Practice Exam 3: ch 12-15

(chapter 11 questions have been removed, as we no longer cover this material)

1. If there are 40 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80

2. Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 phenotypic ratio for a particular trait. This suggests
A) that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits.
B) incomplete dominance.
C) that a blending of traits has occurred.
D) that the parents were both heterozygous.
E) that each offspring has the same alleles.

4. In Sickle-cell disease one amino acid is translated into another, this is the result of which kind of mutation?
A) missense
B) frameshift
C) nonsense
D) nondisjunction
E) translocation

6. Human gametes are

A) haploid, n = 46
B) haploid, n = 23
C) diploid, n = 46
D) diploid, n = 23
E) the same as somatic cells

8. During which phase do centrosomes begin to move apart in animal cells?

A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase

9. A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T).
Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?
A) HhTt
B) Hh
C) Tt
D) ht
E) Tt
11. If an animal cell containing 52 chromosomes divides into two daughter cells and each daughter cell
contains 52 chromosomes after division, which statement is correct?
A) mitotic division, 2n to n
B) meiotic division, 2n to 2n
C) meiotic division, 2n to n
D) mitotic division, 2n to 2n
E) mitotic division, n to n

13. Which of the following statements is true?

A) The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a crossover will occur
between them.
B) The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a
maximum value of 40%.
C) All of the traits that Mendel studied (seed color, flower color) are due to genes linked on the same
chromosome.
D) Linked genes are found on different chromosomes.
E) Crossing over occurs during prophase II of meiosis.

15. _________ causes genetic variation.

A) random fertilization
B) mutation
C) crossing over
D) independent assortment
E) all of the above

Use chart below for questions 17-18.

Phenotype Genotype Offspring
Parental Wild type (WT) YY, RR 374
Parental Green, wrinkled yy, rr 337
Recombinant WT, wrinkled YY, rr 355
Recombinant green, WT yy, RR 434

17. What is the percent recombination for the genes for green colored peas and wrinkled peas in pea plants?
A) 47%
B) 53%
C) 35%
D) 71%
E) 79%

18. The genes for green colored peas and wrinkled peas are
A) independently assorted
B) linked
C) exhibiting epipstasis
D) codominant
E) incompletely dominant
20. A Barr body is normally found in the nucleus of which kind of human cell?
A) unfertilized egg cells only
B) sperm cells only
C) somatic cells of a female only
D) somatic cells of a male only
E) both male and female somatic cells

22. Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people have a daughter that is
color-blind. What are the genotypes of the parents?
A) XbXb and XBY
B) XbXb and XBY
C) XBXB and XbY
D) XBXB and XBY
E) XBXb and XbY

23. If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of
the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) telophase
D) metaphase
E) interphase

24. Calico cats (orange & black fur spots) are only female. Males will be either all orange or all black.
This is unique fur color pattern in females is due to
A) Incomplete dominance
B) Barr body- X inactivation
C) Epistasis
D)Codominance
E) Pleitropy

For questions 25-27, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.
I. Prophase I V. Prophase II
II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II
III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II
IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II

25. Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate.

A) II
B) III
C) IV
D) V
E) VII
26. Synapsis of homologous pairs occurs; crossing over may occur.
A) I
B) II
C) IV
D) VI
E) VII

27. Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle, determining independent assortment.
A) I
B) II
C) IV
D) VII
E) VIII

28. A man with type A blood marries a woman with type AB blood. Their child has type B blood. What are the
genotypes of these individuals?
A) IAi x IAIB (AO x AB)
B) IAi x IBi (AO x BO)
C) IAIB x ii (AB x O)
D) IBIB x ii (BB x O)
E) IAIA x ii (AA x O)

29. Chromosomes first become visible during which phase of mitosis?

A) prometaphase
B) telophase
C) prophase
D) metaphase
E) anaphase

30. Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that requires
cyclin to become catalytically active?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk

31. A gene's location along a chromosome is known as which of the following?

A) allele
B) sequence
C) locus
D) variant
E) trait

32. What is a sister chromatid?

A) a chromosome in G1 of the cell cycle
B) a replicate chromosome
C) a chromosome found outside the nucleus
D) a special region that holds two centromeres together
E) another name for the chromosomes found in genetics
33. Brown fur in mice (B) is dominant to black fur (b). Long tails (T) are dominant to short tails (t).
What fraction of the progeny of the cross BbTt BBTt will have black fur and long tails?
A)
B)
C) 2/3
D) 0
E) 3/8

34. Colon cancer that is caused by genetic factors plus diet is an example of
A) incomplete dominance
B) multifactorial
C) complete dominance
D) epistasis
E) multiple alleles

35. A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically different.
A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

36. Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?

A) Homologous chromosomes are separated.
B) The chromosome number per cell is halved compared to the parental cell.
C) Sister chromatids are separated.
D) Four daughter cells are formed.
E) The sperm cells elongate to form a head and a tail end.

37. What is the difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross?
A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
B) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces two progeny.
C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters and a monohybrid
only one.
D) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for
two generations.
E) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.

38. ______ produces somatic cells, _______ produces gametes.

A) Mitosis, binary fission
B) Binary fission, mitosis
C) Binary fission, meiosis
D) Meiosis, mitosis
E) Mitosis, meiosis
39. Blakes mother has Huntingtons disease (autosomal dominant, heterozygous), but her father does not.
Blake marries an African American man. The carrier frequency in this population is 1 in 10. What is the
probability that Blake will have the disease?
A) 1/40
B) 1/20
C) 1/15
D) 1/2
E) 1/6

40. Given the parents AaBBCcddEe AabbCcDdee, assume complete dominance and independent
assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent?
A)
B) 1/8
C) 1/32
D) 3/16
E) 9/64

41. What proportion of offspring from the same parental cross (AaBBCcddEe AabbCcDdee) would be
expected to be aaBbCcddee?
A)
B) 12/32
C) 1/32
D) 3/16
E) 9/64