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CET(PG)-2013

Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D Sr. No. :


Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figures In Words In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :
Subject : M.Sc.(Two Year Course)Human Genomics
Time : 90 minutes Number of Questions : 75 Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL/48982-A 2
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)Human Genomics/A
1. The term homozygous refers to a gene pair in which :
(A) Paternal and maternal genes are different
(B) Paternal and maternal genes are similar
(C) Paternal and maternal genes are identical
(D) Paternal and Maternal genes are mosaic
2. One amino acid among following usually breaks an alpha helix :
(A) Proline (B) Glycine
(C) Leucine (D) Valine
3. Pschyrophilic bacteria are bacteria which are found in :
(A) Hot springs (B) In acidic solutions
(C) In high salt concentration (D) In cold temperatures
4. A trait that appears in F1 progeny is called :
(A) Recessive (B) Phenotype
(C) Dominant (D) Genotype
5. Sugar in DNA is :
(A) Ribose (B) Dideoxy ribose
(C) Deoxyribose (D) Deoxyribulose
6. Meselson and Stahl used density gradient centrifugation technique to demonstrate :
(A) Separation of complementary strands during DNA replication
(B) Separation of complementary strands during DNA recombination
(C) Separation of complementary strands during DNA crossing over
(D) Separation of complementary strands during transcription
7. Which of the following is not required during DNA sequencing ?
(A) Dideoxy-dNTPs (B) Template
(C) A thermostable DNA polymerase (D) dNTPs
8. Dielectric constant of water is approximately :
(A) 8 (B) 800
(C) 80 (D) 18

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL/48982-A 3 [Turn over


9. Upper limit of cell size is probably set by :
(A) Rate of diffusion of solute molecules in aq solution
(B) Cell membrane
(C) Genes
(D) Genome
10. Archea is an :
(A) Organism (B) Phylum
(C) Genus (D) Kingdom
11. The Adaptor hypothesis by Crick is :
(A) About adaptation (B) About evolution
(C) About tRNA (D) About electric circuits
12. The term rRNA stands for :
(A) regulatory RNA (B) ribosomal RNA
(C) repressor RNA (D) rolling RNA
13. Lithotrophs oxidize :
(A) Inorganic fuels (B) Organic fuels
(C) Bioorganic fuels (D) Proteins
14. A sequence that can be several thousand base pairs upstream or downstream of a
eukaryotic promoter and which increases gene expression as much as 200-fold is :
(A) CAAT Box (B) TATA Box
(C) Enhancers (D) Insulators
15. Most abundant element in living organisms is :
(A) Hydrogen (B) Carbon
(C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen
16. One among following is not an allosteric protein :
(A) GPCRs (B) Aspartate transcabamylase
(C) Immunoglobins (D) Haemoglobin
17. The pathway from a gene to a protein in eukaryotic cells involves :
(A) First, transport of mRNA, then its processing, then transcription, then translation
(B) First, transcription of the RNA, then its transport, then processing, then translation
(C) First, processing of the RNA, then its transport, then transcription, then translation
(D) First, transcription of RNA, then its processing, then its transport, then translation
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL/48982-A 4
18. Inside a cell, calcium is stored in :
(A) Nucleus (B) Lysosomes
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Golgi body
19. Heat shock proteins are :
(A) Proteolytic sites (B) Peptides
(C) Chaperones (D) Polyproteins
20. Informational macromolecules in a cell are :
(A) Proteins and nucleic acids (B) Lipids, carbohydrates
(C) Fats and lipids (D) Fats, lipids and carbohydrates
21. One of these is a nonsense codon :
(A) UUU (B) UGA
(C) UGG (D) UGC
22. Water has :
(A) No pole (B) Mono pole
(C) Dipole (D) Tripole
23. van der Waal radius of hydrogen atom is :
(A) ~1.2 (B) ~1.0
(C) ~1.5 (D) ~0.5
24. The DNA double helix has :
(A) No grooves (B) Major and Minor grooves
(C) Only major grooves (D) Only minor grooves
25. DNA in cells is :
(A) Fragmented (B) Fused
(C) Negatively supercoiled (D) Sheared
26. DNA cannot :
(A) Complex with proteins (B) Form tertiary structures
(C) Unwind (D) Denature
27. Kinetochore is :
(A) An elaborate protein complex (B) An enzyme
(C) A step in reaction (D) A kinetic constant

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL/48982-A 5 [Turn over


28. Histones are :
(A) Negatively charged proteins (B) Neutral proteins
(C) Very large proteins (D) Positively charged
29. H1 histone is :
(A) Part of core histones (B) Highly conserved across species
(C) Part of nucleosome (D) Part of replicon
30. Structure of DNA Polymerase resembles a :
(A) Bucket containing primer : template junction
(B) Hand that grips primer : template junction
(C) Chainsaw acting on primer : template junction
(D) tong holding primer : template junction
31. Gibbs free energy is :
(A) True criteria for spontaneity of a reaction in living systems
(B) False criteria for spontaneity of a reaction in living systems
(C) Measure for release energy during a reaction
(D) Measure of total energy
32. Which one is correct for living systems ?
(A) Pressure, volume and pH is variable (B) Amount of matter variable
(C) Pressure, temp, pH is constant (D) Pressure, temp, pH is variable
33. If one has to think of conducting a charge, which polymer is useful ?
(A) Proteins (B) DNA
(C) Polysaccharides (D) Lipids
34. In lysogeny, bacteriophage genome is :
(A) Replicated in bacterial cell (B) Degraded in bacterial cell
(C) Integrated into the bacterial genome (D) Expelled from bacterial cell
35. ChIP stands for :
(A) Chromosomal integrated plasmid (B) Chromatin immunoprecipitation
(C) Chloroplast integrated protein (D) Chromatography-isoelectricfocussing
36. Coomissie brilliant blue binds to :
(A) Proteins specifically (B) Nucleic acids non specifically
(C) Proteins nonspecifically (D) Nucleic acids specifically

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL/48982-A 6


37. Stochasticity indicates that a process is :
(A) Characterized to some degree by randomness
(B) Characterized totally by randomness
(C) Characterized by total order
(D) Uncontrolled
38. Ubx is a gene which controls :
(A) Transport of glucose (B) Development of thoracic segment
(C) Development of eyes (D) Development of brain
39. Imprinting involves :
(A) DNA polymerization (B) DNA phosphorylation
(C) DNA methylation (D) DNA fragmentation
40. Operons are :
(A) Present in prokaryotes and eukaryotes (B) Present in eukaryotes only
(C) Present in prokaryotes only (D) Present only in mammals
41. Tryptophan has :
(A) Two codons (B) Three codons
(C) Four codons (D) One codon
42. At physiological pH, a typical amino acid will be :
(A) A cation (B) A zwitterion
(C) An anion (D) A divalent cation
43. According to Beer-Lamberts law, absorbance of a solute is not dependent upon :
(A) Concentration (B) Density of the medium
(C) Length of the light path (D) Extinction coefficient
44. Evolution is :
(A) Directed to a goal (B) An intelligent design
(C) A random ongoing process (D) Over now
45. Tetracycline inhibits :
(A) DNA synthesis in prokaryotes (B) Protein synthesis in prokaryotes
(C) RNA synthesis in prokaryotes (D) Cell membrane synthesis in prokaryotes
46. Amphipathic molecules contain :
(A) A polar group (B) A nonpolar group
(C) A polar and a nonpolar group (D) An alkyl group
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL/48982-A 7 [Turn over
47. EF-Tu is involved in :
(A) Replication (B) Translation
(C) Transcription (D) Splicing
48. DEAE-cellulose is a :
(A) A cation exchange matrix (B) An anion exchange matrix
(C) Gel for electrophoresis (D) Component of cell wall
49. Biological membranes are associated with all of the following except :
(A) Free movement of proteins and nucleic acids across the membrane
(B) Sites for biochemical reactions
(C) Release of protons when damaged
(D) Prevention of free diffusion of ionic solutes
50. SDS-PAGE separates proteins on the basis of :
(A) Charge (B) Mass
(C) Charge and Mass (D) Density
51. Micro RNAs (miRNAs) are :
(A) Microscopic RNA molecules
(B) Short single stranded RNAs ~23 nucleotides long with regulatory activities
(C) Double stranded RNAs ~23 nucleotides long with regulatory activities
(D) Large RNA molecules
52. Glycine sidechain has :
(A) An aryl group (B) A phenyl group 10%
(C) A hydrogen atom (D) A hydroxyl group
53. Which one among following is not a true amino acid ?
(A) Glycine (B) Histidine
(C) Glutamic acid (D) Proline
54. DNA molecules can be separated according to mass by :
(A) Isoelectric focussing (B) Ion exchange chromatography
(C) SDS-PAGE (D) Agarose gel electrophoresis
55. Peptide bond displays :
(A) Tautomerism (B) Resonance
(C) Convergence (D) Divergence

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL/48982-A 8


56. Ice has :
(A) Hexagonal cage like structure (B) Tetrahedral cage like structure
(C) Closed cage like structure (D) Fluid structure
57. 1 Calorie is :
(A) 4184 joules (B) 4.184 joules
(C) 4000 joules (D) 1484 joules
58. Absolute zero is
(A) 0 oC (B) 0oK
(C) 0oF (D) 0oT
59. A transversion mutation is :
(A) Substitution of a purine/pyrimidine with purine/pyrimidine
(B) Substitution of a purine with pyrimidine or vice versa
(C) Insertion of one or two bases into the DNA chain
(D) Always is a missense mutation
60. Catalysts reduce :
(A) G (B) S
(C) H (D) T
61. Acid-base catalysis in biological systems occurs :
(A) By carbon transfer (B) By proton transfer
(C) By nitrogen transfer (D) By sulphur transfer
62. The pathway from a gene to a protein in prokaryotic cells involves :
(A) First, transport of mRNA, then its processing, then transcription, then translation
(B) Transcription of the RNA, coupled with translation
(C) First, processing of the RNA, then its transport, then transcription, then translation
(D) First, transcription of RNA, then its processing, then its transport, then translation
63. Ribosome is not made up of :
(A) Subunits (B) RNA
(C) Proteins (D) Glycoprotein
64. Tamiflu is a :
(A) Anti malarial drug (B) Anti bacterial drug
(C) Anti viral drug (D) Anti filarial drug

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL/48982-A 9 [Turn over


65. Acetylcholine is a :
(A) Poison (B) Vitamin
(C) Neurotransmitter (D) Trace element
66. Acetaminophen is :
(A) A hormone (B) A peptide
(C) Analgesic and antipyretic (D) A neurotransmitter
67. Somatostatin is secreted by :
(A) cells of pancreatic islet (B) cells of pancreatic islet
(C) cells of pancreatic islet (D) Brain
68. In serine proteases, catalytic triad consists of :
(A) Serine, Glycine, Histidine (B) Serine, Histidine, Aspartate
(C) Serine, Proline, Histidine (D) Serine, Leucine, Aspartate
69. An enzyme :
(A) Stabilizes the transition state
(B) Binds very tightly to the substrate
(C) Binds very tightly to the product
(D) Prevent the reaction from proceeding in the reverse direction
70. Cell membranes are :
(A) Permeable (B) Impermeable
(C) Selectively permeable (D) Rigid
71. Calmodulin is a :
(A) Membrane protein (B) Protein that bind calcium
(C) Kinase (D) Second messenger
72. Intercellular signaling in which one cell can communicate with other over long distances
is called :
(A) Paracrine (B) Autocrine
(C) Juxtacrine (D) Endocrine
73. Protein synthesizing machinery in cell is known as :
(A) Dyneins (B) Myosins
(C) Ribosomes (D) Kinesins

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL-48982-A 10


74. Gout is caused by excess of :
(A) Citric acid (B) Uric acid
(C) Acetic acid (D) Hydrochloric acid
75. Rifampicin is :
(A) RNA polymerase inhibitor (B) DNA polymerase inhibitor
(C) Protein synthesis inhibitor (D) Cell wall synthesis inhibitor

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL-48982-A 11


ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)Human Genomics/BZL/48982-A 12 136


Panjab University, Chandigarh
CET(PG)-2013
ANSWERS / KEY
Subject: MSc(2Yr)(Hum.Genomics)
Booklet Series Code: A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A D C C A C C A D

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B A C A C D C C A

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C A B C B A D C B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A C B C B C A B C C

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D B B C B C B B A B

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B C D D B A B B B A

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B B D C C C C B A C

71 72 73 74 75
B D C B A

Note: An 'X' in the key indicates that either the question is ambiguous or it has
printing mistake. All candidates will be given credit for this question.

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