Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
EVIDENCE
CULLED FROM EVIDENCE: RULES OF COURT IN THE PHILIPPINES RULES 128-134
By Assoc. Justice Ricardo J. Francisco
Q: May evidence inadmissible according to the laws in force The waiver of the privilege against the disclosure of state
secrets is void.
at the time the cause of action accrued be admitted at the
time of the trial of the case if by the laws then in force the
NOTE: Apart from these rules expressly thus protected
same is already made admissible?
against statutory legislative change, the Legislature has the
power to alter or create any rule of evidence. This is so for
A: Yes. There is no vested right of property in rules of
reasons inherent in the nature of legislative functions.
evidence.
Q: Why is such the rule? Q: What policy must courts observe in the enforcement of
the rules of evidence?
A: Because the rules of evidence are merely methods of
ascertaining the facts. It must be supposed that change in the A: Trial courts are enjoined to observe the strict enforcement
of the rules of evidence which crystallized through constant
law merely makes it more likely that the fact will be truly
use and practice and are very useful and effective aids in the
ascertained, either by admitting evidence whose former
search for truth and for the effective administration of
suppression, or by suppressing evidence whose former
admission, helped to conceal the truth. justice.
Q: Is an extension telephone of the same category as the Q: Distinguish logical relevancy from legal relevancy.
other prohibited devices enumerated in Sec.1 of the Anti-
Wiretapping Act? A:
A: No. The phrase any other device or arrangement refers LOGICAL RELEVANCY LEGAL RELEVANCY
to tap of a wire or cable or the use of a device or Evidence must be absolutely Requires a higher standard of
arrangement for the purpose of secretly overhearing, essential to the fact in issue evidentiary force and
intercepting, or recording the communication. There must be includes logical relevancy.
either a physical interruption through a wiretap or the The main condition of
deliberate installation of a device or arrangement in order to admisibility and that all rules
overhear, intercept, or record the spoken words. excluding evidence which is
logically relevant are
Q: Before a recording or conversation can be given therefore exceptions to the
probative value, what requisites must be first established? general rule.
A: NOTE: The fact that the evidence is logically relevant does not
1. A showing that the recording device was capable of insure admissibility.
taking testimony
2. A showing that the operator of device was Q: What is an issue under the rules of pleading?
competent
3. Establishment of the authenticity and correctness of A: Issue is the point or points in question at the conclusion of
the recording the pleadings which one side affirms and the other denies.
4. A showing that changes, additions or deletions have
not been made Q: What is a fact?
5. A showing of the manner of the preservation of the
recording A: A thing done or existing.
6. Identification of the speakers
7. A showing that the testimony elicited was voluntarily Q: Distinguish facts in issue from facts relevant to the issue.
made without any kind of inducement
A:
Q:In prosecution for illegal possession of opium, recidivism Q: What is the object of judicial notice?
is not charged in the information. May proof of the same be
admitted? A: To relieve the parties from the necessity of introducing
evidence to prove the fact noticed. It displaces evidence since
A: No, because no evidence can be adduced during the trial as it stands for proof, it fulfills the object which evidence is
of the case which does not directly or indirectly tend to prove designed to fulfill and makes evidence unneccessary.
some of the essential allegations of the complaint.
Q: What facts are subject to mandatory judicial notice?
Q: What is the nature of presumptions?
A:
A: Presumptions are not allegations but are evidence. And, as 1. Territorial extent
they constitute evidence, presumptions are irrelevant and 2. General history
therefore, inadmissible when they do not correspond with 3. Forms of governmetn of states
the allegations and the facts at issue in the allegations. 4. Symbols of nationality
5. Law of nations
Collateral facts 6. Admiralty courts and their seals
7. Politcal constitution and history of the Philippines
Q: What are collateral facts? 8. Matters relating to the legislative department
9. Matters relating to the executive department
A: Those that arouse outside the controversy, or are not 10. Matters relating to the courts of justice
directly connected with the principal matter or issue in 11. Laws of nature
dispute, as indicated in the pleadings of the parties. 12. Measure of time
13. Geographical divisions
Q: Are evidence of collateral facts admissible?
A:
Sec. 2 Judicial notice, when discretionary
GR: No, because they draw away the mind of the court from
the point at issue and excite prejudice and mislead it. Q: What facts are subject to discretionary judicial notice?
Sec. 1. Judicial notice, when mandatory A: When its existence or operation is acepted by the public
without qualification or contention. The test is whether
A court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of sufficient notoriety attaches to the fact involved as to make it
evidence, of the existence and territorial extent of states, proper to assume its existence without proof.
their political history, forms of government and symbols of
nationality, the law of nations, the admiralty and maritime Q: Give examples of matters capable of unquestionable
courts of the world and their seals, the political constitution demonstration.
and history of the Philippines, the official acts of the
legislative, executive and judicial departments of the A: It includes most of the facts, theories, and conclusions
Philippines, the laws of nature, the measure of time, and the which have come to be established and accepted by the
geographical divisions.(1a) specialists in the areas of natural science, natural
phenomena, chronology, technology, geography, statistical
Q: What is judicial notice? facts and other fields of professional and scientific
knowledge.
A: It means no more than that the court will bring to its aid
and consider without proof of the facts its knowledge of Q: Is the personal knowledge of the judge a judicial
those matters of public concern which are known by all well- knowledge of the court?
informed persons.
A: No. If the subject is proper for judicial knowledge, the Sec. 4. Judicial admissions
judge may, at his discretion, inform himself in any way which
he may seem best to him, and act accordingly. Q: What is judicial admission?
Q: How should the power to take judicial notice be A: Those made in te pleadings or in the progress of the trial.
exercised?
Q: What about extra-judicial admission?
A: It rests on the discretion of the courts. It must be exercised
with caution; care must be taken that the requisite notoriety A: Those made out of court or in a judicial procceding other
exists; and every reasonable doubt upon the subject should than the one under consideration.
be promptly resolved in the negative.
JUDICIAL EXTRA-JUDICIAL
Conclusive upon the party Disputable
making them
Sec. 3. Judicial notice; when hearing necessary
Q: What are the different forms of jucial admissions?
Q: What is the purpose of the hearing?
A:
A: It is not for the purpose of presentation of evidence but to 1. Oral
afford the parties reasonable opportunity to present Ex: withdrawal of contention, disclosure made
information relevant to thw propriety of taking such judicial before the court, admission made in the course of a
notice or to the tenor of the matter to be noticed. witness testimony, deposition
2. Written
This is based on the notions of public policy. Ex: in a pleading, bill of particulars, stipulation of
facts, request for admission, affidavit
Q: At what stage may the court take judicial notice of a fact?
Q: Is an admission contained in a pleading filed in another
A: action material to the issue on trial a judicial admission?
1. During the trial
2. After the trial and before judgment A: No. For it to be considered as a judicial admission, the
3. Appeal admission must be made in the same case.
Q: Distinguish judicial notice taken during the trial from Q: Does the failure to answer the complaint amount to
judicial notice taken after trial but before judgment or on judicial admission of the facts alleged therein?
appeal.
A: No.
A:
Q: Is a stipulatopn of facts allowed in criminal cases?
DURING THE TRIAL AFTER TRIAL BUT BEFORE
JUDGMENT OR ON APPEAL A: Yes, however, the binding effect of the facts applies only to
The court may announce its The court may allow the the parties in agreement, it is no more binding on the court
intention to take judicial parties to be heard thereon if than any other evidence in the case.
notice of any matter and may such matter is decisve of a
hear the parties thereon material issue in the case. Q: May a pleading which has been superseded or amended
be considered as a judicial admission?
Q: May the court consult appropriate and reliable sources of
information in determining whether a fact is proper subject A: No. If not offered in evidence, the admission contained
of judical notice? therein will not be considered.
A: Yes. A judge may consult works on collateral sciences, or Q: What is the effect of a judicial admission?
arts, touching the topic on trial. He may refer to:
A. OBJECT EVIDENCE Q: What are the requisites for the admissibility of real
evidence?
Sec. 1 Object as evidence
A:
Q: What is object or real evidence? 1. The object must be relevant to the fact in issue
2. The object must be authenticated before it is
A: It is that which is addressed to the senses of the tribunal, admitted.
as where objects are presented for the inspection of the
court. Q: May the existence of an object evidence be proved by
oral evidence?
Q: How is object evidence classified?
A: Yes, it may be proven by parol evidence.
A: It also extends to that which is perceived by the senses of
hearing, taste, smell, or touch. Q: Does the non-production of an object render oral
evidence respecting it inadmissible?
Q: What is the scope of object evidence?
A: Though the non-production of the article may afford
A: It is not limited to that which may be known by the sense ground for observation more or less weighty, according to
of vision; it extends to what is perceived by the senses of circumstances, it only goes to the weight, not to the
hearing, taste, smell or touch. admissibility, of the evidence, and no questions to the weight
of this evidence is now before us.
Q: Distinguish object from demonstrative evidence.
Q: Is indecency or impropriety a ground for disallowing the
A: introduction of object evidence?
OBJECT DEMONSTRATIVE A: Yes, unless the same is necessary for ascertaining the
Tangible object which played Tangible evidence that truth.
some actual role in the merely illustrates a matter of
matter that gave rise to the importance in the litigation. REPULSIVE OBJECTS
litigation.
Examples: Q: What is the rule as to the introduction of repulsive
Maps, diagrams, models, objects?
summaries, and other
materials created specially in A: Repulsive objects, offensive to the sensibilities, should be
litigation excluded, if they are not absolutely necessary for the
administration of justice.
Q: What is the importance of the distinction?
Q: May object evidence be disallowed on the ground that its
A: It helps determine the standards that the evidence must production would cause inconvenience?
meet to be admissible.
A: Yes. Whenever a defendant at the trial of his case A: It is evidence supplied by written instruments, or derived
testifying on his own behalf denies that a certain writing or from conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas
signature is in his own hand, he may on cross-examination be are represented on material substances; documents,
compelled to write in open court in order that the jury may produced, for the inspection of the court or jduge.
be able to compare his handwriting with the one in question.
Q: When may a document be offered as object evidence?
Q: May an accused be compelled to produce documents or
chattels, which might incriminate him? A: It depends upon the purpose for which the document is
tendered. If it is produced qua chattel without regard to the
A: No. The privilege against self-incrimination extends to message which it contains, for instance simply in order to
inculpatory documents. show that it exists, the quality if the paper of which it is
made, of the fact that it is torn, it is treated as real not
Q: May the trial court permit an experiment to be tried documentary evidence.
during the course of the trial?
Q: When may a tape-recording be considered as
A: It rests on the sound discretion of the judge. documentary evidence?
Q: May evidence be given of experiments and A: Similar principles apply to tape-recordings and other
demonstrations made out of court? mechanically, photographically or electronically produced
statements. Thus, if a tape-recording is played over in court
A: Yes. simply to show that the words used were uttered with a
particular accent, the tape will usually be regarded as a piece
Q: When may an experiment not admissible as evidence? of real evidence, but if it is played in order to show that the
particular words were uttered it will constitute as
A: If the experiment is too complicated to afford any fair documentary evidence.
inference, or if it cannot be performed in such a manner as
fairly to illustrate the fact to be found, it should be excluded. BEST EVIDENCE RULE
Q: When is it proper for the court to go to the place where Q: What is the best evidence rule?
the object in question is and to observe it?
A: It requires the highest grade of evidence obtainable to
A: Where the object cannot be produced in court because it prove a disputed fact. The best evidence rule cannot be
is immovable or inconvenient to remove, it is proper for the invoked unless the contents of a writing is the subject of
tribunal to go to the object in its place and there observe it. judicial inquiry, in which case, the best evidence is the
original writing itself.
Q: May a judge properly make a view outside the court-
room of the place or object to be inspected without the Q: What is the reason for the rule?
previous knowledge or consent of the parties?
A: The purpose of the rule requiring the production of the
best evidence is the prevention of fraud, because if a party is
Q: Is the best evidence rule applicable to external or A: It is essential that the original writing, or if it is a private
collateral matters about the document? document, be first duly identified, and a sufficient foundation
be laid, so as to entitle the writing to be admitted in
A: The best evidence rule applies only when the purpose of evidence, and must be available to the opposite party for
the proof is to establish the terms of the writing. So that cross-examination.
when the evidence sought to be introduced concerns some
external facts about the document, such as its existence, Q: What is the best evidence rule in criminal cases?
execution or delivery without reference to its terms, the best
evidence rule cannot be invoked. A: In criminal case for falsification of a document, it is
indispensable that the judge have before him the document
Q: Since the rule requires production of the original, what alleged to have been simulated, counterfeited, or falsified, in
constitutes the original? order that he may find, pursuant to the evidence produced at
the trial, whether or not the crime of falsification was actually
A: committed.
1. The original of a document is one the contents of
which are the subject of the inquiry Q: What presumption may be drawn from the non-
2. When a document is in two or more copies executed production of the original document?
at or about the same time with identical contents, all
such copies are equally regarded as originals. A: There will be a presumption of suppression of evidence
3. When an entry is repeated in the regular course of adverse to him.
business, one being copied from another at or near
time of the transaction, all the entries are likewise
regarded as originals.
Sec. 4. Original document
Q: What are the exceptions to the best evidence rule?
Q: What is an original document?
A:
1. When the origianal has been lost, destroyed or A: When the contents of writing are to be proved the original
cannot be produced in court without bad faith on is required. The original is the document whose contents are
the part of the offeror. to be proved.
2. When the original is in the custody or under the
control of the party against whom the evidence is Q: What is the purpose of the original document?
offered, and the latter fails to produce it after
reasonable notice. A: It is directed toward the prevention of fraud or inaccuracy.
3. When the original consists of numerous accounts or The rule may serve as protection against erroneous or
documents which cannot be examined in court as inaccurate portrayal of the contents of a document
without great loss of time and of fact sought to be occasioned by mistake in memory or faulty transcription.
established from them is only the general result of
the whole. Q: When a document is amended or altered by the parties,
4. When the original is a public record in the custody of which is the original?
a public officer or is recorded in a public office.
A: The duplicate or the copy amended or altered by the
Q: What is the effect of failure to object to the presentation parties becomes the original.
of secondary evidence?
Q: If the document is executed in duplicate or multiplicate
A: The objection should be made in proper seasonthat is, form, which is the original?
whenever it appears that there is better evidence than that
which is offered and before the secondary evidence has been A: Each one of the parts is primary evidence of the contents
admitted. The objection itself should be sufficiently definite of the document; and the other need not be proved.
to present a tangible question for the courts consideration.
Q: Determine whether or not the ff. are original copies.
A:
1. by any person knowing the loss
SECONDARY EVIDENCE 2. by anyone who was made, in the judgment of the
court, a sufficient examination in the place or places
Sec. 5. When the original document is unavailable where the documents or papers of similar characters
are usually kept by the person in whose custody the
Q: What is secondary evidence? document lost was, and has been unable to find it
3. or who has made any other investigation which is
A: It shows that better or primary evidence exists as to the sufficient to satisfy the court that the instrument is
proof of the fact in question. It is the class of evidence which indeed lost.
is relevant to the fact in issue, it being first shown that
primary evidence of the fact is not obtainable. Q: Is it necessary to prove the loss of the document beyond
all possibility of mistake?
It performs the functions as that of primary evidence, but is
deemed less reliable and worthy of belief. A: No.
Q: What are the requisites of secondary evidence? Q: May a proof of loss of the original document be
dispensed with by the admission of the party?
A:
1. The execution or existence of the original A: Where both parties admit that an instrument has been
2. The loss and destruction of the original or its lost, this is sufficient to warrant the reception of the
nonproduction in court secondary evidence.
3. Unavailability of the original is not due to bad faith
on the part of the offeror.
A: Yes, there must be a proof that a diligent search has been A: Authentic means that the document should be genuine. It
made in the place where it is most likely to be found and that need not be a public instrument.
the search has not been successful.
Q: How may the contents of the original document be
Q: When is secondary evidence admissible in cases where proved by the testimony of witness?
the lost or destroyed original document was executed in
duplicate? A: Oral evidence of the contents of the original writing may
be given:
A: Where the original document was executed in duplicate, a. by any person who signed the document
the loss, destruction, or inaccessibility of both originals must b. Or who read it
be shown in order to admit secondary evidence. c. Or who heard it knowing that the document so read
is the one in question.
Q: What amount of evidence is necessary to prove the fact
of loss or destruction of a document or writing? Q: May secondary evidence be admitted when primary
evidence is admissible?
A: It must be proved by a fair preponderance of evidence.
A: No.
Q: May secondary evidence be given by the party who had
destroyed the original document? Q: What is the effect if the failure to object to the
presumption?
A: No.
A: Such evidence may be received, and then beomes primary
Q: How may the non-production of the original in court be evidence.
proved?
A: In the exercise of discretion, the court determines the NOTE: When an agreement has been reduced into writing,
question as to whether, in view of the circumstances of the the parties cannot be permitted to adduce evidence to prove
case, the notice has been reasonable and such as could have the alleged practices which to all purposes would after the
been complied with. terms of the written agreement.
Q: What is the effect of failure to produce the original Q: What is the reason for the above rule?
document upon notice?
A: When the parties have reduced their agreement to writing,
A: If the party having possession of primary evidence, upon its is presumed that they have made the writing the only
proper notice to produce such evidence, neglects of fails to repository and memorial of the truth, and whatever is not
do so, secondary evidence becomes available to his found in the writing must be understood to have been waived
adversary. and abandoned except in cases therein specifically
mentioned.
A: Yes by failure to invoke it, as by failure to object to the INTRINSIC OR LATENT AMBIGUITY
introduction of parol evidence, and where a party who is
entitled to the benefit of the rule waives the benefit thereof Q: What is intrinsic or latent ambiguity?
by allowing such evidence to be received without objection
and without any effort to have it stricken from the minutes or A: It is an uncertainty which does not appear on the face of
disregarded by the trial court, he cannot after the trial has the instrument, but which is shown to exist for the first time
closed and the case has been decided against him, invoke the by matter outside the writingmay be explained or certified
rule in order to secure a reversal of the judgment by an by parol evidence.
appellate court.
An ambiguity is properly latent, in the sense of the law, when
Q: What is essential in order that parol evidence may be the equivocality of expression, or obscurity of intention, does
introduced to prove any of the exceptions to the rule? not arise from the words themselves, but from the
ambiguous or obscure state of extrinsic circumstances to
A: The parol evidence rule considers the documents as the which words of the instrument refer, and which is susceptible
endowment of the agreement of the parties. However, the of explanation by a mere developmentpf extraneous facts
rule is now explicit that the agreement may be modified, without altering or adding to the written language or
explained, or added if any of the exceptions to the rule is put requiring more to be understood thereby than will fairly
in issue in the pleading. comport with the ordinary or legal sense of the words made
use of.
Q: What does the term agreement under the rule include?
EXTRINSIC OR PATENT AMBIGUITY
A: It includes wills. That means that there is no evidence on
the terms of the will and of its attestation clause other than Q: It refers to uncertainty that arises at once on the reading
the contents of the same. of the contract. The doubt is suggested at once, and by the
phrase itself.
Exceptions
If the words are so defective or ambiguous as to be
Q: When is parol evidence admissible? unmeaning, no evidence can be given to show what the
author of the document intended to say.
A: When any of the following is put in issue in the pleading:
1. Intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or imperfection in the Example: A deed of sale which states a parcel of land
written document without description
A: If the language is too doubtful for any settled construction, Q: May a condition precedent be established by parol
by the admission of parol evidence you create and do not evidence?
merely construe the contract.
A: When the operation of the contract is made to depend
Q: What are the rules governing the admissibility of parol upon the occurrence of an event, which, for that reason is a
evidence to explain ambiguity? condition precedent, such may be established by parol
evidence. This is not varying the terms of the written contract
A: by extrinsic agreement, for the simple reason that there is no
1. Where the instrument itself seem to be clear and contract in existence; there is nothing to whcich to apply the
certain on its face, and the ambiguity arises from excluding rule.
some extrinsic or collateral matter, the ambiguity
may be helped by parol evidence (latent ambiguity) Q: May the execution of a writing be proved by parol
2. When the ambiguity consists in the use of equivocal evidence?
words desigining the person or subject-matter, parol
evidence of collateral or extrinsic matter may be A: Yes, due execution of a writing may be proved by parol
introduced for the purpose of aiding the court in evidence, because what the rule prohibits is varying the
arriving at the meaning of the language used terms of the writing by parol evidence.
(intermediate ambiguity)
3. Where the ambiguity is such that a perusal of the Q: May parol evidence be introduced to prove inducements
instrument shows plainly that something more must and representations which led to the execution of an
be added before the reader can determine what of agreement?
several things is meant, the rule is inflexible that
parol evidence cannot be admitted to supply the A: Yes.
deficiency (patent ambiguity)
Q: May parol evidence be introduced to prove oral
Q: When is parol evidence admissible for the reformation of stipiulation prior to or contemporaneous with, such
a written instrument on the ground of mistake? agreement, which may in any way affect the writing?
A: To justify the reformation of a written instrument upon the A: All prior or contemporaneous collateral collateral
ground of mistake, the concurrence of the 3 things is stipulations which the parties might have had and which do
necessary: not appear in the writing, are presumed to have been waived,
1. That the mistake should be of fact or abandoned by them, and therefore, not provable.
2. That the mistake should be mutual or common to
both parties to the instrument Q: What is the test for determining whether or not a
3. That the mistake should be alleged and proved by contemporaneous oral agreement is separate and distinct
clear and convincing evidence. from the written agreement?
Q: When is parol evidence admissible where there is an A: It is essential to ascertain first what is the whole subject
imperfection of the writing? inended by the parties to be covered by such writing. Then,
ascertain the subject of the oral agreement offered to be
A: As when the writing is so erroneous, imperfect or fails to proved. Then, a comparison should be made between the
express the true agreement of the parties. writing and the oral negotiation and from that comparison it
may be seen whether or not the subject of the writing is
Q: When is parol evidence admissible where the written separate and distinct from that of the oral negotiation.
agreement does not express the true intent and agreement
of tha parties? Q: Is parol evidence admissible to show that the ocontract
never existed on the ground of fraud, illegality or incapacity
A: If a written contract is so ambiguous or obscure in terms of one of the parties?
that all contractual intention of the parties cannot be
understood from a mere inspection of the instrument, A: The rule is that evidence of a parol promise cannot be
extrinsic evidence of the subject matter of the contract, of shown for the purpose of enlarging or changing the written
the relations of the parties to each other and of the facts and contract, where the action is one to enforce the contract is,
circumstances surrounding them when they entered into the however, not applicable where the action is in fraud to
rescind the contract and to prove the oral promise as the
Q: By what law should be interpretation of a contract be A: It has reference to a person who testifies in a case or gives
governed? evidence before a judicial tribunal.
A: It is an elementary rule on contracts that the laws in force Q: What is meant by competency of evidence?
at the time the contract was made must govern in its
interpretation and application. A: It means the legal fitness or ability of a witness to be heard
on the trial of a cause.
Q: How is construction of an instrument distinguished from
its interpretation? Q: What is the presumption as to the competency of
witness?
A: As the judge of the trial court is the one who hears the A:
witnesses, observes the manner in which they testify, notices, GR: No
their apparent possession or lack of intelligence, and may XPN: conviction of perjury or any offense involving moral
resort to any examination to find out the capacity as well as turpitude
the understanding of a witness.
Q: Upon the objection to the competency of the witness
Q: When must the objection to the competency of a witness being raised, what is the duty of the court?
be made?
A: The court must make an examination as will satisfy him as
A: Before he has given any testimony if a party knows before to the competency or incompetency of the witness to testify
the trial that the witness is incompetent, and if the in the case, and thereupon to rule object accordingly.
incompetency appears on the trial, the objection must be
interposed as soon as it becomes apparent. Q: What is the effect of the failure of a party to object to the
competency of a witness?
Q: Suppose the incompetency of the witness is merely
partial, when shall objection to his competency be raised? A: It is tantamount to a waiver, and once the evidence is
admitted the same shall stay in the records and be judged
A: The objection need not be raised until he is asked to testify according to the merits. The judge has no power to disregard
to those matters to which he is incapacitated. it solely for the reason that it could have been excluded had it
been objected to.
Q: What are the qualifications of a witness?
Q: What acts of a party entitled to object may be considered
A: as waiver of the objection?
1. He is capable of perceiving
2. He can make his perception known. A:
1. Where the party fails to raise the objection when the
NOTE: The following does not disqualify a witness: witness testifies, though at that time the party
a. Religious belief knows of his incompetency
b. Political belief 2. Where the party who might have made the
objection calls the witness in support of his own
Q: Is interest in the outcome of the case a ground for case.
disqualification?
A: No.
Q: May an insane be a witness? NOTE: The question of competency largely rests in the sound
discretion of the trial court, whose decision will not be
A: Unsoundness of mind does not per se render a witness disturbed in the absence of a clear abuse.
incompetent; one may be medically or metaphysically insane
yet be capable of giving competent testimony in the trial of
the case.
Section 22. Disqualification by reason of marriage
Insanity or mental weakness of a witness is not a valid
objection as to the competency of a witness, if at the time he Q: What is the reason for the rule prohibiting one spouse
is testifying, he has mental capacity to distinguish between from testifying for or against the other?
right and wrong, and he understands the nature and
obligation of an oath, and can give a fairly intelligent and A: It is based on the principles which are deemed important
reasonable narrative of the matters about which he testifies. to preserve the marriage relation as to one of full confidence
and affection.
Q: What is the rule when a witness is a lawful inmate of an
asylum? Q: What is the form of testimony covered by the rule?
A: He will not be presumed to be competent and before he A: This applies to any form of testimony; therefore it protects
can testify his competency should be made to appear by the against using the spouse-witness admission, or against
party offering him. compelling him to produce documents.
NOTE: Competency is presumed to continue as a mental However, the res gestae declarations of husband and wife are
state, if it has once existed, unless the contrary is shown. admissible for or against each other even though each is
incompetent to testify.
Q: What is monomania?
Q: What are the requisites of the rule on marital
A: The insanity of a person only to a particular subject, and disqualification?
with a single delusion of the mind. It does not render the
witness incompetent if the understands the nature and A:
obligations of an oath and can give a correct account of what 1. Spouses are legally married- thus, it does not apply
he has seen or heard. to bigamous marriage, not to a paramour, nor to an
affiance
Q: May an idiot be a witness? 2. Either spouse must be a party to the case- the other
spouse must be a party to the case; not a third
A: Yes. An idiot is one who has had no understanding from his person who happens to be involved somehow in the
nativity. case; otherwise, the testimony does not hurt the
other spouses legal interests.
Q: How about a drunkard?
Q: To whom does the right to invoke the disqualification
A: It does not per se disqualify a witness from testifying. If his belong?
status deprives him of intelligence, he should be excluded.
A: It can only be claimed when the spouse for or against
Q: How about a person under the influence of drugs? whom the testimony of the other is offered is a party to the
case.
A: It does not render him incompetent.
Q: When does the disqualification cease?
IMMATURITY
A: After the death of the divorce of one spouse, the privilege
Q: Are children competent witnesses? ceases for the reason ceases.
A: The identity of the interests disappears and the NOTE: The words claim or demand mean any action or
consequent danger of perjury based on that identity is non- proceeding which may affect the real or personal properties
existent. of the deceased or insane person.
Q: May this right be waived? 4. The testimony of witness and the testimony of the party
or assignor to the case must refer to any matter of fact
A: The right belongs to the spouse-party, therefore, he or she which occurred before the death of the deceased or
alone can claim or waive it. It may be waived by a failure to before the person became insane.
interpose timely objection or by calling the other spouse as
witness. NOTE: Negative facts are not included in the matters
prohibited by law. The testimony of a plaintiff denying the
Section 23. Disqualification by reason of death or insanity of occurrence of the transaction may be admitted on the ground
adverse party that such plaintiff does not testify to a fact occurring before
the death of the decedent, but on the contrary that such fact
Q: What is the purpose of the rule? has not occurred.
A: To guard against the temptation to give false testimony in Q: May the disqualification be waived?
regard of the transaction in question on the part of the
surviving party, and further to put the 2 parties to a suit upon A: Yes. The representative, if he may choose, may waive this
terms of equality in regard to the opportunity to giving privilege. All the objection to the competency of a witness as
testimony. If the death has closed the lips of one party, the to a transaction with an incompetent or deceased person will
policy of the law is to close the lips of the other. be deemed waived, if it is not made at the time that the
evidence is given.
Q: Is the rule applicable to cases where the deceased died
after filing the suit against him? Section 24. Disqualification by reason of privileged
communication
A: The rule is applicable where the deceased died either
before or after the suit was filed against him, when the A. COMMUNICATION BETWEEN HUSBAND AND WIFE
testimony is given, he is dead and cannot prove it, since the
reason for the prohibition, which is to discourage perjury, Q: What is the reason for this privilege?
exists, in both instances.
A: Preservation of the peace of families.
Q: What are the requisites for the disqualification?
Q: What are the requisites for the rule on privileged
A: communications?
Q: Is the rule on privileged marital communications A: Yes, if the spouse of the accused is allowed to give
applicable to dying declarations? testimony as to confidential communications without
objection, he will be held to have waived the privilege.
A: When a person at the point of death as a result of the
injuries he has suffered makes a statement regarding the NOTE: The objection to the admission of the privileged
manner in which he received those injuries, the communication is timely if made before the answer to the
communication so made is in no sense confidential. On the question for its revelation.
contrary, such communication is made for the express
purpose that it may be communicated after the death of the B. COMMUNICATION BETWEEN ATTORNEY
declarant to the authorities concerned in inquiring the cause AND CLIENT
of his death.
Q: What is the basis of this rule?
Q: What is the duration of the marital privilege?
A: Public policy. This encourages the client to make full
A: This endures even after the termination of the marital disclosure of the facts. It is a rule founded on the
relations. It does not end, even after death or divorce. But administration of justice and is intended to enable the client
to place unrestricted or unbounded confidence in his
There is no privilege in cases where abstract legal opinions Q: Are communications between an attorney and his client
rd
are sought and obtained on general questions of law, either in the presence of 3 persons regarded as confidential?
civil or general; in such cases, no facts are or need be
rd
disclosed implicating the client, and so there is nothing of a A: No, but when the 3 person is an agent of the attorney or
confidential character to conceal. an agent of his client, the communication does not cease to
be confidential and is therefore privileged.
3. Communication must have been made to the attorney in
rd
the course of or with a view of professional employment Q: What if it was overheard by 3 persons?
Q: What do you mean by professional capacity? A: The privilege exists if the client did not notice the presence
of third persons overhearing the communications. But the
A: When the client makes the same with the purpose of only persons prohibited by the privilege to testify are the
obtaining from him a legal advice and opinion concerning his attorneys and his agents. Third persons foreign to the
legal rights, obligations or duties relative to the subject relation are not included.
matter of communication.
Q: How about communications to or advice from the
NOTE: Confidential relations made in reliance upon the representative of an attorney?
supposed relation of attorney and client, whether the party
assuming to act as such is an attorney or not, are excluded by A: They are also privileged.
the court.
Q: Is the privilege communication protecting confidential
Sidewalk advice from attorney upon legal question for which communications between attorney and client applicable to
no compensation is asked or expected and none gives except actions brought by the client against the attorney?
a luncheon, should not be regarded as privileged
communication. A: No, the disclosure becomes necessary for the attorneys
own protection. Otherwise, he would suffer a manifest
Q: Is the privilege applicable to counsel de officio? injustice.
Q: Is it applicable to an attorney who is subscribing witness A: To the client, therefore he alone can invoke it. And he may
to his clients will? claim it not only when his attorney is called upon to disclose
professional communications, but also when he himself is
A: An attorney who becomes a subscribing witness to his tasked to make the disclosure.
clients will, may testify to the attending circumstances of the
execution of his clients will for by representing his attorney NOTE: When the privilege belongs to 2 or more clients, the
to become a subscribing witness to the will, the testator consent of each is essential to constitute a waiver.
waives the privilege as to his attorneys testimony concerning
testamentary communications. Q: Will the privilege continue even after the professional
relation between them is terminated?
Q: Is a communication made by client to an attorney as
public officer to enable him to act in that capacity
privileged?
Q: What are the requisites for the privilege? Q: What is the rule regarding the autopsy of a dead man?
A: The privilege rests upon the persons objecting. Such Q: What is the reason for the rule?
person must show that the relation of physician and patient
existed. A: To compel the minister or priest to testify to a confession
made by him by a penitent is equivalent to an annulment of
Q: Who determines the competency of the physician to the confessional institution, for many would no longer make
testify? confessions. And this must not be done in a government
where the religious tolerance is sanctioned by law.
A: The court. It is not for the physician to determine himself
whether or not he should testify. Q: What are the requisites?
Q: Is the privilege applicable when the physician is sent by Q: What is the reason for protecting communications made
the court to determine the mental or physical condition of a to a public officer in official confidence?
person?
A: It is the duty of every citizen to communicate to his
A: No, but only if it is conclusively shown that the relation of government any information which he has of the commission
physician and patient did not and was not supposed by the of an offense against its law; and a court of justice will not
accused himself. compel or allow such information to be disclosed, either by
the subordinate officer to whom it is given, by the informer
himself, or by any other person without the permission of the
A: It means more than a mere curiosity; it means something n A: It includes other direct ascendants and to exempt parents
which the public, the community at large has some pecuniary from being compelled against their children or other direct
interest by which their legal rights or liabilities are affected. It descendants.
does not mean anything so narrow as to interest the
particular localities, which may be affected by the matters in Q: What is the reason for this privilege?
question.
A: To preserve family cohesion.
Q: What are the requisites?
Q: When may this privilege be invoked?
A:
1. The communication must have been made to a public A: In both civil and criminal cases.
officer
ADMISSIONS AND CONFESSIONS
Q: Who are the public officers contemplated by law?
Section 26. Admissions of a party
A: Only those who have responsibility or duty to investigate
or to present public wrongs, and not to officials in general. Q: What is an admission?
2. The communication was made in official confidence A: It is a voluntary acknowledgment in express terms or by
3. Public interest would suffer by the disclosure of the implication, by a partty interest or by another by whose
communication. statement he is legally bound, against his interest, of the
existence or truth of a fact in dispute material to the issue.
NOTE: This privilege is intended not for the protection of
public officers but for the protection of public interest. Q: How may an admission be classified?
ADMISSION DECLARATION AGAINST If the admission is in a private writing, there must be some
INTEREST proof of the authenticity or the identity of the writing.
A primary evidence and is Secondary evidence;
receivable, although the receivable only when the If the admission is in a public document, the same does not
declarant is available as declarant is unavailable as need any authentication.
witness witness
It is competent only when Competent in any action to 2. As impeaching evidence- if proof of the admission is
the declarant, or someone which it is relevant, although sought for impeachment purposes, a proper foundation
identified in legal interest the declarant is not a party must be laid for the impeaching questions, by calling the
with him is a party to the to, or in privity with, any attention of such party to his former statement so as to
action party to the action give him an opportunity to explain before such admission
Need not have been It must have been, when are offered in evidence.
considered by declarant made, to the knowledge of
the declarant, against his Self-serving declarations
obvious and real interest
Q: What are self-serving declarations?
Q: How is the term party used in the rule construed?
A: They are unsworn statements made by the declarant out
A: The rule makes reference to the act, declaration or of court and which are favorable to his interests. It is one
omission of a party made by a party in his own interest at some place or time out
of court and it does not include testimony which he gives as a
It meant party to the action who has been served with witness at the trial.
process.
NOTE: Self-serving declarations may be:
Q: What is the reason of the rule that an admission of a a. Oral
party is evidence against him? b. Written
c. Acts or conduct
A: It is based on the presumption that no man could declare
anything against himself, unless such declarations were true. Q: Are self-serving declarations admissible in evidence?
A mans act, conduct and declarations, wherever made,
provided they are voluntary, are admissible against him, for A: No, they are not admissible in evidence as proof of the
the reason that it is fair to presume that they correspond facts asserted, whether they arose by implication from acts
with the truth, and it is his fault if they do not. and conduct or were made orally or reduced to writing. The
vital objection to the admission of this kind of evidence is its
Q: When is an admission competent? hearsay character. Also, they are untrustworthy; to permit
Q: Does death render self-serving declaration admissible? A: It is an an agreement made between 2 or more parties as a
settlement of matters in dispute.
A: No.
Q: Is an offer of compromise in civil cases admissible in
Q: Are unsworn self-serving declarations of a person for a evidence?
party admissible in favor of the latter?
A: No. It is not admissible in evidence against the offeror.
A: The unsworn declarations by others for him are equally to
be excluded. Q: Why is an offer of compromise in civil cases not
admissible in evidence?
NOTe E: Persons whose unsworn declarations in behalf, of a
party are not admissible in favor of the latter are: A: It is the policy of the law to favor the settlement of
a. Agents, as regards their principles disputes, to foster compromises, and to promote peace.
b. A co-defendant or co-partner, as regards the other Otherwise, many settlements would be prevented, and
c. A guardian as regards his ward unnecessary litigation would be produced and prolonged.
d. A principal as regards his surety
e. A husband or wife, as regards his or her spouse Q: When are admissions made in conection with an offer of
f. An employee, as regards his employer compromise in civil cases admissible in evidence?
g. The officers of the corporation as regards the
corporations A: That a writing contains an offer of compromise does not
h. A public officer as regards the public corporation render it inadmissible in evidence if it is competent evidence
i. Predecessors in title, as regards an owner of property. for other purposes.
A: It is inadmisisible in evidence against the accused who Q: What is the reason why the acts and declarations of a
made the offer. Obviously the objective of the rule is to partner are admissible in evidence against his co-partner?
provide a plea agreement procedure designed to give
recognition to the propriety of plea discussions and plea A: They are admissible not on the grounds that they are
agreements provided that they are discloses in open court parties to the record, but on the ground that they are
and subject to acceptance or rejection of the trial judge. identified in interest, and that each is agent for the other, and
that the acts or declarations of one during the existence of
Q: Is an offer to pay medical, hospital or similar expenses the partnership, while transacting its business and within the
occassioned by an injury admissible as proof of the civil or scope of the business are admissible against the other or
criminal liability for the injury? others.
Q: What are the requisites for the rule? Q: When does conspiracy exist?
A: Privity means mutual succession of relationship to the Q: What is the scope of the applicability of the rule?
same rights of property.
A: It is applicable in criminal as well as in civil cases.
Privies are those who have mutual or successive relationship
to the same right of property or subject matter, such as Q: What are the requisites for the rule?
personal representatives, heirs, devisees, legatees, assigns,
A:
Facultad de Derecho Civil 30
UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
NOTES ON EVIDENCE
Kenneth & King Hizon (3A) _____________________________________________
1. Hearing and understanding of the statement by the
party Q: Is a confession obtained from a person who has not been
2. Opportunity and necessity of denying the informed of his right to silence and counsel admisisble in
statements evidence? Does the inclusionary rule include admission?
3. Statement must refer to a matter affecting his right
A: A confession obtained from a person who has not been
4. Facts are within the knowledge of the party informed of his right to silence and counsel is inadmissible.
5. Facts admitted or the inference to be drawn from
his silence would be material to the issue The exclusionary rule laid down by the new provision is
broader than the exclusion merely of blatantly coerced
Q: In what cases may an admission not be implied confessions. It covers every form of evidence obtained in
from the silence of a party? violation of Sec. 12 and Sec. 17, every form of confession
tainted with involuntariness.
A:
1. Custodial investigation Q: Is an extra-judicial confession at the poluce headquarters
by the accused without the assistance of his counsel but
2. Failure to answer was caused by constraint or the
ratified by him under oath with the assistance of counsel at
party was not aware at the time that he had an the office of the provincial fiscal admissible in evidence?
interest, or believed that he had no interest, or was
only indirectly affected A: Yes, the accused may be deemed to have in effect ratified
before the fiscal and with the assistance of the counsel, the
extra-judicial confession and waiver of the right to counsel
which he had earlier signed without the presence of counsel
Section 33. Confession in the police station.
Q: What are the rights of a person under custodial Q: May the right to be given these warnings be waived?
investigation?
A: No. It is the right to remain silent and right to counsel after
A: the suspect has been given warnings which can be waived.
Section 12 of Article 3 of 1987 Constitution Even then the waiver is required to be in writing and in the
presence of counsel.
Any person under investigation for the commission of an offense
shall have the right to be informed of his right to remain silent and Q: What is confession?
to have competent and independent counsel preferably of his own
choice. If the person cannot afford the services of counsel, he must A: It is an acknowledgment in express words, by the accused
be provided with one. These rights cannot be waived except in
in a criminal case, of the truth of the offense charged, or of
writing and in the presence of counsel.
some essential parts thereof.
No torture, force, violence, threat, intimidation, or any other means
which vitiate the free will shall be used against him. Secret detention It is the declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of
places, solitary, incommunicado, or other similar forms of detention the offense charged or any offense necessarily included
are prohibited. therein.
Any confession or admission obtained in violation of this or Section Q: Is there an implied admission?
17 hereof shall be inadmissible in evidence against him.
A: None. It is always direct and positive acknowlegment of
The law shall provide for penal and civil sanctions for violations of
this Section as well as compensation to the rehabilitation of victims the guilt. The conduct of an accused showing his
of torture or similar practices, and their families. consciousness of guilt is not a direct or poisitive statement of
guilt.
Q: What is meant by custodial investigation?
Q: Distingish confession from admission.
A: The Miranda requirements apply only when a person is in
custody and is being questioned or interrogated. A:
Q: What are the reasons for the admissibility og a It may be inferred from its language.
confession in evidence?
Voluntary does not mean spontaneous and for confession to
A: If it is made freely and voluntarily, the confession be admissible it is required only that the accused act on his
constitutes an evidence of a higher order, since it is own judgment, uninfluenced by methods denounced by law.
supported by the strong presumption that no person of
normal mind will deliberately and knowingly confess himself Q: Must confession be spontaneous in order to be
to be the perpetrator of a crime unless prompetd by truth admissible?
and conscience.
A: No. A confession will not be excluded just because it is not
Q: May a confession be written in a language which the the spontaneous statement of the accused. There are cases
accused did not speak or understand? of confessions which are voluntary but not spontaneous.
A: Yes. A confession may be written in a language which the A confession procured by the use of persistent questioning or
accused did not speak or understand provided it has been inquisitorial examination is not spontaneous but is voluntary
translated to him. and therefore admissible. Such mode of investigation is often
the only means or discovering truth.
Q: Is it necessary for a confession or admission to be under
oath in order to render it admissible in evidence? Q: Is confession obtained by leading questions admissible?
A: There is no provision of law which prescribes that either A: A confession procured by leading questions, or questions
confessions of admissions are not competent evidence unless assuming the guilt of the accused, is admissible, for in such
made under oath. It is the fact that they were made by the cases it cannot be said that the confession was obtained by
accused and against his own interest which gives them their force, intimidaiton or threats.
evidentiart value, and provided the fact is established it does
not matter whether they are made unde oath or not. Reasons for rejecting involuntary confessions
Q: What is the basic test for validity of a confession? Q: What are the reasons for rejecting involuntary
confessions?
A: The basic test is: was it voluntary and freely made.
A:
Q: May voluntariness of a confession be presumed? 1. By some on the ground that a confession so obtained is
unreliable
Q: Are confessions procured by promises made by a public A: When threat or promise is made by, or in the presence of,
officer who stated to the defendant that if he makes the a person in authority, who has, or is supposed by the accused
confession, he, the public officer would see to it that to have, power and opportunity to fulfill the threat or
nothing will happen to the defendant, admissible? promise, the confession of the accused will be presumed to
be the exclusive effect of inducement and therefore
A: No. The confessions were held inadmissible. inadmissible.
Q: Are confessionsn induced by trick or fraud asmissible? There is however, an exception to the rule. Where one of
several co-defendants agrees with the prosecuting attorney
A: Yes. Confessionsn induced by trick or fraud asmissible, for to be one of the states witness, and makes a confession on a
the use of such means does not tend to induce the making of promise of immunity by the prosecuting attorney, but later
a false confession. Thus, a confession is not inadmissible retracts and fails to keep his part of the agreement, his
because it was obtained by a detective who, in connivance confession made under such promise may be used against
with the prosecuting officer, was arrested on a fictitious him.
chrage of forgery, and locked in a cell, the defendant, in the
guise of a friend, obtained from him the confession. Q: Will the threats or promises made by a private person
upon the accused in order to obtain a confession render the
Q: Are confessions of intoxicated persons admissible? confession inadmissible?
XPNS: Q: Will the fact that the accused made several conflicting
1. When several accused are tried together, confession confessions render such confessions inadmissible?
made by one of them during the trial implicating the
others is evidence against the latter A: No. If such argument will be followed, in order to dispense
2. When one of the defendant is discharged from the with the damaging confession, it would only be necessary for
information and testifies as a witness for the the accused to tell another story not in harmony with the
prosecution, the confession made in the course of his confession to secure acquittal.
testimony is admissible against his co-defendants, if
corroborated by undisputable proof Q: May the court in admitting the confession as evidence
3. If a defendant, after having been apprised of the against the accused consider only those portion unfavorable
confession had been made by several persons charged to the accused and disregard those favorable to him?
with an offense and there could have been no collusion
with reference to said several confessions, the facts that A: No. The whole confession must be put in evidence by the
the statements therein are in all material respects, prosecuting officer.
identical, is confirmatory of the confession of the co-
defendant and is admissible against his other co- Q: Is the rule that a confession should be admitted and
defendants. This is commonly known as interlocking considered in its entirety, whether a part thereof be
confession. favorable or unfavorable to the accused absolute in all
4. A statement made by one defendant after his arrest, in cases?
the presence of his co-defendant, confessing his guilt and
implicating his co-defendant who failed to contradict or A: No.
deny it, inadmissible against his co-defendant
5. When the confession is a conspirator and made after Q: May the testimony of an escaped convict relating to an
conspiracy and in furtherance of its object, the same is alleged confession made to him by the accused admitting
admissible against his co-conspirator the commission of the crime, be the basis of the conviction
6. The confession of one conspirator made after the of the accused?
termination of a conspiracy, is admissible against his co-
conspirator if made in his presence and assented to by A: The testimony of an escaoed convict relative to an alleged
him, or admitted its truth or failed to contradict or deny confession made to him by the accused admitting the
it. commission of the crime, comes from a polluted source and is
without merit.
NOTE: Extreme caution should be exercised by the courts in
dealing with the confession of an accused which implicates Q: Is an extrajudicial confession alone sufficient to support a
his co-defendants. conviction?
A: A confession if freely and voluntarily made, is deserving of If B is accused of theft, the fact that A has been seen on a
the highest credit, because it is presumed to flow from the former occasion surreptitiously opening the safe would be
highest sense of guilt, and therefore, it is admitted as proof of admissible to show his knowledge.
the crime to which it refers.
Q: Give examples of prior acts the proof of which is
A confession is admissible as evidence of a high order. admissible to show identity.
Q: May an objection to the admissibility of a confession be A: On a charge of robbery, the window having been raised by
waived? a knife, and a fragment of the blade being left in the window,
the accuseds later possession of such a knife is evidential. He
A: For the protection of their clients, lawyers should present may explain that he found it in the street after the burglary
timely objections; otherwise, evidence which should and a question of the identity of the fragment with his knife
otherwise be objectionable, are admitted and given due may arise.
weight and credit.
Q: Give examples of prior acts the proof of which is
A confession offered in evidence and not objected to by the admissible to show plan, design, or scheme.
defendant is regarded as prima facie voluntary and therefore,
admissible as evidence. A: Evidence of other crimes is competent in a criminal trial to
prove the specific crime charged when it tends to establish a
common scheme, plan or design or system embracing the
commission of 2 or more crimes so related to each other that
Section 34. Similar acts as evidence proof of one tends to establish the others, notwithstanding
the general rule excluding evidence which shows or tends to
Q: What is the reason for the rule? show that the accused has committed another crime wholly
independent of that for which he is on trial.
A: It is clear that evidence of ther crimes compels the
defendant to meet charges of which the indictment gives him Q: Is the rule applicable in civil cases?
no information confuses him in his defense, raises a variety of
issue, and thus diverts the attention of the court from the A: In civil cases the rule as to proof of commission of an act
charge immediately before it. The rule may be said to be an by showing the commission of similar acts by the same
application of the principle that the evidence must be person at other times and under other circumstances is the
confined to the point in issue on the case on trial. same as in criminal prosecution.
Q: Give examples of prior acts the proof of which is The offer to pay or deliver must be in writing. In such offer be
admissible to show intent? rejected, without valid cause, the money, document or
property need not be actually produced, because the rejected
A: If D is charged with larceny, and he sustituted a cheap offer is equivalent to its actual production or tender thereof.
dimond ring for a valuable one.
Q: What is the civil code provision on unaccepted offer?
Evidence not of what the witness knows himself but what he Q: Give some examples of questions the answer to which
has heard from others. will be hearsay?
Q: What are the reasons why hearsay evidence is A: Where the fact be proved is the truth of the facts
inadmissible? contained in the declaration made by a third person to the
witness, such questions as what did you hear him tell you or
A: what did he tell you.
1. No personal knowledge (Sec. 36, Rule 130)
2. Testimony in court under oath (Sec. 1, Rule 132) Q: Is the testimony which contains the clause so far as he
3. Cross-examination knew or understand, hearsay?
4. Demurrer
A: Yes.
Q: What is the purpose of the trial?
Q: In an answer to a question, a witness stated I afterward
A: To arrive at the probable or judicial truth (and not absolute find out that a letter had been written by another. Is the
truth). testimony admissible?
Q: In an action to recover damages due to collision of A: No, for the language of the answer implies that the fact
vessels, the plaintiff offered in evidence a report of the was founded on hearsay and not on the personal knowledge
committee appointed by the Collector of customs to of the witness.
A: The presumption is, in the absence of any showing to the Q: How should hearsay evidence admitted without
contrary, that he is testifying of his own knowledge. objection be weighed?
Q: When is the hearsay rule not applicable to the testimony A: Some hold that when hearsay has been admitted without
of a witness regarding a statement made by a third person? objection, the same may be considered as any other properly
admitted testimony. Others maintain that it is entitled to no
A: Where regardless of the truth or the falsity of a statement, more consideration than if it had been excluded.
the fact that it has been made is relevant, the hearsay rule
does not apply, but the statement must be shown. Multiple hearsay
Section 37. Dying Declarations A: Under the old rule, a dying declaration may be received
only in a criminal case, such declaration is now admissible in
Q: What is a dying declaration? any case wherein his death is the subject of the inquiry, as
evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstance of such
A: It is a statement made by the victim of homicide, referring death.
to the material facts which concern the cause and
circumstances of the killing and which is uttered under a fixed The old rule resulted from the belief that such evidence was
belief that death is impending and is certain to follow comparatively unreliable and thus should be used only where
immediately, or in a very short time, without an opportunity absolutely necessary. Accordingly, so exceptional and
of retraction and in the absence of all hopes of recovery. dangerous a class of evidence should be restricted in its use
and application to the public necessity of preserving the lives
They are statements made by a person after the mortal of the community by bringing manslayers to justice.
wound has been inflicted, under a belief that death is certain,
stating the facts concerning the cause of, and the The new rule is based on the observation that if the evidence
circumstances surrounding the homicide. is reliable enough in homicide cases where it can do the most
harm, if unreliable, then certainly ought to be admissible in
Q: State the reasons for their admissibility as an exception civil cases as well. The stakes do not involve possibility
to the hearsay rule? imprisonment.
A declaration made in extremity; when every motive to The death be imminent and that declarant be conscious of
falsehood is silenced, and the mind is induced by the most that fact
powerful consideration to speak the truth. A situation so
solemn and awful us considered by the law as creating an A fixed belief in inevitable and imminent death must be
obligation equal to that which is imposed by an oath entered by the declarant. It is not the rapid succession of
administered in court. death which renders the declaration admissible. It is not
necessary that approaching death be presaged (foretold) by
Q: State the purpose for their admissibility? the personal feelings of the deceased.
A: It is to identify the accused and the deceased, to show the Q: What is the test?
cause of the death and the circumstances under which the
assault was made upon him. A: It is whether or not the declarant has abandoned hope of
living and looked on death as certainly impending. Although
Q: May it be objected on the ground that it violates the that state of mind is brought by statement made to him y
constitutional right of the accused to confront and cross- nurses or physicians.
examine the witness against him?
Q: How such consciousness of death shown?
A: No because the person who testifies to the dying
declaration is the witness against the accused and the A:
witness with whom the accused is entitled to be confronted.
The declarant is not testifying against him. 1. By words or statements of the declarant himself;
2. Inferred from the nature and extend of the wound
Q: Are they admissible in civil cases? inflicted;
Note: Fact that a clergy man had administered to him the Thus, if an interruption (by death or by an intruder) cuts short
last rites of the church also show that he was under the a statement which thus remains clearly less than that which
sense of approaching death. the dying person wished to make, the fragmentary statement
is not receivable, because the intended whole is not there,
He must believe that there is no possibility of his recovery or and the whole might be of a very different effect from that of
his statement will be incompetent. the fragment.
That the primary facts which bring the declaration within its Q: What is the reason upon which incomplete declarations
scope be made to appear are generally excluded or if admitted accorded little or no
weight?
A dying declaration is not invalid if such statement is made at
the conclusion of the deceaseds declaration although the A: It is because the declarant was prevented from saying all
correct practice is that the statement the he is very seriously that he wished to say, what he did say might have been
wounded and that he believes that he would not survive be qualified by the statements which he was prevented from
made at the beginning of his decoration. making.
That the declaration relates to the facts or circumstances Example of dying declaration: Kung akoy bibigyan pa ng
pertaining to the fatal injury or death Diyos ng pangalawang byhay, hindi maaaring hindi
mananagot si Bebot at Frankie.
The declaration must relate to the cause of death which
includes not only the facts of assault itself, and the facts Note: The fact that he died not immediately, but 5 days
surrounding it, but also matters both before and after the afterwards, does not affect its admissibility.
assault having a direct causal connection with it.
Oh Lord, they have killed me
Examples: - The accusation was made to the faces of the
defendants who were the only ones at the spot of
1. Nature of injury; the killing, and the exclamations could have been
2. Cause of death; made only to them.
3. History of the trouble between the declarant and the
assailants and the motive for killing. An ante mortem statement made under the
requisite conditions by the victim of a homicide is admissible
That declarant would have been competent to testify had he in a trial against its author but such is admissible only in so far
survived as it relates to the homicide itself. Thus, statements which
relates to past history, its contents are inadmissible and to
Where it is shown that the declarant would not have been a that ex tent the court must exclude it from consideration.
competent witness if he had lived, the proferred declarations
will not be received. Like when the declarant was insane or Q: What if the declarant had a slight expectation or hope of
incapable of understanding his statements by reason of recovery, but death actually ensued?
partial unconsciousness, or a child who was too young to be a
competent witness. A: They are inadmissible in evidence however slight the
expectation of hope of recovery.
The declarations must relate to such facts only as the
declarant would have been competent to testify to if sworn Q: What if the declaration was made at the time when the
as a witness in the case. Thus, statements which consist of deceased did not know or firmly believe that he was at the
hearsay or opinions or conclusions of declarant are not point of death, but contents of which the deceased ratified a
admidssible. week later when he was near death as a result of the
wound?
Admissibility of dying declarations as affected by their
incompleteness A: Although they are inadmissible as an ante mortem
declartation (in as much as when it was made the deceased
A dying declaration to be admissible must be complete in did not know nor firmly believe that he was at the point of
itself. Nonetheless, it does not mean that the declarant must death) yet having ratified a week later when he was near
recite everything that constituted the res gestae of the
The declarants statements that he was dying and that only Q: How is a dying declaration introduced by the accused?
the intervention of Providence could save him; and the fact
that death supervened with a comparatively short time, all A: There is no reason why a declarant is not entitled to invoke
point unmistakably to the declarants consciousness of as evidence the dying declarations of the deceased. If such
impending dissolution. declarations are competent evidence to prove facts, it does
not matter if such proof tends to acquit the defendant, rather
Q: Is a declaration in articulo mortis, made by a child only 4 than convict him.
years old, admissible on the trial?
Q: May a dying declaration be impeached?
A: No since the child of such tender years cannot have the
idea of a future state which is necessary to make such A: Yes. It may be shown that the declarant has been
declaration admissible. convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude, for the
purpose of impeaching the credibility of his dying declaration.
Note: The incompetency of the deceased as a witness, from It may also be shown that the declarant had made
mental debility, scarcely admits of doubt. statements contradictory to his dying declaration as to the
cause and circumstances of the inquiry causing his death. It
The circumstance that the declarant is a pagan and does not may be shown that the dying declaration was prompted by
believe in a possible future life or in the doctrine of future feelings of hatred or revenge towards the accused.
reward and punishment, does not render declarants dying
declaration inadmissible in a criminal prosecution. Such only Q: What circumstances should be taken into consideration
affects the weight of the statement but not its admissibility. in determining the weight to be given to dying declarations?
Q: What may be the form of the dying declaration? A: The credibility and weight of the declaration should be
determined by the Court, by the same rules that are used in
A: To be admissible, a dying declaration need not have been testing the weight and credibility of a living witness
made in any particular form. A declaration may be a testimony.
communication by means of signs, an oral statement or
Q: What are the reasons for the admissibility of the Q: What is the scope of the rule?
declarations against interest?
A: It shall include all kinds of interestpecuniary, proprietary,
A: moral or penal.
The presumption that men will neither falsify nor commit The declarant must not be available to testify
mistakes when such falsehood or mistake would be
prejudicial to their own pecuniary interest, and because of Q: Under what instances is a declarant not available to
the fact that any fraudulent motive for making the statement testify?
may be shown.
A:
It is admissible although the declarant is neither party nor in
privity with a party to the action. 1. He is dead;
2. Mentally incapacitated;
Q: Distinguish between declaration against interest from 3. Physically incompetent; and
admission. 4. As where from advanced age, other irremediable
cause, he has lost the power of speech.
A:
Note: Declarations against interest are not admissible if the
Declaration of a deceased Admission declarant is available to testify as a witness. If he is available
person against his interest and testifies, his statement against interest which he now
An exception to the rule that Not necessarily against the denies would be admissible against him as prior inconsistent
an admission is not interest of the person who statement is some instances.
necessarily against the made the admission
interest of the person who
The declaration must concern a fact cognizable by declarant Q: What is moral obligation?
It is essential to relevancy in the declaration that the
declarant should have adequate knowledge with respect to A: It is a duty which one owes, and which he ought to
the subject covered by his statement. perform, but which he is not legally bound to fulfill.
The rule requires that it should appear that the person had An example of moral interest is a statement constituting an
competent knowledge; that is, was cognizant of the fact, or acknowledgement of a natural child is usually made at the
that it was his duty to know. If he were not so situated as to hour of repentance.
make it his duty to know, an inference that might have been
known, or very probably would have known, will not suffice. Declarations against penal interest of the declarant
The circumstances must render it improbable that a motive Example: A declaration that it was the victim who fought the
to falsify existed. accused and that there was nobody present during the fight.
There should be a circumstantial guaranty of the Q: What may be the form of declaration against interest?
trustworthiness of the declaration. Where there exists both a
self-serving and a self-disserving interest, the latter must A: It may be oral or written. These are matters which affect
preponderate over the self-serving interest. the weight rather than the admissibility of the evidence.
A: It denotes a person exercising those qualities of attention, Section 39. Act or declaration about pedigree
knowledge, intelligence and judgment which society requires
of its members for the protection of their interests and in the Q: What is pedigree?
interest of others.
A: It is the history of family descent which is transmitted from
Declarations against pecuniary interest of the declarant one generation to another by both oral and written
declarations and by traditions.
They are those which may bar in whole or in part the
declarants money claim or which may give rise to a monetary Q: What does it include?
claim against him as when he acknowledges that his credit is
already paid or that he is indebted to some person. A: It includes relationship, family genealogy (family tree),
birth, marriage, death, dates when and the places where
Examples: these facts occurred, and the names of the relatives. It also
includes paternity and legitimacy.
1. Statements which evidenced indebtedness;
2. Contractual obligation; Q: What are the reasons for their admissibility?
3. Tort liability; and
4. Statements of receipt of money on behalf of A:
another.
1. Necessity and
Declarations against proprietary interest of the declarant 2. Circumstantial trustworthiness
Q: How are the written acts or declarations regarding There is controversy in respect to the pedigree of any
pedigree proved? members of the family
A: Oral declarations may be proved by the testimony of the Reputation of family gives rise to such facts as birth, descent,
person who is a competent witness and who has heard such failure of issue, heirship, identity, marriage, celibacy,
declarations of the declarant. parentage, or relationship; or facts incidentally connected
with genealogy.
Written acts or declarations may be proved by the Tradition, being in form of family history or reputation is
statements in writing relating to pedigree made or recognized admissible to prove facts as birth, descent, marriage,
by the declarant, or made under his direction except where parentage, or relationship on any inquiry as to pedigree.
the writing is in the form of an entry in a family Bible or
testament which is produced from the proper custody, in Note: Hearsay evidence is inadmissible to prove the manner
which event the assent of the family is presumed. or cause of death like to prove suicide.
Q: Can paternity be established by general reputation in a Q: What are the requisites for the admissibility of common
community? reputation respecting facts of public or general interest?
A: No. A:
1. The facts must be of public or general interest and more
Q: How may family reputation or tradition regarding than 30 years old
pedigree be proved? 2. The common reputation must be ancient, i.e., 30 years or
one generation old
A: It may be in any form capable of conveying thought, 3. The reputation must have been one formed among a
provided the authenticity of the vehicle conveying the class of persons who were in a position to have some
statement is established to the satisfaction of the court by sources of information and to contribute intelligently to
evidence as recognition in the family or production from the the formation of the opinion.
proper custody. However, the declaration must be a 4. The common reputation must have been exisiting
statement of fact, and not merely the opinion of the previous to the controversy (ante litem mortam)
members of the family.
Q: Distinguish facts of public knowledge and those of a
The declaration may be: general interest.
a. Oral
b. Writing A:
MATTERS OF PUBLIC FACTS OF PUBLIC
NOTE: Monumental inscriptions and family portraits, as well INTEREST KNOWLEDGE
as written statements as to pedigree are regarded as Common to all citizens of the Common only to a single
admissible if sufficiently authenticated as genuine, as by state or the entire people community or to a
having been received as such by the family. considerable numbers of
people forming part of the
The statement may be contained in an affidavit. community
Example:
land boundaries and land
possession, for the lapse of
Section 41. Common Reputation years is likely to destroy the
landmarks, leave no surviving
Q: What matters may be established by common witnesses and usually they
reputation? cannot be evidence by record
of titile
A:
1. Facts of public or general interest more than 30 NOTE: It is not essential that the reputation should come
years old from deceased persons. It is enough if it is ancient, more than
2. Marriage and related facts 30 years old.
3. Individual moral character
Q: As to the question of which of two towns should be
Q: What are the reasons for the admissibility of common charged with the support of the pauper, it become
reputation existing previous to the controversy as evidence important to show exactly how the house of the paupers
of facts of public or general interest more than 30 years old? grandfather stood on the boundary line between 2 towns. Is
the question one of public or general interest?
A:
1. Necessity arising from the inherent difficulty of A: It is one of general interest.
obtaining any other evidence than in the nature of
common reputation Q: How is common reputation respecting facts of public or
2. Trustworthiness of the evidence arising from general interest proved?
a. The supposition that the public is conversant
with the subject to be proved because of their A: Common reputation offered as evidence of matters of
general interest therein public or general interest may be proved by the testimony of
b. The fact that the falsity or error of such witnesses, old maps and old surveys so far as they have been
evidence could be exposed or corrected by used and resorted to by the community in dealing with land,
other testimony since the public are interested leases and other private documents as declaratory of the
in the same
NOTE: The reputation must be general, need not be Section 42. Part of the res gestae
unanimous.
Q: What is res gestae?
Q: Is it necessary that such marriage or the reputation
respecting thereto be more than 30 years of age? A: It came from the Latin meaning things done, and
includes the circumstances, facts and declarations incidental
A: No. to the main fact or transaction necessary to illustrate its
character, and also includes acts, words, and declarations
Q: What are the requisites for the admissibility of common which are so closely connected therewith as to constitute a
reputation respecting moral character? part of the transaction.
Q: Is the testimony of a witness who is acquainted with a A: Whether the act, declaration, or exclamation is so
person and has never heard anything said about the latters intimately interwoven or connected with the principal fact or
reputation admissible in evidence? event which it characterizes as to be regarded as a part of the
Q: What matters are subject to proof by means of NOTE: The fact that said declaration was made immediately
declarations forming part of the res gestae? after the aggression, it can be considered as part of the res
gestae.
A:
1. Ownership and possession The rule contemplates that all the res gestae including
2. Frauds declarations forming part therof, must transpire within the
3. Pain and suffering present time of the transaction, but that time, while it cannot
be lesss, may be more extended than the present of the
Q: To what general classes of declaration is the term res principal fact, in some instances a little, in others much, and
gestae normally applied? in others very much.
SPONTANEOUS STATEMENTS A:
1. The time that has elapsed between the occurrence of the
Q: What are spontaneous statements? act or transaction and the making of the statement
2. The place where the statement was made
A: A statement or exclamation made immediately after some 3. The condition of the declarant when he made the
exciting occasion by a particular or spectator and asserting statement
the circumstances of that occasion as it is observed by him. 4. The presence or absence of intervening occurences
between the occurrence and the statement relative
Q: What is the reason for the admissibility of spontaneous thereto
statements? 5. The nature and circumstances of the statement itself
Q: What are the requisites for the admissibility of If the declarations of a third person are merely narrative and
spontaneous statements? unconnected with the relevant act, so that by no proper
extension of the rule can they be included among the res
A: gestae, they will, with some few exceptions, be rejected as
1. There must be a startling occurrence hearsay.
2. The statement must relate to the circumstances of
the startling occurrence Where persons are nor near enough to see and hear what
3. The statement must be spontaneous was said by accused and deceased, they were not bystanders
and their declarations were not a part of the res gestae.
There must be a startling occurrence
VERBAL ACTS
The spontaneous statement should have been caused by
something startling enough to produce nervous statement Q: Define verbal acts.
and to keep the will dormant so far as any deliberation in
Q: What is the reason for their admissibility? Q: May the circumstances immediately surrounding the act
or transaction in question and the conditions immediately
A: The motive, character, and object of an act are frequently preceding and following it, be shown as part of the res
indicated by what was said by the person engaged in the act. gestae?
Such statements are in the nature of verbal acts and are
admissible in evidence with the remainder of the transaction A: Yes.
which they illustrate.
Q: In a prosecution for carelessness use of firearms, is
Q: Distingish verbal acts and spontaneous statements. evidence that just prior to the careless shooting in issue the
defendant had pointed the gun at another person
A: admissible?
VERBAL ACTS SPONTANEOUS A: Yes, in a prosecution for the careless use of firearms,
STATEMENTS evidence that just prior to the careless shooting in issue, the
The res gestae is the The res gestae is the startling defendant had pointed the gun at another person, is
equivocal act occurence admissible as part of the res gestae tending to show that
The verbal act must be May be prior to, there was no malice.
contemporaneous with or simultaneous with, or
must accompany the subsequent to the startling
equivocal act to be occurrence.
admissible Section 43. Entries in the course of business
Q: What are the requisites for the admissibility of the verbal Q: What are the reasons for the admissibility of the entries
acts? in the course of business?
A: A:
1. Act or occurrence characterized must be equivocal 1. Necessity
2. Verbal acts must characterize or explain the equivocal act 2. Trustworthiness
3. Equivocal act must be relevant to the issue.
4. Verbal acts must be contemporaneous with the Q: What are the requisites for the admissibility of business
equivocal act entries?
Also, such reports are not admissible as original evidence 2. Identity of parties
without extrinsic proof that they are accurate and that they 3. Identity of issues
are based on reliable sources of information 4. Opportunity of cross-examination of witnes
Trustworthiness- the learned witness in writing his work has A: The statement by witness of an inference as to the
no motive to misrepresent. existence or non-existence of a fact in issue, based upon
other facts presented directly to the senses of the witness.
Q: What are the requites for the admissibility of learned
treaties? Q: What is the general rule as to the admissibility of opinion
evidence?
A:
1. Historical works A: Upon the question of the existence of non-existence of any
2. Scientific treaties fact in issue, whether a main fact or evidentiary fact, opinion
3. Law evidence as to its existence or non-existence is inadmisisble.
The witness must testify to facts within that their knowledge
and may not state their opinion, even on their cross-
examinaiton.
Section 47. Testimony or deposition of a former
proceeeding Q: What are the reasons for the admissibility of opinion
evidence?
Q: What are the reasons for their admissibility?
A: It is for the court to form an opinion concerning the facts
A: in proof which evidence is offered. Even when the witnesses
1. Necessity are limited in their statements to detailed facts, their bias,
2. Trustworthiness ignorance, and disregard of the truth, are obstacles which
hinder in the investigation of the truth.
Q: What are the requisites for the admisisbility of former
testimony?
A:
A: It is the testimony of persons who are particularly skilled, GR: Opinion of experts is not received if all the facts can be
or experience in a particular art, science, trade, business, ascertained and made intelligible to the court.
occupation, profession, or vocation, a thorough knowledge of
which is not possessed by man in general, in regard to 3. Such testimony is not admissible as to a matter not
matters connected therewith. in issue.
A: A person who is so qualified, either by actual experience or Q: What should be the form of the question on direct
by careful study, as to enable him to form a definite opinion examination of an expert witness?
of his own respecting any division of science, branch of art, or
department of trade about which persons having no A:
particular training or special study are incapable of forming
accurate opinions or of deducing correct conclusions. 1. Opinion based on facts known personally by the
expert: he must first state those facts before giving
He is one possessing, in regard to a particular subject or an opinion thereon.
department of human activity, knowledge not usually
acquired by other persons. 2. Opinion based on facts of which he has no personal
knowledge: the facts should be given to him
NOTE: The rule is the same in criminal and civil cases. hypotheticallyassume the state of facts upon
which his opinion is desired.
Q: How are qualifications of an expert witness established?
Where the facts are undisputed, they must also be
A: There is no exact standard fixing the qualifications of an included in the hypothetical question. Otherwise,
expert witness. He must be in possession of special skill or each party must assume in his hypothetical question
knowledge respecting the matter involved so superior to that any state of facts which he claims his evidence is
of men. It is not necessary that he should be infallible or justified.
possess the highest degree of skill or knowledge.
NOTE: Hypothetical questions must include only facts that
Q: Who determines the qualification of an expert witness? are supported by evidence and should embody facts relating
to the particular matter upon which an expert opinion is
A: It rests largely in the direction of the trial court. The test of sought to be elicited.
the qualification is a relative one, depending upon the subject
under the investigation and the fitness of the particular Q: Is the opinion of an expert based on hearsay
witness. inadmissible?
Q: May an expert be asked whether he is an expert? A: A hearsay in the form of information gained from the
statements of others outside the courtroom may not be the
A: No, he may not give his opinion as to his own qualification basis of an expert witness.
as this would be usurping the function of the court.
Q: May the opinion of an expert be based on other
NOTE: Expert witnesses are not allowed to give opinion opinions?
evidence if from the other evidence available, the judge can
be put in possession of the facts. A: An opinion of an expert witness cannot be based upon
Q: What are the requisites for the admissibility of expert opinions expressed by other experts.
testimony?
Q: May the opinion of an expert be based on conjecture
A: (speculation or guess)?
1. The subject under examination must be one that
requires that the court has the aid of knowledge or
A: There is distinction between the use of medical or other III. SUBJECTS OF EXPERT TESTIMONY
scientific books or treatises in the direct examination of
expert witnesses and their use for the purpose of cross- 1. Handwriting
examination. 2. Typewritten documents
3. Fingerprints
If it appears that the expert witnesses is basing his opinion, in 4. Ballistics
whole or in part, on the authority of medical or other 5. Medicine
scientific works, counsel may on cross-examination 6. Value of properties and services
interrogate the witness with reference to the authorities for
the purpose of discrediting him or disparaging his testimony.
If the witness gives source of his professional knowledge, it is Section 50. Opinion of ordinary witnesses
allowable on cross-examination to resort to that same source
to show that he was mistaken. Q: May the opinion of an ordinary witness be received as
evidence?
Q: How may the opinion of an expert witness be
impeached? A: A witness can testify to those facts only which he knows of
his own knowledge; he should not be allowed to state
A: Evidence may be introduced to impeach a skilled or expert conclusions or inference which are for the court to make.
witness or to lessen the weight of his expert opinion, or
qualifications or retractions on the direct, cross, or redirect A non-expert may make his opinion regarding:
examination. But qualifications by a witness of his testimony 1. The identity of a person when he has adequate
or isolated statements are not necessarily sufficient to knowledge of said person
destroy the value of his testimony as a whole. 2. The handwriting of a person when he has sufficient
familiarity of the latters handwriting
Q: Has the Court any discretion in the examination of an 3. The mental sanity of the person with whom he is
expert witness? sufficiently acquainted.
A: The latitude of the examination of the expert witness is NOTE: A non-expert witness may also testify on his
within the trial court. impressions of the emotion, behavior, condition, or
appearance of a person.
Q: Are the courts bound by the testimony of experts?
Q: What is the test?
A: No, they are merely regarded as purely advisory in
character; the courts may place whatever weight they chose
An ordinary witness give his opinion as to the mental sanity A: He cannot go further and testify as to the impression such
or insanity of a person, if such opinion is drawn from the facts would have had upon others.
conduct of the latter, since there can be no doubt that
persons of common sense, conversant with mankind, and A non-expert witness, when testifying must state facts and
having practiced knowledge of the word, if brought in the not his opinion or conclusion.
presence of a lunatic, would, in short, perhaps, of the specific
and precise character of the sanity as referable to a particular Q: May a non-expert opinion as to the sanity or insanity of a
class of the insane malady, but certainly, in general way, of person be based in whole or in part upon a hypothetical
his mental unsoundness. question?
Q: What is the reason for the rule? A: No. He must base his opinion solely on his own personal
knowledge, observation, acquaintance, etc. with the accused.
A: They are found in the considerations that the facts
showing insanity, in their entirety, frequently elude accurate, Q: How may a witness who has testified to the sanity or
complete, and detailed statement and consequently render it insanity of a testator be cross-examined?
difficult to afford a satisfactory basis for the judgment of an
expert; that many witnesses can make a correct inference
The cross-examination must be confined to the scope of the 1. Personal opinion as to the moral character of an
examination in chief, and a question based on an assumption accused party is excluded;
not warranted by the evidence is inadmissible. 2. Reputation in the community is admissible;
Q: May any inference be drawn against the accused from his GR: No as the same is irrelevant as the law protects everyone
failure to offer evidence of his good character? from unlawful violence, regardless of character, and the
service done the community in riding it of a violent and
A: No. dangerous man is no justification of the act.
Q: May the character be the fact in issue? Q: Is the character of the deceased in a prosecution for
murder admissible?
A:Yes as in the (a) offense of keeping a house of prostitution
or for gambling will depend upon the character and habits of A: No, it is not necessary in a crime of murder where the
the inmates; and (b) the offense of seducing a woman may killing is committed with treachery or premeditation.
involve the character of the woman as chaste or unchaste.
It can only be allowed in homicide cases to show that such
Q: May the good or bad moral character of the offended character may only be allowed in homicide cases to show
party in criminal case be given in evidence? thatit has produced a reasonable belief of imminent danger
in the mind of the accused and a justifiable conviction that a
A: The good or moral character of the offended party may be prompt defensive action was necessary.
proved if it tends to establish in any reasonable degree the
probability or improbability of the offense charged. Q: Distinguish the rule on character evidence in criminal and
civil cases.
Q: What is burden of proof? Q: If the plaintiff fails to discharge the burden of proof, is
the defendant under the obligation to prove his evidence?
A: It means the obligation imposed upon a party who alleges
the existence of a fact or thing necessary in the prosecution A: No. If the plaintiff fails to show the facts upon which he
or defense of an action to establish it by proof. It is the duty bases his claim, the defense is under no obligation to prove
of a party to present evidence on the facts in issue necessary exceptions or defense.
to establish his claim or defense by the amount of evidence
required by law. Q: What is the test in determining on whom the burden of
proof lies?
The burden of proof exists only in connection with a fact in
issue. A: Ordinarily, the burden of proof is in the first instance with
the party who initiated the action, that is, the plaintiff. But
Q: What are the facts in issue referred to by the rule? there is no rigid rule that the primary burden of proof is on
the party who brings the suit; rather, this is generally
A: Facts in issue are those facts which a plaintiff must prove speaking taken for granted because of expediency and
in order to establish his claim and those facts which the interest of justice and because of the initiative action.
defendant must prove in order to establish a defense set up
by him, but only when the fact alleged by the one party is not Where the defendant, either in a positive and express terms
admitted by the other party. or by the character and nature of his pleadings admits the
cause of action alleged by the plaintiff, he thereby absolved
Facts which are admitted expressly or by implication are not the plaintiff from the necessity of making any support of his
in issue. claim.
To determine the relevancy of the evidence, the pleadings of The burden of proof is upon the defendant as to all
the parties must first be looked for the purpose of affirmative defenses which he sets up in his answer to the
ascertaining the issue. plaintiffs claim or cause of action.
Q: What is meant by burden of evidence? Q: What is the legal effect of a legal presumption upon the
burden of proof and of evidence?
A: The phrase burden of going forward with the evidence is
sometimes shortened to burden of evidence. It means that A: The legal effect of a legal presumption upon the burden of
logical necessity which rests on a party at any particular time proof is to create the necessity of presenting evidence to
during the trial to create a prima facie case in his behavior, or meet the prima facie case created thereby, and which if no
to overthrow one when created against him. proof to the contrary is offered, will prevail. It does not shift
the burden of proof. The burden of proof remains where it is.
Q: Distinguish burden of proof and burden of evidence?
The legal effect of a legal presumption upon the burden of
A: evidence is that it creates a prima facie case and thereby
BURDEN OF PROOF BURDEN OF EVIDENCE sustains the said burden of evidence on the point which it
Never shifts. This remains Shifts to one party when the covers, shifting it to the other party. It relieves those favored
throughout the entire case other has produced sufficient thereby of the burden of proving the fact presumed. The
evidence to be entitled as a same is the result of any substitute for evidence such asL
matter of law to a ruling in a. Judicial admission
his favor. b. Stipulations
It has no connection with the c. Rules of substantive law
pleadings, but is determined d. The rule of res ipsa loquitur
by the progress of the trial e. Statutory regulations prescribing prima facie
evidence of specified facts
B. CIVIL CASES f. Judicial notice
Q: Who has the burden of proof in civil cases? Q: What matters need not be proved by the parties to an
action?
A: The plaintiff has the burden of proving the material
allegations of the complaint which are denied by the answer; A:
2. When the fiduciary relationship A: The burden of proof is on the prosecution to prove,
exists, the burden of proof of its beyond a reasonable doubt, the essential elements of the
fairness is upon the fiduciary. He offense with which the accused is charged; and if the proof
must show that there was no Fraud, fails to establish any of the essential elements necessary to
dishonesty, unfairness, duress, and constitute a crime, the defendant is entitled to an acquittal.
undue influence.
Crime charged in The burden of proof rests upon the The burden of proof is never on the accused to establish
civil case party who has alleged that the crime innocence or disprove the facts necessary to establish the
was committed. crime charged.
Insanity in civil Upon him who alleges insanity; but
cases when the insanity is one proved, the Q: Distinguish burden of proof from presumption of
burden shifts to him who asserts that innocence.
the act was done while the person was
sane. A:
Statute of The burden of producing the facts to
limitation avoid the bar of the statute of PRESUMPTION OF BURDEN OF PROOF
limitations is upon the party who asserts INNOCENCE
such facts A rule of substantive law, Designed mainly as a rule of
Action against Plaintiff existing before any evidence procedure, requiring the
bailee is offered and accompanying prosecution in the first
Action against The plaintiff has the burden of proving the accused throughout the instance to make out a prima
carriers injury to or loss, non-delivery of the trial facie case proving the
goods by the fault of the carrier essential facts embraced in
Action against Proof of the loss suffices to make out a the criminal transaction
inn-keeper prima facie case, and casts upon the alleged, including intent
defendant the burden of proving facts
which will exonerate him from liability
Facultad de Derecho Civil 58
UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
NOTES ON EVIDENCE
Kenneth & King Hizon (3A) _____________________________________________
Thus, after the state has introduced all the proof which it was warned of his constitutionally
regard as sufficient to convict the prisoner, he may meet the protected rights
case thus made out against him in 3 different ways: Corpus delicti Prosecution
1. He may deny the truth of all the evidence which may Insanity It is an affirmative defense which the
be offered which may be offered against him accused has a burden of proof
2. He may deny the truth of some particular ingredient Jeopardy Defense
in the criminal transaction, as shown by the state, as Matters excepted GR: Accused
when he pleads an alibi, or admitting the doing of in statute defining XPN: Part of the enacting clause, or a
the act charged, denies the presence of a malicious crime proviso
intent, or he may make an affirmative defense such Matters of Defense
as insanity or license defense
3. He may put in a defense not traversing the
allegations of the indictment, involving some
matters or facts which are entirely separate from
and independent of the original transaction set forth
Section 2. CONCLUSIVE PRESUMPTIONS
therein.
Q: What is presumption?
Q: Is it necessary that a negative fact alleged by the
prosecution be proved?
A: An inference of the existence or non-existence of some
facts which courts are required or permitted to draw from
A: Where the negative of an issue does not permit of direct
the proof of other facts, an inference which common sense,
proof or where the facts are more immediately within the
enlightened by human knowledge and experience, draws
knowledge of the accused, the onus probandi rests upon him.
from the connection, relation, and coincidence of facts and
circumstances with each other.
It is not incumbent on the prosecution to adduce positive
evidence to support a negative averment the truth of which is
Q: Distinguish presumption from inference.
fairly indicated by established circumstances and which, if
untrue, could readily be disproved by the production of
A:
documents or other evidence probably within the
defendants possession or control.
PRESUMPTION INFERENCE
A rule which a law makes Conclusion which, by means
Q: Who has the burden of proof as to facts peculiarly within
upon a given state of facts of data founded upon
defendants knowledge?
common experience, natural
reason draws from facts
A: Where the subject matter of negative averment in the
which are proved
indictment or a fact relied on by accused as justification, or
Deduction directed to be Permissive deduction
excuse relates him personally or otherwise lies peculiarly
drawn by law
within his knowledge, the general rule is that the burden of
proof as to such averment or fact is on him.
Q: What is conclusive presumption and rebuttable
presumption?
SUBJECT WHO HAS THE BURDEN OF PROOF
MATTERS
A:
Alibi The accused must show that he was at
CONCLUSIVE REBUTTABLE
another place for such a period of time
Inference which the law That may be accepted and
that it was impossible for him to have
makes so peremptory that it acted on when there is no
been at the place where the crime was
will not allow them to be other evidence to uphold the
committed at the time of its commission
overturned of any contrary contention for which it
Authenticity of It is incumbent upon the prosecution to
proof however strong stands; one which may be
documents prove that said signature is a forgery;
overcome by other evidence
and if the prosecution fails to do so, the
authenticity of the said document
Q: Distinguish presumption of fact from presumption of law
should be accepted
Bail The burden of proof is on the
A:
prosecution
Confession It is now incumbent upon the
prosecution to prove during the trial
that prior to questioning, the confessant
Q: What is the basis of the rule? A: Laches is the unreasonably delay to seek or to enforce a
right at a proper time
A: It is founded on the principles of morality and fair dealing
and is, intended to subserve the ends of justice. It always A neglect to do something which one should do or to seek to
presupposes error on one side and fault or fraud upon the enforce a right at a proper time has been termed as estoppel
other and some defect of which it would be equitable for the by laches.
party against whom the doctrine is asserted to take
advantage. Q: What are the 4 elements of the equitable defense of
laches?
Q: What is the effect of estoppel in pais?
A:
A: It prevents the assertion of what would otherwise be an 1. Conduct on the part of the defendant, or of one
unequivocal right or an otherwise good evidence. under whom he claims, giving rise to a situation of
Promissory Estoppel Q: Does estoppel lie against the government and public
officers?
Q: What is promissory estoppel?
A:
A: Under this doctrine, an estoppel may arise from the
making of a promise, even though without consideration, if it GR: No. A sovereign state is not subject to an estoppels to the
was intended that the promise should be relied upon and in same extent as an individual or a private corporation.
fact it was relied upon, and if a refusal to enforce it would be Otherwise, it might be rendered helpless to assert its powers
virtually to sanction the perpetration of fraud or would result in government.
in other injustice.
The government is never estopped by mistake or error on the
Estoppel on question of jurisdiction part of its agents.
A party is barred from assailing the legality of an order issued XPN: The doctrine of estoppel may be asserted against the
at his own motion since a person cannot be allowed to take government when it or its agents, acting within the scope of
advantage of his own wrong when such would work their authority have been guilty of acts amounting to fraud
substantial injury to the other party, yet jurisdiction being a and acted on in good faith by others to their detriment.
matter of law and not of fact, estoppel does not apply.
Estoppel by deed
The application of this principle seemingly depends on
whether the lower court actually had the jurisdiction or not. If Q: State the rule on estoppel by deed.
it had no jurisdiction, but the case was tried and decided
upon the theory that it had jurisdiction, the parties are not A: The tenant is not permitted to deny the title to his landlord
barred on appeal, from assailing such jurisdiction, for the at the time of the commencement of the relation of landlord
same must exist as a matter of law, and may not be conferred and tenant between them.
by consent of the parties or by estoppel.
Q: What is the reason for the rule?
Q: Is there estoppel due to ignorance founded on innocent
mistake? A: It is founded in public convenience and policy, because it
tends to encourage honesty and good faith between landlord
A: In an act, conduct or misrepresentation of the party sought and tenant.
to be stopped is due to ignorance founded on innocent
mistake, estoppel will not arise. Q: What are the qualifications of the rule?
A:
1. Innocence
2. Unlawful intent Innocence
3. Ordinary consequences of unlawful act
4. Ordinary care of ones concern A person accused of a crime is presumed to be innocent until
5. Suppression of evidence the contrary is proved, and this presumption remains with
6. Payment to another him throughout the trial until it is overcome.
7. Delivery of thing
8. Obligation delivered This applies to both civil and criminal cases
9. Payment of later installment
10. Unexplained possession of stolen property Unlawful intent
11. Payment arising from possession by debtor of
evidence of indebtedness Q: State the rule on this presumption.
12. Regularity of appointment
13. Regularity of performance of official duty A: GR: If it is proved that the accused committed an unlawful
14. Regularity of judicial proceedings act, it will be presumed that the act was done with a criminal
15. Issues properly decided and submitted for intention. It is for the accused to rebut this presumption.
arbitration
16. Fairness and regularity of transaction This is usually referred as general intent.
17. Ordinary course of business
18. Sufficient consideration Ordinary consequences of unlawful act
19. Negotiable instrument
20. Indorsement of negotiable instrument 1. Every person is deemed to responsible for the natural
21. True date in writing consequences of his own acts
22. Mail and delivery of mail matter 2. One who inflicts injury upon another is mediately or
23. Absence immediately responsible for the latters death and the
a. Presumption of death of a person not for the fact that other causes may have cooperated to cause the
purpose of opening his succession death of such does not relieve the actor of responsibility
b. Presumption of death of a person for the 3. It is only when death is not the direct or indirect
purpose of opening his succession consequence of the injury, but a malicious commission
c. Presumption of death of a person for all on the part of the injured that he is relieved from
purposes including the decision of the estate responsibility
among heirs
i. Presumption of death aboard a vessel or Ordinary care of ones concern
airplane
ii. Presumption of death of member of armed All men are presumed to be sane and normal. When of age
forces missing in armed hostilities and sane, they must take care of themselves.
iii. Presumption of death of person in danger
of death Suppression of evidence
Where the party having the burden of proof fails to establish It is proper to indulge a presumption that in their business
a prima facie case, no presumption arises from the failure of and social relations all persons act honestly and properly and
the other party to introduce evidence peculiarly within his dishonesty or bad faith will not be presumed, but must be
knowledge. proved.
This cannot stand when from the evidence it appears that the Regularity of appointment
obligation was debt, and that the creditors purpose was not
to leave the instrument evidencing the credit in possession of GR: Presumption that public officers, including persons acting
the debtor, if the latter did not forthwith pay the amount in an official capacity, have been duly elected or appointed
mentioned therein. and that they are qualified.
The existence of certificate of indebtedness in the hands of XPN: To a public officer seeking to recover salary attached to
the creditor is evidence that the debt has not been settled. the office, or the benefits of a pension system.
GR: It is presumed that the former rent or installments had All things are presumed to have been rightly and duly
been paid when a receipt for the later ones is produced. performed until there is proof to the contrary.
XPN: This presumption does not apply when the prior It is generally indulged where the legality of an official act is
installments were made payable in a separate contract questioned collaterally, and not where it is directly attacked
or where a question of jurisdiction is involved.
Unexplained possession of stolen property
It also applies where a duty is imposed on an official to act in
Q: Explain this presumption. a certain way, and assumes that the law tells him what his
duties are; and therefore the presumption that an officer will
A: When a property stolen is found in the possession of a discharge his duties according to law does not apply where
person who is unable to give a satisfactory explanation of his his duties are not specified by law and he is given discretion.
possession he may be deemed to have committed the crime
of theft of said property. Regularity of judicial proceedings
Q: What are the requisites for the presumption to apply? Presumption that the proceedings of a judicial tribunal are
regular and valid, and that judicial acts and duties have been,
A: and will be duly and regularly performed. Where the record is
1. That the crime was committed silent, it will be presumed in favor of the judgment that what
2. That it was committed recently ought to have been done was rightly done.
3. That the stolen property was found in the possession
of the defendant What is the basis of this presumption?
4. That the defendant is unable to explain his
possession satisfactorily A: Expediency, otherwise, every case before it would result in
unnecessarily long and expensive litigations.
Q: What is the reason for the presumption?
Issues properly decided and submitted for arbitration
A: Men who come honestly into the possession of property
have no difficulty in explaining the method by which they Presumption that issues are properly found; that all facts
came into such possession. within the issues, not expressly found, and not inconsistent
with the other finding, have been found in accordance with
Payment arising from possession by debtor of evidence of the judgment; that all the issues in an action were actually
indebtedness heard and decided; that all the material issues were found in
(3) A person who has been in danger of death under other circumstances
Every negotiation is deemed prima facie to have been
and his existence has not been known for four years. (n)
effected before the instrument was overdue.
RATIO: It is now much easier to receive news about what is
Q: What is the importance of this presumption? happening in other parts if the country or even abroad
because of modern means of communication and
A: For one to be a HIDC, one of the requisites is that the transportation.
instrument must have been negotiated to him before it was
overdue. Art. 392. If the absentee appears, or without appearing his existence is
proved, he shall recover his property in the condition in which it may be
found, and the price of any property that may have been alienated or the
property acquired therewith; but he cannot claim either fruits or rents.
(194)
Art. 240. Claims for damages by either spouse, except costs of the
Q: What are the other purposes for which the absentee is
proceedings, may be litigated only in a separate action. (n)
presumed dead?
Art. 241. Jurisdiction over the petition shall, upon proof of notice to the
A: other spouse, be exercised by the proper court authorized to hear family
cases, if one exists, or in the regional trial court or its equivalent sitting in
the place where either of the spouses resides. (n)
1. For considering the conjugal partnership terminated;
2. For considering the extinguishment of his civil Art. 242. Upon the filing of the petition, the court shall notify the other
personality; spouse, whose consent to the transaction is required, of said petition,
ordering said spouse to show cause why the petition should not be granted,
3. For substituting him as a party to a case, unless his
on or before the date set in said notice for the initial conference. The notice
claim is not extinguished by death; shall be accompanied by a copy of the petition and shall be served at the
4. For considering his parental authority extinguished; last known address of the spouse concerned. (n)
5. For considering any partnership of which he is a
Art. 243. A preliminary conference shall be conducted by the judge
member dissolved; and
personally without the parties being assisted by counsel. After the initial
6. For considering any contract of agency to which he is conference, if the court deems it useful, the parties may be assisted by
a party, either as principal or agent, terminated. counsel at the succeeding conferences and hearings. (n)
TITLE XI The absentee shall not be presumed dead for the purpose of
SUMMARY JUDICIAL PROCEEDINGS IN THE FAMILY LAW
opening his succession till after an absence of 10 years. If he
Chapter 1. Prefatory Provisions disappeared after the age of 75 years, and absence of 5 years
shall be sufficient in order that a succession may be opened.
Art. 238. Until modified by the Supreme Court, the procedural rules
provided for in this Title shall apply as regards separation in fact between
Q: When will the computation for the 10-year period begin?
husband and wife, abandonment by one of the other, and incidents
involving parental authority. (n)
A: It shall begin from the time the person has absented
Chapter 2. Separation in Fact himself, unless news have been received from him, in which
case the period shall begin from date on which the last news
Art. 239. When a husband and wife are separated in fact, or one has
abandoned the other and one of them seeks judicial authorization for a concerning his is received.
transaction where the consent of the other spouse is required by law but
such consent is withheld or cannot be obtained, a verified petition may be Presumption of death of a person for all purposes including
filed in court alleging the foregoing facts.
the decision of the estate among heirs
The petition shall attach the proposed deed, if any, embodying the
transaction, and, if none, shall describe in detail the said transaction and Presumption of death aboard a vessel or airplane
state the reason why the required consent thereto cannot be secured. In
any case, the final deed duly executed by the parties shall be submitted to
and approved by the court. (n)
Co-partners
Loss of vessel must be during a sea voyage. This will include
voyages in open seas, passages along mouths of rivers, Where several persons carry on the same business together,
canals, etc. Yet, trips which are only in inland waters are not they are properly presumed to be partners.
included.
Marriage
Presumption of death of member of armed forces missing in
armed hostilities Persons dwelling together in apparent matrimony are
presumed to be in fact married. Accordingly, if the parties
The presumption applies not only to soldiers, but also to were not what they thus hold themselves out as being, they
those who are employed by or render service to the armed would be living in the constant violation of decency and law.
forces like nurses, doctors, strokers in warships, etc., those
who render voluntary service such as guides, and guerillas, The law presumes morality and not immorality; marriage and
and those who stay or follow with the armed forces like not concubinage; legitimacy, and not bastardy.
reporters, photographers, and cameraman.
Acquisition of property through joint efforts
NOTE: It is not enough that the disappearance of such
persons be during wartime; it is necessary that it be during Article 147 of the Family Code
military operations.
Art. 147. When a man and a woman who are capacitated to marry each
other, live exclusively with each other as husband and wife without the
Presumption of death of person in danger of death benefit of marriage or under a void marriage, their wages and salaries shall
be owned by them in equal shares and the property acquired by both of
them through their work or industry shall be governed by the rules on co-
Other circumstances in which there is danger of death would
ownership.
include earthquake, fires, explosions, inundations, dangerous
expeditions, cave-ins of mines, volcanic eruptions, landslides, In the absence of proof to the contrary, properties acquired while they lived
etc. In such cases, the death should be considered to have together shall be presumed to have been obtained by their joint efforts,
work or industry, and shall be owned by them in equal shares. For purposes
taken place on the day of danger; and it is also from this day
of this Article, a party who did not participate in the acquisition by the other
that the 4-year period is to be computed. If the danger party of any property shall be deemed to have contributed jointly in the
continues for several days, there are some who believe that acquisition thereof if the former's efforts consisted in the care and
the period should be counted from the day on which the maintenance of the family and of the household.
danger commenced. More logical view however is that the
Neither party can encumber or dispose by acts inter vivos of his or her share
period should be computed from the last day of such danger; in the property acquired during cohabitation and owned in common, without
in cases of expeditions or similar ventures of which nothing is the consent of the other, until after the termination of their cohabitation.
heard after it has started, the date when it should have been
When only one of the parties to a void marriage is in good faith, the share of
completed, if favorably concluded, is to be taken into
the party in bad faith in the co-ownership shall be forfeited in favor of their
account. common children. In case of default of or waiver by any or all of the common
children or their descendants, each vacant share shall belong to the
Acquiescence respective surviving descendants. In the absence of descendants, such share
shall belong to the innocent party. In all cases, the forfeiture shall take place
upon termination of the cohabitation. (144a)
Q: When is the acquiescence?
Unions governed by Article 147
A: It is when a principal, with knowledge of all the facts
adopts the acts of his agent, although his acts were contrary
to his duty and instructions; and if the principal does not
1. When a man and a woman who are capacitated to marry
each other, live exclusively with each other as husband
dissent or give notice of disapproval within a reasonable time,
and wife without the benefit of marriage:
he will be presumed to have acquiesced.
a. Applies to void marriages where the parties or either Special rules applicable to void marriages under Article 147
of them does not have an existing valid marriage.
Hence, bigamous marriages will not fall under this When only one of the parties to a void marriage is in good
Article. faith, the other party having been aware of the ground that
b. If the parties do not have existing marriages with renders their marriage void but did not communicate it to the
other persons but their marriages is void for other other party; the share of the party in bad faith in the co-
reasons (incestuous marriage or marriage against ownership shall be forfeited as follows:
public policy), it is believed that this Article will
apply. A. In favor of their common children;
B. In case of the predecease of a common child, in
Rules governing property relations of the unions under favor of the descendants of said child, who take the
Article 147 vacant share by the deceased child;
C. The right of representation of the descendants
1. Wages and salaries earned by either spouse during the applies even in case of repudiation by a common
cohabitation shall be owned by them in equal shares and child or his or her share in the forfeited property,
will be divided equally between them, even if anyone since this is transmission inter vivos, not mortis
party earned the wages and salaries and the other did causa, so that the legal principles governing this kind
not contribute thereto. of transmission are different.
D. If the descendant dies ahead of the common child of
2. Property acquired by the parties during their whom he is a descendant, there will be no
cohabitation shall be governed by the following rules: transmission between the two.
1. Bigamous marriage; A child born before one hundred eighty days after the
2. Adulterous relationships; solemnization of the subsequent marriage
3. Relationships in a state of concubinage;
4. Relationship were both man and woman are married Such child shall be considered to be the child of the first
to other persons; and husband. This presumption can be overthrown only when the
5. Multiple alliances of the same married man. husband who is presumed to be the father, or his heirs in
proper cases, brings an action to impugn the legitimacy of the
Only properties acquired by the parties through their actual child. The child himself cannot choose his own filiation.
contribution of money, property, or industry shall be owned
in common in proportion to their respective contributions. A child born after one hundred eighty days following the
Hence: celebration of the subsequent marriage
a. Wages and salaries earned by each other belong to Such child shall be considered as the child of the second
him or her exclusively; husband. This presumption can be overthrown:
b. Care by one of the party of the home, children and
household or spiritual or moral inspiration provided a. By proving physical impossibility of access by the
to the other, is not included. husband to the wife during the period of conception
of the child;
In the absence of proof to the contrary, contributions and b. By showing that the wife, upon the death of the
shares of the parties to the properties acquired during their husband, or upon annulment of her marriage, gave
cohabitation are presumed to be equal. notice of pregnancy as required by Art. 260, because
such notice will be deemed to be true;
This rule applies to joint deposits of money and to evidence c. By proving that the first husband has left some
of credit. document expressly acknowledging the pregnancy of
the wife, at the time of his death; and
If one party is validly married to another: d. By utilizing blood test exclusion to show that the
child and the second husband belong to different
1. His or her share in the co-owned properties will accrue to blood groups.
the absolute community or conjugal partnership of his or
her existing valid marriage; Continuance of established condition
2. If the party who acted in bad faith is not validly married
to another, his or her share shall be forfeited in the same Proof of the existence at a particular time of a fact of a
manner as that provided in the preceding article; continuous nature gives rise to an inference, within logical
3. Same rule applies even if both parties are in bad faith. limits, that exists at a subsequent time, unless the contrary is
shown.
Note: Pari delicto does not apply in family law.
Q: Who has the burden of proof?
Termination of marriage
A: It is on the party who seeks to prove its termination, when
Article 168 of the Family Code such termination is claimed to have occurred prematurely.
Art. 168. If the marriage is terminated and the mother NOTE: A present possessor who shows his possession at
contracted another marriage within three hundred days after some previous time, is presumed to have held possession
such termination of the former marriage, these rules shall also during the intermediate period, in the absence of proof
govern in the absence of proof to the contrary: to the contrary.
(1) A child born before one hundred eighty days after the Obedience of the law
solemnization of the subsequent marriage is considered to
have been conceived during the former marriage, provided it Q: What is the presumption under this?
be born within three hundred days after the termination of
the former marriage; A: There is presumption in favor of legality and compliance
(2) A child born after one hundred eighty days following the with the law, and against illegality
celebration of the subsequent marriage is considered to have
been conceived during such marriage, even though it be born Every alleged violation must be established by competent
within the three hundred days after the termination of the proof.
former marriage. (259a)
Conveyance by trustee Thus, in fixing the said 300 days, the law admits the possibility
that a woman may be in pregnancy for more than 9 months
Q: Explain the presumption. and that the birth of a child taking place 9 months after it was
conceived is not an impossibility.
A: There is a presumption that every instrument has been
executed which it was the legal duty of his trustee to execute TITLE VI
in order to perfect his title. PATERNITY AND FILIATION
Chapter 1. Legitimate Children
Q: What are the requisites for the presumption to apply?
Art. 163. The filiation of children may be by nature or by adoption. Natural
filiation may be legitimate or illegitimate. (n)
A:
1. It must have been the duty of the trustee to convey Art. 164. Children conceived or born during the marriage of the parents are
2. There must be sufficient reason to justify the legitimate.
presumption Children conceived as a result of artificial insemination of the wife with the
sperm of the husband or that of a donor or both are likewise legitimate
3. The object o the presumption must be to support a
children of the husband and his wife, provided, that both of them
just title authorized or ratified such insemination in a written instrument executed
4. The case must be clearly such that a court of equity, and signed by them before the birth of the child. The instrument shall be
if called upon, would decree a reconveyance. recorded in the civil registry together with the birth certificate of the child.
(55a, 258a)
Survivorship Art. 165. Children conceived and born outside a valid marriage are
illegitimate, unless otherwise provided in this Code. (n)
Q: Explain the rule on survivorship.
Art. 166. Legitimacy of a child may be impugned only on the following
grounds:
A: Survivorship is presumed, as between persons who have (1) That it was physically impossible for the husband to have sexual
perished in a common calamity, from the probabilities intercourse with his wife within the first 120 days of the 300 days which
resulting from strength, age, and sex, according to specified immediately preceded the birth of the child because of:
(a) the physical incapacity of the husband to have sexual intercourse with
rules.
his wife;
(b) the fact that the husband and wife were living separately in such a way
Such statutes do not apply where the order of death is shown that sexual intercourse was not possible; or
by evidence either direct or circumstantial. (c) serious illness of the husband, which absolutely prevented sexual
intercourse;
(2) That it is proved that for biological or other scientific reasons, the child
Doubt as to survivorship could not have been that of the husband, except in the instance provided in
the second paragraph of Article 164; or
Q: What does the rule mean? (3) That in case of children conceived through artificial insemination, the
written authorization or ratification of either parent was obtained through
mistake, fraud, violence, intimidation, or undue influence. (255a)
A: It refers only to cases where two or more persons are
called to succeed each other. Hence, it cannot apply to cases Art. 167. The child shall be considered legitimate although the mother may
which do not involve succession. have declared against its legitimacy or may have been sentenced as an
adulteress. (256a)
Art. 168. If the marriage is terminated and the mother contracted another
marriage within three hundred days after such termination of the former
marriage, these rules shall govern in the absence of proof to the contrary:
(1) A child born before one hundred eighty days after the solemnization of
the subsequent marriage is considered to have been conceived during the
Q: What are the form and nature of the questions that may Questions must not call for opinion or hearsay evidence
or may not be propounded to a witness?
A witness can testify to those facts only which he knows of
A: his own knowledgederived from his own perception,
except where a case is a proper one for the introduction of
1. Question must not be indefinite or uncertain; opinion evidence or calls for a testimony which falls within
2. Question must be relevant; the exceptions to the hearsay rule.
3. Question must not be argumentative;
4. Question must not call for conclusion of law; E.g. A question asked if the witness had ever heard of a
5. Questions must not call for opinion or hearsay conduct like the one in issue being made by a certain
evidence; company.
6. Question must not call for illegal answer
7. Question must not call for self-incriminating Question must not call for illegal answer
testimony;
8. Question must not be leading; Where a witness is prohibited by law from furnishing certain
9. Question must not be misleading; information, he cannot be compelled to do so by his answer.
10. Question must not tend to degrade reputation of
witness; and Question must not call for self-incriminating testimony
11. Question must not be repetitious
It is improper to propound questions calling for self-
Question must not be indefinite or uncertain incriminating answer. Yet, the better rule is that the mere
fact that the answer might incriminate the witness does not
Must not be so indefinite as to fail to put the adverse party render the question improper, since the witness is privileged
on notice of the testimony sought to be elicited and preclude to refuse to answer it.
him from objecting to the question in a specific manner as to
prevent any improper answer, and to leave it to the Question must not be leading (Sec. 10, Rule 132)
discretion of the witness as to what matter he shall
elucidate. Question must not be misleading (Sec. 10, Rule 132)
E.g. When you went to the butchers shop or slaughter house Question must not tend to degrade reputation of witness
for the first time, did you go in? This is objectionable as it (Sec. 10, Rule 132)
could not be understood whether it referred to the butchers
shop or to the slaughter house. Question must not be repetitious
They may and should go so far as to indicate and suggest the An answer which is based partly on the witness own
form of questions to and the method of examination of a knowledge cannot be excluded as a whole because it is also
witness where it appears that examining counsel, through based in part on what another person told him.
inexperience or misunderstanding, is unable to extract which
is competent and essential to his clients case. Repetitious answers
There are certain rights which are inherent in judges due to It was not error to strike out of an answer that which was
the nature of their functions. Among these is the right to only a reiteration of what the witness had testified to and
question a witness with a view to satisfying his mind upon about which there was no dispute.
material point which presents itself during the trial and as to
the credibility of such witness. Answers must be responsive to the question asked
Where the degree of credit which he is to give the testimony Q: What is a non-responsive question?
of a given witness may have an important bearing upon the
outcome, there can be no question that in the exercise of A: It is one that states facts not called for by the question.
sound discretion he may put such questions to the witnesses
as in his opinion will aid him in determining the ability or the These questions are not allowed. The answer should be
willingness of the witness to tell the truth. responsive, stating all facts called for, and no more, and
generally without any expression of opinions, inferences, or
Form and nature of the answers conjectures. A non-responsive answer, or if it fails to convey
all the facts which were required, or if it states facts of
Q: What are the form and nature of the answers a witness opinions not required, it may be stricken out on motion as far
must give to questions propounded to him? as it is not responsive, and the refusal of his motion when
seasonable objection is made by the accused is reversible
A: error.
1. General answers; The court may always in its discretion direct a witness to
2. Categorical answers; answer a relevant question responsively if he persists in
3. Answer based on witness own knowledge in part; replying evasively.
4. Repetitious answers;
5. Answers must be responsive to the question asked; Where the answer is partly responsive
6. Where the answer is partly responsive;
7. Answer responsive to part of question; and The unresponsive matter may be stricken out. Partial
8. Answer unresponsive but relevant unresponsiveness does not warrant striking the answer as a
whole. Where an answer in response to an interrogatory was
General answers offered in evidence as an entirety, and a part was not
responsive was inadmissible for other reasons, the entire
An answer too general, and not confined to the issues evidence was properly exclude.
involved is properly excluded. A party who could have
elicited the details by cross-examination, cannot complain of Answer responsive to part of question
the generality of an answer by his opponents witness.
Where the inquiry is complicated and involves several
Categorical answers questions in one, the answer of witness may be construed as
referring only to part of such inquiry. Where a question was
Trial Courts has the discretion in determining whether a complex and the answer was responsive only to a part but
witness should be required to answer categorically yes or the witness meaning was made clear by further answers to
no or be permitted to explain his answer. questions of the Court, there was no error in refusing to
strike the answer.
Q: What is the remedy when the answer of the witness is A: It is prima facie evidence of its correctness.
not responsive?
To be detained only so long as interests of justice requires it XPN: A witness has the right to refuse to answer a question
about his having been merely charged with an offense, or for
A witness should not be detained longer than the interests his having been convicted, provided that the final judgment
of justice require. The trial judge may, where a witness has of conviction is not yet final.
told all he knows about the subject under investigation,
exclude further questions thereon, indeed, it may be the duty To refrain from answering questions which may incriminate
of the trial judge to stop the examination of a witness, who him
has stated that he knows nothing more about the matter
under consideration than that to which he has already A witness need not give an answer which will have a
testified. tendency to subject him to a penalty for an offense unless
otherwise provided by law.
To be examined only on matters pertinent to the issue
Q: What is the reason for the privilege?
The examination should be restricted to competent, material,
and relevant evidence; the court may interrupt a witness in A: It is due to the tolerance with which confessions coerced
order to prevent the eliciting of incompetent evidence, and it by inquisitorial torture were regarded in all civilized
is proper for the trial judge to state wherein a line of countries. It is intended to prevent in a positive manner the
examination is immaterial. repetition of cases whereby a person in a criminal proceeding
of different nature is with human result obliged to furnish the
To refrain from answering questions if the answer will have necessary damaging evidence against himself.
a direct to degrade his character
This was established both on:
Witness is not bound to answer questions if the answer a. Grounds of public policy- it would place the witness
thereto would have direct tendency to degrade his under strongest temptation to commit perjury
reputation, unless it the very fact at issue or to a fact from b. Of humanity- it would be to extort a confession of
which the fact at issue would be presumed. truth by a kind of duress every specie and degree of
which the law abhors.
A witness cannot avoid answering a question material to the
issue, on the ground that it imputes disgrace to himself , if Q: Can corporations claim this right?
such disgrace does not amount to incrimination, and if the
matter is relevant to the issue in such case he will be obliged A: The historic function of the privilege against self-
to give evidence, however strongly it may reflect upon his incrimination is to protect only the natural individual. A
character. corporate officer may not withhold testimony or documents
on the ground that his corporation would be incriminated. A
custodian of corporate books may not withhold them on the
1. The plaintiff must produce the evidence on his part Q: State the order of examination of a witness.
2. The defendant shall then offer evidence in support
of his defense, counter-claim, cross-claim, and third- A:
party claim 1. Direct examination by the proponent;
3. The third party defendant, if any, shall introduce 2. Cross-examination by the opponent;
evidence of his defense, counter-claim, cross-claim, 3. Re-direct examination by the proponent; and
and third-party claim 4. Re-cross examination by the opponent.
4. The fourth, etc. party, if any shall introduce evidence
of material facts by him pleaded Q: What is direct examination?
5. The parties against whom any counter-claim or
cross-claim has been pleaded, shall introduce A: It is the examination in-chief of a witness that is, the initial
evidence in support of their defense, in the order to examination by the party calling him
be prescribed by the court
6. The parties may then respectively offer rebutting Q: What is cross-examination?
evidence only, unless the court, for good reasons, n
the furtherance of justice, permits them to offer A: It is defined as the examination of a witness by the party
evidence upon their original case opposed to the party who called such witness, the latter
7. When the evidence is concluded, unless the parties party having examined, or having been entitled to examine
agree to submit the case without argument, the such witness in chief.
plaintiff or his counsel may make the opening
argument, the defendant, the third party defendant, Evidence elicited on cross-examination is regarded as
and fourth, etc. party or their respective counsel, testimony on the part of the party calling the witness, and
may follow, successively, and the plaintiff or his not as evidence of the party cross-examining.
counsel, may conclude the argument. Two counsel
may, if desired, be heard upon each side, but in the Q: What is meant by re-direct examination?
order herein specified
8. If several defendants or third party defendants A: After a witness has been cross-examined, the next stage in
having separate defenses, appear by different the proceeding is his reexamination by the party calling him.
counsel, the court must determine their relative
order in the evidence and argument, but in any Q: What is re-cross examination?
event the plaintiff is entitled to the opening and
closing argument. A: It is the operation of examining a witness who has finished
his examination in chief, cross-examination, and re-direct
CRIMINAL CASES examination, by the lawyer who cross-examined.
Section 14. (1) No person shall be held to answer for a Its objective is to weaken or disprove the case of ones
criminal offense without due process of law. adversary, and break down his testimony in chief, test the
collection, veracity, accuracy, honesty and bias or prejudice
(2) In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall be of the witness, his source of information, motives, interest
presumed innocent until the contrary is proved, and shall and memory, and exhibit all improbabilities of his testimony.
enjoy the right to be heard by himself and counsel, to be
informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against Q: May the court intervene in the cross-examination of the
him, to have a speedy, impartial, and public trial, to meet witness?
the witnesses face to face, and to have compulsory process
to secure the attendance of witnesses and the production of A:It should stay out if it as much as possible, neither
evidence in his behalf. However, after arraignment, trial interfering nor intervening in the conduct thereof.
may proceed notwithstanding the absence of the accused:
Provided, that he has been duly notified and his failure to Q: What is the scope and extent of cross-examination?
appear is unjustifiable.
A: It is not confined to matters inquired about on direct
RULES OF COURT examination (English Rule).
Section 1. Rights of accused at the trial. American Rule provides however that cross-examination
must be confined to facts and circumstances brought out, or
In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall be entitled: connected with, matters stated on direct-examination.
(f) To confront and cross-examine the witnesses against him We follow the English Rule.
at the trial. Either party may utilize as part of its evidence
the testimony of a witness who is deceased, out of or Q: May a witness be asked to physically demonstrate
cannot with due diligence be found in the Philippines, matters testified to in chief?
unavailable or otherwise unable to testify, given in another
case or proceeding, judicial or administrative, involving the A: Yes.
A: Yes for the purpose not only of testing the recollection of Q: When may the cross-examining party call the witness in
the witness, but of ascertaining whether he made a his own behalf?
statement at variance with what he testified in chief.
A: If the opposite party wishes to examine a witness as to
Q: How is the cross-examination of the accused conducted? matters not stated in the direct examination, or connected
therewith, he must do so by calling the witness in his own
A: He who takes the stand, may be cross-examined at least behalf.
as to any matter testified upon his evidence in chief. Within
the limitations as to self-incrimination, the accused subjects A witness may not be cross-examined as to a document
himself to the same liabilities on cross-examination as do which has not been offered in evidence, although there is
other witnesses, as do other witnesses, and thereby becomes authority for the proposition that in exceptional cases,
subject to all proper and legitimate cross-examination as to documents may be identified and introduced on cross-
facts in issue, whether it tends to incriminate him or not. examination.
Q: How is the cross-examination of a party conducted? Q: To whom does evidence brought out on cross-
examination pertain?
A: Where a party becomes a witness in his own behalf, cross-
examination is governed by the rules which are applicable in A: All evidence brought out on cross-examination is
the case of any other witness. Yet, he is not deprived of his technically given on behalf of the party calling the witness.
rights as a party and his counsel, in a proper case, raise the
question of privilege for his client while he is on the witness Evidence adduced on the cross-examination as to matter not
stand. brought out on the direct examination is the evidence of the
party producing the witness and not the evidence of the
Q: How is the cross-examination of ones witness cross-examining party.
conducted?
Q: May the right of cross-examination be waived?
A: GR: Ordinarily, a party cannot cross-examine his own
witness but a witness first called by the State and later by the A: Yes.
defendant may be cross-examined by the State.
Savory Luncheonette v. Lakas ng Manggagawang Pilipino
XPN: When such witness has proved recalcitrant, reluctant,
unwilling, evasive, uncandid, adverse, or hostile although he The right of a party to confront and cross-examine opposing
cannot ask questions in the effect of which will be the witnesses in a judicial litigation, be it criminal or civil in
discredit the witness. nature, or in proceedings before administrative tribunals with
quasi-judicial powers, is a fundamental right which is part of
Thus, if the State is the surprised by the unexpected due process. However, the right is a personal one which may
testimony of its witnesses, or where the witness answer is be waived expressly or impliedly by conduct amounting to a
evasive and at variance with his statements to the States renunciation of the right of cross-examination. Thus, where
attorney, before the court or in the preliminary examination, a Party has had the opportunity to cross-examine a witness
it may cross-examine him. but failed to avail himself of it, he necessarily forfeits the
rights to cross-examine and the testimony given on direct
Q: How is the cross-examination of an accomplice examination of the witness will be received or allowed to
conducted? remain in the record.
A: He may be subjected to a most searching inquiry as to any The conduct of a party which may be construed as an implied
promise of immunity or leniency made to him, or any hope or waiver of the right to cross-examine may take various forms.
expectation he may entertain of escaping punishment. But the common basic principle underlying the application of
the rule on implied waiver is that the party was given the
Q: How is the cross-examination conducted in order to test opportunity to confront and cross-examine an opposing
the credibility of a witness?
NOTE: Same rule applies if the adverse party was afforded a Section 8. Re-Cross Examination
reasonable chance for cross-examination but through his own
fault failed to cross-examine the witness. Q: When should re-cross examination be allowed?
Q: When is a witness under cross-examination entitled to A: When new matter has been brought out on re-direct
rest? examination, re-cross examination should be allowed.
Otherwise, it is a matter wholly discretionary with the trial
A: When the judge sees that a witness is confused, by a long court.
or irrelevant cross-examination, that his memory seems to
have left him, it is proper to let the witness rest for a short Q: May matters treated of in the direct examination be the
time or to send him from stand, so that he may collect his subject of cross-examination?
thoughts and become composed for the resumption of the
examination. A: Questions as to matter treated during the examination in
chief should be asked in the first cross-examination, and are
properly refused where there is no claim of oversight and no
reason stated why the matter was not inquired into on the
Section 7. Re-direct Examination cross-examination proper. But the Court in the exercise of its
discretion may permit such a question.
Q: What is the purpose and scope of the re-direct
examination of a witness?
Section 9. Recalling witness
A: It is to clarify facts which may have been brought on cross-
examination and which requires further explanation or Q: When is the recall of witnesses necessary?
further testimony to make the witness testimony as a whole
consistent and clear. A: Recall of a witness is frequently made necessary by facts
arising from the cross-examination of other witnesses or by
GR: No new testimony may be added. reason of inadvertence or from other cause.
XPN: New matters which have been overlooked or were not Q: What is its purpose?
known about on the direct examination or cross-examination.
A: For the purpose of correcting or explaining his prior
Q: May a witness on re-direct examination be asked an testimony. Witnesses are also called after they have left the
explanation of his testimony given on cross-examination? stand in order to lay the proper foundation for impeachment,
but this is permitted only within the discretion of the court.
A: Yes.
NOTE: A judge may recall or re-examine a witness, if he
Q: May a witness on re-direct examination be interrogated deems it advisable so as to do for the development of the
as to facts and circumstances tending to refute, weaken, or truth as to the issues he is called upon to adjudicate; and of
remove inferences, impressions, implications, or suggestions course, upon such re-examination he may repeat any or all of
which might result from testimony or inquiries on cross- the questions asked in the examination in chief.
examination?
A: Yes.
Q: What is the test on whether a question is leading or not? Section 11. Impeachment of adverse partys witness
A: It is the suggestiveness of its substance. The form of Q: What are the modes of impeaching a witness?
question is not supreme. It is immaterial whether the
construction of the question is simple, or whether it has A:
attached to it a conjunctive qualification or a disjunctive 1. By contradictory evidence
alternative, whether it is framed affirmatively or negatively.
Q: May a witness be impeached by contradictory evidence? Q: May an impeaching witness himself be impeached?
A: A witness may be impeached by the party against whom A: Yes but only by the usual methods and by questions
he has been called, by the testimony of other witness properly framed.
showing a contrary state of facts. The right of contradiction
exists even though the contradictory evidence tends to Q: How may an impeaching witness himself be impeached?
disgrace the witness or shows that he has been guilty of
particular wrongful acts. A: By requiring him to specify the particular rumors or
statements of individuals that have led him to swear to the
Q: Is it necessary to lay a foundation for the impeachment bad reputation of the witness, and to discredit him by
of a witness by contradictory evidence? showing that his knowledge is inadequate.
Q: Distinguish credibility of testimony from credibility of Q: Who determines the hostility or the bias or unwillingness
witness. of a witness?
A: Without the slightest reflection upon the integrity of a A: If so declared by the court. The same is to be decided by
witness, his testimony may fail to win belief, because his the judge from his demeanor upon the stand and from such
capacity and opportunities for observation were imperfect, or facts as evidence as may show that the witness has some bias
because of its non-conformity to the laws which regulate the against the one calling him or has some disinclination to
human memory and it may be incredible or highly improbable testify.
for other reasons that do not necessarily impeach the good
faith of the witness. Q: Who is an adverse party?
Q: Distinguish competency as a witness from credible A: He must be adverse to the party calling him, and be
witness. actively seeking a recovery against, or opposing a recovery by
such party, or a person for whose immediate benefit the
A: Trial courts may allow a person to testify as a witness upon action was brought or defended.
a matter because he is incompetent but may thereafter
decide whether to believe or not to believe his testimony. Q: May a witness who has mislead a party into calling him
be impeached?
Q: When may a party impeach his own witness?
A: Yes, in the discretion of the court.
A: While a party may not impeach his own witness, he may
impeach him if he is an adverse party, or has become an Q: Is it necessary to lay a foundation for impeachment of a
unwilling or hostile witness in all respects as if he had been witness?
called by the adverse party.
A: Yes. The party must first show that the evidence as given
Q: What is the reason for the rule? has taken him by surprise and that the witness is hostile.
A: It would be grossly unfair to permit a witness to entrap a Q: May a party contradict his own witness?
party into calling him by making a statement favorable to that
partys contention, and then, when he is called and
accredited by that party and gives testimony at variance with
Q: When a party is called either by law or the court as a Q: How should the foundation for impeachment be laid if
witness, may he be impeached? the inconsistent statement is oral?
A: A party who is compelled to call an indispensable witness A: Express precision in the laying of a predicate is not
either by law or the order of the court, is not concluded by necessary. It suffices if there is a reasonable certainty or it is
the answers of such witness. He may impeach him. clear that the attention of the witness is called to the
conversation in such manner that it is identified by him. In
Q: May a party cross-examine his own witness who has such case, a variance as to time is immaterial. If the question
turned hostile? designates the person or the place with reasonable
certainty, it is sufficient. It is not necessary to give the exact
A: It is within the discretion of the court to allow the party language of the alleged statement; the substance is
calling the witness to cross-examine him. sufficient.
Q: May the adverse party cross-examine the party who Q: May a witness be recalled for the purpose of laying down
called him as his witness? the foundation?
A: Yes, with reference to all matters concerning which he has A: Yes, but it shall be with the discretion of the court.
been examined by plaintiff just as fully as though such
witness has been called by plaintiff as his own witness. Q: May failure to lay any proper foundation be waived?
Q: Is a party who calls the adverse party as his witness A: Yes, by the failure of the adverse party to object in proper
bound by his testimony? form to the introduction of the alleged former statement or
testimony.
A: No, he is not bound. He may contradict him by other
evidence to prove a state of facts contrary to that to which Q: How should the foundation for impeachment be laid if
the witness testifies. the inconsistent statement is written?
Q: What is the reason for the rule? A: The witness should first be examined by proper
questioning, his attention be called to such statements, and
A: To enable a litigant to call his adverse without making him should be asked whether or not he made them, and afforded
his own witness and elicit from him, if possible, material facts an opportunity for explanation, or affirmance, or denial of the
within his knowledge. Such rule is remedial in character and is authenticity of the writing.
liberally construed and its application is not limited to cases
in which the adverse party is not called as a witness in his Such statements must be produced at the time of such
own behalf. questioning, and be shown to, or read to or by, the witness,
and marked for identification.
Q: How may a witness be impeached by evidence of A: It is based on the sense of justice to the witness. He should
inconsistent statement? have an opportunity to recollect the fact, and if necessary to
correct the statement already given, as well as to explain the
A: It is by showing that at other times he has made nature, circumstances, meaning and design of what he is
statements which are inconsistent with, or contradictory to, proved elsewhere to have said.
the testimony which he has given at the trial; and, where a
witness denies on the stand that he has made certain Q: How should the foundation be laid if the writing
statements, evidence that he did make the statements in containing the previous inconsistent statement has been
question may be introduced to impeach him. lost?
Q: Is it necessary to lay the foundation before a witness can A: It may be made by proving first the loss of the writing, and
be impeached by evidence of inconsistent statement? then the witness may be cross-examined as to the contents,
A: In such case, proof of alleged inconsistent statements of A: The rule that evidence of the good character of a witness is
the witness cannot be admitted on objection of the adverse not admissible until such character has been impeached is
party, or be pointed out on appeal for the purpose of the logical result of the other one, that the law presumes
destroying the credibility of the witness. every person to be reputedly truthful till evidence shall have
been produced to the contrary.
Q: Does this rule apply to dying declarations?
NOTE: Evidence as to good character is not rendered
A: No since they are admitted on the ground of necessity, admissible by mere attack on the credibility if the testimony
proof of contradictory or inconsistent statements of the which the witness has given in the particular case without any
deceased may be admitted on the same ground without attack on the general character or reputation for veracity
laying and foundation thereof.
A: Yes. He may tell the witness what the other witnesses have Q: What proper foundation must be laid before a witness
testified, if the purpose of the counsel is to find out whether may be allowed to refer to a memorandum or other writing
what those witnesses had testified is true. for the purpose of refreshing his memory?
A: GR: Such witness is not thereby rendered incompetent to 1. If it appears that the aid of such memorandum or
testify, and that the party calling him, cannot be rightfully other writing is necessary on account of his being
deprived of the testimony of such witness. unable to testify from memorandum without it; and
2. It has been shown that the memorandum was
XPN: If the party is at fault, the evidence may be excluded. written by himself or under his discretion at the time
when the fact occurred, or immediately thereafter,
NOTE: The witness may also be punished for contempt of or at any other time when the fact was fresh in his
court and his disobedience may be considered as affecting his memory, and he knew that the same was correctly
credibility. Yet, it lies with the discretion of the TC to allow or stated in the writing.
not allow such witness to testify.
NOTE: The memorandum is the record of a past recollection,
reduced to writing while there was an existing independent
recollection of such transaction, and now vouched for by the
Section 16. When witness may refer to memorandum witness. It stands in the place of the present recollection, the
witness being at most a mere conduit for repetition of its
Q: May a witness while testifying be allowed to refer to a statement.
memorandum?
Q: Should it be in his original writing?
A: Yes, under the following situations:
A: No.
1. For the purpose of refreshing his memory respecting
a fact provided: Q: Is the adverse party entitled to inspect the writing and
a. That the memorandum has been written by him cross-examine the witness?
or under his direction;
b. That it was written (a) when the fact occurred, A: Yes since in no other way can the accuracy and recollection
or immediately thereafter, or (b) at any other of the witnesses be ascertained. It is to ascertain whether the
time when the fact was fresh in his memory and memorandum does assist the memory or not.
he knew that the same was correctly stated
(Past collection revived).
2. If he is able to swear that the writing being merely a Section 17. When part of transaction, writing or record given
memory aid. in evidence, the remainder admissible.
Q: What is the reason for the rule? Q: When part of an act, declaration or compensation is put
in evidence may the adverse party introduce or read the
A: The knowledge or recollection is that of the witness, remainder in evidence?
resting on his original personal observations, but that, having
grown hazy through lapse of time, a recreative stimulus may A: Yes, the adverse party is entitled to prove the remainder of
properly be applied. the conversation, particularly to the extent that it modifies or
explains the part admitted. Also, where a part of a writing (or
Q: What are the advantages and disadvantages of allowing a record) is introduced into evidence, the opponent may
witness to consult notes or memoranda? introduce the remaining part of the writing or have the entire
letter or document read in evidence.
A: Its disadvantage is that the Court partly lose the advantage
of that lively and quick examination which does not give bad Q: What is the limitation to this rule?
faith time to think.
A: The rule is limited to such statements as fairly tend to
Yet if the assistance is denied, a witness is often unable to qualify or explain the part first given. It does not extend to
give accurate and complete testimony and the whole object introduction of what was said in relation to a different
of judicial investigation may be defeated. matter, although in the same conversation.
A: The identity and authenticity of the document must be Q: What are ancient documents?
reasonably established as a prerequisite to its admission in
evidence. Such facts can be shown by direct and A: Those which have been in existence for thirty years or
circumstantial evidence. The extent for documentary proof more.
lies in the discretion of the Court.
Q: What are the requisites?
Q: What is meant by authentication?
A:
A: It is the evidencing of the thing; that the thing here shown
did come from the very person or place testified to by the a. The document is more than 30 years old;
witness. In criminal case, this requirement is vital. The thing b. Produced from a custody in which it would naturally
produced in Court must be traced by testimony from hand to be found if genuine;
hand until it appears that it is the very thing which a witness c. Unblemished by any alterations or circumstances of
spoke of seeing or finding or using. suspicion;
d. The subscribing witnesses being presumed to be
Q: What is meant by due execution and genuineness? dead;
e. No other evidence of execution and authenticity
A: It means nothing more than that the instrument is not need be give.
spurious, counterfeit, or of different import on its face from
the one executed. Q: What is the reason for such rule?
Q: How is the execution and authenticity of private A: Convenience and on the difficulty of proving the due
document established? execution of a deed after an interval of many years.
A:
Section 23. Public Documents as evidence
1. By any witness who believes it to be the
handwriting of such person because: Q: How are public or official entries proved?
a. Has seen the person write; or
b. He has seen writing purporting to be his upon A: It may be proved by the production of the books or records
which the witness has acted or been charged, themselves or by a copy certified by the legal keeper thereof.
and has thus acquired knowledge of the
handwriting of such person Q: What is the probative value of entries in public records?
2. By a comparison, made by the witness or the court,
with writings admitted or treated as genuine by the A: Entries in public records, made in the performance of their
party against whom the evidence is offered, or duty by public officers of the Philippine Islands, are prima
proved to be genuine to the satisfaction of the facie evidence of the facts therein stated. Such documents,
judge. however, are not conclusive evidence. Their probative value
may either be substantiated or nullified by other competent
Q: May an ordinary witness express his opinion regarding evidence.
the handwriting of a person?
NOTE: Public or official records of entries made in excess of
A: Yes. It must be a person who is familiar with the official duty are not admissible in evidence. As to matters
handwriting of the alleged writer; the opinion of such a which the officer is not bound to record, his certificate, being
person is universally recognized to be admissible; even extrajudicial, is merely the statement of a private person.
though he is in no sense a handwriting expert.
Q: What are public documents evidence of?
Q: May the authenticity of a writing be proved by
comparison made by the court? A: This rule is not absolute in the sense that the contents of
a public document is conclusive evidence against the
A: Yes through comparison by the court with the writings contracting parties as to the truthfulness of the statements
admitted or treated as genuine by the party against whim the made therein. They constitute only prima facie evidence of
evidence is offered. the facts which give rise to their execution and of the date of
the latter. A baptismal certificate, like all documents in
Comparison of handwritings is a mode of proof of the general, attests the fact that originated its execution, and the
authenticity or genuineness of a writing, by comparing the date of the same to wit, the administration of the sacrament
handwriting thereof with a specimen proved or admitted to on the day specified, but not to the veracity of the
have been written by the person whose authorship of the statements made therein respecting the kinsfolk of the
questioned document is in controversy. person baptized.
Q: How can the genuineness of a standard be established? A death certificate is not proof of the real cause of the death
of the assured, its probative value being only confined to the
A: fact of death, and the statement therein contained regarding
duration of illness and cause of death, are mere hearsay.
1. By the admission of the person sought to be charged
with the disputed writing made at or for the Q: Is proof of authenticity of public documents necessary?
purposes of the trial or by his testimony;
2. By witnesses who saw the standards written or to A: A document duly acknowledged before a notary public
whom or in whose hearing the person sought to be under his hand and seal, with his certificate thereto attached,
charged acknowledged the writing thereof; and is admissible in evidence without further proof of its due
3. By evidence showing that the reputed writer of the execution and delivery, unless and until some question
standard has acquiesced in or recognized the same, raised as to the verity of said acknowledgment and
or that it has been adopted and acted upon by him certificate. One of the very purposes of requiring documents
in his business transactions or other concerns. to be acknowledged before a notary public, in addition to the
solemnity which should surround the execution and delivery
Q: May the authenticity of a writing be proved by a of documents, is to authorize such documents to be given in
handwriting expert? evidence without further proof of their execution and
delivery.
A: Yes.
NOTE: The fact that the seal was in the wrong place does not
require exclusion of the copy.
Section 29. How Judicial record impeached
Q: What is the probative value of a certified copy?
Q: What is a judicial record?
A: It proves prima facie the original to have been in the public
office when it was made. The officers certificate is accorded A: It is a the record, official entry, or files of the proceedings
the sanctity of a deposition. It is conclusive, but when no in a court of justice or of the official act of a judicial officer in
special incentive for falsification appears, it should prevail an action, suit or proceeding.
over the bare fact that 7 years later an original record cannot
be found. Q: How may judicial record be impeached?
A:
Section 26. Irremovability of public record 1. By evidence of want of jurisdiction in court or judicial
officer in respect to the proceedings
Q: What is the reason for the irremovability of public 2. By evidence of collusion between the parties in the
record? proceedings
3. By evidence of fraud in the party offering the record
A: Records, being the precedent of the demonstrations of in respect to the proceedings
justice, to which every man has a common right to have
recourse, cannot be transferred from place to place to serve a Q: When may a judgment be impeached on the ground of
private purpose; and therefore, they have a common lack of jurisdiction?
repository, from where they ought not to be removed.
Besides, these records by being daily removed, would be in A: A judgment void for want of jurisdiction is open to
great danger of being lost. contradiction or impeachment in a collateral proceeding. By
the weight of authority of the record, but in some
jurisdictions extrinsic evidence is admissible to contradict the
record in this respect.
Section 27. Public record of a private document
NOTE: The defect of jurisdiction may either be in respect to:
Q: How may an authorized public record of a private writing a. Person
be proved? b. Subject matter
c. Authority to render the particular judgment or
A: decree
1. By the original record
2. By a copy attested by the legal custodian of the 1. Where the court is authorized by the statute to entertain
record with an appropriate certificate that such jurisdiction in a particular case only, if it undertakes to
officer has the custody. exercise jurisdiction in a case to which the statute has no
application, such court acquires no jurisdiction and its
Where certified copies of public records are offered, it should judgment when made is a nullity and subject to collateral
appear that the officer by whom they purport to be certified attack.
had the right to the custody of the records, and was the 2. Where the court has jurisdiction, a judgment may not be
person who has authority to furnish authenticated copies. impeached collaterally, because it is not in the form
required by the applicable statute, or is contrary to the
limitations of such statute, or resulted from an erroneous
interpretation thereof, or an erroneous ruling as to the
Section 28. Proof of lack of record operative force of one of the 2 statutes, apparently
conflicting.
FACTS WHICH INVOLVE THE JURISDICTIONAL FACTS Section 30. Proof of notarial documents
JURISDICTION OF THE WITHOUT ALLEGATION OF
COURT OVER THE PARTIES WHICH THE COURT CANNOT Q: What is the probative value of notarial documents?
AND SUBJECT MATTER PROPERLY PROCEED AND A
DECREE CANNOT BE MADE A: Notarial documents may be presented in evidence without
Its absence renders the Error in the exercise of further proof, the certificate of acknowledgment being prima
judgment void and assailable jurisdiction is not want of facie evidence of the execution of the instrument or
collaterally jurisdiction and does not document involved.
make a judgment void
A: It refers to fraud in the means whereby the judgment was Q: How may a party offer a document in evidence which
procured, and not fraud in the cause of action or matter put appears to have been materially altered?
in issue and present for adjudication.
A: The rule requires that a party, producing a writing as
Q: May a judicial record with some defect or informality in genuine but which is found altered after its execution, in a
the making of the record or the papers which form a part part material to the question in dispute, should account for
thereof inadmissible in evidence? the alteration and, if he does that, he may give the writing in
evidence, but not otherwise. Thus, he should have accounted
A: A judicial record will not be excluded because of some for the alteration when he introduced the paper in evidence
defect or informality in the making of the record or the and not endeavor to explain the alteration afterwards.
Section 32. Seal A: It is the duty of the party to select the competent form
incompetent in offering testimony, and he cannot impose this
Q: Is there any difference between sealed and unsealed duty upon the trial court.
private documents?
Q: May a party who has formally offered evidence withdraw
A: Whether the private document is sealed or unsealed its it?
admissibility as evidence is the same.
A: No, not as a matter of right. But it has been held that a
party may withdraw an offer of an exhibit any time before
the court has passed on its admissibility. The court may
Section 32. Documentary evidence in an official language refuse to permit a party to withdraw evidence he has elicited
on cross-examination. However when the evidence has been
Q: What are the documents written in an unofficial language admitted over objections, the party introducing it may
admissible in evidence? request to have it withdrawn, and the court may grant such
leave.
A: They are admissible in evidence when accompanied with a
translation into English, or Filipino. Thus, a writing in the Q: How should evidence which is offered as a whole and
Ilocano language is not admissible in evidence. part of it is inadmissible be received?
Q: Is the document accompanied by a translation in the A: It is discretionary with the court to reject the entire
official language admissible if no objection regarding its evidence or receive in evidence those parts which are
admissibility is raised by the party against whom it is admissible and reject the other parts. The court is not bound
offered? to separate the admissible from the inadmissible evidence,
but may reject it as a whole.
A: It is too late to invoke the rule for the first time on appeal.
Q: Is the rule on offer of evidence applicable to summary
Q: When are documents written in a foreign language proceedings?
admissible in evidence?
A: No since there is no full-blown trial. The rule on summary
A: It may be admitted in evidence in connection with a judgments is that the judge must base his decisions on the
showing of their meaning in English but are not admissible pleadings, depositions, admissions, affidavits and documents
without a translation into English, at least where the party on file with the court.
Q: What is the purpose of an objection? 1. Evidence offered orally or in writing- must be made
immediately after the offer is made, stating
A: The office of an objection is to stop an answer to a specifically the grounds thereof. An offer of evidence
question put to a witness, or to prevent receipt of a in writing shall be objected to within 3 days after
document in evidence until the court has had opportunity to notice of the offer unless a different period is
make a ruling upon its admissibility; the objection lays the allowed by the court
foundation for an exception to an adverse ruling by the court, 2. Question propounded during oral examination- shall
warning both court and counsel that such adverse rulings be made as soon as the grounds therefor shall
may be the basis of appellate review. become reasonably apparent
A: When an objectio to evidence is distinctly made and Q: Is an erroneous ruling as to the question of admissibility
overruled it need not be repeated to the same class of of evidence or its rejection a ground for new trial?
evidence subsequently received, although the evidence is
given by or the question asked of, another witness. A: No, if it appears that there was sufficient evidence to
justify the decision or that if the rejected evidence has been
Q: What are the exceptions? receivd, it would not have varied the decision.
Q: When is a motion to strike out evidence necessary? Q: May the court upon its own motion strike out evidence
improperly admitted?
A: An objection must be interposed as soon as the grounds
therefor becomes evident. Counsel must be ever vigilant so A: Yes.
that incompetent evidence is not allowed to creep into the
recotds.
A motion to strike out should be made where a witness Section 40. Tender of excluded evidence
answers a question after an objectiob has been sustained;
where the irrelevancy of evidence becomes apparent after an Q: What is meant by tender of excluded evidence?
objection has been overruled, or where a witness answers a
question before an attorney can object. A: Where the court refuses to permit the counsel to present
testimony which he thinks is competent, material and
Q: Why is a motion to strike out evidence necessary? necessary to prove his case, the method of properly
preserving the record to the end that the question may be
A: It is necessary in order to preserve the right of the saved for the purposes of review, is through the making of an
objecting party to a review of the ruling of the trial court on offer of proof.
appeal.
Q: What is its purpose?
NOTE: A motion to strike may be directed specifically to the
evidence which the moving party desires to have eliminated, A:
and it should specify the grounds upon which it is based; 1. To inform the court what is expected to be proved
where grounds are specified, all other grounds are thereby 2. Procuring exceptions to the exclusion of the offered
waived. evidence so that the upper court may determine
from the record whether the evidence is competent.
Q: May a party who has elicited a statement from a witness
move to strike it out because it proves unfavorable to him? Q: If the excluded evidence is documentary or object, how is
the offer made?
A: No.
A: The offeror may have the same attached to or made part
Q: What must be the form of a motion to strike? of the record.
V. Memory A:
1. Oral statements- it is difficult to remember and
Q: In the determination of the extent of witness means and repeat the precise words of a conversation that is
opportunity of knowing the facts to which they testify, the being detailed
court must consider certain considerations.
If there is irreconcilable difference between their testimonies A: It gives rise to an unfavorable inference against the party.
as to essential circumstances, the partys caused is not
advanced by their testimony. And disagreement between Q: What are the instances when the presumption of
witnesses as to prominent collateral facts may be cogent suppresion of evidence?
evidence of perjury. But, it is natural that in relating their
impression, they are liable to disagree on the minor details A:
resulting in contradictions in their testimony. But such is not a 1. If a party fails to present all the eyewitnesses to an
sufficient grount to impeach their credibiity. act
2. When the evidence ommitted is at the disposal of
Construction of testimony both parties
3. When it is a privilege for a party to omit a certain
Q: What are the rules on the construction of testimony? piece of evidence
A: Conflicting testimonies
1. The testimony should be taken in its natural import
and meaning. It will be construed to mean and The Reconciliation Rule
include what a sensible person would naturally
understand it to mean. The first step is the process of inquiry to ascertain whether
2. Testimony must be considered as a whole, and the the apparent inconsistencies it presents may not without
true meaning of answers to isolated questions is to violence be reconciled.
be ascertained by due consideration of all the
questions propounded to the witness and his Courts must look at the conditions and surroundings of the
answers thereto. respective parties.
3. Courts must subordinate the literal terms used by a
witness to the substance and effect of his testimony. The Admitted Facts Rule
4. Where the question put to a witness is long and
contains more than one point, the common habit of Evidence of whatever description must yield to the extent
witness to answer only the last point mentioned in that it conflicts with admitted clearly established facts.
Having ascertained what facts are indisputably proved or
Q: What matters may be taken into account as bases for A: Because of the unlimited command of means; with counsel
evaluating conflicting testimonies? usually of authority and capacity, who are regarded as public
officers, and with an attitude of tranquil majesty often in
A: striking contrast to that of the defendant engaged in
1. Probabilities perturbed and distracting struggle for liberty if not for life.
2. Motive for telling the truth
3. Character or reputation of witness Q: What is meant by reasonable doubt?
Q: What is the weight accorded by appellate court to trial A: It does not mean such degree of proof as excluding the
courts findings of fact as credibility of witness? possibility of error, produceses absolute certainty. Moral
certainty is required, or that degree of prood which produces
A: In civil case, it is well-settled that the appellate court will conviction in an unprejudiced mind.
not reverse a finding of fact by the trial court will not reverse
a finding of fact by the trial court made upon conflicting Q: What is meant by moral certainty?
testimony and depending largely upon the credibility of
witnesses who testified in the presence of the court, unless A: It is that degree of certainty which will justify the trial
the Court failed to take into consideration some material judge in grounding on his verdict. It is certainty that convinces
facts and circumstances presented to it for consideration. and directs the understanding and satisfies the reason and
judgment of those who are bound to act conscientiously
Q: When may actual findings of the court of appeals be set upon it.
aside?
Q: Distingusih presumption of innocence from reasonable
A: doubt.
1. When the conclusion is a finding grounded entirely
on speculation, surmises or conjectures A:
2. When the inference made is manifestly mistaken, PRESUMPTION OF REASONABLE DOUBT
absurd, or impossible INNOCENCE
3. Where there is a grave abuse of discretion Conclusion drawn by law in Condition of mind produced
4. When the judgment is based on a misapprehension favor of citizens by proof resulting from
of facts evidence in the case
5. When the court went beyond the issues of the case Evidence introduced by the Result of insufficient proof
and the same is contrary to the admission of both law
parties
Q: Is evidence giving rise to conjecture or suspicion of guilt
sufficient to warrant conviction?
Section 1. Proof beyond reasonable doubt A: No. Suspicion cannot give probative force to testimony
whcich in itself is insufficient to establish or justify an
Q: What is the degree of proof required in criminal cases? inference.
Corpus delicti A:
Q: May the court limit the number of witnesses to establish Q: What is the reason for the rule?
a particular fact?
A: Whenever there is reasonable cause to apprehend future
A: Yes. in regard a particular subject or matter and the person
threatened with or exposed to suit himself is unable to bring
Q: If a party has rested his case may he be allowed to the issue to an immediate judicial proceeding, or when he
introduce additional evidence? himself intends to institute an action but is unable by reason
of some legal impediment, a court of equity will entertain a
A: It lies on the sound discretion of the court, and this bill or petition to perpetuate by taking and filing their
discretion cannot be reviewed except in clear case of abuse. dispositions.
A: Not in the ordinary or technical sense, even when they are Q: May perpetuation of testimony be used for framing a
reduced into writing. complaint?
Q: When may a motion be heard by affidavits or A: Yes but only for the purpose of preserving known
depositions? testimony against danger of loss.
A: Section 7 of Rule 133. The purpose of the rule is not to enable a prospective litigant
to discover facts upon which to frame a complaint.
Section 7. Evidence on motion. When a motion is based on facts
not appearing of record the court may hear the matter on affidavits Q: Does perpetuation of testimony include inspection of
or depositions presented by the respective parties, but the court property?
may direct that the matter be heard wholly or partly on oral
testimony or depositions. (7)
A: No.
Q: Distinguish affidavit and deposition.
A:
Section 2. Contents of petition
AFFIDAVIT DEPOSITION
Always taken ex parte The opposite party has an Q: What does the petition contain?
opportunity to cross-examine
the witness A:
1. expectancy of action
Facultad de Derecho Civil 104
UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS
NOTES ON EVIDENCE
Kenneth & King Hizon (3A) _____________________________________________
2. subject matter of the expected action and
petitioners interests therein
3. the facts which petitioner desires to establish by the
proposed testimony and his reasons thereof Section 5. Reference of court
4. names of expected adverse parties and their
addresses Section 5. Reference to court. For the purpose of applying Rule 24 to
5. identity of persons to be examined and nature of depositions for perpetuating testimony, each reference therein to the court
in which the action is pending shall be deemed to refer to the court in which
their expected testimony the petition for such deposition was filed.
6. prayer for relief
Section 6. Use of deposition
Q: Must the petition show that the court before whom it is
filed had jurisdiction over the contemplated action? Q: To what actions may the deposition be used?
Section 3. Notice and service Q: What is the probative value of depositions to perpetuate
testimony?
Q: May the proceeding to perpetuate testimony be
conducted ex parte? A: It does not prove the existence of any right. It can refer to
nothing but facts, it consisting only of the mere declaration of
A: No. It requires filing of petition and the service of process witnesses.
in the usual manner upon the defendants interested.
A:
1. If an appeal has been taken from a judgment of a
Section 4. Order of examination RTC
2. Before the taking of an appeal if the time therefor
Q: What is meant by failure or delay of justice? has not expired.
A: It is made more specific by the items which the Rule Q: For what purpose may the deposition taken pending the
requires to appear on the petition. appeal be used?
Q: Is hearing of the petition necessary? A: Depositions de bene esse may be taken during the
pendency of an appeal or review proceeding for use in the
A: No. trial court in the event the cause is remanded for a new trial.
Q: What are the grounds for granting or denying the Q: What is the nature of the hearing on the motion for leave
petition? to perpetuate testimony pending appeal?
A: If the court is satisfied that the perpetuation of the A: It is summary, similar to a hearing of any motion and
testimony may prevent a failure or delay of justice, it may would ordinarily be heard on affidavit.
grant.
A: All civil actions and proceedings, as well as quasi-judicial Disputable presumptions relating to e-signatures
and administrative cases.
Q: What are the disputable presumptions relating to e-
Q: What is an electronic data message? signatures?
A: It refers to an electronic document or electronic data A: It refers to any information or the representation of
message bearing a digital signature verified by the public key information, data, figures, symbols or other modes of written
listed in a certificate. expression, described or however represented, by which a
right is established or an obligation extinguished, or by which
NOTE: Electronic signature or digital signatures are admissible a fact may be proved and affirmed, which is received,
in evidence as the functional equivalent of the signature of a recorded, transmitted, stored, processed, retrieved or
person on a written document. produced electronically.
NOTE: For purposes of these Rules, the term electronic Q: Give the rules to be applied in the authentication of
document may be used interchangeably with electronic electronic documents?
data message.
A:
Functional equivalent of paper-based documents
1. Burden of proving authenticity
Admissible in evidence if it complies with the rules on
admissibility prescribed by the Rules of Court and related Q: Who has the burden to prove the authenticity of such
laws and is authenticated in the manner prescribed by these documents?
Rules.
A: The person seeking to introduce an electronic document in
Q: Is an electronic document confidential in character? any legal proceeding has the burden of proving its
authenticity.
A: Confidential character of a privileged communication is not
lost solely on the ground that it is in the form of an electronic 2. Manner of authentication
document.
Before any private electronic document offered as authentic
BEST EVIDENCE RULE is received in evidence, its authenticity must be proved by
any of the following means:
Q: Under what instances can an electronic document be
regarded as an original document? a. By evidence that it had been digitally signed by the
person purported to have signed the same;
A: An electronic document shall be regarded as the b. By evidence that other appropriate security
equivalent of an original document under the Best Evidence procedures or devices as may be authorized by the
Rule: Supreme Court or by law for authentication of
electronic documents were applied to the
a. If it is a printout; or document; or
b. Output readable by sight or other means, shown to c. By other evidence showing its integrity and reliability
reflect the data accurately. to the satisfaction of the judge.
Q: When can the copies and duplicates be regarded as 3. A document electronically notarized in accordance
originals? with the rules promulgated by the Supreme Court
shall be considered as a public document and proved
A: as a notarial document under the Rules of Court.
1. When a document is in two or more copies executed EVIDENTIARY WEIGHT OF ELECTRONIC DOCUMENTS
at or about the same time with identical contents, or
Q: What are the factors for assessing the evidentiary weight
2. Is a counterpart produced by the same impression as of electronic documents?
the original, or from the same matrix, or by
mechanical or electronic re-recording, or by A:
chemical reproduction, or by other equivalent
techniques that accurately reproduces the original. a. The reliability of the manner or method in which it
was generated, stored or communicated, including
Q: Conversely, when can the copies or duplicates shall not but not limited to input and output procedures,
be admissible to the same extent as the original? controls, tests and checks for accuracy and reliability
of the electronic data message or document, in the
A: light of all the circumstances as well as any relevant
agreement;
1. If a genuine question is raised as to the authenticity b. The reliability of the manner in which its originator
of the original; or was identified;
In any dispute involving the integrity of the information and EXAMINATION OF WITNESSES
communication system in which an electronic document or Electronic testimony
electronic data message is recorded or stored, the court may
consider, among others, the following factors: a. After summarily hearing the parties pursuant to Rule
9 of these Rules, the court may authorize the
a. Whether the information and communication presentation of testimonial evidence by electronic
system or other similar device was operated in a means. Before so authorizing, the court shall
manner that did not affect the integrity of the determine the necessity for such presentation and
electronic document, and there are no other prescribe terms and conditions as may be necessary
reasonable grounds to doubt the integrity of the under the circumstances, including the protection of
information and communication system; the rights of the parties and witnesses concerned.
b. Whether the electronic document was recorded or b. When examination of a witness is done
stored by a party to the proceedings with interest electronically, the entire proceedings, including the
adverse to that of the party using it; or questions and answers, shall be transcribed by a
c. Whether the electronic document was recorded or stenographer, steno typist or other recorder
stored in the usual and ordinary course of business authorized for the purpose, who shall certify as
by a person who is not a party to the proceedings correct the transcript done by him. The transcript
and who did not act under the control of the party should reflect the fact that the proceedings, either in
using it. whole or in part, had been electronically recorded.
c. The electronic evidence and recording thereof as
EXCEPTION TO THE HEARSAY RULE well as the stenographic notes shall form part of the
record of the case. Such transcript and recording
A memorandum, report, record or data compilation of acts, shall be deemed prima facie evidence of such
events, conditions, opinions, or diagnoses, made by proceedings.
electronic, optical or other similar means at or near the time
of or from transmission or supply of information by a person Ephemeral electronic communication
with knowledge thereof, and kept in the regular course or
conduct of a business activity, and such was the regular Q: What is an ephemeral electronic communication?
practice to make the memorandum, report, record, or data
compilation by electronic, optical or similar means, all of A: It refers to telephone conversations, text messages,
which are shown by the testimony of the custodian or other chatroom sessions, streaming audio, streaming video, and
qualified witnesses, is excepted from the rule or hearsay other electronic forms of communication the evidence of
evidence. which is not recorded or retained.
A: This presumption may be overcome by evidence of the A: It shall be proven by the testimony of a person who was a
untrustworthiness of the source of information or the party to the same or has personal knowledge thereof. In the
Q: When are audio, photographic and video evidence Q: What is DNA evidence?
admissible?
A: DNA evidence constitutes the totality of the DNA
A: Audio, photographic and video evidence of events, acts or profiles, results and other genetic information directly
transactions shall be admissible provided: generated from DNA testing of biological samples;
Q: What is the scope of the rule on DNA evidence? Q: What is probability of parentage?
A: This Rule shall apply whenever DNA evidence, as defined in A: Probability of Parentage means the numerical estimate
Section 3 hereof, is offered, used, or proposed to be offered for the likelihood of parentage of a putative parent compared
or used as evidence in all criminal and civil actions as well as with the probability of a random match of two unrelated
special proceedings. individuals in a given population.
A: Unless a higher court issues an injunctive order. Q: Will the provisions of the Rules of Court apply?
Q: Will the grant of DNA Testing Order have an effect of an A: The provisions of the Rules of Court concerning the
automatic admission into evidence of any component of the appreciation of evidence shall apply suppletorily.
DNA evidence?
Reliability of DNA Testing Methodology.
A: The grant of DNA testing application shall not be construed
as an automatic admission into evidence of any component Q: In evaluating whether the DNA testing methodology is
of the DNA evidence that may be obtained as a result reliable, what are the factors which the Court shall
thereof. consider?
A:
Evaluation of DNA Testing results A: Except upon order of the court, a DNA profile and all
results or other information obtained from DNA testing shall
Q: In evaluating the results of DNA testing, what are the only be released to any of the following, under such terms
factors that the court should consider? and conditions as may be set forth by the court:
a. Person from whom the sample was taken;
a. The evaluation of the weight of matching DNA b. Person from whom the sample was taken;
evidence or the relevance of mismatching DNA c. Lawyers of private complainants in a criminal action;
evidence; d. Duly authorized law enforcement agencies; and
b. The results of the DNA testing in the light of the e. Other persons as determined by the court.
totality of the other evidence presented in the case;
and that Q: What is the penalty in case of non-compliance of this
c. DNA results that exclude the putative parent from provision?
paternity shall be conclusive proof of non-paternity.
If the value of the Probability of Paternity is less than A: Whoever discloses, utilizes or publishes in any form any
99.9%, the results of the DNA testing shall be information concerning a DNA profile without the proper
considered as corroborative evidence. If the value of court order shall be liable for indirect contempt of the court
the Probability of Paternity is 99.9% or higher there wherein such DNA evidence was offered, presented or sought
shall be a disputable presumption of paternity. to be offered and presented.
Post-conviction DNA Testing NOTE: Where the person from whom the biological sample
was taken files a written verified request to the court that
Q: What is the purpose of the Post-conviction DNA Testing? allowed the DNA testing for the disclosure of the DNA profile
of the person and all results or other information obtained
A: It is a remedy if the Results Are Favorable to the Convict. from the DNA testing, the same may be disclosed to the
persons named in the written verified request.
Q; What is the procedure in the application for such?
A:
Preservation of DNA Evidence.
1. The convict or the prosecution may file a petition for
a writ of habeas corpus in the court of origin if the Q: Who shall preserve the DNA evidence?
results of the post-conviction DNA testing are
favorable to the convict. A: The trial court shall preserve the DNA evidence in its
2. In the case the court, after due hearing finds the totality, including all biological samples, DNA profiles and
petition to be meritorious, if shall reverse or modify results or other genetic information obtained from DNA
the judgment of conviction and order the release of testing.
the convict, unless continued detention is justified
for a lawful cause. NOTE: For this purpose, the court may order the appropriate
government agency to preserve the DNA evidence as follows:
a. In criminal cases:
i. for not less than the period of time that any
person is under trial for an offense; or
ii. in case the accused is serving sentence,
until such time as the accused has served
his sentence;
a. In all other cases, until such time as the decision in
the case where the DNA evidence was introduced
has become final and executory.
NOTES