Neet Code y Pita Solution

DATE : 07/05/2017 Test Booklet Code
Y
(PITA)
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Time : 3 hrs. Max Marks : 720
Answers & Solutions

for
NEET - 2017
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2. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4
marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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NEET - 2017 (Code-Y) PITA
1. A molecule of a substance has permanent dipole 4. If the longest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of
moment p. A mole of this substance is polarised by hydrogen spectrum is then the shortest
applying a strong electrostatic field E. The direction wavelength in its infrared region is :
of the field is suddenly changed by an angle of 60.
If N is the Avogadro's number the amount of work 46 20
done by the field is : (1) (2)
7 3
1 36 27
(1) 2 N p E (2) NpE (3) (4)
2 5 4
3 Answer (4)
(3) N p E (4) NpE
2
Sol. longest wavelength in uv in Lyman series
Answer (2)
Sol. W = NPE [cos0cos60] 1

(10.2) eV
0
1
= NPE
2 Shortest wavelength in I.F in Paschen series
2. If the angle of a prism is 60 and angle of minimum
deviation is 40, then the angle of refraction will be 1
1.51 eV

(1) 4 (2) 30
27 27
0
(3) 20 (4) 3 0 4 4
Answer (2) 5. A circular coil of radius 10 cm, 500 turns and

resistance 2 is placed with its plane, perpendicular
A 60 to the horizontal component of the earths magnetic
Sol. r 30 field. It is rotated about its vertical diameter through
2 2
180 in 0.25s. The induced e.m.f in the coil is
3. A student performs an experiment of measuring the (Take HE=3.0105T) :
thickness of a slab with a vernier calliper whose 50
divisions of the vernier scale are equal to 49 divisions (1) 6.6104V (2) 1.4102V
of the main scale. He noted that zero of the vernier (3) 2.6102V (4) 3.8103V
scale is between 7.00 cm and 7.05 cm mark of the
main scale and 23rd division of the vernier scale Answer (4)
exactly coincides with the main scale. The
measured value of the thickness of the given slab q
using the calliper will be : Sol. Eav
t
(1) 7.73 cm (2) 7.23 cm NAB cos 0 cos180

= = 3.8103 V
t
(3) 7.023 cm (4) 7.073 cm
6. Two reasons for using soft iron as the material for
Answer (3)
electromagnets
Sol. L. C = 1MSD 1VSD
(1) low permeability and high retentivity
49 (2) high permeability and low retentivity

= 0.05 0.05
50
(3) low permeability and low retentivity
= 0.001 cm (4) high permeability and high retentivity
Thickness = 7.0+230.001 Answer (2)
= 7.023 cm
2
7. A girl jumps down from a moving bus, along the
direction of motion of the bus, tilting slightly forward. V
V O
She falls on (a) a sheet of ice (b) a patch of glue. (3) (4)
I
(1) In case (a) she falls backward and in case (b) O I
she falls forward
Answer (1)
(2) In both cases (a) and (b) she falls forward
Sol. Arsenic pentavalent
(3) In both cases (a) and (b) she falls backward
Indium trivalent
(4) In case (a) she falls forward and in case (b) she
falls backward n P
Answer (2)
a
Reverse Bias
N v v
mg 10. A bulb connected in series with an air-cored solenoid
Sol. is lit an a.c source. If a soft iron core is introduced
smooth rough
bottom comes to in the solenoid
clockwise torque
fall forward rest fall forward B Solenoid
8. A person has near point at 60 cm. The focal length

of spectacles lenses to read at 22 cm having
glasses separated 2 cm from the eyes, is :
(1) 40 cm (2) 10 cm (1) The bulb stops glowing
(3) 20 cm (4) 30 cm (2) The bulb will glow brighter
Answer (4) (3) There is no change in glow of bulb
Sol. v = 60 cm u = 20 cm (4) The bulb will become dimmer
Answer (4)
1 1 1

f v u Sol. XL = Lw
f = 30 cm more is more is L and more is XL and less is

current
9. Two sides of a semiconductor germanium crystal A
and B are doped with arsenic and indium, 11. Due to Doppler effect, the shift in wavelength
respectively. They are connected to a battery as observed is 0.1, for a star producing a wavelength
shown in figure 6000. The velocity of recession of the star will be :
(1) 20 km s1 (2) 2.5 km s1
A B (3) 10 km s1 (4) 5 km s1
V Answer (4)
Sol. = 0.1A, = 6000A
The correct graph between current and voltage for the V 0.1 V

arrangement is C 6000 3 108
V 3 108 0.1 3 107

O V V = 0.5104.
(1) (2) 6000 6 103
I O I
3
12. A metal rod of 1m length, is dropped exact vertically at which of the following speeds will the cyclist not
on to a hard metal floor. With an oscilloscope, it is skid while taking the turn?
determined that the impact produces a longitudinal
wave of 1.2k Hz frequency. The speed of sound in (1) 14.4 km h1 (2) 7.2 km h1
the metal rod is : (3) 9 km h1 (4) 10.8 km h1
(1) 600 m/s (2) 2400 m/s Answer (2)
(3) 1800 m/s (4) 1200 m/s Sol. r = 3m, = 0.2
Answer (2)
Vmax

V rg
Sol. f
2l
Vmax rg
V
1.2 103 V = 2.4103 m/s
21 = 0.2 3 10 = 6 m/s = 8.8 km/hr
13. The angular momentum of a rigid body of mass m 16. An electron moves straight inside a charged parallel
about an axis is n times the linear momentum (P) plate capacitor of uniform change density . The space
of the body. Total kinetic energy of the rigid body is : between the plates is filled with uniform magnetic field
of intensity B, as shown in the figure. Neglecting effect
n2P2 P2 1 n2 of gravity, the time of straight line motion of the electron
(1) (2)
2 2m in the capacitor is :
+ + + + + + + +
n2P2 x x x x
(3) (4) n2P22m V
2m x x x x
Answer (Incomplete Data) x x x xB
x x x x
14. A parallel-plate capacitor is to be designed, using a
dielectric of dielectric constant 5, so as to have a l
dielectric strength of 109 Vm1. If the voltage rating 0 lB
of the capacitor is 12kV, the minimum area of each (1) (2) lB
plate required to have a capacitance of 80 pF is : 0
(1) 10.5106 m2 (2) 21.7106 m2 0 B

(3) (4) B
(3) 25.0105 m2 (4) 12.5105 m2 0
Answer (2) Answer (1)

Sol. K = 5, E = 109V/m, V = 12103V
E
Sol. V =
C = 801012 F, A = ? B B 0
K 0 A V K 0 AE lB 0
C ,E C l
d d v t=
V
5 8.85 10 12 A 109 17. Inside a parallel plate capacitor the electric field E varies
80 1012 3 with time as t2. The variation of induced magnetic field
12 10
with time is given by :
80 1012 12 103 960 109 (1) t 2 (2) no variation
A 12 9
3
21.7 106
5 8.85 10 10 5 8.854 10
(3) t 3 (4) t
15. A cyclist on a level road takes a sharp circular turn
of radius 3m (g=10ms2). If the coefficient of static Answer (4)
friction between the cycle tyres and the road is 0.2,
4
Sol. B.dl 0 ID Imax Imin

2

1 1
2
2
2 2

Imax Imin 1
= A0 0
dE 1 1
dt
20. When the temperature of a gas is raised from 30C to
B2r = r2002t Bt
90C, the percentage increase in the r.m.s velocity of
18. The volume of 1 mole of an ideal gas with the adiabatic the molecules will be :
b (1) 60 % (2) 10 %
exponent is changed according to the relation V
T (3) 15 % (4) 30 %
where b = constant. The amount of heat absorbed by Answer (2)
the gas in the process if the temperature is increased
by T will be :
v2 363
Sol. vr.m.s T 1.2 = 1.1
v1 303
1 R
(1) R T (2) T
1 1
v2
1 = 1.1 1 = 0.1100 = 10%
v1
2 RT
(3) RT (4) 21. A parallel beam of light of wavelength is incident
1 1
normally on a single slit of width d. Diffraction bands
Answer (3) are obtained on a screen placed at a distance D from
the slit. The second dark band from the central bright
nRT VdT band will be at a distance given by :
Sol. V.T = b W = PdV V
.
T
2 D
VdT+TdV = 0 = nRT (1) (2) d D
d
VdT
dV D 2d
T (3) (4)
2d D
Q = U+W = n T nRT
Answer (1)
nR nRT 2 r Sol. For dark fringes

= T nRT
V 1 r 1 d sin = n
19. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio interfere. The y nD 2 D

d = nor, y = y
Imax Imin D d d
value of I is :
max Imin 22. A thin uniform rod of mass M and length L is rotating
about a perpendicular axis passing through its centre
2
with a constant angular velocity . Two objects each
(1) 2 (2)
1 1 M
of mass are attached gently to the two ends of the
3
1 1 rod. The rod will now rotate with an angular velocity
(3) (4)
2 1 of :
Answer (2) 1 1
(1) (2)
3 7
I1 2 2
Sol. Given
I2
; Imax I1 I2 1 1 1
(3) (4)
6 2
2 2
Imin I1 I2 1 Answer (1)
5
25. In the electrical circuit shown in the figure, the

m/3 m/3 current i through the side AB is
Sol. 10 A
10V
20
Lf = Li
3 B 30
x
ML 2 2
ML ML2 6 10
2 (1) A (2) A
12 3 2 12 25 33
So, = /3 1 10
(3) A (4) A
23. Two open organ pipes of fundamental frequencies n1 5 63
and n 2 are joined in series. The fundamental Answer (1)
frequecny of the new pipe so obtained will be :
10 A
n n2
(1) (n1+n2) (2) 1
2
Sol. 20
10V
n1n2 30
(3) n12 n22 (4) n n 3 B
1 2
Answer (4) 10 3 6
i A iAB i A
25 5 25
Sol.
26. If the mass of neutron is 1.71027 kg, then the
de-Broglie wavelength of neutron of energy 3eV is :
V V V
n or, l1 2n similarly l2 2n (h=6.61034Js)
2l1 1 2
(1) 1.41011 m (2) 1.61010 m
V V n1n2 (3) 1.651011 m (4) 1.41010 m

Required
2 l1 l2 V V n1 n2 Answer (3)
2
2n1 2n2
h 0.286
Sol.
24. The density of a metal at normal pressure is . Its 2mE E in eV
density when it is subjected to an excess pressure
p is . If B is Bulk modulus of the metal, the ratio
0.286
of is = 1.6510111 m
3
1 27. Imagine earth to be a solid sphere of mass M and

B
(1) 1 (2) p radius R. If the value of acceleration due to gravity
p 1 at a depth d below earths surface is same as its
B
value at a height h above its surface and equal to
g
p 1 (where g is the value of acceleration due to gravity
(3) 1 (4) 4
B p
1 h
Answer (2) B on the surface of earth), the ratio of will be :
d
p p p 4
Sol. B (1) 1 (2)
v v2 3
1 1
v v1
3 2
(3) (4)
p 1 2 3
1
B p
1 Answer (2)
B
6
2 30. A metal block of base area 0.2m 2 is connected to

R g a 0.02 kg mass via a string that passes over an
Sol. gh g h=R
R h 4 ideal pulley as shown in figure. A liquid film of
thickness 0.6 mm is placed between the block and
the table. When released the block moves to the
d g 3 h 4
gd g 1 d R right with a constant speed of 0.17 m/s. The
R 4 4 d 3 co-efficient of viscosity of the liquid is :
28. In a certain planetary system, it is observed that one
of the celestial bodies having a surface temperature
of 200K, emits radiation of maximum intensity near
the wavelength 12 m. The surface temperature of a Film 0.02 kg
nearby star which emits light of maximum intensity
at a wavelength = 4800, is :
(1) 3.45103 Pa s (2) 3.45102 Pa s
(1) 7500 K (2) 5000 K
(3) 3.45103 Pa s (4) 3.45102 Pa s
(3) 2500 K (4) 10000 K Answer (3)
Answer (2) V
Sol. mg A
Z
Sol. 1T1 = 2T2
12106 200 = 48001010T2

mgZ 0.02 10 0.6 103
=
T2 = 5000K AV 0.2 0.17
29. One mole of a gas obeying the equation of state = 3.45103 Pa-s
P(Vb) = RT is made to expand from a state with
coordinates (P1,V1) to a state with (P2,V2) along a 31. The energy liberated per nuclear fission is 200 MeV.
process that is depicted by a straight line on a If 1020 fissions occur per second the amount of
PV diagram. Then, the work done is given by power produced will be
(1) 2 1022 W (2) 32 108 W
1
(1) (P P )(V +V +2b) (3) 16 108 W (4) 5 1011 W
2 2 1 2 1
Answer (2)
1
(2) (P +P )(V V )
2 1 2 2 1 dN
Sol. P = E = 1020 200 106 1.6 10 19
dt
1
(3) (P P )(V V ) = 32 108 W
2 2 1 2 1
32. A ball of mass 1 kg is thrown vertically upwards and
1 returns to the ground after 3 seconds. Another ball,
(4) (P +P )(V V +2b)
2 1 2 2 1 thrown at 60 with vertical also stays in air for the
same time before it touches the ground. The ratio of
Answer (2) the two heights are
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
P
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
P2
Answer (3)
P1
Sol. A Sol. As T1 = T2 v y = identical
V1 V2 V
v 2y
As H =
2g
1
w = A = (P1+P2)(V2V1) H1 = H2
2
7
33. A body initially at rest, breaks up into two pieces of A

masses 2 M and 3 M respectively, together having A A B AB
B B
a total kinetic energy E. The piece of mass 2 M, Sol.
after breaking up, has a kinetic energy : B AB B AB NAND
2E E 36. A body starts moving unidirectionally under the

(1) (2)
5 2 influence of a source of constant power. Which one
of the graph correctly shows the v ariation of
E 3E displacement(s) with time (t) ?
(3) (4)
5 5
s s
Answer (4)
(1) (2)
p p
O t O t
Sol. 2M 3M
1 s s
KE [ p = constant
mass
(3) (4)
O t O t
3
KE2M = E
5
Answer (4)
34. A light beam is incident on a denser medium whose
refractive index is 1.414 at an angle of incidence 45. 1
mv 2
Find the ratio of width of refracted beam in a medium Sol. P 2 v t
to the width of the incident beam in air. t
(1) 3: 2 (2) 1: 2 velocity increases with time
slope of s-t graph should increase

(3) 2 :1 (4) 2: 3
37. In an experiment of photoelectric effect the stopping
Answer (1) potential was measured to be V 1 and V 2 with
incident light of wavelength and /2, respectively.
The relation between V1 and V2 is
Sol. 1 sin 45 = 2 sinmed
(1) V2 > 2V1 (2) V2 < V1
med = 30
(3) V1 < V2 < 2V1 (4) V2 = 2V1
dmed dair
Answer (1)
cos med cos air
hc
dmed cos30 Sol. eV1
3

dair cos 45 2
2hc
35. From the circuit of the following Logic gates, the eV2

basic logic gate obtained is :
2 + 2eV1 = + eV2
A

B Y V2 = 2V1 +
e
(1) NAND gate (2) AND gate V2 > 2V1
(3) OR gate (4) NOT gate
Answer (1)
8
38. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is Answer (1)
connected to a variable external resistor R. The
graph which gives the terminal voltage of cell V with Sol. As all are in parallel
respect to R is Let area of each blocks be A
Ceq = 3(C1 + C2)

E E
(1) V (2) V o 6A K A K A
Keq 3 1 o 2 o
O R O R d d d
K1 K 2
E E Keq =
2
(3) V (4) V
40. A common emitter amplifier circuit is shown in the
O R O R figure below. For the transistor used in the circuit
the current amplification factor, dc = 100. Other
Answer (2) parameters are mentioned in the figure.
E E iE
Sol. V = R r
Rr
1 R iB

RL = 4.7k
as R 0 V 0 iC = 1.5 mA
RB = 220K VBC VCC = 24V
iB
RVE
VBE
iE
V
iE
E
We find that :
R
(1) VBE = +18.2V, VBC = 3.45 V and amplifier is
working
39. A wall consists of alternating blocks of length d and
(2) VBE = +18.5 V, VBC = +2.85 V and amplifier is
coefficient of thermal conductivity K 1 and K 2
not working
respectively as shown in figure. The cross sectional
area of the blocks are the same. The equivalent (3) VBE = +20.7 V, VBC = +3.75 V and amplifier is
coefficient of thermal conductivity of the wall between not working
left and right is :
(4) VBE = +21.5 V, VBC = 2.75 V and amplifier is
working
d
K1 Answer (3)
K2
K1 Sol. VBE = VCC B
K2
K1
1.5 103
K2
RB = 24 15 220 103 = 20.7 V
100
VCE = VCC C
K1 K 2 2K1 K 2 RC = 24 1.51034.7103 = 16.95 V

(1) (2) K K
2 1 2
VBC = VBE VCE = 3.75 V
K1 K 2 3K1 K 2
(3) (4) K K
3 1 2
9

41. The angle between A B and A B is A B : E=
mg
2q
(1) 60 (2) 90
44. A uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T is established along
(3) 120 (4) 45 the positive Z-direction. A rectangular loop in XY
Answer (2) plane of sides 10 cm and 5 cm carries a current of
= 12 A as shown. The torque on the loop is :

Sol. A B in the plane of A and B
Z

A B perpendicular to plane of A and B B
Y

A B perpendicular to A B
X
42. A satellite of mass m is in circular orbit of radius
3 RE about earth (mass of earth ME, radius of earth
RE). How much additional energy is required to (1) +1.8 102 i NM (2) 1.8 102 j NM
transfer the satellite to an orbit of radius 9 RE ?

(3) Zero (4) 1.8 102 i NM
GMEm GMEm
(1) (2) Answer (3)
3RE 18RE

Sol. M is parallel to B
3GMEm GMEm
(3) (4) MB 0
2RE 9RE
45. The rotational kinetic energy of a solid sphere of
Answer (4)
mass 3 kg and radius 0.2 m rolling down an inclined
Sol. E = TE2 TE1 plane of height 7 m is :
GmMe GmMe (1) 42 J (2) 60 J

= 2 9R 2 3R (3) 36 J (4) 70 J
E E
Answer (2)
GmMe
9R 1 7
E Sol. mgh = mR2 2
2 5
43. A wheel having mass m has charges +q and q on
diametrically opposite points. It remains in 1 2 2
equilibrium on a rough inclined plane in the presence KErot = mR2 2 = mgh
of a vertical electric field E. Then value of E is : 25 7
+q 2
= 3 10 7 60J
7
E
q 46. Consider the following sequence of reactions :

CO, HCl 'B'

mgtan mg A OH
(1) (2) Anhydrous
q q AlCl3/CuCl 293 K
O
mg mgtan CH = CH C
(3) (4)
2q 2q
The substance B is
Answer (3)
(1) Acetone (2) Benzene
Sol. E = gravity
q(2R) E sin = mgsin . R (3) Acetophenone (4) Benzaldehyde
Answer (3)
10
+
O Sol. ArN2Cl Cu/HCl ArCl + N2
CO,HCl CH 'B' It is gattermans reaction
Sol.
Anhy.AlCl3/CuCl OH , 293K
O 50. Amongst the following compounds the one which is
most easily sulphonated is
CH=CHCPh
(1) Chlorobenzene (2) Benzene
B must be acetophenone gives crossed Aldol (3) Nitro benzene (4) Toluene
condensation
Answer (4)
47. Toluene in the vapour phase is in equilibrium with a
solution of benzene and toluene having mole fraction Sol. Toluene is easily sulphonated as
of toulene 0.50 If vapour pressure of pure benzene is
CH3 is activating group
119 torr and that of toluene is 37.0 torr at the same
temperature, mole fraction of toluene in vapour phase 51. The standard equilibrium constant, Kp at 298 K for the
will be :
reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is 5.8105.
(1) 0.325 (2) 0.462 The value of standard equilibrium constant, if the
(3) 0.237 (4) 0.506 concentration of gases is expressed in terms of mol/
L, will be :
Answer (3)
[Given : R = 0.08314 L bar K1 mol1]
Sol. Pt = 37 torr
(1) 3.99 109 (2) 3.51 106
Pt x t (3) 3.84 107 (4) 3.56 108
Pb = 119 torr yt =
Pt x t Pb xb
Answer (4)
37 0.5 Sol. KP = KC(RT)ng

Xt = 0.5 =
37 0.5 119 0.5
P K 5.8 105 5.8 105
KC = RT ng 0.08314 298 24 0.08314 298 2
37
= = 0.237
37 119
= 3.56 108
48. Among halogens, the one which can oxidise water to 52. Which one of the folowing ions is not tetrahedral in
oxygen is : shape ?
(1) iodine (2) chlorine (1) [NiCl4]2 (2) NH4+
(3) bromine (4) fluorine
(3) BF4 (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
Sol. 2F2 + 2H2O 4HF + O2
Sol. [Cu(NH3)4]+2 is a square planar complex
49. The reaction : ArN2Cl
Cu/HCl
ArCl+N2 is known 53. The letter D in D-glucose signifies :
as
(1) configuration at the penultimate Chiral Carbon
(1) Balz Schiemann reaction
(2) configuration at all Chiral Carbons
(2) Sandmeyers reaction
(3) dextrorotatory
(3) Finkelstein reaction
(4) that it is a monosaccharide
(4) Gattermann reaction
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
11
54. Consider the following reaction for which the change (2) Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane
in enthalpy is positive molecule is not possible, because ethane
molecule contains a pi() bond between the

2A(g) + B(g)
C(g) + D(g) carbon and carbon and ethane has very low
melting point.
W hich of the f ollowing will not af f ect the
equilibrium ? (3) Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane
molecule is not possible, because ethane
(1) Presence of catalyst molecule contains both sigma() bond and pi()
(2) Change in concentration of reactants bond between the carbon and carbon.
(3) Change in pressure (4) Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane
molecule is possible because of cylindrical
(4) Change in temperature symmetry of sigma() bond between carbon-
Answer (1) carbon atoms.
Sol. Presence of catalyst does not alter equilibrium Answer (4)
55. Consider the reaction between chlorine and nitric Sol. Ethane doesnt have bond
oxide
Cl2(g) + 2NO(g) 2NOCl(g) 58. W hich of the following lanthanoids shows +4
oxidation state to acquire noble gas configuration ?
On doubling the concentration of both reactants, the
rate of the reaction increases by a factor of 8. (At nos. : La = 57, Ce = 58, Eu = 63 and Yb = 70)
However, if only the concentration of Cl2 is doubled,
(1) Eu (2) Ce
the rate increases by a factor of 2. The order of this
reaction with respect to NO is :
(3) Yb (4) La
(1) 3 (2) 0
(3) 1 (4) 2 Answer (2)
Answer (4)
Sol. Ce, Pr have +4 oxidation state
Sol. rate law is
59. The tendency to form monovalent compounds among
r = K[Cl2]1 [NO]2 the Group 13 elements is correctly exhibited in :
Hence order of reaction = 1+2=3
(1) B Al Ga n Tl
O.R.with respect to NO = 2
(2) B < Al < Ga < n < Tl
56. Which of the following will react faster through SN1
mechanism ? (3) Tl < n < Ga < Al < B
(1) CH3CH2Cl (2) H2C = CH CH2Cl (4) Tl n < Ga < Al < B
Answer (2)
(3) Cl (4) CH2 = CHCl
Sol. +1 oxidation state stability increases down the group
Answer (2) due to inert pair effect
+ 60. W hich of the f ollowing complex ions is not
Sol. As CH 2 = CH CH2 is highly stable due to
diamagnetic ?
resonance
57. The correct statement regarding ethane conformation (1) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+
is : (2) [Ti(en)2(NH3)2]4+
(1) Rotation around carbon-carbon bond in ethane
molecule is not possible, because ethane (3) [Cr (NH3)6]3+
molecule contains both sigma() bond and pi() (4) [Zn (NH3)6]2+
bond between the carbon and carbon and ethane
has very high boiling point. Answer (3)
Sol. Cr+3 have d3, so paramagnetic
12
61. The product (P) of the following reaction Answer (3)
CH2CONH2 3
(i) Br2/NaOH Sol. 2KO2 + CO2 K2CO3 + O
P, is 2 2
(ii) 64. Of the following, the largest value of entropy at 25C
COOCH3
and 1 atm is that of
O O (1) CH4 (2) H2
(3) C2H6 (4) C2H2
O
(1) (2) Answer (3)
O O Sol. More number of bonds
65. Which of the following pairs shows highest bond
O dissociation enthalpy among halogens and lowest
NH bond dissociation enthalpy among hydrogen halides?
NH
(3) (4) (1) I2, HI (2) F2, HF
O O (3) Cl2, HCl (4) Br2, HBr
Answer (4) Answer (No option correct)
Cl2 = 242.6 kJ/mole
O Sol. HI = 295 kJ/mole As per NCERT
Br2/NaOH
Sol. NH2
NH 2
OCH3 OCH3 Kp
O O 66. For the reaction CO(g) + Cl2(g) COCl2(g), K
c
H
is equal to
H+ +
N H N H
1
(1) (RT)2 (2)
RT
O O
(3) RT (4) RT
62. Match Column-I with Column-II:
Answer (2)
Column-I Column-II
NO2
Sol. CO(g) Cl2 (g) COCl2 (g)
O + H2NNH NO2 ng = 1
(A) OH NO2 (P) El ect rophi l i c Kp = K c (RT)ng
mild H+ NH NH NO2
Kp 1
substitution
Kc RT
(CH2)3 C(CH3)2
OH
67. A compound formed by Mg, Al and O, is found to
Conc H2SO 4
(B) (Q) Nu cl e op hi l i c have cubic close array of oxide ions in which Mg2+
1 th
substitution occupying of tetrahedral voids and Al3+ ions
8
Base S
(C) HS Cl (R) Nu cl e op hi l i c 1
addition occupying the octahedral voids. The formula for
2
(1) AR; BQ; CP (2) AP; BQ; CR the compound is
(3) AQ; BR; CP (4) AR; BP; CQ (1) MgAlO (2) MgAl4O2
Answer (4) (3) Mg2Al3O2 (4) MgAl2O4
Sol. Fact Answer (4)
63. Which of the following absorbs carbon dioxide and Sol. Mg2+ = 1, Al3+ = 2, O2 = 4
releases oxygen?
MgAl2O4
(1) K2O (2) CaO
(3) KO2 (4) KOH
13
68. Which of these artificial sweetener is unstable at (3) Expansion work done by the system
cooking temperature?
(4) Non-expansion work done on the system
(1) Saccharin (2) Aspartame
Answer (2)
(3) Alitame (4) Sucralose
Sol. Gsystem = W non - expansion
Answer (2)
73. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Sol. As per NCERT
(1) Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols
69. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to
(2) In coagulation of a negative sol, flocculating power
(1) Low coordination number of P is in the order of Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+
(2) Low oxidation state of P (3) In the flocculation of a positive sol, flocculating
power is in the order, Cl > SO42 > PO43 >
(3) Presence of one OH group and two PH bonds
[Fe(CN)6]4
(4) Presence of two OH groups and one PH
(4) Lyophilic colloids have greater affinity for solvents
bonds
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
74. The oxidation of phenol with chromic acid gives
70. For the tetrahedral complex [MnBr4]2, the spin only
magnetic moment value is (1) An aldehyde
[At. no. of Mn = 25] (2) A simple diketone
(1) 2.4 (2) 1.7 (3) A Conjugated diketone
(3) 5.9 (4) 4.8 (4) Ortho benzoquinone
Sol. Mn+2 = [Ar] 18 3d5 4s0 [MnBr4 ] 2 is tetrahedral
complex Sol. O O
conjugated diketone
n=5
t2
n n 2 75. For the reaction, XA + YB ZC, if
d A d B 1.5d C
5 5 2 , then
the correct
t dt dt dt
= 35 5.9 statement among the following is
71. The total number of orbitals present for principle (1) The value of Y = 2
quantum number, n = 4 is
(2) The value of X = Y = Z = 3
(1) 30 (2) 12
(3) The value of X = Y = 3
(3) 15 (4) 16
(4) The value of X = 2
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
Sol Subshell No. of orbital
s 1 d A d B 1.5d C
Sol. .......(1)
p 3 dt dt dt
d 5 For the reaction,
f 7 XA + YB ZC
Total = 16
72. Under isothermal and reversible conditions, the term
d A d B d C
......(2)
"free energy" in thermodynamics signifies Xdt Ydt Zdt
(1) Expansion work done on the system On comparing (1) and (2)
(2) Non-expansion work done by the system
14
79. The electron distribution in dn coordination complexes
1
X : Y : Z 1: 1: depends on magnitude of crystal field splitting, (0)
1.5 and pairing energy (P). The condition which favours
formation of high spin complexes is
2
= 1: 1: (1) t2g4eg0 (2) 0 > P
3
(3) 0 < P (4) 0 = P
=3:3:2
Answer (3)
X = Y = 3, Z = 2
80. Match the polymer in Column-I to the monomer
from Column-II and assign the correct code
76. Given that m 133.4 AgNO3 ;

m
149.9 KCl ; m 144.9 S cm2mol1 KNO3 ; Column-I Column-II
the molar conductivity at infinite dilution for AgCl is (Polymer) (Monomer)
(1) 132 S cm2 mol1 (2) 140 S cm2 mol1 (a) Nylon-6 (i) ethylene glycol,
terephthallic acid
(3) 138 S cm2 mol1 (4) 134 S cm2 mol1
(b) Dacron (ii) urea, formaldehyde
Answer (3)
(c) Glyptal (iii) ethylene glycol,
phthallic acid
Sol. m AgCl m AgNO3 (KCl) (KNO3 )
(d) Novolac (iv) Phenol, formaldehyde
= (133.4 + 149 144.9) S cm2
(v) Caprolactum
= 138.4 S cm2
Code:
77. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (v) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) Of O C O,O C O, the structures,

(2) (v) (i) (iii) (iv)
O C O is most stable structure
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) The bond angle follows the order CH4 > NH3 > (4) (ii) (v) (iii) (iv)
H2O > H2S
Answer (2)
(3) The bond order follows the order O2+ > O2 > O2
> O22 81. The [Co(H2O)6]2+ ion has three unpaired electrons. The
hybridization of Co in [Co(H2O)6]2+ is
(4) Strength of 'H' bond follows the order HF > H2O
> NH3 > HCl (1) d2sp3 (2) sp3
Answer (1) (3) dsp2 (4) sp3d2
+
Answer (4)
Sol. OC O is less stable than O = C = O
(Charge (Neutral) 2
separation) 2
Co H2O 6
Sol. , N = 3 unpaired electrons
78. Among the following acids, the strongest acid is d7
(1) Cl3CCOOH (2) NCCH2COOH
Co2+ : [18Ar]3d7
(3) O2NCH2COOH (4) F3CCOOH
Answer (4)
Sol. CF3 is the strongest electron withdrawing group 3d 4s 4p 4d
sp3d2
15
82. If the rate of the reaction

% Moles Relative mol
O O C 85.7 (85.7/12)=7.14 1
Sol.
RC + Nu RC +Z H 14.3 (14.3/1)=14.3 2
Z Nu
is fastest, then Z is Hence, Empirical Formula = CH2, Empirical Weight

= 14
(1) OCOCH3 (2) Cl
(3) NH2 (4) OC2H5 3.01 1020 42 103

No.of mol of molecule
Answer (2) 6.02 1023 M
Sol. Reactivity order during nucleophillic accyl substitution,

1 42 10 3
10 3
O O O 2 M
O O
C C > C >
R C Cl
>
O R OC2H5 R C NH2
M = 84 i.e. Molecular weight = 84 g/mol
R R
83. Depressant used in the concentration of an ore 84

containing ZnS and PbS is Atomicity =6
14
(1) Na2SO4 (2) Na2CO3 Molecular formula = C6H12
(3) NaCl (4) NaCN 86. Which of the following pair of species is not iso-
structural?
Answer (4)
(1) BrO3, XeO3 (2) ICl4, XeF4
Sol. NaCN is used as depressant
(3) ClO3, CO32 (4) IBr2, XeF2
84. Of the following alcohols, the one that would react
fastest with conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2 is Answer (3)
(1) 2-methylpropanol (2) Butan-1-ol Sol. ClO3() and CO32 are not iso-structural
(3) Butan-2-ol (4) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
Answer (4) ()

ClO3 Cl CO32 C
Sol. Reactivity of alcohol with Lucas Reagent O O O O
O
3R OH > 2R OH > 1R OH sp3 sp2
Tetrahedral geometry Trigonal planar
CH3 pyramidal shape
CH3 C CH3
87. For dry cleaning of clothes instead of
OH tetrachloroethane which is carcinogen in nature,
(3ROH) which of the following solvents can be used?
85. A hydrocarbon contains 85.7% C. If 42 mg of the (1) Petrol (2) Liquid CO2
compound contains 3.01 1020 molecules, the (3) H2O2 (4) Liquid O3
molecular formula of the compound will be
Answer (1)
(1) C2H4 (2) C3H6
Sol. Petrol
(3) C6H12 (4) C12H24
Answer (3)
16
88. The zinc/silver oxide cell is used in electric watches. 91. Which statement is wrong about photorespiration?
The reaction is as following,
(1) RuBP binds with O2 to form two molecules of
Zn2+ + 2e Zn; E0 = 0.760 V phosphoglycolate
Ag2O + H2O + 2e 2Ag + 2OH; E0 = 0.344 V (2) Photorespiration occurs in C3 plants and not C4
If F is 96,500 C mol1, G0 of the cell will be plants
(1) 413.021 kJ mol1 (2) 113.072 kJ mol1 (3) There is no synthesis of ATP or NADPH
(3) 213.072 kJ mol1 (4) 313.082 kJ mol1 (4) RuBisCO has higher affinity for CO2 than O2
Sol. Zn2+ + 2e Zn, E0 = 0.760 V 92. Select the wrong statement:
Ag2O + H2O + 2e 2Ag + 2OH(),E0 = +0.344 V
(1) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance was
Both are reduction potential proposed by Sutton
(2) Law of Dominance and Law Independent
As, E0Ag2O/2Ag E0Zn2 /Zn
Assortment were proposed by Mendel.
Cell reaction will be (3) Linkage and recombination were discovered by
Sutton
At Anode: Zn Zn + 2e ,
2+
E = +0.760 V
0
(4) Three scientists independently rediscovered the
At Cathode: Ag2O + H2O + 2e 2Ag + 2OH(), E0 = +0.344 V
Mendels laws in 1900
Cell reaction: Zn + Ag2 O + H2O Zn2+ + 2Ag + 2OH()
Answer (3)
n = 2, E0cell 1.104V 93. Which of the following is not a ciliary movement?
(1) Food gathering in Paramecium

G0 = nF E0cell
(2) Removal of dust particles in trachea
G0 = 2 96500 1.10
(3) Passage of ova through female reproductive tract
= 213072 J/mol
(4) Movement of macrophages and leucocytes
= 213.072 kJ/mol
Answer (4)
|G0|= 213.072 kJ/mol
89. Which of the following hydrides has the largest bond 94. The correct sequence of involvement of cell organelles
angle? in secretion of proteins from the cell is:
(1) H2Se (2) H2S

(1) Nucleus Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) H2Te (4) H2O Ribosomes Golgi apparatus
Answer (4) Secretory vesicles Plasma membrane
Sol. Bond angle H2O 104.5
H2S 92 (2) Nucleus Ribosomes Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus Secretory vesicles
H2Se 91
Plasmic membrane
H2Te 90
Maximum bond angle is of H2O (3) Nucleus Ribosomes Endoplasmic reticulum
90. Which of the following amino acid is not optically Lysosomes Plasma membrane
active?
(4) Nucleus Endoplasmic reticulum Ribosomes
(1) Glycine (2) Proline Golgi apparatus Lysosomes Plasma membrane
(3) Serine (4) Leucine
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
Sol. Glycine is not optically active as it does not have
chiral carbon (H2N CH2 COOH)
17
95. Continental drift led to disappearance of a number of 100. Tree planting helps reduce global warming as trees:
South American mammals because:
(1) Can respire in light
(1) Alteration of vegetation was not conducive to
their survival (2) Give out O2
(2) There was an outbreak of a number of infectious (3) Create shade thereby cooling the ground
diseases (4) Can sequester CO2
(3) Sudden change in the climatic conditions
Answer (4)
(4) They were outcompeted by more highly evolved 101. To protect and improve the quality of environment,
animals reaching here form North America the Government of India passed the Environment
Answer (4) (Protection) Act in the year:
96. Opposite type of phyllotaxy is not present in: (1) 1968
(1) Mango (2) 1953
(2) Guava (3) 1923
(3) Calotropis (4) 1986
(4) Mint Answer (4)
Answer (1) 102. Which technique helps to identify a bacterial or viral

pathogen in a human body ev en when its
97. The Pacinian corpuscle responds to rapid changes concentration is very low and clinical symptoms are
in: not yet visible?
(1) Light intensity (2) Gravity (1) Differential leucocyte count
(3) Pressure (4) Temperature (2) ELISA
Answer (3) (3) Total leucocyte count
98. Thymosin is responsible for: (4) PCR
(1) Decreased production of T-lymphocytes Answer (4)
(2) Inhibiting the production of antibodies 103. Which of the following represents correct match of
feature with the given set of animals?
(3) Decreasing the blood calcium level in old
individuals Feature Animals
(4) Increased production of T-lymphocytes (1) Metameric Earthworm, Leech,
Answer (4) segmentation Liver fluke
99. Which of the following type of muscle fibres will be (2) Respiratory system Cockroach, Tapewrom,
the first one to undergo fatigue? Starfish
(1) Aerobic fibres (3) Bilateral symmetry Hydra, Tapeworm,
(2) Slow oxidative fibres Sea urchin
(3) Fast oxidative-glycolytic fibres (4) Jointed Prawn, Centipede,
(4) Fast glycolytic fibres appendages Grasshopper
18
104. Matche Column-I with Column-II and select the 108. Select the correct option:
correct option using codes given below.
(1) IUI can help a woman with premature menopause
Column-I Column-II to bear a child
(1) Cytokinin (i) stimulates closure of (2) GIFT involves IVF to help women who cannot
stomata produce ovum to bear a child
(2) Ethylene (ii) increases stem length (3) ZIFT involves IVF to help women who cannot
produce ovum to bear a child.
(3) Gibberellin (iii) promotes lateral shoot
growth (4) ZIFT involves IVF to help women who have
damaged Fallopian tubes to bear a child
(4) Abscisic acid (iv) found in large amount
in tissues undergoing Answer (3)
senescence 109. A fat moleucle is formed from:
Codes: (1) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid
molecule
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(2) One glycerol molecule and one fatty acid molecule
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) Three glycerol molecules and three fatty acid
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) molecules.
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (4) One glycerol molecule and three fatty acid
molecules
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer (4)
Answer (1)
110. Restriction endonucleases are:
105. Which one of the following is not an IUD?
(1) Used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA
(1) Vaults (2) Cu T molecules
(3) Multiload 375 (4) Progestasert (2) Used for in vitro DNA synthesis
Answer (1) (3) Synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense

mechanism
106. The hollow foliar structure in a wheat embryo that
encloses the shoot apex and a few leaf primordia is (4) Present in mammalian cell for degradation of DNA
when the cell dies
called:
Answer (3)
(1) Coleoptile (2) Coleorrhiza
111. In Lactational amenorrhoea, ovulation does not occur
(3) Epicotyl (4) Hypocotyl during the period of intense lactation because of:
Answer (1) (1) High level of FSH and LH
107. Which of the following statements is correct with (2) Surge of Estrogen
respect to cell cycle?
(3) Stimulation of GnRH
(1) DNA content of cell remains constant during entire
cell cycle (4) High level of Prolactin
Answer (4)
(2) A cell in G1 phase has double the amount of DNA
than a cell in G2 phase 112. Choose the false statement regarding Petromyzon
(3) Each chromosome has two chromatids in G1 (1) The circulatroy sytem is closed
phase (2) The body is devoid of scales
(4) Nerve cells in adult human are in G0 state (3) Mouth is circular and lacks jaws
Answer (4) (4) It migrates to the ocean for spawning
Answer (4)
19
113. Select wrong statement: (3) Persistant inflammation and damage to the cells
lining the bronchi and bronchioles
(1) DNA stores genetic information
(4) An allergic reaction causing musclespasms in
(2) There is now enough evidence that essential the bronchial walls
processes like metabolism, translation and
splicing evolved around RNA Answer (2)
(3) DNA may act as a catalyst 117. An example of flagellate protozoan is:
(4) RNA can splice itself and is also able to act as (1) Plasmodium
a catalyst
(2) Paramoecium
Answer (3)
(3) Trypanosoma
Substance Glomerular Filterate Reabsorbed Urine
(4) Entamoeba
(i) Proteins 2g 1.9g 0.1g
114. (ii) Glucose 162g 162g 0g Answer (3)
(iii) Urea 54g 24g 30g
(iv) Creatinine 1.6g 0g 1.7g 118. In a hypothetical population of 100 individual having
(a) Glucose is completely reabsorbed r=0.5/female/year, what will be the population size
in 6 years (with e = 2.72) showing exponential rate
(b) Urea is partially reabsorbed of growth?
(c) Proteins are secreted into urine (1) 448 (2) 1218
(d) Creatinine is secreted into urine (3) 739 (4) 2012
Which of the following options, in view of above 119. Which of the following statements is true for phloem
statements is correct? in plants?
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (1) Phloem fibres are made up of collenchymatous
(2) (a), (b) and (c) cells
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (2) Sieve tube elements are multicellular with wide
lumen and rich cytoplasm.
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Companion cells help in maintaining the pressure
115. Identify and select the wrong statement out of the gradient in sieve tubes.
following:
(4) Phloem parenchyma is abundantly present in
(1) In conifers the needle like leaves are well monocots
adapted to extremes of temperature, moisture
conservation and onslaught of wind. Answer (3)
(2) Roots of pines enter into a symbiotic 120. W hich of the following ossicles is adhered to
relationship with higher fungi. tympanic membrane of middle ear?
(3) The coralloid roots in Cycas have nitrogen fixing (1) Malleus (2) Incus
cyanobacteria (3) Stapes (4) Utricle
(4) The giant redwood tree Sequoia, one of the Answer (1)
tallest trees is an angiosperm.
121. Growth hormone Auxin was isolated by F.W. Went
Answer (4) from tips of seedling coleoptile of
116. Air pollution can result in Emphysema, which is (1) Rice (2) Maize
(1) Damage to any Lung tissue causing increase in (3) Wheat (4) Oat
elasticity of the air sacs
Answer (4)
(2) Chronic damage to air sacs or alveoli leading to
abnormal reduction in respiratory surface area
20
122. Special feature about Strobilanthus kunthiana 127. Which of the followig is not true of organisms in the
(neelakuranji) is its flowering once in : Kingdom Monera ?
(1) 25 years (2) 12 years (1) They reproduce by mitosis
(3) 50 - 100 years (4) 6 years (2) They originated at least 3.5 billion years ago
Answer (2) (3) They have prokaryotic cellular organization
123. W hich of the following pairs is not correctly (4) They may be autotrophic or heterotrophic in
matched? nature
Vegetative Propagules Example Answer (1)
(1) Stolons - Agave 128. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are the example
of
(2) Offset - Water hyacinth
(1) Radiation (2) Homologous structure
(3) Eyes - Potato
(3) Analogous structure (4) Divergent evolution
(4) Rhizome - Ginger
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
129. A genetically engineered bacterium first used for
124. Which of the following is not true for callus culture? cleaning the oil spills, was a species of :
(1) It can be used for micropropagation (1) Rhizobium (2) Escherichia
(2) Somaclonal variation is generated (3) Pseudomonas (4) Bacillus
(3) Parenchyma tissue increases by continuous Answer (3)
mitotic divisions
130. What is not true for an angiospermic embryo sac ?
(4) Meiotic divisions are frequent
(1) One male gamete is discharged into it during
Answer (4) fertilization
125. Which of the following symmetry is exhibited by (2) It is present within an ovule
Echinoderm Larvae ?
(3) It represents female gametophyte
(1) Bilateral (2) Radial
(4) Its formation is preceded by meiosis
(3) Asymmetrical (4) Biradial
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
131. In gene therapy to treat adenosine deaminase
126. A large amount of about 180 L of fluid is filtered by deficiency disorder, which of the patients blood cells
the human kidneys per day. Which one of the are used ?
following renal corpuscle features does not justify
this? (1) Thrombocytes
(1) The efferent arteriole is wider than the afferent (2) Erythrocytes
arteriole causing easier outflow of blood from the
glomerulus. (3) Lymphocytes
(2) The glomerular capillaries have a large surface (4) Both Erythrocytes and Lymphocytes
area Answer (3)
(3) The glomerular capillaries are fenestrated and
132. The sequential events from initial stage till climax
hence leakier than other capillaries
stage in a succession are called :
(4) The glomerular capillaries have a higher blood (1) Migration (2) Ecesis
pressure than the other capillaries of the body
(3) Sere (4) Nudation
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
21
133. Van Mahotsava is a festival of : (1) n; 2n; 2n; n; 2n; n; 2n; and 2n
(1) Conservation of sacred groves (2) 2n; 2n; n; 2n; n; 2n; 3n; and 2n
(2) Planting trees in open areas (3) 2n; 2n, n; n; 2n; n; 2n; and 3n
(3) Taking oath to protect trees (4) 2n; n; n; 2n; 3n; 2n; n; and 3n
(4) Worshipping trees Answer (3)
Answer (2) 139. Signals for the onset of parturition originate from :
134. Whch of the following cannot be measured by (1) Mothers hypothalamus
spirometry ?
(2) Foetus and placenta
(1) Vital capacity
(3) Mothers uterus
(2) Tidal volume
(4) Mothers pituitary
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume
Answer (2)
(4) Residual volume
140. Which of the following structures does not open into
Answer (4) the genital chamber of female cockroaches ?
135. Which of the following statements is correct ? (1) A pair of collateral glands
(1) AIDS is caused by a group of viruses called (2) A single median oviduct
rhinovirus.
(3) Spermatheca
(2) Acquired immunity is pathogen specific.
(4) A pair of anal cerci
(3) The exaggerated response of the immune
system to certain antigens present in the Answer (4)
environment is called Auto-immunity.
141. All the components of the conducting system can
(4) Bone marrow acts as a filter of the blood by generate an action potential for the contraction of heart
trapping blood borne micro-organisms. muscle, but the sino-atrial node acts as the
pacemaker because :
Answer (2)
(1) The sino-atrial node has a lower inherent rate of
136 Select the sac fungus : depolarisation
(1) Albugo (2) Agaricus (2) All the other components in heart cannot
conduct the action potential
(3) Neurospora (4) Mucor
(3) Only the sino-atrial node is auto-excitable and
Answer (3)
auto-rhythmic
137. The recessive genes located on X-chromosome in (4) The sino-atrial node has a higher inherent rate of
humans are always : depolarisation
(1) sub-lethal Answer (4)
(2) expressed in females 142. The chief function of vessels in the plant body is to :
(3) expressed in males (1) Eliminate excess of water
(4) lethal (2) Transport food materials manufactured in the
Answer (3) leaves to other parts of the plant
138. Choose the correct sequence representing the ploidy (3) Store food material in the form of starch or fat
of Nucellus; Megaspore mother cell; Megaspore; Egg (4) Conduct water and mineral salts
cell; Zygote; A polar nucleus of embryo sac; Secondary
nucleus and Primary endosperm nucleus. Answer (4)
22
143. Select the incorrect option with respect to features (3) 100% similarity to mothers DNA print because
present in three animals. of maternal inheritance.
Characte rs Cockroach Earthw rom Frog (4) 100% similarity to fathers DNA print due to
1) Development direct indirect indirect large number of mitochondria in sperm
Blood vascular
2) Answer (1)
system open closed closed
3) Body surface dry moist moist 150. Which of the following statements regarding enzyme
4) Eyes compound absent simple inhibition is correct?
Answer (1)
(1) Non competitive inhibitors often bind to the
Sol. enzyme irreversibly
144. MOET technique is used for super-ovulation in : (2) Competitive inhibition is seen when substrate
competes with an enzyme for binding to an
(1) Elephants (2) Fish inhibition protein.
(3) Cattles (4) Chickens (3) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate
and the inhibitor complete.
Answer (3)
(4) Non competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be
145. Continued self-pollination results in: overcome by adding large amount of substrate.
(1) Genetic drift (2) Heterosis Answer (3)
(3) Inbreeding depression(4) Polyembryony 151. Which of the following values will depict correct
Answer (3) respiratory quotient when tripalmitin (a fatty acid) is
used as a respiratory substrate?
146. If the ratio of (T+C)/(A+G) in one strand of DNA is
1.43, same ratio in the complementary strand is: (1) 1.1 (2) 1
(1) 2.10 (2) 0.35 (3) 0.7 (4) 0.9
(3) 0.70 (4) 1.43 Answer (3)
Answer (3) 152. Cholecystokinin acts on:
147. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand (1) Pancreas and gall bladder
of mRNA is known as: (2) Gastric glands and liver
(1) Okazaki fragment (2) Polymer (3) Pancreas and duodenum
(3) Polyribosome (4) Polypeptide (4) Pancreas and intestine
148. The protein coat around a virus is called: 153. An athlete while running fell on the track. She used
(1) Capsule (2) Core her hands to sustain minimal injury. In the process,
her hands received the maximum blow on the joints.
(3) Capsid (4) Trichome Which combination of joints would be badly affected
in this accident ?
Answer (3)
(1) Cartilaginous and synaptic joints
149. A couple claimed in court that a child belonged to
them. Their claim can be true if the DNA fingerprint (2) Fibrous and cartilaginous joints
pattern of the child shows.
(3) Fibrous and synovial joints
(1) 50% bands similar to father and 50% similar to
mother DNA fingerprint pattern (4) Cartilaginous and synovial joints
(2) 100% similarity to both the parents DNA Answer (3)

fingerprint as both contribute equally to zygote
formation
23
154. Which of the following pathways is involved for 159. Name the element which is the main constituent of
packaging of secretory proteins ? the ring structure of chlorophyll and helps to maintain
the ribosome structure
(1) RER Transface Golgi body Cis face of
Golgi body Secretory vesicles (1) Phosphorus (2) Calcium
(2) Transface of Golgi body Cis face of Golgi (3) Magnesium (4) Nitrogen
body RER SER Secretory vesicles
Answer (3)
(3) RER Cis face of Golgi body Transface of
Golgi body Secretory vesicles 160. The type of ribosomes is same in:
(4) Cis face of Golgi body Transface of Golgi (1) Eukaryotic cytoplasm, mitochondria and
body RER Secretory vesicles endoplasmic reticulum
Answer (3)
(2) Cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, their mitochondria
155. Which of the following statements is not true ? and chloroplasts
(1) Loop of Henle is largely responsible f or (3) Cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, their chloroplasts
concentrated urine and microbodies
(2) Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable (4) Prokaryotes, mitochondria and chloroplasts
to solutes
(3) Distal convoluted tubule functions in K+, Na+
Answer (4)
homeostasis
(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable 161. Which of the following ecologists has tried to put
to water price-tags on natures life support services ?
Answer (4) (1) Robert May (2) David Tilman
156. W hich one of the following is not true for the (3) Robert Constanza (4) Paul Ehrlich
experiments of Mendel on pea ?
Answer (3)
(1) His experiments had large sampling size
162. Tetradynamous stamens are characteristic of:
(2) He chose characters of two contrasting states
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Solanaceae
(3) He used true-breeding lines
(4) His observations were based on natural, open (3) Fabaceae (4) Liliaceae
pollination Answer (1)
Answer (4)
163. Which scientist proposed Rivet popper hypothesis
157. The technique of DNA fingerprinting, is superior to related to biodiversity and Ecosystems ?
conventional fingerprinting because it can:
(1) Tansley
(1) Be generated more rapidly, and is inexpensive
(2) Alexander von Humboldt
(2) Generate unique fingerprints for each finger
(3) Paul Ehrlich
(3) Compare the whole DNA sequence of two
individuals (4) David Tilman
(4) Dif f erentiate between polymorphic DNA Answer (3)
sequences among individuals
164. Which of the following enzymes is not protein ?
Answer (4)
158. An inflorescence with younger flowers at the base (1) Ribozyme (2) Polymerase
and the older ones at its apex is known as : (3) Ligase (4) Lysozyme
(1) Hypanthodium (2) Head
Answer (1)
(3) Recemose (4) Cymose
Answer (4)
24
165. Which of the following statements is not true ? (2) Herbarium is created to house live specimens of
plant material.
(1) Energy pyramids of an ecosystem tend to
diminish at higher trophic levels (3) Museums are established to keep preserved
specimens of animals and plants.
(2) A single organism can feed at several trophic
levels (4) Botanical garden and zoological parks are
established to conserve and preserve live plants
(3) Detritivores feed at all trophic levels except the and animals respectively
producer level
Answer (2)
(4) Primary consumers are herbivores
171. Which of the following plants has association with
Answer (3) Frankia ?
166. The increase in concentration of the toxicant at (1) Lentils (2) Alfalfa
successive trophic levels is referred to as:
(3) Alnus (4) Sweet pea
(1) Biomagnification (2) Eutrophication
Answer (3)
(3) Bioremediation (4) Biotransformation
172. Match Column - I with Column - II and select the
Answer (1) correct option.
167. Select the correct option : Column - I Column - II
(1) Klinefelters syndrome is due to extra X (a) Plasmodium (i) Ringworm

chromosome and results in sterile male
(b) Wuchereria (ii) Amoebiasis
(2) Phenylketonuria is X linked disease and results
in accumulation of phenylpyruvic acid (c) Entamoeba (iii) Elephantiasis
(3) Downs syndrome is due to triploidy and results (d) Microsporum (iv) Malaria
in mental retardation Option :
(4) Turners syndrome is due to trisomy and results (a) (b) (c) (d)
in sterile female
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer (1)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
168. Pollen grains can be stored for years in liquid
nitrogen, maintained at temperature : (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) 120C (2) 20C (4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) 70C (4) 196C Answer (1)
Answer (4) 173. What is the meaning of Bt in Bt cotton ?
169. Which of the following is a proteinaceous and water (1) Cotton seeds carrying and endotoxin gene from
soluble photosynthetic pigment ? Bacillus thuringiensis against pink boll-worm
(1) Chlorophyll (2) Xanthophyll (2) Baculovirus treated cotton seeds against pink
boll-worm
(3) Phycocyanin (4) Anthocyanin
(3) Bigger thread of disease resistant cotton with
Answer (3) better tensile strength.
170. Given below are defined the various taxonomic aids (4) Cotton produced by Biotechnology using
used in taxonomy which facilitate identification and restriction Enzyme and Ligases to resist
classification of organisms. W hich one of the microbial infection
following is wrong ?
Answer (1)
(1) Key, f loras, manuals, monographs and
catalogues are useful ads for identification of
plants and animals.
25
174. The difference between Marasmus and Kwashiorkor (2) Rete testis epididymis vasa efferentia
is that : vas deferens
(1) Marasmus is a deficiency of just proteins while (3) Vasa efferentia rete testis vas deferens
Kwashiorkor is due to a deficiency of both proteins epididymis
and calories.
(4) Epididymis vasa efferentia rete testis
(2) Marasmus is caused by deficiency of Vitamin B vas deferens
while Kwashiorkor is caused by the deficiency of
Vitamin D. Answer (1)
(3) Marasmus is caused by a calorie deficiency while 178. Consider the following statments and choose the
Kwashiorkor is caused by protein deficiency. correct option :
(4) Marasmus is a simultaneous deficiency of (a) Six codons do not code for any amino acid
proteins and calories while Kwashiorkor is due (b) Codon is read in m-RNA in a contiguous fashion
to just protein deficiency unaccompanied by
calorie deficiency (c) Three codons function as stop codons
Answer (4) (d) The initiator codon AUG codes for methionine
175. In the heart, as the action potential reaches the AV Option :
node from the SA node, there is a delay of the action
potential. This delay is important because : (1) (a) is wrong
(1) It allows right atria to receive the blood from (2) (a), (b) and (d) are wrong
vena cava
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are wrong
(2) It allows atria to rest
(4) (b), (c) and (d) are wrong
(3) It allows a stronger right atrial contraction
Answer (1)
(4) It allows ventricles to receive all the blood from
179. In roots absorption of water and minerals mostly
the atria
occurs in the :
Answer (4)
(1) Root cap
176. At what phase of meiosis homologous
(2) Region of elongation
chromosomes are separated ?
(3) Region of maturation
(1) Anaphase II (2) Prophase I
(4) Meristematic region
(3) Prophase II (4) Anaphase I
Answer (3)
Answer (4)
180. Reserved material in prokaryotic cells is stored as :
177. Trace the correct path of sperm from seminiferous
tubules : (A) Basal body (B) Inclusion Bodies
(1) Rete testis vasa efferentia epididymis (C) Mesosome (D) Polysome
vas deferens
Answer (2)
26

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Answers & Solutions

Sol. W = NPE [cos0cos60] 1

Answer (2) 5. A circular coil of radius 10 cm, 500 turns and

(1) 7.73 cm (2) 7.23 cm NAB cos 0 cos180

49 (2) high permeability and low retentivity

8. A person has near point at 60 cm. The focal length

(1) 40 cm (2) 10 cm (1) The bulb stops glowing

(3) 20 cm (4) 30 cm (2) The bulb will glow brighter

Answer (4) (3) There is no change in glow of bulb

Sol. v = 60 cm u = 20 cm (4) The bulb will become dimmer

f = 30 cm more is more is L and more is XL and less is

(1) 20 km s1 (2) 2.5 km s1

Sol. = 0.1A, = 6000A

V 3 108 0.1 3 107

(1) 10.5106 m2 (2) 21.7106 m2 0 B

Answer (2) Answer (1)

Sol. B.dl 0 ID Imax Imin

nR nRT 2 r Sol. For dark fringes

19. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio interfere. The y nD 2 D

25. In the electrical circuit shown in the figure, the

V V n1n2 (3) 1.651011 m (4) 1.41010 m

1 27. Imagine earth to be a solid sphere of mass M and

2 30. A metal block of base area 0.2m 2 is connected to

(3) 2500 K (4) 10000 K Answer (3)

12106 200 = 48001010T2

33. A body initially at rest, breaks up into two pieces of A

2E E 36. A body starts moving unidirectionally under the

(1) 3: 2 (2) 1: 2 velocity increases with time

slope of s-t graph should increase

(1) NAND gate (2) AND gate V2 > 2V1

(3) OR gate (4) NOT gate

Ceq = 3(C1 + C2)

K1 K 2 2K1 K 2 RC = 24 1.51034.7103 = 16.95 V

GmMe GmMe (1) 42 J (2) 60 J

CO, HCl 'B'

37 0.5 Sol. KP = KC(RT)ng

Sol. Cr+3 have d3, so paramagnetic

the molar conductivity at infinite dilution for AgCl is (Polymer) (Monomer)

Answer (1) (3) dsp2 (4) sp3d2

Sol. CF3 is the strongest electron withdrawing group 3d 4s 4p 4d

82. If the rate of the reaction

is fastest, then Z is Hence, Empirical Formula = CH2, Empirical Weight

(3) NH2 (4) OC2H5 3.01 1020 42 103

Sol. Reactivity order during nucleophillic accyl substitution,

83. Depressant used in the concentration of an ore 84

(1) Food gathering in Paramecium

(1) H2Se (2) H2S

96. Opposite type of phyllotaxy is not present in: (1) 1968

(1) Mango (2) 1953

(2) Guava (3) 1923

(3) Calotropis (4) 1986

(4) Mint Answer (4)

Answer (1) 102. Which technique helps to identify a bacterial or viral

(1) Light intensity (2) Gravity (1) Differential leucocyte count

(3) Pressure (4) Temperature (2) ELISA

Answer (3) (3) Total leucocyte count

98. Thymosin is responsible for: (4) PCR

(1) Decreased production of T-lymphocytes Answer (4)

(4) Increased production of T-lymphocytes (1) Metameric Earthworm, Leech,

Answer (4) segmentation Liver fluke

(1) Aerobic fibres (3) Bilateral symmetry Hydra, Tapeworm,

(2) Slow oxidative fibres Sea urchin