PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY

Class II Medical Excel 2016-17 Max. Marks 720

NEET Intensive Program Duration 3 Hours
Test - 4 Date 22-12-2016
Topics Physics: Laws of Motion
Chemistry: Chemical bonding and Molecular structure
Biology: Morphology of flowering plants
Instructions
1. The test paper contains 180 multiple choice questions under four parts: Part I - Physics, Part II - Chemistry,
Part III - Biology. Answer all the questions.
2. Each question carries four marks for correct answer and one negative mark for wrong answer. Multiple markings
for the same question will be treated as wrong answer and will carry one negative mark.
3. For each question there are four options of which one option is correct. Choose the correct option and darken the
appropriate circle in the response sheet.
4. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself.
5. Calculator / Log table is not allowed.
OMR Instructions
1. Complete the particulars on side 1 of the OMR response sheet.
2. Ensure that the student ID is written on both sides of OMR response sheet.
3. Marking of more than one option for the same question will render the answer invalid.

PART I PHYSICS

1. A particle moves in the x-y plane under the influence of a force such that its linear momentum is

p(t) A(i cos(kt) jsin(kt)] where A and k are constants. The angle between the force and momentum is
(A) 0 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) 90

2. A rope of length 5 m is kept on frictionless surface and a force of 5 N is applied to one of its end. Find
tension in the rope at 1 m from this end
(A) 1 N (B) 3 N (C) 4 N (D) 5 N

3. A solid disc of mass M is just held in air horizontally by throwing 40 stones per sec vertically upwards to
strike the disc each with a velocity 6 ms1. If the mass of each stone is 0.05 kg what is the mass of the disc
(g = 10 ms2)
(A) 1.2 kg (B) 0.5 kg (C) 20 kg (D) 3 kg

4. There is a simple pendulum hanging from the ceiling of a lift. When the lift is stand still, the time period
g
of the pendulum is T. If the resultant acceleration becomes , then the new time period of the pendulum
4
is (A) 0.8 T (B) 0.25 T (C) 2 T (D) 4 T

5. A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical rope. The rope will not break when a mass of 25 kg is
suspended from it but will break if his mass exceeds 25 kg. What is the maximum acceleration with
which the monkey can climb up along the rope (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 10 m/s2 (B) 25 m/s2 (C) 2.5 m/s2 (D) 5 m/s2

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 1
6. The adjacent figure is the part of a horizontally stretched net. Section AB is
stretched with a force of 10 N. The tensions in the sections BC and BF are
(A) 10 N, 11 N
(B) 10 N, 6 N
(C) 10 N, 10 N
(D) cant calculate due to insufficient date
7. An army vehicle of mass 1000 kg is moving with a velocity of 10 m/s and is acted upon by a forward
force of 1000 N due to the engine and a retarding force of 500 N due to friction. What will be its velocity
after 10 s
(A) 5 m/s (B) 10 m/s (C) 15 m/s (D) 20 m/s
8. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of inclination . The whole system is accelerated
horizontally so that the block does not slip on the wedge. The force exerted by the wedge on the block
(g is acceleration due to gravity) will be
mg
(A) mg cos (B) mg sin (C) mg (D)
cos
9. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. A man hangs his bag on the spring and the spring
reads 49 N, when the lift is stationary. If the lift moves downward with an acceleration of 5 m/s 2, the
reading of the spring balance will be
(A) 49 N (B) 24 N (C) 74 N (D) 15 N
10. A balloon with mass m is descending down with an acceleration a (where a < g). How much mass should
be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration a
ma ma 2ma 2ma
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ga ga ga ga
11. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two are,
1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms1 and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of 8 ms1.
If the third part flies off with a velocity of 4 ms1, its mass would be
(A) 5 kg (B) 7 kg (C) 17 kg (D) 3 kg
12. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F = 600 2 105 t, where F is in newton
and t in seconds. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What is the average
impulse imparted to the bullet?
(A) 9 Ns (B) Zero (C) 0.9 Ns (D) 1.8 Ns
1
13. A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 800 ms . To give an initial upward
acceleration of 20 ms2, the amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed thrust will be
(g = 10 ms2)
(A) 127.5 kg s1 (B) 187.5 kg s1 (C) 185.5 kg s1 (D) 137.5 kg s1
dM
14. A satellite in force-free space sweeps stationary interplanetary dust at a rate v where M is the
dt
mass, v is the velocity of the satellite and is a constant. What is the deacceleration of the satellite?
2 v 2 v 2 v 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) v2
M M M
15. An object is kept on a smooth inclined plane of 1 in l. The horizontal acceleration to be imparted to the
inclined plane so that the object is stationary relative to the inclined is
g g
(A) g l 2 1 (B) g(l2 1) (C) (D) 2
2
l 1 l 1

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 2
16. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface with angle of inclination . The incline is given an
acceleration a to keep the block stationary. Then a is equal to
(A) g (B) g tan
g
(C) (D) g cosec
tan
17. The sum of magnitude of two forces acting at a point is 16 N and their resultant 8 3 N is at 90 with
the force of smaller magnitude. The two forces (in N) are
(A) 11, 5 (B) 9, 7 (C) 6, 10 (D) 2, 14
18. Three forces F1, F2 and F3 together keep a body in equilibrium. If F1 = 3 N along the positive x-axis,
F2 = 4 N along the positive y-axis, then the third force F3 is
3
(A) 5 N making an angle tan 1 with negative y-axis
4
4
(B) 5 N making an angle tan 1 with negative y-axis
3
3
(C) 7 N making an angle tan 1 with negative y-axis
4
4
(D) 7 N making an angle tan 1 with negative y-axis
3
19. Two bodies of masses 3 kg and 4 kg are suspended at the end of massless string passing over a
frictionless pulley. The acceleration of the system is (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(A) 4.9 m/s2 (B) 2.45 m/s2 (C) 1.4 m/s2 (D) 9.5 m/s2
20. Three blocks of masses m1, m2 and m3 are connected by massless strings as shown on a frictionless table.
They are filled with a force T3 = 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg and m3 = 4 kg, the tension T2 will be
(A) 20 N
(B) 40 N
(C) 10 N
(D) 32 N
21. Three blocks of masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 5 kg are connected to each other with light string and are then
placed on a frictionless surface as shown in the figure. The system is pulled by a force F = 10 N, then
tension T1 =
(A) 1 N
(B) 5 N
(C) 8 N
(D) 10 N
22. A body of weight 2 kg is suspended as shown in the figure. The tension T1 in the horizontal string
(in kg wt) is
2
(A)
3
3
(B)
2
(C) 2 3
(D) 2

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 3
23. The acceleration of system of two bodies over the wedge as shown in figure is
(A) 1 ms2
(B) 2 ms2
(C) 0.5 ms2
(D) 10 ms2
24. Three blocks of mass 4 kg, 2 kg, 1 kg respectively are in contact
on a frictionless table as shown in the figure. If a force of 14 N
is applied on the 4 kg block, the contact force between the 4 kg
and the 2 kg block will be
(A) 2 N (B) 6 N (C) 8 N (D) 14 N
25. In the arrangement shown in figure the ends P and Q at an unstretchable
string move downwards with uniform speed U. Pulleys A and B are fixed.
Mass M moves upwards with a speed
(A) 2U cos (B) U cos
2U U
(C) (D)
cos cos
26. The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are smooth and of negligible
mass. For the system to remain in equilibrium, the angle should be
(A) 0
(B) 30
(C) 45
(D) 60
27. A string of negligible mass going over a clamped pulley of mass m supports a
block of mass M as shown in the figure. The force on the pulley by the clamp
is given by
(A) 2Mg (B) 2mg
(C)
(M m) 2 m 2 g (D)
(M m) 2 M 2 g

28. A flat plate moves normally with a speed v1 towards a horizontal jet of water of uniform area of cross-
section. The jet discharges water at the rate of volume V per second at a speed of v2. The density of
water is . Assume that water splashes along the surface of the plate at right angles to the original
motion. The magnitude of the force acting on the plate due to the jet of water is
V V
(A) Vv1 (B) V(v1 + v2) (C) v12 (D) (v1 v 2 ) 2
v1 v 2 v2
29. A particle of mass m is at rest at the origin at time t = 0. It is subjected to a force F(t) = F0ebt in the x
direction. Its speed v(t) is depicted by which of the following curves

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 4
30. A particle of mass m, initially at rest, is acted upon by a variable force
F for a brief interval of time T. It begins to move with a velocity u
after the force stops acting. F is shown in the graph as a function of
time. The curve is a semicircle.
F2 T 2
(A) u 0 (B) u
2m 8m
F0 T F0 T
(C) u (D) u
4m 2m
31. A body of mass 3 kg is acted on by a force which varies as shown in the graph below. The momentum
acquired is given by
(A) Zero
(B) 5 N-s
(C) 30 N-s
(D) 50 N-s
32. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane. The inclination of the plane is gradually
increased till the block just begins to slide down. The inclination of the plane is then 3 in 5. The
coefficient of friction between the block and the plane is (g = 10 m s2)
3 3 4 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 4 5 3
1
33. A car turns a corner on a slippery road at a constant speed of 12 m s . If the coefficient of friction is 0.4,
the minimum radius of the arc in metres in which the car turns is
(A) 72 (B) 36 (C) 18 (D) 9
34. A body of mass m rests on a horizontal floor with which it has a coefficient of static friction is desired to

make the body move by applying a minimum possible force F as shown in the diagram. The values of
and Fmin shall be respectively equal to
mg mg
(A) tan 1 , (B) tan 1 ,
1
2
1 2
mg mg
(C) tan 1 , (D) tan 1 ,
1
2
1 2
k
35. A particle moves in a circular orbit of radius r under a central attractive force F , k is constant. The
r
time period of its motion shall proportional to
1 3 2
(A) r 2 (B) r (C) r 2 (D) r 3
36. A block released from rest from the top of a smooth inclined plane of inclination 45, takes time t to
reach the bottom. The same block released from rest, from top of a rough inclined plane of same
inclination takes time 2t to reach the bottom. The coefficient of friction is
(A) 0.75 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.4
37. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The coefficient of
friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is
(A) 2 N
10 N
(B) 20 N
(C) 50 N
(D) 100 N

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 5
38. A heavy uniform chain lies on horizontal table top. If the coefficient of friction between the chain and
the table top is 0.25, then the maximum fraction of the length of the chain that can hang over the edge of
the table is
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 35% (D) 15%
39. Velocity a particle of mass 2 kg varies with time according to the equation v 2ti 4j ms 1 . Here t is
in second. The impulse imparted to the particle in the time interval from t 0 to t 2s is
(A) 8 Ns (B) 10 Ns (C) 6 Ns (D) 4 Ns
40. A bird of weight 5 N sits at the midpoint of a clothesline. The line is
30 30
so distorted that it makes 30 angle with the horizontal at each end as
shown in the figure. The tension in the clothesline is T T
(A) 5 N
(B) 5 cos 30 N
(C) 5 sin 30 N 5N
(D) 5.98 N
41. A block of mass m is placed on the top of another block of mass M as shown
in the figure. The coefficient of friction between them is .
The maximum acceleration with which the block M may move so that m
also moves along with it is
M m g
(A) g (B) g (C) g (D)
m M
42. A body of mass 2 kg moving on a horizontal surface with an initial velocity of 4 m/s comes to rest after
2s. If one want to keep this body moving on the same surface with a velocity of 4 m/s, the force
required is
(A) 8 N (B) 4 N (C) 2 N (D) zero
43. A block of mass 2 kg rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30 with the horizontal. The
coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is 0.7. The frictional force on the block is
(A) 9.8 N (B) 0.7 9.8 3 N (C) 9.8 3 N (D) 0.7 9.8 N
44. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a force F is
applied at one end of the rope, the force which the rope exerts on the block is
(A) F/(M + m) (B) F (C) MF/(m + M) (D) zero
45. Three equal weights of mass 2kg each are hanging on a string passing over a fixed pulley as shown in
figure. What is the tension in the string connecting weighs B and C?
(A) zero
(B) 13 N
(C) 3.3 N
(D) 19.6 N

PART II - CHEMISTRY
46. Most favourable conditions for ionic bonding are
(A) high charge, small cation, large anion (B) low charge, large cation, small anion
(C) low charge, large cation, large anion (D) high charge, small cation, small anion
47. Highest covalent character is found in:
(A) CaF2 (B) CaCl2 (C) CaBr2 (D) CaI2

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 6
48. The formal charges on the nitrogen atoms from left to right in the azide ion([N=N=N]) are
(A) +1, 1, 1 (B) 1, +1, 1 (C) 1, 1, +1 (D) 2, +1, 0
49. What is the correct order of decreasing bond angle?
(A) NH 4 NH 3 NH 2 (B) NH3 NH 2 NH 4
(C) NH 4 NH 2 NH 3 (D) NH3 NH 4 NH 2
50. Among the following
(i) XeO3 (ii) XeOF4 (iii) XeF6
The molecules having same number of lone pairs on Xe are
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (i) and (iii) only (C) (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
51. The correct order of increasing bond length of CH, CO, CC and C=C is
(A) CH < CO < CC < C=C (B) CH < C=C < CO < CC
(C) CC < C=C < CO < CH (D) CO < CH < CC < C=C
52. The decreasing order of dipole moment of the molecules
(A) NF3 NH3 H 2 O BF3 (B) NH3 NF3 H 2 O BF3
(C) H 2 O NH3 NF3 BF3 (D) H 2 O NH3 BF3 NF3
53. In which of the following pairs, both molecules possess dipole moment?
(A) CO2, SO2 (B) BCl3, PCl3 (C) H2O, SO2 (D) CO2, CS2
54. Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment?
(A) BF3 (B) SiF4 (C) SF4 (D) XeF4
55. Which of the following is a non-polar molecule?
(A) H2O (B) CHCl3 (C) CO (D) CH4
56. The dipole moment of NH3 is
(A) smaller than NCl3 (B) higher than NCl3
(C) equal to that of NCl3 (D) none of these
57. Shape of O2F2 is similar to that of
(A) C2F2 (B) H2O2 (C) H2F2 (D) C2H2
58. Which has more number of lone pairs on the central atom
(A) PF3 (B) XeF6 (C) SF4 (D) BrF3
59. In OF2, number of bond pairs and total lone pairs of electrons are respectively
(A) 2, 6 (B) 2, 8 (C) 2, 10 (D) 2, 9
60. The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H, yet the dipole
moment of NH3 (1.5 D) is larger than that of NF3 (0.2 D). This is because
(A) in NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions
(B) in NH3, the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3, these are in
the same direction
(C) in NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction.
(D) in NH3, the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF3 these are in
opposite directions.
61. The bond order of a molecule is given by
(A) the difference between the number of electrons in bonding and antibonding orbitals
(B) total number of electrons in bonding and antibonding orbitals
(C) twice the difference between the number of electrons in bonding and antibonding orbitals
(D) half the difference between number of electrons in bonding and antibonding orbitals

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 7
62. Which of the following is an example of octet molecule?
(A) ClF3 (B) PCl5 (C) IF7 (D) none of these
63. The stability of ionic crystal depends principally on
(A) high electron affinity of anion forming species
(B) the lattice energy of crystal
(C) low I.E of cation forming species
(D) low of heat of substitution of cation forming solid.
64. What is the formal charge of carbon in CO2?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 1.5
2
65. Any one of the three equivalent resonance forms for the CO3 ion would show around the carbon atom
(A) three single bonds
(B) two single and a double bond
(C) three single bonds and one lone pair of electrons
(D) two single bonds and two lone pairs of electrons
66. Which of the following has p d bonding?
(A) NO 3 (B) SO 32 (C) BO 33 (D) CO 32
67. Among the following, the pair in which the two species are not isostructural is
(A) SiF4 and SF4 (B) IO 3 and XeO 3 (C) BH 4 and NH 4 (D) PF6 and SF6
68. The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of the hydrocarbon
CH3 CH3
CH3
7
C CH CH CH C CH
6 5 4 3 2 1
CH3
is in the following sequence
(A) sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp (B) sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3
(C) sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2 (D) sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3
69. Two atoms X and Y have 2 and 6 electrons in their outermost shells. They form a compound of the type
(A) XY (B) X2Y (C) XY2 (D) X2Y2
70. If the central atom in certain molecule has two lone pairs and three bond pairs, the shape of the
molecule could be
(A) T-shaped (B) trigonal planar
(D) trigonal bipyramidal (D) distorted tetrahedral
71. SO4 ion exists as resonance hybrid of four equivalent structures. In each of these structures S atom
contains
(A) 3 single, one double bond (B) All single bonds
(C) 2 single, two double bonds (D) All double bonds
72. Among HF, CH4, CH3OH and N2O4 intermolecular hydrogen bond in expected
(A) in two (B) in all
(C) in all leaving one (D) None of these
73. Hybridization of N in H2NNH2 is
(A) sp (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) sp3d
74. The bond length between sp3-hybrid carbon and other carbon is minimum in
(A) Propane (B) Butane (C) Propene (D) Propyne
75. The hybridised state of oxygen in water molecule is
(A) sp (B) sp3 (C) sp2 (D) d2 sp3

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 8
76. Match List I and List II and pick out correct matching codes from the given choices.
List I (Compound) List II (Structure)
a. ClF3 1. Square planar
b. PCl5 2. Tetrahedral
c. IF5 3. Trigonal bipyramidal
d. CCl4 4. Square pyramidal
e. XeF4 5. T-shaped
(A) a 5, b 4, c 3, d 2, e 1 (B) a 5, b 3, c 4, d 2, e 1
(C) a 5, b 3, c 4, d 1, e 2 (D) a 4, b 3, c 5, d 2, e 1
77. X, Y are anhydrides of sulphurous acid and sulphuric acid respectively. the hybridization state and the
shape of X and Y are
X Y
2 3
(A) sp , angular sp , tetrahedral
(B) sp2, angular sp2, angular
(C) sp2, angular sp2, planar triangular
(D) sp3, planar sp3, planar

78. Highest energetic molecular orbital is

(A) * 2p x (B) * 2p y (C) * 2p z (D) p z
79. In which of the following pairs, the two species have identical bond order?
(A) N 2 , O 22 (B) N 2 , O2 (C) N 2 , O2 (D) O2 , N 22
80. The correct statement with regards to H 2 and H 2 is
(A) both H 2 and H 2 do not exist (B) H 2 is more stable than H 2
(C) H 2 is more stable than H 2 (D) both H 2 and H 2 are equally stable
81. The bond order of CO molecule is:
(A) 2 (B) 2.5 (C) 3 (D) 3.5
82. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is
(A) SeH2 < OH2 < SH2 (B) OH2 < SH2 < SeH2
(C) OH2 < SeH2 < SH2 (D) SeH2 < SH2 < OH2
83. Atomic radii of fluorine and neon in angstrom unit are respectively given by
(A) 0.72, 1.60 (B) 1.60. 1.60 (C) 0.72, 0.72 (D) 1.60, 0.72
84. The solubility of KCl is relatively more in (where D is dielectric constant)
(A) C6H6 (D = 0) (B) (CH3)2CO(D = 2) (C) CH3OH(D = 32) (D) CCl4 (D = 0)
85. In which molecule the van der Waals force is likely to be the most important in determining the m.p.
and b.p.?
(A) Br2 (B) CO (C) H2S (D) HCl
86. In a double bond connecting two atoms there is a sharing of
(A) 2 electrons (B) 4 electrons (C) 1 electron (D) all electrons
87. The OH bond distance in water molecule is
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.33 (C) 0.96 (D) 1.45

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 9
88. Which bond has the highest bond energy?
(A) Coordinate bond (B) Sigma bond (C) Multiple bond (D) Polar covalent bond
89. The correct order in which the OO bond dissociation increases in the following is?
(A) H2O2 < O2 < O3 (B) O3 < H2O2 < O2 (C) O2 < H2O2 < O3 (D) H2O2 < O3 < O2
90. Which property is commonly exhibited by a covalent compound?
(A) High solubility in water (B) Low m.p.
(C) High electrical conductivity (D) High b.p.

PART III - BIOLOGY

91. Edible roots are found in
(A) rice (B) wheat (C) potato (D) sweet potato
92. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Type of fleshy tap root) (Example)
a. Conical (i) Brassica rapa
b. Fusiform (ii) Daucus carota
c. Napiform (iii) Raphanus sativus
d. Tuberous (iv) Mirabills jalapa
(A) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv) (B) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(C) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv) (D) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
93. Refer the given figure and select the incorrect statement regarding this.
(A) This type of root system develops from radicle of embryo.
(B) Lateral roots arising, from the main root are exogenous in origin.
(C) Rootlets are the ultimate root branches that bear root hair for absorption.
(D) Secondary and tertiary roots are borne in acropetal succession.
94. Select the group of plants that possess stilt roots.
(A) Zea mays, Rhizophora mangal (B) Pandanus odoratissimus, Ficus benghalensis
(C) Rhizophora mangal, Hedera helix (D) Ficus benghalensis, Pisum sativum
95. Read the given statements and select the correct ones.
(i) Root caps are present in prop roots.
(ii) Pneumatophores help to get oxygen for respiration.
(iii) Edible part of ginger is underground stem.
(iv) Hydrophytes usually possess a well developed root system.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
96. Following table summarizes the differences between phylloclades and cladodes (cladophylls).
Phylloclade Cladode
(i) Both main stem and branches are modified to Only the branches are modified to take over the
function like leaves. function of leaves.
(ii) Phylloclade has unlimited or indefinite growth. Cladode also has unlimited or indefinite growth.
(iii) It consists of several nodes and internodes. It is usually one internode long.
(iv) True leaves are commonly caducous. True leaves are either reduced to scales or
modified to spines.
(v) Examples: Examples:
Ruscus aculeatus, Asparagus, etc. Opuntia, Euphorbia royleana, etc.
2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 10
 Pick up the wrong differences and select the correct option.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (v) (C) (iii) and (v) (D) (ii) and (iv)
97. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: The stem tubers are the swollen ends of specialized underground stem branches, which
help in vegetative propagation of the plant.
Statement 2: Solanum tuberosum is an example of a stem tuber which stores inulin as the main reserve
food material.
(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1
(C) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
98. ________ are one internode long runners, usually found in rosette plants at the ground/water level.
(A) Trailers (B) Offsets (C) Stolons (D) Rhizomes
99. In Opuntia, the function of photosynthesis is carried out by
(A) cladode (B) phyllode (C) phylloclade (D) stipules.
100. The eyes of the potato tuber represent
(A) nodes (B) root buds (C) flower buds (D) leaf buds.
101. Select the mismatched pair out of the following.
(A) Rhizome Dryopteris, Nelumbo nucifera
(B) Corm Crocus sativus, Amorphophallus
(C) Sucker Curcuma domestica, Zingiber officinale
(D) Tuber Helianthus tuberosus, Solanumtuberosum
102. With regard to the given figure, select the correct answer.
(A) It possesses one or more nodes.
(B) It grows aerially for some distance and finally touches the ground.
(C) It is present in Fragaria, Jasminum etc.
(D) All of these.
103. Which of the following represents the edible swollen portion of Ailium cepa?
(A) Aerial stem (B) Underground stem
(C) Internodes (D) Leaf bases
104. Which of the following plant parts in garlic and onion are edible?
(A) Underground stem (B) Fleshy scale leaves (C) Tunic (D) Adventitious roots
105. In _______ phyllotaxy, a pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other as in _______
plant.
(A) alternate, Hibiscus (B) opposite, Hibiscus
(C) opposite, Calotropis (D) whorled, Calotropis
106. Different parts of a leaf are modified into tendrils which help the plant in climbing up. Identify the type
of tendril that is seen in Clematis.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 11
107. Reticulate venation is a characteristic of dicots. An exception to this generalization is
(A) Calophyllum (B) Ficus (C) Hibiscus (D) Zizyphus
108. Study the following flowchart and select the correct option for P, Q, R and S.

P Q R S
(A) Banana, Canna Fan palm Mango, Peepal Smilax, Zizyphus
(B) Banana, Canna Smilax, Zizyphus Mango, Peepal Fan palm
(C) Mango, Peepal Banana, Canna Fan palm Smilax, Zizyphus
(D) Mango, Peepal Fan palm Smilax, Zizyphus Banana, Canna
109. Select the incorrect match with respect to the plant and the relative plant part modified for food storage.
(A) Lathyrus odoratus (Sweet potato) Root
(B) Solanum tuberosum (Potato) Stem
(C) Zingiberofficinale (Ginger) Rhizome
(D) Dahlia (Dahlia) Leaves
110. The given figure shows some types of inflorescences. Select the option that correctly identifies them.
A B C D
(A) Panicle Spike Corymb Catkin
(B) Spike Panicle Corymb Catkin
(C) Panicle Catkin Umbel Spike
(D) Panicle Spike Umbel Corymb

111. Identify the types of inflorescence shown in figure and select the correct option for A and B.
A B
(A) Cymose Racemose
(B) Racemose Cymose
(C) Racemose Racemose
(D) Cymose Cymose

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 12
112. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
a. Pedicel (i) Reduced leaf
b. Peduncle (ii) Stalk of the flower
c. Bract (iii) Stalk of the leaf
d. Petiole (iv) Inflorescence axis
(A) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii) (B) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(C) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv) (D) a-(ii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(v)
113. On the basis of relative position of different floral parts on the thalamus, a flower can be hypogynous,
perigynous or epigynous. With respect to the given figures (A, B, C and D), select the correct option.

A B C D
(A) Hypogynous Perigynous Perigynous Epigynous
(B) Hypogynous Epigynous Epigynous Perigynous
(C) Epigynous Hypogynous Perigynous Perigynous
(D) Hypogynous Hypogynous Perigynous Epigynous
114. Find out the incorrect match.
(A) Sterile stamen Staminode
(B) Stamens attached to petals Epipetalous
(C) Stamens attached to perianth Episepalous
(D) Free stamens Polyandrous
115. Identify the different types of aestivation (A, B, C and D) and select the correct option.

A B C D
(A) Valvate Twisted Imbricate Vexillary
(B) Imbricate Twisted Valvate Vexillary
(C) Twisted Imbricate Vexillary Valvate
(D) Twisted Imbricate Valvate Vexillary
116. In _________ placentation, a monocarpellary ovary bears a single longitudinal ovule along the junction
of two fused margins.
(A) axile (B) parietal
(C) free central (D) marginal

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 13
117. Which of the following figures represent a typical placentation as seen in Hibiscus rosasinens is
(China rose)?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

118. Read the given statements.

(i) Gynoecium occupies the highest position while the other floral parts are situated below it,
(ii) Ovary is superior.
(iii) Examples are Brassica, Hibiscus, brinjal, etc.
Which condition of flowers is being described by the above statements?
(A) Hypogyny (B) Perigyny (C) Epigyny (D) None of these
119. The given figure represents vexillary aestivation. Select the suitable labels for P, Q, and R.
P Q R
(A) Standard Wing Ala
(B) Standard Keel Wing
(C) Wing Keel Carina
(D) Standard Ala Carina
120. Syngenesious condition of stamens is found in family
(A) Asteraceae (B) Liliaceae (C) Cruciferae (D) Malvaceae
121. Monothecous condition of stamens i.e. presence of a single anther lobe is a characteristic of family
(A) Cucurbitaceae (B) Malvaceae (C) Asteraceae (D) Brassicaceae.
122. Maize grain is a fruit known as
(A) cypsela (B) caryopsis (C) legume (D) achene
123. Given figure represents a drupe of mango. Select the option that correctly identifies A, B, C and D.

A B C D
(A) Pericarp Epicarp Mesocarp Endocarp
(B) Epicarp Mesocarp Endocarp Seed
(C) Mesocarp Epicarp Endocarp Seed
(D) Epicarp Mesocarp Seed Endocarp

124. Coleorhiza and coleoptile are the protective sheaths covering ________ and _________ respectively.
(A) radicle, plumule (B) plumule, radicle
(C) plumule, hypocotyl (D) epicotyl, radicle
125. Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure showing L.S. of a monocot seed and select the correct option.

A B C D
(A) Endosperm Scutellum Plumule Radicle
(B) Endosperm Scutellum Radicle Plumule
(C) Scutellum Endosperm Radicle Plumule
(D) Plumule Radicle Scutellum Endosperm

126. Which floral family has (9) + 1 arrangement of anthers in the androecium?
(A) Malvaceae (B) Rutaceae (C) Fabaceae (D) Caesalpinaceae

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 14
127. Study carefully the given floral diagram and select the option which correctly represents the related
floral formula (F.F).
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

128. Which floral conditions are represented by the symbols and % respectively?
(A) Zygomorphic and actinomorphic flowers (B) Actinomorphic and zygomorphic flowers
(C) Hypogynous and epigynous flowers (D) Bisexual and unisexual flowers
129. Select the pair which contains monocotyledonous families.
(A) Solanaceae and Brassicaceae (B) Fabaceae and Asteraceae
(C) Liliaceae and Poaceae (D) None of these
130. Persistent calyx is the character of plants belonging to family
(A) Solanaceae (B) Malvaceae
(C) Cruciferae (Brassicaceae) (D) Compositae
131. The placenta is attached to the developing seed near the
(A) testa (B) hilum (C) micropyle (D) chalaza.
132. Match the followings and choose correct option.
Group A Group B
A. Aleurone layer (i) without fertilization
B. Parthenocarpic fruit (ii) Nutrition
C. Ovule (iii) Double fertilization
D. Endosperm (iv) Seed
(A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) (B) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(C) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii) (D) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
133. Fibrous root system originates from the base of
(A) root (B) stem (C) leaves (D) lamina
134. The main function (s) of root is
(A) absorption of water and minerals
(B) to provide proper anchorage of plant
(C) to store reserve food material and synthesis of plant growth regulators
(D) All of the above
135. Smallest region of the root is
(A) root cap (B) region of elongation
(C) region of meristematic activity (D) region of maturation
136. Root hairs are present on the
(A) root cap (B) region of elongation
(C) region of maturation (D) region of dividing cell
137. Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious roots of sweet potato are the modification for the storage of
(A) water (B) food
(C) secondary compound (D) primary compound
138. Prop roots are the modification for
(A) support (B) respiration (C) storage food (D) increasing mass

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 15
139. Stilt roots originate from the nodal part of
(A) stem (B) secondary root (C) leaf (D) primary root
140. Which one of the following is a stem vegetable?
(A) Sweet potato (B) Potato (C) Turnip (D) Carrot
141. In banana, pineapple and Chrysanthemum, the lateral branches originate from the basal and underground
portion of main stem and then come obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots. These branches are
called
(A) runner (B) corm (C) bulb (D) sucker
142. Lateral branches with short internodes and each nodes bearing a rosette of leaves above and a tuft of
roots below is found in aquatic plants like Pistia and Eichhornia. These lateral branches are called
(A) suckers (B) offsets (C) stolons (D) rhizome
143. Identify A, B and Cm the given diagram.

(A) A-Leaf base, B-Petiole, C-Lamina (B) A-Leaf base, B-Lamina, C-Petiole
(C) A-Lamina, B-Petiole, C-Leaf base (D) A-Lamina, B-Leaf base, C-Petiole
144. Leaf base expands into sheath covering the stem partially or wholly. This is the characteristic of
(A) dicot (B) monocot (C) pteridophytes (D) gymnosperm
145. Swollen leaf base is called
(A) lemma (B) petiole (C) pulvinus (D) leaf blade
146. Petiole
(A) helps to hold the leaf blade (B) allows leaf blades to flutter wind
(C) helps in cooling the leaf (D) all of the above
147. Arrangements of veins and the veinlets in the lamina of leaf is termed as
(A) phyllotaxy (B) venation (C) inflorescence (D) petioles
148. Leaves of dicotyledon plants generally exhibits
(A) oblique venation (B) lateral venation (C) reticulate venation (D) parallel venation
149. Flower is always solitary when
(A) shoot bud transforms into flower (B) shoot tip transforms into flower
(C) lateral shoot transforms into flower (D) horizontal shoot transforms into flower
150. Inflorescence is the arrangement of
(A) leaves on the floral axis (B) buds on the floral axis
(C) flowers on the floral axis (D) petioles on the floral axis
151. Identify the type of inflorescence in the given diagrams (A and B).

(A) A-Racemose; B-Cymose

(B) A-Cymose; B-Racemose
(C) A-Cymose; B-Cymose
(D) A-Racemose; B-Racemose

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 16
152. Perianth is the condition in which
(A) calyx and corolla are fused (B) calyx is present but corolla is absent
(C) corolla is present but calyx is absent (D) calyx and corolla are indistinct
153. I. When flower has both an androecium and gynoecium, it is called ...A....
II. When flower has either stamens or only carpel, it is called ...B...
Complete the given statement by choosing appropriate options for A and B.
(A) A-unisexual; B-bisexual (B) A-bisexual; B-unisexual
(C) A-bisexual; B-hermaphrodite (D) A-hermaphrodite; B-bisexual
154. Name the type of aestivation when sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margin
without overlapping.
(A) Twisted aestivation (B) Valvate aestivation
(C) Imbricate aestivation (D) Vexillary aestivation
155. Identify the types of placentation in the given diagrams (A to E)

(A) A-Marginal, B-Axile, C-Parietal, D-Free central, E-Basal

(B) A-Marginal, B-Basal, C-Parietal, D-Free central, E-Axile
(C) A-Parietal, B-Basal, C-Marginal, D-Free central, E-Axile
(D) A-Parietal, B-Axile, C-Marginal, D-Free central, E-Basal
156. Match the aestivation with the examples given and pick the correct choice:

(A) Valvate, aestivation, Sesbania (B) Imbricate aestivation, Solanum

(C) Twisted aestivation, Allium (D) Vexillary aestivation, Trifolium
157. Fruit is
(A) mature ovary developed before fertilisation (B) ripened ovary developed before fertilisation
(C) ripened ovary developed after fertilisation (D) mature undeveloped ovary
158. Pericarp may be or can be differentiated into
(A) epicarp (B) mesocarp (C) endocarp (D) All of the above
159. I. Epicarp is thin.
II. Mesocarp is fleshy and edible.
III. Endocarp is strong hard.
These are the probable features of
(A) coconut (B) brinjal
(C) almond (D) mango

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 17
160. G 2 represents
(A) gynoecium, bicarpellary, apocarpous, superior
(B) gynoecium, bicarpellary, syncarpous, inferior
(C) gynoecium, bicarpellary, apocarpous, inferior
(D) gynoecium, bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior
161. Liliaceae
(A) is commonly called lily family
(B) is a representative of monocotyledonous plants
(C) is a representative of dicotyledonous plants
(D) Both (A) and (B)

162. +
P3 3 or 3 3 A 3 3 G 3 is the floral formula of
(A) Malvaceae (B) Solanaceae (C) Cwciferae (D) Liliaceae
163. Given floral diagram represents

(A) Solanaceae
(B) Fabaceae
(C) Liliaceae
(D) Musaceae

164. Bicarpellary syncarpous ovary with axile placentation is seen in

(A) Solanaceae (B) Caesalpinaceae (C) Asteraceae (D) Malvaceae
165. Colchicum autumnale belongs to
(A) Solanaceae (B) Fabaceae (C) Liliaceae (D) Malvaceae
166. Which of the following is incorrect about the diagrams A and B?

(A) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious root of sweet potato get swollen and store food
(B) Pneumatophores help to get oxygen for respiration
(C) Pneumatophores are found in the plants that grows in sandy soil
(D) A is underground roots, but B grows vertically upwards

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 18
167. Identify the stem modification for (A to D).

(A) A-Support, B-Storage, C-Vegetative propagation, D-Protection

(B) A-Storage, B-Support, C-Vegetative propagation, D-Protection
(C) A-Storage, B-Support, C-Protection, D-Vegetative reproduction
(D) A-Support, B-Storage, C-Protection, D-Vegetative reproduction

168. Identify the type of venation in the given diagram (A and B)

(A) A-Reticulate (dicotyledons); B-Parallel (monocots)

(B) A-Reticulate (monocots); B-Parallel (dicots)
(C) A-Parallel (dicots); B-Reticulate (monocots)
(D) A-Parallel (monocots); B-Reticulate (dicots)

169. Identify the types ofeaves given in the diagram A and B.

(A) A-Pinnately compound leaf (neem); B-Palmately compound leaf
(silk cotton)
(B) A-Pinnately compound leaf (silk cotton); B-Palmately compound
leaf (neem)
(C) A-Palmately compound leaf (silk cotton); B-Pinnately compound
leaf (neem)
(D) A-Palmately compound leaf (neem); B-Pinnately compound leaf
(silk cotton)
170. Identify the type of aestivation in the given diagrams (A to D).

(A) A-Twisted, B-Valvate, C-Vexillary, D-Imbricate

(B) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-Vexillary
(C) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Vexillary, D-Imbricate
(D) A-Valvate, B-Vexillary, C-Twisted, D-Imbricate

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 19
171. Identify the type of petals in the given diagrams (A, B and C).

(A) A-Wings, B-Keel, C-Standard

(B) A-Keel, B-Wings, C-Standard
(C) A-Standard, B-Wings, C-Keel
(D) A-Standard, B-Keel, C-Wings

172. Identify the family represented in given floral diagram.

(A) Brassicaceae
(B) Poaceae
(C) Asteracae
(D) Fabaceae
173. The direct elongation of radicle leads to the formation of
(A) stem (B) primary root (C) secondary root (D) tertiary root
174. Primary roots and its branches constitute the
(A) tap root system (B) adventitious root system
(C) tertiary root system (D) fibrous root system
175. Stem develops from
(A) epicotyle (B) hypocotyle (C) plumule (D) radicle
176. Leaves of dicotyledon plants generally exhibits
(A) oblique venation (B) lateral venation
(C) reticulate venation (D) parallel venation
177. Leaf having single or undivided lamina is called
(A) compound leaf (B) simple leaf (C) Either (A) or (B) (D) general leaf

Assertion & Reason

(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If both assertion and reason are false.
178. Assertion: Monoadelphous stamens are found in pea.
Reason: Diadelphous stamens are found in china rose.
179. Assertion: The floral formula of family Solanaceae is
Reason: This floral formula tells that flower is bisexual, sepals five, petals five, stamens five and
gynoecium tricarpellary, trilocular with many ovules.
180. Assertion: In some leguminous plants, the leaf base is swollen.
Reason: The swollen leaf base is called pulvinus.

***

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 20
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2ME1617PCB(NIP)T4 21