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Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

1. Which botanist introduced the 'Binomial' nomenclature to the plants?

(a) Bessey

(b) Bentham and Hooker

(c) Carolus Linnaeus

(d) Theophrastus

2. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) So as to prevent oxygenated blood from mixing with deoxygenated blood birds and mammals
have four-chambered hearts.

(b) Amphibians and some reptiles tolerate some mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood and
therefore have three-chambered hearts.

(c) Fishes have only two chambered hearts as here blood is pumped to gills to get oxygenated which
then pass to the rest of the body.

(a) (a) and (b)

(b) (b) and (c)

(c) (a) and (c)

(d) (a), (b) and (c)

3. Some marine animals and insects emit light from their body in darkness. This phenomenon is
known as:

(a) Phosphorescence

(b) Bioluminescence

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

4. Female reproductive part of flower is known as

(a) Pistil

(b) Stamen

(c) Pedicel

(d) Gametes

5. The sweet taste of fruits is due to

(a) Lactose
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(b) Fructose

(c) Maltose

(d) Ribose

6. Which of the following is not an insectivorous plant?

(a) Nepenthes

(b) Utricularia

(c) Drosera

(d) Cuscuta

7. Sun-loving plants are

(a) Halophytes

(b) Sciophytes

(c) Heliophytes

(d) Autotrophs

8. Which of the following gases is absorbed by the plant in the process of photosynthesis?

(a) Hydrogen

(b) Oxygen

(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Nitrogen

9. Deficiency of iron is common in which type of soils?

(a) Acidic soils

(b) Calcareous soils

(c) Saline soils

(d) Alkaline soils

10. Which animal tissue synthesizes, stores and metabolizes fat?

(a) Epithelial tissue

(b) Adipose tissue

(c) Connective tissue


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(d) Muscle tissue

11. Viruses are:

(a) Unicellular organisms

(b) Cellular without cell well

(c) Multicellular organisms

(d) Non-cellular organisms

12. Which one among the following statements is correct?

(a) Prokaryotic cells possess nucleus.

(b) Cell membrane is present both in plant and animal cells.

(c) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are not found in eukaryotic cells.

(d) Ribosomes are present in eukaryotic cells only.

l3. Viruses are parasitic, having DNA/RNA but they can be crystallized and lack respiration. Thus they
are treated as

(a) Living materials

(b) Non-living materials

(c) Both living and non-living materials

(d) Cellulose

14. Within an animal cell, the most abundant inorganic constituent of protoplasm is

(a) Sodium and potassium salt

(b) Water

(c) Iron

(d) Phosphate

15. In honey, which one among the following sugars predominates?

(a) Sucrose

(b) Fructose

(c) Galactose

(d) Maltose
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16. Which one among the following groups is the most abundant in terms of number of species
identified?

(a) Fungi

(b) Green plants

(c) Bacteria

(d) Insects

17. A fertilizer contains 20% nitrogen by mass. To provide a fruit tree with an equivalent of 1 kg of
nitrogen, the quantity of fertilizer required is

(a) 20 kg

(b) 0.20 kg

(c) 0.05 kg

(d) 5 kg

18. Which one among the following statements is not true for mammals?

(a) They possess hair on the body.

(b) Some of them lay eggs.

(c) Their heart is three-chambered.

(d) Some are aquatic.

19. Among the following animals, choose the one having three pairs of legs.

(a) Spider

(b) Scorpion

(c) Bug

(d) Mite

20. Animal cell wall is essentially made of:

(a) Protein

(b) Carbohydrate

(c) Lipid bilayer

(d) Cellulose

21. Consider the following statements describing the functions of plants :


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

1. Photosynthesis is a process to convert light energy from the Sun into chemical energy, i.e.,
carbohydrates are synthesized from carbon dioxide and water using sun light

2. Fermentation or Zymology is a metabolic process that converts carbohydrate to alcohols and car

bon dioxide Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

22. Which of the following is the correct combination of subcellular structures in order of their
relative size found in plant and animal cells?

(a) Nucleus> Mitochondria> Chloroplast : Chromosomes

(b) Nucleus> Chromosomes > Mitochondria Chloroplast

(c) Chloroplast> Nucleus Chromosomes> Mitochondria

(d) Chloroplast - > Nucleus> Mitochondria > Chromosomes

23. Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

(a) Potential energy is released to form free energy

(b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored

(c) Food is oxidised to release carbon dioxide and water

(d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out

24. The following phenomenon is overcome by somatic hybridization:

(a) Organ differentiation

(b) Sexual incompatibility

(c) Embryo sterility

(d) Dormancy

25. The main excretory organ of insects is

(a) Kidneys

(b) Nephridia

(c) Malpighian tubules


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(d) Fat bodies

26. Banana is a:

(a) Tree

(b) Herb

(c) Undershrub

(d) Shrub

27. Seeds are not enclosed in fruits in:

(a) Angiosperms

(b) Dicotyledons

(c) Monocotyledons

(d) Gymnosperms

28. is the bird which can fly backwards.

(a) Cuckoo

(b) Eagle

(c) Humming bird

(d) Wood pecker

29. Which of the following terms is used in botany?

(a) Recession

(b) Dumping

(c) Barter System

(d) Cartel

(e) Biennial

30. A gene is a

(a) Sleep-inducing drug

(b) Unit of heredity

(c) A kind of vitamin

(d) A type of body cell


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31. The green colour leaves is due to the presence of

(a) Metallic ions

(b) Haemoglobin

(c) Iron

(d) Chlorophyll

32. Which of the following gases is given out during photosynthesis?

(a) Oxygen

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Nitrogen

(d) Hydrogen

33. Which is not an insect among the following?

(a) Butterfly

(b) Cockroach

(c) Mosquito

(d) Spider

34. What is mushroom?

(a) Fungi

(b) Plant

(c) Animal

(d) Bacteria

35. Genes, the hereditary units, are located in the

(a) Nuclear membrane

(b) Chromosomes

(c) Lysosomes

(d) Cell membrane

36. An essential feature of seed germination is the presence of

(a) Minerals
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(b) Water

(c) Light

(d) Temperature

37. The pigment that protects plants from UV damage is

(a) Phycocyanin

(b) Carotenoids

(c) Chlorophyll

(d) Xanthophyll

38. Which of the following acts as photosensitizer during photosynthesis?

(a) Oxygen

(b) Nitrogen

(c) Chlorophyll

(d) Chlorine

39. Which of the following group is present in animal cells?

(a) Mitochondria, cell membrane, cell wall, cytoplasm

(b) Chloroplasts, cytoplasm, vacuole, nucleus

(c) Nucleus, cell membrane, mitochondria, cytoplasm

(d) Vacuole, cell membrane, nucleus, mitochondria

40. How do marine animals survive in water without air contact?

(a) They do not require any oxygen

(b) They take oxygen from water

(c) They only produce oxygen in their body

(d) They get oxygen from water plants

41. Which one of the following is called the amphibian in plantkingdom?

(a) Algae

(b) Fungi

(c) Bryophyte
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(d) Pteridophyta

42. Which of the following structures of a plant is responsible for transpiration?

(a) Xylem

(b) Root

(c) Stomata

(d) Bark

43. The site of cellular respiration in animal cell is

(a) Ribosome

(b) Mitochondria

(c) Endoplasmic reticulum

(d) Lysosome

44. Mule is a hybrid of

(a) Male donkey and female horse

(b) Female donkey and male horse

(c) Male stallion and female yak

(d) Male, yak and female horse

45. Chlorophyll is a porphyrin containing

(a) Magnesium

(b) Calcium

(c) Iron

(d) Tin

46. Which of the following statements about blue green algae is/are true?

I. The cells of blue green algae are prokaryotic

II. The storage food product of blue green algae is laminar in

III. The membrane bound plastids are absent in the cells of blue green algae

IV. Flagella are absent in blue green algae

(a) II and IV
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(b) I and II

(c) II and III

(d) I, III and IV

47. Which one of the following elements is present in green pigment of leaf?

(a) Magnesium

(b) Phosphorus

(c) Iron

(d) Calcium

48. Which of the following does not possess a specialized conducting tissue for transport of water
and other substances in plants?

(a) Marchantia

(b) Marsilea

(c) Cycas

(d) Fern

49. Chlorosis in plants occurs due to deficiency in magnesium. This is due to

(a) Inability of plants to make chlorophyll

(b) Ionic imbalance of chloride

(c) Reduced water absorption through roots

(d) Weakening of stems

50. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a
symbiotic association of

(a) Algae and bacteria

(b) Algae and fungi

(c) Bacteria and fungi

(d) Fungi and mosses

51. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.

2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

3. Vegetative propagation can be practised most of the year. Select the correct answer using the
code given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2and3

52. Consider the following techniques/ phenomena:

1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants

2. Cytoplasmic male sterility

3. Gene silencing Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None

53. Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other th ree?

(a) Crab

(b) Mite

(c) Scorpion

(d) Spider

54. Consider the following:

1. Bats

2. Bears

3. Rodents

The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1,2 and 3

(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

55. Among terrestrial animals, which animal has the longest gestation period?

(a) Rhino

(b) Elephant

(c) Karnataka

(d) Haryana

56. The type of association between an alga and fungus, wherein the fungus has the upper hand is
known as

(a) Helotism

(b) Saprophytism

(c) Parasitism

(d) All of the above

57. If you walk through country side, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to
seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is/are such
bird/birds?

1. Painted stork

2. Common myna

3. Black-necked crane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

58. Syzygium aromaticum is the botanical name for

(a) Cloves

(b) Cardamom

(c) Pepper

(d) Cumin seeds

59. The rootless plant is:

(a) Lemna
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(b) Banana

(c) Ginger

(d) Lemon

60. The medicinal plant used in preparations for skin care is:

(a) Cinchona

(b) Ainla

(c) Aloe vera

(d) Rauwolfia

61. Which of the following is not a waste product produced by plants?

(a) Water vapour

(b) Oxygen

(c) Gum Arabic

(d) Carbon dioxide

62. Urinary bladder is absent in

(a) Lizard

(b) Pigeon

(c) Cat

(d) Bat

63. Root pressure is due to

(a) Increased transpiration

(b) Active absorption

(c) Passive absorption

(d) Increased turgidity

64. One of the given is known as man of the forest:

(a) Chimpanzee

(b) Gibbon

(c) Gorilla
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(d) Orang-utan

65. Interregnal necrotic spots on leaves appear due to

(a) HF injury

(b) SO, injury

(c) NO, injury

(d) 0, injury

66. Which of the following are essential whorls of the flowers?

(a) Sepal and tepal

(b) Sepal and petal

(c) Androecium and gynoecium

(d) Calyx and stamens

67. The only snake which builds a nest is:

(a) King cobra

(b) Viper

(c) Kraft

(d) Python

68. Cobra emits venom through

(a) Fangs

(b) Tooth

(c) Lower jaw

(d) None

Cell

Historical Background

1. Who is the first to give the name of cell?

(a) Richard Jones

(b) Albert Schweitzer

(c) Robert Hooke


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(d) Robert Brown

2. Who is the first to discover the nucleus of the cell?

(a) Robert Brown

(b) AI bert Schweitzer

(c) Richard Jones

(d) Robert Hooke

3. What is the largest cell size?

(a) 16cm

(b) 18 cm

(c) 12cm

(d) 10 cm

Structure

4. What is the cell reminder?

(a) Protoplasm

(b) Cytoplasm

(c) Nucleus

(d) Plasmalemma

5. is found only in plant cells.

(a) Cell wall

(b) Nucleus

(c) Cell membrane

(d) Ribosomes

6. Which of the following help in synthesis of proteins from amino acids?

(a) Mitochondria

(b) Plastids

(c) Leucoplasts

(d) Ribosomes
Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

7. What help in the formation of cell plate during cell division?

(a) Leucoplasts

(b) Plastids

(c) Mitochondria

(d) Golgi bodies

8. What does mitochondria contain?

(a) Microfilaments

(b) DNA

(c) Chloroplasts

(d) Cell sap

9. What is the reason for the colour of flowers, fruits and leaves?

(a) Non-photosynthetic chromoplasts

(b) Photosynthetic chromoplasts

(c) Leucoplasts

(d) Tonoplast

10. Chromatin which contains DNA, RNA and proteins is present in

(a) Mitochondria

(b) Leucoplasts

(c) Nucleoplasm

(d) Tonoplast

11. Centroids are present in

(a) Ribosomes

(b) Centrosome

(c) Chloroplast

(d) Reticulum

Cell Division

12. What is mitosis?


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(a) Division of nucleus

(b) It is essential for cell multiplication and growth.

(c) Somatic cell division

(d) All the above

13. What is meiosis?

(a) Reduce the number of chromosomes in the cell.

(b) Reductional division

(c) Causes hereditary variation in a species.

(d) All the above

14. What is interphase?

(a) Cell prepare itself for division.

(b) Chromatin material gets organised into chromosomes.

(c) Division of cytoplasm

(d) Division of nucleus ..

15. What is the basic difference between plant and animal cells?

(a) Plant cell is not enclosed by cell wall while animal cell is.

(b) Plant cell is enclosed by cell wall while animal cell is not.

(c) Both cells are enclosed by cell wall.

(d) Both have large sap-filled vacuole.

Classification of the living

Organisations

16. Most modern schemes of classification of living beings are based on the work of

(a) Carl Von Linne

(b) Carl Max

(c) Charles Thomas

(d) R. H. Whittaker

Scientific Nomenclature
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17. Different species having certain common characters are placed in

(a) Order

(b) Genus

(c) Species

(d) Family

18. Who developed the scheme of scientific classification?

(a) R. H. Whittaker

(b) Charles Thomas

(c) Carl Von Linne

(d) Michael Mitchell

19. What is the correct order of classification?

(a) Species -> Genus -> Family -> Order -> Class -> phylum -> Kingdom.

(b) Species -> Genus -> Family-> phylum -> Order -> Class -> Kingdom.

(c) Genus -> Species -> Order-> Family -> Class -> phylum -> Kingdom.

(d) Species -> Family -> Genus-> Order -> Class -> phylum -> Kingdom.

20. Zoological name Musca domestic, what is 'Musca' and 'domestic' called?

(a) Musca - generic name; domestic - specific name

(b) Musca - specific name; domestic - generic name

(c) Musca - genus name; domestic - family name

(d) Musca ~ family name; domestic - genus name

21. What is the family of frog?

(a) Anura

(b) Vertebrae

(c) Candidae

(d) Ranidae

22. Sapiens is the species of

(a) Frogs
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(b) Snakes

(c) Dogs

(d) Humans

23. What is the class of house cat?

(a) Chordata

(b) Mammalia

(c) Candidae

(d) Amphibia

24. Squamata is the order of

(a) King snake

(b) Cat

(c) Dog

(d) Frog

25. What is the species name of monarch butterfly?

(a) Familians

(b) Sapiens

(c) Dannaus plexippus

(d) Pipiens

General Classification

26. Earlier, unicellular organisms are classified under

(a) Monera kingdom

(b) Protista kingdom

(c) Animal kingdom

(d) Plant kingdom

27. Who classified all living organisms into five main kingdoms?

(a) Carl Von Linne

(b) Michael Mitchell


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(c) R. H. Whittaker

(d) Franklin street

28. Which of the following comes under monera kingdom?

(a) Organisms with prokaryotic cells

(b) Unicellular eukaryotes

(c) Multinucleate organisms

(d) Protozoa organisms

29. Which of the following is not the example of fungi kingdom?

(a) Blue green algae

(b) Sac fungi

(c) Bread moulds

(d) Slime moulds

30. Which of the following is not a kingdom?

(a) Ptotista

(b) Fungi

(c) Monera

(d) Algae

Classification of Plant Kingdom

31. Why the colour of rhodophyta is red?

(a) Due to xanthophyll pigment

(b) Due to equisetum

(c) Due to vascular tissue

(d) Due to phycoerythrin

32. The brownish colour of phaeophyta is due to

(a) Xanthophyll pigment

(b) Equisetum

(c) Chlorophyll
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(d) Vascu lar tissue

33. Multicellular plants with vascular tissue belong to kingdom.

(a) Pterophyta

(b) Cycadophyta

(c) Rodophyta

(d) Chlorphyta

34. Plants with large and woody stem, large leaves belong to which kingdom?

(a) Rodophyta

(b) Chlorphyta

(c) Cycadophyta

(d) Phaeophyta

35. Cedrus plant belong to kingdom.

(a) Anthrophyta

(b) Coniferophyta

(c) Phaeophyta

(d) Chlorphyta

36. What are the two major classes of angiosperms?

(a) Hydrophytes and xerophyte

(b) Dicotyledon

(c) Monocotyledons

(d) Both band c

37. What are parasitic plants?

(a) Cannot make their own food

(b) Lack chlorophyll

(c) Depend on other plants for nourishment

(d) All the above

38. What are xerophytes?


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(a) Grow in deserts

(b) Cannot survive without moisture

(c) Grow on other plants

(d) Lack chlorophyll

Modification of Plant Parts

39. Which kind of roots develop from the stem and grow into the soil?

(a) Respiratory roots

(b) Aerial roots

(c) Parasitic roots

(d) Storage roots

40. Trapa roots are the example of

(a) Parasitic roots

(b) Storage roots

(c) Respiratory roots

(d) Assimilatory roots

41. Which one of the following is the example of respiratory roots?

(a) Vanda roots

(b) Cuscuta

(c) Rhizophora

(d) Sweet potato

42. is a modification of stem into large, flat green and fleshy structure that bears leaves into spines.

(a) Tendrils

(b) Epi phytic roots

(c) Cladophyll

(d) None of the above


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43. Match the following:

Root Example

A. Tuber 1. Onions

B. Corn 2. Saffron

C. Bulb 3. Potato

D. Rhizomes 4. Ginger

A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 4 3 2 1

Classification of Animal kingdom

Protozoa

44. What is the organism that performs all functions in itself called?

(a) Metazoa

(b) Protozoa

(c) Anthropoda

(d) Mollusca

Metazoa

45. What is metazoa?

(a) Single-celled organisms

(b) Sac-like multicellular organisms

(c) Multicellular organisms

(d) Free living organisms

46. Which of the following is the example of coelenterata?

(a) Hydra

(b) Ascon
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(c) Liver fluke

(d) Filaria

47. are both parasitic and free living organisms with flat body.

(a) Platyhelminthes

(b) Nemathelminthes

(c) Coelenterata

(d) Annelida

48. Which of the following is not the classification of Anthropoda?

(a) Crustaceans

(b) Insects

(c) Arachnids

(d) Porifera

49. Starfish and sea jelly are the examples of

(a) Spiny-skinned animals

(b) Shell-bearing organisms

(c) Exoskeleton organisms

(d) Organisms having a porus and cylindrical body

50. What is the measurement of the giant squid?

(a) 7 cm

(b) 5 cm

(c) 6 cm

(d) 3 cm

51. What are primitive protochordates?

(a) Animals lack back bones

(b) Animals have tube feet

(c) Organisms with cylindrical body

(d) Both a and c


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52. Labeo and Hippocampus are examples of

(a) Mollusca

(b) Annelida

(c) Anthropoda

(d) Pisces

53. What is the animal whose respiration is done by the skin?

(a) Testudo

(b) Pavo

(c) Rana

(d) Columba

54. What is the reptile that has four-chambered heart?

(a) Tortoise

(b) Crocodile

(c) Cobra

(d) House lizard

55. What is the bird that hardly flies?

(a) Passer

(b) Pavo

(c) Columba

(d) Kiwi

56. What is an example of mammalia?

(a) Macropus

(b) Bufo

(c) Testudo

(d) Naja

57. What is the largest vertebrate with 1,35,000 kg of weight?

(a) Balaena
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(b) Macropus

(c) Canis

(d) Felis

58. What is the second stage of amphibia?

(a) Larva form

(b) Adult stage

(c) Fertilization

(d) Respiration

Important Biological Phenomena

Photosynthesis

59. During photosynthesis, ADP gets converted into

(a) Chlorophyll

(b) Energy

(c) Glucose

(d) ATP

60. During photosynthesis, sunlight converts water and carbon dioxide into

(a) Carbohydrates

(b) Adenosine triphosphate

(c) Oxygen

(d) Hydrogen

Metabolism

61. What is the constructive phase of metabolism?

(a) Catabolism

(b) Anabolism

(c) Excretion

(d) Respiration

62. Which of the following act as a bio catalyst in catabolism?


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(a) Enzymes

(b) Amino acids

(c) Proteins

(d) Carbohydrates

63. What is the process of excretion?

(a) Elimination of water products

(b) Elimination of acids

(c) Elimination of enzymes

(d) Elimination of unwanted enzymes

Respiration

64. What is aerobic respiration?

(a) Internal respiration using oxygen

(b) Internal respiration using enzymes

(c) External respiration using oxygen

(d) External respiration using enzymes

65. Why animals need oxygen?

(a) To survive

(b) To get rid of carbon dioxide

(c) To release the energy present in their body

(d) Both band c

66. Tracheal breathing system was developed by

(a) Insects

(b) Slow-moving animals

(c) Fish

(d) None of the above

Fertilization

67. What is the type of fertilization in frogs?


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(a) Internal

(b) External

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of the above

68. What is the type of fertilization in birds?

(a) External

(b) Internal

(c) Zygotic

(d) None of the above

69. Fertilization in flowering plants is

(a) External

(b) I nterna I

(c) Complex

(d) Both a and b

70. What does the pollen tube contain?

(a) Male reproductive cell

(b) Egg-bearing organism

(c) Ovules

(d) Pollen grains

71. What is the process that sperms shed directly into the female's body?

(a) Complex fertilization

(b) External fertilization

(c) Internal fertilization

(d) Di rect fertilization

Transpiration

72. What is the process of cooling the leaves in hot days?

(a) Respiration
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(b) Anabolism

(c) Transpiration

(d) Catabolism

Biologicol Terminology

Botanical Terms

73. Match the following

Leaf shape Resemble

A. Lance-like 1. Like sharp points

B. Palmate 2. Like football

C. Toothed 3. Like palm of a hand

D. Oval 4. Like spread head

A B C D

(a) 3 2 4 1

(b) 4 3 1 2

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 1 4 3 2

74. What is a small bud found where the leaf connects to the stem?

(a) Stipule

(b) Strobilus

(c) Primary bud

(d) Pistil

75. What is whorled?

(a) Arrangement of Leaves in groups around a central point.

(b) Spiral arrangement of leaves.

(c) Dissimilar arrangement of leaves.

(d) Arrangement of leaves in group around the stem.

76. Having 3 or more veins, leaves, leaflets originating from a central point is called
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(a) Pistle

(b) Rosette

(c) Strobilus

(d) Palmate

77. What is the force that gives the plant rigidity, and may help to keep it erect?

(a) Air pressure

(b) Turgor pressure

(c) Moist pressu re

(d) Rigid pressure

78. What is a synangium?

(a) A cluster of sporangia

(b) A cluster of sporophylls

(c) Paired leaves

(d) Paired buds

79. A tightly clustered group of sporophylls arranged on a central stalk is

(a) Rosette

(b) Synangium

(c) Strobilus

(d) Protostele

80. What is a Paired appendages found at the base of the leaves of many flowering plants?

(a) Palmate

(b) Protostele

(c) Rosette

(d) Stipules

81. When a plant's vascu lar tissue develops as a central cylinder, it is said to have

(a) Siphonostele

(b) Synanqiurn
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(c) Toothed leaves

(d) Palmate leaves

82. A series of whorls of leaves produced at the base of the stem, just above the ground is called

(a) Platyspermic

(b) Rosette

(c) Pycnoxylic

(d) Proto stele

83. Wood in which there is no parenchyma tissue among the xylem is called

(a) Pycnoxylic

(b) Phragmoplast

(c) Megaspore

(d) Caryopsis

84. When a plant's vascular tissue develops in a solid central bundle, it is said to have

(a) Synangium

(b) Rosette

(c) Protostele

(d) Megaspore

85. What is platyspermic?

(a) Having flattened and disc-like seeds

(b) Having oval-shaped seeds

(c) Having cluster of leaves

(d) Having clusters of buds

86. What is pistil composed of?

(a) Vascular tissue

(b) Carpels

(c) Protostele

(d) Different leaflets


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87. What is the cell plate that formed during cell division?

(a) Culm

(b) Lamina

(c) Phragmoplast

(d) Entomophily

88. What is an entomophily?

(a) Seed plants: pollinated by insects.

(b) Flowering plants: pollinated by insects.

(c) Seed plants: pollinated by flies.

(d) Tissue plants: pollinated by insects.

89. What is lamina?

(a) Any flattened region of an alga

(b) Any broad region of plant

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of the above

90. usually germinates into a female (egg-producing) gametophyte.

(a) Seeds

(b) Shrubs

(c) Palea

(d) Megaspore

91. What is the flowering stem of a grass plant?

(a) Ligule

(b) Culm

(c) Tiller

(d) Palea

92. What is a leafy non-flowering shoot?

(a) Tiller
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(b) Clum

(c) Palea

(d) Ligule

93. What is the distal expanded part of a grass leaf?

(a) Sherb

(b) Carpel

(c) Leaf blade

(d) Ligule

94. Bamboos sometimes have an on the abaxial side of the junction.

(a) Internal carpel

(b) External carpel

(c) Internal ligule

(d) External ligule

95. What is the upper and inner scale of the grass floret?

(a) Ligule

(b) Palea

(c) Carpel

(d) Caryopsis

96. is a specialized dry fruit characteristic of grasses.

(a) Caryopsis

(b) Culm

(c) Ligule

(d) None of the above

97. is branching in which the young shoot breaks through the base of the leaf sheath.

(a) Extravaginal

(b) Caryopsis

(c) Pycnoxylic
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(d) Spore

Zoological Terms

98. The special cells of epidermis do not contain for?

(a) Defence

(b) Gas exchange

(c) Secretion

(d) Respiration

99. The appendage and gnathobase can be found in

(a) Trilobites

(b) Crustaceans

(c) Marine cheliceramorphs

(d) All the above

100. What is the Cavity formed by the endoderm during gastrulation?

(a) Respiratory cavity

(b) Pore

(c) Archenteron

(d) Mucus cavity

101. Large multicellular animals must rely on to keep their cells nourished and alive.

(a) Nutrients

(b) Vascular system

(c) Food glands

(d) Corp

102. What are tentacles?

(a) Appendages with no rigid skeleton

(b) Appendages with no Soft skeleton

(c) Segments with no bones

(d) Segments with muscles


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103. Which of the following can be found to have segments?

(a) Centipedes

(b) Insects

(c) Annelids

(d) All the above

104. is the opening into or through a tissue or body structure.

(a) Tentacles

(b) Vascular tube

(c) Pore

(d) Gut

105. What is used to strain water and filter out food particles in primitive chordates.

(a) Archenteron

(b) Tentacles

(c) Pharyngeal slits

(d) Sporophylls

106. Most terrestrial vertebrates have pharyngeal slits only in the ______stage.

(a) Larva

(b) Embryonic

(c) Adult

(d) Growing

107. Osculum is found in

(a) Sponges

(b) Jellyfish

(c) Starfish

(d) Both band c

108. What is the function of nerve cord?

(a) Connects the brain to the major muscles


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(b) Connects the brain to organs of the body

(c) Both a and b

(d) None of the above

109. Mucus is used for

(a) Locomotion

(b) Lubrication

(c) Protection from foreign particles

(d) All the above

11 O. What is mesogloea?

(a) Space material between the outer ectoderm and the inner endoderm of cnidarians.

(b) Tissue between the outer ectoderm and the inner endoderm of cnidarians.

(c) Jelly-like between the outer ectoderm and the inner endoderm of cnidarians.

(d) Mucus between the outer ectoderm and the inner endoderm of cnidarians.

111. What is oesophagus?

(a) Connects the pharynx to the stomach

(b) Connect the intestine in the stomach

(c) Connect the pharynx and intestine

(d) Connect the blood vessels in the stomach

112. is the head shield bearing the eyes, antennae, and mouth.

(a) Cephalon

(b) Soft bone

(c) Hard bone

(d) Vertex

Previous Years' Questions

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)

11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c)

21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (e) 30. (b)
Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (a) . 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)

41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (b)

51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (c)

61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (a)

Topic-wise Assessment

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)

11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (a)

21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (d)

31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (d)

41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (c)

51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (a)

61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (a)

71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (d)

81. (a) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (d)

91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (a) 97. (a) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (c)

101. (b) 102. (a) 103. (d) 104. (c) 105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (a) 109. (d) 110. (c)

111. (a) 112. (a)


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

1. The main symptoms of which common medical problem are coughing, tight feeling in the chest
and shortness of breath?

(a) Coronary blockage

(b) Tuberculosis

(c) Asthma

(d) Pneumonia

2. Diabetes is caused by the malfunctioning of:

(a) Liver

(b) Pancreas

(c) Kidney

(d) Lungs

3. The A.C, blood grouping was first discovered by

(a) Landsteiner and Levine

(b) Muller H. ].

(c) Morgan

(d) Weiner

4. How many chambers are there in a normal human heart?

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 5

5. What is the role and iodized salt in the human body?

(a) To regulate the function of thyroid gland

(b) To activate the pancreas

(c) To augment the working of kidneys

(d) To strengthen the cells of mind

6. Vitamin K is necessary for

(a) Prevention of rickets


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

(b) Prevention of pernicious anaemia

(c) Formation of prothrombin

(d) Formation of DNA

7. Beriberi caused by the lack of vitamin

(a) C

(b) D

(c) B,

(d) A

8. The digestive juice which has no enzyme is

(a) Bile

(b) Saliva

(c) Intestinal juice

(d) Gastric juice

9. What would happen if human blood becomes acidic (low pH)?

(a) Oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin is increased

(b) Oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin is decreased

(c) RBC count increases

(d) RBC cou nt decrease

10. Which one among the following statements about blood transfusion is correct? Blood group B
can giveblood to

(a) Blood group B, and receive from group AB

(b) Blood groups Band AB, and receive from group B

(c) Blood groups Band AB, and receive from group A

(d) Blood group and receive from group B

11. Human blood is a viscous fluid. This viscosity is due to

(a) Proteins in blood

(b) Platelets in plasma

(c) Sodium in serum


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

(d) RBC and WBC in blood

12. Cancer is more common in older people because

(a) Their immune systems have degenerated

(b) Supply of certain hormones declines with age

(c) Their bodies are unable to adjust to the changing environment

(d) They have accumulated more mutations

13. Carbon monoxide poisoning affects mainly which one of the following?

(a) Digestive activity

(b) Liver functioning

(c) Kidney functioning

(d) Oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

14. Which one among the following gases readily combines with the haemoglobin of the blood?

(a) Methane

(b) Nitrogen dioxide

(c) Carbon monoxide

(d) Sulphur dioxide

15. The longest cell in human body is

(a) Rods and cones

(b) Erythrocytes

(c) Neurons

(d) Leucocytes

16. Dengue is a fever caused and transmitted to other human by

(a) Virus and female Aedes mosquito

(b) Bacteria and female Culux mosquito

(c) Fungus and female Aedes mosquito

(d) Protozoan and female Anopheles mosquito

17. Urea is transported by:


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

(a) Plasma + Blood

(b) Blood + 02

(c) RBC + CO2

(d) WBC + Saliva

18. Kidneys are helping to maintain pH balance by which of the following?

(a) Adding hydrogen ions to filtrate

(b) Removal the hydroqen ions from blood

(c) Dissolving the calcium and sodium ions in blood

(d) Removing carbonate ions from blood

19. Which of the following organs of the human body is affected by Hepatitis 'B'?

(a) Heat

(b) Brain

(c) Liver

(d) Lungs

20. A person having which of the following blood groups can receive of any group?

(a) (AY

(b) (BY

(c) (0)+

(d) (ABY

21. The pH of human blood is normally around

(a) 4.5-5.5

(b) 5.5-6.5

(c) 7.5-8.0

(d) 8.5-9.0

22. Kidneys in human beings are part of the system for

(a) Nutrition

(b) Respiration
Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

(c) Excretion

(d) Locomotion

23. Which of the following vitamins is necessary for clotting of blood?

(a) K

(b) C

(c) A

(d) B

24. Vaccines are used to build immunity to disease by

(a) Simulating disease in the body to produce antibodies.

(b) Injecting antibodies in blood stream.

(c) Enhancing immunity by a large dose of vitamins.

(d) Enhancing immunity by a large dose of enzymes.

25. Haemorrhagic dengue fever is spread by

(a) Aedes f/uviatilis

(b) Aedes albimenus

(c) Aedes aegyptii

(d) Aedes meristica

26. The largest part of the human brain is the

(a) Medulla oblongata

(b) Cerebellum

(c) Cerebrum

(d) Midbrain

27. Which one of the following pairs of disease and nature is/are correctly matched?

1. Scurvy: Nutritional

2. Malaria: Degenerative

3. Haemophilia: Hereditary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 only

28. Indicate the proper order of steps in the nutrition process.

(a) Digestion - Assimilation Absorption - Egestion

(b) Digestion - Absorption Assimilation - Egestion

(c) Absorption - Assimilation Egestion - Digestion

(d) Assimilation - Absorption Digestion - Egestion

29. Nosocomial infection is

(a) Acquired from 'nose' of humans

(b) Acquired from nasal cavity of animals

(c) Hospital acquired

(d) An endemic disease

30. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List 1 List II

(Cell type) (Most important function)

A. RBC l. Immunity

B. Neutrophils 2. Oxygenation

C. Eosinophils 3. Clotting

D. Platelets 4. Mechanism of allergy

Code: A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 3 1 4 2

(c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 2 4 1 3

31. What is 'breakbone fever' most commonly known as?


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

(a) Typhoid

(b) Rhinitis

(c) Yellow fever

(d) Dengue

32. Which one among the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?

(a) Syphilis

(b) Gonorrhoea

(c) Scurvy

(d) Hepatitis B

33. After diagnosis of disease in a person, the doctor advises the patient iron and folic acid tablets.
The person issuffering from

(a) Osteoporosis

(b) Anaemia

(c) Goitre

(d) Protein-energy malnutrition

34. Which of the following statements about vitamins are correct?

1. Vitamin C is essential to make connective tissue in body.

2. Vitamin D is needed for synthesis of eye pigment.

3. Vitamin B12 helps in maturation of RBe.

4. Vitamin C is required to make use of calcium absorbed from the intestine.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2and4

(d) 1 and 4

35. The bulk of iron in the human body is in:

(a) Bones

(b) Blood
Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

(c) Teeth

(d) Liver

36. EEG is an index of functioning of:

(a) Heart

(b) Brain

(c) Liver

(d) Kidney

37. Which one of the following diseases in humans can spread through air?

(a) Dengue

(b) Tuberculosis

(c) HIV-AIDS

(d) Goitre

37. Deficiency of which of the following elements is responsible for weakening of bones?

1. Calcium

2. Phosphorus

3. Nitrogen

4. Carbon

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1,2 and 3

(d) 4

38. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I

(Cell type) (Function)

A. Red Blood Cell 1. Help blood to clot

B. White Blood Cell 2. Fight infection


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

C. The Platelets 3. Carrier of dissolved substances

D. The Plasma 4. Transport Oxygen

Code: A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 4 2 1 3

(d) 4 1 2 3

39. Progesterone is a hormone necessary for the maintenance of pregnancy. It is produced from

(a) Pituitary

(b) Ovary

(c) Uterus

(d) Kidney

40. After menopause, production of which of the following hormones does not take place in
women?

(a) Progesterone

(b) Testosterone

(c) Oestrogen

(d) None of these

41. Deficiency of which vitamin causes beriberi?

(a) Vitamin B6

(b) Vitamin B2

(c) Vitamin B'2

(d) Vitamin B,

42. Thalassemia is an example of

(a) Deletion mutation

(b) Point mutation

(c) Silent mutation

(d) Frame shift mutation


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

43. Digestive processes of which one of the following constituents of food will be hampered if bile is
not secreted by the gall bladder?

(a) Fat

(b) Protein

(c) Carbohydrate

(d) Vitamin

44. If a 17-year-old male has still not undergone the changes of puberty, he is likely to be deficient in

(a) Growth hormone

(b) Testosterone

(c) Progesterone

(d) Oestrogen

46. The main function of the kidney is:

(a) To control blood pressure

(b) To control body temperature

(c) To remove waste products from the body

(d) To help in digestion of food

47. Medulla oblongata is a part of human:

(a) Heart

(b) Brain

(c) Liver

(d) Sex organ

48. BCG vaccine provides protection from

(a) Emphysema

(b) Pneumonia

(c) Polio

(d) Tuberculosis

49. Which of the following acids helps in human digestion?

(a) Lactic
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(b) Tartaric

(c) Hydrochloric

(d) Sulphuric

(E) Acetic

50. Phosphorus is an essential constituent of

(A) Nucleic acids

(B) Proteins

(C) Haemoglobin

(D) Chlorophyll

51. What accumulates in the muscles after continuous strenuous physical exercise as a result of
temporary anaerobic respiration, that causes muscular fatigue?

(a) ATP

(b) lactic acid

(c) Ethyl alcohol

(d) Carbon dioxide

52. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given' below the lists:

list I list II

(Hormone)

A. Aldosterone 1. Maintains female secondary sex characteristics

B. Oestrogen 2. Controls circadian rhythm

C. Melatonin 3. Salt-retaining hormone

D. Progesterone 4. Sustains the pregnancy

Code: A B C D

(a) 4 2 1 3

(b) 4 1 2 3

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 3 1 2 4

53. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

List-I (Gland) List-II (Hormone)

A. Pancreas 1. Cortisol

B. Pituitary 2. Vitamin D

C. Adrenals 3. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

D. Kidneys 4. Glucagon

Code: A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 4 1 3 2

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 2 3 1 4

54. In human digestive system, the process of digestion starts in

(a) Oesophagus

(b) Buccal cavity

(c) Duodenum

(d) Stomach

55. Dropsy is a disease caused due to adulteration in

(a) Ghee

(b) Arhar dal

(c) Mustard oil

(d) Turmeric powder

56. Which one of the following diseases is not caused by virus?

(a) Dengue

(b) Influenza

(c) Measles

(d) Scabies

57. 'Cerebral palsy' is a brain disorder found generally in:

(a) Old people


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

(b) Drug addicts

(c) Small children

(d) Only ladies

58. In coronary artery by-pass surgery the blood vessel to be used as graft has to be

(a) Vein from the leg

(b) Artery from the leg

(c) Artery from mammary region of chest

(d) Any of these

59. Biological resurfacing is a recent surgical technique used to treat problems of

(a) Knee joints

(b) Ankle joints

(c) Hip joints

(d) Vertebral joints

60. Accumulation of mercury into human body leads to disease.

(a) Itai-itai

(b) Methaemoglobinanaemia

c) Minamata

(d) Polio

61. Consider the following statements:

(a) Our stomach produces hydrochloric acid. It helps in digestion of food. During indigestion, the

stomach produces too much acid, causing pain and irritation.

(b) Magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) is often used in the above condition which is an
analgesic?

Which is a completely correct statement?

(a) Only (a)

(b) Only (b)

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

62. Two strands of DNA are held together by

(a) hydrogen bonds

(b) covalent bonds

(c) electrostatic force

(d) van der Waals' forces

63. Which one among the following structures or cells is not present in connective tissues?

(a) Chondrocytes

(b) Axon

(c) Collagen fibre

(d) Lymphocytes

64. Consider the following pairs:

Vitamin Deficiency disease

1. Vitamin C Scurvy

2. Vitamin D Rickets

3. Vitamin E Night blindness

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1,2and3

(d) None

65. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding fats?

1. Fats are needed for the formation of cell membrane.

2. Fats help the body to absorb calcium from food.

3. Fats are required to repair damaged tissue.

4. Body cannot release energy in fats as quickly as the energy in carbohydrates.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 4
Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

66. Which of the following is true with reference to concentration in urine?

(a) Water> Urea> Sodium chloride> Potassium chloride> Ammonia

(b) Water> Urea> Potassium chloride> Sodium chloride> Ammonia

(c) Water> Ammonia> Urea> Sodium chloride> Potassium chloride

(d) Urea> Ammonia> Water> Sodium chloride> Potassium chloride

67. In which of the following departments of a hospital will 'Cath lab' be found?

(a) Pathology

(b) Surgery

(c) Cardiology

(d) Nuclear medicine

Anatomy and Physiology

Blood

1. What is the state of blood?

(a) Soft

(b) Viscous

(c) Rigid

(d) Crystalline

2. Through blood carries oxygen to tissue in the body.

(a) Veins

(b) Bones

(c) Arteries

(d) Muscle

3. Which of the following is not the function of blood?

(a) Metabolism process


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

(b) Carries oxygen

(c) Controls body temperature

(d) Defends against infections

4. What is the total blood volume in the body?

(a) 20-80 ml/kg

(b) 100-150ml/kg

(c) 60-80 ml/kg

(d) 30-90 ml/kg

5. Red blood corpuscles are also called

(a) Plasma

(b) Eryth rocytes

(c) Haemoglobin

(d) Platelets

6. What is the shape of erythrocytes?

(a) Oval

(b) Cubic

(c) Cylindrical

(d) Disc

7. Which part of the blood gives red colour?

(a) Haemoglobin

(b) Iron

(c) Nucleus

(d) Cellular membrane

8. What should be the amount of theblood in women

(a) 6-10 g/100 cm3

(b) 13-18 g/100 cm3

(c) 11-14 g/100 cm3


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

(d) 14-16 g/100 cm3

9. What is not the life span of RBC?

(a) 90 days

(b) 120 days

(c) 160 days

(d) Both a and c

10. Who are the soldiers of the body's defence system?

(a) Red blood cells

(b) Platelets

. (c) Proteins

(d) White blood cells

11. Match the following

Components of blood Percentage

A. Plasma 1. 54%

B. Neutrophils 2. 50-60%

C. Red blood cells 3.25%

D. Lymphocytes 4. 65-70%

A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3

(b) 4 1 3 2

(c) 1 3 4 2

(d) 3 1 2 4

12. is the highest quantity among WBC's.

(a) Lymphocytes

(b) Neutrophils

(c) Basophils

(d) Eosinophils
Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

13. Which of the following will produce antibodies?

(a) Neutrophils

(b) Basophils

(c) Lymphocytes

(d) Eosinophils

14. Which of the component of blood will not release thromboplastin?

(a) Plasma

(b) Red blood cells

(c) White blood cells

(d) All the above

15. Who classified human blood groups?

(a) Landsteiner

(b) A. S. Weiner

(c) Charles Darwin

(d) Anderson

16. What is component of the blood is a clear and yellow fluid?

(a) Red blood cells

(b) Plasma

(c) Proteins

(d) Platelets

17. What is the blood group in which both antigens are absent?

(a) AB

(b) A

(c) B

(d) 0

18. What is the fluid that is left after clotting?

(a) Blood
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(b) Plasma

(c) Serum

(d) None of above

19. Rh factor was initially found in

(a) Human

(b) Rhesus monkey

(c) Giraffe

(d) Rabbit

20. How much loss of blood will lead to fatal condition?

(a) 3-3.5 litres

(b) 1-1.5Iitres

(c) 4-4.7 litres

(d) 2-2.4 litres

21. In blood pressure, the lowest point in the pressure range is called

(a) Systolic pressure

(b) Intracellular pressure

(c) Diastolic pressure

(d) Hydraulic pressure

22. Blood pressure is measured by

(a) Stethoscope

(b) Barometer

(c) Sphygmomanometer

(d) All of the above

23. What is the normal blood pressure?

(a) 140/70 mm Hg

(b) 150/120 mm Hg

(c) 140/60 mm Hg
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(d) 120/80 mm Hg

Skeletal System (hones)

24. How many bones are present in a human body?

(a) 198

(b) 204

(c) 306

(d) 206

25. How many bones are present in a newborn baby?

(a) 300

(b) 204

(c) 432

(d) 198

26. What is the largest bone in human body?

(a) Ulna

(b) Femur

(c) Clavicles

(d) Humerus

27. In which part of the body the shortest bone is present?

(a) Spine

(b) Head

(c) Shoulder

(d) Ear

Muscular System

28. What tissues effect body movement?

(a) Organs

(b) Muscles

(c) Bones
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(d) Arteries

29. How many important muscles are there in human body?

(a) 589

(b) 638

(c) 630

(d) 635

30. What is the bulkiest muscle in the body?

(a) Gluteus

(b) Sartorius

(c) Stapedius

(d) Auditory ossicle

31. Which muscle passes behind the femur and attached to tibia bone of leg?

(a) Gluteus

(b) Sartorius

(c) Stapedius

(d) Auditory ossicle

32. What is the smallest muscle in the human body?

(a) Gluteus

(b) Auditory ossicle

(c) Stapedius

(d) Sartorius

33. Where is the stapedius muscle present?

(a) Heart

(b) Middle ear

(c) Upper part of hip bone

(d) Buttock

Main Organs
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34. What is the average weight of the heart in women?

(a) 258 g

(b) 257 g

(c) 256 g

(d) 255 g

35. Heart consists of two halves which are divided by

(a) Septum

(b) Sternum

(c) Follicles

(d) Blood vessels

36. Which chamber of heart receives blood from arteries?

(a) Ventricles

(b) Aorta

(c) Auricles

(d) Myocardium

37. Number of heart beats per minute is

(a) 80-82

(b) 70-72

(c) 90-92

(d) 50-52

38. From____________ the right auricle receives blood.

(a) Arteries

(b) Lungs

(c) Liver

(d) Veins

39. Which of the following functions of heart is not true?

(a) Collects impure blood from lungs


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(b) Supplies pure blood to all parts of the body

(c) Collects impure blood from organs

(d) All of the above

40. Who discovered blood circulatory system?

(a) Lamarck

(b) Weiner

(c) William Harvey

(d) Norman

41. What is the purpose of valves in veins?

(a) To block the impurities

(b) To give its shape

(c) To prevent back flow of blood

(d) To give strength to veins

42. What is the normal human body temperature in OF?

(a) 96.7

(b) 98.6

(c) 97.66

(d) 90.8

43. What is the only one artery that carries impure blood?

(a) Pulmonary artery

(b) Aorta

(c) Anterior vena cava

(d) Pulmonary vein

44. From left ventricle pure blood will go to blood vessel.

(a) Pulmonary artery

(b) Pulmonary vein

(c) Anterior vena cava


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(d) Aorta

45. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Lungs are not concerned with the purification of blood

(b) Lungs are a pair of thin walled tubes in chest cavity

(c) The right lung is larger than the left lung

(d) All of the above

46. What is the largest gland in the human body?

(a) Lungs

(b) Liver

(c) Heart

(d) Stomach

47. Which organ stores bile?

(a) Liver

(b) Gall bladder

(c) Stomach

(d) Lungs

48. Which of the following is not true?

(a) Liver plays an important role in metabolism

(b) Gall bladder stores bile

(c) Liver stores glycogen

(d) Glycogen is important agent for digestion

49. Churned food is also called

(a) Bile

(b) Glycogen

(c) Chyme

(d) Taurocholate

50. Which chemical neutralizes the acid?


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(a) Sodium bicarbonate

(b) Glycocholate

(c) Taurocholate

(d) Bile

51. Where the two kidneys were situated in a human body?

(a) Lateral abdominal cavity

(b) Posterior abdominal cavity

(c) Ventral abdominal cavity

(d) Basal abdominal cavity

52. What are the glands in kidney called?

(a) Uriniferous tubules

(b) Ureter

(c) Urinary bladder

(d) Nephron

53. One quarter of blood from cardiac output reaches to which vessels?

(a) Pulmonary artery

(b) Heart vessels.

(c) Renal vessels

(d) Lymph nodes

54. How much amount of urine will be expelled per day in adults?

(a) 1.2-1.4 lit/min

(b) 2.6-2.8Iit/min

(c) 3.6-3.8Iit/min

(d) 4.6-4.8Iit/min

55. gland removal from body causes increased susceptibility of infection?

(a) Gall bladder

(b) Kidney
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(c) Spleen

(d) Liver

56. Which of the following is not a function of spleen?

(a) Storage of RBC

(b) Formation of lymphocytes and antigens

(c) Removes foreign particles from blood

(d) Formation of antibodies

57. How much percentage of oxygen is used by brain?

(a) 40

(b) 30

(c) 50

(d) 20

58. What are the parts that constitute the nervous system?

(a) Brain and blood

(b) Vertebrae and spinal cord

(c) Brain and spinal cord

(d) Vertebrae and brain

59. Which of the following combination parts of brain is false?

(a) Cerebrum, cerebellum, medulla oblongata

(b) Cerebellum, coccyx, medulla oblongata

(c) Cerebrum, medulla oblongata, coccyx

(d) Coccyx, cerebrum, cerebellum

60. Which part of brain controls voluntary actions?

(a) Cerebellum

(b) Spinal cord

(c) Cerebrum

(d) Nerves
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61. Which of the following combination is correct according to their positions in brain?

(a) Spinal cord, cerebellum, cerebrum, medulla oblongata

(b) Cerebrum, cerebellum, medulla oblongata, spinal cord

(c) Medulla oblongata, cerebrum, spinal cord, cerebellum

(d) Cerebellum, medulla oblongata, cerebrum, spinal cord

62. Which part of brain transmits messages?

(a) Cerebrum

(b) Cerebellum

(c) Medulla oblongata

(d) Nerves

63. What are the fibres which carry impulses from brain to other organs?

(a) Motor nerve

(b) Afferent nerves

(c) Efferent nerves

(d) All of the above

64. From the sensory nerves transmit messages to brain?

(a) Skin

(b) Lungs

(c) Spleen

(d) Teeth

65. Match the following

Age Pulse rate (beats/min)

A. Second year 1. 140

B. New born 2. 150

C. Foetus in utero 3. 120

D. First year 4. 110


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A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3

(b) 3 2 4 1

(c) 2 3 1 4

(d) 1 4 3 2

66. What are the nerves that emerge from skull?

(a) Spinal nerves

(b) Sensory nerves

(c) Motor nerves

(d) Cranial nerves

67. Match the following

Spinal nerves Number

A. Thoracic 1. 5

B. Cervical 2. 12

C. Lumbar 3. 1

D. Coccygeal 4. 8

A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 2 4 1 3

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 3 1 4 2

68. The top layer of skin cells contains

(a) Dermis

(b) Keratin

(c) Melanin

(d) Fluids

69. Where are the sebaceous glands present?


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(a) Epidermis

(b) Keratin

(c) Dermis

(d) Hair follicles

70. What is responsible for the colour of hair?

(a) Keratin

(b) Keratinocytes

(c) Hair follicles

(d) Melanin

71. Which among the following is not responsible for blond and red hair?

(a) Presence of keratin

(b) Absence of melanin

(c) Presence of sulphur, iron, sodium

(d) All the above

72. What is the shape of the hair shaft of wavy hair?

(a) Oval

(b) Round

(c) Cubic

(d) Elliptical

73. hair has Elliptical hair shaft.

(a) Straight

(b) Curly

(c) Wavy

(d) Frizzy

74. What is the semicircular area of nail called?

(a) Keratin

(b) Cartilage
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(c) Lunula

(d) None of the above

75. Where do the olfactory receptors present?

(a) Skin

(b) Tongue

(c) Ear

(d) Nose

76. Which of the following is not called the cavities of nose?

(a) Meatuses

(b) Sphenoid

(c) Nasal fossae

(d) Both a and b

77. The shaft hairs of nostrils is called

(a) Nasal fossae

(b) Meatuses

(c) Vibrissae

(d) Sphenoid

78. What is the middle layer of eye called?

(a) Conjectiva

(b) Choroid

(c) Cornea

(d) Retina

79. Where does the lens present?

(a) Behind ciliary body

(b) Front of cornea

(c) Side ofthe pupil

(d) Behind the iris


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80. What is the way that the light must pass through to get an image?

(a) Cornea, aqueous humour, lens, vitreous humour

(b) Lens, Cornea, aqueous humour, vitreous humour

(c) Aqueous humour, vitreous humour, lens, Cornea

(d) Cornea, Lens, vitreous humour, Aqueous humour

81. Which part of the ear does act not a sound collector?

(a) Cochlea

(b) Pinna

(c) Ear drum

(d) Both (a) and (c)

82. .is a digestive gland.

(a) Pancreas

(b) Spleen

(c) Kidney

(d) Lungs

83. Which of the following is the correct order of alimentary canal?

(a) Oesophagus, rectum, caecum, small intestine, stomach

(b) Stomach, oesophagus, rectum, small intestine, caecum

(c) Oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, caecum, rectum

(d) Stomach, small intestine, oesophagus, rectum, caecum

84. At which age milk teeth will form?

(a) 4 months

(b) 6 months

(c) 5 months

(d) 7 months

85. How many chisel shaped incisors are present in mouth?

(a) 6
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(b) 4

(c) 8

(d) 1

86. The emulsion form of chewed food after processed by bile is called

(a) Chyme

(b) Feaces

(c) Chyle

(d) Pulp

87. What is the ferment used to hydrolysis the starch?

(a) Ptyalin

(b) Pepsin

(c) Proteases

(d) None of the above

88. What is the Latin word used to describe the sex organs?

(a) Skene's gland

(b) Cowper's gland

(c) Genitalia

(d) Genital

89. Which sex organ produces gametes?

(a) Gonad

(b) Scrotum

(c) Labia

(d) Vulva

90. In human body which organs are called glands?

(a) Those which produce enzymes

(b) Those which helps in metabolism

(c) Those which transport proteins


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(d) Those which secrets fluids

91. What is the function of lachrymal glands?

(a) Secretes bile in stomach

(b) Secretes tears in the eyes

(c) Secretes saliva in mouth

(d) Secretes sweat in skin

92. Match the following

Enzyme Produced by

A. Peptin 1. Pancreas

B. Amylase 2. Gastric glands

C. Ptyalin 3. Intestinal glands

D. Erepsin 4. Salivary glands

A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 1 2 3 4

93. Match the following

List A List B

A. Testosterone 1. Ovary

B. Insulin 2. Male reproductive organ

C. Thyroxin 3. Pancreas

D. Oestrogen 4. Growth and metabolic rate

A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3

(b) 3 2 1 4

(c) 2 4 3 1
Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

(d) 1 3 4 2

Human (ell, Genes and Heredity

94. __ is the largest human cell.

(a) Ovum

(b) Chromosome

(c) Brai n cell

(d) Kidney cells

95. What are called the carriers of genes?

(a) Nucleus

(b) Chromosome

(c) DNA

(d) Cytoplasm

96. How many pairs of chromosome are present in human cell?

(a) 19

(b) 28

(c) 27

(d) 23

97. Which of the following are ductless glands?

(a) Thymus, liver, pancreas, kidney, thyroid

(b) Pancreas, thyroid, thymus, liver, skin

(c) Thymus, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, pituitary

(d) Pituitary, adrenal, pancreas, liver, skin

98. The gland that regulate blood pressure and functions of heart is

(a) Pituitary

(b) Adrenal

(c) Thymus

(d) Thyroid
Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

99. Which glands failure results in diabetes?

(a) Pancreas

(b) Pituitary

(c) Thymus

(d) Adrenal

100. What is called hereditary unit?

(a) DNA

(b) Chromosome

(c) Chloroplast

(d) Gene

101. Who was given the name 'Genes'?

(a) Gregor Mendel

(b) Wilhelm Johansen

(c) Both a and b

(d) Hargobind Khorana

102. Female egg is fertilized by

(a) X-carrying Ovum

(b) X-carrying sperm

(c) V-carrying ovum

(d) None

103. Who are Siamese twins?

(a) Twins that are born joined together

(b) Twins have same genetic characters

(c) Twins may be the same sex or of different sex

(d) Twins, born with 1 year time gap

104. What is the youngest branch of medical science?

(a) Human genetics


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(b) Pharmaceutical science

(c) Biological science

(d) Mechanical science

105. Study of traits influenced by internal and external forces is called

(a) Heredity

(b) Variation

(c) Cytogenetics

(d) Eugenics

106. In which of the following the knowledge of genetics is not useful?

(a) To understand the causes of the diseases

(b) To understand the reason for normal variations

(c) To understand the effect of drug

(d) To prevent genetic disorder

107. Study on the structure of nucleus of cell and its part is called

(a) Eugenics

(b) Population genetics

(c) Genetic counselling

(d) Cytogenetics

108. Physiological genetics deals with

(a) Study of structure of nucleus

(b) Effects of various types of radiation on genetic material

(c) Distribution and behaviour of various organelles of a cell

(d) Elucidating the normal functions of various organelles of a cell

109. The field that deals with the applications genetic material responsible for certain diseases and
their transmission from one generation to another is

(a) Clinical genetics

(b) Eugenics

(c) Population genetics


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(d) Physiological genetics

Medical Biochemistry

110. What is the basis of all forms of life?

(a) Cytoplasm

(b) Protoplasm

(c) Chloroprene

(d) Chloroplast

111. Medical biochemistry does not deals with

(a) The chemistry of blood

(b) Chemistry of respiration

(c) Chemistry of drugs

(d) Chemistry of tissue

112. are necessary for growth and maintenance of positive nitrogen balance .

(a) Proteins

(b) Carbohydrates

(c) Nutrients

(d) Minerals

113. What is the organic catalyst present in digestive juices?

(a) Carbohydrates

(b) Proteins

(c) Minerals

(d) Enzymes

114. What is the chemical process in tissues by which energy and water is liberated?

(a) Hydration

(b) Oxidation

(c) Nitration

(d) Purification
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Human Diet

115. Which one of the following is the source for carbohydrates?

(a) Milk

(b) Meat

(c) Dry beans

(d) Fish

116. Match the following

Nutrients Requirement in day (approximately)

A. Iron 1. 70 g

B. Minerals 2. 3000 mg

C. Proteins 3.18 mg

D. Sodium 4. 1200 mg

A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 1 2 4 3

(d) 3 4 1 2

117. In food nutrients, nitrogenous compound.

(a) Proteins

(b) Carbohydrate

(c) Vitamins

(d) Minerals

118. What is the hydrolysed product of protein? is the

(a) Carbohydrate

(b) Vitamins

(c) Iron

(d) Amino acids


Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

119. Which of the following is not the anti-infective vitamin?

(a) vitamin B

(b) vitamin D

(c) vitamin C

(d) All the above

120. vitamin deficiency causes pernicious anaemia.

(a) vitamin B'2

(b) vitamin C

(c) vitamin D

(d) vitamin A

121. Which vitamin helps in formation of bones, teeth, collagen in human body?

(a) vitamin K

(b) vitamin C

(c) vitamin A

(d) vitamin B6

122. Match the following

Vitamins Deficiency

A. vitamin B 1. Night blindness

B. vitamin k 2. Diarrhoea

C. vitamin C 3. Haemorrhage

D. vitamin A 4. Scurvy

A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 3 2 1 4

123. What is the source for iron?


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(a) Rice

(b) Fish

(c) Green leafy vegetables

(d) Table salt

124. What is the requirement of iodine per day?

(a) 4.00 mg

(b) 0.78 mg

(c) 0.54 mg

(d) 0.15 mg

125. What is the ratio of fat, protein and carbohydrates should be in body?

(a) 1 :4:1

(b) 1:1:4

(c) 4:1:1

(d) 4:2:1

Diseases of the Human Body

Type of Diseases

126. A disease prevalent in a particular region confined to a population is called

(a) Endemic diseases

(b) Epidemic diseases

(c) Pandemic diseases

(d) Sporadic disease

127. Which disease is called sporadic disease?

(a) A disease simultaneously affects a large number of people in an area

(b) A disease occurs erratically with apparently no clue to its occurrence

(c) A disease simultaneously affects a small number of people in an area

(d) A disease occurs erratically with a clue to its occurrence

128. What is the carrier for the disease malaria?


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(a) Sand fly

(b) Bed-bug

(c) Culex mosquitoes

(d) Anopheles female mosquitoes

129. Which of the following diseases not caused by wounds in skin?

(a) Typhoid

(b) Cholera

(c) Anthrax

(d) Both a and b

130. Dengue fever is caused by

(a) Anopheles female mosquitoes

(b) Culex mosquitoes

(c) Lice

(d) Sand fly

131. diseases spread from one person to another by physical contact.

(a) Hereditary diseases

(b) Infectious diseases

(c) Sporadic diseases

(d) Contagious diseases

Agents of Diseases

132. What is the shape of coccus bacteria?

(a) Oval

(b) Cubic

(c) Spiral

(d) Cylindrical

133. Which agent becomes inactive when isolated from living cell?

(a) Bacteria
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(b) Parasite

(c) Virus

(d) Amoeba

134. Match the following

Causative agent Disease

A. Protozoan 1. Chicken pox

B. Virus 2. Ringworms

C. Fungus 3. Meningitis

D. Bacteria 4. Malaria

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 4 1 2 3

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 1 4 3 2

Defence Mechanism Against Infection

135. Resistance of the body to a specific disease is called

(a) Fever

(b) Infection

(c) Immunity

(d) Allergy

136. Introduction of antitoxins or serum to the body is called

(a) Vaccination

(b) Immunization

(c) Sterilization

(d) Inoculation

137. Small pox vaccine was discovered by

(a) Jonas E. Salk


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(b) Louis Pasteur

(c) Leon Calmette

(d) Edward Jenner

138. Which vaccine did Charles Nicolle discover?

(a) Cholera

(b) Typhus

(c) Smallpox

(d) Polio

139. In AIDS, cancerous skill tumour is called

(a) Caposi's sarcoma

(b) Pneumocystis

(c) Tetanus

(d) None of the above

140. How many times AZT should be taken in a day?

(a) 3

(b) 2

(c) 4

(d) 6

Common Diseases

141. Match the following

Disease Cure

A. Cholera 1. Tetracycline

B. Tetanus 2. Protected sexual intercourse

C. Gonorrhoea 3. Avoid eating food exposed to flies

D. Syphilis 4. Prevent exposure of wounds to dust

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4
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(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 4 1 2 3

(d) 3 4 1 2

Some Blood Diseases

142. Over production of WBC is called

(a) Anaemia

(b) Leukaemia

(c) Haemophilia

(d) Agranulocytosis

143. Which disease lowers the body's resistance and causes secondary infections?

(a) Agranulocytosis

(b) Anaemia

(c) Leukaemia

(d) Haemophilia

144. Haemorrhage is due to

(a) Loss of fluids from tissues

(b) Loss of enzymes from glands

(c) Loss of blood from blood vessels

(d) Loss of nutrients

Diseases of the Eyes

145. Which disease can be corrected by using concave lenses?

(a) Myopia

(b) Presbyopia

(c) Trachoma

(d) Cataract

146. What is the germ that causes trachoma?

(a) Diplococcus
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(b) Chalmydiae

(c) Treponema

(d) Pasteu rella

147. Disease with inflammation of eyes, itching and redness is called

(a) Cataract

(b) Trachoma

(c) Conjunctivitis

(d) Presbyopia

148. Cataract can be cured by which operation?

(a) Lens extraction

(b) Concave lens

(c) Germ removal

(d) Convex lens

Common Body Disorders

149. What is the fatal disease among infants?

(a) Asthma

(b) Hepatitis

(c) Allergy

(d) Bronchitis

150. What type of disorder is called jaundice?

(a) Loss of consciousness with convulsions

(b) Excessive bilirubin in the blood

(c) Inflammatory disease of liver

(d) Abnormal growth of body cells

151. Osteomalacia is caused shortage of ___ vitamin.

(a) K

(b) C
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(c) D

(d) E

152. Pleurisy is the inflammation of ___ organs.

(a) Lungs

(b) Liver

(c) Pancreas

(d) Kidney

153. In the year r the WHO declared that small pox was eradicated.

(a) 1960

(b) 1970

(c) 1980

(d) 1990

154. What is the reason for thrombosis?

(a) Inflammation of lungs

(b) Inflammation of bronchial tubes

(c) Formation of stones in kidney

(d) Formation of clots in blood vessels

Common Drugs

155. What is the drug that blocks sensory nerves?

(a) Anaesthetic

(b) Analgesic

(c) Antihistamines

(d) Antipyre

156. What is the function of analgesic?

(a) Used for surgical operations

(b) Prevent growth of body germs

(c) Used to relieve pain


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(d) Used to lower the body temperature

157. Which of the following is used as antibiotics?

(a) Chloroform

(b) Terramycin

(c) Ether

(d) Sodium pentothal

158. Which drug is used to reduce body temperature?

(a) Analgesic

(b) Antipyre

(c) Antihistamines

(d) Antipyretic

159. drug is used to prevent tensions, worries, etc.

(a) Sedative

(b) Narcotics

(c) Tranquilliser

(d) Vaccines

160. Common cold is caused by

(a) Brucellus abortus

(b) Vibrio cholerae

(c) Numerous virus

(d) Clostridium welchii

161. How can chicken pox be transmitted?

(a) Cattle or goats

(b) Contaminated water and sea food

(c) Articles contaminated by discharge from mucus membranes

(d) Saliva of infected person or carries

162. What is the incubation period of Leprosy?


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(a) 2-3 days

(b) 2-3 years

(c) 2-3 months

(d) None of the above

163. What is the disease caused by virus Salmonella typhi bacillus?

(a) Typhoid fever

(b) Scarlet fever

(c) Viral fever

(d) Yellow fever

164. What is the infection caused by droplets?

(a) Whooping cough

(b) Pneumonia

(c) Malaria

(d) Mumps

165. Which of the following is not caused by droplets?

(a) Measles

(b) Typhoid fever

(c) Pneumonia

(d) Brucellosis

166. What is the incubation period of yellow fever?

(a) 3-6 days

(b) 1-3 days

(c) 10-90 days

(d) 2-6 weeks

Commonly Abused Drugs

167. What is the common name for alcohol?

(a) Coke
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(b) Peyote

(c) Booze

(d) Poppers

168. Which drug if taken along with alcohol becomes fatal?

(a) Nicotine

(b) Barbiturates

(c) Marijuana

(d) Heroin

169. Alcohol acts as a

(a) CNS depressant

(b) Anxiety drug

(c) Hypnotic

(d) Relieves pain

170. Overdose of cocaine leads to __ condition.

(a) Develop dementia

(b) Respiratory depression

(c) Constipation

(d) Abnormal heart rhythms

171. Match the following

Name Effects

A. Heroin 1. Relieves fatigue

B. Nicotine 2. CNS depressant

C. Cocaine 3. Induces euphoria

D. Alcohol 4. Increases heart rate

A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 1 2 3 4
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(c) 2 3 1 4

(d) 3 1 4 2

172. Cactus is the common name for drug.

(a) Nitrites

(b) Mescaline

(c) Methadone

(d) Benzodiazepines

173. Which type of central nervous system disorder causes phencyclidine?

(a) Depression

(b) Psychosis

(c) Epilepsy

(d) Parkinsonism

Medicol Science

Medical Aids (Equipment)

174. What is the abbreviation of CAT?

(a) Common axial technology

(b) Computerized axial technology .

(c) Computerized axial tomography

(d) Common axial tomography

175. Why is defibrillator used?

(a) To examine the urinary bladder

(b) For examining the air tubes

(c) To remove waste material from blood

(d) For restoration of rhythmical heartbeat

176. What is the instrument used to examine the vision?

(a) Laproscope

(b) Endoscope
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(c) Rachiometer

(d) Cystoscope

177. Which instrument is not used during open heart surgery?

(a) Heart-lung machine

(b) Electrocardiogram

(c) CAT scanner

(d) Both (b) and (c)

178. Match the followi ng

Instrument Use

A. Sphygmometer 1. To measure spinal curvature

B. Olfactometer 2. To measure pulse rate

C. Rachiometer 3. To inspect the lining of stomach

D. Gastroscope 4. For testing sense organs

A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 1 2 3 4

(d) 4 3 2 1

179. Why is the CAT scanner used?

(a) To know the cancer cells

(b) To study the brain

(c) To take X-rays

(d) To study the heart

Medical Treatment

180. Technique of destroying a tissue by extreme cold is called

(a) Appendectomy

(b) Cryosurgery
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(c) Nephrectomy

(d) Venipuncture

181. What does enterostomy mean?

(a) Surgical removal of damaged kidney

(b) Surgical removal of uterus

(c) Surgical technique of making an artificial opening in intestine

(d) A technique to reduce body temperature

182. What is the technique used to remove the womb of women?

(a) Hysterectomy

(b) Nephrectomy

(c) Dialysis

(d) Oophorectomy

183. In lumbar puncture technique, needle is inserted in

(a) Cerebrospinal fluid

(b) Cerebrum

(c) Vertebrae

(d) Upper spine

184. How is the instrument laproscope inserted?

(a) Through a small incision in abdomen

(b) Through the mouth

(c) Through rectum route

(d) Through a small incision in stomach

Marvels of Medical Science

185. What is the first difficult in transplantation?

(a) To find a donor

(b) To find matching blood group

(c) To operate correctly


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(d) Body's immune system which will reject foreign particle

186. Which part is transplanted by a dead body's part?

(a) Heart

(b) Bone

(c) Blood vessels

(d) Teeth

187. Which of the following sentence is true regarding cornea transplantation?

(a) Widely used transplant operation

(b) It has no blood vessels

(c) Not linked to immune system

(d) All of the above

188. What is the survival rate of kidney transplantation?

(a) 80%

(b) 70%

(c) 90%

(d) 100%

189. Who did the first transplantation of kidney?

(a) R. H. Lawler

(b) Louis Washkansky

(c) Denis Ann Darwall

(d) Christian Neething Barnard

190. At which year Mr Shanmugham had kidney transplantation?

(a) 1961

(b) 1971

(c) 1981

(d) 1991

191. The first heart transplantation was done in which country and in which year?
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(a) China 1947

(b) America 1978

(c) South Africa 1967

(d) India 1971

192. How many surgeons are involved in first heart transplantation?

(a) 30

(b) 25

(c) 80

(d) 47

193. What is the name of the Indian who had first heart transplantation?

(a) L. Rama Rao

(b) Surender Naidu

(c) Devender Babu

(d) Madava Rao

194. At which place in USA an Indian had his heart transplantation?

(a) New York

(b) Pennsylvania

(c) Washington

(d) Los Angeles

195. From bone the bone marrow is removed for transplantation.

(a) Frontal bone

(b) Occipital bone

(c) Pelvic bone

(d) Humerus

196. Which animal's heart valves have been used as replacement for human one?

(a) Monkey

(b) Rabbit
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(c) Cat

(d) Pig

197. Who is called a test tube baby?

(a) Who is born by artificial fertilization of sperm

(b) Who is born by fertilization in womb

(c) Who is born by artificial fertilization of ovum

(d) Who is born by chemical fertilization in tubes

198. What was the name of the first test tube baby?

(a) Louise Brown

(b) Lesley Brown

(c) Lily Brown

(d) Lizzy Brown

199. In India, first test tube baby was born in __ hospital.

(a) CMC

(b) AIMS

(c) KEM

(d) HIT

200. Match the following

list A list B

A. Harsha 1. First heart transplantation

B. Dr P. Venu Gopal 2. Lungs transplantation

C. First open heart surgery 3. Mani Chawla

D. 10 months survival rate 4. 1989

A B C D

(a) 2 3 1 4

(b) 3 1 4 2

(c) 4 2 3 1
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(d) 1 4 3 2

Glossary of Medical Terms

201. Which tissue, when enlarged, interferes with hearing?

(a) Blood vessels

(b) Lymphoid tissue

(c) Elastic muscles

(d) None of the above

202. Blood count in haemocytometer will be measured in units.

(a) Grams

(b) Cubic centimetres

(c) Cubic litres

(d) Cubic millimetres

203. Blood serum consists of

(a) Plasma plus RBC

(b) Plasma minus RBC

(c) Plasma plus Clotting agent

(d) Plasma minus Clotting agent

204. Agnosia is a loss of the ability to recognize without injury to the primary sensory organ or
memory loss.

(a) Objects and shapes

(b) Smell and sounds

(c) People

(d) All the above

205. Chorea is often accompanied by

(a) Hypotonia

(b) Hypertonia

(c) Epilepsy

(d) None of the above


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206. are strands of DNA compressed and organized into a double helix structure.

(a) Endoplasmic reticulum

(b) Golgi complex

(c) Ribosomes

(d) Chromosomes

207. Difficulty in swallowing due to problems in nerve or muscle control is called

(a) Ataxia

(b) Dysphagia

(c) Dyskinesia

(d) Dysuria

208. Any disease that affects the function of the brain is

(a) Encephalon

(b) Encephalopathy

(c) Cardiomyopathy

(d) Nephropathy

209. What is a specific subunit of DNA that codes for a specific protein?

(a) Purines

(b) Phosphorous bond

(c) Gene

(d) Pyramidins

210. What is the expansion of MRI?

(a) Magnetic resonance imaging

(b) Magnetic responding image

(c) Molecular resonance image

(d) Molecular responding imaging

211. What is white matter?

(a) The part of the brain that contains myelinated nerve fibres
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(b) An infectious agent made up of abnormally folded protein

(c) A white pigment

(d) Matter of white blood cells

212. Why the white matter is in white colour?

(a) Because of nerve fibres

(b) Because of white pigment

(c) Because of WBC

(d) Because of Myelin

213. What is a prion?

(a) An infectious agent made up of abnormally folded protein

(b) The part of the brain that contains myelinated nerve fibres

(c) Disease in which the functioning of the brain is affected

(d) None of the above

214. proteins occur normally in a harmless form.

(a) Myelinated

(b) Prion

(c) Prodromal

(d) Semantic

215. Which of the following is not pathological cluster of the protein tau that are found within
neurons?

(a) White matter

(b) Prion

(c) Neurofibrillary tangle

(d) Both (a) and (b)

216. The complete loss of voice is called

(a) Dysphasia

(b) Aphonia

(c) Encephalon
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(d) Paraphasia

217. What is a dysgeusia?

(a) Distortion or absence of the sense of taste

(b) Disease that affects hearing

(c) Pathological clusters of the protein

(d) First neurologic symptom

218. What is a hereditary disease that affects hearing and vision?

(a) Aphonia

(b) Paraphasia

(c) Usher's syndrome

(d) Dysphasia

219. What is a vestibule?

(a) Bony cavity of the inner ear

(b) Rare nerve in the body

(c) Blood vessels

(d) Part of the human body

Answers

Previous Years' Questions

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)

11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d)

21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (c)

31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (b)

41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (a)

51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (c)

61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (c)
Lahore Academy of Competitive Exams

Topic-wise Assessment

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)

11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)

21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) '24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (a)

31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c)

41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (a)

51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (c)

61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (d)

71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (a)

81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (d) 85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (d)

91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (d) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (d)

101. (b) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (d) 108. (d) 109. (a) 110. (b)

111. (c) 112. (a) 113. (d) 114. (b) 115. (c) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (a)

121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (b) 126. (a) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (c) 130. (b)

131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (c) 136. (d) 137. (d) 138. (b) 139. (a) 140. (c)

141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (a) 144. (c) 145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (a) 149. (d) 150. (b)

151. (c) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (d) 155. (a) 1~6.(c) 157. (b) 158. (d) 159. (c) 160. (c)

161. (c) 162. (d) 163. (a) 164. (b) 165. (d) 166. (a) 167. (c) 168. (b) 169. (a) 170. (d)

171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (b) 174. (c) 175. (d) 176. (b) 177. (d) 178. (a) 179. (c) 180. (b)

181. (c) 182. (d) 183. (c) 184. (a) 185. (d) 186. (b) 187. (d) 188. (c) 189. (a) 190. (b)

191. (c) 192. (a) 193. (d) 194. (b) 195. (c) 196. (d) 197. (c) 198. (a) 199. (c) 200. (b)

201. (b) 202. (d) 203. (d) 204. (d) 205. (a) 206. (d) 207. (b) 208. (b) 209. (c) 210. (a)

211. (a) 212. (d) 213. (a) 214. (b) 215. (d) 216. (b) 217. (a) 218. (c) 219. (a)

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