According to Albert Bandura's social cognitive theory, the three factors that reciprocally

influence development involve:

A) behavior, the person, and the environment.

B) punishment, reward, and reinforcement.

C) memory, problem solving, and reasoning.

D) cognition, reward, and observation.

A) behavior, the person, and the environment.

The AIDS epidemic in the United States would be an example of a:

A) normative age-graded influence.

B) normative history-graded influence.

C) nonnormative life event.

D) storm-and-stress event.

B) normative history-graded influence.

Alex believes people are primarily influenced by the environment and learned
experiences, so he believes _______ plays a more powerful role in human
development.

A) nurture

B) maturation

C) change

D) nature

A) nurture

Allan spends a great deal of time working and trying to establish his career. He also has
been thinking about how his personal relationship is going and considering whether it
could be long-term and lead to establishing a family. Allan is MOST LIKELY in:
A) late adolescence.

B) early adulthood.

C) middle adulthood.

D) late adulthood

B) early adulthood.

An approach consisting of several different theoretical perspectives is referred to as:

A) nondescript.

B) eclectic.

C) quasi-experimental.

D) pseudoscientific.

B) eclectic.

As he was studying life-span development, Tyrell had to learn several interrelated,

coherent sets of ideas that would help him explain and make predictions about
development. Tyrell had to learn:

A) theories.

B) hypotheses.

C) models.

D) scientific methods.

A) theories.

Because Dr. Samuels is a cognitive theorist, we know that she stresses the importance
of _______ for understanding development.

A) thought processes

B) repressed memories

C) reciprocal interactions
D) biologically determined critical periods
A) thought processes
Callie is learning about the psychoanalytic perspective and understands there are three
parts to the personality. According to Freud, they are the:

A) libido, ego, id.

B) unconscious, conscious, superego.

C) ego, superego, subego.

D) superego, ego, id.

D) superego, ego, id.
A common caution for correlational research is:

A) it is difficult to administer.

B) correlation does not equal causation.

C) correlations do not tell direction of relationship.

D) correlations do not indicate the strength of a relationship.

B) correlation does not equal causation.
Contrary to the view held centuries ago, today we believe that:

A) children are miniature adults.

B) childhood is a unique and important period in life.

C) children ought to be treated as small adults in need of training but little else.

D) children are autonomous and may be expected to grow and develop with very little
parental support.
B) childhood is a unique and important period in life.
A _______ design compares individuals of different ages (e.g., 30-year-olds, 40-year-
olds, and 50-year-olds) at one testing time.

A) cross-sectional

B) longitudinal

C) Latin squares

D) correlational
A) cross-sectional
Development consists of many aspects: biological, cognitive, socioemotional, etc. This
statement supports Baltes' assertion that development is:

A) contextual.

B) multidirectional.

C) multidimensional.

D) plastic.
C) multidimensional.
Development is characterized by growth and decline. This statement supports Baltes'
assertion that development is:

A) contextual.

B) multidirectional.

C) multidimensional.

D) plastic.
B) multidirectional.
Differences in families, neighborhoods, cultures, and even time periods affect
development. This statement supports Baltes' assertion that development is:

A) contextual.

B) multidirectional.

C) multidimensional.

D) plastic.
A) contextual.
Dr. Somberg is using a method of gathering information that gives an in-depth look at
one individual. She is using the:

A) interview.

B) emic approach.

C) participant observation.

D) case study.
D) case study.
Erik Erikson's theory emphasized:
A) repeated resolutions of unconscious conflicts about sexual energy.

B) developmental change throughout the human life span.

C) changes in children's thinking as they mature.

D) the influence of sensitive periods in the various stages of biological maturation.

B) developmental change throughout the human life span.
The expectations society has that a person will act his or her age refers to:

A) biological age.

B) social age.

C) psychological age.

D) historical age.
B) social age.
Experimental designs are superior to correlational approaches when dealing with:

A) concepts that have not been studied in any great detail.

B) variables that need to be manipulated.

C) variables that are unethical to manipulate.

D) variables that can be controlled easily.

B) variables that need to be manipulated.
From B.F. Skinner's point of view, behavior is explained through:

A) external consequences of that behavior.

B) the self-produced consequences of that behavior.

C) individuals' cognitive interpretations of their environmental experiences.

D) the biological processes that determine maturation.

A) external consequences of that behavior.
An important part of an observational measure is that it be conducted:

A) in a real-world setting rather than a laboratory.

B) in a laboratory rather than a real-world setting.

C) in a way that is systematic and planned carefully in advance.

D) with the consent and prior knowledge of all people being observed.
C) in a way that is systematic and planned carefully in advance.
In Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory of development, family is to time as _______is to
_______.

A) macrosystem; mesosystem

B) exosystem; microsystem

C) exosystem; chronosystem

D) microsystem; chronosystem
D) microsystem; chronosystem
In Bronfenbrenner's theory, the microsystem refers to the:

A) contexts in which the individual lives and plays an active role.

B) b contexts in which the individual lives but does not play an active role.

C) cultural context within which an individual is raised.

D) changes in one's culture over time.

A) contexts in which the individual lives and plays an active role.
The information-processing approach to development emphasizes:

A) the quality of thinking among children of different ages.

B) overcoming certain age-related problems or crises.

C) age-appropriate expressions of sexual energy.

D) perception, memory, reasoning ability, and problem solving.

D) perception, memory, reasoning ability, and problem solving.
In many cultures, people retire from their careers in their fifties or sixties. This is an
example of a:

A) normative age-graded influence.

B) normative history-graded influence.

C) nonnormative life event.

D) nonnormative socioemotional event.

A) normative age-graded influence.
In one study, the reasoning abilities of older adults were improved through retraining.
This is an example of how development is:

A) contextual.

B) multidirectional.

C) multidimensional.

D) plastic.
D) plastic.
Life-span development begins with _______ and ends with _______.

A) birth; death
B) conception; old age
C) infancy; old age
D) conception; death
D) conception; death
Like many others her age, Velma does not know how to use a computer, but her six-
year-old grandson has no problem navigating the Internet and using a word processing
program. This is an example of a:

A) normative age-graded influence.

B) normative history-graded influence.

C) nonnormative life event.

D) nonnormative socioemotional event.

B) normative history-graded influence.
The main advantage of the naturalistic observation technique involves:

A) real-world validity.

B) great control over extraneous variables.

C) the ability to utilize inferential statistics.

D) a lack of ethical controls.

A) real-world validity.
A major strength of ecological theory is its framework for explaining:

A) environmental influences on development.

B) biological influences on development.

C) cognitive development.

D) affective processes in development.

A) environmental influences on development.
Many older persons become wiser with age, yet perform more poorly on cognitive
speed tests. This supports the life-span perspective notion that development is:

A) multidirectional.

B) multidimensional.

C) lifelong.

D) plastic.
B) multidimensional.
Most life-span developmentalists recognize that:

A) nature, continuity, and stability are the primary determinants of behavior.

B) nurture, discontinuity, and change are the primary determinants of behavior.

C) while nurture (the environment) is important, nature (heredity) plays the stronger role.

D) extreme positions on these issues are unwise.

D) extreme positions on these issues are unwise.
The number of years since a person was born is a key element in the definition of:

A) chronological age.

B) biological age.

C) psychological age.

D) developmental age.
A) chronological age.
One difficulty of conducting research in the laboratory setting is that:

A) it is artificial.

B) random assignment is impossible.

C) extraneous factors are difficult to control.

D) participants tend to be unaware that they are in an experiment.

A) it is artificial.
The onset of puberty is an example of:

A) normative age-graded influences.

B) normative history-graded influences.

C) nonnormative life events.

D) storm-and-stress events.
A) normative age-graded influences.
Parents adhering to the fundamental premise of Jean-Jacques Rousseau's "innate
goodness" argument would:

A) reject the need to "teach" language since speech is inherited.

B) provide their children with little monitoring and few constraints.

C) view their child as intellectually indistinguishable from themselves.

D) argue that their newborn's brain is like a "blank slate."

B) provide their children with little monitoring and few constraints.
Paul depends almost completely on his parents. He is just learning to recognize things
that he wants and how to get them. Paul is in the development period called:

A) late childhood.

B) middle childhood.

C) early childhood.

D) infancy.
D) infancy.
The period of development during which school readiness skills are developed and
most free time is spent playing with friends is called:

A) infancy.

B) early childhood.

C) middle childhood.

D) late childhood.
B) early childhood.
Rozee is 86 years young. She continues to learn phrases in new languages, she writes
poetry, and she enjoys going to museums to see the latest up-and-coming artists.
These examples of her adaptive capacities demonstrate:
A) chronological age.

B) biological age.

C) psychological age.

D) social age.
...
The traditional and life-span perspectives are contrasting views of developmental
change. According to the life-span perspective, when do developmental changes occur?

A) during infancy and early childhood

B) during adolescence and early adulthood

C) during middle and late adulthood

D) throughout the entire life cycle

D) throughout the entire life cycle
The traditional approach to development emphasizes:

A) little change from birth through old age.

B) extensive change from birth to adolescence, adulthood, and old age.

C) extensive change from birth to adulthood, then little change for the rest of the life
span.

D) extensive change from birth to adolescence, little or no change in adulthood, then

decline in late old age.
D) extensive change from birth to adolescence, little or no change in adulthood, then
decline in late old age.
When Ben was thirteen when his father was killed in a car accident. This is an example
of a:

A) normative age-graded influence.

B) normative history-graded influence.

C) nonnormative life event.

D) nonnormative socioemotional event.

C) nonnormative life event.
Which measure allows a researcher to compare one person's score with the scores of a
large group of similar people?
A) case study

B) questionnaire

C) standardized test

D) naturalistic observation
C) standardized test
Which method of collecting information about life-span development is most likely to
include a life calendar?

A) life-history record

B) case study

C) sequential approach

D) interview
A) life-history record
Which period of development is characterized by establishing independence,
developing an identity, and thinking more abstractly?

A) middle childhood

B) late childhood

C) adolescence

D) early adulthood
C) adolescence
Which philosophical view assumes that the child's mind at birth is a "blank tablet"?

A) original sin

B) tabula rasa

C) determinism

D) innate goodness
B) tabula rasa
Which research strategy is the BEST for determining cause-and-effect relationships?

A) experimental

B) correlational
C) observational

D) standardized test
A) experimental
Which statement BEST resolves the nature-nurture controversy?

A) Nature is clearly more important in development.

B) The interaction between nature and nurture is most important in development.

C) Nurture is clearly more important in development.

D) Neither plays a particularly strong role in development.

B) The interaction between nature and nurture is most important in development.
Which theoretical perspectives describe development as an unconscious process?

A) contextual theories

B) ecological theories

C) psychoanalytical theories

D) ethological theories
C) psychoanalytical theories
Which theory believes there are sensitive periods of development?

A) ethological theory

B) ecological theory

C) behavioral theory

D) social cognition theory

A) ethological theory
Which theory would be BEST to consider if you wanted to understand how and why
children copy the behaviors they see in TV cartoons?

A) Skinner's behaviorism

B) Piaget's cognitive theory

C) Erikson's psychosocial stages

D) Bandura and Mischel's social cognitive theory

D) Bandura and Mischel's social cognitive theory

Which view of children is stated in the doctrine of "original sin"?

A) Children, although born good, are destined to become evil.

B) Evil children are born only to parents who have sinned.

C) Children are basically bad, and are born as evil beings.

D) Children are born good and remain that way until adulthood.

1 The process of natural _______ favors individuals of a species that are best able to survive and
reproduce.

A) progression

B) distinction

Ans
C) selection

D) accommodation

2 David Buss believes that _______ not only shapes our physical features but also influences our
decision making, aggressive behavior, fears, and mating patterns.

A) adaptation

B) instinct

Ans
C) evolution
 D) genetics

3 According to Baltes, the benefits of evolutionary selection:

A) increase with age.

Ans
B) decrease with age.

C) remain the same over the life span.

D) first increase in early adulthood, then decrease after the decline in reproductive
capacity.

4 Albert Bandura would argue that evolutionary psychology focuses too much on _______ and not
enough on _______.

Ans
A) biology; environment

B) evolution; regression

C) generational trends; individual trends

D) culture; learning

5 The units of hereditary information that act as a blueprint for cells to reproduce themselves and
manufacture the proteins that maintain life are:

A) chromosomes.
 B) DNA.

Ans
C) genes.

D) ribosomes.

6 In the process of meiosis:

Ans
A) the cells divide into gametes, which have half the genetic material of the parent cell.

B) the focus is on cell growth and repair.

C) the number of chromosomes present remains the same.

D) two daughter cells are formed.

7 Each human gamete has:

A) 46 paired chromosomes.

B) 46 unpaired chromosomes.

C) 23 paired chromosomes.

Ans
D) 23 unpaired chromosomes.

8 CORRECT The typical female chromosome pattern is:

 A) YY.

Ans
B) XX.

C) XY.

D) XXY.

9 Traits that are produced by the interaction between two or more genes are called:

A) dominant.

B) recessive.

C) monogenic.

Ans
D) polygenic.

10 The complete set of instructions for making an organism is called the:

A) phenotype.

B) zygote.

Ans
C) genome.

D) DNA map.
11 Dominant-recessive gene inheritance involves _______ genes, whereas polygenic inheritance
involves _______ genes.

A) 2; 2

B) 4; 2

Ans
C) 2; many

D) many; 2

12 CORRECT Of the following, which is the smallest unit?

A) cell

Ans
B) gene

C) gamete

D) chromosome

13 CORRECT The typical human being begins life with 46:

A) cells.

B) genes.

Ans
C) chromosomes.

D) DNA molecules.
14 CORRECT Both of Brian's parents are farsighted, but Brian wears glasses for
nearsightedness. Which genetic principle can explain this difference?

A) mitosis

Ans
B) dominant-recessive genes

C) reaction range

D) sex-linked genes

15 CORRECT If you are looking at someone's brown hair, you are observing that
person's

A) genotype.

Ans
B) phenotype.

C) reaction range.

D) dominant gene code.

16 CORRECT Amanda was born with Down syndrome. The doctor tells her parents
that she will be mentally retarded. If her parents keep her at home without educational or training
programs, the doctor predicts that her IQ might go as low as 35, but he predicts it could go as high as 70
if they provide such programs for Amanda. This variability in Amanda's potential IQ provides an example
of the:

A) canalization of intelligence.
 Ans
B) reaction range for intelligence.

C) polygenic inheritance of intelligence.

D) dominant-recessive gene action on intelligence.

17 The narrow path marking the development of characteristics that appear immune to vast
changes in environmental events is called:

Ans
A) canalization.

B) meiosis.

C) phenotype.

D) heredity.

18 Behavioral geneticists believe that behaviors are determined by:

A) only biological factors.

B) only environmental factors.

C) biological factors at birth and environmental factors throughout the rest of life.

Ans
D) a continuous interaction between biological and environmental factors.
19 Twins that develop from a single fertilized egg are called:

A) fraternal twins.

B) adopted twins.

C) dizygotic twins.

Ans
D) identical twins.

20 Adoption studies are designed to test the different effects of:

A) adoption on parenting styles.

B) polygenic vs. single-gene traits.

Ans
C) the home environment and the biological genes.

D) knowledge of one's adopted status on children's behavior.

21 Which genetic disorder is caused by an extra chromosome?

Ans
A) Down syndrome

B) Turner syndrome

C) sickle-cell anemia

D) phenylketonuria (PKU)
22 Which of these syndromes is NOT sex-linked?

Ans
A) sickle-cell anemia

B) Klinefelter syndrome

C) Turner syndrome

D) XYY syndrome

23 CORRECT Mary begs her parents to allow her to take piano lessons. After her first
several lessons, it quickly becomes apparent that Mary has a natural talent for music. This example best
illustrates:

A) passive genotype-environment correlation.

B) evocative genotype-environment correlation.

Ans
C) active genotype-environment correlation.

D) active genotype-phenotype correlation.

24 Children who are highly active, easily distracted, and move quickly often elicit adult attempts to
quiet them down, punishment for lack of concentration, and angry warnings to slow down. This
describes an example of a(n) _______ genotype-environment interaction.

A) passive

B) active
 C) niche-picking

Ans
D) evocative

25 Rachel has always enjoyed reading. Now that she is a parent, she provides her daughter with
many books to read, hoping the child also will learn to enjoy reading. How do behavior geneticists refer
to this type of interaction between heredity and environment?

Ans
A) passive genotype-environment interactions

B) evocative genotype-environment interactions

C) influential genotype-environment interactions

D) active genotype-environment interactions

26 CORRECT Which prenatal diagnostic test is the least invasive?

A) amniocentesis

Ans
B) ultrasound sonography

C) chorionic villus test

D) maternal blood test

27 UNANSWERED If amniocentesis is performed to determine if a woman's fetus is

genetically normal, this will involve:
 A) taking a blood sample from the mother.

B) drawing a sample of the fluid that surrounds the baby in the womb.

C) taking a sample of the placenta between the 8th and 11th week of pregnancy.

D) taking a blood sample from the fetus.

28 A fertilized ovum is called:

A) a blastocyst.

B) an egg.

C) an embryo.

Ans
D) a zygote.

29 UNANSWERED The period of prenatal development that occurs in the first two weeks
after conception is called the _______ period.

A) fetal

B) germinal

C) embryonic

D) blastocystic
30 How does the placenta/umbilical cord life-support system prevent harmful bacteria from
invading a fetus?

Ans
A) Bacteria are too large to pass through the placenta walls.

B) The placenta generates antibodies that attack and destroy bacteria.

C) Bacteria become trapped in the maze of blood vessels of the umbilical cord.

D) No one understands how the placenta keeps bacteria out.

31 During which period of prenatal development do cells begin to become different from each
other more rapidly and organs begin to form?

Ans
A) embryonic period

B) zygotic period

C) fetal period

D) blastocystic period

32 The human body develops from three layers of cells in the embryo. These layers are the:

A) zygote, blastocyst, and trophoblast.

B) amnion, placenta, and umbilical cord.

Ans
C) endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm.
 D) blastoderm, trophoderm, and plastoderm.

33 Organs and tissues in an unborn baby are most vulnerable to environmental changes during:

Ans
A) organogenesis.

B) the fetal period.

C) the germinal period.

D) trophoblast differentiation.

34 Which phrase best defines a teratogen?

A) a life-support system that protects the fetus

B) an agent that stimulates the formation of organs

C) an abnormality in infants of alcoholic mothers

Ans
D) an environmental factor that produces birth defects

35 CORRECT Which of the following statements about fetal alcohol syndrome is most
accurate?

Ans
A) The infant is often physically deformed and below average in intelligence.

B) Fetal alcohol syndrome commonly results in miscarriages.

 C) Fetal alcohol syndrome causes ectopic pregnancies.

D) Babies suffering from fetal alcohol syndrome are often born before term and with low
birthweights.

36 A common characteristic of babies born to women who smoke during their pregnancies is:

A) a missing arm or leg.

B) facial deformities and below-average intelligence.

C) restlessness and irritability.

Ans
D) lower birthweights.

37 CORRECT Phillip is 5 years old and has a poor attention span. He often fidgets and
is impulsive. It is quite possible that Phillip's mother used _______ while pregnant.

A) nicotine

Ans
B) cocaine

C) caffeine

D) marijuana

38 CORRECT Maternal stress is associated with _______ in the baby.

 A) decreased intelligence

Ans
B) increased risk of prematurity

C) increased heart rate

D) decreased growth rate

39 Which of the following statements about the relationship between age and pregnancy outcome
is most accurate?

A) Adolescent mothers are most likely to have retarded children.

B) Artificially inseminated women in their thirties and forties are more likely to become
pregnant than those in their twenties.

Ans
C) Mothers over age 30 are most likely to have retarded babies.

D) Adolescent mothers suffer the lowest infant mortality rates of any age group.

40 Now that Eric and Luz have established their careers and are in their mid-twenties, they are
planning to have a baby. In terms of the paternal factors that may affect his child, Eric should be most
concerned about:

A) his high-stress job as an attorney.

B) the second-hand smoke he encounters in his law office.

C) his age.

Ans
D) his low dietary intake of vitamin C.
41 Which of the following is a complication of delivery?

Ans
A) anoxia

B) oxytocin

C) teratology

D) toxoplasmosis

42 CORRECT Drugs used to block sensation in one area of the body or to block
consciousness during delivery are:

A) analgesics.

Ans
B) anesthestics.

C) epidurals.

D) oxytocics.

43 Linda's baby is about to be born. The baby's head is at the top of the uterus, and the baby's
lower extremities are on the cervix. This situation is:

A) normal for delivery.

B) called afterbirth.
 Ans
C) called a breech position.

D) called a precipitate position.

44 The Apgar primarily assesses a newborn's:

A) psychological status.

B) reflexes.

Ans
C) physiological health.

D) responsivity to people.

45 CORRECT Two-day-old Terry's very low Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment

Scale score is often a good indicator that:

Ans
A) he has brain damage.

B) his mother took heroin while she was pregnant.

C) he will develop a "difficult" temperament.

D) he is unlikely to bond with his primary caregiver.

46 Which of the following statements about bonding between mothers and newborns enjoys
supporting evidence?
 A) The newborn must have sufficiently close contact to bond with the mother in the first
few days of life to develop optimally.

B) Bonding between infant and mother can only occur after standard childbirth.

Ans
C) Bonding with mothers is helpful to preterm infants and adolescent mothers.

D) Bonding with the mother is more important for the infant's development than bonding
with the father.

Q1: When a child 'fails', it means

(a) the child has not memorized the answers properly

(b) the child should have taken private tuition
(c) the system has failed
(d) the child is not fit for studies

Q2: Navodaya Schools have been established to

(a) increase number of school in rural areas

(b) provide good education in rural areas
(c) complete Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(d) check wastage of education in rural areas

Q3: The emphasis from teaching to learning can be shifted by

(a) adopting child-centred pedagogy

(b) encouraging rote learning
(c) adopting frontal teaching
(d) focusing on examination results

Q4: Inclusive Education

(a) celebrates diversity in the classroom

(b) encourages strict admission procedures
(c) includes indoctrination of facts
(d) includes teachers from marginalized groups

Q5: Which of the following is an objective question ?

(a) Short answer question

(b) Open ended question
(c) True or False
(d) Essay type question

Q6: Which of the following is a feature of progressive education ?

(a) Instruction based solely on prescribed text-books

(b) Emphasis on scoring good marks in examinations
(c) Frequent tests and examinations
(d) Flexible time-table and seating arrangement

Q7: A child has been admitted to your school who belongs to a back ward family/background from
the cultural viewpoint. You will

(a) Keep him in a class in which, there are many more students of backward background from the cultural
viewpoint
(b) Send a teacher to know more about the backward cultural background of the child
(c) Keep him in a normal class but will make special arrangements for teaching him, keeping his
special needs in view
(d) Advise him to take up vocational education

Q8: Critical pedagogy firmly believes that

(a) the learners need not reason independently
(b) what children learn out of school is irrelevant
(c) the experiences and perceptions of learners are important
(d) the teacher should always lead the classroom instruction

Q9: A teacher, after preparing a question paper, checks whether the questions test specific
testing objectives. He is concerned primarily about the question paper's
(a) content coverage
(b) typology of questions
(c ) reliability
(d) validity

Q10: School-based assessment is primarily based on the principle that

(a) teachers know their learners' capabilities better than external examiners
(b) students should at all costs get high grades
(c) schools are more efficient than external bodies of examination
(d) assessment should be very economical

Q11: Learners display individual differences. So a teacher should

(a) provide a variety of learning experiences
(b) enforce strict discipline
(c) increase number of tests
(d) insist on uniform pace of learning

Q12: Which of the following is a principle of development?

(a) It does not proceed at the same pace for all
(b) Development is always linear
(c) It is a discontinuous process
(d) All processes of development are not inter-connected

Q13: Human development is divided into domains such as

(a) physical, cognitive, emotional and social
(b) emotional, cognitive, spiritual and social-psychological
(c) psychological, cognitive, emotional and physical
(d) physical, spiritual, cognitive and social

Q14: A teacher uses a text and some pictures of fruits and vegetables and holds a discussion
with her students. The students link the details with their previous knowledge and learn the
concept of nutrition. This approach is based on

(a) Classical conditioning of learning

(b) Theory of reinforcement
(c) Operant conditioning of learning
(d) Construction of knowledge

Q15: A child starts to cry when his grandmother takes him from his mother's lap. The child
cries due to

(a) Social anxiety

(b) Emotional anxiety
(c) Stranger anxiety
(d) Separation anxiety

Answers:
1: (c) the system has failed

2: (b) provide good education in rural areas

3: (a) adopting child-centred pedagogy

4: (a) celebrates diversity in the classroom

[Note: Inclusive education brings all students together in one classroom, regardless of their strengths or
weaknesses in any area. Its objective is to maximize the potential of all students.]

5: (c) True or False

[Note: Objective questions are to the point questions with clarity]

6: (c) Frequent tests and examinations

[Note: Progressive Learning put emphasis on learning by doing, problem solving and critical thinking]

7: (c) Keep him in a normal class but will make special arrangements for teaching him, keeping his
special needs in view

8: (c) the experiences and perceptions of learners are important

[Note: Critical pedagogy is a teaching approach which attempts to help students question and challenge
domination, and the beliefs and practices that dominate them. Loosely based on Marxist theory.]

9: (d) Validity
[Note: Question paper validity involves:
(i) identification and definition of instructional objectives for the subject in question;
(ii) giving proportionate weightage (marks) to each of these objectives for framing questions that would
test attainment of these objectives; and
(iii) framing questions that would test the abilities associated with these particular objectives]
10: (a) teachers know their learners' capabilities better than external examiners

11: (a) provide a variety of learning experiences

12: (a) It does not proceed at the same pace for all

13: (c) psychological, cognitive, emotional and physical

14: (d) Construction of knowledge

15: (d) Separation anxiety

1. A major strength of ecological theory is its framework for explaining

(a) Environmental influences on development.

(b) Biological influences on development.

(c) Cognitive development.

(d) Affective processes in development.

2. All of the following advanced principles of child development that are closely allied to the stimulus

response learning theory, except

(a) Pavilov

(b) J B Waston

(c) Hull

(d) Gesell

3. The process whereby the genetic factors limit an individuals responsiveness to the

environment is known as

(a) Canalization.

(b) Discontinuity.

(c) Differentiation.

(d) Range of reaction.

4. In order to develop the spirit of labour in students

(a) The teacher himself should indulge in labour

(b) The teacher should deliver lectures on the importance of labour

(c) Students should be given opportunities to do labour from time to time

(d) Students should be given examples of laboring people

5. A child has been admitted to your school who belongs to a back ward family/background from the
cultural viewpoint. You will

(a) Keep him in a class in which, there are many more students of backward

background from the cultural viewpoint

(b) Send a teacher to know more about the backward cultural background of the child

(c) Keep him in a normal class but will make special arrangements for teaching him, keeping his

special needs in view

(d) Advise him to take up vocational education

6. All of the following can be signs that a child is gifted, except

(a) Early development of a sense of time

(b) Interest in encyclopaedias and dictionaries

(c) Uneasy relationships with peers.

(d) Easy retention of facts

7. If heredity is an important determinant of a specific behaviour, what prediction can we make about

expression of the behaviour in identical twins reared apart compared to its expression in fraternal

twins reared apart?

(a) Fraternal twins will express the behaviour more similarly than identical twins.

(b) There will be little similarity in the expression of the behaviour in either set of twins.

(c) Identical twins will express the behaviour more similarly than fraternal twins.

(d) The behaviour will be expressed as similarly by identical twins as it is by fraternal twins.

8. Frobels most important contribution to education was his development of the

(a) Vocational school

(b) Public high school

(c) Kindergarten

(d) Latin School

9. Of the following, the main purpose of state certification of teachers is to

(a) Monitor the quality of teacher training institutions

(b) Provide for a uniform standard of entry-level teacher competency throughout the state

(c) Exclude from the profession those not trained in pedagogy

(d) Exclude from the profession those who are mentally unhealthy

10. The key difference between evolutionary and cultural change is that evolutionary change alters
__________ whereas cultural change alters ____________.

(a) Reproduction; environment

(b) Heredity; environment

(c) Environment; behavior

(d) Development; learning

11. The current view of childhood assumes that

(a) Children are similar to adults in most ways.

(b) Children are best treated as young adults.

(c) Childhood is basically a waiting period.

(d) Childhood is a unique period of growth and change.

12. In preparing a fifth grade class to take a standardized reading test the teacher is best advised to:

(a) Tell the children the test is very important and they should do the best they can

(b) Ditto key questions from a previous test and allow the pupils to answer them

(c) Coach the below grade level readers, as the rest of the class will do well anyway

(d) Give the pupils practice in answering questions similar to the type that will appear on the test

13. A normal child of twelve years of age is most likely to

(a) Have difficulty with gross motor coordination

(b) Have feelings of anxiety about pleasing adults

(c) Confine his/her interests to here and now

(d) Be eager for peer approval

14. Creative writing should be an activity planned for

(a) Only those children reading on grade level

(b) Only those children who can spell and also, can write cohesive sentences

(c) Only those children who want to write for the newspaper of the class

(d) All children

15. Of the following, the most promising step for a teacher to take in order to improve class discipline

is to

(a) Note specific infractions of class rules in the marking book

(b) Evaluate his/her materials, methods and approaches to children

(c) Consult the class and agree upon a graduated series of punishments
(d) Call a parent teacher meeting to discuss the situation

16. The question Will the shy child who never speaks turn into a quiet, shy adult or wilL the child

become a sociable, talkative person? is concerned with which developmental issue?

(a) Maturation

(b) Continuity and discontinuity

(c) Cultural universals versus cultural relativism

(d) Nature and nurture

17. A child from a disorganized home will experience the greatest difficulty with:

(a) Well structured lessons

(b) Independent study

(c) Programmed instruction

(d) Workbooks

18. Most psychologists believe that development is due

(a) Largely to nature.

(b) Largely to nurture.

(c) To nature and nurture acting separately.

(d) To an interaction of nature and nurture.

19. The normal twelve year old child is most likely to:

(a) Have difficulty with gross motor coordination

(b) Have anxiety feelings about pleasing adults

(c) Confine his/her interests to the here and now

(d) Be eager for peer approval

20. The reason why students run from school is

(a) Lack of interesting class teaching work

(b) Lack of interest in studies on the part of students

(c) Not giving punishment to students

(d) Callous attitude of teachers towards the problem

21. You find a student to be intelligent. You will

(a) Remain pleased with him

(b) Not give him additional homework

(c) Motivate him so that he can make more progress

(d) Inform his parents about the fact that he is intelligent

22. If some students are not in a mood to study in the class, you will

(a) Force them to study

(b) Tell those students to leave the class and enjoy

(c) Warn them that they must study else you will report the matter to the Principal

(d) Tell them some interesting things related to their interests or your own subject

23. Child development is defined as a field of study that

(a) Examines change in human abilities.

(b) Seeks to explain behaviour across the life span.

(c) Compares children to adults to senior citizens.

(d) Accounts for the gradual evolution of the childs cognitive, social, and other capacities.

24. The term identical elements is closely associated with:

(a) Group instruction

(b) Transfer of learning

(c) Jealousy between twins

(d) Similar test questions

25. Organismic theories of development hold that

(a) Psychological structures and processes within the child help determine his/her development.

(b) Physical structures and processes within the child help determine his/her development.

(c) Passively developed structures and processes within the child help determine his/her

development.

(d) Slowly developed structures and processes within the child help determine his/her development.

26. A Person believes that nurture strongly influences the development of his child. He

would not agree with the importance of:

(a) Genetic factors. (b) Exposure to peers.

(c) The types of toys at home.

(d) The warmth displayed by the parents.

27. If student is too shy to participate in the class, you will

(a) Not ask questions from him

(b) Ask only those questions from him whose answers can be given by him

(c) Not ask those questions from him whose answers are beyond his means and due to which, he

may become objects of ridicule in the class

(d) Ask questions from him only when he is keen to answer them

28. How will you bring a hyperactive child on the right path?

(a) Make him sit in front of the class and keep a strict vigil on him

(b) Allocate a seat for him in a corner of the class

(c) Give him tasks of watering trees, cleaning the blackboard, making toys of clay etc.

(d) None of above

29. Knowledge of child psychology is a must for a primary teacher. That is because

(a) It helps in making children disciplined

(b) The examination result is improved

(c) It becomes a convenient mode for motivating children

(d) It helps the teacher in understanding the behavior of children

30. The current movement of behavior modification, wherein tokens are awarded for

correct responses, is a reflection of:

(a) Herbarts Five Steps

(b) Locks Tabula rasa

(c) Thorndikes Law of Effect

(d) Thorndikes Law of Exercise

ANSWERS

1.