Jee Main 2017 Paper

This booklet contains 44 printed pages.
S c 44 RBS No. :
PAPER - 1 : PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
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PART A PHYSICS A
ALL THE GRAPHS/DIAGRAMS GIVEN ARE /U U
SCHEMATIC AND NOT DRAWN TO SCALE. U S U U
1. A man grows into a giant such that his 1. c, U
linear dimensions increase by a factor U U 9
of 9. Assuming that his density remains U
same, the stress in the leg will change by a U ?
factor of :
(1) 9 (1) 9
1 1
(2) (2)
9 9
(3) 81 (3) 81
1 1
(4) (4)
81 81
2. A body is thrown vertically upwards. 2. U U U U

Which one of the following graphs
correctly represent the velocity vs time ? ?
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
A/Page 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / U

3. A body of mass m=102 kg is moving in 3. m=102 kg U
a medium and experiences a frictional U U F=kv2
force F=kv 2 . Its initial speed is U U U
v0=10 ms1. If, after 10 s, its energy is v0=10 ms1 10 s
1 1
8
mv02, the value of k will be :
8
mv02 k
(1) 103 kg m1 (1) 103 kg m1
(2) 103 kg s1 (2) 103 kg s1
(3) 104 kg m1 (3) 104 kg m1
(4) 101 kg m1 s1 (4) 101 kg m1 s1
4. A time dependent force F=6t acts on a 4. 1 kg , U U

particle of mass 1 kg. If the particle starts (time dependent) F=6t U
from rest, the work done by the force US 1 s
during the first 1 sec. will be : mU
(1) 4.5 J (1) 4.5 J
(2) 22 J (2) 22 J
(3) 9J (3) 9J
(4) 18 J (4) 18 J

5. The moment of inertia of a uniform 5. R l
cylinder of length l and radius R about its m
perpendicular bisector is I. What is the I
ratio l/R such that the moment of inertia l/R ?
is minimum ?
3 3
(1) (1)
2 2
3 3
(2) (2)
2 2
(3) 1 (3) 1
3 3
(4) (4)
2 2
6. A slender uniform rod of mass M and 6. M l

length l is pivoted at one end so that it can U U US
rotate in a vertical plane (see figure). There U ( )
is negligible friction at the pivot. The free U U U U U
end is held vertically above the pivot and U U UU U
then released. The angular acceleration U
of the rod when it makes an angle with U
the vertical is :
3g 3g
(1) sin (1) sin
2l 2l
2g 2g
(2) sin (2) sin
3l 3l
3g 3g
(3) cos (3) cos
2l 2l
2g 2g
(4) cos (4) cos
3l 3l

7. The variation of acceleration due to gravity 7. U d L U g
g with distance d from centre of the
earth is best represented by (R=Earths ? (R= )
radius) :
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
8. A copper ball of mass 100 gm is at a 8. 100 gm

temperature T. It is dropped in a copper T 170 gm U 100 gm
calorimeter of mass 100 gm, filled with UUU, U U
170 gm of water at room temperature. , U
Subsequently, the temperature of the 758C T
system is found to be 758C. T is given by :
(Given : room temperature=308C, specific ( U =308C, C

heat of copper=0.1 cal/gm8C) c =0.1 cal/gm8C)
(1) 8008C (1) 8008C
(2) 8858C (2) 8858C
(3) 12508C (3) 12508C
(4) 8258C (4) 8258C

9. An external pressure P is applied on a cube 9. 08C U U U P
at 08C so that it is equally compressed from U UU U
all sides. K is the bulk modulus of the S
material of the cube and is its coefficient K U U
of linear expansion. Suppose we want to U U
bring the cube to its original size by ?
heating. The temperature should be raised
by :
P P
(1) 3 K (1) 3 K
P P
(2) K (2) K
3 3
(3) PK (3) PK
(4) 3PK (4) 3PK
10. Cp and Cv are specific heats at constant 10. SU SU U cU c

pressure and constant volume respectively. Cp Cv
It is observed that
CpCv=a for hydrogen gas U , CpCv=a
CpCv=b for nitrogen gas U , CpCv=b
The correct relation between a and b is : a U b
1 1
(1) a= b (1) a= b
14 14
(2) a=b (2) a=b
(3) a=14 b (3) a=14 b
(4) a=28 b (4) a=28 b

11. The temperature of an open room of 11. U 30 m3
volume 30 m3 increases from 178C to 278C U 178C U 278C
due to the sunshine. The atmospheric U U U
pressure in the room remains 1105 Pa. 1105 Pa U U U
If ni and nf are the number of molecules in ni
the room before and after heating, then nf nfni
nfni will be :
(1) 1.6110 23 (1) 1.6110 23
(2) 1.3810 23 (2) 1.3810 23
(3) 2.510 25 (3) 2.510 25
(4) 2.510 25 (4) 2.510 25
12. A particle is executing simple harmonic 12. , T U U U

motion with a time period T. At time t=0, t=0 U S S
it is at its position of equilibrium. The
kinetic energy - time graph of the particle ?
will look like :
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

13. An observer is moving with half the speed 13. 10 GHz
of light towards a stationary microwave SU U (microwave)
source emitting waves at frequency d U U mU
10 GHz. What is the frequency of the U
microwave measured by the observer ? ( =3108 ms1)
(speed of light=3108 ms1)
(1) 10.1 GHz (1) 10.1 GHz
(2) 12.1 GHz (2) 12.1 GHz
(3) 17.3 GHz (3) 17.3 GHz
(4) 15.3 GHz (4) 15.3 GHz

14. An electric dipole has a fixed dipole 14. l m SU m p

moment p , which makes angle with x- l E1= E i

respect to x-axis. When subjected to an U U T1= k

electric field E1= E i , it experiences a U l E 2= 3 E1 j U U

torque T1= k . When subjected to T2 = T1 U

another electric field E 2= 3 E1 j it

experiences a torque T2 = T1 . The angle
is :
(1) 308 (1) 308
(2) 458 (2) 458
(3) 608 (3) 608
(4) 908 (4) 908

15. A capacitance of 2 F is required in an 15. l U 2 F U U
electrical circuit across a potential 1.0 kV U
difference of 1.0 kV. A large number of 1 F U U U
1 F capacitors are available which can 300 V U U ,
withstand a potential difference of not
more than 300 V.
The minimum number of capacitors U U # U

required to achieve this is : U ?
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 16 (2) 16
(3) 24 (3) 24
(4) 32 (4) 32
16. In the given circuit diagram when the 16. U U SUS

current reaches steady state in the circuit, U C U U
the charge on the capacitor of capacitance
C will be :
(1) CE (1) CE
r1 r1
(2) CE (2) CE
( r2 +r ) ( r2 +r )
(3) r2 (3) r2
CE CE
(r+r2 ) (r+r2 )
r1 r1
(4) CE (4) CE
(r1+r) (r1+r)

17. 17.
In the above circuit the current in each U U U U

resistance is :
(1) 1A (1) 1A
(2) 0.25 A (2) 0.25 A
(3) 0.5 A (3) 0.5 A
(4) 0A (4) 0A
18. A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 18. 6.7102 Am2

6.710 2 Am 2 and moment of inertia 7.5106 kg m2 Z,
7.510 6 kg m 2 is performing simple 0.01 T U
harmonic oscillations in a magnetic field U U 10 U
of 0.01 T. Time taken for 10 complete
oscillations is :
(1) 6.65 s (1) 6.65 s
(2) 8.89 s (2) 8.89 s
(3) 6.98 s (3) 6.98 s
(4) 8.76 s (4) 8.76 s

19. When a current of 5 mA is passed through 19. 15 U U UU
a galvanometer having a coil of resistance 5 mA U
15 , it shows full scale deflection. The S 010 V U
value of the resistance to be put in series U
with the galvanometer to convert it into a UU ?
voltmeter of range 010 V is :
(1) 1.985103 (1) 1.985103
(2) 2.04510 3 (2) 2.04510 3
(3) 2.535103 (3) 2.535103
(4) 4.005103 (4) 4.005103
20. In a coil of resistance 100 , a current is 20. 100 U

induced by changing the magnetic flux U U U
through it as shown in the figure. The U U U
magnitude of change in flux through the
coil is :
(1) 200 Wb (1) 200 Wb
(2) 225 Wb (2) 225 Wb
(3) 250 Wb (3) 250 Wb
(4) 275 Wb (4) 275 Wb

21. An electron beam is accelerated by a 21. X-U U U U
potential difference V to hit a metallic U V U U U U
target to produce X-rays. It produces
continuous as well as characteristic X-rays. (characteristic) U (continuous)
If min is the smallest possible wavelength X-U X-U SU
of X-ray in the spectrum, the variation of U min log min
log min with log V is correctly represented log V
in : ?
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

22. A diverging lens with magnitude of focal 22. 25 cm U U U
length 25 cm is placed at a distance of 20 cm U
15 cm from a converging lens of magnitude U 15 cm U U U
of focal length 20 cm. A beam of parallel U U U
light falls on the diverging lens. The final U
image formed is :
(1) real and at a distance of 40 cm from (1) S U U 40 cm U

convergent lens. U
(2) virtual and at a distance of 40 cm (2) U U 40 cm U

from convergent lens. U

the divergent lens. U

the convergent lens. U
23. In a Youngs double slit experiment, slits 23. mU , U U

are separated by 0.5 mm, and the screen 0.5 mm U U 150 cm
is placed 150 cm away. A beam of light , 650 nm U 520 nm
consisting of two wavelengths, 650 nm U , U U
and 520 nm, is used to obtain interference U cU cU
fringes on the screen. The least distance , UZ #
from the common central maximum to the , U
point where the bright fringes due to both
the wavelengths coincide is :
(1) 1.56 mm (1) 1.56 mm
(2) 7.8 mm (2) 7.8 mm
(3) 9.75 mm (3) 9.75 mm
(4) 15.6 mm (4) 15.6 mm

24. A particle A of mass m and initial velocity 24. m U v -A
m m
v collides with a particle B of mass UU SU -B
2 2
which is at rest. The collision is head on, UU S UU
and elastic. The ratio of the de-Broglie U- UZ A B
wavelengths A to B after the collision is :
A 1 A 1
(1) = (1) =
B 3 B 3
A A
(2) =2 (2) =2
B B
A 2 A 2
(3) = (3) =
B 3 B 3
A 1 A 1
(4) = (4) =
B 2 B 2
25. Some energy levels of a molecule are 25. U SU

shown in the figure. The ratio of the UZ r=1/2
wavelengths r=1/2, is given by :
4 4
(1) r= (1) r=
3 3
2 2
(2) r= (2) r=
3 3
3 3
(3) r= (3) r=
4 4
1 1
(4) r= (4) r=
3 3

26. A radioactive nucleus A with a half life T, 26. UUU -A h- T
decays into a nucleus B. At t=0, there is , -B t=0
no nucleus B. At sometime t, the ratio of U -B t U
the number of B to that of A is 0.3. Then, B A 0.3 t
t is given by :
T log 2 T log 2
(1) t= (1) t=
2 log 1.3 2 log 1.3
log 1.3 log 1.3

(2) t=T (2) t=T
log 2 log 2
(3) t=T log (1.3) (3) t=T log (1.3)
T T
(4) t= (4) t=
log (1.3) log (1.3)
27. In a common emitter amplifier circuit 27. n-p-n U$SUU cU

using an n-p-n transistor, the phase U
difference between the input and the U
output voltages will be :
(1) 458 (1) 458
(2) 908 (2) 908
(3) 1358 (3) 1358
(4) 1808 (4) 1808
28. In amplitude modulation, sinusoidal 28. U c

carrier frequency used is denoted by c m
and the signal frequency is denoted by m. U (m) U
The bandwidth (m) of the signal is such m<<c. U
that m<<c. Which of the following U ?
frequencies is not contained in the
modulated wave ?
(1) m (1) m
(2) c (2) c
(3) m + c (3) m+ c
(4) c m (4) c m

29. Which of the following statements is 29. ?
false ?
(1) Wheatstone bridge is the most (1) USU

sensitive when all the four U U U
resistances are of the same order of
magnitude.
(2) In a balanced wheatstone bridge if (2) USU ,

the cell and the galvanometer are UU U
exchanged, the null point is
disturbed.
(3) A rheostat can be used as a potential (3) U

divider. U U
(4) Kirchhoffs second law represents (4) U m U
energy conservation.
30. The following observations were taken for 30. cU

determining surface tension T of water by T
capillary method :
diameter of capillary, D=1.25102 m , D=1.25102 m
rise of water, h=1.45102 m. , h=1.45102 m
Using g=9.80 m/s 2 and the simplified g=9.80 m/s 2 U

rhg rhg
relation T= 103 N/m , the T= 103 N/m , U
2 2
possible error in surface tension is closest cU U U
to :
(1) 0.15%
(1) 0.15%
(2) 1.5%
(2) 1.5%
(3) 2.4%
(3) 2.4%
(4) 10%
(4) 10%

PART B CHEMISTRY B U
31. Given 31. ,
C(graphite)+O2(g) CO2(g) ; C(graphite)+O2(g) CO2(g) ;
rH8=393.5 kJ mol1 rH8=393.5 kJ mol1
H2(g)+ 21 O2(g) H2O(l) ; H2(g)+ 21 O2(g) H2O(l) ;

rH8=285.8 kJ mol1 rH8=285.8 kJ mol1
CO2(g)+2H2O(l) CH4(g)+2O2(g) ; CO2(g)+2H2O(l) CH4(g)+2O2(g) ;
rH8=+890.3 kJ mol1 rH8=+890.3 kJ mol1
Based on the above thermochemical U cU U U
equations, the value of rH8 at 298 K for U 298 K U
the reaction C(graphite)+2H2(g) CH4(g)
C(graphite)+2H2(g) CH4(g) will be : rH8
(1) 74.8 kJ mol1 (1) 74.8 kJ mol1
(2) 144.0 kJ mol1 (2) 144.0 kJ mol1
(3) +74.8 kJ mol1 (3) +74.8 kJ mol1
(4) +144.0 kJ mol1 (4) +144.0 kJ mol1
32. 1 gram of a carbonate (M 2 CO 3 ) on 32. U (M2CO3) 1 HCl

treatment with excess HCl produces U
0.01186 mole of CO2. The molar mass of 0.01186 CO2 M2CO3
M2CO3 in g mol1 is : U g mol1
(1) 118.6 (1) 118.6
(2) 11.86 (2) 11.86
(3) 1186 (3) 1186
(4) 84.3 (4) 84.3
33. U is equal to : 33. U UU ,

(1) Adiabatic work (1) Lhc
(2) Isothermal work (2)
(3) Isochoric work (3) -
(4) Isobaric work (4)
34. The Tyndall effect is observed only when 34. UU
following conditions are satisfied : cU
(a) The diameter of the dispersed (a) U ,
particles is much smaller than the U UU
wavelength of the light used.
(b) The diameter of the dispersed (b) U ,

particle is not much smaller than the U UU
wavelength of the light used.
(c) The refractive indices of the (c) U S U

dispersed phase and dispersion U
medium are almost similar in
magnitude.
(d) The refractive indices of the (d) U S U

dispersed phase and dispersion U
medium differ greatly in magnitude.
(1) (a) and (c) (1) (a) (c)

(2) (b) and (c) (2) (b) (c)
(3) (a) and (d) (3) (a) (d)
(4) (b) and (d) (4) (b) (d)
35. A metal crystallises in a face centred cubic 35. U SU

structure. If the edge length of its unit cell U a
is a, the closest approach between two , SU U
atoms in metallic crystal will be : U U
(1) 2a (1) 2a
a a
(2) (2)
2 2
(3) 2a (3) 2a
(4) 2 2a (4) 2 2a

36. Given 36. ,

ECl =1.36 V, E 3+ =0.74 V ECl /Cl=1.36 V, ECr 3+ =0.74 V
2 /Cl Cr /Cr 2 /Cr
ECr O2/Cr 3+=1.33 V, EMnO

/Mn 2+
=1.51 V .
ECr O2/Cr 3+

=1.33 V, EMnO
/Mn 2+
=1.51 V .
2 7 4 2 7 4
Among the following, the strongest

reducing agent is :
(1) Cr3+ (1) Cr3+
(2) Cl (2) Cl
(3) Cr (3) Cr
(4) Mn2+ (4) Mn2+
37. The freezing point of benzene decreases 37. U U 0.2 g 20 g

by 0.458C when 0.2 g of acetic acid is 0.458C
added to 20 g of benzene. If acetic acid U U
associates to form a dimer in benzene, U UU (m) U U
percentage association of acetic acid in
benzene will be :
(Kf for benzene=5.12 K kg mol1) ( Kf =5.12 K kg mol1)
(1) 74.6% (1) 74.6%
(2) 94.6% (2) 94.6%
(3) 64.6% (3) 64.6%
(4) 80.4% (4) 80.4%
38. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for 38. U U m U h

hydrogen atom is :
(Plancks Const. h=6.62621034 Js; ( SU h=6.62621034 Js;
mass of electron=9.10911031 kg; U =9.10911031 kg;
charge of electron e=1.602101019 C; U U e=1.602101019 C;
permittivity of vacuum Ul
e0=8.8541851012 kg 1m3A2) e0=8.8541851012 kg 1m3A2)
(1) 0.529 (1) 0.529
(2) 2.12 (2) 2.12
(3) 1.65 (3) 1.65
(4) 4.76 (4) 4.76

39. Two reactions R1 and R2 have identical 39. , R1 R2 U
pre-exponential factors. Activation energy R1 R2
of R1 exceeds that of R2 by 10 kJ mol1. If 10 kJ mol1
k1 and k2 are rate constants for reactions R1 R2 300 K U U
R 1 and R 2 respectively at 300 K, then k1 k2 ln(k2/k1)
ln(k2/k1) is equal to : UU ?
(R=8.314 J mol1K1) (R=8.314 J mol1K1)
(1) 6 (1) 6
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 8 (3) 8
(4) 12 (4) 12
40. pKa of a weak acid (HA) and pKb of a weak 40. (HA) pKa
base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively. U (BOH) pKb 3.2 3.4
The pH of their salt (AB) solution is : (AB) pH
(1) 7.0 (1) 7.0
(2) 1.0 (2) 1.0
(3) 7.2 (3) 7.2
(4) 6.9 (4) 6.9
41. Both lithium and magnesium display 41. U,

several similar properties due to the U U ,
diagonal relationship; however, the one ,
which is incorrect, is :
(1) both form nitrides (1) UU

(2) nitrates of both Li and Mg yield NO2 (2) , UU
and O2 on heating U U U NO2 O2
(3) both form basic carbonates (3) U U
(4) both form soluble bicarbonates (4) U
42. Which of the following species is not 42. S$ ?
paramagnetic ?
(1) O2 (1) O2
(2) B2 (2) B2
(3) NO (3) NO
(4) CO (4) CO
43. Which of the following reactions is an 43.

example of a redox reaction ? (UU) U ?
(1) XeF6 + H2O XeOF4 + 2HF (1) XeF6 + H2O XeOF4 + 2HF
(2) XeF6 + 2H2O XeO2F2 + 4HF (2) XeF6 + 2H2O XeO2F2 + 4HF
(3) XeF4 + O2F2 XeF6 + O2 (3) XeF4 + O2F2 XeF6 + O2
(4) XeF2 + PF5 [XeF]+ PF6 (4) XeF2 + PF5 [XeF]+ PF6
44. A water sample has ppm level 44. ... (ppm) SU

concentration of following anions
F=10 ; SO 24=100 ; NO
3 =50 F=10 ; SO 24=100 ; NO
3 =50
The anion/anions that make/makes the /

water sample unsuitable for drinking is/ / , /
are :
(1) only F (1) F
(2) only SO 24 (2) SO 24
(3) only NO
3 (3) NO
3
(4) both SO 24 and NO

3 (4) SO 24 NO
3
45. The group having isoelectronic species is : 45. U S ,

(1) O2, F, Na, Mg2+ (1) O2, F, Na, Mg2+
(2) O, F, Na+, Mg2+ (2) O, F, Na+, Mg2+
(3) O2, F, Na+, Mg2+ (3) O2, F, Na+, Mg2+
(4) O, F, Na, Mg+ (4) O, F, Na, Mg+

46. The products obtained when chlorine gas 46. U UU NaOH
reacts with cold and dilute aqueous NaOH U
are :
(1) Cl and ClO (1) Cl ClO
(2) Cl and ClO 2 (2) Cl ClO 2

(3) ClO and ClO 3 (3) ClO ClO 3

(4) 2 and ClO 3

ClO
(4) ClO
2 ClO
3
47. In the following reactions, ZnO is 47. , ZnO U

respectively acting as a/an :
(a) ZnO+Na2O Na2ZnO2 (a) ZnO+Na2O Na2ZnO2
(b) ZnO+CO2 ZnCO3 (b) ZnO+CO2 ZnCO3
(1) acid and acid (1)

(2) acid and base (2) U
(3) base and acid (3) U
(4) base and base (4) U U
48. Sodium salt of an organic acid X produces 48. U X

effervescence with conc. H2SO4. X reacts H2SO4 U X
with the acidified aqueous CaCl2 solution CaCl2 U U
to give a white precipitate which KMnO4
decolourises acidic solution of KMnO4. U X
X is :
(1) CH 3COONa (1) CH 3COONa
(2) Na 2C2O 4 (2) Na 2C2O 4
(3) C6H5COONa (3) C6H5COONa
(4) HCOONa (4) HCOONa

49. The most abundant elements by mass in 49. SS c UU cU
the body of a healthy human adult are : (61.4%);
Oxygen (61.4%); Carbon (22.9%), (22.9%), U (10.0%);
Hydrogen (10.0%); and Nitrogen (2.6%). U (2.6%) 75 kg
The weight which a 75 kg person would UU 1H U 2H U
gain if all 1H atoms are replaced by 2H U h ,
atoms is :
(1) 7.5 kg (1) 7.5 kg
(2) 10 kg (2) 10 kg
(3) 15 kg (3) 15 kg
(4) 37.5 kg (4) 37.5 kg
50. On treatment of 100 mL of 0.1 M solution 50. CoCl3.6H2O 0.1 M 100 mL

of CoCl 3 .6H 2 O with excess AgNO 3 ; AgNO 3 U U
1.210 22 ions are precipitated. The 1.21022
complex is :
(1) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 (1) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3
(2) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O (2) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
(3) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O (3) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O
(4) [Co(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O (4) [Co(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O

51. Which of the following compounds will 51. U
form significant amount of meta product U U?
during mono-nitration reaction ?
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
52. Which of the following, upon treatment 52. , tert-BuONa

with tert-BuONa followed by addition of U U, U
bromine water, fails to decolourize the U U ?
colour of bromine ?
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

53. The formation of which of the following 53. U
polymers involves hydrolysis reaction ? ?
(1) Nylon 6, 6 (1) 6, 6
(2) Terylene (2) UU
(3) Nylon 6 (3) 6
(4) Bakelite (4) U
54. Which of the following molecules is least 54. M

resonance stabilized ? SU ?
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
55. The increasing order of the reactivity of 55. S N1 U

the following halides for the SN1 reaction
is :
CH3CH2CH2Cl CH3CH2CH2Cl
(I) (II) (I) (II)

pH3COC6H4CH2Cl pH3COC6H4CH2Cl
(III) (III)
(1) (I) < (III) < (II) (1) (I) < (III) < (II)
(2) (II) < (III) < (I) (2) (II) < (III) < (I)
(3) (III) < (II) < (I) (3) (III) < (II) < (I)
(4) (II) < (I) < (III) (4) (II) < (I) < (III)

56. The major product obtained in the 56.
following reaction is :
(1) (+)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5 (1) (+)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5
(2) ()C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5 (2) ()C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5
(3) ()C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5 (3) ()C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5
(4) C6H5CH=CHC6H5 (4) C6H5CH=CHC6H5
57. Which of the following compounds will 57. KOH

behave as a reducing sugar in an aqueous U M U
KOH solution ? U?
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

58. 3-Methyl-pent-2-ene on reaction with HBr 58. UU S , 3--U-2-,
in presence of peroxide forms an addition HBr U U
product. The number of possible
stereoisomers for the product is :
(1) Two (1)
(2) Four (2) U
(3) Six (3) U
(4) Zero (4)
59. The correct sequence of reagents for the 59. MU

following conversion will be :
(1) CH 3MgBr, [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+OH, (1) CH 3MgBr, [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+OH,

H+/CH3OH H+/CH3OH
(2) [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+OH, CH 3MgBr, (2) [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+OH, CH 3MgBr,

H+/CH3 OH H+/CH3 OH
(3) [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+OH, H+/CH 3OH, (3) [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+OH, H+/CH 3OH,
CH3 MgBr CH3 MgBr
(4) CH3 MgBr, H+/CH 3OH, (4) CH3 MgBr, H+/CH 3OH,
[Ag(NH3 )2 ]+OH [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+OH

60. The major product obtained in the 60.
following reaction is :
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

PART C MATHEMATICS C
The function f : R , defined f : R , ,

1 1 1 1
61.
2 2
61.
2 2
x x
as f ( x ) =
2
, is : f (x) = mU U
1+x 1 + x2
(1) injective but not surjective. (1) U U
(2) surjective but not injective. (2) U U
(3) neither injective nor surjective. (3) U U
(4) invertible. (4)
62. If, for a positive integer n, the quadratic 62. Z n , m U

equation,
x(x+1)+(x+1)(x+2)+.... x(x+1)+(x+1)(x+2)+....
+ ( x + n 1) (x+n)=10n + ( x + n 1) (x+n)=10n
has two consecutive integral solutions, Z , n UU
then n is equal to :
(1) 9 (1) 9
(2) 10 (2) 10
(3) 11 (3) 11
(4) 12 (4) 12
63. Let be a complex number such that 63. 2+1=z

2+1=z where z = 3 . If z = 3
1 1 1 1 1 1
1 21 2 = 3k, 1 21 2 = 3k
2 7 2 7
1 1
then k is equal to : k UU
(1) z (1) z
(2) 1 (2) 1
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) z (4) z

2 3 2 3
64. If A = , then adj (3A +12A) is
2 64. A= , adj (3A2+12A)
4 1 4 1
equal to : UU
51 63 51 63
(1) 84 72 (1) 84 72

51 84 51 84
(2) 63 72 (2) 63 72

72 63 72 63
(3) 84 (3)
51 84
51
72 84 72 84
(4) 63 (4)
51 63
51
65. If S is the set of distinct values of b for 65. S, b

which the following system of linear U U
equations
x+y+z=1 x+y+z=1
x+ay+z=1 x+ay+z=1
ax+by+z=0 ax+by+z=0
has no solution, then S is : , S
(1) an infinite set (1) U
(2) a finite set containing two or more (2) U

elements
(3) a singleton (3)
(4) an empty set (4) U

66. A man X has 7 friends, 4 of them are ladies 66. X 7 , 4
and 3 are men. His wife Y also has 7 3 L , Y 7 ,
friends, 3 of them are ladies and 4 are men. 3 4 L X
Assume X and Y have no common friends. Y cU (common)
Then the total number of ways in which U X Y
X and Y together can throw a party 3 3 L U U
inviting 3 ladies and 3 men, so that 3 friends X Y - ,
of each of X and Y are in this party, is :
(1) 468 (1) 468
(2) 469 (2) 469
(3) 484 (3) 484
(4) 485 (4) 485
67. The value of 67. ( 21 C1 10C1 ) + ( 21 C2 10C2 ) +

( 21 C1 10C1 ) + ( 21 C2 10C2 ) + ( 21 C3 10C3 ) + ( 21 C 4 10C 4 ) + ..... +
( 21 C3 10C3 ) + ( 21 C 4 10C 4 ) + ..... + ( 21 C10 10C10 )
( 21 C10 10C10 ) is :
(1) 221210 (1) 221210
(2) 220 2 9 (2) 220 2 9
(3) 220210 (3) 220210
(4) 221211 (4) 221211
68. For any three positive real numbers 68. S a, b c

a, b and c,
9(25a2+b2)+25(c 23ac)=15b(3a+c). 9(25a2+b2)+25(c23ac)=15b(3a+c)
Then : ,
(1) b, c and a are in A.P. (1) b, c a U
(2) a, b and c are in A.P. (2) a, b c U
(3) a, b and c are in G.P. (3) a, b c U
(4) b, c and a are in G.P. (4) b, c a U

69. Let a, b, c e R. If f (x)=ax2+bx+c is such 69. a, b, c e R f (x)=ax2+bx+c
that a+b+c=3 and a+b+c=3 x, y e R
f (x+y)=f (x)+f (y)+xy, x, y e R, f (x+y)=f (x)+f (y)+xy
10 10
then f (n) is equal to : , f (n) UU
n=1 n=1
(1) 165 (1) 165
(2) 190 (2) 190
(3) 255 (3) 255
(4) 330 (4) 330
70. lim cot x cos x equals : 70. lim cot x cos x UU

x
2 ( 2x ) 3 x
2 ( 2x ) 3
1 1
(1) (1)
16 16
1 1
(2) (2)
8 8
1 1
(3) (3)
4 4
1 1
(4) (4)
24 24
6x x
x 0,
1
If for x 0, , the derivative of tan1
1 71.
71.
4 4 1 9x 3
6x x
tan1 is x g(x ) , then g(x) x g(x ) , g(x) UU
1 9x 3
equals :
3x x 3x x
(1) 3 (1)
1 9x 1 9x 3
3x 3x
(2) 3 (2)
1 9x 1 9x 3
3 3
(3) 3 (3)
1 + 9x 1 + 9x 3
9 9
(4) 3
(4)
1 + 9x 1 + 9x 3

72. The normal to the curve 72. y(x2)(x3)=x+6 U,
y(x2)(x3)=x+6 at the point where y- U ,
the curve intersects the y-axis passes U ?
through the point :
1 1 1 1
(1) , (1) ,
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
(2) , (2) ,
2 3 2 3
1 1 1 1
(3) , (3) ,
2 3 2 3
1 1 1 1
(4) , (4) ,
2 2 2 2
73. Twenty meters of wire is available for 73. U, U

fencing off a flower-bed in the form of a M , U U UU U
circular sector. Then the maximum area U
(in sq. m) of the flower-bed, is : ( . ),
(1) 10 (1) 10
(2) 25 (2) 25
(3) 30 (3) 30
(4) 12.5 (4) 12.5
74. Let I n = tan n x dx , (n > 1) . If 74. I n = tan n x dx , (n > 1)

I4 +I 6=a tan 5 x+bx 5+C, where C is a I 4 +I 6 =a tan 5 x+bx 5 +C , C
constant of integration, then the ordered U , (a, b) UU
pair (a, b) is equal to :
1 1
(1) , 0 (1) , 0
5 5
1 1
(2) , 1 (2) , 1
5 5
1 1
(3) , 0 (3) , 0
5 5
1 1
(4) , 1 (4) , 1
5 5

3 3
4 4
dx dx
75. The integral

1 + cos x
is equal to : 75.
1 + cos x
UU
4 4
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 2 (4) 2
76. The area (in sq. units) of the region 76. {(x, y) : x/0, x+y3, x 2 4y
{(x, y) : x/0, x+y3, x 2 4y and y1+ x } ( )
y1+ x } is :
3 3
(1) (1)
2 2
7 7
(2) (2)
3 3
5 5
(3) (3)
2 2
59 59
(4) (4)
12 12
dy dy
77. If (2 + sin x ) + (y + 1)cos x = 0 and 77. (2 + sin x ) + (y + 1)cos x = 0
dx dx
y

y(0)=1, then y is equal to : y(0)=1 , UU
2 2
2 2
(1) (1)
3 3
1 1
(2) (2)
3 3
4 4
(3) (3)
3 3
1 1
(4) (4)
3 3

78. Let k be an integer such that the triangle 78. k Z ,
with vertices (k, 3k), (5, k) and (k, 2) (k, 3k), (5, k) (k, 2) ,
has area 28 sq. units. Then the orthocentre 28 , -
of this triangle is at the point : U ,
3 3
(1) 1, (1) 1,
4 4
3 3
(2) 1, (2) 1,
4 4
1 1
(3) 2, (3) 2,
2 2
1 1
(4) 2, (4) 2,
2 2
79. The radius of a circle, having minimum 79. , y=4x2

area, which touches the curve y=4x2 U y=?x? S U ,
and the lines, y=?x? is :
(1) 2 ( 2 1) (1) 2 ( 2 1)
(2) 4 ( 2 1) (2) 4 ( 2 1)
(3) 4 ( 2 + 1) (3) 4 ( 2 + 1)
(4) 2 ( 2 + 1) (4) 2 ( 2 + 1)
80. The eccentricity of an ellipse whose centre 80. , U ,

1 1
is at the origin is . If one of its directrices x=4 ,
2 2
3
U
is x=4, then the equation of the normal 1,
2
to it at 1, is :
3
2
U
(1) 4x2y=1 (1) 4x2y=1
(2) 4x+2y=7 (2) 4x+2y=7
(3) x+2y=4 (3) x+2y=4
(4) 2yx=2 (4) 2yx=2

81. A hyperbola passes through the point 81. U P ( 2 , 3 ) U
P( 2, 3 ) and has foci at (2, 0). Then , (2, 0) U , U
the tangent to this hyperbola at P also P U S U U
passes through the point : ,
(1) (2 2 , 3 3 ) (1) (2 2 , 3 3 )
(2) ( 3, 2 ) (2) ( 3, 2 )
(3) ( 2, 3) (3) ( 2, 3)
(4) (3 2, 2 3) (4) (3 2, 2 3)
82. The distance of the point (1, 3, 7) from 82. (1, 1, 1) U

the plane passing through the point U
(1, 1, 1), having normal perpendicular x 1 y +2 z 4
= =
x 1 y +2 z 4 1 2 3
to both the lines = =
1 2 3 x 2 y +1 z +7
= = U ,
x 2 y +1 z +7 2 1 1
and = = , is :
2 1 1 (1, 3, 7) U
10 10
(1) (1)
83 83
5 5
(2) (2)
83 83
10 10
(3) (3)
74 74
20 20
(4) (4)
74 74
83. If the image of the point P(1, 2, 3) in the 83.

P(1, 2, 3)
plane, 2x+3y4z+22=0 measured 2x+3y4z+22=0 U
x y z x y z
parallel to the line, = = is Q, then = = U , Q , PQ UU
1 4 5 1 4 5
PQ is equal to :
(1) 2 42 (1) 2 42
(2) 42 (2) 42
(3) 6 5 (3) 6 5
(4) 3 5 (4) 3 5

84. Let a = 2 i + j 2 k and b = i + j . 84. a =2 i + j 2 k b=i + j

Let c be a vector such that c a = 3 , c c a =3 ,
( a b ) c = 3 and the angle between ( a b ) c = 3

c U

ab

c and a b be 308. Then a c is 308 , a c UU
equal to :
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 5 (2) 5
1 1
(3) (3)
8 8
25 25
(4) (4)
8 8
85. A box contains 15 green and 10 yellow 85. 15 U 10

balls. If 10 balls are randomly drawn, - U U , S ,
one-by-one, with replacement, then the 10 , U
variance of the number of green balls U
drawn is :
(1) 6 (1) 6
(2) 4 (2) 4
6 6
(3) (3)
25 25
12 12
(4) (4)
5 5

86. For three events A, B and C, 86. U A, B C
P(Exactly one of A or B occurs) P(A B U )
=P(Exactly one of B or C occurs) =P(B C U )
1 1
=P(Exactly one of C or A occurs)= and =P(C A U )=
4 4
P(All the three events occur P( U U
1 1
simultaneously)= . )= ,
16 16
Then the probability that at least one of U U ,
the events occurs, is :
7 7
(1) (1)
16 16
7 7
(2) (2)
64 64
3 3
(3) (3)
16 16
7 7
(4) (4)
32 32
87. If two different numbers are taken from 87. {0, 1, 2, 3, ......, 10}
the set {0, 1, 2, 3, ......, 10}; then the Z,
probability that their sum as well as U U , U
absolute difference are both multiple of 4,
is :
12 12
(1) (1)
55 55
14 14
(2) (2)
45 45
7 7
(3) (3)
55 55
6 6
(4) (4)
55 55

88. If 5(tan2 xcos2 x)=2cos 2x+9, then the 88. 5(tan 2 xcos 2 x)=2cos 2x+9,
value of cos 4x is : cos 4x
1 1
(1) (1)
3 3
2 2
(2) (2)
9 9
7 7
(3) (3)
9 9
3 3
(4) (4)
5 5
89. Let a vertical tower AB have its end A on 89. U U AB
the level ground. Let C be the mid-point U A U AB C
of AB and P be a point on the ground such U S P AP=2AB
that AP=2AB. If BPC=, then tan is BPC= , tan UU
equal to :
1 1
(1) (1)
4 4
2 2
(2) (2)
9 9
4 4
(3) (3)
9 9
6 6
(4) (4)
7 7
90. The following statement 90.
(pq)[(~pq)q] is : (pq)[(~pq)q]
(1) equivalent to ~pq (1) ~pq
(2) equivalent to p~q (2) p~q
(3) a fallacy (3) (fallacy)
(4) a tautology (4) L (tautology)
-o0o- -o0o-
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / U

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /




Read the following instructions carefully :
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars 1. U S U U (D -1) U U
on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side1) with U U U
Black Ball Point Pen.
2. U D-2 U U / U
2. For writing/marking particulars on Side2 of the
Answer Sheet, use Black Ball Point Pen only. U U
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers 3. U S/U U U S
anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. U
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only
one option is the correct answer.

5. For each incorrect response, (onefourth) marks of 5. U U
the total marks allotted to the question (i.e. 1 mark) (-) ( 1 )
will be deducted from the total score. No deduction U U U
from the total score, however, will be made if no
response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
, U
6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, 6. U S U U
as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in US ( U S U
Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), another set S UU), U U S
will be provided. U
7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work
or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All calculations/ 7. U U U U
writing work are to be done in the space provided for , U S
this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked Space U U mU
for Rough Work. This space is given at the bottom of , U D U U U
each page and in four pages (Page 40-43) at the end of
the booklet. S U cU (cU 40-43) U
8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand 8. U, / U U
over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the U U
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to S
take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. U U
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit
Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the 10. U
Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her S U
seat.
11. U U U S
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall
without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
U U SU U U
Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet U U S U SU
again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the U U
Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to
have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as
an unfair means case. The candidates are also required U S S U
to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space
provided in the Attendance Sheet. 12. U/S U , U
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any U U
Electronic device like mobile phone, pager etc. is
prohibited. 13. U U U
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and U mU
Regulations of the Examination body with regard to U
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of U
unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of the Examination body. 14. S U S U
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be
detached under any circumstances. 15. mU U / U
15. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual U U , S,
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This booklet contains 44 printed pages.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters ) :

2. A body is thrown vertically upwards. 2. U U U U

A/Page 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / U

(1) 103 kg m1 (1) 103 kg m1

(2) 103 kg s1 (2) 103 kg s1

(3) 104 kg m1 (3) 104 kg m1

(4) 101 kg m1 s1 (4) 101 kg m1 s1

4. A time dependent force F=6t acts on a 4. 1 kg , U U

(1) 4.5 J (1) 4.5 J

A/Page 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / U

6. A slender uniform rod of mass M and 6. M l

A/Page 4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / U

8. A copper ball of mass 100 gm is at a 8. 100 gm

(Given : room temperature=308C, specific ( U =308C, C

(2) 8858C (2) 8858C

(3) 12508C (3) 12508C

(4) 8258C (4) 8258C

A/Page 5 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / U

(4) 3PK (4) 3PK

10. Cp and Cv are specific heats at constant 10. SU SU U cU c

CpCv=a for hydrogen gas U , CpCv=a

CpCv=b for nitrogen gas U , CpCv=b

The correct relation between a and b is : a U b

(2) a=b (2) a=b

(3) a=14 b (3) a=14 b

(4) a=28 b (4) a=28 b

A/Page 6 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / U

(1) 1.6110 23 (1) 1.6110 23

(2) 1.3810 23 (2) 1.3810 23

(3) 2.510 25 (3) 2.510 25

(4) 2.510 25 (4) 2.510 25

12. A particle is executing simple harmonic 12. , T U U U

A/Page 7 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / U

(1) 10.1 GHz (1) 10.1 GHz

(2) 12.1 GHz (2) 12.1 GHz

(3) 17.3 GHz (3) 17.3 GHz

(4) 15.3 GHz (4) 15.3 GHz

(1) 308 (1) 308

(2) 458 (2) 458

(3) 608 (3) 608

(4) 908 (4) 908

A/Page 8 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / U

The minimum number of capacitors U U # U

16. In the given circuit diagram when the 16. U U SUS

A/Page 9 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / U

In the above circuit the current in each U U U U

(2) 0.25 A (2) 0.25 A

(3) 0.5 A (3) 0.5 A

18. A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 18. 6.7102 Am2

(1) 6.65 s (1) 6.65 s

(2) 8.89 s (2) 8.89 s

(3) 6.98 s (3) 6.98 s

(4) 8.76 s (4) 8.76 s

A/Page 10 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / U

(1) 1.985103 (1) 1.985103

(2) 2.04510 3 (2) 2.04510 3

(3) 2.535103 (3) 2.535103

(4) 4.005103 (4) 4.005103

20. In a coil of resistance 100 , a current is 20. 100 U

(1) 200 Wb (1) 200 Wb

(2) 225 Wb (2) 225 Wb

(3) 250 Wb (3) 250 Wb