3) Red Beard and Will Kidd
(4) Cannot be determined

46. The ominous sight of the sea serpent, for a third time, caused the crew to prepare for battle. As the
monster reared its head alongside the ship, all hands fought valiantly. The sea serpent was finally
force to retreat, and it fled the area. Among the Captain and his four mates, two fought with
muskets, two fought with cutlasses, and one fought with a dagger. Using the information, what was
the weapon of Captain Lafoot?

(A) Long John fought using a musket, unless Will Kidd did not fight using a dagger.
(B) Black Jack fought using a cutlass, unless Captain Lafoot did not fight using a dagger.
(C) If Red Beard fought using a musket, then Long John fought using a cutlass.
(D) If Captain Lafoot did not fight using a cutlass, then Red Beard fought using a cutlass and Long
John fought using a dagger.
(E) Will Kidd fought using a dagger, unless neither Red Beard nor Long John fought using a
cutlass.
(F) If Will Kidd fought using a musket, then Captain Lafoot did not fight using either a musket or a
cutlass.
(G) If Black Jack fought using a dagger, then neither Red Beard nor Captain Lafoot fought using a
cutlass.

(1) Dagger (2) Cutlass (3) Musket (4) cannot be determined

11

CAT 05 / EMC / 3
 IIMCATWALK presents Endeavor Mock CAT 2

Section 2A

Questions 47-54 carry half mark each and rest of the questions of section 2A carry 1 mark each.

"Between the year 1946 and the year 1955, I did not file any income tax returns." With that [47] statement,
Ramesh embarked on an account of his encounter with the Income Tax Department. "I originally owed Rs.
20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [48] and [49], the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income Tax Department then
went into action, and I learned first hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and
trust funds can be [50]; automobiles may be [51], and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [52] until the
case is settled."

47. (1) devious (2) blunt (3) tactful (4) pretentious

48. (1) interest (2) taxes (3) principal (4) returns
49. (1) sanctions (2) refunds (3) fees (4) fines
50. (1) closed (2) detached (3) attached (4) impounded
51. (1) smashed (2) seized (3) dismantled (4) frozen
52. (1) purchaser (2) victim (3) investor (4) offender

In a large company, (53) people is about as common as using a gun or a switch-blade to (54) an argument.
As a result, most managers have little or no experience of firing people, and they find it emotionally
traumatic; as result, they often delay the act interminably, much as an unhappy spouse will prolong a bad
marriage. And when the firing is done, it's often done clumsily, with far worse side effects than are
necessary. Do the world-class software organizations have a different way of firing people? No, but they do
the deed swiftly, humanely, and professionally.

53. (1) dismissing (2) punishing (3) firing (4) admonishing

54. (1) resolve (2) thwart (3) defeat (4) close

DIRECTIONS for Questions 55 to 57: In each of the following questions, a part / two of a sentence has
been left blank. You are to select from among the four options given below each question, the one that
would best fill the blanks.

55. Though one eye is kept firmly on the_____the company now also promotes ______ contemporary art.

(1) present, experimental (2) future, popular

(3) present, popular (4) market, popular

56. The law prohibits a person from cutting a sandalwood tree, even if it grows on one's own land, without
prior permission from the government. As poor people cannot deal with the government, this legal
provision leads to a rip-roaring business for _________, who care neither for the_______, nor for the
trees.

(1) middlemen, rich (2) the government, poor (3) touts, rich (4) touts, poor

57. It will take some time for many South Koreans to________the conflicting images of North Korea, let
alone to_______ what to make of their northern cousins.

(1) reconcile, decide (2) understand, clarify

(3) make out, decide (4) reconcile, understand

DIRECTIONS for questions 58 to 60: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is
underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated.
Choose the best alternative from among the four.

58. With the pick-up in the standard of education, expensive private schools have started blooming up in
every corner of the country.

1. started blooming in every corner of the country

2. have started mushrooming all over the country
3. have mushroomed all over the country
4. have blossomed all over the country
12

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59. Many of these environmentalists proclaim to save nothing less than the planet itself.

1. to save nothing lesser than

2. that they are saving nothing lesser than
3. to save nothing less than
4. that they save nothing less than

60. Bacon believes that the medical profession should be permitted to ease and quicken death where
the end would otherwise only delay for a few days and at the cost of great pain.

1. be delayed for a few days

2. be delayed for a few days and
3. be otherwise only delayed for a few days and
4. otherwise only delay for a few days and

Directions for Questions 61 to 63: In each of the following questions, the given word is used in four
different ways, numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or
INAPPROPRIATE.

61. Sort

1. Let's sort these boys into four groups

2. They serve tea of a sort on these trains
3. Farmers of all sort attended the rally.
4. What sort of cheese do you use in pizza?

62. Host

1. A virus has infected the host computer.

2. Ranchi will play the host to the next national film festival.
3. Kerala's forests are host to a range of snakes.
4. If you host the party, who will foot the bill.

63. Implication

1. Death, by implication, is the only solution the poem offers the reader.
2. Several members of the audience missed the implication of the minister's promise.
3. This letter will lead to the implication of several industrialists in the share market scam.
4. Everyone appreciated the headmaster's implication in raising flood relief in the village.

DIRECTIONS (Ques.64 to 66): Read each of the short passages given below and answer the question that
follows it.

64. Szymanski suggests that the problem of racism in football may be present even today. He begins by
verifying an earlier hypothesis that clubs wage bills explain 90% of their performance. Thus, if players'
salaries were to be only based on their abilities, clubs that spend more should finish higher. If there is
pay discrimination against some group of players-fewer teams bidding for black players thus lowering
the salaries for blacks with the same ability as whites-that neat relation may no longer hold. He
concludes that certain clubs seem to have achieved much less than what they could have, by not
recruiting black players.
Which one of the following findings would best support Szymanski's conclusion?

1. Certain clubs took advantage of the situational hiring above-average shares of black players.
2. Clubs hired white players at relatively high wages and did not show proportionately good
performance.
3. During the study period, clubs in towns with a history of discrimination against blacks, under
performed relative to their wage bills
4. Clubs in one region, which had higher proportions of black players, had significantly lower wage
bills than their counterparts, in another region, which had predominantly white players.

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65. The pressure on Italy's 257 jails has been increasing rapidly. Those jails are old and overcrowded.
They are supposed to hold up to 43,000 people---9,000 fewer than now. San Vittore in Milan, which
has 1,800 inmates, is designed for 800. The number of foreigners inside jails has also been
increasing. The minister in charge of prisons fears that tensions may snap, and so has recommended
to government an amnesty policy .
Which one of the following, if true, would have most influenced the recommendation of the minister?

1. Opinion polls have indicated that many Italians favour a general pardon.
2. The opposition may be persuaded to help since amnesties must be approved by a two-thirds
majority in parliament.
3. During a recent visit to a large prison, the Pope whose pronouncements are taken seriously,
appealed for 'a gesture of clemency'.
4. Shortly before the recommendation was made, 58 prisons reported disturbances in a period of
two weeks.

66. The offer of the government to make iodised salt available at a low price of one rupee per kilo is
welcomed, especially since the government seems to be so concerned about the ill effects of
noniodised salt. But it is doubtful whether the offer will actually be implemented. Way back in 1994,
the governmental methods for reducing the costs of iodisation to about five paise per kilo were
reported. But these reports have remained just those-reports on paper.
Which one of the following, if true most weakens the author's contention that it is doubtful whether the
offer will be actually implemented?

1. The government proposes to save on costs by using the three methods it has already devised
for iodisation.
2. The chain of fair-price distribution outlets now covers all the districts of the state.
3. Many small-scale and joint sector units have completed trials to use the three iodisation
methods for regular production.
4. The government which initiated the earlier effort is in place even today and has more
information on the effects of non-iodised salt.

DIRECTIONS (Ques. 67 to 69): Arrange the sentences A, B, C, D and E to form a logical sequence.

67.
A. If caught in the act, they were punished, not for the crime, but for allowing themselves to be
caught with another lash of the whip.
B. The bellicose Spartans sacrificed all the finer things in life for military expertise.
C. Those fortunate enough to survive babyhood were taken away from their mothers at the age of
seven to undergo rigorous military training.
D. This consisted mainly of beatings and deprivations of all kinds like going around barefoot in
winter, and worse starvation so that they would be forced to steal food to survive.
E. Male children were examined at birth by the city council and those deemed to weak to become
soldiers were left to die or exposure.

(1) BECDA (2) ECADB (3) BCDAE (4) ECDAB

68.
A. This very insatiability of the photographing eye changes the terms of confinement in the cave,
our world.
B. Humankind lingers unregenerately in Plato's cave, still revelling, its age-old habit, in mere
images of truth.
C. But being educated by photographs is not like being educated by older images drawn by hand;
for one thing, there are a great many more images around, claiming our attention.
D. The inventory started in 1839 and since then just about everything has been photographed, or
so it seems.
E. In teaching us a new visual code, photographs alter and enlarge our notions of what is worth
looking at and what we have a right to observe.

(1) EABCD (2) BDEAC (3) BCDAE (4) ECDAB

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69.
A. To be culturally literate is to possess the basic information needed to thrive in the modern world
B. Nor is it confined to one social class; quite the contrary.
C. It is by no means confined to "culture" narrowly understood as an acquaintance with the arts.
D. Cultural literacy constitutes the only sure avenue of opportunity for disadvantaged children, the
only reliable way of combating the social determinism that now condemns them.
E. The breadth of that information is great, extending over the major domains of human activity
from sports to science.

(1) AECBD (2) DECBA (3) ACBDE (4) DBCAE

DIRECTIONS for questions (70 - 90): Each passage in this section is followed by questions based on its
contents. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and fill in the corresponding
oval on the answer sheet.
Passage 1

Computer programmers often remark that computing machines, with a perfect lack of discrimination, will do
any foolish thing they are told to do. The reason for this lies, of course, in the narrow fixation of the
computing machines intelligence on the details of its own perceptions its inability to be guided by any
large context. In a psychological description of the computer intelligence, three related adjectives come to
mind: single-minded, literal-minded, and simpleminded. Recognizing this, we should at the same time
recognize that this single-mindedness, literal-mindedness, and simple-mindedness also characterizes
theoretical mathematics, though to a less extent.

Since science tries to deal with reality, even the most precise sciences normally work with more or less
imperfectly understood approximations toward which scientists must maintain an appropriate skepticism.
Thus, for instance, it may come as a shock to mathematicians to learn the Schrodinger equation for the
hydrogen atom is not a literally correct description of this atom, but only an approximation to a somewhat
more correct equation taking account of spin, magnetic dipole, and relativistic effects; and that this corrected
equation is itself only an imperfect approximation to an infinite set of quantum field theoretical equations.
Physicists, looking at the original Schrdinger equation, learn to sense in it the presence of many invisible
terms in addition to the differential terms visible, and this sense inspires an entirely appropriate disregard for
the purely technical features of the equation. This very healthy skepticism is foreign to the mathematical
approach.

Mathematics must deal with well-defined situations. Thus, mathematicians depend on an intellectual effort
outside of mathematics for the crucial specification of the approximation that mathematics is to take literally.
Give mathematicians a situation that is the least bit ill-defined, and they will make it well-defined, perhaps
appropriately, but perhaps inappropriately. In some cases, the mathematicians literal-mindedness may have
unfortunate consequences. The mathematicians turn the scientists theoretical assumptions, that is, their
convenient points of analytical emphasis, into axioms, and then take these axioms literally. This brings the
danger that they may also persuade the scientists to take these axioms literally. The question, central to the
scientific investigation but intensely disturbing in the mathematical if the axioms are relaxed? is thereby
ignored.

The physicist rightly dreads precise argument, since an argument that is convincing only if it is precise loses
all its force if the assumptions on which it is based are slightly changed, argument that is convincing though
imprecise may well be stable under small perturbations of its underlying assumptions.

70. The author discusses computing machines in the first paragraph primarily in order to do which of the
following?

(1) Indicate the dangers inherent in relying to a great extent on machines.

(2) Illustrate his views about the approach of mathematicians to problem solving
(3) Compare the work of mathematicians with that of computer programmers
(4) Provide one definition of intelligence

71. According to the passage, scientists are skeptical toward their equations because scientists

(1) work to explain real, rather than theoretical or simplified, situations

(2) know that well-defined problems are often the most difficult to solve
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(3) are unable to express their data in terms of multiple variables

(4) are unwilling to relax the axioms they have developed

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72. It can be inferred from the passage that scientists make which of the following assumptions about
scientific arguments?

(1) The literal truth of the arguments can be made clear only in a mathematical context.
(2) The arguments necessarily ignore the central question of scientific investigation.
(3) The arguments probably will be convincing only to other scientists.
(4) The premises on which the arguments are based may change.

73. According to the passage, mathematicians present a danger to scientists for which of the following
reasons?

(1) Mathematicians may provide theories that are incompatible with those already developed by
scientists.
(2) Mathematicians may define situations in a way that is incomprehensible to scientists.
(3) Mathematicians may convince scientists that theoretical assumptions are facts.
(4) Scientists may come to believe that axiomatic statements are unique.

74. The author suggests that the approach of physicists to solving scientific problems is which of the
following?

(1) Practical for scientific purposes

(2) Detrimental to scientific progress
(3) Unimportant in most situations
(4) Expedient, but of little long-term value

Passage 2

The production of histories of India has become very frequent in recent years and may well call for some
explanation. Why so many and why this one in particular? The reason is a twofold one: changes in the
Indian scene requiring a re-interpretation of the facts and changes in attitudes of historians about the
essential elements of Indian history. These two considerations are in addition to the normal fact of fresh
information, whether in the form of archeological discoveries throwing fresh light on an obscure period or
culture, or the revelations caused by the opening of archives or the release of private papers. The changes
in the Indian scene are too obvious to need emphasis. Only two generations ago, British rule seemed to
most Indian as well as British observers likely to extend into an indefinite future; now there is a teenage
generation, which knows nothing of it. Changes in the attitude of historians have occurred everywhere,
changes in attitudes to the content of the subject as well as to particular countries, but in India, there have
been some special features. Prior to the British, Indian historiographers were mostly Muslims, who relied, as
in the case of Sayyid Ghulam Hussain, on their own recollection of events and on information from friends
and men of affairs. Only a few like to official papers. These were personal narratives of events, varying in
value with the nature of the writer. The early British writers were officials. In the eighteenth century they
were concerned with some aspect of Company policy, or, like Robert Orme in his Military Transactions,
gave a straight narrative in what was essentially a continuation of the Muslim tradition. In the early
nineteenth century the writers were still, with two notable exceptions, officials, but they were now engaged
in chronicling, in varying moods of zest, pride, and awe, the rise of the British power in India to supremacy.
The two exceptions were James Mill, with his critical attitude to the Company and John Marchman, the
Baptist missionary. But they, like the officials, were anglo-centric in their attitude, so that the history of
modern India in their hands came to be the history of the rise of the British in India.
The official school dominated the writing of Indian history until we get the first professional historian's
approach, Ramsay Muir and P. E. Roberts in England and H. H. Dodwell in India. Then Indian historians
trained in the English school joined in, of whom the most distinguished was Sir Jadunath Sarkar and the
other notable writers: Surendranath Sen, Dr. Radhakumud Mukerji, and Professor Nilakanta Sastri. They, it
may be said, restored India to Indian history, but their bias was mainly political. Finally have come the
nationalists who range from those who can find nothing good or true in the British to sophisticated historical
philosophers like K. M. Panikker.
Along with types of historians with their varying bias have gone changes in the attitude to the content of
Indian history. Here Indian historians have been influenced both by their local situation and by changes of
thought elsewhere. It is in this field that this work can claim some attention since it seeks to break new
ground, or perhaps to deepen a freshly turned furrow in the field of Indian history. The early official historians
were content with the glamour and drama of political history from Plassey to the Mutiny, from Dupleix to the
Sikhs. But when the raj was settled down, glamour departed from politics, and they turned to the less
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glorious but more solid ground of administration. Not how India was conquered but how it was governed was
the theme of this school of historians. It found its archpriest in H. H. Dodwell, its priestess in Dame Lilian
Penson, and its chief shrine in the Volume VI of the Cambridge History of India. Meanwhile in Britain other
currents were moving, which led historical study into the economic and social fields. R. C. Dutt entered the
first of these currents with his Economic History of India to be followed more recently by the whole group of
Indian economic historians. W. E. Moreland extended these studies to the Mughal Period. Social history is
now being increasingly studied and there is also of course a school of nationalist historians who see modern
Indian history in terms of the rise and the fulfillment of the national movement.
All these approaches have value, but all share in the quality of being compartmental. It is not enough to
remove political history from its pedestal of being the only kind of history worth having if it is merely to put
other types of history in its place. Too exclusive an attention to economic, social, or administrative history
can be as sterile and misleading as too much concentration on politics. A whole subject needs a whole
treatment for understanding. A historian must dissect his subject into its elements and then fuse them
together again into an integrated whole. The true history of a country must contain all the features just cited
but must present them as parts of a single consistent theme.

75. Which of the following may be the closest in meaning to the statement "restored India to Indian
history"?

(1) Indian historians began writing Indian history

(2) Trained historians began writing Indian history
(3) Writing India-centric Indian history began
(4) Indian history began to be written in India

76. Which of the following is the closest implication of the statement "to break new ground, or perhaps
to deepen a freshly turned furrow"?

(1) Dig afresh or dig deeper

(2) Start a new stream of thought or help establish a recently emerged perspective
(3) Begin or conduct further work on existing archeological sites to unearth new evidence
(4) Begin writing a history free of any biases

77. Historians moved from writing political history to writing administrative history because

(1) attitudes of the historians changed

(2) the raj settled down
(3) politics did not retain its past glamour
(4) administrative history was based on solid ground

78. According to the author, which of the following is not among the attitudes of Indian historians of
Indian origin?

(1) Writing history as personal narratives

(2) Writing history with political bias
(3) Writing non-political history due to lack of glamour
(4) Writing history by dissecting elements and integrating them again

79. In the table given below, match the historians to the approaches taken by them

A. Administrative E. Robert Orme

B. Political F. H.H. Dodwell
C. Narrative G. Radha Kumud Mukherji
D. Economic H. R.C. Dutt

(1) (2) (3) (4)

AF AG AE AF
BG BF BF BH
CE CE CG CE
DH DH DH DG

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Passage 3
The communities of ants are sometimes very large, numbering even up to 500,000 individuals; and it is a
lesson to us that no one has ever yet seen a quarrel between any two ants belonging to the same
community. On the other hand, it must be admitted that they are in hostility not only with most other insects,
including ants of different species, but even with those of the same species if belonging to different
communities. I have over and over again introduced ants from one of my nests into another nest of the same
species; and they were invariably attacked, seized by a leg or an antenna, and dragged out.
It is evident, therefore, that the ants of each community all recognize one another, which is very remarkable.
But more than this, I several times divided a nest into two halves and found that even after separation of a
year and nine months they recognized one another and were perfectly friendly, while they at once attacked
ants from a different nest, although of the same species.
It has been suggested that the ants of each nest have some sign or password by which they recognize one
another. To test this I made some of them insensible, First I tried chloroform; but this was fatal to them, and I
did not consider the test satisfactory. I decided therefore to intoxicate them. This was less easy than I had
expected. None of my ants would voluntarily degrade themselves by getting drunk. However, I got over the
difficulty by putting them into whiskey for a few moments. I took fifty specimens-twenty five percent from one
nest and twenty five percent from another made them dead drunk, marked each with a spot of paint, and put
them on a table close to where other ants from one of the nests were feeding. The table was surrounded as
usual with a moat of water to prevent them from straying. The ants which were feeding, soon noticed those
which I had made drunk. They seemed quite astonished to find their comrades in such a disgraceful
condition, and as much at a loss to know what to do with their drunkards as we were. After a while, however,
they carried them all away; the strangers they took to the edge of the moat and dropped into the water, while
they bore their friends home into the nest, where by degrees they slept off the effects of the spirits. Thus, it
is evident that they know their friends even when incapable of giving any sign or password.

80. The good title for this passage might be

(1) Nature's Mysteries

(2) Human Qualities in the insect world
(3) Drunken Ants
(4) Communication in Ant Communities

81. Attitude of ants toward strangers of the same species may be categorized as

(1) indifferent (2) curious (3) hostile (4) passive

82. The author's anecdotes of the inebriated ants would support all the following induction except the
statement that

(1) ants take unwillingly to intoxicants

(2) ants aid comrades in distress
(3) ants have invariable recognition of their community members
(4) ants recognize their comrades by a mysterious password

83. According to the passage, chloroform was less successful than alcohol for inhibiting communication
because of

(1) its expense

(2) its unpredictable side effects
(3) its unavailability
(4) its fatality

84. Although the author is a scientist, his style of writing also exhibits a quality of

(1) Sophistry (2) whimsy (3) hypocrisy (4) tragedy

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Passage 4
The conventional wisdom has become that this is an issue-less election. There is no central personality of
whom voters have to express approval or dislike; no central matter of concern that makes this a one-issue
referendum like so many elections in the past; no central party around which everything else revolves... the
congress has been displaced from its customary pole position, and no one else has been able to take its
place. Indeed, given that all-seeing video cameras of the Election Commission, and the detailed pictures
they are putting together on campaign expenditure, there isn't even much electioneering: no slogans on
the walls, no loudspeakers blaring forth at all hours of the day and night, no cavalcades of cars heralding
the arrival of a candidate at the local bazaar. Forget it being an issue-less election is this an election at
all?
Perhaps the "fun" of an election lies in its featuring someone whom you can love or hate. But Narasimha
Rao has managed to reduce even a general election involving nearly 600 million voters, to the boring no-
event that is the trademark of his election rallies, and indeed of everything else that he does. After all, the
Nehru-Gandhi clan has disappeared from the political map, and the majority of voters will not even be able to
name P.V.Narasimha Rao as India's prime minister. There could be as many as a dozen prime ministerial
candidates ranging from Joyti Basu to Ramakrishna Hegde, and from Chandra Shekhar to (believe it or not) K.R.
Narayanan. The sole personality who stands out, therefore, is none of the players, but the umpire : T.N.
Seshan.
As for the parties, they are like the blind men of Hindustan, trying in vain to gauge the contours of the animal they
have to confront. But it doesn't look as if it will be the mandir masjid nor will it be Hindutva or economic nationalism. The
Congress would like it to be stability, but what does that mean for the majority? Economic reform is a non-issue for
most people and with inflation down to barely 4%, prices are not top of the mind either. In a strange twist, after the
hawala scandal, corruption has been pushed off the map too.
But ponder for a moment. Isn't this state of affairs astonishing, given the context? Consider that so many ministers
have had to resign over the hawala issue; that a governor who was a cabinet minister has also had to quit, in the
wake of judicial displeasure: that prime minister himself is under investigation for his involvement in not one scandal
but two; that the main prime ministerial candidate from the opposition has had to bow out because he too has been
charged in the hawala case; and that the head of the "third force" has his own little (or not so little) fodder scandal to
face. Why then is corruption not an issue... not as a matter of competitive politics, but as an issue on which the
contenders for power feel they have to offer the prospect of genuine change ? If all this does not make the parties
(almost all of whom have broken the law, in not submitting their audited accounts every year to the income tax
authorities) realise that the country needs both... and is ready for.... change in fundamental ways, what will ? Think
also, for a moment, of the change in the functioning and attitude of the Supreme Court; the assertiveness of the
Election Commission giving new life to a model code of conduct that has been ignored for a quarter century: the
independence that has been thrust upon the Central Bureau of Investigation; and the fresh zeal on the part of tax
collectors out to nab corporate no gooders. Think also that at no other point since the Emergency of 1975-77 have
so many people in power been hounded by the system for their misdeeds.
This is just a case of a few individuals outside the political system doing their job, or is the country heading for a
new era ? The seventies saw the collapse of the national consensus that marked the Nehruvian era, and ideology
took over in the Indira Gandhi years. That too was buried by Rajiv Gandhi and his technocratic friends. And now, we
have these issue-less elections. One possibility is that the country is heading for a period of constitutionalism, as the
other arms of the state reclaim some of the powers they lost, or yielded to the political establishment. Economic
reform freed on part of Indian society from the clutches of the political class. Now this could spread to other parts of
the system. Against such a dramatic backdrop, it should be obvious that people (voters) are looking for
accountability', for ways in which to make a corrupted system work again. And the astonishing thing is that no party
has sought to ride this particular wave ; instead, all are on the defensive, desperately evading the real issues. No
wonder this is an "issue -less" election.

85. A suitable title to the passage would be...

(1) Elections: A preview

(2) The country's issue-less elections
(3) T.N. Seshan-the real hero
(4) Love or hate them, but vote for them

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86. Which of the following are not under scrutiny for alleged corruption, according to the passage ?

(1) The opposition prime ministerial candidate

(2) P. V. Narasima Rao
(3) The leader of the 'third force'
(4) Ramakrishna Hegde

87. Why does the author probably say that the sole personality who stands out in the elections is
T.N. Seshan ?

(1) Because all the other candidate are viewed boring

(2) Because all the other candidates do not have his charisma
(3) Because the shadow of his strictures are looming large over the elections
(4) None of the above

88. According to the passage, which of the following is not mentioned as even having the potential to be
an issue in the current elections?

(1) The mandir / masjid issue

(2) The empowerment of women
(3) Economic Nationalism
(4) Hindutva

89. Why does the author say that almost all parties have broken the law ?

(1) Because they all indulge in corrupt electorial activities.

(2) Because they all have more income than recorded sources.
(3) Because they are all indicted on various charges.
(4) Because they have failed to submit audited accounts to tax authorities.

90. Which of the following has not been responsible for the winds of change blowing through the country,
according to the passage. ?

(1) Greater awareness of the part of the general public

(2) Enforcement of a model code of conduct by the Election Commission
(3) Greater independence to the Central Bureau of investigation
(4) Fresh zeal on the part of tax collectors

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Section 2B

Questions 91 to 95 carry 2 marks each.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 91 and 92: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced,
form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Chose the most logical order of
sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent passage.

91. A. "This face off will continue for several months given the strong convictions on either side," says a
senior functionary of the high-powered task force on drought.
B. During the past week-and-half, the Central Government has sought to deny some of the earlier
apprehensions over the impact of drought.
C. The recent revival of the rains had led to the emergence of a line of divide between the two.
D. The state governments, on the other hand, allege that the Centre is downplaying the crisis only to
evade its full responsibility of financial assistance that is required to alleviate the damage.
E Shrill alarm about the economic impact of an inadequate monsoon had been sounded by the
Centre as well as most of the states, in late July and early August.

(1) EBCDA (2) DBACE (3) BDCAE (4) ECBDA

92. A. Both parties use capital and labour in the struggle to secure property rights.
B. The thief spends time and money in his attempt to steal (he buys wire cutters) and the legitimate
property owner expends resources to prevent the theft (he buys locks).
C. A social cost of theft is that both the thief and the potential victim use resources to gain or maintain
control over property.
D. These costs may escalate as a type of technological arms race unfolds.
E. A bank may purchase more and more complicated and sophisticated safes, forcing safe crackers
to invest further in safecracking equipments.

(1) ABCDE (2) CABDE (3) ACBED (4) CBEDA

DIRECTIONS for questions 93 and 94: Read each of the short passages given below and answer the each
of the questions that follows it on the basis of information given in the passage.

93. Argentina's beef cattle herd has dropped to under 50 million from 57 million ten years ago in 1990.
The animals are worth less, too: prices fell by over a third last year, before recovering slightly. Most
local meat packers and processors are in financial trouble, and recent years has seen a string of
plant closures. The Beef producer's association has now come up with a massive advertisement
campaign calling upon Argentines to eat more beef-their "juicy, healthy, routed, plate-filling steaks."

Which one of the following, if true, would contribute most to a failure of the campaign?

(1) There has been a change in consumer preference towards eating leaner meats like chicken and
fish.
(2) Prices of imported beef have been increasing, thus making locally grown beef more competitive
in terms of policy.
(3) The inability to cross breed native cattle with improved varieties has not increased production to
adequate levels.
(4) Animal rights pressure groups have come up rapidly, demanding better and humane treatment
of farmyard animals like beef cattle

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94. The company's coffee crop for 1998-99 totalled 8079 tonnes, an all time record. The increase over
the previous year's production of 5830 tonnes was 38.58%. The previous highest crop was 6089
tonnes in 1970-71. The company had fixed a target of 8000 tonnes to be realized by the year
2000-01, and this has been achieved two years earlier, thanks to the emphasis laid on the key areas
of irrigation, replacement of-unproductive coffee bushes; intensive refilling and improved agricultural
practices. It is now our endeavor to reach the target of 10000 tonnes in the year 2001-02.

Which one of the following would contribute most to making the target of 10000 tonnes in 2001-02
unrealistic?

(1) The potential of the productivity enhancing measures implemented up to now has been
exhausted.
(2) The total company land under coffee has remained constant since 1969 when an estate in
the Nilgiri Hills was acquired.
(3) The sensitivity of the crop to climatic factors makes predictions about production uncertain.
(4) The target-setting procedures in the company have been proved to be sound by the
achievement of the 8000 tonne target.

DIRECTIONS for Question 95: In the following question, select from among the four options given below,
the one that would best fill the blanks.

95. But______are now regularly written not just for tools, but well - established practices, organisations
and institutions, not all of which seem to be______ away.

(1) reports, withering (2) stories, trading (3) books, dying (4) obituaries, fading

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Section 3
Section 3 A: Questions 96 to 125 carry one mark each

Directions for questions 96 to 99: Solve the questions independent of each other.

96. Three movies were released this week. Probability of their being a hit is 1/3, , 1/8 respectively. The
probability of their being a superhit is , 1/6 and 1/12. Movies are either superhit, hit or flop. What is
the probability that one of them is a hit, one is a superhit and one is a flop?

(1) 5 / 64 (2) 15 / 64 (3) 281 / 1728 (4) 561 / 1728

97. A test has 50 questions. A student scores 1 mark for each correct answer and 1/3 for every wrong
answer, and 1/6 for not attempting a question. If the net score of the student is 32, the number of
questions wrongly answered by the student cannot be less than

(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 3 (4) 9

98. What is the remainder when 496 is divided by 6?

(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 3 (d) 4

99. If there are 10 positive real numbers n1 < n2 < n3...<n10. How many triplets of these numbers (n1,
n2, n3).. can be generated such that in each triplet the first number is less than the second number,
and the second number is always less than the third number?

(1) 45 (2) 90 (3) 120 (4) 180

Directions for questions 100 to 102: Answer the following questions on the basis of tables given below:

Two binary operations and are defined over the set ( a,e,f,g,h) as per the following tables:

a e f g h a e f g h
a a e f g h a a a a a a
e e f g h a e a e f g h
f f g h a e f a f h e g
g g h a e f g a g e h f
h h a e f g h a h g f e

Thus according to the first table f g = a; while according to the second table g h = f, and so on. Also,
let f2 = f f, g3 = g g g and so on.

100. What is the smallest positive integer such that gn = e?

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 3

101. Upon simplification, f f { f (f f) }

(1) e (2) f (3) g (4) h

102. Upon simplification {a10 (f10 g9)} e8

(1) e (2) f (3) g (4) h

Directions for question 103 : Answer question 103 independently

103. Ram and Shyam stand in a queue with 10 other people. What is the probability that there are
exactly three people between them?
1 3 4
(1) /33 (2) /34 (3) /33 (4) None of these

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Directions for Questions 104-106: A robot moves on a co-ordinate plane as per the following instructions:

GOTO(x, y): Robot directly moves to the point (x, y) from its initial position
WALKX(p): Robot moves the distance p parallel to the X axis in the positive X axis in the positive X
direction for +ve values of p and in the negative X direction for negative values of p
WALKY(p): Robot moves the distance p parallel to the Y axis in the positive Y direction for + ve values of
p and in the negative Y direction for negative values of p.

104. Robot reaches (6, 6) following the given set of instructions

(i) GOTO (x, y) (ii) WALKX(2) (iii) WALKY(4)
Find out position of the robot after instruction (i).

(1) (2,4) (2) (4,2) (3) (-4,-2) (4) Both (2) and (3)

105. If use of GOTO instruction is not allowed & the robot is currently at (x,y) such that x 0, y 0, then
what is the minimum number of instructions required to bring the robot to origin.

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) x+y (4) 3

106. Robot goes from point A(2,6) to point B(7,6) to point C(2,-4) and then back to point A. Which of the
following points doesnt lie on the path of the Robot

(1) (2,0) (2) (3,6) (3) (0,6) (4) (4,0)

Directions for questions 107 and 108: The following table presents the sweetness of different items
relative to sucrose, whose sweetness is taken to be 1.00

Lactose 0.16
Maltose 0.32
Glucose 0.74
Sucrose 1.00
Fructose 1.70
Saccharin 675.00

107. What is the minimum amount of sucrose (to the nearest gram) that must be added to one-gram of
saccharin to make a mixture that will be at least 100 times as sweet as glucose?

(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 100

108. Approximately how many times sweeter than sucrose is a mixture consisting of glucose, sucrose
and fructose in the ratio of 1:2:3?

(1) 1.3 (2) 1 (3) 0.6 (4) 2.3

Directions for questions 109 and 110: These questions are based on the situation given below:

A, B, C, D, E and F are a group of friends from a club. There are two housewives, one lecturer, one
architect, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. There are two married couples in the group. The
lawyer is married to D who is a housewife. No lady in the group is either an architect or an accountant. C,
the accountant, is married to F who is a lecture. A is married to D and E is not a housewife.

109. What is E?

(1) Lawyer (2) Architect (3) Lecture (4) Accountant

110. How many members of the group are male?

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) None of these

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Directions for questions 111 and 112: These questions are based on the situation given below:

Seven university cricket players are to be honored at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on the
dais along one side of a single rectangular table.

A and G have to leave the luncheon early and must be seated at the extreme right end of the table, which is
closets to the exit.
B will receive the Man of the Match award and must be in the center chair.
C and D who are bitter rivals for the position of wicket keeper, dislike one another and should be seated as
far apart as possible.
E and F are best friends and want to sit together.

111. Which of the following may not be seated at either end of the table?

1. C 2. D 3. G 4. F

112. Which of the following pairs may not be seated together?

1. E&A 2. B&D 3. C&F 4. G&D

Directions for questions 113 and 114 : These questions are based on the situation given below:

In questions 1113, 114 a pair of graphs F(x) and F1(x) is given. These are composed of straight line
segments, shown as solid lines, in the domain x (-2,2).
If F1(x) = -F(x) choose the answer as a;
If F1(x) = F(-x) choose the answer as b;
If F1(x) = -F(-x) choose the answer as c;
And if none of the above is true, choose the answer as d.
F1 (x)
113. F(x)
(-2, 2) (-2, 2) 2
2 (2, 2)

-2 2 x
-2 2 x 0
0

(2, -2)
-2
-2

1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d

114.
F(x) F1 (x)
2 2

(2, 0) (-2, 0)
-2 0 2 x -2 0 2 x

(-2, -2)
-2 (2, -2)
-2
1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d

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Directions for questions 115 to 125: Solve the questions independent of each other.

115. A student took five papers in an examination, where the total marks were the same for each paper.
His marks in these papers were in the proportion of 6:7:8:9:10. In all papers together, the candidate
obtained 60% of the total marks. Then the number of papers in which he got 60% or less marks is:

1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5

116. A square, whose side is 2 meters, has its corners cut away so as to form an octagon with all sides
equal. Then the length of each side of the octagon, in meters is:
2 2 2 2
1. 2. 3. 4.
2 +1 2 +1 2 1 2 1

117. Let x, y and z be distinct integers. x and y are odd and positive, and z is even and positive. Which
one of the following statements cannot be true?

1. (x - z)2y is even. 2. (x - z)y2 is odd. 3. (x - z)y is odd. 4. (x - y)2z is even

118. Abraham, Border, Charlie, Dennis and Elmer and their respective wives recently dines together and
were seated at a circular table. The seats were so arranged that men and women alternated and
each woman was three places distant from her husband. Mrs. Charlie sat to the left to Mr. Abraham.
Mrs. Elmer sat two places to the right of Mrs. Border. Who sat to the right of Mr. Abraham?

1. Mrs. Dennis 2. Mrs. Elmer

3. Mrs. Border 4. Mrs. Border or Mrs. Dennis

119. Navjivan Express from Ahmedabad to Chennai leaves Ahmedabad at 6:30 am and travels at 50 km
per hour towards Baroda situated 100 kms away. At 7:00 am, Howrah-Ahmedabad express leaves
Baroda towards Ahmedabad and travels at 40 km per hour. One Morning at 7:30 Mr. Shah, the
traffic controller at Baroda realises that both the trains are running on the same track. How much
time does he have to avert a head-on collision between the two trains?

1. 15 minutes 2. 20 minutes 3. 25 minutes 4. 30 minutes

120. There is a square field with each side 500 metres long. It has a compound wall along its perimeter.
At one of its corners, a triangular area of the field is to be cordoned off by erecting a straight line
fence. The compound wall and the fence will form its borders. If the length of the fence is 100
metres, what is the maximum area in square metres that can be cordoned off?

1. 2,500 2. 10,000 3. 5,000 4. 20,000

121. A man has nine friends, four boys and five girls. In how many ways can he invite them, if three have
to be exactly three girls in the invitees?

1. 320 2. 160 3. 80 4. 200

122. A survey of 200 people in community who watched at least one of the three channels BBC, CNN,
DD Showed that 80% of the people watched Doordarshan(DD), 22% watched BBC, and 15%
watched CNN. What is the maximum percentage of people who can watch all the three channels?

1. 12.5 2. 8.5 3. 17 4. Insufficient data

123. Using only 2, 5, 10, 25 and 50 paise coins, what will be the minimum number of coins required to
pay exactly 78 paise, 69 paise and Re 1.01 to three different persons

1. 19 2. 20 3. 17 4. None of these

124. 56 1 is divisible by

1. 13 2. 31 3. 5 4. None of these

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125. Davji Shop sells samosas in a box of different sizes. The samosas are priced at Rs 2 per samosa
upto 200 samosas. For every additional 20 samosas, the price of whole lot goes down by 10 paisa
per samosa. What should be the maximum size of the box that would maximise the revenue per
box?

1. 240 2. 300 3. 400 4. None of these

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Section 3 B
Questions 126 to 135 carry two marks each

Directions for questions 126 and 127: These questions are based on the situation given below:

A rectangle PRSU, is divided into two smaller rectangles PQTU, and QRST by the line TQ. PQ=10cm,
QR=5cm and RS=10cm. Points A,B,F are within rectangle PQTU, and points C, D, E are within the rectangle
QRST. The closest pair of points among the pairs (A,C), (A,D), (A,E), (F,C), (F,D), (F,E), (B,C), (B,D), (B,E)
are 10 3 cm apart.

126. Which of the following statements if necessarily true?

1. The closest pair of points among the six given points cannot be (F,C)
2. Distance between A and B is greater than that between F and C
3. The closest pair of points among the six given points is (C,D), (D,E), OR(C,E)
4. None of the above

127. AB>AF>BF; CD>DE>CE; and BF=65 cm. Which is the closest pair of points among all the six
given points?

1. B,F 2. C,D 3. A,B 4. None of these

Directions for questions 128 to 133: Solve the questions independent of each other.

128. A young girl Roopa leaves home with x flowers, goes to the bank of a nearby river. On the bank of
the river, there are four places of worship, standing in a row. She dips all the x flowers into the river.
The number of flowers doubles. Then she enters the first place of worship, offers y flowers to the
deity. She dips the remaining flowers into the river, and again the number of flowers doubles. She
goes to the second place of worship, offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the remaining flowers
into the river, and again the number of flowers doubles. She goes to the third place of worship,
offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the remaining flowers into the river, and again the number of
flowers doubles. she goes to the fourth place of worship, offers y flowers to the deity. Now she is left
with no flowers in hand. The minimum number of flowers with which Roopa leaves home:

1. 16 2. 2 3. 0 4. Cannot to determined

129. In Corridor of parliament there are 1000 doors. All doors are initially closed. In a drill exercise, 1000
security persons participate. One by one each of them go down the corridor; the first security
personal opens each door; second person closes all the doors with even numbers; The third
personal closes door 3, opens door 6, closes door 9 and so on. That is the nth personal changes the
status of the all the doors whose numbers are divisible by n. After all 1000 security personnel go
through the drill, how many doors are open?

1. Doors whose numbers are perfect square

2. Doors whose numbers are prime numbers
3. All doors will be closed
4. All doors will be closed

130. Ashish is given Rs. 158 in one-rupee denominations. He has been asked to allocate them into a
number of bags such that any amount required between Re. 1 and Rs. 158 can be given by handing
out a certain number of bags without opening them?

1. 11 2. 12 3. 13 4. None of these

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131. The figure shows a network of switches. The current can pass from A to B either of the two routes.
The switches operate independently of each other and the current will pass from A to B if either S1 is
closed or both S2 and S3 are closed. If any particular switch is not closed it is said that the switch
has failed. The probability of failure of a given switch is given by P(Sn). Also it is given that P(S1) =
P(S2) = P(S3) =1/2.What is the probability that the circuit will work?

S1

AB
S2 S3

1. 2. 3. 5/8 4. 3/8

132. Ram gopal verma produces two kinds of movies either suspense thrillers or horror. Profits earned by
these types are respectively 2 crores and 1.5 crores. A suspense thriller requires twice as time as a
horror movie. Ram gopal verma has adequate work hours to produce maximum of 1000 horror
movies a year. He has adequate dates of actors to produce 800 movies this year. 400 scripts of
Suspense Thrillers and 700 scripts of Horror are available to him. What is the maximum profit Mr
verma can earn this year?

1. 1300 Crores 2. 1250 Crores 3. 1400 Crores 4. 2000 Crores

133. ( x2 + 1/x2 ) + ( x + 1/x ) 4 = 0

Which of the following could be a possible value of x?

1. - 5 + 3 2. - 3 - 3 3. 3 + 5 4. - 5 - 5
2 2 2 2

Directions for questions 134-135: Use the following data.

A and B are running along a circular course of radius 7 km in opposite directions such that when they meet
they reverse their directions and when they meet A will run at the speed of B and vice-versa. Initially, the
speed of A is thrice the speed of B. Assume that they start form M0 and they meet at M1, then at M2, next at
M3, and finally at M4.

134. What is the shortest distance between M1 and M2?

(1) 11 km (2) 7 2 km (3) 7 km (4) 14 km

135. What is the shortest distance between M1 and M3 along the course?

(1) 22 km (2) 14 2 km (3) 22 2 km (4) 14 km

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