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Paper Code : 0000CT100115001 DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME (Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)
Paper Code : 0000CT100115001
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)

NURTURE TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE

TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 2017

Test Type : ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (MAJOR) TEST # 01

Test Pattern : JEE-Main TEST DATE : 31 - 01 - 2016

ANSWER KEY

Que.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

Ans.

4

4

1

3

3

4

4

2

4

4

2

2

1

3

4

2

2

2

2

4

Que.

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

Ans.

2

3

2

1

2

3

2

2

2

1

4

1

2

1

3

2

3

1

2

4

Que.

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Ans.

3

1

3

1

4

3

1

2

4

4

4

3

3

2

4

3

2

3

2

1

Que.

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

71

72

73

74

75

76

77

78

79

80

Ans.

3

1

2

1

1

4

3

2

4

1

2

4

3

2

3

4

2

2

3

3

Que.

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

89

90

 

Ans.

2

1

1

3

1

3

4

1

1

3

HINT – SHEET

1. Ans. (4) 4.84 4.84  3.84  S.G  S.G 3.84 V 1 T
1. Ans. (4)
4.84
4.84
3.84
S.G
S.G
3.84
V
1
T
1
Sol.
f 
1
1
2.
 S.G = 1.26
Ans. (4)
V
1
T
Sol.
Area under the velocity-time graph is
2
f 
1 
1
1
1
T
2
1
2
3.
displacement.
If area X = area Y then it implies that
magnitudes of displacements carresponding to
areas X and Y are equal.
Ans. (1)
Sol.
KE = 0, since V = constant
T 1 = (2.2) 2 · T 2
KE =
1 mv
2 = constant
2
M 
Mass is falling down so potential energy
Mg = 4.84
decreases at rate

dx

mgV
[decreases]
Corporate Office :  CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
HS-1/7
+91-744-5156100
dlp@allen.ac.in
www.allen.ac.in
T 1 
T
1

  T

 

1

2  
2

2

T 1    T    1  2   2 
T 1    T    1  2   2 
T 1    T    1  2   2 

  

Mg

S

G

g

 

1 = 4.84 –

4.84

S.G

mg

 

dt

 

4. Ans. (3) T Sol. 0 0 t dq = constant = i (lets say)
4. Ans. (3) T Sol. 0 0 t dq = constant = i (lets say)
4. Ans. (3)
T
Sol.
0 0
t
dq
= constant = i (lets say)
dt
3 dT
dT
i
i
aT
,
3
dt
dt
aT
i
dT
dt
3
aT
5.
Sol.
Ans. (3)
Middle one paper does not fall.
Hence there must be a node.

6.

Sol.

7.

Sol.

4x  4x   2  = 4x 2 Ans. (4) V = R
4x
4x
 
2
 = 4x
2
Ans. (4)
V = R
 = constant
dV
dR
 
dt
dt

dR

dt

= constant

dV

dt

= constant

slope is constant v-t graph will be straight line. Ans. (4) Speed is maximum at the mean position Distance between extreme position = 2A. 2A = 70 A = 35 cm

8. Ans. (2) 3RT Sol. = V rms M
8. Ans. (2)
3RT
Sol.
=
V rms
M

given graph :

RT

2

2

10

5

2

RT

1

1

10

5

n

1

n

ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE COURSE/JEE (Main)/31-01-2016

9.

Sol.

n : number of moles V T 2 2   2 :1  V
n : number of moles
V
T
2
2
2 :1
V
T
1
1

2 :1

Ans. (4) Acceleration is maximum at extreme position. Velocity is maximum at mean position.

10. Ans. (4)

Sol.

V R 3 , R 2R then V 8V Work = P (8V – V) = 7PV [isobaric process]

Ans. (2) As point R, S and T have zero intensity Destructive interference will occur at these points.

11.

Sol.

12.

Sol.

2

1.5

= 3m

v = f

f = 100 Hz Ans. (2) Soap bubble has two surface Total length = 2(2r)

F

4

r

r

13. Ans. (1)

Sol. If n' represents the apparent frequency and n the actual one, then use the relation

T

F

4

T

14.

Sol.

n'

n

v

w

v

w

v

s

    where v is the velocity of

sound with respect to wind, w is the velocity of wind and v s that of the source. Note that in

this case the observer at rest. Ans. (3) For particle A

y = x

dy

dt

dx

dt

ˆ

& v B =

v

&

3i

x = v B
A

v

y

A

v

x

A

v

v

3i ˆ v

A

A

x

y

A

3i ˆ

ˆ

3j

15.

16. Ans. (2)

Ans. (4)

3j ˆ

v

A

 3i ˆ ˆ 3j 15. 16. Ans. (2) Ans. (4)  3j ˆ  v

3 2

m/s

Sol. Note that the beat frequency is (n 1 – n 2 ) and

the corresponding vibrating lengths are

(/2 – ) and (/2 + ).

HS-2/7

2 ) and the corresponding vibrating lengths are (  /2 –  ) and (

0000CT100115001

V Given :  n 0 2  V   2n 0  

V

Given :  n 0 2 
Given :
n 0
2 
V   2n 0 
V
 2n
0

/2+ /2– V V   n 1       2
/2+
/2–
V
V
n 1
 
 
2
2
 
 
2
 
V
V
n
2 
 
 
2
2
 
 
2
 
V
V
Beat frequency = n 2 – n 1 =
   
2
2
V
V

=

=

=

=

1

V

V

V

 

 

2

 

1

1

2

2

 

 

2V

 

1

 

2

  

V

 

1

2

V

V

 

  

1

2

2V

1

1

[(1+x) n = 1+nx]

= 2·2n 0 ·

+ 2 · 2n 0 ·

=

8n

0

   

 

17.

Ans. (2)

Sol.

New reading = weigth of water (X ) + weight

18.

of water displaced by the object (Z) New reading = X + Z Ans. (2)

Sol.

Net force and net torque should be zero.

19.

Ans. (2)

Sol.

d

dm

S

dT

dt

6.7

dt

10

9

dm

4200

60

dt

10

9

dm

6.7

dt

4200

 

8

60

14

6

ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE COURSE/JEE (Main)/31-01-2016

20.

Sol.

Ans. (4) Note that pV = constant and that is inversely proportional to V. Adiabatic process pV = constant

p

M

= constant

p·M · = constant (M is constant) p· = constant

21. Ans. (2)

Sol.

Lets say the displacement of cylinder from its equilibrium position is 'x'.

 ma = –gAx  gA   a = x    m
ma = –gAx

gA
a =
x
  
m
 
(i)
 cylinder =
(ii)
 spring-block =
(iii) [given]
 cylinder =
 spring-block
K
= gA [from (i), (ii), (iii)];
K
= 27 N/m
22. Ans. (3)
m
F
a
Sol.
A

Writting torque equation about an axis passing through A, perpendicular to the plane of paper.

23.

Sol.

F × 2R =

a = R

 

2

5

mR

2

mR

2

 



(i)

F

7

10

Ans. (2)

During SHM speed will be minimum in 1 and 5 region.

Hence probability of greatest number of hit will increase.

ma

0000CT100115001

will be minimum in 1 and 5 region. Hence probability of greatest number of hit will

HS-3/7

24. Sol. Ans. (1)   x  2  = k  x 

24.

Sol.

Ans. (1)

 

x

2

 = kx

x path difference

=

2

2



Hence destructive interference will occur at

point P.

A resultant =



2a

2

2

a 4a

2

= a.

It will remain constant with time.

25. Ans. (2)   h 1 h Sol. h 2   A
25. Ans. (2)
h
1
h
Sol.
h
2
 
A

dh

= 4 cm/hr given = 2w

dt F boyant = (Ah)g = (Ah 2 ) ·g ·Ahg = ·Ah 2 g

·h = ·h 2 = 2 ·h 2

h = 2h 2 dh dt

Therefore net fall of upper end =

2dh

2dh

dh

2

dt

2 2

4

 

dt

dt

= 4cm/hr – 2cm/hr

= 2 cm/hr

dh

dh

2

dt

dt

= 2cm/hr [rate of fall of upper end of candle]

26. Ans. (3)

Sol.

27.

Sol.

28.

Sol.

0 = 10 log

I

0

10

12

I 0 = 10 12

 

I

10

12

I

 

 

1

I

0

120° = 10 log

T

12

10

12

10

12

10 Ans. (2) 2 × 40 × 10 3 × 10 = 16 t 50 × 10 3 s = t Ans. (2) Amount of energy intercepted [Amplitude] 2 × [surface area]

I

ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE COURSE/JEE (Main)/31-01-2016

29.

Sol.

30.

Sol.

31.

Ans. (2)

20 30
20
30
   
    P  

P

P
 
   
10cm

10cm

 
10cm    
 
 

mg

 

Mg

p = 0

Mg × 30 = mg × 10

 m = 3M (1) F =(m/ )·  ·g   b P 8
 m = 3M
(1)
F =(m/ )·
·g
 
b
P
8
12
30
mg
Mg
0
 p net =
m
Mg
30
 
g
12
mg

M 30

3M

r

12

3M 12

12

r = 6 Ans. (1) A question of units and dimensions.

Only the dimension of option (A) g matches the dimesion of speed.

Ans.(4)

option (A) g  matches the dimesion of speed. Ans.(4) 14ClO 3 – + 6N 2

14ClO 3 + 6N 2 H 4 12NO 3 + 14Cl

n-factor 6

2 H 4  12NO 3 – + 14Cl – n-factor 6 14 32. Ans.(1) 40

14

32. Ans.(1)

40 × 0.1 = 30 × m × 2

M

=

4

1

15

4

15

0.1 × V =

V = 40 ml

1

15

× 60

33. Ans.(2)

124

0.15

124

640

1240

640

1.6

10

19

124

16

34. Ans.(1)

10

19

0.15

m + 2

2r = n

 

6

10

l = 2

n = 3

=



0.529

9

3

= 9.97 Å

19

HS-4/7

0.15 m + 2 2  r = n    6 10 l =

0000CT100115001

ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE COURSE/JEE (Main)/31-01-2016 35. Ans.(3) 36. Ans.(2) 37. Ans.(3) 38. Ans.(1) 44.

ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE COURSE/JEE (Main)/31-01-2016

35. Ans.(3)

36. Ans.(2)

37. Ans.(3)

38. Ans.(1)

44. Ans.(1)

45. Ans. (4)

46. Ans. (3)

47. Ans. (1)

48. Ans. (2)

49. Ans. (4)

50. Ans. (4)

51.

52. Ans. (3)

53.

54.

55. Ans. (4)

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61. Ans. (3) Shift origin at (102,–4)

62. Ans. (1) Divide by –x 2

 

PM = ZdRT PV = ZRT

1.5

0.08

400

V

=

2

=

24 litre

2NO 2 (g) 

P 1

kp =

N 2 O 4 at 300K

P

2

P

2

1

2

P 2

(i)

P 1 +

P 2 = 8 atm

2NO 2 (1 + 2P) P T = (5 + P)

P 2 = 10

P 1 = 2 atm

 

(ii)

N 2 O 4 (4 – P)

2

Ans.(2)

40. Ans.(4)

39.

Ans. (4)

Ans. (3)

Ans. (2)

Ans. (3)

Ans. (2)

Ans. (3)

Ans. (2)

Ans. (1)

 

K p =

(4

P)

(1

2P)

2

P = 0.19 atm P T = 5.19 atm

41.

Ans.(3)

 

 

y

 

2

 

y

 

2

0

x m 2 + m – 2 = 0

x

Replace m by

1

m

1

1

2

 

2

0

m 2m 2 + 2m – 1 = 0

m

2y

2

2y

x

2

x

 

1

0

x 2 – xy – 2y 2 = 0

(R.A)

100

0.8

100

1.2

80

2

 

120

 

 

16

32

 

32

 
 

100

0.8

 

X A =

16

 

80

2

4

 

280

 

280

7

 

32

 

18

1 mole

90

5

 
 

50

1

 

1000 ×

400

5

× 2 = 0.1 × VV

V = 500 ml

280

32

=

42. Ans.(1)

63. Ans. (2)

x + y – 1 = 0

 

A

1

 

2

15200

R

H

 

1

4

 

1

 

 

5

1

2

 

9

9

4

5

A

1

  

1 9

R

H

15200

1

1

1

4

 

9

4

3

9

9

 

3

y

x

  

9

9

3

=

738720

 

ƒ

1

x

5

 

43. Ans.(3)

64. Ans. (1) = (x – 1) 3 – 1

= (y – 1) 3 – 1

 

1

3 x  1
3
x
1

0000CT100115001

43. Ans.(3) 64. Ans. (1) = (x – 1) 3 – 1 = (y – 1)

HS-5/7

65. Ans. (1) x 2 + x + 1 = 3 ; x  1

65. Ans. (1) x 2 + x + 1 = 3 ; x 1 x 2 + x – 2 = 0 (x + 2) (x – 1) = 0 –2,1 (rejected)

66. Ans. (4)

E + 1 = (2 a ) 3 + (2b) 3 + 1 – 3.2 a .2 b .1

E min = p = –1; 2 a = 2 b = 1 

(0,0) m i n = p = –1; 2 a = 2 b = 1  a

a = b = 0

L

2
2

x + y – z = 0

67. Ans. (3) 1 > 95 – 3063 20sin1 > sin95 > sin63

68. Ans. (2) cosx + sinx > 0 & cosx – sinx < 0

 3 

 

 

4

,

4

69. Ans. (4) n(A × A) = 9 Relation containing (1,2), (2,1), (a,a) = 2 3

Relation containing (1,2), (2,1), (1,3), (3,1),(a,a) = 2 3 Relation containing (1,2), (2,1), (2,3), (3,2),(a,a) = 2 3 Relation containing

(1,2), (2,1), (1,3), (3,1),(2,3), (3,1)(a,a) = 2 3

Total number of relation = 32.

70. Ans. (1)

ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE COURSE/JEE (Main)/31-01-2016

71. Ans. (2) sin + cos < 0 2 3  sin  cos 
71. Ans. (2)
sin + cos < 0
2 3
sin

cos
2
1
13/12
sin 2 
2
17/12
5 
2n

 
2
2n

6
6
5 
n

 
n
12
12
72. Ans. (4)
2x
k 
2
x
 1
 1,1

73.

k > –1

Ans. (3)

Circumcentre of ABC

Orthocentre of PQR

74. Ans. (2)

x

10

x

2

1

x

12

3

(AM.GM)

Equality occurs of x = ±1 But sec 1 x takes maximum at x = –1

ƒ min (x) =

1

 1

ƒ

1

3

75. Ans. (3) x 2 – 1 < [x 2 ]

< x 2

[x 2 ] = 2x – 1

x 2 < 2x 0 < x < 2

HS-6/7

2n An ABn Bn AB

2nAn B n AB

n A3n B5n AB

n A3n B10n A5n B

8n(B) = 9n(A)

n

A

8

n

B

9

n

A 8k;n B 9k

n AB 7k

n A B10k 10 k = 1

 7k n  A  B   10k  10 k = 1 1
 7k n  A  B   10k  10 k = 1 1
 7k n  A  B   10k  10 k = 1 1
 7k n  A  B   10k  10 k = 1 1
 7k n  A  B   10k  10 k = 1 1

1 < x < 2

x=1

sum = 3

10k  10 k = 1 1 < x <  2 x=1 sum = 3
10k  10 k = 1 1 < x <  2 x=1 sum = 3

0 < x < 1

x =

1/2

2 < x < 2 x = 3/2

76. Ans. (4)

B   8k 3k A 3 D 8 C
B
 
8k
3k
A
3
D
8
C

3k + 8k > 11; 8k

k > 1; 11 + 3k > 8k

k = 2

k

11

5

1

Perimeter = 33

3k A 3 D 8 C 3k + 8k > 11; 8k k > 1; 11

0000CT100115001

77. Ans. (2)  1 1 2 3    n 1 2 3

77. Ans. (2)

 1 1 2 3    n 1 2 3 2  
1
1
2
3
n
1
2
3
2
 
2
2
2
n
 1
1
 
n
1 
2 
n
n
 1
2
2
 
n
 1
1
n
 1
4
n
1
2n
1
2
2
9
n  1
78. Ans. (2)
1
2
1
sin
1
x
sin
2 – 2x 2 = 2 – x

1

1

n

2

n

1

2  x 2
2
x
2
x  2 79. Ans. (3)  2 /2 sec2 –1 0 1
x 
2
79. Ans. (3)
2
/2
sec2
–1
0
1

Df ,sec 21,

80. Ans. (3)

1 1 x   1 or x   1 x x x 2
1
1
x
1
or x
 1
x x
x 2 – x – 1 = 0
x 2 + x – 1 = 0
1
5
5  1

2

x 2 – x – 1 = 0 x 2 + x – 1 = 0

required sum = 5

81. Ans. (2)

82. Ans. (1)

2

Graph is

symmetric about x = 6

–2b = 6 b = –3

ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/NURTURE COURSE/JEE (Main)/31-01-2016

83. Ans. (1)

84. Ans. (3)

0 < LHS < 1

{as it is absolute difference of distance of point P(x,0) from A(2,0) & B(3,0)} 0 < 2 – a < 1

1 < a < 2 sum = 3

85. Ans. (1) Put x = sin

y

sin  1  cos 
sin 
1 
cos 

86. Ans. (3) coefficient of x 100

non-negative integral solution of

a + b + c = 100

102 C 2

87. Ans. (4) 'ƒ' is odd ƒ 1 is also odd

sum = 0

88. Ans. (1)

(6,ƒ(6)) (3,4) (0,ƒ(0))
(6,ƒ(6))
(3,4)
(0,ƒ(0))

ƒ(0) + ƒ(0) = 8 similarly every pair has sum 8.

89. Ans. (1)

10 C 2

90. Ans. (3)

6n, 7e, 2d, 2s, 2t,1i number of selections = 7 × 8 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 2–1

= 3023

0000CT100115001

2 90. Ans. (3) 6n, 7e, 2d, 2s, 2t,1i number of selections = 7 × 8

HS-7/7