SPECIAL MCQS ON INDIAN HISTORY

15) Charak was the court physician of

ANCIENT HISTORY 1) Chandragupta 2) Kanishka
3) Harsha 4) Ashoka
1) Who founded MATHAS in the four corners of
16) The Buddhist Sangha was divided into two
India?
sects-the Hinayana and the Mahayana during
1) Madhavacharya 2) Shankaracharya
the reign of
3) Bhaskaracharya 4) Ramanujacharya
1) Harsha 2) Ashoka
2) Who was the founder of the Gupta Dynasty?
3) Dharampala 4) Kanishka
1) Chandragupta 2) Samudragupta
17) Megasthenes was at the court of
3) Kumaragupta 4) Maharaja Sri Gupta
1) Kanishka 2) Ashoka
3) The number of Vedas is
3) Chandragupta Maurya 4) Harsha
1) Eight 2) Four
18) The Indus Valley Civillisation reached its zenith
3) Ten 4) Two
in . BC:
4) Indus Valley Civilisation became known from
1) 3500 2) 2500
excavations at
3) 1700 4) 500
1) Mohanjodaro 2) Ropar
19) Which is the oldest known civilization in India?
3) Harappa 4) None of these
1) Vedic 2) Eipc
5) In which year did Alexander invade India?
3) Puranic 4) Indus Valley
1) 623 BC 2) 236 BC
20) Which of the following is the oldest dynasty?
3) 326 BC 4) 362 BC
1) Maurya 2) Chola
6) Who was the founder of Saka Era?
3) Chalukya 4) Nanda
1) Kanishka
21) Puranas date back to the age of
2) Chandragupta Maurya 3) Samudragupta
1) Guptas 2) Cholas
4) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
3) Mauryas 4) Mughals
7) During the early Vedic period, the society was
22) Eighfold Path (Ashtmarg) for elimination of
based on
human misery was prescribed by
1) Birth 2) Wealth
1) Mahavira 2) Buddha
3) Religion 4) Occupation
3) Jesus Christ 4) Krishna
8) Which line of rulers succeeded the Maurayas in
23) Which language did Buddha preach in?
Magadh?
1) Pali 2) Magadhi
1) Sungas 2) Kushan
3) Prakrit 4) Sauraseni
3) Vardhanas 4) Guptas
24) Original name of Lord Buddha was
9) Which of the following is the oldest
1) Vardhamana 2) Sidhartha
monument?
3) Kumara 4) Bhodrabahu
1) Qutub Minar 2) Ajanta Caves
25) The last Mauryan ruler Brihadratha, was killed
3) Taj Mahal 4) Khajuraho
by
10) Which of the following Veda deals with
1) Pushuamitra 2) Vishwamitra
medicine?
3) Sangamitra 4) Vishumitra
1) Atharva Veda 2) Yajur Veda
26) Who is regarded as the greatest law giver of
3) Sama Veda 4) Rig Veda
ancient India?
11) The god of war of the Rigvedic Aryans was
1) Megasthenes 2) Panini
1) Varuna 2) Indra
3) Manu 4) Kautilya
3) Mitra 4) Rudra
27) Buddha delivered his first sermon at which
12) Which, among the following, is the oldest
place
dynasty?
1) Sarnath 2) Lumbini
1) Maurya 2) Gupta
3) Bodh Gaya 4) Vaishali
3) Vardhana 4) Kushan
28) Ajanta caves were built during whose period?
13) Swetambara and Digambara are the sects of
1) Gupta 2) Kushan
which religion
3) Maurya 4) Chalukya
1) Hinduism 2) Buddhism
29) Fa-Hein visited India during the reign of
3) Jainism 4) Zorastrians
1) Chandragupta II 2) Ashoka
14) Monuments containing relics of Buddha are
3) Chandragupta Maurya 4) Harshvardhana
called
30) The rock-cut temples of Mahabalipuram were
1) Viharas 2) Chaityas
built by
3) Stupas 4) Sanghas
 1) Cholas 2) Pallavas 47) Gupta dynasty was famous for
3) Chalukyas 4) Rastrakutas 1) Art and Architecture 2) Imperialism
31) Lord Buddha was born in 3) Revenue and Law Reforms
1) Vaishali 2) Lumbini 4) Patronage of Literary Works
3) Kashi 4) Patliputra 48) Prophet Mohammad was born in
32) ________ did the maximum for the spread of 1) 570 AD 2) 622 AD
Buddhism in foreign lands: 3) 1215 AD 4) None of these
1) Ashoka 2) Kanishka 49) Chaityas and Viharas are associated with
3) Raj Raja Chola 4) Harshvardhana which of the following religions?
33) Vedic Culture was a gift of the 1) Jainism 2) Brahminish
1) Mauryas 2) Guptas 3) Buddhism
3) Indus Valley People 4) Aryans 4) Non- Brahmin Hinduism
34) Which is the oldest Veda? 50) Bauddhacharita was written by an eminent
1) Yajurveda 2) Samaveda philosopher, poet and dramatist of the court of
3) Atharaveda 4) Rigveda 1) Ashoka 2) Aswaghosha
35) Hampi was the capital of whose empire? 3) Pushyamitra 4) Samudargupta
1) Kushari 2) Pallava 51) Chanakya, also known by the name of Kautilya,
3) Vijaynagar 4) Chola was the Prime Minister during the reign of
36) Buddha denounced 1) Ajatasatru 2) Bimbisara
1) Jainism 2) Nature Worship 3) Chandragupta Maurya 4) Chandragupta 1
3) Humanism 4) Brahminism 52) The principal difference between Buddhism
37) Which of the following Vedas is rendered and Jainism hinges upon
musically? 1) value of rituals and superstitions
1) Samaveda 2) Yajurveda 2) impact of right action
3) Rigveda 4) Atharvaveda 3) means towards salvation
38) When was the Battle of Kalinga fought? 4) role of the Vedas as the religious texts
1) 540 AD 2) 273 BC 53) Who, among the following, was the first
3) 262 BC 4) 712 AD Tiranthkar of Jainism?
39) Name the four volume book written by 1) Sidharath 2) Rishabdev
Megasthenes, the Greek diplomat giving 3) Vardhman 4) Parsvnath
account of India? 54) The Aryans came from Central Asia to India
1) Indica 2) Ancient India about
3) Glimpses of Maurian Empire 1) 8000 B.C. 2) 6500 B.C.
4) Travelogues to India 3) 1500 B.C. 4) 2000B.C.
40) Chandragupta Maurya built the first great 55) Mahavira was born at
empire in India with the help of 1) Pataliputra 2) Sravasti
1) Seleucus 2) Mahapadmananda 3) Vaishali 4) Rajagriha
3) Bindusara 4) Kautilya 56) Lumbini, the birth place of Gautam Buddha, is
41) Whose philosophy is called the Advaita? in
1) Ramanujacharya 2) Shankaracharya 1) Bihar 2) Sikkim
3) Nagarjuna 4) Vasumitra 3) Nepal 4) Gujarat
42) The Jains believe that Mahavira was the last of 57) Harishena, who wrote the Allahabad Pillar
the inscription, was the court poet of
1) Teachers 2) Monks 1) Chandragupta I 2) Samudragupta
3) Prophets 4) Tirthankaras 3) Mahendradutya 4) Skandagupta
43) On the banks of which river did Alexander fight 58) The Saka are commenced in which of the
Porus? following centuries?
1) Sutlej 2) Ravi 1) 1st century B.C. 2) 1st century A.D.
nd
3) Jhelum 4) Chenab 3) 2 century B.C. 4) 2nd century A.D.
44) Sidhartha attained his enlightenment at 59) Which of the following rulers is generally
1) Benaras 2) Sarnath referred to as the Indian Napolean?
3) Kushinagar 4) Gaya 1) Ashoka 2) Harshvardhana
45) Allahabad Pillar inscription (originally erected 3) Sumduragupta 4) Kanishka
by Ashoka provides information about the 60) The ancient kingdom of Avanti had its capital
reign of at
1) Chandragupta Maurya 2) Chandragupta 1) Ujjain 2) Vaishali
3) Samudragupta 4) Chandragupta II 3) Patalipuna 4) Ayodhya
46) Iron Pillar at Mehrauli was built by the 61) Who, amongst the following, is credited by a
1) Guptas 2) Mauryas Chinese pilgrim with having built the ancient
3) Nandas 4) Khiljis
 city of Rajagriha, the modern Rajgir in Patna 76) The tools and weapons of Harappan civilisation
district? were mostly made of
1) Ajatasatru 2) Bimbisara 1) stone only 2) stone and copper
3) Udayi 4) Prasenajit 3) copper, bronze and iron
62) An overwhelming majority of the images at 4) copper, tin and bronze
Ajanta are those of 77) Traces of which of the following has not been
1) Jiva 2) Vishnu found in the Indus Civilisation?
3) Budha 4) Durga 1) Barley 2) Sesamum
63) Who was the Hindu king shown playing on the 3) Mustard 4) Sugarcane
Veena on ancient coins? 78) The Indus Valley Civilisation was discovered in
1) Shivaji 2) Samudragupta 1) 1902 2) 1912
3) Ashoka 4) Vikramaditya 3) 1922 4) 1932
64) Which of the following Buddist Councils was 79) Indications of pre- Harappan civilisation have
held during the reign of Kanishka? come from the archaeological excavations at
1) First 2) Second 1) Ropar 2) Kalibangan
3) Third 4) Fourth 3) Lothal 4) Kunal
65) The ultimate goal of which of the following 80) The Indus Valley Civilisation was spread over
religions is nirvana? 1) Indo- Gangetic divide and upper Gangetic plain
1) Buddhism 2) Hinduism 2) Punjab, Sind, Gujarat, Rajasthan and Baluchistan
3) Jainism 4) All of these 3) U.P., Haryana and neighbouring parts of Punjab
66) Nalanda University was a great centre of and Rajasthan
learning especially during 4) banks of river Indus, Punjab, Sind and Baluchistan
1) Buddhism 2) Jainism 81) Rice cultivation is associated with the
3) Vaishnavism 4) Tantraism Harappan site of
67) The Indus Valley Civilisaion pertains to 1) Harappa 2) Mohenjodaro
1) Old Stone Age 2) New Stone Age 3) Kalibangan 4) Lothal
3) Copper Age 4) Iron Age 82) Mohenjodaro is also known as
68) The Buddhist monk who converted Ashoka into 1) Mound of the Great
Buddhism after the Kalinga War was 2) Mound of the Survivors
1) Udayana 2) Upagupta 3) Mound of the Living 4) Mound of the Dead
3) Prasenjit 4) None of these 83) Which of the following elements of Hinduism
69) To which country Emperor Ashoka deputed his were practised in the Indus Valley Civilisation?
son Mahendra and daughter Sanghamitra to 1) Cult of Shiva 2) Idol worship
propagate Buddism? 3) Worshipping cows
1) China 2) Korea 4) Wearing sacred threads
3) Egypt 4) Ceylon (Sri Lanka) 84) Gandhara School of Art was established in
70) Who, among the following eminent literary 1) Eastern India 2) Southern India
figures, was patronized by Emperor 3) North-western India 4) Western India
Harshvardhana? 85) Which of the following archaeologists initially
1) Kalidas 2) Banabhatta discovered the Mohenjodaro site of Indus
3) Asvaghosha 4) Bhavabhuti Valley Civilisation?
71) The founder of Vikramsila University was 1) Daya Ram Sahni 2) Rakhal Das Banerjee
1) Devapala 2) Harshvardhana 3) Sir John Marshall 4) Sir Martimer Wheeler
3) Sasanks 4) Dharmapala 86) Which of the following is not related to
72) Strict moral code and virtuous life is the way Gandhara School of Art?
to salvation. This theory belongs to 1) Elephanta 2) Khajuraho
1) Buddhism 2) Jainism 3) Ellora 4) Ajanta
3) Hinduism 4) Islam 87) Who among the following popularised the
73) The great Bath of Indus Valley Civilisation theory of Arctic Region as the original home
belonged to of Aryans?
1) Kalibangan 2) Harappa 1) Macdonell 2) Max Muller
3) Mohenjodaro 4) Ropar 3) B.G.Tilak 4). Keith
74) Sarnaths Lion Capital is attributed to 88) Who among the following was a Brahmavadini
1) Kaniska 2) Harshvardhana who composed some hymns of the Vedas?
3) Ashoka 4) Chandragupta 1) Savitri 2) Gargi
75) What was Mahaviras name before 3) Leelavati 4) Lopamudra
enlightenment? 89) Which of the following rivers is not mentioned
1) Vardhamana 2) Anshumana frequently in Rig Vedic hymns?
3) Sudhakar 4) Somdutta 1) Ganges 2) Brahmaputra
3) Sindhu 4) Saraswati
90) Upanishads also known as the Vedantas are 1) Abandonment of killing
______ in number. 2) Right effort 3) Speak no falsehood
1) 96 2) 105 4) Giving up hankering for wealth
3) 108 4) 112 104) The Granary at Harappa was made of
91) The famous Vedic saying War begins in the 1) bricks only 2) bricks and timber
minds of men, is stated in 3) bricks and stones 4) None of these
1) Rig Veda 2) Atharva Veda 105) Which colour was commonly used in Harappan
3) Sama Veda 4) Mundaka Upnishad pottery?
92) Which of the following statements is not 1) Blue 2) Red
correct? 3) Blue-green 4) Buff
1) The Rig Vedic people worshipped nature. 106) Svetambaras and Digambaras were two sects
2) The Rig Vedic Aryans were by and large urban of
people. 1) Jainism 2) Buddhism
3) The Rig Vedic family comprised parents and other 3) Saivism 4) Vaishnavism
kith and kin apart from husband and wife. 107) The distinguishing feature of Upnishadic
4) The Rig Vedic women were highly; respected and thought is
that most of the religious ceremonies 1) faith in idol worship
wereconsidered incomplete unless wives joined their 2) belief in karma and rebirth
husbands 3) belief in practising Veda for attaining moksha
93) Codes of conduct of the Vedic Society are laid 4) All the above
down in 108) The great Indian philospher Sankara
1) Puranas 2) Vedas advocated
3) Brahmanas 4) Smritis 1) Advaita 2) Dvaita
94) Which of the following was not one of the 3) Vishistadvaita 4) None of these
distinguished tribes of the later Vedic period? 109) During the Neolithic age in India, the only
1) Videhas 2) Bharatas metal known to the people was
3) Panchalas 4) Kurus 1) iron 2) copper
95) In Rig Vedic period, the most important 3) gold 4) silver
functionary after the king was 110) Which of the following is the correct statement
1) Purohita 2) Senani regarding the Buddhas attitude on the subject
3) Law Officer 4) Tax Collector of entry of women into the Buddhist Sangha?
96) The tax which the kings used to collect from 1) He was indifferent on this subject
the people in the Vedic period was called 2) He gladly accepted women into the Sangha.
1) Kara 2) Varman 3) He did not allow women into the Sangha.
3) Bali 4) Vidatha 4) None of these
97) In the Vedic Society, the term used to denote a 111) At which of the following places was a large
group of families was Buddhist monastery established during the
1) gotra 2) jana reign of Harshavardhana?
3) vish 4) grama 1) Nalanda 2) Pataliputra
98) The Puranas are ........ in number. 3) Valabhi 4)Vaishali
1) 18 2) 25 112) Who was the mother of Mahavira?
3) 52 4) 108 1) Yasoda 2) Trishla
99) Which of the following Vedangas contains the 3) Anoja 4) None of the above
Srautra, the Grihya and the Dharma Sutras? 113) Of the following scholars, who was the first to
1) Nirukta 2) Shiksha discover the traces of the Harappan
3) Chhandas 4) Kalpa Civilisation?
100) Which one of the following is the earliest 1) Sir John Marshall 2) R.D.Banerjee
school of Indian philosophy? 3) A.Cunningam 4) Daya Ram Sahni
1) Vaisesika 2) Samkhya 114) Who was the author of Padmavat?
3) Yoga 4) Karma mimamsa 1) Abdur Rahim 2) Jayasi
101) Taxila was a famous site of 3) Kabir 4) Surdas
1) Mauryan Art 2) Gupta Art 115) Of which of the following kingdoms was
3) Gandhara Art 4) Early Vedic Art krishnadeva Raya one of the famous rulers?
102) The world is God and God is my soul is the 1) Bhamani 2) Chola
philosophy contained in the 3) Pallava 4) Vijaynagar
1) Vedas 2) Puranas 116) The famous bronze image of Natraja is a fine
3) Brahamanas 4) Upanishads example of
103) Which of the following was one of the 1) Chola art 2) Gandhara art
ingredients of Middle Path advocated by 3) Gupta art 4) Mauryan art
Buddha? 117) The first Buddhist Council was held at
 1) Patilputra 2) Rajagriha 1) Vardhman 2) Suddhodhana
3) Ujjain 4) Kashmir 3) Siddharth 4) None of the above
118) Which kings court was adorned by the 133) Who preached the doctrine of Ashtanga Marg
celebrated Kalidasa? or Eightfold Path?
1) Ashoka 1) Adi Shanaracharya 2) Guru Nanak
2) Chandragupta Vikramaditya 3) Mahavira 4) Buddha
3) Harshvardhana 4) Kanishka 134) Which of these was NOT a ruler of Gupta
119) Dhanwantri, a renowned physician of ancient dynasty?
India, adorned the court of 1) Samudragupta 2) Skandgupta
1) Kanishka 2) Samudragupta 3) Kumar Gupta
3) Ashoka 4) Chandragupta Maurya
4) Chandragupta Vikramaditya 135) In which language did Kalidas compose his
120) Alexander the Great died in 323 B.C in works?
1) Persia 2) Babylon 1) Brahmi 2) Pali
3) Macedonia 4) Taxila 3) Prakrit 4) Sanskrit
121) In which script were the edicts of Ashoka 136) The spititual leaders of which religion were
inscribed? known as Tirthankaras?
1) Brahmi 2) Pali 1) Sikhism 2) Buddhism
3) Prakrit 4) Sanskrit 3) Jainism 4) Hinduism
122) Pulakesin II was the most renowned king of 137) Thervada is a sect of which religion?
1) Cholas 2) Chalukyas 1) Jainism 2) Buddhism
3) Pallavas 4) Cheras 3) Hinduism 4) Shintoism
123) The Dilwara Temple was built by 138) Who introduce Buddhism to China?
1) Paramaras 2) Palas 1) Huan Tsang 2) Ashoka
3) Chalukyas 4) Chandellas 3) Ajatshatru 4) Fa-hein
124) The first sermon of Guatama Buddha was 139) Who of these belongs to the Mauryan
called Dynasty?
1) Turning of the Wheel of Law 1) Harshavardhana 2) Ashoka
2) Salvation through Meditation 3) Samudragupta 4) Harish Chandra
3) Ascerticism was not the Path to Salvation 140) The following names are of the same person in
4) God was not essential to the Universe the Indian history. Which one of the following
125) Kautilyas Arthasastra is a great treatise on is an exception?
1) Economic Policy 2) Ethics 1) Banabhatt 2) Chanakya
3) Morality 4) Statecraft 3) Vishnugupta 4) Kautilya
126) Arrange the following places associated with 141) After which war did Ashoka renounce war?
Buddhas life in the correct sequence: 1) Kalinga 2) Avanti
1) Kapilvastu, Bodh Gaya, Sarnath,, Kushinagar 3) Magadha 4) Malwa
2) Bodh Gaya, Kapilvastu, Sarnath, Kushinagar 142) After Alexanders death which Indian king
3) Sarnath, Kushinagar, Kapilvastu, Bodh Gaya defeated his general Seleucus Nicator?
4) Kushinagar, Sarnath, Kapilvastu, Bodh Gaya 1) Ambhi 2) Porus
127) Who built the stupa at Sanchi? 3) Harshvardhana
1) Kanishka 2) Harshavardhana 4) Chandragupta Maurya
3) Ashoka 4) Samudragupta 143) Which ancient Indian monarchs adviser was
128) Who, among the following, was sent by Ashoka Chanakya?
to Ceylon to preach Buddhism? 1) Kaniska 2) Ashoka
1) Pushmitra 2) Kautilya 3) Harshvardhan
3) Mahendra 4) Banabhatta 4) Chandragupta Maurya
129) Who, among the following, is credited with the 144) Where did Lord Mahavira, the 24th Jain
invention of Algebra? Tirthankar, attain Nirvana?
1) Bhaskra 2) Apastamba 1) Vaishalli 2) Pavapuri
3) Aryabhatta 4) Medhatithi 3) Kundalgram 4) Kapilvastu
130) Whose court did the Chinese pilgrim Huan 145) To which ruling dynasty did Gautam Buddha
Tsang visit? belong?
1) Ashoka 2) Harshvardhana 1) Yadava 2) Sakya
3) Chandragupta 4) Vikramaditya 3) Kuru 4) Brihadratha
131) Mahavira and Buddha were 146) Which of these Mauryan kings embraced
1) Sudras 2) Brahmins Jainism?
3) Kashatriyas 4) Vaishyas 1) Ashoka 2) Bindusara
132) What was the name of the father of Gautam 3) Chandragupta Maurya 4) Ajatshatru
Buddha? 147) Which of the following events occurred first?
 1) Death of Gautam Buddha 11. Tamerlane or sometimes called Timur was
2) Execution of Socrates from
3) Death of Plato 1) India 2) Mongolia
4) Death of Alexander 3) Greece 4) Persia
148) Buddha means 12. The dargah of famous sufi saint Hazrat
1) The Enlightened one Nizamuddin Auilya is at
2) The Religious Preacher 1) Ajmer 2) Agra
3) The Genius 4) The Powerful 3) Delhi 4) Sikri
149) Bull in Buddhism is associated with which 13. The Peacock Throne was made during the
event of Buddhas life? reign of
1) Birth 2) Great departure 1) Jahangir 2) Shahjahan
3) Enlightenment 4) Mahaparinirvan 3) Akbar 4) None of the above
150) The Rig-Veda is a book on 14. The two battles of Tarain were fought
1) sacrificial prayers between
2) praise of gods and goddesses 1) Muhammad Gauri and Jai Chand
3) mysticism and philosophy 2) Prithvi Raj Chauhan and Muhammad Gauri
4) political, social and religious life of the people of 3) Muhammad Gauri and Anadapala
the Vedic age 4) Prithvi Raj Chauhan and Jai Chand
15. The famous Persian poet Amir Khusrau wrote
auto-biography called Shah Name mun of
MEDIEVAL HISTORY which of the following emperors?
1. In which year was the first Battle of Panipat 1) Ala-ud-din Khilji 2) Muhammad Tughlak
fought? 3) Iltutmish 4) Qutab-ud-in Aibek
1) 1526 AD 2) 1561 AD 16. Who were the first Europeans to trade with
3) 1539 AD 4) 1540 AD India?
2. Name the capital of Maharaja Ranjit Singh: 1) The English 2) The Dutch
1) Amritsar 2) Lahore 3) The Portuguese 4) The French
3) Patiala 4) Gujranwala 17. The treaty of Seringapatam was signed
3. Talwandi (now in Pakistan) is a holy place between
associated with 1) Tipu Sultan and Clive
1) Guru Gobind Singh 2) Guru Arjun Dev 2) Tipu Sultan and Lord Dalhousie
3) Guru Nanak Dev 4) Guru Ram Das 3) Tipu Sultan and Cornwallis
4. Which of the following places is NOT 4) Tipu Sultan and Wellesley
connected with Guru Nanaks life and work? 18. The first Muslim ruler (Sultan) who tried to
1) Anandpur Sahib 2) Kartarpur conquer Deccan was
3) Talwandi 4) Sultanpur Lodhi 1) Ala-ud-din-khilji 2) Muhammad Tughlak
5. The Khalsa Panth was founded by 3) Qutub-ud-din Aibek 4) Iltutmish
1) Guru Nanak 2) Guru Arjun Dev 19. Sufi sect originated from
3) Guru Gobind Singh 4) Guru Hargobind 1) Hinduism 2) Buddhism
6. Who laid the foundation of Sri Harmandir 3) Sikhism 4) Islam
Sahib at Amritsar? 20. Though endowed with extraordinary intellect
1) Guru Arjun Dev 2) Mian Mir and industry, he lacked practical judgment and
3) Guru Ram Das 4) Bhai Gurdas commonsense. The Sultanate king referred to
7. Who founded Din-I-Illahi? in this quotation is
1) Babur 2) Akbar 1) Balban 2) Ala-ud-din-khilji
3) Hamayun 4) Aurangzeb 3) Muhammad-bin-Tughlak
8. Name the invader who destroyed the Somnath 4) Ibrahim Lodhi
Temple: 21. The Zabtisystem was conceived by
1) Timur 2) Mahmood Ghaznavi 1) Ghiasuddin Tughlak 2) Sikandar Lodhi
3) Mohammad Ghori 4) Nadir Shah 3) Sher Shah Suri 4) Akbar
9. What event is commemorated by the Hijari 22. Which Sufi saints dargah is at Ajmer?
calendar in Islam? 1) Salim Chishti 2) Baba Farid
1) Birth of the prophet 3) Muinduddin Chishti 4) Hazrat Nizamuddin
2) Demise of the prophet 23. Which of the following rulers died while
3) Migration of the prophet playing Changan or Polo?
4) Revelation of the book to the prophet 1) Balban 2) Qutub-ud-din
10. The court historian of Akbars reign was 3) Shershah 4) Jalal-ud-din
1) Todarmal 2) Abul Fazal 24. Sher Shahs real name was
3) Man Singh 4) Birbal 1) Farid 2) Bahadur
3) Faizi 4) Hemu
25. Who completed the Qutub Minar? 42. Who was the first Granthi of Sri Harmandir
1) Quta-ud-din Aibak 2) Ala-ud-din Khilji Sahib?
3) Mohammad Tughlak 4) Iltmish 1) Baba Buddhaji 2) Bhai Tara Singh
26. Who was the first Mughal ruler in India? 3) Baba Kharak Singh 4) Bhai Man Singh
1) Akbar 2) Babar 43. The famous financial adviser to Akbar was
3) Humanyun 4) Jahangir 1) Todar Mal 2) Abul Fazal
27. Fatehpur Sikri was built by 3) Bairam Khan 4) None of these
1) Shahjahan 2) Akbar 44. The Moti Masjid was built during the reign of
3) Babar 4) Aurangzeb Shahjahan at
28. Who is called the Price of Builders? 1) Delhi 2) Agra
1) Shahjahan 2) Akbar 3) Lahore 4) Shahjahanabad
3) Jhangir 4) Babar 45. Who compiled the holy Guru Granth Sahib?
29. Who built the Red Fort at Delhi? 1) Guru Gobind Singh 2) Bhai Gurdas
1) Shahjahan 2) Akbar 3) Guru Arjun Dev 4) Guru Hargobind
3) Humayun 4) Jahangir 46. The only Muslim woman to sit on the throne of
30. Who was the last ruler of the Mughal Empire? Delhi was
1) Bahadur Shah II 2) Aurangzeb 1) Chand Bibi 2) Nur Jahan
3) Jahandar Shah 4) Alamgir II 3) Razia Sultana 4) Mumtaz Mahal
31. When did the Second Battle of Tarain take 47. Shahjahan had to remain in captivity for
place? years:
1) 1192 2) 1190 1) Eight 2) Twenty
3) 1025 4) 1398 3) Sixteen 4) Fourteen
32. Who, amongst the following, after marriage 48. Name the Sikh Guru who proclaimed the
was known as Nur Jahan, wife of emperor doctrine of Miri and Piri.
Jhangir? 1) Guru Hargobind 2) Guru Gobind Singh
1) Arjumand Banu Begam 2) Asmat Begam 3) Guru Teg Bahadur 4) Guru Har Rai
3) Ladli Begam 4) Mehr-un-Nisa 49. Akbar was succeeded by his son
33. The founder of Sikh religion was 1) Jahangir 2) Humayun
1) Guru Gobind Singh 2) Guru Nanak Dev 3) Shahjhan 4) Aurangzeb
3) Banda Bahadur 4) Guru Hargobind 50. The city of Agra was founded by
34. Which guru started the institution of Langar? 1) Rana Sanga 2) Ibrahim Lodhi
1) Guru Arjun Dev 2) Guru Angad Dev 3) Firoz Tuglak 4) Sikandar Lodhi
3) Guru Gobind Singh 4) Guru Nanak Dev 51. The Battle of Plassey took place in the year
35. The name of the dearest wife of Shahjahan 1) 1757 2) 1772
was 3) 1864 4) 1870
1) Rausenara 2) Jahanara 52. The great poet Firdausi adorned the court of
3) Arjumand Banu Begam 4) Ladli Begam 1) Iltutmish 2) Alaud-din-khilji
36. The Slave dynasty in India was founded by 3) Qutub-ud-din
1) Ghyas-ud-din 2) Qutub-ud-din 4) Sultan Mahmood Ghaznavi
3) Iltomish 4) Mohammad Gauri 53. Prithviraj, the Chauhan King, was finally
37. Sultan Razia was the .. of Iltutmish: defeated by Mohammad Gauri at
1) Wife 2) Daughter 1) Thaneswar 2) Tirauri
3) Sister 4) Niece 3) Chausa 4) Panipat
38. What was the court language of Mughals? 54. Who built the Jama Masjid at Delhi?
1) Persian 2) Arabic 1) Sher Shah Suri 2) Jahangir
3) Urdu 4) Turkish 3) Babar 4) Shahjahan
39. The First Battle of Panipat (1526) was fought 55. When was the Second Battle of Panipat
between Babar and fought?
1) Sikander Lodhi 2) Rana Sanga 1) 1556 AD 2) 1761 AD
3) Ibrahim Lodhi 4) Daulat Khan Lodhi 3) 1857 AD 4) 1757AD
40. In the field of religion Akbars greatest 56. Tamerlane invaded India during the reign of
contribution was in his 1) Firoz Tughlak 2) Mahmud Tughlak
1) founding of a new religion 3) Muhammad-bin Tuglak 4) Daulat Khan
2) expansion of his fathers religion 57. When did Sher Shah Suri overthrow Humayun?
3) the building of temples and mosques 1) 1540 2) 1539
4) none of the above 3) 1526 4) 1556
41. Who constructed the Baoli at Goindwal? 58. From Delhi Muhammad-bin-Tughlak
1) Guru Arjun Dev 2) Guru Amar Das transferred his Capital to
3) Guru Angad Dev 4) Bahi Gurdas 1) Warrangal 2) Daultabad
3) Fatehpur Sikri 4) Ahmednagar
59. Who founded the city of Amritsar? 73. Who, amongst the following saints of Bhakti
1) Guru Ramdas 2) Mian Mir Cult, hailed from Bengal?
3) Guru Arjun Dev 4) Shahjahan 1) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu 2) Kabir
60. When was the holy Guru Granth Sahib 3) Ramanand 4) Ramanujacharyulu
compiled? 74. The Slave Dynasty Sultans were
1) 1604 2) 1606 1) Afghans 2) Arabs
3) 1696 4) 1675 3) Ilbari Turks 4) Persians
61. Who built Humayuns mausoleum at Delhi? 75. Buland Darwaza was built by Akbar to
1) Haji Begum 2) Akbar commemorate his victory over
3) Sher Shah Suri 4) Jahangir 1) Gujarat 2) Bengal
62. Who was the most distinguished Hindi poet of 3) Orissa 4) None of these
Akbars court? 76. Who was the founder of the first Sufi order in
1) Birbal India?
2) Abdur Rahim Khan-I-Khana 1) Khwaja Qutub-ud-din Bakhtiar Kaki
3) Raja Bhagwan Das 4) Raja Man Singh 2) Sheikh Nizam-ud-din Auliya
63. Who united all Sikhs to form a Sikh Kingdom in 3) Khwaja Muinud-din Chisti
Punjab? 4) Sheikh Nasir-ud-din Mahamud
1) Banda Bahaur 2) Guru Gobind Singh 77. The correct chronological order of the four
3) Nawab Jassa Singh dynasties is
4) Maharaja Ranjit Singh 1) Lodhi, Tughlak, Slave and Khilji
64. Which was the capital of Shivajis kingdom? 2) Tughlak, Slave, Khilji and Lodhi
1) Raigad 2) Pune 3) Slave, Khilji, Tughlak and Lodhi
3) Surat 4) Purandhar 4) Khilji, Slave, Lodhi and Tughlak
65. The G.T. Road was built during the reign of 78. The name of Jahangir as a prince was
1) East India Company 2) British Government 1) Shahjahan 2) Salim
3) Sher Shah Suri 4) Hasan Khan Sur 3) Dara 4) Mirza
66. Lachman Das, Lachman Dev and Madho Das 79. The Mughal Emperor in India who gave Surat
are the name variants of which person? to the British East India Company was
1) Ranjit Singh 2) Maha Singh 1) Babar 2) Akbar
3) Banda Singh Bahadur 4) Nawab Kapur Singh 3) Jahangir 4) Aurangzeb
67. The Mughal dynastry in India was founded in 80. Ranthambhor was
1) 1556 2) 1536 1) A Mughal palace 2) A Rajpur fort
3) 1526 4) 1546 3) Capital of the Khiljis
68. The Battle of Plassey was won by the English 4) A Buddhist pilgrimage centre
due to the 81. Tansen, the greatest musician of Akbars court,
1) Valour of Robert Clive belonged to
2) Treachery of Mir Jaffar 1) Gwalior 2) Kannauj
3) Superiority of the English troops 3) Delhi 4) Agra
4) Withdrawal of the French support 82. During whose reign was Moti Masjid built at
69. Who was the first Muslim ruler of Delhi? Agra?
1) Iltutmish 2) Qutab-ud-din Aibek 1) Iltutmish
3) Babar 4) Ala-ud-din Khilji 2) Akbar
70. Who, among the following dynasties, had their 3) Aram Shah 4) Shaha Jahan
capital at Madurai? 83. Sir Thomas Roe was sent by the British to
1) Cholas 2) Pallavas India during the reign of
3) Pandyas 4) Rashrakutas 1) Akbar 2) Humayun
71. Who amongst the following Mughals, is 3) Jahangir 4) Aurangzeb
regarded more as an adventurer than a real 84. Which of the following is the correct
ruler? chronological order of the Slave dynasty
1) Jahangir 2) Akbar rulers?
3) Babar 4) Aurangzeb 1) Iltutmish, Qutub-ud-din Aibak, Raziya Sultan,
72. Which of the following statements with regard Balban
to the Chola rule is correct? 2) Qutub-ud-din Aibak, Iltutmish, Balban, Raziya
1) Basic unit of the Chola administration was the Sultan
village 3) Qutub-ud-din Aibak, Iltutmish, Raziya sultan,
2) The Chola Kingdom began to decline in the 9th Balban
century 4) Iltutmish, Balban, Qutub-ud-din Aibak, Razia
3) Amoghvarsha is the best remembered of the Chola Sultan
kings 85. Who, among the following, destroyed the
4) None of these group of Forty Nobles?
 1) Baharam Shah 2) Iltutmish 99. Which Muslim emperor was attracted by the
3) Sultan Razia 4) Balban beauty of Queen Padmini?
86. The famous Brihadeswara Temple in Tanjore 1) Babar 2) Hmayun
was built by 3) Akbar 4) Ala-ud-din Khilji
1) Pallavas 2) Cholas 100. The Mughal painting reached its zenith during
3) Pandyas 4) Chalukyas the reign of
87. Humayun-nama was written by 1) Akbar 2) Jahangir
1) Humayun 2) Akbar 3) Shahjahan 4) Aurangzeb
3) Abul Fazi 4) Gulbadan begam 101. Which Mughal Emperor was also known as
88. Who, among the following, is famous for Alamgir?
introducing price control? 1) Babar 2) Shahjahan
1) Ala-ud-din Khilji 2) Balban 3) Aurangzeb 4) Jahangir
3) Jalal-ud-din Khilji 102. Where did Guru Gobind Singh baptize the first
4) Mumammad-bin Tughlak five members of the Khalsa Panth?
89. Who, amongst the following, was the first 1) Larkana 2) Anandpur
Sultan of Tughlak dynasty? 3) Patna 4) Nanded
1) Firoz Shah Tughlak 103. Which Mughal Emperors father- in-law Itmad-
2) Muhammad-bin Tughlak ud-daulah?
3) Ghiyas-u-dinTughlak 1) Aurangzeb 2) Shahjahan
4) Nasir-ud-din Muhammad Shah 3) Bahadur Shah 4) Jahangir
90. When Timur invaded India, the ruling dynasty 104. Which Mughal emperor re-imposed the jazia
was that of the tax on the non-Muslims in the year 1679?
1) Lodhis 2) Mughals 1) Akbar 2) Shah Jahan
3) Tughlaks 4) Syeds 3) Shah Alam I 4) Aurangzeb
91. Malik Kafur was a general of 105. Which Mughal Emperors first ten years rule
1) Sikander Lodhi 2) Qutub-ud-din Aibak does the Padshahnama chronicle?
3) Ala-ud-din Khilji 4) Humayun 1) Akbar 2) Jahangir
92. Who built the tomb of itimad-ud-daula at 3) Aurangzeb 4) Shahjahan
Agra? 106. Which Mughal emperor handed over the
1) Akbar 2) Jahangir Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the East
3) Nur Jahan 4) Sher Shah India Company?
93. The most accomplished writer (Persian) of 1) Jahandar Shah 2) Mohammad Shah
Akbars reign, a man of letters, a poet, an 3) Bahadur Shah Zafar 4) Shah Alam
essayist, a critic and a historian was 107. Which Rajpur hero became the king of Mewar
1) Abul Fazi 2) Badauni in 1572?
3) Faizi 4) None of these 1) Veer Hemu 2) Rana Sangha
94. During the reign of which of the following did 3) Maharana Pratap 4) Bappa Rawal
Tulsidas, the author of Rmacharitmanas 108. Who crowned himself king of Maratha kingdom
flourish? in 1674?
1) Akbar 2) Hamayun 1) Shahu 2) Balaji Baji Rao
3) Shahjahan 4) Sher Shah Suri 3) Nana Saheb 4) Shivaji
95. The Sikh Guru who fought Mughals was 109. Which of these Rajput princesses did Akbar
1) Guru Nanak Dev 2) Guru Gobind Singh marry?
3) Guru Arjun Dev 4) Guru Teg Bahadur 1) Lakshmi Bai 2) Jodha Bai
96. Which name, the Zahiruddin Muhammad took 3) Jadan Bai 4) Tara Bai
when he became the ruler was: 110. Which son succeeded Aurangzeb as the
1) Humayun 2) Jahangir Emperor of India under the title of Bahadur
3) Babar 4) Bahadurshah Shah?
97. Akbars religious policy was characterized by 1) Mohammad Muazzam 2) Kam Baksh
1) tolerance towards all religions 3) Qutub-ud-din 4) Jahandar Shah
2) an indifference to religions 111. Which of these queens died of battle wounds
3) a hostile attitude towards other religious while fighting in male attire in the Battle of
communities Kotah-ki-sarai?
4) belief in secularism 1) Rani of Jhansi 2) Mumtaz Mahal
98. Ibn Batuta visited India during the reign of 3) Jodha Bhai 4) Chand Bibi
1) Ala-ud-din Khilji 112. In the Mughal court which of these was the
2) Ghayas-ud-din Tughlak hall for public audience?
3) Sher Shah Suri 1) Diwan-e-Aam 2) Diwan-e-khas
4) Muhammad-bin Tughlak 3) Hauz-khas 4) Hauz-Aam
113. Which Mughal Emperors brother were 16 4 17 3 18 2 19 4 20 4
Kamran, Handal and Askari? 21 1 22 2 23 1 24 2 25 1
1) Akbar 2) Shahjahan 26 3 27 1 28 1 29 1 30 2
3) Humayun 4) Aurangzeb 31 2 32 1 33 4 34 4 35 3
114. Whom did Guru Gobind Singh nominated as his 36 4 37 1 38 3 39 1 40 4
military deputy in September, 1708? 41 2 42 4 43 3 44 4 45 3
1) Hari Singh Nalwa 2) Zorawar Singh 46 1 47 1 48 1 49 3 50 2
3) Banda Bahadur 4) Ranjit Singh 51 3 52 3 53 2 54 3 55 3
115. Ibadat Khana, where Akbar held discussions 56 3 57 3 58 2 59 3 60 1
on religious matters, is a building at 61 2 62 3 63 2 64 4 65 1
66 1 67 3 68 2 69 4 70 2
1) Agra 2) Sikandra
71 4 72 3 73 3 74 3 75 1
3) Fatehpur Sikri 4) Delhi
76 4 77 4 78 3 79 3 80 2
116. Which city in Madhya Pradesh is known for the
81 4 82 4 83 1 84 3 85 2
legendary love story of Baz Bahadur and Rani
86 4 87 3 88 2 89 2 90 3
Roopmati?
91 3 92 2 93 4 94 2 95 1
1) Khajuraho 2) Amravati 96 3 97 2 98 1 99 4 100 1
3) Mandu 4) Morbi 101 3 102 4 103 2 104 1 105 2
117. Who is considered to be responsible for the 106 1 107 2 108 3 109 3 110 2
decline of the Mughal Empire? 111 1 112 2 113 4 114 2 115 4
1) Ibrahim Lodhi 2) Mohammad Tughlak 116 1 117 2 118 2 119 4 120 2
3) Bahadur Shah Zafar 4) Aurangzeb 121 2 122 2 123 3 124 1 125 4
118. Amir Khusrau was a musician and_____. 126 1 127 3 128 3 129 3 130 2
1) Sufi saint 131 3 132 2 133 4 134 4 135 4
2) Persian and Hindi writer, and scholar 136 3 137 2 138 1 139 2 140 1
3) historian 4) All of the above 141 1 142 4 143 4 144 2 145 1
119. Which of the following is correctly matched? 146 3 147 1 148 1 149 4 150 2
1) Golden Temple - Patiala
2) Iron Pillar - Agra
3) Qutab Minar - Mathura
4) Humayuns Tomb - Delhi ANSWER KEY (MEDIEVAL HISTORY)
120. The Sufi saint who maintained that devotional
music was one way of moving closer to the Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.
God was 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 1 5 3
1) Moin-ud-din-Chisti 2) Baba Farid 6 2 7 2 8 2 9 3 10 2
3) Saiyid Muhammed 4) Shah Alam Bukhari 11 2 12 3 13 2 14 2 15 1
121. The guerilla warfare was pioneered by 16 3 17 4 18 1 19 4 20 3
1) Aurangzeb 2) Akbar 21 4 22 3 23 2 24 1 25 4
3) Shivaji 4) Balaji Rao
26 2 27 2 28 1 29 1 30 1
122. Chauth was a tax collected by
1) Marathas 2) Mughals 3) Khiljis 4) Tughlaqs 31 1 32 4 33 2 34 2 35 3
123. Who among the following Delhi Sultans made 36 2 37 2 38 1 39 1 40 1
Agra the capital of his Empire? 41 2 42 1 43 1 44 2 45 3
1) Iltutmish 2) Balban 46 3 47 1 48 1 49 1 50 4
3) Feroz Shah Tughlaq 4) Sikander Lodhi 51 1 52 4 53 1 54 4 55 1
124. The Italian traveler, who left very 56 2 57 1 58 2 59 1 60 1
praiseworthy account of the Vijaynagar
61 2 62 2 63 4 64 1 65 3
Empire, was
1) E. Barbosa 2) Manucci 66 3 67 3 68 2 69 2 70 3
3) Marco Polo 4) Nicolo Conti 71 3 72 1 73 1 74 3 75 1
125. Who said, Ram and Rahim are the two 76 1 77 2 78 2 79 3 80 2
different names of the same God? 81 1 82 4 83 3 84 3 85 4
1) Kabir 2) Ramdas 86 2 87 4 88 1 89 3 90 3
3) Chatianaya 4) Ramanuja 91 3 92 3 93 1 94 1 95 2
96 3 97 1 98 4 99 4 100 2
ANSWER KEY (ANCIENT HISTORY) 101 3 102 2 103 4 104 4 105 4
106 4 107 3 108 4 109 2 110 1
Q. A. Q. A. Q. A Q. A. Q. A. 111 1 112 1 113 3 114 3 115 3
1 2 2 1 3 2 4 3 5 3
116 3 117 4 118 4 119 4 120 1
6 1 7 4 8 1 9 2 10 1
121 3 122 1 123 4 124 4 125 1
11 4 12 1 13 3 14 3 15 2
 BIOLOGY PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY MCQs
1) Which gland is not associated with human 12) Grana refers to
alimentary canal? a) glycolysis of glucose b) by-product of photosynthesis
a) salivary glands b) adrenal gland c) stacks of thylakoids d) stacks of quantasomes
c) liver d) pancreas
13) A specific function of light energy in the process
2) In humans, bile juice is secreted by of photosynthesis is to
a) pancreas b) small intestine a) activate chlorophyll b) split water
c) esophagus d) liver c) synthesis glucose d) reduce CO2

3) An enzyme which can only act in acidic medium is 14) ATP formation during photosynthesis is known
a) pepsin b) trypsin as
c) rennin d) amylase a) phosphorylation b) photophosphorylation
c) oxidative phosphorylation
4) The part of digestive system where no digestion d) substrate level phosphorylation
occurs
a) duodenum b) esophagus 15) Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so
c) stomach d) mouth because
a) it does not require light energy
5) Which of the following animals has no need for a b) cannot occur during daytime
gall bladder? c) occurs more rapidly at night
a) horse b) lion d) it can also occur in darkness
c) dog d) human
16) Which of the following is connected with
6) About how much saliva does a person produce transport of water in plants?
each day? a) phloem b) xylem
a) 100 ml b) 250 ml c) epidermis d) cambium
c) 500 ml d) 1500 ml
17) The ultimate cause for movement of water
7) Saliva has the enzyme against gravity in a tree is
a) pepsin b) ptyalin a) osmosis b) imbibitions
c) trypsin d) rennin c) transpiration d) photosynthesis

8) Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to the 18) Which of the following is not an example of a
action of selectively permeable membrane?
a) pepsin b) rennin a) plasma lemma b) cell Wall
c) HCL d) rennin c) mitochondrial membrane
d) chloroplast membrane
9) Pepsinogen is secreted by
a) gastric glands b) intestinal glands 19) Which of the following is responsible for
c) chief cells d) parietal cells guttation?
a) root pressure b) transpiration
10) Pancreas has c) photosynthesis d) osmosis
a) only endocrine cells
b) only one type of cell, the same functioning both in an 20) Phenyl mercuric acetate
exocrine and endocrine fashion a) reduces transpiration rate
c) two types of cells-exocrine and endocrine b) reduces photosynthesis
d) only exocrine cells c) kills the plant d) reduce respiration

11) Largest gland in human body is 21) Which of the following has no blood but
a) liver b) pancreas respires?
c) pituitary d) thyroid a) earthworm b) hydra
c) cockroach d) fish 35) Mountain sickness results due to
a) anaemic hypoxia b) arterial hypoxia
22) Which type of respiratory organs are present in c) lack of sufficient RBCs d) lack of sufficient WBCs
spiders and scorpions?
a) book lungs b) gill books 36) Which one of the following is the most common
c) gills d) lungs type of transpiration?
a) stomatal b) lenticular
23) At high altitude, RBCs of human blood will c) foliar d) cuticular
a) increase in number b) decrease in number
c) decrease in size d) increase in size 37) The process of the escape of liquid from the tip
of uninjured leaf or through hydathodes is called
24) Vocal cords occur in a) transpiration b) guttation
a) pharynx b) glottis c) evapo-transpiration d) evaporation
c) bronchial tube d) larynx
38) In a closed circulatory system, blood is
25) Which one of the following structures closes the completely enclosed within
respiratory passage during ingestion of food? a) the skeleton b) sinuses
a) larynx b) epiglottis c) vessels d) hearts
c) hard palate d) soft palate
39) The smallest blood vessel in the body is a
26) The covering of lungs is called a) capillary b) artery
a) pericardium b) pleural membrane c) vena cava d) vein
c) perichondrium d) peritoneum
40) Both erythrocytes and leucocytes are formed in
27) The narrowest and most numerous tubes of the
lungs are termed as a) bone marrow b) thymus
a) bronchus b) alveoli c) arterial walls d) lymph nodes
c) bronchioles d) hilum
41) An erythrocyte lives for approximately
28) The exchange of gases in a mammal takes place a) one week b) one month
is c) four months d) one year
a) trachea b) bronchioles
c) bronchi d) alveoli 42) The abnormal increase in the total RBC count is
referred to as
29) Volume of air inspired and expired with each a) pneumonia b) polycythemia
normal breath is called c) leucopenia d) anaemia
a) tidal volume b) inspiratory capacity
c) total lung capacity d) residual volume 43) The life span of human WBC is normally
a) 1213 days b) 80-90 days
30) Tidal volume of air in a normal healthy man c) 100-120 days d) 20-30 days
during inspiration is about
a) 300 400 ml b) 500 700 ml 44) The function of vitamin K is in
c) 900 1000 ml d) 100 250 ml a) regulation of calcium and phosphorus metabolism
b) blood clotting c) respiration
31) The maximum possible volume of air, which can d) carbohydrate metabolism
be inspiration, is called as
a) tidal air volume b) vital lung capacity 45) Oxygenated blood is carried by
c) complemental air volume a) pulmonary vein b) pulmonary artery
d) total lung capacity c) hepatic portal vein d) renal vein

32) Percentage of O2 present in inhaled air in man is 46) In mammals, oxygenated blood enters the heart
about at the
a) 21% b) 78% a) right atrium b) left atrium
c) 1% d) 43% c) right ventricle d) left ventricle

33) Oxygen is transported in blood mainly by 47) Which chamber of the heart has the thickest
a) leucocytes b) erythrocytes muscular walls
c) thromobocytes d) blood plasma a) right atrium b) left atrium
c) right ventricle d) left ventricle
34) Asthma is a respiration disease caused due to
a) infection of trachea b) infection of lungs 48) When the right ventricle of heart contracts, the
c) bleeding into pleura cavity blood goes to
d) spasm in bronchial muscles a) all parts of the body b) Pulmonary arteries
c) aorta d) lungs c) left kidney at a higher level than the right one
d) right kidney at a higher level than the left one
49) The tricuspid valve occurs between the
a) right auricle and right ventricle 61) Function of glomerulus in mammalian kidney is
b) pulmonary aorta a) reasbsorption of salts
c) carotico-systemic aorta and left ventricle b) urine formation through blood filtration
d) left ventricle c) urine collection d) all of the above

50) Typical lub-dub sound heard in heartbeat are 62) The reabsorption of glucose in a nephron occurs
due to in
a) closing of bicuspid and tricuspid valves a) loop of Henle
b) closing of semilunar valves b) first half of proximal tubule
c) closure of bicuspid-tricuspid valves followed by semilunar c) distal convoluted tubule
valves d) proximal part of collecting ducts
d) blood under pressure through aorta
63) Strongest cartilage is
51) What is blood pressure? a) hyaline cartilage b) fibrous cartilage
a) the pressure of blood on the heart muscle c) elastic cartilage d) none of the above
b) the pressure of blood exerted on the walls of arteries and
veins 64) Striated muscles are found in
c) the pressure of blood on the walls of veins only a) gallbladder b) wall of bladder
d) the pressure of blood on the walls of arteries only c) leg muscles d) lungs

52) Which one of following is called pace maker of 65) Strongest muscle in the body is present in
the heart? a) arm b) jaw
a) SA node b) AV node c) thigh d) neck
c) Chordae tendianae d) AV septum
66) Axial skeleton in man is made up of
53) Blood groups in man were discovered by a) 126 bones b) 100 bones
a) Mendel b) Francis Nelson c) 103 bones d) 80 bones
c) S. Miller d) Landsteiner
67) Skull of man is made up of
54) Rh factor was discovered by a) 10 bones b) 22 bones
a) William Harvey b) Landsteiner c) 30 bones d) 24 bones
c) Robert Hook d) C. De Duve
68) Longest bone is that of
55) Rh factor is named after a) humerus b) stapes
a) Drosophila b) a Monkey c) femur d) radio-ulna
c) a Rat d) a Man
69) In man ribs are attached to
56) Excretion means a) calvicle b) ileum
a) removal of substances present in excess c) sternum d) scapula
b) formation of those substances that have some role in the
body 70) The smallest bone in mammals is
c) removal of such substances that have never been part of a) septomaxillary b) dentary
the body c) femur d) stapes
d) all of the above
71) The longest cell in the body of an animal is
57) A mammal excretes nitrogen in the form of a) osteocytes b) neuron
a) ammonium ions b) amino acids c) chromatophores d) lymph corpuscles
c) urea d) uric acid
72) Which cell stops dividing after birth?
58) Kidneys are not only organs of excretion. Their a) glial cells b) epithelium
work is supplemented by c) liver d) neuron
a) liver b) heart
c) large intestine d) skin 73) The largest number of cells bodies of neurons in
our body is found in
59) The basic unit of a vertebrate kidney is the a) brain b) spinal cord
a) ureter b) nephron c) tongue d) retina
c) malpighian tubule d) islets of Langerhans
74) Which part of human brain is more developed in
60) The two kidneys lie comparison of others?
a) at the level of ovaries b) at the same level a) cerebrum b) cerebellum
c) optic lobes d) medulla oblongata 87) Jaundice is a disease of
a) kidney b) pancreas
75) Which part of mammalian brain controls the c) liver d) duodenum
muscular co-ordination?
a) cerebrum b) cerebellum 88) Male mosquito does not carry malarial parasite
c) corpus callosum d) medulla oblongata because:
a) it is too small to bite man.
76) There are how many pairs of spinal nerves in a b) it lacks the modified mouth parts
human c) malarial parasites cannot reproduce in them.
a) 8 b) 12 d) female mosquito is more deadly
c) 25 d) 31
89) Continuous fever, headache, slow pulse, pain in
77) There are how many pairs of cranial nerves in a the stomach, rose colored ashes are the major
human? symptoms of
a) 8 b) 12 a) plague b) typhoid
c) 25 d) 31 c) mumps d) measles

78) Pituitary gland is found in 90) Bark of which plant yields famous drug of
a) around trachea b) gonad malaria?
c) pancreas d) brains a) cinchona b) quercus
c) betula d) eucalyptus
79) Which of the hormones is responsible for the
emotional state such as fear and anger and causes 91) Deficiency of vitamin C causes
rise of blood pressure and rate of heartbeat? a) rickets b) beriberi
a) insulin b) adrenaline c) scurvy d) night blindness
c) progesterone d) thyroxine
92) If there were no ultraviolet rays reaching the
80) The main function of plasma membrane is to earth, human should suffer from deficiency of
a) maintain cell shape and size a) fatty acids b) essential amino acids
b) control of all cellular activity c) vitamin D d) vitamin E
c) regulate the flow of materials into and out of the cell
d) store cell material 93) Smog is a combination of
a) fire and water b) smoke and fog
81) Function of a Centriole is c) water and smoke d) air and water
a) formation of spindle fibers
b) formation of nucleolus 94) Sound becomes a hazardous noise pollution if its
c) initiation of cell division level is a above
d) formation of cell plate a) 30 Db b) 120 dB
c) 80 dB d) 150 Db
82) Functional activities of a cell are controlled by
a) nucleus b) nucleolus 95) Maximum threat to the world is from (among the
c) mitochondria d) cytoplasm following)
a) global warming b) ozone hole
83) Study of Algae is called c) water pollution d) soil erosion
a) phycology b) mycology
c) dendrology d) mycology 96) Which of the following is the symbol of the metal
that occurs in liquid form at ordinary temperature?
84) Which of the following is a non-poisonous a) Na b) Sn
snake? c) Pb d) Hg
a) cobra b) python
c) viper d) krait 97) Which of the following is least compressible?
a) gas b) liquid
85) Which of the following diseases is caused by a c) solid d) none of these
virus?
a) typhoid b) cholera 98) Which of the following is not a chemical change?
c) influenza d) diphtheria a) rusting of iron b) converting water into steam
c) making curd from milk d) heating coal
86) DTP vaccine is given to infants to immunize them
against 99) Atomicity of Phosphorous is
a) diphtheria, pneumonia and typhoid a) 1 b) 2
b) diphtheria, whooping cough and tetanus c) 4 d) 6
c) diarrhea, pneumonia and tuberculosis
d) diphtheria, whooping cough and typhoid
100) The number of atoms present in a molecule of 113) Which of the following acid is used in fire
an element is known as its extinguishers?
a) valency b) atomicity a) hydrochloric acid b) sulphuric acid
c) chemical Formula d) symbol c) nitric acid d) oxalic acid

101) Random Movement of particles was discovered 114) Which of the following acid is used by
by goldsmiths for cleaning gold and silver ornaments?
a) Robert Brown b) E. Goldstein a) HCL b) H2SO4
c) James Chadwick d) Wilhein Weins c) HNO3 d) H3PO4

102) Scattering of light by colloidal particles is 115) Which order of relative size amongst the
known as following is incorrect?
a) Tyndall effect b) Brownian motion a) Li < Na < K b) C < Si < Al
c) reflection d) rectilinear propagation c) Mg > Al < Na d) F < Cl < Br

103) Which of the following non-metals occur in 116) Which one of the following has the smallest
liquid form at room temperature? size?
a) bromine b) carbon a) Al b) Al+
c) sulphur d) chlorine c) Al+2 d) Al+3

104) Brass is an example of a ______ 117) Which of the following is an example of fossil
a) homogenous compound fuel?
b) homogenous mixture a) coal gas b) coke
c) heterogeneous mixture c) natural gas d) producer gas
d) heterogeneous compound
118) When steam is passed over hot coke, it
105) Which of the following is not a noble gas? produces
a) helium b) neon a) producer gas b) synthesis gas
c) argon d) hydrogen c) tear gas d) coal gas

106) Which of the following acids is present in sour 119) Producer gas is a mixture of
milk? a) carbon monoxide and nitrogen gas
a) glycolic acid b) lactic acid b) carbon monoxide and hydrogen gas
c) citrus acid d) tartaric acid c) carbon monoxide and water vapour
d) carbon monoxide and nitrous oxide
107) Which of the following acids is called the king
of the acids? 120) Water gas consists of
a) acetic acid b) phosphoric acid a) water vapour and coal dust
c) oxalic acid d) sulphuric acid b) a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
c) a mixture of carbon monoxide and the nitrogen
108) The sharp pain caused by the sting of an ant is d) water vapour and methane.
due to
a) malic acid b) nitric acid 121) The gas used in the welding and cutting of
c) formic acid d) lactic acid metals is
a) ethane b) ethene
109) Vitamin C is an organic acid known as c) ethyne d) propene
a) ascorbic acid b) citrus acid
c) glycolic acid d) acetic acid 122) Coal with largest C content is
a) anthracite b) peat
110) Soaps are sodium salts of c) lignite d) bituminous
a) mineral acids b) fatty acids
c) bases d) carbonic acid 123) An allotropic form of carbon used for cutting
and drilling is
111) Sodium bicarbonate is also known as a) charcoal b) bone charcoal
a) washing soda b) baking soda c) graphite d) diamond
c) glaubers salt d) lime soda
124) Cinnabar is an ore of
112) Which of the following is not a property of a) Pb b) Zn
acids? c) Hg d) Cu
a) all acids have a sour taste
b) acids turn blue litmus red 125) Which of them is not an ore of silver?
c) acids turn red litmus blue a) Ag2S b) AgNO3
d) all acids form H+ ions in water c) AgCl d) None of these
126) Which of the following alloys contains Tin? c) rust d) reduction
a) brass b) solder
c) duralumin d) steel 140) The tip of the lead pencil is made of
a) lead b) graphite
127) An amalgam of metal has which other element? c) zinc d) charcoal
a) C b) Ag
c) Mg d) Hg 141) The most abundant element in the suns
atmosphere is
128) Gold is alloyed with which metal to make it a) xenon b) argon
harder? c) hydrogen d) oxygen
a) Cu b) Hg
c) Ag d) C 142) Ordinary glass is a mixture of
a) sodium silicate, Calcium silicate
129) The most abundant element in the universe is b) sodium silicate, Calcium silicate and Silica
a) helium b) oxygen c) sodium silicate and Silica
c) silicon d) hydrogen d) none of the above

130) The most abundant metal on the earth is 143) Glass used for making wind screens of
a) iron b) gold automobiles is
c) aluminium d) copper a) hard glass b) photo chromatic glass
c) safety glass d) optical glass
131) Aluminium is extracted from
a) hematite b) bauxite 144) Annealing is done to
c) calamine d) magnetite a) increase brittleness b) increase Transparency
c) decrease brittleness d) increase refractive index
132) Metallurgy is the process of
a) extracting metals from the Ore 145) Steel is preferred over iron in construction of
b) roasting the Ore c) liquefaction of nitrogen ships because
d) adding carbon to the Ore in blast furnace a) melting point of steel is higher than Iron
b) steel is more uniform than Iron
133) A metal, which melts on the palm c) steel does not rust
a) potassium b) sodium d) tensile strength of steel is not high
c) gallium d) zinc
146) The carbon content in steel is
134) The process of protecting iron by coating with a) 0.1 5.0% b) 2.0 2.5%
Zinc. c) 0.1 1.5% d) less than 0.1
a) smelting b) galvanising
c) rusting d) corrosion 147) Permanent magnets can be made from
a) Ni steel b) cobalt steel
135) A lustrous non-metal is c) stainless steel d) wrought iron
a) diamond b) iodine
c) sulphur d) phosphorus 148) The main constituents of cement are:
a) calcium oxide, silicon dioxide, Aluminium oxide
136) Sodium is a b) calcium oxide, Iron oxide, Sulphur dioxide
a) silvery white and very soft metal c) magnesium oxide, Silicon dioxide, Aluminium oxide
b) colourless and hard metal d) none of these
c) silvery white and very hard metal
d) colourless and very soft metal 149) A thick paste of cement, sand and water is
called
137) Which of the following is used for making a) concrete b) mortar
magnets? c) slurry d) moderator
a) duralumin b) magnalium
c) bronze d) alnico 150) The process of making soap by the hydrolysis of
fats and oils with alkalis is called
138) What should be added to pure iron to make a) hydrolysis b) saponification
stainless steel? c) esterification d) none of these
a) nickel and cobalt b) cadmium and chromium
c) nickel and cadmium d) chromium and nickel 151) The soap can be hardened by
a) adding sodium carbonate or sodium silicate during its
139) The red or Orange coating that forms on the manufacture
surface of iron when exposed to air and moisture for b) adding sodium chloride
some time is called c) adding potassium hydroxide
a) galvanization b) electroplating d) adding animal fat and coconut oil
152) Bleaching powder is 167) The unit for the rate of change of velocity will
a) CaO2Cl b) CaOCl2 be
c) CaClO2 d) CaCl2+O2 a) m/s b) m/s2
c) Ns d) N/s
153) Plaster of Paris is obtained by heating
a) gypsum b) limestone 168) The velocity of a body at rest is always
c) sodium carbonate d) calcium sulphate a) unity b) negative
c) zero d) infinite
154) The common name of sodium bicarbonate is
a) lime b) baking powder 169) Impulse is
c) baking soda d) washing soda a) a scalar quantity
b) a vector quantity
155) Slaked lime reacts with chlorine to give c) neither a scalar nor a vector
a) baking soda b) washing soda d) sometimes a scalar and sometimes a vector
c) bleaching powder d) cement
170) The weight of a body would not be zero
156) The main constituent of cement is a) at the centre of the earth
a) SiO2 b) CaO b) during a free fall
c) CaSO4 d) Al2O3 c) in interplanetary space
d) on a frictionless surface
157) The real bleaching agent present in bleaching
powder is 171) A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he
a) chlorine b) oxygen walks towards the shore the boat will
c) oxygen d) CaO a) move away from the shore
b) remain stationary
158) Cake does not taste bitter due to presence of c) move towards the shore
a) sodium carbonate b) tartaric acid d) sink
c) citric acid d) sugar
172) If action and reaction were to act on the same
159) What is obtained on adding lime to H2O? body,
a) lime b) limestone a) the resultant would be zero
c) slaked lime d) quicklime b) the body would not move at all
c) both (a) and (b) are correct
160) Which of the following is different from others? d) neither (a) nor (b) is correct
a) speed b) density
c) force d) time 173) The combined effect of mass and velocity is
taken into account by a physical quantity called
161) The amount of substance in the SI system of a) torque b) moment of force
units is represented by c) momentum d) moment of momentum
a) candela b) mole
c) weight d) kilogram 174) Momentum is a measure of
a) weight b) mass
162) The SI unit of temperature is c) quantity of motion d) velocity
a) Kelvin b) second
c) mole d) candela 175) A rocket works on the
a) first law of motion b) second law of motion
163) The National Physical Laboratory is situated at c) third law of motion d) law of conservation of energy
a) Kolkata b) New Delhi
c) Bombay d) None of these 176) When a bicycle travels on a rough surface, its
speed
164) The SI unit of electric current is a) increases b) decreases
a) ampere b) candela c) remains the same d) none of these
c) mole d) none of these
177) It is difficult to walk on ice because of
165) How many fundamental units are present in the a) absence of friction b) absence of inertia
SI system of units? c) more inertia d) more friction
a) 5 b) 6
c) 7 d) 3 178) The law which defines force is
a) Newtons third law of motion
166) Which of the following physical quantities is b) Newtons first law of motion
different from others? c) Newtons second law of motion
a) speed b) distance d) Newtons law of gravitation
c) energy d) average velocity
179) Friction between any two objects is due to 193) In summer, the clocks
a) attraction between them a) become slow b) become fast
b) repulsion between them c) gives correct time d) lose time
c) some adhesive forces between them
d) irregularities on the surfaces 194) Therm is the unit of
a) heat b) temperature
180) Pascal is the unit for c) thermometry d) work
a) pressure b) thrust
c) buoyant force d) None of these 195) Heat flows as a result of difference of
a) temperatures b) weights
181) The mercury barometer was invented by c) masses d) none of these
a) Celsius b) Fahrenheit
c) Torricelli d) Bernoulli 196) The first thermometer was developed by
a) Joule b) Fahrenheit
182) The buoyant force depends on c) Galileo d) Watt
a) depth of a liquid b) colour of a liquid
c) density of liquid d) none of these 197) Soda bottles are made of thick glass so that
they can withstand the
183) The hot air balloon rises because it is a) pressure in summer
a) denser b) less dense b) temperature in summer
c) equally dense d) the given statement is wrong c) decrease in viscosity
d) increase in potential energy
184) A boat full of iron nails is floating on water in a
lake. When the iron nails are removed, the water 198) Evaporation is the process of changing liquid
level into vapour
a) rises b) falls a) at any temperature
c) remains the same d) nothing can be said b) above its boiling point
c) at its boiling point
185) An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. What d) below its boiling point
happens to the water level when the ice melts?
a) rises b) falls 199) The period of pendulum depends upon
c) remains same d) first rises and then falls a) mass b) length
c) amplitude d) energy
186) The branch of physics which deals with the
study of fluids in motion is called 200) Potential energy of the bob is maximum
a) dynamics b) hydrostatics a) at the mean position
c) hydrodynamics d) none of these b) at the extreme position
c) between the mean position and extreme positions
187) Pressure is a d) none of these
a) scalar quantity b) vector quantity
c) normal force d) all the above are wrong 201) The force which tries to bring the body back to
its mean position is called
188) The upward force acting on the body immersed a) deforming force b) restoring force
in a fluid is called c) gravitational force d) buoyant force
a) hydrostatic pressure b) buoyant force
c) true weight d) net force 202) In which of the following media will sound
travel the fastest?
189) Work done upon a body is a) solid b) both solid and liquid
a) a vector quantity b) a scalar quantity c) liquid d) gas
c) always positive d) always negative
203) Sound waves in air are _____ waves.
190) the flowing water of a river possesses ______ a) longitudinal b) radio
energy. c) transverse d) electromagnetic
a) gravitational b) potential
c) electrical d) kinetic 204) Sound waves cannot pass through
a) a solid-liquid mixture b) an ideal gas
191) The unit of power is c) a liquid-gas mixture d) a perfect vacuum
a) watt per second b) joule
c) kilo joule d) watt 205) Out of the following, which frequency is not
clearly audible to the human ear?
192) A bird flying in the sky has a) 30 Hz b) 30,000 Hz
a) K.E. only b) P.E. only c) 300 Hz d) 3000 Hz
c) neither K.E. nor P.E. d) both K.E. and P.E.
206) The distance between two consecutive crests is 220) When the object is at focus of a concave mirror,
L, then the wavelength is given by the image is formed at
a) L/2 b) 2 L a) focus b) centre of curvature
c) 4 L d) L c) within focus d) infinity

207) The frequency of a wave is 5 Hz. It refers to 221) Which of the following is a non-luminous body?
(type of wave) a) fire b) sun
a) ultrasonics b) microwaves c) stars d) earth
c) infrasonics d) radio waves
222) A body which allows most of the light to pass
208) A pulse is a wave through it is called a
a) of high duration b) of short duration a) transparent body b) opaque body
c) which travels in vacuum only c) translucent body d) none of these
d) which travels in solids only
223) During the 19th century, light was considered to
209) Sound travels fastest in be a stream of particles called
a) water b) steel a) atoms b) electrons
c) air d) kerosene oil c) corpuscles d) quantas

210) Which of the following types of waves is 224) Who first proposed that light was wave-like in
different from others? character?
a) Light waves b) X-rays a) Huygens b) Newton
c) Radio waves d) Sound waves c) Young d) Maxwell

211) Waves produced by supersonic jet planes are 225) The screen behind the eye lens is called the
a) shock waves b) seismic waves a) iris b) ciliary muscle
c) infrasonics d) none of these c) retina d) pupil

212) Echo is produced due to 226) The middle vascular coat that darkens the eye
a) reflection of sound b) refraction of sound chamber and prevents refraction by absorbing the
c) resonance d) none of these light rays is
a) choroid b) sclera
213) SONAR is based on the principle of c) retina d) cornea
a) echo b) resonance
c) reverberation d) any one of the above 227) The amount of light entering the eye is
controlled by the
214) The audible range of frequency is a) sclera b) cornea
a) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz b) 40 Hz to 40,000 Hz c) iris d) crystalline lens
c) 60 Hz to 60,000 Hz d) 10 Hz to 20,000 Hz
228) The eye lens is a
215) Which of the following frequencies of sound a) transparent double-convex lens
cannot be heard by human beings? b) transparent double-concave lens
a) 5 Hz b) 20 Hz c) transparent concavo-convex lens
c) 400 Hz d) 1000 Hz d) none of these

216) The mirror used in automobiles to see the rear 229) The eye lens contains a watery liquid called the
field of view is a) aqueous humour b) peroxide
a) concave b) convex c) vitreous humour d) none of these
c) plane d) none of these
230) Long-sightedness is caused by the eyeball
217) The mirror used in search lights is being too short. It can be corrected by the use of a
a) concave b) convex a) convergent lens b) plane mirror
c) plane d) none of these c) divergent lens d) none of these

218) Shaving mirrors are 231) A lens which is thicker in the middles and
a) convex mirrors b) concave mirrors thinner at the edges is called a _____ lens.
c) plane mirrors d) none of these a) convex b) concave
c) cylindrical d) none of these
219) The laws of reflection are true for
a) the plane mirror only b) the concave mirror only 232) A lens which is thinner at the middles and
c) the convex mirror only d) all reflecting surfaces thicker at the edges is called a _____ lens.
a) convex b) concave
c) cylindrical d) none of these
233) Which of the following lens is used to minimise 246) Trypanosoma is
hypermetropia? a) bacteria b) fungus
a) convex lens b) concave lens c) algae d) protozoa
c) cylindrical lens d) none of these
247) Seeds are called the products of sexual
234) Most of the refraction of light takes place in the reproduction due to
a) iris b) cornea a) it gives rise to new plants
c) pupil d) retina b) formation by fusion of pollen tubes
c) it can survive for longer periods
235) When the light is very bright, d) are formed by fusion of gametes
a) the iris makes the pupil expand
b) the iris makes the pupil contract 248) The most essential organ for fertilization is
c) the iris and the pupil remain as they are a) juicy fruit b) green sepals
d) none of these c) coloured petals d) mature ovule

236) Who discovered by his experiments with glass 249) BCG vaccine is used to protect a child from
prisms that white light consists of seven colours? a) polio b) plague
a) Newton b) Faraday c) dengue d) tuberculosis
c) Maxwell d) Young
250) Bulliform cells are present in
237) Autosomes in humans are paired in a) lower epidermis of monocot leaves
a) 21 pairs b) 24 pairs b) upper epidermis of monocot leaves
c) 22 pairs d) 16 pairs c) dicot stem
d) upper epidermis of dicot leaves
238) The light which refracts most while passing
through a prism is 251) Sebaceous glands are found in
a) red b) violet a) dermis of skin of mammals
c) indigo d) yellow b) epithelium of intestine of frog
c) epithelium of stomach of frog
239) The planet having the largest number of d) epidermis of skin mammals
satellites amongst the following is
a) Jupiter b) Saturn 252) One of the most resistant known biological
c) Uranus d) Mars material is
a) lignin b) hemicelluloses
240) In the absence of his tone proteins in c) sporopollenin d) lignocelluloses
prokaryotes, the an ioinic charges of each inter
nucleotide phosphate in DNA is neutralized by 253) Parthenogenesis is a type of
a) phospholipids b) polyamines a) sexual reproduction b) asexual reproduction
c) polysaccharides d) glycelipids c) budding d) regeneration

241) Phagocytosis and pinocytosis are collectively 254) Which one of the following is not correct about
termed as cathode rays?
a) endocytosis b) suspension feeding a) They are deflected to the positive plate of
c) omnivores d) mucous trap electromagnetic field
b) The nature of cathode rays does not depend upon the
242) Which one of the following is called pacemaker nature of gas taken in the discharge tube
of the heart? c) The nature of cathode rays depends upon the nature of
a) SA node b) AV node gas taken in the discharge tube
c) Chordae tendinae d) AV septum d) Cathode rays are made up of material particles

243) The life span of human WBCs is normally 255) Cathode rays are produced when high electric
a) 12-13 days b) 80-90 days voltage is applied to the gas held in a discharge tube
c) 100-120 days d) 20-30 days at a pressure of about
a) 10-3 atm b) 10-5 atm
244) Oxygenated bold is carried by c) 1 atm d) 100 atm
a) pulmonary vein b) pulmonary artery
c) hepatic portal vein d) renal vein 256) The electronic configuration of chlorine with
atomic number 17 is
245) The reserve food in fungal cell is a) 2, 8, 7 b) 2, 9, 6
a) glucose b) fructose c) 2, 10, 7 d) 2, 9, 9
c) glycogen d) starch
257) A divalent cation has 10 electrons and 12
neutrons. The atomic number and mass number of
the elements are
a) 12, 24 b) 10, 12 a) Sound travels in straight line
c) 11, 25 d) 8, 12 b) Sound travels in the form of waves
c) Sound is a form of energy
258) Isotopes differ in the number of d) Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air
a) electrons b) protons
c) neutrons d) nucleons 270) A body is thrown vertically upwards with a
velocity . Find the true statement from the
259) The only elements having no neutron is following.
a) protium b) deuterium a) Both velocity and acceleration are zero at its highest
c) tritium d) All of these point
b) Velocity is maximum and acceleration is zero at the
260) -particle are highest point.
a) double positive helium nucleus c) Velocity is maximum and acceleration is of downwards at
b) single positive helium nucleus its highest point
c) neutral helium atom d) Velocity is zero at the higher point and maximum height
d) None of these
u2
reached is
261) Neutron was discovered by 2g
a) J J Thomson b) James Chadwick
c) Goldstein d) Rutherford 271) The process of respiration is concerned with
a) liberation of oxygen b) liberation of carbon dioxide
262) Man made synthetic fibre is c) liberation of energy d) intake of oxygen
a) wool b) rayon
c) nylon d) cotton 272) Cyanobacteria are
a) bacteria b) virus
263) Which one of the following statements is not c) algae d) fungi
correct?
a) All metals are solid at room temperature 273) Which one of the following statements is
b) All metals are good conductor of heat and electricity wrong?
c) All metals from basic oxides a) Voltmeter should have high resistance
d) All metals possess luster when freshly prepared b) Ammeter should have low resistance
c) Ammeter is placed in parallel
264) Among metals, the poorest conductor of heat is d) Voltmeter is placed in parallel across the conductor in a
a) lead b) tin circuit
c) bismuth d) mercury
274) A. The resistance of super conductor is zero.
265) The correct order of electrical conductivity is B. The super conductor are used for the transmission
a) Al > Au > Cu > Ag b) Cu > Ag > Al > Au of electric power.
c) Au > Ag > Al > Cu d) Ag > Cu > Au > Al a) A and B are true b) A and B are false
c) A is true and B is false d) A is false and B is false
266) Beakers A, B and C contain zinc sulphate, silver
nitrate and iron (II) sulphate solutions, respectively. 275) The resistivity of a wire
copper pieces are added to each beaker. Blue colour a) increase with the length of the wire
will appear to in case of b) decreases with the area of cross-section
a) beaker A b) beaker B c) decreases with the length and increases with the cross-
c) beaker C d) All the beakers section of a wire
d) None of the above
267) A particle is projected up with an initial velocity
of 80 ft/s. The ball will attain height of 96 ft/s from 276) Ohms law is true
the ground after a) for gases at low temperature
a) 2.0 and 3.0 s b) Only at 3.0s b) for metallic conductor
c) Only at 2.0 s d) After 1 and 2 s c) for electrolytes when current passes through them
d) for diode when current flows
268) A stone is dropped into water from abridge 44.1
m above the water. Another stone is thrown 277) Which of the following is not an endocrine
vertically downward 1 s later. Both strike the water gland?
simultaneously. What was the initial speed of the a) Salivary gland b) Pituitary gland
second stone? c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal gland
a) 12.25 m/s a) 14.75 m/s
c) 16.23 m/s d) 17.15 m/s 278) Two rods of same material and length have
their electric resistance to ratio 1 : 2. When both
269) Which one of the following statements is rods are dipped in water, the correct statement will
wrong? be
1) A has more loss of weight b) increasing the temperature
2) B has more loss of weight c) increasing the pressure
3) Both have same loss of weight d) increasing the pressure and lowering the temperature
4) Loss of weight will be in the ratio 1 : 2
289) The term rancidity represents
279) The temperature of the Sun is measure with a) acid rain b) oxidation of fatty food
a) platinum thermometer b) gas thermometer c) rottening of fruit
c) pyrometer d) vapour pressure thermometer d) fading of coloured clothes in the sun

280) In case of uniform circular motion, which of the 290) Evaporation of liquid occur at
following physical quantity do not remain constant? a) boiling point
a) Speed b) Momentum b) fixed temperature lower than the boiling point
c) Kinetic energy d) Mass c) all temperature
d) None of the above
281) Inertia is that property of a body by virtue of
which the body is 291) The basic unit of a vertebrate kidney is the
a) unable to change by itself the state, the rest a) ureter b) nephron
b) unable to change by itself the state of uniform motion c) malpighian tubule d) islets of langerhans
c) unable to change by itself the direction of motion
d) unable to change by itself the state of rest and of 292) Largest part of the brain of human being is
uniform linear motion called
a) olfactory lobe b) cerebral hemisphere
282) A rider on horse back falls when horse starts c) corpus callosum d) optic nerve
running all of a sudden because
a) rider is taken back 293) Which part of human brain is more developed
b) rider is suddenly afraid of falling in comparison to others?
c) inertia of rest keeps the upper part of body at rest a) Cerebrum b) Cerebellum
whereas lower part of the body moves forward with the c) Optic lobes d) Medulla oblongata
horse
d) None of the above 294) Hearing is controlled by
a) tyemporal lobes b) cerebrum
283) A person is standing in a elevator. In which c) hypothalamus d) parietal lobe
situation, he finds his weight less than actual when
a) the elevator moves upward with constant acceleration 295) The two kidneys lie
b) the elevator moves downward with constant acceleration a) at the level of ovaries
c) the elevator moves upward with uniform velocity b) at the same level
d) the elevator moves downward with uniform velocity c) left kidney at a higher level than the right one
d) right kidney at a higher level than the left one
284) When the speed of a moving body is doubled
a) its acceleration is doubled 296) Example of analogy is
b) its momentum is doubled a) wings of bird and butterfly
c) its kinetic energy is doubled b) limbs of horse and man
d) its potential energy is doubled c) wings of bat
d) None of the above
285) Which of the following is not a chemical
reaction? 297) Removal of anthers from flowers is the process
a) Souring of milk b) Rusting of iron which is known as
c) Dissolution of sugar in water a) emasculation b) breeding
d) Digestion of food in our body c) manuring d) fallowing

286) The physical state of water at 100C is 298) Improved variety of paddy (rice) is
a) solid b) liquid a) Ranjit b) Sonalika
c) gas d) plasma c) Ganga 101 d) Pusa 215

287) Which of the following characteristics are 299) Which one of the following crop doesnt
associated with gaseous state? required more nitrogen fertilizers?
a) Definite shape, compressible, fixed volume a) Maize b) Paddy
b) Incompressible, fixed shape and size c) Clover (Berseem) d) Sugarcane
c) No fixed shape and size, highly compressible
d) Fixed shape, incompressible, closely packed 300) Which one is used for weeding?
a) Insecticides b) Weedicides
288) A gas can be liquefied by c) Herbicides d) Pesticides
a) lowering the temperature
 ANSWER KEY 181
186
C
C
182
187
C
A
183
188
B
B
184
189
B
B
185
190
C
D
191 D 192 D 193 A 194 A 195 A
Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. 196 C 197 A 198 D 199 B 200 B
1 B 2 D 3 A 4 B 5 A 201 B 202 A 203 A 204 D 205 B
6 D 7 B 8 B 9 C 10 C 206 D 207 C 208 B 209 B 210 D
11 A 12 C 13 A 14 B 15 A 211 A 212 A 213 A 214 A 215 A
16 B 17 C 18 B 19 A 20 A 216 B 217 A 218 B 219 D 220 D
21 A 22 A 23 A 24 D 25 B 221 D 222 A 223 C 224 A 225 C
26 B 27 C 28 D 29 A 30 B 226 A 227 C 228 A 229 A 230 A
31 B 32 A 33 B 34 D 35 B 231 A 232 B 233 A 234 B 235 B
36 A 37 B 38 C 39 A 40 A 236 A 237 C 238 B 239 B 240 B
41 C 42 B 43 A 44 C 45 A 241 A 242 A 243 A 244 A 245 C
46 B 47 D 48 D 49 A 50 C 246 D 247 D 248 D 249 D 250 A
51 B 52 A 53 D 54 B 55 B 251 A 252 C 253 B 254 C 255 A
56 A 57 C 58 A 59 B 60 C 256 A 257 A 258 C 259 A 260 A
61 B 62 B 63 B 64 C 65 C 261 B 262 C 263 A 264 A 265 D
66 D 67 B 68 C 69 C 70 D 266 B 267 A 268 A 269 D 270 D
71 B 72 D 73 A 74 A 75 B 271 D 272 C 273 C 274 C 275 D
76 D 77 B 78 D 79 B 80 C 276 B 277 A 278 C 279 C 280 B
81 A 82 A 83 A 84 B 85 C 281 D 282 C 283 B 284 B 285 C
86 B 87 C 88 B 89 D 90 A 286 C 287 C 288 D 289 B 290 C
91 C 92 C 93 B 94 C 95 B 291 B 292 B 293 A 294 C 295 C
96 D 97 C 98 B 99 C 100 B 296 A 297 A 298 B 299 C 300 B
101 A 102 A 103 A 104 B 105 D
106 B 107 D 108 C 109 A 110 B
111 B 112 C 113 B 114 C 115 C
116 D 117 C 118 B 119 A 120 B
121 C 122 A 123 D 124 C 125 D
126 B 127 D 128 A 129 B 130 C
131 B 132 A 133 B 134 B 135 B
136 A 137 D 138 D 139 C 140 B
141 C 142 A 143 C 144 C 145 C
146 C 147 D 148 A 149 B 150 B
151 A 152 B 153 A 154 B 155 C
156 A 157 A 158 B 159 C 160 D
161 B 162 A 163 B 164 A 165 C
166 D 167 B 168 C 169 B 170 D
171 A 172 C 173 C 174 C 175 C
176 B 177 A 178 B 179 D 180 A
200 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY
1) Which of the following exercised the most 2. To establish diarchy in the provinces
profound influence in framing the India 3. The extension of provincial government
Constitution? Which of these statements are correct?
1) British Constitution 2) US Constitution 1) 1 and 2 2) 1 and 3
3) Irish Constitution 3) 2 and 3 4) 1, 2 and 3
4) The Government of India Act, 1935 9) Consider the following with reference to the
2) The first attempt to introduce a representative provisions of Government of India Act, 1935:
and popular element in the governance of India 1. Establishment of an all-Indian Federation
was made through: 2. Provincial autonomy, with a Government responsible
1) Indian Council Acts, 1861 to an elected legislature
2) Indian Council Acts, 1892 3. Redistribution of provinces and the creation of two
3) Indian Council Acts, 1909 new provinces
4) Government of India Act, 1919 Which of these were embodied in the Government India
3) Which of the following acts introduced communal Act, 1935?
electorate in India? 1) 1, 2, and 3 2) 1 and 2
1) Indian Council Act, 1909 3) 2 and 3 4) 1 and 3
2) Indian Council Act, 1892 10) Consider the following statements with reference
3) Indian Council Act, 1892 to the provisions of Morley-Minto Reform Act in
4) Government of India Act, 1935 the Colonial India:
4) By virtue of which Act, diarchy was introduced in 1. The Morley- Minto Reform Act raised the number of
India? additional number of the Central Legislature
1) Indian Council Act, 1909 2. It introduced the principle of communal
2) Government of India Act, 1919 representation in the Legislature
3) Government of India Act, 1935 3. It empowered the Legislation to discuss the budget
4) Indian Independence Act, 1947 and to move resolutions on it
5) The Instrument of instructions contained in the Which of these statements are correct?
Government of India Act, 1935 ha been 1) 1 and 2 2) 2 and 3
incorporated in the Constitution of India in the 3) 1, 2 and 3 4) 1 and 3
year 1950 as 11) Two independent states of India and Pakistan
1) Fundamental Rights were created by:
2) Directive Principles of the State Policy 1) The Simla Conference 2) The Cripps proposal
3) Fundamental Duties 4) Emergency Provisions 3) The Cabinet Mission Plan
6) The Government of India Act, 1935 was based 4) The Indian Independence Act
on: 12) In the Federation under the Act of 1935
1) the principle of federation and parliamentary system residuary powers were given to the:
2) the principle of succession of the British Indian 1) Federal Legislature 2) Provincial Legislature
provinces 3) Governor General 4) Provincial Governor
3) acceptance of the idea of a Constituent Assembly to 13) Who was the Chairman of the Union Power
draft a constitution Committee of Constituent Assembly of India?
4) None of these 1) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
7) Consider the following Acts: 2) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
1. The Regulating Act, 1773 2. Pitts India Act, 1784 3) Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
3. The Charter Act, 1793 4. Indian Council Act, 4) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
1861 14) What was the basis for constituting the
What is the correct chronological sequence of these Constituent Assembly of India?
Acts? 1) The resolution of Indian National Congress
1) 1, 2, 3, 4 2) 2, 1, 3, 4 2) The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
3) 4, 3, 2, 1 4) 3, 4, 2, 1 3) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
8) Consider the following statements 4) The resolution of the Provincial / State legislature of
The objective of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of the Dominion of India
1919 was: 15) The Constitution of India was adopted by the
1. To give power to the local government Constituent Assembly of India on
 1) 26th January, 1950 2) 26th January, 1949 2) Sovereignty, territorial Integrity and parliamentary
3) 26th November, 1949 4) 15th August, 1947 system of Government
16) Who presided over the first meeting of the Indian 3) Judicial review and the federal system
Constituent Assembly? 4) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system,
1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2) Sachchidananda Sinha judicial review and parliamentary system of government
3) B.R. Ambedkar 4) Jawahar Lal Nehru 27) The Unitary system of Government possesses
17) Who among the following was the advisor to the which of the following advantages?
Drafting Committee of Constituent Assembly? 1) Greater adaptability 2) Strong State
1) B. Shiva Rao 2) B.R. Ambedkar 3) Greater participation by the people
3) Sachchidananda Sinha 4) B.N. Rau 4) Lesser chances of authoritarianism
18) The Constituent Assembly of India held its first 28) Which of the following countries enjoys a federal
meeting on: form of Government?
1) 9th December, 1946 2) 1st January, 1947 1) China 2) USA
th
3) 26 January, 1947 4) 15th August, 1947 3) Cuba 4) Belgium
19) Who among the following was not a member of 29) The English Crown is an example of:
the Constituent Assembly? 1) Real executive 2) Quasi-real executive
1) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 3) Nominal Executive 4) Nominated executive
2) Acharya J.B. Kripalani 30) The declaration that Democracy is a Government
3) Jai Prakash Narayan 4) K.M. Munshi of the people, by the people, for the peoples was
20) Who was the Chairman of the Provincial made by:
Constitution Committee of the Constituent 1) Abraham Lincoln 2) George Washington
Assembly? 3) Theodre Roosevelt 4) Winston Churchill
1) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 2) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru 31) What is Gandhis definition of Ram Raj?
3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 4) Sardar Patel 1) Sovereignty of the people based on pure moral
21) The number of members included in the authority
Constitution Drafting Committee was: 2) The rule as it was during the time of Rama
1) Seven 2) Nine 3) The greatest good of all
3) Eleven 4) Thirteen 4) The absolute power concentrated in the hands of a
22) Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting king
Committee of the Constitution? 32) Statement: I. The constitution of India is a liberal
1) Jawahar Lal Nehru 2) B.R. Ambedkar constitution.
3) B.N. Rau 4) Mahatma Gandhi Statement: II. It provides fundamental rights to
23) The Presidential Government operates on the individuals
principle of Codes: 1) Both the statements are individually true and
1) Division of powers between centre and states statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
2) Centralization of Powers 2) Both the statements are individually true but
3) Balance of Powers 4) Separation of powers statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement
24) Match List-1with List II and select the correct I.
answer from the codes given below the lists 3) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
List I List II 4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(Forms of Government) (Principles) 33) At which of its session, did the Congress officially
A. Presidential system 1. Seperation of powers accept the Socialistic Pattern of Society?
B. Parliamentary system 2.Close relationship 1) Bombay Session of 1953 2) Avadi Session of 1955
between executive and 3) Calcutta Session of 1957 4) Nagpur Session of
legislature 1959
C. Federal System 3. Concentration 34) In Indian Polity which one is Supreme?
D. Unitary System 4. Division of power 1) The Supreme court
Code: A B C D 2) The Constitution
1) 1 2 3 4 3) The Parliament 4) Religion
2) 2 1 3 4 35) The Indian Polity, the executive is subordinate to
3) 2 1 4 3 the
4) 1 2 4 3 1) Judiciary 2) Legislature
25) Which of the following countries have an 3) Election commission
unwritten constitution? 4) Union Public Service Commission
1) USA 2) UK 36) Who among the following gave the following
3) India 4) Pakistan statement about the Indian Constitution?
26) The basic features of the Indian Constitution Indian Constitution rigidity and too much flexibility?
which are not amendable under Article 368 are 1) B.R. Ambedkar 2) M.V. Pylee
1) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and 3) Alexanderowicz 4) K.C. Wheare
judicial review
37) Which of the following official documents is D. Amendments of the 4.Constitution of South
related with India? Africa Constitution
1) White Paper 2) Green Paper
3) Yellow Book 4) Blue Book Code : A B C D
38) Which one of the following is a basic feature of 1) 1 2 3 4
the Presidential Government? 2) 2 1 3 4
1) Rigid Constitution 2) Single Executive 3) 2 1 4 3
3) Supremacy of the Legislature 4) 1 2 4 3
4) Residual Powers of the states 49) Indian Constitution has taken certain features of
39) Where was, the concept of written constitution, the constitution of the constitutions of other
first born? countries. Which country has contributed to the
1) France 2) USA framing of the Directive Principles of State
3) Britain 4) Switzerland Policy?
40) Where was the first parliamentary form of 1) France 2) Ireland
Government formed? 3) Japan 4) USA
1) Britain 2) Belgium 50) Which of the following was the biggest source for
3) France 4) Switzerland the Constitution of India?
41) Who called Indian Federalism as the Co- 1) The Government of India act 1919
operative Federalism? 2) The Government of India act 1935
1) G. Austin 2) K.C. Wheare 3) The Indian independence act, 1947
3) Sir Ivor Jennings 4) D.D. Basu 4) None of these
42) The Constitution of India is 51) Of the following words in the Preamble of the
1) Rigid 2) Flexible Constitution of India which was not inserted
3) Very rigid through the Constitution (Forty Second)
4) Partly rigid, partly flexible Amendment act, 1976?
43) The concept of Judicial Review in our 1) Socialist 2) Secular
Constitution has been taken from the 3) Dignity 4) Integrity
Constitution of: 52) At the time of enactment of the Constitution,
1) England 2) USA which one of the following Ideals was not
3) Canada 4) Australia included in the preamble?
44) The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme 1) Liberty 2) Equality
of Indian federation from the constitution of: 3) Socialist 4) None of these
1) USA 2) Canada 53) Which Amendment act introduced changes in the
3) United Kingdom 4) Ireland Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
45) The Federal System with strong centre has been 1) the 38th Amendment act, 1975
borrowed by the Indian Constitution from: 2) the 40th Amendment act, 1976
1) USA 2) Canada 3) the 42nd Amendment act, 1976
3) UK 4) France 4) the 44th Amendment act, 1979
46) The idea of including the Emergency provisions in 54) The preamble of our Constitution reads India as
the Constitution of India has been borrowed from
the 1) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular Democratic Republic
1) Constitution of Canada 2) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular Republic
2) Weimar Constitution of Germany 3) Socialist, Sovereign, Democratic, Secular Republic
3) Constitution of Ireland 4) Democratic, Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Republic
4) Constitution of USA 55) Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution
47) The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is inserted the two words Socialist and Secular in
based on which one of the following? the preamble?
1) Parliamentary commissioner of UK 1) 28th 2) 40th
2) Ombudsman in Scandinavia 3) 42nd 4) 52nd
3) Procurator General of Russia 56) For which one of the following judgments of
4) Council of state in France Supreme Court of India, the Kesavananda Bharti
48) Match List-I (Provision of the Constitution of Vs State of India case is considered a landmark?
India) with List-II (Source) and select the correct 1) The religion cannot be mobilized for political ends
answer using the codes given below the lists 2) Abolishing untouchability from the country
List I List II 3) Right to life and liberty cannot be suspended under
A. Directive Principles 1. Constitution of Ireland any circumstance
B. Emergency Power of 2. Constitution of 4) The basic structure of the constitution, as defined in
Germany The president the Preamble, cannot be changed
C. The Union-State relations 3.Constitution of Canada
57) In which Amendment, the words Socialist, 3) Directive Principles of State policy
secular and unity and integrity of the nation were 4) Union Executive
added to the Preamble of constitution of India? 71) Power, authority and responsibilities of
1) 42nd 2) 44th municipalities are listed in which one of the
3) 52nd 4) None of these following schedules of the constitution of India?
58) Which one of the following describes India a 1) Ninth 2) Tenth
secular state? 3) Eleventh 4) Twelfth
1) Fundamental Rights 72) How many languages have recognized by the
2) Preamble to the constitution Constitution
3) 9th Schedule 4) Directive Principles 1) 15 2) 18
59) Which one of the following liberty is not 3) 22 4) 24
embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of 73) As we all know child labour is totally banned in
India? India (Article 24) as per the child means a
1) Liberty of thought 2) Liberty of expression person who has not completed
3) Liberty of Belief 4) Economic Liberty 1) 14 years of his/her age
60) Which of the following is correct? 2) 18 years of his/her age
1) Social Equality is not guaranteed in our constitution 3) 20 years of his /her age
2) Social equality already existed in our country 4) 21 years of his/her age
3) Social Equality is guaranteed in our Constitution 74) Under which one of the following articles of the
4) None of these Constitution of India, is the Annual Financial
61) Which one of the following words was not Statement of the economy to be laid by the
included in the Preamble of the Indian Government on the table of the Parliament
Constitution in 1975? before 31st March, every year?
1) Fraternity 2) Sovereign 1) Article 16 2) Article 31
3) Equality 4) Integrity 3) Article 112 4) Article 124
62) From the following languages listed in the 75) Which one of the following articles of the
English schedule of the constitution pick out of Constitution of India has provision for the
the one which is official language of a state President to proclaim emergency?
1) Kashmiri 2) Urdu 1) Article 352 2) Article 355
3) Sindhi 4) Nepali 3) Article 356 4) Article 360
63) The item Education belongs to the 76) The method of Constitutional Amendment is
1) Union list 2) State list provided in :
3) Concurrent list 4) Residuary subjects 1) Article 348 2) Article 358
64) How many schedules the Constitution of India 3) Article 368 4) Article 378
contains? 77) The articles of the Constitution of India which
1) 9 2) 10 deal with directive principles of state policy are
3) 11 4) 12 1) 26 to 11 2) 30 to 45
65) Which article of the Indian constitution for the 3) 36 to 51 4) 40 to 55
institution of Panchayati Raj? 78) Under which article of the constitution of India
1) Article 36 2) Article 39 can the President of India be impeached?
3) Article 40 4) Article 48 1) Article 61 2) Article 75
66) Article 1 of the constitution declares India as 3) Article 76 4) Article 356
1) Federal State 2) Quasi-Federal State 79) In which part of the Constitution, details of
3) Unitary state 4) Union of states citizenship are mentioned?
67) How many articles are there in the Indian 1) I 2) II
Constitution? 3) III 4) IV
1) 395 2) 396 80) The Constitution of India does not clearly provide
3) 398 4) 399 for the Freedom of Press but this freedom is
68) Although union list, state list and concurrent list implicit in the article
cover the entire legislative business yet there 1) 19 (i) a 2) 19 (i) b
may be an item not mentioned anywhere. Who 3) 19 (i) c 4) 19 (i) d
will legislate on that item? 81) Which article of the constitution of India deals
1) Parliamentary only 2) State legislature only with the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme
3) Both a and b 4) Neither a nor b Court in connection with constitutional cases?
69) Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with 1) Article 131 2) Article 132
Fundamental Rights? 3) Article 132 read with Article 134 A
1) Part I 2) Part II 4) Article 133 read with Article 134 A
3) Part III 4) Part IV 82) The Tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution deals
70) Part IV of constitution of India deals with: with
1) Fundamental Rights 2) Citizenship 1) Anti-defection Legislation
 2) Panchayati Raj 3) Land Reforms 93) Which commission made the recommendations
4) Distribution of powers between the Union and States which formed the basis for the Punjab
83) Which of the constitutional provision lays down Reorganization act which created the states
that taxes can neither be levied nor collected Punjab and Haryana?
without authority of law? 1) Dhar commission 2) Dass commission
1) Article 265 2) Article 266 3) Shah Commission 4) Mahajan Commission
3) Article 300 4) Article 368 94) Article I of the constitution of India declares
84) Functions to be assigned to Panchayats by 73rd India as
Amendments of the Constitution are mentioned 1) Federal State 2) Quasi-Federal State
in 3) Unitary state 4) Union of States
1) Tenth Schedule 2) Eleventh Schedule 95) The Number of Union Territories in India is
3) Twelfth Schedule 4) Thirteenth Schedule 1) 5 2) 6
85) Match List I (parts of the Indian Constitution) 3) 7 4) 9
with List II (provisions) and select the correct 96) Which of the following states is a member of the
answer using the codes given below Seven sisters?
List I List II 1) West Bengal 2) Tripura
a) Party IV A 1. The Fundamental Duties 3) Orissa 4) Bihar
b) Party VIII 2. The Union Territories 97) Among the following states, which one was
c) Part IX 3. The Panchayats formed last?
d) Part IX A 4. The municipalities 1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Gujarat
Code: A B C D 3) Karnataka 4) Punjab
1) 1 2 3 4 98) Which one of the following is the first state to
2) 2 1 3 4 have been formed on linguistic basis?
3) 4 3 1 2 1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Gujarat
4) 4 3 2 1 3) Karnataka 4) Punjab
86) Which provision relating to the Fundamental 99) How many states and Union territories are there
Right is directly related to the exploitation of in India:
children? 1) 25 states and 7 Union territories
1) Article 17 2) Article 19 2) 28 states and 7 union territories
3) Article 23 4) Article 24 (Including national capital Territory- 1)
87) The article of Indian Constitution related to 3) 24 states and 6 union territories
Abolition of Untouchability is 4) None of the above.
1) Article 15 2) Article 16 100) The power to curve out a new state is vested
3) Article 17 4) Article 18 in -
88) It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to 1) The Parliament 2) The President
protect and improve the natural environment. 3) The Council of Ministers
This statement refers to which of the following 4) States reorganization Commission
Articles of the constitution of India? 101) Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic
1) Article 21 2) Article 48 A state in
3) Article 51 A 4) Article 56 1) 1950 2) 1953
89) By which name/names is our country mentioned 3) 1956 4) 1961
in the Constitution? 102) Which of the following is NOT a union
1) India and Bharat 2) India and Hindustan territory?
3) Bharat Only 1) Goa 2) Lakshadweep
4) India, Bharat and Hindustan 3) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
90) The Finance Commission is constituted under 4) Chandigarh
Article . of the Constitution of India? 103) Which one among the following has the power
1) 275 2) 280 to regulate the right of citizenship in India?
3) 282 4) None of these 1) The Union Cabinet 2) The Parliament
91) Which one of the following schedules of the 3) The Supreme court 4) The Law commission
Indian Constitution lists the names of states and 104) With what subject do the articles 5 to 11 of
specific their territories? the Constitution of India deal?
1) First 2) Eighth amendment 1) Indian Union and its territory
3) Third 4) Fourth 2) Citizenship
92) How does the Constitution of India describe 3) Fundamental Duties
India as ? 4) Union Executive
1) A Federation of States and Union Territories 105) The brand name of 16 digit unique
2) A Union Of States identification number to be assigned to each
3) Bharatvarsh individual in the country will be
4) A Federated Nation 1) Pehchan 2) Maadhyam
 3) Aadhar 4) Aabhar 117) Which one of the following is the guardian of
106) AADHAR is a programme fundamental right?
1) To help senior citizens 1) Legislature 2) Executive
2) To provide nutritional support to adolescent 3) Political parties 4) Judiciary
woman 118) Which of the following are covered under the
3) To train people for social defence Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of
4) To provide identity to Indian residents India?
107) Which country accepted the policy of Dual I) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced
citizenship? labour
1) India 2) Canada II) Prohibition of employment of children in factories
3) Australia 4) U.S.A III) Freedom of conscience and free profession,
108) Which of these is NOT included as a practice and propagation of religion.
Fundamental Right in the Indian Select the correct answer using the code given
Constitution? below:
1) Right to freedom to speech 1) I and II only 2) I and III only
2) Right to equality before law 3) II and III only 4) I, II and III
3) Right to Constitutional Remedies 119) All the following are fundamental rights
4) Right to equal wages for equal work guaranteed by the Indian Constitution except
109) Which of the following can a court issue for
enforcement of fundamental Rights? 1) Right to equality
1) A decree 2) An ordinance 2) Right against exploitation
3) A writ 4) A notification 3) Right to adequate means of livelihood
110) Which of the following writs/orders of the 4) None of these
High court/supreme court is brought to get an 120) Which part of the Indian Constitution has
order of an authority quashed? been described as the soul of the
1) Mandamus 2) Certiorari Constitution?
3) Quo Warranto 4) Habeas Corpus 1) Fundamental Rights
111) Point out which from the following is NOT a 2) Directive Principles of state policy
right enumerated in the Constitution of India 3) The Preamble
but has been articulated by the Supreme 4) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Court to be a fundamental right? 121) The 44th Amendment in the Constitution of
1) Right to life India removed the following right from the
2) Equality of opportunity in matters of public category of Fundamental Rights
employment 1) Freedom, of speech
3) Protection of personal liberty 2) Constitutional remedies
4) Right to permanent liberty 3) Property 4) Freedom of religion
112) Who considered the right to constitutional 122) Which of the following rights does Indian
remedies as very heart and soul of the Indian Constitution NOT guarantee?
Constitution? 1) Right of equal home 2) Right to equality
1) M.K.Gandhi 2) J.L. Nehru 3) Right to freedom of religion
3) B.R. Ambedkar 4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 4) Right to freedom of speech
113) Which of the following is a bulwark of 123) Separation of the judiciary from the executive
personal freedom? has been provided in one of the following
1) Mandamus 2) Habeas corpus parts of the Indian constitution?
3) Quo Warranto 4) Certiorari 1) The Preamble
114) Which of the following rights is NOT granted 2) The Fundamental Rights
by the constitution of India at present as a 3) The Directive Principles of state policy
fundamental right? 4) The seventh schedule
1) Right to equality 2) Right to freedom 124) Under the directive principles of state policy
3) Right to property upto what age of children they are expected
4) Right against exploitation to be provided free and compulsory
115) Which part of the Indian Constitution deals education?
with Fundamental rights? 1) 14 years 2) 15 years
1) Part I 2) Part II 3) 16 years 4) 18 years
3) Part III 4) Part IV 125) Equal pay for equal work has been ensured in
116) Fundamental Rights are NOT given to the Indian constitution as one of the
1) Bankrupt persons 2) Aliens 1) Fundamental Rights
3) Persons suffering from incurable diseases 2) Directive Principles of state policy
4) Political sufferers 3) Fundamental Duties 4) Economic Rights
126) The Directive principles of state policy is a 138) The President of India is elected by the
cheque which his paid on Banks convenience, 1) Members of the Lok Sabha
Who told it? 2) Members of Both Houses of the Parliament
1) B.R. Ambedkar 2) K.M. Munshi 3) Members of the state legislature
3) Rajendra Prasad 4) K.T. Seth 4) By an electoral college consisting of the elected
127) The directive principles of state policy are: members of both Houses of the Parliament and state
1) justicable 2) non-justicable Assemblies.
3) Only some of the provisions are justicable 139) To be eligible for election as President of
4) None of the above India a person must have completed the age
128) Under the Constitution of India, which one of of
the following is NOT a fundamental duty? 1) 25 years 2) 30 years
1) To vote in public elections 3) 35 years 4) 40 years
2) To develop the scientific temper 140) The President of India is elected by the
3) To safeguard public property numbers of an electoral college which does
4) To abide by the Constitution and respect its deals NOT include
129) Where is Raisina Hill? 1) The elected members of the Rajya Sabha
1) Where Rashtrapati Bhavan is situated 2) The elected members of the Rajya Sabha
2) The Hill feature in Srinagar, otherwise known 3) The elected members of the state assemblies
as Shankaracharya Hill 4) The elected members of the state legislative
3) The place where the Dogra rulers Jammu and councils
Kashmir built their fort in Jammu 141) Which one of the following offices is held
4) The Rock feature at Knayakumari where Swami during the pleasure of the President of India?
Vivekanads stature was erected. 1) Vice-president 2) Chief Justice of India
130) The President of India enjoys emergency 3) Goveror of a state 4) Chairman of UPSC
powers of 142) The Union Executive of India consists of
1) two types 2) three types 1) The President, Vice-President and the Council of
3) four types 4) Five types Ministers only
131) How many times the President of India can 2) The President and council of Ministers only
seek reelection to his post? 3) The President, Vice president council of Ministers
1) Once 2) 2 times and Lok Sabha
3) 3 times 4) any number of times 4) The President, Prime Minister, Deputy Chairman
132) Which of the following appointment is NOT of Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha speaker
made by the President of India? 143) Who was the President of India at the time of
1) Speaker of the Lok Sabha proclamation of emergency in the year 1975?
2) Chief Justice of India
3) Chief of Air Staff 4) Chief of Army 1) V.V. Giri 2) Giani Zail Singh
133) In case of President wishes to resign, to 3) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad 4) Shakar Dayal Sharma
whom is he to address his resignation letter? 144) Under which article of the constitution of
1) Chief Justice of India India can the President of India be
2) Secretary of Lok Sabha impeached?
3) Vice President 4) Prime Minister 1) Article 61 2) Article 75
134) What is the maximum age limit prescribed for 3) Article 76 4) Article 356
the post of the President of India? 145) Who holds the power to appoint the nominees
1) 58 years 2) 60 years from Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok
3) 62 years Sabha?
4) There is no maximum age limit 1) Minorities Commission 2) President of India
135) Rashprapati Bhawan was desgined by 3) Prime Minister 4) Vice-President
1) Edward Stone 2) Le Corbusier 146) Who is the executive head of state in India?
3) Edwin Lutyens 4) Tarun Dutt 1) President 2) Prime Minister
136) A President Ordinance can remain in force 3) Leader of the opposition
1) For three months 2) For six months 4) Chief-Secretary Government of India
3) For nine months 4) Indefinitely 147) The first President of Independent India hails
137) Who can initiate impeachment of the from
President? 1) U.P. 2) Andhra Pradesh
1) 1/4the members of either House of the 3) Bihar 4) Tamil Nadu
Parliament. 148) Recommendations to the President of India
2) Half of the members of either House of the on the specific Union-State fiscal
Parliament relations are made by the
3) Half of the state legislatures 1) Finance Minister 2) Reserve Bank of India
4) 1/3rd members of any state legislature 3) Planning Commission 4) Finance Commission
149) Who among the following Presidents held 4) National development Council
office for two consecutive terms? 159) Who held the office of the Vice President of
1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan India for two consecutive terms?
3) Both a and b 4) Dr. Zakir Hussain 1) Dr. Radhakrishnan 2) Mr. R. Venkatraman
150) By which of the following can the President of 3) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma
India be impeached? 4) Mr. V.V. Giri
1) By the Lok Sabha 2) By the parliament 160) A Commission under the Chairmanship of
3) By the Chief Justice of India Justice M.N. Venkatchalaih has been
4) By the Prime Minister constituted by the Union Government to
151) Who among the following is appointed by the review the:
President? 1) Centre-state relations
1) Attorney General of India 2) Sharing of financial resources among the states
2) Comptroller and Auditor 3) Sharing of river waters among riparian states
3) Governor of a state 4) All of these 4) Constitution of India
152) The single instance of the unanimous election 161) Which one of the following statements
of the President of India so far, was the regarding the Vice-President of India
election of officiating as President is correct?
1) Rajendra Prasad 2) Dr. Radhakrishnan 1) He shall continue to be chairman of the council of
3) Zakir Hussain 4) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy states
153) Which one of the following has the power to 2) He shall cease to be the chairman of the Council
initiate the motion of impeachment of the Of States
President of India? 3) He shall nominate the next-senior most member
1) Rajya Sabha 2) Lok Sabha of the house to be the chairman of the council of
3) Speaker of the Lok Sabha states
4) Both the houses of the parliament 4) None of the above
154) The authority to specify as to which castes 162) Which of the following vice-presidents are
shall be deemed to be Scheduled castes rests NOT appointed as President of the
with the following country?
1) Commission for scheduled castes and tribes 1) Dr. S.Radhakrishnan
2) Prime Minister 3) Governor of the state 2) R. Venkatraman
4) President 3) Krishna Kant
155) Which one of the following is the correct 4) Dr.Zakir Hussain
sequence of persons who occupied the 163) Who was the first women to become the
office of the president of India right from Prime Minister of a Country?
beginning? 1) Golda Meir 2) Margaret Thatcher
1) C. Rajagopalachari, 3) Indira Gandhi
2) C. Rajagopalchari, Rajendra Prasad, V.V.Giri, 4) Sirivano Bhandharnaike
Zakir Hussain 164) In India, the Prime Minister remains in office
3) Rajendra Prasad, S. Radhakrishnan , Zakir so long as he enjoys the -
Hussain, V.V. Giri, 1) Support of armed forces
4) Rajendra Prasad, S. Radhakrishnan, V.V.Giri, 2) Confidence of Rajya Sabha
Zakir Hussain 3) Confidence of Lok Sabha
156) Election to the office of the President is 4) Support of the people
conducted by 165) Which party provided two Prime Ministers in
1) The speaker of the Lok Sabha two years time?
2) The Prime Ministers Office 1) B.J.P. 2) Janata Party
3) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs 3) Janata Dal
4) The Election Commission of India 4) Samajwad of Janata Party
157) In the event of a vacancy in the offices of both 166) What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of
the President and vice-president of India, the India?
person who performs the duty of a President 1) Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha
is 2) Conterminous with the tenure of the President
1) Speaker of Lok Sabha 3) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in
2) Chief Justice of India the Lok Sabha 4) Five years
3) Chairman of Rajya Sabha 167) Who among the following is the Chairman of
4) Attorney General the National Integration Council?
158) The vice-president is the ex-officio chairman 1) The President 2) The Vice-President
of the 3) The Prime Minister
1) Rajya Sabha 2) Lok Sabha 4) The Chief Justice of India
3) Planning Commission
168) Who of the following became Prime Minister 3) V.P. Singh 4) H.D. Deve Gowda
of India without becoming a Union 180) Who among the following Indian Prime
Cabinet Minister? Ministers resigned before facing a vote of no-
1) Chaudhary C haran Singh confidence in the Lok Sabha?
2) H.D. Deve Gowda 1) Chandra Sekhar 2) Morarji Desai
3) Morarji Desai 4) I.K. Gujral 3) Chaudhary Charan Singh
169) When was Jana-Gana-Mana (Which later 4) V.P. Singh
became National anethm of India) first sung 181) Shakti-Sthal is related to whom?
and where? 1) Smt. Indira Gandhi 2) Rajiv Gandhi
1) 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad 3) Mahatma Gandhi 4) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
2) 24th January, 1950 in Delhi 182) Who exercises the actual executive power
3) 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta under the Parliamentary form of Government?
4) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta 1) Parliament 2) Prime Minister
170) The Government of India has decided to 3) President 4) Bureaucracy
declare which of the following rivers a 183) The Union Ministers hold office during the
National River? pleasure of -------
1) Brahmaputra 2) Yamuna 1) The President 2) The Prime Minister
3) Ganga 4) Kaveri 3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
171) The Indian Constitution recognizes minorities 4) The Chief justice of the Supreme Court of India
on the basis of: 184) Who was the first Deputy Prime Minster of
1) Religion 2) Caste India?
3) Colour 1) L.K. Advani 2) Morarji Desai
4) Percentage of the population of the Group to the 3) Charan Singh
total population 4) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
172) Which of the following is NOT an element of 185) Who was the first foreign Minister of free
the state? India?
1) Population 2) Land 1) Jawahar Lal Nehru 2) Gulzari Lal Nehru
3) Army 4) Government 3) Lal Bahadur Shastri 4) John Mathai
173) There is no provision in the constitution for 186) If the finance Minister fails to get the Annual
the impeachment of the: budget passed in the Lok Sabha, the Prime
1) Chief Justice of India Minister is expected to
2) Chief Justice of a High court 1) Compel the Finance Minister to resign
3) Governor 4) Vice-President 2) Submit the resignation of his/ her cabinet
174) Consent of the people means consent of: 3) Refer it to the Joint session of both the Houses of
1) A few people 2) All people Parliament.
3) Majority of the people 4) Leader of the people 4) Form another cabinet with different members
175) The expression Creamy Layer used in the 187) The Council of Ministers of Indian Union is
judgement of the supreme court relating to collectively responsible to
the case regarding reservations refers to : 1) President 2) Prime Minister
1) those sections of society which pay income tax 3) Rajya Sabha 4) Lok Sabha
2) Those sections of socially and educationally 188) With reference to the constitution of India,
backward classes of the society that are consider the following statements:
economically advanced 1. The council of Ministers of the Union are
3) Those sections of the society that are considered responsible to both the Houses of Parliament
advanced according to Karpuri Thakur formula 2. The President of India cannot appoint any one as
4) All sections of upper castes of the society Union Minister not recommended by Prime Minister
176) Despotism is possible in a: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) One party state 2) Two party state 1) 1 only 2) 2 only
3) Multi party state 3) both 1 and 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2
4) Two and multi party state 189) Who was the Defence Minister of India during
177) Karl Marx belonged to: the Indo China War of 1962?
1) Germany 2) Holland 1) R.N. Thapar 2) Jagjivan Ram
3) France 4) Britain 3) V.K. Krishna Menon 4) Govind Ballabh
178) The basic parameters of India Foreign policy 190) In Which one of the following Ministries, the
means laid down by: Census Organization has been functioning on
1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2) Dr. Radhakrishnan a permanent footing since 1961?
3) Jawahar Lal Nehru 4) Dr. Zakir Hussain 1) Home affairs
179) Who was the Prime Minister of India when the 2) Health and family development
Anti Defection bill was passed? 3) Human Resource Development
1) Indira Gandhi 2) Rajiv Gandhi 4) Social Justice and Empowerment
191) Who is called the Father of Indian economic ANSWER KEY
reform?
Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.
1) Jawahar Lal Nehru 2) Indira Gandhi
3) Manmohan Singh 4) None of these 1 4 2 4 3 1 4 2 5 2
192) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
6 1 7 1 8 3 9 2 10 3
acts as the chief accountant and auditor for
the 11 4 12 3 13 2 14 2 15 3
1) Union Government 2) State Government 16 2 17 4 18 1 19 3 20 4
3) Union and state Governments
4) Neither union nor state Governments 21 1 22 1 23 4 24 1 25 2
193) What is period of appointment of the 26 4 27 2 28 2 29 3 30 1
comptroller and auditor-general of India?
1) 6 years 2) upto 65 years of age 31 1 32 1 33 2 34 2 35 2
3) 6 years or 65 years of age 36 3 37 1 38 2 39 1 40 1
4) upto 64 years of age
194) Who is the highest civil servant of the Union 41 1 42 4 43 2 44 1 45 2
Government? 46 2 47 2 48 1 49 2 50 2
1) Attorney General 2) Cabinet Secretary
51 3 52 3 53 3 54 1 55 3
3) Home secretary
4) Principal Secretary to the P.M. 56 4 57 1 58 2 59 4 60 3
195) The Attorney General of India is appointed by
61 4 62 2 63 3 64 4 65 3

1) The President of India 2) The Prime Minister 66 4 67 1 68 1 69 3 70 3
3) The Chief justice of India 71 4 72 3 73 1 74 3 75 1
4) The UPSC
196) In India, the Controller General of Accounts 76 3 77 3 78 1 79 2 80 1
presents a detailed analytical review of Union 81 3 82 1 83 1 84 2 85 1
Government accounts to the Finance ministry
every 86 4 87 3 88 3 89 1 90 2
1) Year 2) Six months 91 1 92 2 93 3 94 4 95 3
3) Three months
96 2 97 2 98 1 99 2 100 1
4) Month
197) Which of the following statements with 101 3 102 1 103 2 104 2 105 3
respect to Attorney-General of India is not
106 4 107 4 108 4 109 3 110 3
correct?
1) Take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha 111 4 112 3 113 2 114 3 115 3
2) Be a member of a committee of the parliament 116 4 117 4 118 4 119 3 120 4
3) Speak in the Lok Sabha
4) Vote in the Lok Sabha 121 3 122 1 123 3 124 1 125 2
198) Consider the following statements with 126 1 127 2 128 1 129 1 130 2
respect to Attorney General of India
1. He is appointed by the President 131 4 132 1 133 3 134 4 135 3
2. He must have the same qualification as are 136 2 137 1 138 4 139 3 140 4
required by a judge of Supreme Court
3. In the performance of his duties he shall have 141 3 142 1 143 3 144 1 145 2
the right of audience in all courts of India. 146 1 147 3 148 4 149 1 150 2
Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?
151 4 152 4 153 4 154 4 155 3
1) 1 only 2) 1 and 3 only
3) 2 and 3 only 156 4 157 2 158 1 159 1 160 4
4) 1, 2 and 3
161 2 162 3 163 3 164 3 165 2
199) Who advises the Government of India on legal
matters? 166 3 167 3 168 2 169 4 170 3
1) Attorney General 171 4 172 3 173 4 174 3 175 2
2) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
3) Chairman, law commission 176 1 177 1 178 3 179 2 180 3
4) None of these 181 1 182 2 183 1 184 4 185 1
200) Comptroller and auditor General of India is
appointed by: 186 2 187 4 188 2 189 3 190 1
1) President 191 3 192 3 193 3 194 1 195 1
2) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
196 4 197 4 198 4 199 1 200 1
3) Chairman of the planning commission
4) Finance Minister
200 MCQs ON INDIAN POLITY (SPECIAL SSC)

1) Who among the following can participate in 3) Jawahar Lal Nehru 4) Rajendra Prasad
the proceedings of both the houses of 11) The vice-President is the ex-officio chairman
parliament? of the
1) Vice-President 2) Solicitor General 1) Rajya Sabha 2) Lok Sabha
3) Chief Justice 4) Attorney General 3) Planning Commission
2) What can be the maximum interval between 4) National Development council
two sessions of parliament? 12) The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after
1) 3 months 2) 4 months 1) Every five years 2) Every six years
3) 6 months 4) 9 months 3) On the advice of the Prime minister
3) How are legislative excesses of parliament 4) None of these
and state assemblies checked? 13) The upper house of Indian Parliament is
1) Intervention from President/Governor known as
2) No-Confidence motions 1) The Rajya Sabha 2) The Lok Sabha
3) Judicial review 3) The national Assembly 4) The Indian Parliament
4) General elections 14) Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha
4) Which of the following non-member of 1) The President 2) The Vice-President
Parliament has the right to address it? 3) Legislative Council 4) Legislative assembly
1) Attorney General of India 15) Which is the House where the chair person is
2) Solicitor General of India not the member of that House?
3) Chief Justice of India 1) Rajya Sabha 2) Lok Sabha
4) Chief Election Commissioner 3) Legislative Council 4) Legislative Assembly
5) In order to be recognized as an official 16) How many members are nominated by the
Opposition Group in the parliament, how President in the Rajya Sabha?
many seats should it have? 1) 2 2) 10
1) 1/3rd of the total strength 3) 12 4) 15
2) of the total strength 17) The speaker of Lok Sabha can resign his office
3) 1/6th of the total strength by addressing his resignation to
4) 1/10th of the total strength 1) The president 2) The prime Minister
6) Which functionary can be invited to give his 3) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
opinion in the parliament? 4) The chief justice of India
1) Attorney General of India 18) A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is
2) Chief Justice of India deemed to have been passed by the Rajya
3) Chief Election commission of India Sabha also when no action is taken by the
4) Comptroller and auditor General of India Upper House (Rajya Sabha ) within
7) Age of a candidate to contest parliamentary 1) 10 days 2) 14 days
election should not be lesser than: 3) 20 days 4) 30 days
1) 18 years 2) 21 years 19) What can be maximum interval between
3) 25 years 4) 26 years two sessions of Parliament?
8) The most important feature of the Indian 1) 3montsh 2) 4 months
Parliament is that: 3) 6 months 4) 9 months
1) It is the union legislature in India 20) Bill of which of the following categories can
2) It also comprises of the President be initiated only in Lok Sabha?
3) It is bicameral in nature 1) Ordinary Bill 2) Private Members bill
4) The upper house of the parliament is never 3) Money bill
dissolved 4) Constitution Amendment bill
9) Japans Parliament is known as 21) Who decides whether a bill is a money bill
1) Diet 2) Dail or not?
3) Yuan 4) Shora 1) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
10) Who said, Parliamentary system provides a 2) The President
daily as well as a periodic assessment of the 3) The Prime Minister
Government? 4) The parliamentary select committee
1) B.R. Ambedkar 2) B.N. Rau
22) By which bill the Government propose 34) Which is the upper chamber of state
collection of revenues for a year? legislature in India?
1) Economic Bill 2) Finance Bill 1) Legislative Council 2) Legislative Council
3) Supplementary Bill 4) None of these 3) Governors Office 4) None of these
23) Who calls the joint session of the two Houses 35) The Maximum number of members that the
of the Parliament? legislative assembly of a state in India can
1) The President 2) The Prime Minister have is:
3) The Lok Sabha Speaker 1) 400 2) 450
4) The vice President 3) 500 4) 600
24) What is Zero Hour? 36) The Chief justice of a high court is appointed
1) When the proposals of the opposition are raised by:
2) When matters of utmost importance are raised 1) President 2) Governor
3) Interval between the morning and afternoon 3) Chief Justice of India
sessions 4) President and the chief Justice of India
4) When a money bill is introduced in Lok Sabha 37) To which of the following state the special
25) Which of the following Ministries prepares its Marriage Act 1954 does not apply?
own budget and presents in the Parliament 1) Meghalaya 2) Nagaland
every year? 3) Tripura 4) Jammu and Kashmir
1) Finance Ministry 2) Railway Ministry 38) Which article of the constitution of India
3) Ministry of Defence accords special status to the state of Jammu
4) Ministry of Home affairs and Kashmir?
26) The Governor of a state in India is 1) 311 2) 324
1) Directly elected by the people of India 3) 356 4) 370
2) Appointed by the state chief Minister 39) Which one of the following states has a
3) Appointed by the Prime Minister separate constitution?
4) Appointed by the President 1) Arunachal Pradesh 2) Assam
27) Which one of the following offices is held 3) Jammu and Kashmir 4) Sikkim
during the pleasure of the President of India? 40) In Indian constitution, article 370 is related
1) Vice-President 2) Chief Justice of India with which?
3) Governor of a State 4) Chairman of UPSC 1) Jammu and Kashmir
28) The Chief Minister is appointed by 2) Reservation of Scheduled castes and Scheduled
1) The Governor 2) The President 3) Punjab and Haryana States
3) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court 4) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu States
4) The Chief justice of High court 41) Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and
29) Who among the following was the first Kashmir?
woman chief minister in independent India? 1) The Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir
1) Amrit Kaur 2) Sarojini Naidu 2) The Chief Minister of High court of Jammu and
3) Sucheta Kriplani 4) Vijaya lakshmi Pandit Kashmir
30) Who was the first Chief Minister of 3) The Prime Minister of India
Uttarakhand State? 4) The President of India
1) Bhagat Singh Koshyari 2) Nityanand Swami 42) Which of the following states can nominate
3) N.D. Tiwari 4) None of these two women members to the Legislative
31) Which Indian State had the first woman chief assembly?
Minister? 1) Himachal Pradesh 2) Uttar Pradesh
1) U.P. 2) Bihar 3) Jammu and Kashmir 4) Kerala
3) Tamil Nadu 4) Delhi 43) Where was the first Municipal Corporation in
32) The total number of members of the India set up?
legislative council can in no case be less than: 1) Bombay 2) Calcutta
1) 40 2) 50 3) Delhi 4) Madras
3) 60 44) The Constitutional (74th) Amendment act,
4) No minimum strength has been fixed 1993 mentions of the:
33) Who among the following recommendation to 1) Composition of the National Development Council
the parliament for the abolition of the 2) Functions of the state Finance Commission
legislative council in state? 3) Functions of the Kaveri Water Authority
1) The President of India 4) The Municipalities
2) The Governor of the concerned state 45) Provisions regarding Municpalities and
3) The legislative council of the concerned state Panchayats was made in the Indian
4) The legislative assembly of the concerned state Constitution in which year?
1) 1991 2) 1993
 3) 1995 4) 2000 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
46) All day-to-day functions of the Panchayat in 1) 1 only 2) 2 only
which of the following states are being 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2
operated on electronic system and are web- 56) Who appoints the Chairman and the members
based? (This is being done for the first time in of Union Public Service Commission?
India for a Panchayat) 1) Parliament 2) President
1) Kerala 2) Karnataka 3) Chief Justice of India 4) Selection Committee
3) Andhra Pradesh 4) Maharashtra 57) In which schedule of the constitution will the
47) The Constitution of India mandates that the new State of Telangana be mentioned as the
elections of the Panchayati Raj should be held 29th State of the India?
regularly after a gap of: 1) First Schedule 2) Second Schedule
1) 2 years 2) 3 years 3) Fourth Schedule 4) Tenth Schedule
3) 4 years 4) 5 years 58) When was the mandate that a candidate at an
48) The first finance commission was constituted election should file with his nomination
in: papers an affidavit recording the particulars
1) 1950 2) 1951 of the spouse and the dependents, enforced at
3) 1952 4) 1954. a General Election for the first time?
49) Which agency acts as co-ordinator between 1) Assembly elections held in Madhya Pradesh /
union government, Planning commission and Chhattisgarh in Dec. 2003
state Governments? 2) Assembly election held in Mizoram in Nov. 2003
1) National integration council 3) Assembly elections held in Himachal Pradesh in
2) Finance Commission 2003
3) National Development Council 4) Assembly elections held in Rajasthan /Delhi in
4) Inter State Council Dec. 2003
50) Fiscal Deficit is 59) A National political party is one which
1) Total Expenditures Total receipts receives 6% of the total votes polled in:
2) Revenue expenditures Revenue receipts 1) Two or more states 2) The capital city
3) Capital expenditure capital receipts 3) Four or more states 4) In all states
Borrowings 60) What is the minimum age prescribed in India
4) Sum of Budget Deficit and Governments market for its citizens to cast their vote?
borrowings and liabilities 1) 21 Years 2) 18 Years
51) Which one of the following forms the largest 3) 25 Years 4) 16 Years
share of deficit in Government of India 61) The election disputes regarding the election of
budget: President and Vice President can be heard
1) Primary Deficit 2) Fiscal Deficit by:
3) Revenue Deficit 4) Capital Deficit 1) Parliament
52) Which is NOT a central service? 2) Central Election commission
1) Indian Police Service (IPS) 3) Supreme Court
2) Indian Foreign service (IFC) 4) Attorney-General of India
3) Indian Audit and Accounts Service (IAAS) 62) The Constitutional Amendment by which the
4) Indian Revenue Service (IRS) age for voting has been revised from 21 years
53) The annual report of the UPSC is submitted to: to 18 years is:
1) The President 2) The Supreme Court 1) 51st 2) 56th
st
3) The Prime Minister 3) 61 4) 64th
4) The Chairman of the Union Public Service 63) The right to vote in India is given to all people
Commission on the basis of:
54) Which of the following service is not part of 1) Education 2) Property
the All India Services? 3) Religion 4) Age
1) IAS (Indian Administrative Services) 64) Now-a-days the election commission of India
2) IFS (Indian Forest Services) uses EVM during the General Election in the
3) IPS (Indian Police Services) country. What is the full form of EVM?
4) IMS (Indian Military Services) 1) Electronic Voting Machine
55) Consider the following statements: 2) Election Validation Machine
1. The number of the Members of Union Public 3) Electronic validation management
service Commission is determined by the President 4) None of these
of India 65) NRI (Non-Resident Indian) Day is observed
2. The Union Public Service Commission was on which of the following day?
constituted under the provisions in the Constitution 1) 9th January 2) 9th February
th
of India 3) 19 March 4) 9thMatch
66) English is the official language of which one of 1) China 2) Russia
the following Indian States? 3) France 4) Britain
1) Nagaland 2) Tripura 79) The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated
3) Assam 4) Manipur on __________.
67) Which article of the constitution provides 1) January 28, 1951 2) January 28, 1950
power to the parliament to make any 3) January 30, 1950 4) January 30, 1949
provision with respect to acquisition and 80) At present, how many members are there in
termination of citizenship and all other Supreme Court of India?
matters related to the citizenship: 1) 35 judges 2) 31 judges
1) Article 11 2) Article 13 3) 33 judges 4) None of these
3) Article 12 4) Article 111 81) In which case, the Supreme Court ruled that
68) Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic the senior most judge of supreme court
state in: should alone be appointed to the office of the
1) 1950 2) 1953 Chief justice of India?
3) 1956 4) 1961 1) First judges case 2) Second judges case
69) The first Indian state which was created on a 3) Third judges case 4) None of these
linguistic basis following a long drawn 82) Which among the following act is not related
agitation is: to the advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court?
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Assam 1) Coal Bearing Areas Act
3) Tamil Nadu 4) Karnataka 2) Delhi Laws Act
70) How many types of emergencies are 3) Sea Customs Act
envisaged by the constitution? 4) Kerala Education Bill
1) 1 2) 2 83) In which year the Jammu and Kashmir
3) 3 4) 4 Resettlement Act was passed
71) In India, within how much period, should the 1) 1978 2) 1980
proclamation of emergency be approved by 3) 1982 4) 1984
both houses of the Parliament? 84) The write-_______ literally means we
1) 14 days 2) 1 month command
3) 3 months 4) 6 months 1) Habeas Corpus 2) Prohibition
72) Which one of the following articles of the 3) Quo-wauanto 4) Mandamus
constitution of India has provision for the 85) Which among the following Articles of
President to proclaim emergency? Directive Principles of State Policy deals with
1) Article 352 2) Article 355 the promotion of international peace and
3) Article 356 4) Article 360 security?
73) Under which of the following circumstances 1) 51 2) 48A
can the national emergency under Article 352 3) 43A 4) 41
of the Indian constitution be proclaimed? 86) Which among the following rights was
1) Failure of constitutional machinery described by Dr. BR. Ambedkar as the heart
2) Breakdown of law and order and soul of the constitution?
3) Internal disturbance 1) Right to freedom of Religion
4) War, external aggression or armed rebellion 2) Right to property
74) How many times has financial emergency 3) Right to equality
been declared in India so far? 4) Right to Constitutional Remedies
1) Once 2) 4 times 87) Five year plan in India is finally approved by _
2) 5 times 4) Never 1) Union Cabinet
75) How many spokes are there in the Dharma 2) President on the advice of Prime Minister
Chakra (Ashok Chakra) depicted on the 3) Planning Commission
national flag of India? 4) National Development Council
1) 16 2) 32 88) In the Indian Constitution, the Right to
3) 24 4) 22 equality mentioned from
76) What is the scientific name of National 1) Article 16 to Article 20
Animal-tiger-of India? 2) Article 15 to Article 19
1) Panthera Leo 2) Panthera tigris 3) Article 14 to Article 18
3) Elephas Indicus 4) Bos domesticus 4) Article 14 to Article 17
77) Which is National Flower of India? 89) Which one of the following amendments to
1) Rose 2) Lotus the Indian Constitution empowers the
3) Lily 4) Sunflower President to send back any matter for
78) India borrowed the concept of sovereignty reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
of parliament from _________. 1) 39th 2) 40th
 3) 42nd 4) 44th 2) Vice- President of India
90) Which one of the following bills must be 3) Chief Minister of the state
passed by each house of Indian parliament 4) Chief Justice of High Court
separately by special majority? 102) If the President wants to resign, he will
1) Ordinary Bill 2) Money Bill submit his resignation to:
3) Finance Bill 1) Chief Justice of India
4) Constitution Amendment Bill 2) Speaker of Lok Sabha
91) Which Amendment Act facilitated the 3) Vice President
appointment of the same person as a 4) Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister
governor for two or more states? 103) The Vice President of India is elected for a
1) 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 period of ------ to hold office?
2) 8th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1960 1) 5 years
3) 10th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1961 2) Till he attains the age of 65 years
4) 15th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1963 3) 6 years 4) 2 years
92) Increased salary of Governor from 2008 is 104) Who among the following holds office during
_________. the pleasure of the President?
1) 36,000 2) 1.10 lakh 1) Governor of State
3) 1,50,000 4) None of these 2) Election Commissioner of India
93) The salary and allowances of the Chief 3) Chief Minister of State
Minister is determined by ________. 4) Prime Minister of India
1) President 2) Governor 105) Which of the following is not true regarding
3) Parliament 4) State Legislature the payment of the emoluments of the
94) Duty of the Chief Minister is described in the President?
Article ________. 1) They are paid out of Consolidated Fund of India.
1) Article 165 2) Article 163 2) They are shown separately in the budget.
3) Article 154 4) Article 167 3) They are charged on the Contingency Fund of
95) Article 163 deals with _________. India.
1) Appointment and tenure of the ministers 4) They do not require any parliament sanction.
2) Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor 106) The total number of members nominated by
3) Oath or affirmation by the Governor the President to the Rajya Sabha is
4) Council of Ministers is responsible to the 1) 16 2) 18
Legislative Assembly 3) 14 4) 12
96) Which part of the constitution deals with 107) Which of the following is not a part of the
composition and powers of State Legislature? electoral college for electing the President of
1) Part III 2) Part IV India?
3) Part VI 4) Part XII 1) Elected members of Lok Sabha
97) Among the following states, which one has a 2) Elected members of the Vidhan Sabha of each
bicameral system of state legislature? state.
1) Kerala 2) Madhya Pradesh 3) Elected members of the Vidhan Parishad
3) Andhra Pradesh 4) Tamil Nadu 4) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
98) The maximum strength of the Legislative 108) The Council of Ministers in a Parliamentary
Assembly is ________. type of Government can remain in office till it
1) 545 2) 520 enjoys the support of the
3) 450 4) 500 1) Majority of members of both Houses of
99) In which year, the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament
the decision of Chairman/speaker is subject 2) Majority of the members of the Upper House of
to judicial review? Parliament
1) 1990 2) 1992 3) Two third (2/3) of members of the Lower House
3) 1995 4) 1989 4) Majority of the members of the Lower House of
100) The adjournment power of state legislature Parliament
lies with ________. 109) Which of the following appointments is not
1) Presiding officer of the house made by the President of India?
2) Governor 1) Chief of the Army
3) President 2) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4) Vice-Chairman of Rajya Sabha 3) Chief Justice of India
101) The Governor of a State is appointed by the 4) Chief Election Commissioner
President on the advice of the 110) Who has the authority to appoint the Prime
1) Prime Minister Minister of India?
1) Speaker of Lok Sabha 2) President of India
 3) Parliament 4) Citizens of India 2) Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved.
111) The first woman Governor of a state in free 3) Under all circumstances
India was 4) President has no discretion
1) Mrs. Indira Gandhi 122) If in a country there happens to be the office
2) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit of monarchy as well as a Parliamentary form
3) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu 4) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani of government, then the monarch will be
112) The minimum age required for a person to called
contest the election for President is 1) Head of the State
1) 25 years 2) 21 years 2) Head of the Cabinet
3) 35 years 4) 45 years 3) Head of the Government
113) The charge of impeachment against the 4) Both Head of the government and State
President of India for his removal can be 123) Constitution of India was adopted by
preferred by constituent assembly on?
1) Both Houses of Parliament 1) 25th October, 1948 2) 25th October, 1949
2) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya 3) 26th November, 1948 4) 26th November, 1949
Sabha 124) Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio
3) Rajya Sabha members of the
4) Majority of the elected members of Lok Sabha 1) Planning Commission of India
114) The Chief Minister of a Union Territory where 2) National Development Council
such a set up exists, is appointed by the 3) Administrative Reforms Commission
1) Lt. Governor 4) Finance Commission
2) Chief Election Commissioner 125) Who, among the following, has the final right
3) President 4) Prime Minister to sanction the expenditure of public money
115) Who was the first Prime Minister of in India?
independent India? 1) Speaker 2) President
1) Jawaharlal Nehru 2) Mrs. Indira Gandhi 3) Prime Minister 4) Parliament
3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 4) Mahatma Gandhi 126) Which of the following is not an essential
116) As per the Constitution of India, if a President qualification for appointment as a Governor?
dies while in office, the Vice President can act 1) He must not be a member of either House of
as President for a maximum period of Parliament.
1) 1 years 2) 3 months 2) He should be a domicile of the state to which he
3) 6 months 4) 2 years is being appointed.
117) The Union Council of Ministers consists of 3) He should be a citizen of India.
1) Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and Deputy 4) He must have completed the age of 35 years
Ministers 127) The President nominates 12 members of the
2) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the Rajya Sabha according to
States 1) Their performance as office bearers of political
3) Prime Minister and Cabinet Ministers parties.
4) Cabinet Ministers and Cabinet Secretary 2) The recommendations made by the Vice
118) Who administers the oath of office to the President.
President of India before he enters office? 3) Their role played in political affairs of the country.
1) Chief Justice of India 2) Speaker 4) Their distinction in the field of science, art,
3) Vice President 4) Prime Minister literature and social service.
119) Who among the following enjoys the rank 128) Which Article of the Constitution empowers
equivalent to the Cabinet Minister of the the President to appoint a Commission to
Indian Union? investigate the condition of backward classes
1) Secretary to the Government of India in general and suggest measures to improve
2) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission their condition?
3) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha 1) Art. 342 2) Art. 344
4) None of the Above 3) Art. 340 4) Art. 339
120) A person who is not a member of Parliament 129) Where can initiate impeachment proceedings
can be appointed as a Minister by the against the President of India be initiated?
President for a maximum period of 1) Either House of Parliament
1) 9 months 2) 3 months 2) Any Vidhan Sabha
3) 12 months 4) 6 months 3) Only Lok Sabha
121) When can a President use his discretion for 4) Rajya Sabha only
appointing the Prime Minister? 130) Who among the following was the member of
1) When no political party enjoys a clear majority in the Rajya Sabha when first appointed as the
the Lok Sabha. Prime Minister of India?
 1) Lal Bahadur Shastri 2) Charan Singh 4) Deputy Ministers
3) Morarji Desai 4) Indira Gandhi 141) Who among the following has the
131) What is the minimum age for appointment of Constitutional authority to make rules and
a person as a Governor of a State? regulations fixing the number of members of
1) 35 years 2) 40 years the UPSC?
3) 25 years 4) 30 years 1) Vice- President 2) President
132) Chief Minister of a State is responsible and 3) Home Ministry 4) Cabinet Secretary
answerable to 142) On whose advice does the President of India
1) Prime Minister 2) Rajya Sabha declare Emergency under Article 352?
3) Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) 1) Chief Ministers of all states
4) Governor 2) Prime Minister of India
133) The administrative and operational control of 3) Written communication of Cabinet decision
the Armed Forces is exercised by the 4) Council of Ministers
1) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs with Prime 143) Who acts as the President of India when
Minister as the Chairman neither the President nor the Vice President is
2) Ministry of Defence available?
3) Three Chiefs of the Army, Navy and Air Force 1) Prime Minister of India
Staff 2) Chief Justice of India 3) Speaker of Lok Sabha
4) Senior most member of officer, among Chief of 4) None of the above
Army, Navy and Air force staff 144) A proclamation of emergency issued under
134) What is the position of a Minister of State in Article 356 must be approved by the
the Central Government? resolutions of the two houses of Parliament
1) He is a Minister of Central Government but not a within
member of the Cabinet. 1) 3 months 2) 2 months
2) He looks after the interests of the Cabinet 3) 1 Month 4) None of the above
Minister. 145) The Union Council of Ministers is appointed by
3) He is the nominee of the State Governor. the
4) He is the nominee of the President. 1) President of India according to his discretion
135) Who among the following is directly 2) President of India on the advice of the Prime
responsible to Parliament for all matters Minister
concerning the Defence Services of India? 3) Prime Minister of India
1) President of India 4) Speaker of Lok Sabha on the advice of the Prime
2) Chief of Army Minister
3) Defence Minister 146) The President can proclaim national
4) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs emergency on the written advice of the
136) How many times a person of India can seek 1) Speaker of Lok Sabha 2) Prime Minister
re-election for the post of President of India? 3) Chief Justice of India 4) Union Cabinet
1) Once 2) 3 times 147) The Union Council of Ministers is collectively
3) 2 times 4) Any number of times responsible to
137) Who among the following has the power to 1) Rajya Sabha 2) President
form a new state within the Union of India? 3) House of the People (Lok Sabha)
1) Speaker of Lok Sabha 2) President 4) Prime Minister
3) Prime Minister 4) Supreme Court 148) Article 78 of the Constitution deals with
138) Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the 1) President's power to get information from the
President on matters on which his advice is Council of Ministers.
sought? 2) Prime Minister's duty regarding keeping the
1) If the Council of Ministers so desires. President informed about the government's
2) Yes 3) No decisions and policies.
4) It is discretionary 3) Emergency powers of the President
139) When the Vice President officiates as 4) President's power to send advisory messages to
President he draws the salary of the Parliament.
1) Chairman of Rajya Sabha 149) The maximum duration for which the Vice
2) Both President & Vice President President may officiate as the President, is
3) President of India 1) 1 year 2) 6 months
4) Member of Parliament 3) 4 months 4) 9 months
140) Who among the following can attend 150) The proclamation of emergency in a state
meetings of the Union Cabinet? under Article 356 of the constitution, when
1) All members of Council of Ministers approved by the both houses of the
2) Cabinet Ministers 3) Ministers of State
 parliament can be continued for a maximum 159) Who is the ex- officio Chairman of the Council
period of of States?
1) Two years 2) One year 1) Vice- President
3) Six months 4) Three years 2) Leader of the opposition
151) Which of the following writs is issued by the 3) President 4) Speaker
court in case of illegal detention of a person? 160) Under which Article of the Constitution is the
1) Quo Warranto 2) Habeas Corpus President's rule promulgated on any state in
3) Mandamus 4) Certiorari India?
152) When a State Governor dies or resigns, the 1) 326 2) 370
Constitution provides that ________ will 3) 380 4) 356
exercises his functions till a new Governor is 161) At a time, President's rule can be imposed on
appointed? a state for a maximum period of
1) Chief Justice of the High Court 1) 3 year 2) 5 years
2) Advocate General of the State 3) 2 years 4) 4 years
3) Chief Minister of the State 162) For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights,
4) Chief Justice of Supreme Court the Supreme Court may issue a/an
153) When a financial emergency is proclaimed 1) Notification 2) Writ
1) Union budget will not be presented 3) Decree 4) Ordinance
2) Salaries and allowances of any class of employees 163) Judges of the High Court are appointed by the
may be reduced 1) Chief Justice of the High Court
3) Repayment of government debts will stop 2) President 3) Governor
4) Payment of salaries to public servants will be 4) Chief Justice of India
postponed 164) The President of India is elected by an
154) Who according to the Constitution of India is electoral college comprising of
authorised to appoint the Chairman of the 1) Elected members of Lok Sabha and State
UPSC? Legislative Assemblies.
1) President 2) Speaker of Lok Sabha 2) Elected member of both Houses of Parliament
3) Chief Justice of India 4) Prime Minister and State Legislative Assembly
155) Which of the following is correct regarding 3) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
the Governor of a State? only
1) He can recommend to the President to impose 4) Elected member of State Legislative Assemblies
President's Rule in the State. 165) If the office of the President of India falls
2) No money bill can be introduced in the State vacant, within what time should the next
Legislature without his prior permission. President be elected?
3) He has the power of issuing ordinances when the 1) Within Two months 2) Within One year
legislature is not in session. 3) Within Six months 4) Within One Month
4) All of the above 166) The President can proclaim a state of
156) Which is not an eligibility criterion for emergency in case of
appointment as a Judge of the High Court? 1) Threat to financial stability of the country.
1) Must have been an advocate of a High Court for 2) External aggression or internal disturbances
not less than 10 years threatening the security of the country.
2) Must be, in the opinion of the President, a 3) Failure of Constitutional machinery in a particular
distinguished jurist. state. 4) All of the above
3) Must have attained the age of 55 years 167) Who among the following is authorised to
4) Must have been a High Court Judge for at least 5 declare elections of the Lok Sabha?
years 1) President 2) Election Commissioner
157) The High Courts in India were first started at 3) Prime Minister 4) Union Cabinet
1) Bombay, Delhi, Madras 168) The Indian President is
2) Madras and Bombay 1) Fictional executive 2) Titular executive
3) Bombay, Madras, Calcutta 3) Real executive 4) Real/Titular executive
4) Delhi and Calcutta 169) The minimum age required for becoming the
158) The President is elected for a period of five Prime Minister of India is
years and his term of office is calculated from 1) 30 years 2) 35 years
the 3) 40 years 4) 25 years
1) Last day of the month he assumes charge 170) The President may for violation of the
2) Date of his election result Constitution be removed from the office by
3) Day he assumes charge 1) The Prime Minister
4) First day of the month he assumes charge 2) The Electoral College consisting of members of
Parliament and the State Legislatures.
 3) Process of Impeachment 180) Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and
4) A vote of no- confidence vote Kashmir?
171) In which of the following situations does the 1) Chief Minister of the State
President act in his own discretion? 2) Prime Minister
1) In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers 3) Chief Justice of the High Court
for reconsideration 4) President
2) Imposing Presidents Rule in a State 181) The President of India can be removed from
3) In appointing the Council of Ministers his office by the
4) Both of these 1) Parliament 2) Chief Justice of India
172) The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Minister, 3) Prime Minister 4) Lok Sabha
Chief Minister and Council of Ministers are all 182) If the President returns a Bill sent to him for
members of his assent and the Parliament once again
1) National Development Council passes the Bill in its original form, then the
2) Inter State Council President
3) Planning Commission 1) Can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on
4) State Integration Council the bill
173) The President's Rule in a state means that the 2) Gives assent to the bill
state is ruled by 3) Can once again return the bill for further
1) A caretaker government reconsideration
2) The Chief Minister nominated by the President 4) Can ask for a referendum on the bill
3) The Governor of the State 183) If a Minister loses a no- confidence motion,
4) The President directly then
174) The Chief - Minister of a Union Territory 1) Lok Sabha is dissolved
whenever such a set up exists, is appointed by 2) Only Prime Minister and that Minister resigns.
1) The Lt. Governor 3) The whole Council of Ministers resigns
4) The Minister resigns
2) The majority party in the legislature
184) The only instance when the President of India
3) The President
exercised his power of veto related to the
4) The Prime Minister
1) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
175) Under what article of the Constitution of India 2) Dowry Prohibition Bill 3) Hindu Code Bill
can the President take over the administration 4) PEPSU Appropriation Bill
of a state in case its constitutional machinery 185) The control of the preparation of electoral
breaks down? rolls for parliament and legislature vests with
1) Art. 352 2) Art. 343 the
3) Art. 356 4) Art. 83 1) President 2) Election Commission
176) The President can make laws through 3) Cabinet 4) Prime Minister
ordinances 186) What is contained in the tenth schedule of the
1) Only on subjects contained in the concurrent list constitution?
2) Under no circumstances 1) Languages recognised by constitution
3) On certain subjects even when Parliament is in 2) Forms of oath or affirmation
session. 3) Laws that cannot be challenged in any court of
4) During the recess of the Parliament law
177) Which of the following qualification is not 4) Provision regarding disqualification on grounds of
essential for a person to become the Vice- defection
President? 187) The Election commission holds election for
1) He must be an Indian. 1) The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of
the president and the Vice-President
2) He must be qualified to be a member of the
Rajya Sabha. 2) The parliament, State legislative Assemblies and
the State Council 3) The Parliament
3) He must not be less than 35 years.
4) The parliament and the State Legislative
4) He must be a graduate.
Assemblies
178) How many types of Emergency have been 188) For Election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination
visualised in the Constitution of India? paper can be field by
1) Four 2) Three 1) Any citizen of India
3) One 4) Two 2) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the
179) The impeachment proceedings against the electoral roll of a Constituency
Vice- President can be initiated 3) Anyone residing in India
1) Only in Lok Sabha 4) A resident of the Constituency from which the
2) In neither Hosue of Parliament election to be contested
3) In either House of Parliament 189) In India, political parties are given
4) Only in Rajya Sabha recognition by
 1) Election Commission 2) Speaker of Lok Sabha
3) President 4) Law Commission ANSWER KEY
190) The Vice President is elected by an Electoral
College consisting of members of Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.
1) Both Houses of Parliament and state legislative 1 4 2 3 3 3 4 1 5 4
2) Both Houses of Parliament
3) Lok Sabha 4) Rajya Sabha 6 1 7 3 8 2 9 1 10 1
191) The election Commission does not conduct the 11 1 12 4 13 1 14 2 15 1
elections to the
16 3 17 3 18 2 19 3 20 3
1) Lok Sabha 2) President's election
3) Rajya Sabha 4) Local Bodies 21 1 22 2 23 1 24 2 25 2
192) The maximum age prescribed for election as
26 4 27 3 28 1 29 3 30 2
president is
1) No such Limit 2) 62 years 31 1 32 1 33 4 34 2 35 3
3) 58 years 4) 60 years 36 4 37 4 38 4 39 3 40 1
193) The power to decide an election petition is
vested in the 41 4 42 3 43 4 44 4 45 2
1) High Court 2) Election Commission 46 1 47 4 48 2 49 3 50 1
3) Parliament 4) Supreme Court
194) To elect the President of India, which one of 51 2 52 1 53 1 54 1 55 3
the following election procedures is used? 56 2 57 1 58 3 59 4 60 2
1) System of proportional representation by means
of the single transferable vote 61 3 62 3 63 4 64 1 65 1
2) Secondary voting system 66 1 67 1 68 2 69 1 70 3
3) Proportional representation through list system
71 2 72 1 73 4 74 4 75 3
4) Collective Voting system
195) In which year were the first general election 76 2 77 2 78 4 79 2 80 2
held in India?
81 2 82 1 83 3 84 4 85 1
1) 1950-51 2) 1948-49
3) 1951-52 4) 1947-48 86 4 87 4 88 3 89 4 90 4
196) Election to the house of the people and the 91 1 92 2 93 4 94 4 95 2
Legislative Assemblies of States in India are
conducted on the basis of 96 2 97 3 98 4 99 2 100 1
1) Single Transferable vote 101 1 102 3 103 1 104 1 105 3
2) Propotional Representation
3) Limited sufferage 4) Adult Franchise 106 3 107 3 108 4 109 2 110 2
197) Who appoints the Chief Election 111 3 112 3 113 1 114 1 115 1
Commissioner of India?
116 3 117 1 118 1 119 2 120 4
1) Chief Justice of India 2) President
3) Prime Minister 121 1 122 1 123 4 124 2 125 2
4) Parliament 126 2 127 4 128 3 129 1 130 4
198) Which among the following is not a part of the
electoral reforms? 131 1 132 3 133 2 134 1 135 3
1) Installation of electronic voting machines 136 4 137 2 138 2 139 3 140 2
2) Appoinment of election Commissioner
3) Registration of Political parties 141 2 142 3 143 2 144 2 145 2
4) Disqualifying the offenders 146 4 147 3 148 4 149 2 150 3
199) Recognition to a political party is accorded by
151 2 152 1 153 2 154 1 155 4
1) The Election Commission
2) A Committee of Whips 156 3 157 3 158 3 159 1 160 4
3) The ministry of parliament Affours
161 1 162 1 163 2 164 2 165 3
4) The speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of
national Parties and the Speaker of Legislative 166 4 167 1 168 2 169 4 170 3
assemblies in the case of regional parties 171 1 172 1 173 3 174 1 175 3
200) The Chief Minister of a state in India is not
eligible to vote in the Presidential election if 176 4 177 4 178 2 179 4 180 4
1) He is a member of the Upper House of the State 181 1 182 2 183 3 184 1 185 2
Legislature 186 4 187 1 188 2 189 1 190 2
2) He is a caretaker Chief Minister 191 4 192 1 193 2 194 1 195 3
3) He himself is a candidate
196 4 197 2 198 1 199 1 200 1
4) He is an political member
SPECIAL MCQS ON
INDIAN POLITY
1) Constitution is generally defined as: a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
a) Law of the land. c) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. d) Sardal Patel
b) Fundamental law of the land. 11) The Indian Constitution is
c) Administrative law of the land. I. an unwritten Constitution
d) Constitutional law of the land. II. a written Constitution.
2) Which of the following has been considered III. largely based on the Government of India
supreme as a source of power? Act, 1935.
a) Supreme Court of India. IV. a gift of British Parliament.
b) Parliament of India. Of these statements:
c) President of India. d) Constitution of India. a) II and IV are correct. b) II and III are correct.
3) What is the chief source of political power in c) I and IV are correct. d) I and III are correct.
India? 12) Among the following provisions, which one
a) The people. b) The Constitution. come into force soon after adoption of the
Constitution on 26th November, 1949?
c) The Parliament.
a) Provisions relating to citizenship.
d) The Parliament and State Legislatures.
b) Elections.
4) Who is the source of legal authority or
sovereignty in India? c) Provisional Parliament d) All of the above
a) People of India. b) Constitution of India. 13) The salient features of the Indian Constitution
provide for
c) Parliament of India. d) President of India.
I. single citizenship for the whole of India.
5) Ultimate sovereignty lies in:
II. strictly federal form of Government.
a) Parliament. b) President.
III. unique blend of rigidity and flexibility.
c) Supreme Court. d) People.
Of the above statements:
6) On which date Constitution of India was
adopted and enacted by the Constituent a) I, II and III are correct. b) I and II are correct.
Assembly? c) II and III are correct. d) I and III are correct.
a) August 15, 1947. b) January 26, 1950. 14) Which one of the following is not a salient
c) November 26, 1949. d) January 30, 1948. feature of the Constitutions of India?
7) Indian Constitution came into force on: a) Written Constitution and supremacy of the
Constitution
a) 26 Jan 1949. b) 26 Jan 1950.
b) Quasi-federal structure. c) Committed judiciary.
c) 15 Nov 1950. d) 15 Aug 1947.
d) Distribution of powers.
8) The members of the Constituent Assembly
were 15) The Constitution of India is:
a) directly elected by the people. a) Partly rigid and partly flexible.
b) nominated by the Indian National Congress. b) Rigid
c) nominated by the rulers of the Indian States. c) Flexible. d) Very rigid.
d) elected by the Provincial Assemblies. 16) The President of India has the same
Constitutional authority as the:
9) Provincial Constitution Committee of the
Constituent Assembly had been chaired by: a) British Monarch b) President of U.S.A.
a) Jawahar Lal Nehru. b) Sardar Patel. c) President of Egypt. d) President of Russia.
c) Bishwanath Das. d) None of these. 17) In a Parliamentary system the Executive is
responsible:
10) Who of the following was the Permanent
Chairman of the Constituent Assembly? a) Directly to the people. b) To legislature.
 c) To judiciary. d) None of the above. 26) Our Constitution provides for the Constitution
18) India has Parliamentary Democracy because: of the:
a) Of distribution of power between the Centre and a) Union.
the States. b) Union and all the States.
b) The Council of Ministers is responsible to the c) Union and all the States except Jammu & Kashmir.
Legislature. d) Organs of Governments of Union and the States.
c) The Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by the 27) Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares
public. India a Union of States. The territory of this
d) Of a single constitutional framework. Union of States comprises:
19) Which one of the following determines that a) Union and States.
the Indian Constitution is Federal? b) Union territories and States.
a) A written and rigid Constitution. c) States, Union territories, and States which may
b) An independent Judiciary. join the Union.
c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre. d) States, Union territories and Territories which may
d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and be acquired.
the States. 28) In which year, Sikkim was associated in the
20) Which one of the following is the mandatory Indian Union?
minimum requirement for a functional a) 1947. b) 1975.
federation? c) 1985. d) 1871.
a) States should be represented in the Upper House 29) Dealing with the Chapter of Citizenship under
of the National Legislature. the Constitution, the Supreme Court has held
b) Judicial Review. that Sonia Gandhi, the President of Congress
c) Distribution of legislative and administrative (I) is not an Italian citizen, but is an Indian
powers between the two sets of Governments, citizen because she is governed by:
National and State, so as to ensure the a) Article 10. b) Article 11.
Independence of the Governments within their c) The Citizenship Act, 1955. d) None of the above.
respective spheres.
30) The concept of Panchayati Raj has been
d) Distribution of legislative and administrative power introduced in our Constitution by the insertion
between the two sets of Governments, National and of:
State, to ensure independent but coordinated
a) Article 123. b) Article 300A.
exercise of powers of the Government.
c) Article 243. d) None of the above.
21) The structure of the Indian Constitution is
31) The Panchayati Raj Administration is primarily
a) federal in form and unitary in spirit.
aimed:
b) unitary.
a) To increase agricultural production.
c) unitary in form and federal in spirit.
b) To ensure real development.
d) purely federal.
c) To work for the upliftment of Harijans.
22) The Constitution of India has created:
d) To arouse in the people of each area intensive
a) A very weak centre. and continuous interest in the community
b) A very strong centre. development programme.
c) A centre which is weak in normal times but very 32) Panchayati Raj System was adopted to:
strong during emergencies. a) Make people aware of politics.
d) None of these. b) Decentralize the power of democracy.
23) At the time of Emergency, the Indian State c) Educate the peasants.
become from
d) To introduce a form of local self-government at
a) Federal, Unitary. b) Unitary, Federal. the village, block and district levels.
c) Unitary, Unitary. 33) Panchayati Raj, as introduced in 1959,
d) Unitary, Quasi-federal. operates at:
24) The Constitution establishes a System of a) Samiti and Block Levels.
Government which is almost quasi-federal. b) Block and District Levels.
This was a statement of:
c) Samiti and District Levels.
a) Sir Jennings. b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
d) Village, Block and District Levels.
c) Prof. K.C. Wheare. d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
34) Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the
25) The Constitution of India describes India as: two States; one was Rajasthan, the other was:
a) A federation. b) Quasi-federal. a) Maharashtra. b) Gujarat.
c) A Union of States. d) None of these. c) Andhra Pradesh. d) Tamil Nadu.
35) The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 c) Twelve. d) Eleven.
refers to the: 45) Match List I and List II and select the correct
a) Generation of gainful employment for the answer by using the codes given below the
unemployed and the under-employed men and lists:
women in rural area.
b) Generation of employment for the able bodied List-I List-II
adults who are in need and desirous of work during (Features of the Indian Constitution) (Borrowed from)
the lean agricultural season.
I. Fundamental Rights. A. UK.
c) Laying the foundation for strong and vibrant
II. Parliamentary System of
Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country.
Government. B. USA.
d) Guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of
III. Emergency provisions. C. Ireland.
person, equality before law and equal protection
without discrimination. IV. Directive Principles of State Policy.
D. German Reich.
36) In whose time period, the Panchayats were E. Canada.
given the constitutional status? a) I-B, II-D, III-E, IV-A. b) I-E, II-A, III-D, IV-C.
a) Rajiv Gandhi. b) Chandrashekhar. c) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C. d) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C.
c) V.P. Singh. d) P.V. Narsimha Rao. 46) The Constitution of India borrowed the
37) The 73rd Amendment provides a __ tier system scheme of Indian Federation from the
of Panchayats: Constitution of:
a) Three. b) Four. a) USA. b) Canada.
c) Two. d) One. c) USSR. d) UK.
38) How Many seats are reserved in all Panchayats 47) The framers of the Constitution borrowed the
at all levels for women? idea of judicial review from the Constitution
of:
a) One-fourth. b) One-third.
a) France. b) USA.
c) One-half. d) None of the above.
c) United Kingdom. d) None of the above.
39) The tenure of all Panchayats at all levels is:
48) Which one of the following feature was not
a) One year. b) Two years.
borrowed by the Indian Constitution from the
c) Four years. d) Five years. British Constitution?
40) If a new State of the Indian Union is to be a) Parliamentary system of Government.
created, which one of the following Scheduled
b) Rule of Law. c) Election provisions.
of the Constitution must be amended?
d) None of the above.
a) First. b) Second.
49) Which part of the Constitution of India talks
c) Third. d) Fifth.
about the Municipalities?
41) Which one of the following statements
a) Part IX. b) Part IX (A).
correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India? c) Part X. d) Part X (A).
a) It lists the distribution of powers between the 50) It is often said that the key to the minds of the
Union and the States. makers of our Constitution lies in the:
b) It contains the languages listed in the a) Preamble. b) Fundamental Rights.
Constitution. c) Fundamental Duties.
c) It contains the provisions regarding the d) Directive Principles of State Policy.
administration of tribal areas. 51) The aims and objectives of the Constitution
d) It allocates seats in the Council of States. have been enshrined in
42) The Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution a) the Preamble.
contains the: b) the Chapter of Fundamental Rights.
a) Fundamental Rights. b) Directive Principles. c) the Chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy.
c) A list of languages recognized by the Constitution. d) all of the above.
d) Number of States and Union Territories. 52) Preamble to the Constitution of India
43) Which one of the following Schedules of the a) is not a part of the Constitution.
Constitution of India contains provisions
regarding Anti-Defection Act? b) indicates the objectives to be achieved.
a) Second Schedule. b) Fifth Schedule. c) indicates the source from which the Constitution
derives its authority.
c) Eighth Schedule. d) Tenth Schedule.
d) is a source of authority of the Constitution of
44) When Constitution was framed, the number of India.
Schedules were:
53) The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is
a) Eight. b) Ten.
 a) not a part of the Constitution. c) Belief in one God.
b) a part of the Constitution; but it neither confers d) Practising different religions.
any powers not impose any duties not can it be of 61) The term socialist used in the Preamble
any use in interpreting other provisions of the means a State whose basic policy is to
Constitution.
a) prohibit concentration of wealth.
c) a part of the Constitution and can be of use in
b) distribute equitably the natural resources.
interpreting other provisions of the Constitution in
cases of ambiguity. c) prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the
living standards of people.
d) a part of the Constitution and it confers powers
and imposes duties as any other provision of the d) prohibit concentration of wealth and distribute
Constitution. equitably the natural resources.
54) The source of we the people in the Preamble 62) The term Social Justice used in the Preamble
is: to the Constitution of India means:
a) United States. b) United Kingdom. a) Removal of economic inequality.
c) United Nations. d) None. b) Provision for decent standard of living and
removal of social inequality.
55) The following are enshrined in the Preamble to
the Constitution of India: c) Removal of inequality, raising standard of living
and protection of interests of weaker sections.
1. Equality of status and opportunity.
d) Protection of interests of weaker sections and
2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith
removal of economic inequality.
and worship.
63) The word Sovereign in the Preamble of the
3. Justice-social, economic and political.
Constitution of India emphasizes that India is:
4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the
a) A democratic and republic country.
individual.
b) No more dependent upon any outside authority.
5. Unity and integrity of the Nation
c) Internally empowered to rule within the State
Which one of the following is the correct
territory.
order in which they appear in the preamble?
d) Not bound by external commands and the
a) 5 1 2 4 3. b) 3 2 1 4 5.
Government of India is equipped with the power to
c) 3 1 2 5 4. d) 1 2 4 3 5. rule within India.
56) Which one of the following is in correct order 64) Liberty, Equality and Fraternity is a slogan
in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution? associated with
a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, a) American war of Independence.
Republic.
b) Chinese Revolution. c) French Revolution.
b) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist, Democratic,
d) Russian Revolution.
Republic.
65) The Preamble to the Constitution of India
c) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Secular, Republic.
secures Justice, Liberty, Equality and
d) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Socialist, Fraternity to
Republic.
a) all persons.
57) The text of the preamble of the Constitution of
b) those who reside within the territory of India.
India aims to secure
c) all citizens.
a) fundamental rights to all individuals.
d) those citizens who reside within the territory of
b) fundamental duties of citizens of India.
India.
c) dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of
66) Which one of the following pairs is correctly
the nation.
matched?
d) security of service to government servants.
a) Republic: Head of the State is hereditary
58) Which amendment of the Constitution has monarch.
added the words, Secular and Integrity in
b) Sovereign: Constitution rests on the peoples will.
the Preamble to the Constitution?
c) Democratic: Constitution does not recognize legal
a) 1st Amendment Act. b) 24th Amendment Act.
supremacy of another country.
c) 42nd Amendment Act. d) 44th Amendment Act.
d) Secular: State is without any religion of its own.
59) How many times has the Preamble of the
67) Who described the Part III of the Indian
Constitution of India been amended so far?
Constitution as most criticized part of the
a) Twice. b) Thrice. Constitution?
c) Once. d) Never. a) Jawahar Lal Nehru. b) B.R. Ambedkar.
60) The word secular denotes: c) Dr. Rajender Prasad. d) B.N. Rau.
a) Keeping away from all religions.
b) Freedom of religion and worship to all citizens.
68) The original Constitution classified 78) A law, which abridges Fundamental Rights, is
Fundamental Rights into seven categories, but not a nullity but remains inoperative till the
now shadow of Fundamental Rights falls over such
a) there are six. b) there are five. rights. This is known as the doctrine of:
c) there are eight. a) Pleasure. b) Pith and substance.
d) they have been regrouped in three categories- c) Eclipse. d) Severability.
social, economic and political. 79) Under the Constitution the Doctrine of eclipse
69) Right to Property in India is: applies
a) Fundamental Right. b) Legal Right. a) only to the pre-constitutional laws but only in
respect of non-citizens.
c) Constitutional Right. d) None of the above
b) to the post-constitutional laws but only in respect
70) Right to property has been taken away from
of non-citizens.
Fundamental rights a placed in Article 300 A
through: c) to the post-constitutional laws in respect of
citizens only.
a) 24th Amendment. b) 42nd Amendment.
d) to all laws, pre-constitutional and post-
c) 39th Amendment. d) 44th Amendment.
constitutional.
71) Which one of the following has been wrongly
80) Legal equality under the Constitution of
listed as a special feature of Fundamental
India implies that
Rights in India?
a) there should be equality amongst equals and
a) Fundamental Rights are subject to reasonable
inequality among inequals.
restrictions.
b) everybody is equal before law.
b) Fundamental Rights are more sacrosanct than
rights granted by ordinary laws. c) the State cannot enact different laws for different
groups of people.
c) Fundamental Rights are justiciable and can be
enforced through Supreme Court. d) there should be no special law for any category of
people.
d) Fundamental Rights can be waived by a person.
81) The right to equality before the law
72) Fundamental rights are based on the:
contained in Article 14 of the Constitution of
a) Bill of Rights (U.S.A). India is available to:
b) Bill of Rights (U.S.A.) with in-built limitations. a) Natural persons only.
c) Bill of Rights (U.K.). b) Legal persons only.
d) Bill of Rights (Canada). c) Citizens of India.
73) Fundamental Rights secured to the d) All persons whether natural or legal.
citizen/individuals is protected against:
82) Who is exception to equality before law
a) State action. (Article 14)?
b) State as well as private action. a) President. b) Governors.
c) Against individual. d) All of the above. c) Both. d) None.
74) Fundamental Rights are: 83) Indian Constitution permits discrimination on
a) Negative rights. b) Restrictive rights. the basis of:
c) Limited rights. d) All of the above. a) Sex only. b) Caste and sex only.
75) Who enjoys the right to impose reasonable c) Caste, sex and place of birth.
restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of d) Not on any ground.
Indian citizens?
84) Reservation of seats in educational
a) The Supreme Court. b) The Parliament. institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and
c) The President. d) None of these. Scheduled Tribes is governed by:
76) Whether judiciary is the part of the other a) Article 15(4) of the constitution.
authority in Art. 12 of the Constitution? b) Article 16(4) of the constitution.
a) Yes. b) No. c) Article 29(2) of the constitution.
c) Both depend upon circumstances. d) Article 14 of the constitution.
d) None of the above. 85) Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds
77) When an enactment is of such a nature that no only of:
separation is possible between inconsistent a) Religion, Race, Caste, Sex, Place of birth,
and consistent part: Residence or any of them.
a) Whole Act will be operative. b) Religion, Race, Caste, Sex, Place of birth.
b) Whole Act will be inoperative. c) Religion, Race, Caste, Sex, Place of birth or any of
c) The Act will neither be operative nor inoperative. them.
d) None of the above. d) None of the above.
86) Prohibition against discrimination under Select the correct answer using the code given
Article 15 is for: below:
a) Persons. b) Citizens. a) 1 only. b) 1 and 2.
c) Citizens as well as non-citizens. c) 1 and 4. d) 2 and 3.
d) Persons except aliens. 93) Tamil Nadu Reservation Act providing 69%
87) For which of the following, can special reservation has been placed in which Schedule
provisions be made under Article 15 of the of the Constitutions?
Constitution of India? a) Sixth. b) Seventh.
1) Women and children. c) Eighth. d) Ninth.
2) Scheduled Tribes. 94) Under which of the following the
3) Economically backward classes. Untouchability has been declared abolished
in India?
4) Socially backward classes.
a) Protection of Civil Rights Act.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: b) Schedule Castes and Schedule Tribes (Prevention
of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
a) 1, 2 and 4. b) 1 and 3.
c) Constitution of India.
c) 2, 3 and 4. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) By all the above three
88) Through which of the following provisions,
does the Constitution of India explicitly 95) Which of the following is included in Art, 19
prohibit racial discrimination in India: (1)(a):
a) Article 14 and 17. b) Article 17 and 23. a) Right to know. b) Right to reply.
c) Article 15 and 16. d) Article 17 only. c) Right to silence. d) All of the above.
89) Article 16 provides equally of opportunity in
matters of public employment for:
ANSWER KEY
a) All citizens. b) All persons.
c) All persons except aliens.
Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A
d) Citizen as well as non-citizens.
1 B 2 D 3 A 4 B 5 D
90) Under Article 16(4) State is empowered to 6 C 7 B 8 D 9 B 10 B
make provisions for reservations of 11 B 12 D 13 D 14 C 15 A
appointments and posts for: 16 A 17 B 18 B 19 D 20 C
a) Backward class of citizens. 21 A 22 B 23 D 24 C 25 C
b) SCs/STs. 26 C 27 D 28 B 29 C 30 C
31 D 32 D 33 D 34 C 35 C
c) Economically backward classes. 36 D 37 A 38 B 39 D 40 A
d) Socially and educationally backward class of 41 D 42 C 43 D 44 A 45 C
citizens. 46 B 47 B 48 C 49 B 50 A
91) After the judgement of the Supreme Court in 51 A 52 C 53 C 54 C 55 B
Mandal case, it has been observed that The 56 A 57 C 58 C 59 C 60 B
poisonous weed of casteism has been 61 D 62 B 63 D 64 C 65 C
replanted where it will trouble us a thousand 66 B 67 B 68 A 69 B 70 D
years. Each age will have to consider it. This 71 D 72 B 73 A 74 D 75 B
76 A 77 B 78 C 79 D 80 A
was observed by:
81 D 82 C 83 D 84 A 85 C
a) Prof. Upendra Baxi. b) N.A. Palkhiwala. 86 B 87 A 88 C 89 A 90 D
c) Ram Jethmalani. 91 B 92 A 93 D 94 C 95 D
d) Justice P.N. Bhagwati.
92) Which of the following sections of citizens
should be excluded from the benefits of
reservations according to the principle of
Creamy Layer as propounded by the Supreme
Court in the Mandal Commission judgement?
1. Advanced sections among the Other
Backward Classes.
2. Advanced sections among the Scheduled
Castes.
3. Advanced sections among the Scheduled
Tribes.
4. Advanced sections among the economically
backward classes.