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PERIODIC EVALUATION EXAMINATION 3 COMMUNICATIONS ENGINEERING

TOPIC: Mobile Communication, Telephony and Navigational Aids

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

1. It is where inside and outside plant cables are terminated

a Central Office (CO) b Main Distribution Frame (MDF)
c Network Interface Device (NID) d Serving Area Interface (SAI)

2. Why is a negative (-) DC voltage supply used for a central offices line powering?
a To prevent damage to copper conductors and associated apparatus due to electrolysis
b To prevent lightning from striking exposed lines in the central office
c To eliminate ground noise from entering the subscriber loop
d To minimize the use of positive voltages

3. In telephony parlance, a wet loop carries

a AC current b DC current
c No AC current d No DC current

4. A sealing current is used to prevent

a Echoes b Grounding
c Splice oxidation d All of the above

5. In Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)

a 2 pairs of wires are used b Upstream rate is higher than
downstream rate
c Downstream rate is higher than d Both A and C
upstream rate

6. In DTMF signaling, a pure 440 Hz tone sent down a subscriber loop indicates
a Busy tone b Dial tone
c Call waiting tone d Ringing tone

7. The E1 lines carry a total of how many channels within a single frame?
a 32 b 26
c 30 d 24

8. E1 transmission rate
a 2.084 Mbps b 2.048 Mbps
c 1.544 Mbps d 1.455 Mbps

9. The common signaling channel within an E1 frame occupies what time slot?
a Time slot 0 b Time slot 17
c Time slot 1 d Time slot 16

10. A single T1 or E1 line consists of how many wires?

a 2 b 5
c 4 d 3

11. A trunk is a line that joins

a A customer and a central office b A switching office and another
switching office
c A switching office and a street d All of the above
cabinet

12. What is going to happen if a loop plants 24 AWG wire is spliced to a different wire gauge?
a Loop lengths can be extended b Signal reflections at splice
points will occur
c Loop resistance remains the d None of the above
same

13. The voice frequency range according to the CCITT standard.

a 300 to 3400 Hz b 200 to 3300 Hz
c 100 to 3500 Hz d 100 to 3200 Hz

14. In key systems, a person making an outside call has to dial

a An access code b An intercom button
c An outside line button d All of the above

15. 74 ccs is equivalent to..

a 61.7 EBHC b 71.6 EBHC
c 67.1 EBHC d 76.1 EBHC

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16. It refers to how happy the telephone company is keeping the customer
a Loudness rating b Grade of service
c Quality service d Responsiveness

17. A 19H44 designated loaded cable would have a coil spacing of

a 4500 ft b 3000 ft
c 6000 ft d 4400 ft

18. North American voice frequency channel

a 300-3400 Hz b 200-3300 Hz
c 300-3000 Hz d 4 KHz

19. The PSTN service provider intends to provide.

a Only high-fidelity communication b Only intelligible communication
c Strictly data communication d Only local exchange service

20. Which American Wire Gauge (AWG) gives the thinnest wire?
a 19 b 26
C 22 d 24

21. Actual test tone frequency is

a 800 Hz B 1004 Hz
c 808 Hz d 1000 Hz

22. It is a mobile communication feature that allows back compatibility of 1G and 2G technololgy
A Dual tech b Dual G
c Dual band d Dual mode

23. The hybrid transformer, or simply hybrid, gives a total signal loss of
a 2 dB b 2.5 dB
c 3.5 dB d 3 dB

24. Requesting the telephone network for service.

a Dial tone b Off hook
c Dialing a number d 76.1 EBHC

25. How many bytes wide is a basic SONET frame?

a 90 bytes b 9 bytes
c 80 bytes d 8 bytes

26. ANI stands for

a Access Network Interface b Allocated Number Identification
c Automatic Number Identification d Accumulated Network Interface

27. CAMA stands for

a Centralized Automatic Message b Computerized Administrative
Accounting Message Accounting
c Centralized Automatic Massage d Computerized Automated
Addressing Master group Access

28. The wire positive voltage from the CO is called the tip leads. This tip lead color-coded.
a Green b Red
c White d Blue

29. In subscriber loop design, the resistance design limit is set at

a 1500 b 1000
c 500 d 1300

30. It indicates that there is congestion on the routing.

a All trunks busy signal b Busy back signal
c Out of service signal d Network-down signal

31. How many links would there be if six toll offices are meshed?
a 15 b 6
c 10 d 18

32. Offered traffic minus carried traffic is called

a Busy hour b Lost calls
c Limited availability d Calling rate

33. Asynchronous transmission uses

a Syn bit b Start /stop bits
c FIN bit d Sum of a bits

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34. DS3 signal rate is

a 46.304 Mbps b 48.604 Mbps
c 274.176 Mbps d 44.736 Mbps

35. In subscriber loop, a glare is

a A sparking of the loop due to b A double seizure
switching transients
c Too high an amplitude for the d Line grounding
voice signal

36. The Strowger switch uses

a Direct progressive b Common control
c Stored program control d A full electronic control

37. Composed of the dialer, switch hook and ringer

a Transmission devices b The telephone unit itself
c Hand set d Signaling devices

38. The Long-Route Design (LRD) procedure for subscriber loops when loop resistance exceeds.
a 1500 b 1300
c 1700 d 2000

39. The main purpose of extending the subscriber loop length is to.
a Reach remote and unserved b Realize fully the potential of
potential subscribers copper technology
c Minimize the number of d Avoid unnecessary
switching offices serving a breaks/splices in the subscriber
region. loop

40. What international standards allows roaming and handoff?

a IS 14 b IS 41
c IS 54 d IS 128

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41. In GSM, what is the open interface between the MSC and the Visitor Location Register
a B-interface b D-interface
c F-interface d C-interface

42. The equipment Identity Register (EIR) contains the International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) number of all
subscribers. Which part of its database contains the IMEIs of mobile phones with troubles substantial enough
to warrant barring?
a Gray List b White List
c Black List d Green List

43. A cluster is a group of cells where each cell operates with a unique group of frequency channels. Which of the
following cluster size for a macro cell layout is invalid?
a 3 b 5
c 7 d 4

44. Best describes the actual shape of a cellular base stations footprint?
a Amorphous b Circular
c Hexagonal d Four-leaf rose

45. What is the smallest cluster size possible?

a 1 b 2
c 3 d 4

46. The network element which is the source of a plain text message or SMS message.
a Desktop PC b SMS Service Center
c SMS Entity d Mobile Station

47. A burst of information that contains no user data information.

a Dummy burst b Null burst
C Empty set d Decoy burst

48. The shortest transmission burst in GSM operation

a Dummy burst b Normal Burst
c Synchronization burst d Access burst

49. As operating frequency decreases, path loss

a Fluctuates b Remains the same
c Increases d Decreases

50. The CDMA soft handoff capability reflects:

a A make-before-break switching b A ache-before-break switching
c A break-before-make switching d A rake receiving switching

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51. Which of the ff. most likely operates indoors?

a Picocell b Megacell
c Macrocell d Microcell

52. Integer choices of i = 3 anf j = 1 for setting up a frequency reuse pattern gives a cluster size of
a 12 b 19
c 13 d 21

53. GSM uses what multiple access technique

a TDMA b FDMA
c TACS d CDMA

54. Authentication is
a A challenge/response procedure
b The process if identity verification before processing a call
c The silver bullet that eliminated cloning fraud
d All of the above

55. During cell splitting, base power level

a Increases b Decreases
c Remains unchanged d Is distributed among new cells

56. A system using 4 horn antennas displaced about the central focus of the reflector
a Monopulse scanning b Monopulse tracking
c Conical scanning d Sequential lobing

57. This is shipboard equipment that measures the distance between ships bottom and the oceans floor
a. fathometer b. altimeter
c. echosounder d. SONAR

58.In determining the targets range, the ______between RADAR transmission and detection of targets echo is obtained
a. Phase b. Time delay
c. distance d. range

59.What is the most common intermediate frequency for RADAR receivers?

a. 30/60 MHz b. 245 MHz
c. 455 KHz d. 1 MHz

60. Adjacent channels in TACAN system are separated by

a. 0.1 MHz b. 30 MHz
c. 1.0 MHz d. 63 MHz

61. It is a global navigation system developed by US Navy for military aviation users consisting 8 VLF
transmitters
a. Omega b. DECCA
c. LORAN C d. DELRAC

62. Where is the master control station of the NAVSTAR GPS located?
a. Kwajalein b. Diego Garcia
c. Hawaii d. Colorado Springs

63. What is the tilt of GPS satellites?

a. 45 degrees b. 50 degrees
c. 55 degrees d. 60 degrees

64. A moving target 90 degrees from the nose of the ship is

a. On port quarter b. Dead ahead
c. On starboard beam d. Dead astern

65. VOR operates in what frequency range?

a. LF b. UHF
c. VHF d. SHF

66. What is the constant time LORAN line called?

a. Center line b. Parabolic line
c Base line d. circle

67. Hyperbolic navigation systems that transmits continuous wave signal instead of pulses
a. LORAN b. FMS
c. DECCA d. GPS

68. What is the frequency allocation of DECCA system?

a. 70-130 KHz b. 100 KHz

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c. 10.2 KHz d. 30-300 KHz

69. What is the function of the magnetron in RADAR set?

a. Local oscillator b. Fixes the transmitted pulses
c. Modulates the transmitter d. Generates the transmitted RF power

70. Glide slope and localizer uses color coding, yellow for 90 Hz and _____for 150Hz
a. red b. blue
c. amber d. black

71. A duplexer is a
a. Balance mixer b. IF-log amplifier
c. Single sideband filter d. Transmit-receive switch

72. _______is a radar beacon that transmits either continuously or intervals

a. Rho-theta b. Rho-rho
c. Ramark d. raster

73. A satellite communication system uses SPADE. The digital modulation technique used in SPADE
is____(April, 2005)
a. QPSK b. 16 QAM
c. BPSK d. FSK

74. What is the duty cycle of a radar with a pulse width of 2 usec and pulse repetition time of 10 msec in %
a. 0.0002 b. 0.2
c. 0.02 d. 0.002

75. According to the NTC memorandum circular, a spectrum user fee of Php1000 per indoor radio station used for Wireless
Data Network shall be paid by Public Telecom Entity with a data rate in excess of____Mbps (April, 2005)
a. 0.64 b. 4.8
c. 1.44 d. 11

76. What is the name of the stationary two-loop RDF system?

a. Goniometer b. Ferrite Loop
c. Adcock d. Squad loop

77. A regulation recently issued (March 1999) by the National Telecommunications Commission
providing for the guideline for mobile personal communication having a global coverage using
satellite.
a. GMPCS b. GSM
c. NMT d. TACS

78. Authorized nationwide Cellular Mobile Service operators shall provide how many local exchange lines within 5 years from
the date of effectivity of this order?
a. 100,000 b. 300,000
c. 200,000 d. 400,000

79. What is the brand name for 3G technology in Japan which was considered as the first application of WCDMA?
a. TOMA b. UTRA
c. NTT d. FOMA

80. What is the maximum data rate offered by EDGE mobile communication technology?
a. 540 Kbps b. 2 Mbps
c. 256 Kbps d. 384 Kbps

81. What is the maximum data rate offered by 3G or the UMTS technology?
a. 540 Kbps b. 2 Mbps
c. 256 Kbps d. 384 Kbps

82. A SONAR measure the depth of the ocean, if the time delay between the transmission and reception of signal is 1
second, what is the depth of the ocean?
a. 1500 meters b. 17521 meters
c. 985 meters d. 750 meters

83. Aircraft follows a fixed air route known as

a. channel b. space
c. skyway d. airway

84. In Decca system, it is a device used to measure the phase difference of the received signals?
a. oscilloscope b. Phase onix meter
c. calixtometer d. decometer

85. It is an extremely accurate time piece used as a basic navigational aid.

a. Quartz watch b. Magnetic precision compass

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c. gyro d. chronometer