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EEA/507 2012

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Series [8J

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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

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Paper III

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Time: 150 Minutes Max. Marks: 150

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INSTRUCTIONS

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1. Please check the Test Booklet and ensure that it contains all the questions. If you find any defect
in the Test Booklet or Answer Sheet, please get it replaced immediately.

2. pa
The Test Booklet contains 150 questions. F;ach question carries one mark.
3. The Test Booklet is printed in four (4) Series, viz. ~ ffi][Q] [m. The Series, [A] or [ID or [a or
m
IQ] is printed on the right-hand corner of the cover page of the Test Booklet. Mark your Test
Booklet Series [A] or [ill or [Q] or rnJ in Part C on side 1 of the Answer Sheet by darkening the
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appropriate circle with BluelBlack Ball point pen.

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Example to fill up the Booklet Series

If your Test Booklet Series is A, please fill as shown below:
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If you have not marked the Test Booklet Series at Part C of side 1 of the Answer
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Sheet or marked in a way that it leads to discrepancy in determining the exact

Test Booklet Series, then, in all such cases, your Answer Sheet will be invalidated
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without any further notice. No correspondence will be entertained in the matter.

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4. Each question is followed by 4 answer choices. Of these, you have to select one correct answer and
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mark it on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle for the question. If more than
one circle is darkened, the answer will not be valued at all. Use BluelBlack Ball point pen to make
heavy black marks to fill the circle completely. Make no other stray marks.
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e.g. : If the answer for Question No.1 is Answer choice (2), it should be marked as follows:
 1
Intransmission
a JLC line negligible16.Is.

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EEA/507
JL+C having ( 3)
~
JLC is
the surge impedance
(4) (1) As the height of transmission tower is
(2) increased, the line capacitance and line

o
(3)
inductance respectively

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(1) decreases, remains unaltered.

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(2) decreases, decreases
(3) increases, decreases

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(4) increases, remains unaltered

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If the span of a transmission is increased by
10%, the sag of line increases by about
(1) 10%
2.
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Which distribution system is more reliable? (2) 15%
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(3) 21%
(1) Tree system
(4) 30%
(2) Radial system
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un Ring main system 7. Transposition of conductors is done when

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(4) All are equally reliable (1) the conductors are not spaced
equilaterally
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(2) the conductors are spaced equilaterally

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3. Alternating current power is transmitted at (3) a telephone line runs parallel to power
high voltage line
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(1) to safeguard against pilferage (4) None of the above

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(2) to reduce cost of generation

8. For transmission line span,of '2L', horizontal
(3) to make the system reliable tension at tower supports is 'T' and weight of
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to minimize transmission losses conductor per unit length is 'w'. The

--
2wL
wL I
2wL2 -- 2T,
maximum sag equals
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(2)
---
T
2T
the
over
Anytravelling
on
switchgear
surge
voltage
step-down
voltage
lightningwL2
T
relay
transformer
arrester I I (3)
(1)
(4)
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EEA/507 (4 )

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9. terms of
Surge ABCD parameters
impedance Zc may as
be below :
expressed in 112. ~cIrcmt
s~ortconsIstmg of
t~a~smission line has equivalent

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and
and
senes
open
line
short
(1) resistance
series
shunt
enes
Surgecan L practically
inductance
Rbe
circuit
impedance
circuit theoretically
impedance
of 400
impedance loaded
ofloaded
ofQ400
means
400 upto
Qupto
Q
(1)
Zc
Z =-~ JAB-CD
= JAC-BD
JBA
inductance
conductance LCG 400 Q
c BC capacitance
CD (4)
(4)

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(2)
(3)
(2)
(3) (1)
(3)
(2) 13.
(4)

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10. The following condition relates the line
resistance 'R' and the line reactance 'X' for
maximum steady state power transmission
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on a transmission line
R
(1) R=X
X=.J3
R=.J3 .R
.X
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X = J2
(2)
(3)
(4)
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14. Guy is attached to a transmission pole to

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(1) reduce the sag

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(2) hold the telephone lines

11. Charging current due to capacitance 'c' when (3) strengthen the pole
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a single-phase line is transmitting power at (4) None of the above

voltage 'V' and angular frequency ro is
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(1) --1 15. The capacitance between the two conductors

jroCV of a single-phase two wire line is 0'5 ~tF/km.
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The capacitance of each conductor to the

(2) jroCV neutral will be

(1) 05 ~F/km
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jroV
(3)
C
(2) 025 ~F/km
V (3) 10 ~F/km
(4)
jroC
(4) 20 ~F/km
EEA/507 (5 )

16. The string efficiency of an insulator can be 121. Which insulator can be used either III

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increased by horizontal or vertical position ?

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(1) reducing the number of strings in the (1) Strain type
insulator '
(2) Shackle type
(2) increasing the number of strings in the

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insulator (3) Pin type
correct grading of insulators of various (4) Suspension type

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capacities
(4) None of the above 22. String efficiency being 100 percent means

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(1) potential across each disc is zero
17. For high voltage applications, insulators used

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are of II (2) one of the insulator discs is shorted
I
1) suspension type I un potential across each disc is same

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(2) pin type (4) None of the above
(3) strain type pa
(4) None of the above 23. By using a guard ring, string efficiency of
suspension insulators will be
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18. On a transmission line, whenever the
(1) decreased
conductors are dead ended or there is change
in the direction of transmission line, the (2) increased
x

insulators used are

(3) constant
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(1) suspension type

(4) independent of shunt capacitance
(2) pin type
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strain type 24. Porcelain insulators are glazed

(4) None of the above
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(1) to improve the appearance

19. During rains, the direct capacitance of (2) so that water should glide down easily
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suspension type insulator (3) to prevent absorption of gases and

(1) decreases water vapours
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(2) mcreases (4) due to all the above

(3) remains the same
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(4) None of the above 125. If the voltage across the string of a string
insulator assembly is 38 kV, number of
insulation discs are 4 and voltage across the
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20. In a string of suspension insulators,

lowermost disc is 12 kV, the string efficiency
maximum potential will appear across the IS
unit
76,5%
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nearest to the conductor (1: 70%

100%
50%

(2) nearest to the cross-arm (2)

(3)
(4)

(3) at middle of the string

(4) None of the above
 EEA/507 (6 )

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26. Impurities in the insulator material 131. In underground cables, the electrostatic
decreases stress is

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(1) dielectric strength (1) zero at the conductor as well as on the
(2) porosity sheath

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(3) mechanical strength (2) minimum at the conductor surface and
minimum at the sheath

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(4) toughness of insulator
(3) maximum at the conductor surface and

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minimum at the sheath
27. Static shielding string efficiency.
(4) same at the conductor surface and
(1) increases sheath

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(2) decreases
The insulation resistance of the cable

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32.
(3) does not affect
decreases with

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(4) minimizes
(1) electric stress
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28. Petticoats are provided in the pin type (2) the decrease in length of the insulation
insulators of the cable

(1) to improve the appearance of the (3) the increase in length of the insulation
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insulator of the cable

(2) to drip off the rain water I (4) None of the above
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(3) to protect the pin of the insulators from

the effect of sun and rain 133. The main utility of intersheaths in cables
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is/are
(4) due to all of the above reasons
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(1) to provide better thermal stress

distribution
29. Disc type insulators employed as suspension
insulators have
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(2) to provide proper stress distribution

(1) discs in vertical plane (3) upgrading inferior insulation
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(2) discs in horizontal plane (4) to provide against voltage and current
(3) discs at 45 to the horizontal surges
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(4) None of the above

34. In the cables, the location of fault is usually
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found out by comparing

30. the
132
66
33
11 kVthat
Seven
discs
kV
usually
suggest
(1) the resistance of the conductors
(2)
(3) (1)
(4)
(2) the inductance of the conductors
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(3) the capacitances of the insulated

conductors

(4) all above parameters

EEA/507 (7 )

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35. In capacitance grading of cables, we use 40. Voltage gradient in a cable is highest at the
(1) porous dielectric (1) centre of the conductor
(2) homogeneous dielectric

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(2) surface of the conductor

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(3) hygroscopic dielectric of same (3) surface of the sheath
permittivities
(4) in between (2) and (3)

log
(4) dielectric of varying permittivities

When a cable is to cross a road, it should

36. The advantage of cables over transmission ,41.
lines

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(1) run as an overhead cable
(1) is easy maintenance (2) be buried in trenches

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(2) is low cost
(3) be laid in pipes or conduits
(3) can be used in high voltage circuits
(4) be surrounded by saw-dust to absorb

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(4) can be used in congested areas vibrations

37. Paper used as insulating materials in cables

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42. If power cable and communication cable are
is generally impregnated with oily
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compounds, because to run parallel, the minimum distance
between the two, to avoid interference,
(1) it is hygroscopic
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should be
(2) it has many pores 1 cm
10
50
500cmcm ylol--
1)''0 \?-~<j1.
....

it (1)
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(3) is otherwise good conductor (3)

(4)
(2)
(4) it gets electrostatically charged at high
voltage
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38. The capacitance between any two conductors

of a 3-core cable (with sheath earthed) is
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4 j.lF. The capacitance per phase will be 43. When the diameter of the core and cable is
(1) 133 j.lF doubled, the value of capacitance
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(2) 4 j.lF (1) will be reduced to one-fourth

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(3) 8 j.lF (2) will be reduced to half

(4) None of the above (3) will be doubled

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(4) will become four times

39. Void formation in the dielectric material of
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the underground cable may be controlled by

44. In a 3-core cable, the colour of the neutral is
(1) using a high permittivity solid dielectric
(1) black
(2) providing a strong metallic sheath
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outside the cable (2) red

(3) filling oil at high pressure as dielectric (3) blue

(4) None of the above (4) yellow

 EEA/507 (8 )

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45. In cables, the charging current 50. A balanced 3-phase system consists of
line tothe
single
double
leads
(1) linevoltage
Commonest
3-phase line toto type byof900
ground
ground
by 3-phase
any
1200
1800 angle unsymmetrical
between (1) zero sequence currents only
900 and
fault is 1200 152.
positive sequence currents only
(3)
(2)
(2;
(4)
(3) (1)

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151.
(3) negative and zero sequence currents
(4) zero, negative and positive sequence

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currents
To reduce short circuit fault currents

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_____ are used in substations.
(1) resistors
(2) capacitors

.
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(3) reactors
(4) diodes

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In symmetrical component analysis,
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47. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) a4 = - a (2)
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2
(2) a = - (1 + a)
(3)
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(3) a = 0,5 - j 0,866

(4) a = 0,5 +j 0,866
(4)
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48. Whioh ,equen"" oomponent i, alway' more 153. Which of the following figures indicate the
than the negative sequehce component in zero sequence network of alternator whose
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asymmetrical fault ? star point is grounded through an impedance

(1) Positive sequence Xn?
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(2) Zero sequence

(3) Both are correct
all

(4) None of the above

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49. In a double line to ground fault (iLLG) the

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positive, negative and zero sequence

networks are
Fig. (a) Fig. (b) Fig. (c) Fig. (d)
(1) star connected
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(1) Fig. (a)

(2) delta connected
(2) Fig. (b)
(3) series connected (3) Fig. (c)
(4) parallely connected (4) Fig. (d)
 EEA/507 (9 )

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54. In the adjoining figure, find the fault level 157. The fault MVA is given by
at F.
BaseMVA
(1)
p.u.X
rv

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50MVA eq
llkV
X"-20% (2) Base MVA x p.u. Xeq

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d-

BaseMVA
(3)

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(p.u.X eq
)2

F (4) None of the above

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(1) 25 MVA where Xeq is the fault impedance at the
point where fault has occurred.

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(2) 250 MVA
58. Maximum short circuit current occurs due to
(3) 1000 MVA pa (1) dead short circuit
(4) 1300 MVA (2) line to line fault
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(3) line to ground fault
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The
zero
55. negative (4) line to line and ground fault
mutual
positive sequence network does not
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oltage source. 159.

2)
3)
4) From sequence component voltages ER,1
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ER2 and ER 0 ' the phase voltages of the

lines will be (Pick up false relation)
i
ctr

2 2
(1)
EB = a ER = a ER ER
Ey + = 11ER +ER
++ aER
1ER +2 ER
2 0+ ER
00
(3)(2)
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all

56. While calculating the fault current, the

reactances of the machines connected to the (4) ERy = aER 1 + a2ER 2 + 2ER 0
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power system are taken to be 60. A 11 kV, 10 MVA alternator has p.u.
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impedance of 01 when referred to its ratings

(1) zero as bases. The new value for base as 110 kV,
20 MVA will be
(2) constant
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(1) 01 p.u.
(3) increasing with load (2) 02 p.u.
(3) 002 p.u.
(4) decreasing with load
(4) 0002 p.u.
 EEA/507 ( 10 )

61. In hydropower plants 166. Coolants used in reactors should have

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melting point and
(1) initial cost is high and operating cost is
boiling point.

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low
(1) low, low
(2) initial cost as well as operating cost are

sp
high ("L./\ low, high
(3) initial cost is low and operating cost is (3) high, low

og
high
(4) high, high
(4) initial cost as well as operating cost are

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low
67. Nuclear power plants are used as
_____ load plants.

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62. D20
Heavy water implies
B20
W20
H2O
(1) base
(4)
(3)
(2) (1)
(2) peak

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(4) electric traction

68. In a thermal power plant, the overall

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63. The rotor used in alternator for hydroelectric efficiency is low due to low efficiency of
station is
(1) boiler
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(1) salient pole rotor

(2) steam turbine and condenser
(2) cylindrical rotor
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(3) alternator
(3) non-salient pole 'rotor
(4) non-salient pole motor
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(4) round rotor with ac excitation

69. A positive pressure develops in the penstock
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64. Water hammer is developed in if the alternator load is suddenly

(1) penstock (1) decreased
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(2) turbine (2) increased

(3) surge tank (3) made fluctuating
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(4) alternator (4) short-circuited

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65. Moderator is used to 70. Nuclear reactors generally employ

(1) absorb neutrons (1) fission
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(2) reduce the speed of neutrons (2) fusion

(3) accelerate the speed of neutrons (3) both fission and fusion
(4) stop the chain reaction (4) None of the above
EEA/507 ( 11 )

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71. Which enters the superheater of a boiler in a 176. Which gas in atmosphere causes green-house
steam power station ? effect?
(1) Wet steam (1) Nitrogen

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(2) Superheated steam (2) Hydrogen
(3) Cold water (3) Carbon dioxide

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(4) Hot water (4) Hydrogen sulphide

77. Most of the generators in thermal power

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72. Economiser is used to heat
plants run at
(1) flue gases (1) 750 RPM
(2) turbine steam

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(2) 1000 RPM

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(3) air intake (3) 1500 RPM
(4) feed water to boiler (4) 3000 RPM

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73. Which turbine can be used for low head and 178. The reflectors of a nuclear reactor are made
high discharge hydel plant?
pa up of
(1) Pelton wheel (1) steel
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(2) Jonval turbine (2) boron
(3) iron
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(3) Kaplan turbine

(4) Francis turbine (4) beryllium
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79. Fast breeder reactors are best suited in India

74. "Spinning reserve" is basically because
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(1) capacity of the part of the plant that (1) of good efficiency
remains under maintenance
(2) of large uranium deposits
(2) reserve generating capacity that IS
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available for service but not in

(3) of large thorium deposits
operation (4) of large plutonium deposits
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(3) reserve generating capacity that is in 180. The draught produced in a chimney is called
operation but not in service
(1) natural draught
(4) reserve generating capacity that IS
all

(2) induced draught

connected to bus and ready to take the
load (3) forced draught
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(4) balanced draught

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75. In pumped storage hydel plants

(1) water is recirculated through turbine 81. Burden of a protective relay is the power
(2) water is stored by pumping to high (1) developed by the relay circuit
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pressures (2) absorbed by the circuit of relay

(3) power is produced by means of pumps (3) factor of the relay circuit including
(4) downstream water is pumped upstream tripping coil
during off load periods (4) required to operate the circuit breaker
EEA/507 ( 12 )

82. Directional relays are based on flow of 87. Large internal faults are protected by

in
(1) voltage wave (1) horn gaps and temperature relays

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(2) current (2) earth fault and positive sequence relays
(3) power (3) Merz price percentage differential

sp
protection
(4) polarity of voltage only
(4) mho and ohm relays

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83. A distance relay measures

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88. A protective relay is energized through
(1) voltage difference 11 kV/110 V PT and 100/5 CT, then the ratio
(2) current difference of secondary impedance to primary

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Z
(3) distance between two CT impedance SEe as shown by relay will be
ZpRI

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(4) impedance

84. Discrimination between main and backup

pa 20
100
(1)
- --

100
(~r
100
20
e~~r
(2)
(4)
protection is provided by the use of relays
which are
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(3)

(1) sensitive
slow
All
fast of the above
(2)
x

(4)
(3)
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89. Back up protection protects against

85. A differential relay measures the vector
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difference between (1) over current

(2) transient current
(1) two powers
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(3) both (1) and (2)

(2) two voltages
(4) short-circuit current
(3) two currents
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(4) two or more similar electrical quantities

90. If fault occurs near an impedance relay, the
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V ..
- ratIO IS
86. In a delta/star transformer employing Merz I
price percentage differential protection the
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CT's are connected in the primary and (1) constant for all the locations of fault
secondary windings as (2) lower than the value if fault occurs
away from the relay
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(1) star-star
delta-star
star-delta
delta-delta
(2)
(3)
(4) (3) higher than the value if fault occurs
away from the relay
(4) may be lower or higher than the value
if fault occurs away from the relay
EEA/507 ( 13 )

in
91. The following is not an instantaneous relay 96. For which equipment, current rating
(1) induction disc type specification is not necessary ?

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(1) Circuit breakers
(2) hinged armature type
(2) Load break switch
(3) balanced beam type

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(3) Isolators
(4) polarized type
(4) Circuit breakers and load break switch

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92. Protective relays are devices which detect 197. Which relay is used in protection of long
abnormal conditions in electrical circuits by transmission lines ?

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measuring
(1) Reactance relay
(1) current during abnormal condition (2) Impedance relay

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(2) voltage during abnormal condition (3) MHO relay
(3) both (1) and (2) simultaneously (4) None of the above

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(4)
constantly the electrical quantities 198. Buchholz relay is
which differ during normal and
abnormal conditions (1) installed inside the breaker
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(2) installed at the end of breather pipe
93. Fault current is maximum in an impedance (3) located on the top of the conservator
relay if the fault has occurred tank
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(1) away from the relay (4) connected in the pipe connecting the
main tank of transformer and
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(2) near the relay conservator

(3) exactly at the middle point of 199. Admittance relay is basically alan
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transmission line
(1) impedance relay
(4) fault current is independent of the (2) directional relay
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location of the fault

(3) non-directional relay
(4) None of the above
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94. Buchholz relay is operated by

100. A MHO relay is a
(1) eddy currents
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(1) voltage controlled over current relay

(2) electrostatic induction
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(2) voltage restrained directional relay

(3) gas pressure
(3) directional restrained over voltage relay
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(4) electromagnetic induction

(4) directional restrained over current relay
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95. The time interval between the instant of 101. Which is the circuit breaker (CB) preferred
occurrence of the fault and the instant of for the interruption of high voltages and low
closing of the relay contacts is known as current?
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(1) Vacuum
breaker
Air
All
Oil are
NoneCB
blast
relay
making ofcorrect
time CB
CBabove
the
time (4)
(3)
(2)
(1)
 EEA/507 ( 14 )

in
102. Arcing between CB contacts can be reduced 1107. Circuit breakers usually operate during
by
(1) steady state of short circuit current

ot.
(1) inserting resistance in the line
(2) transient state of short circuit current
(2) inserting a capacitor in parallel with

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the contacts (3) sub-transient state of short circuit
current
(3) inserting a capacitor in series with the

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contacts (4) after dc component has ceased
(4) inserting an inductance in parallel to

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contacts 1108. Air blast circuit breaker is most suitable for

(1) over
short currents
intermittent
dutydutyduty
repeated

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103. The voltage across the circuit breaker
contacts after final current zero is (3)
(2)
(4)

(1) restriking voltage

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(2) recovery voltage
(3)
(4)
supply voltage
None of the above
pa 1109. Which of the following circuit breakers is
preferred for 400 kV transmission line
m
104. Resistance switching is normally used in case protection ?
of (1) Bulk oil CB
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(1) bulk oil circuit breakers (2) Minimum oil CB

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(2) minimum oil circuit breakers (3) Air break CB

(3) air blast circuit breakers SF6 CB
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(4) all types of circuit breakers

110. In a circuit breaker, arc will restrike if
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105. The symmetrical breaking capacity of a

3-phase circuit breaker is given by (1) RRRV is zero

13 x normal voltage x rated (2) RRRV is more than the rate of building
lec

(1)
symmetrical current up of dielectric strength
(2) 3 x normal voltage x rated symmetrical (3) RRRV is less than the rate of building
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current up of dielectric strength

(3) normal voltage x rated symmetrical (4) RRRV is same as rate of building up of
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current x factor of safety dielectric strength

(4) None of the above
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111. Arc in a circuit behaves as

106. The rating of a circuit breaker is generally
determined on the basis of (1) an inductive reactance
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(2) a capacitive reactance

(1) symmetrical fault current
(3) a resistance increasing with voltage rise
(2) single-line to ground fault current across the arc
(3) double-line to ground fault current
(4) a resistance decreasing with voltage
(4) line to line fault current rise across the arc
EEA/507 ( 15 )

in
112. The time to
separation interval
time offrom instant ofis contact
arc extinction Which ?plant can never have 100 percent load
called 1117. factor

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(1) None
Peak
arcing
closingoftime
Base load
opening
Nuclear the
Hydroelectric
time above
plant
power
time plant
plant (2)
(3)
(1)
(4)

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113. must
In which
be equipped
of the following,
for remotea operation?
circuit breaker 1118. generation
In order to have lower cost of electrical

ers
(1) None
Shunt oftrip
Inverse the trip
time
Time-delay above
trip (1) the load factor and diversity factor
should be low
(3)
(2)
(4)

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(2) the load factor and diversity factor
should be high
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(3) the load factor should be high but the
diversity factor low
114. Which of the following circuit breakers has
hi.gh reliability and minimum maintenance? (4) the load factor should be low but the
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(1) Oil circuit breakers diversity factor high

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(2) Air blast circuit breakers

119. Plant capacity factor and load factor become
(3) Vacuum circuit breakers identical when
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(4) SF 6 circuit breakers (1) average load is same as peak load

tri

(2) peak load is equal to the capacity of the

115. Air used in air blast circuit breaker plant
ec

(1) must have oil mist (3) average load is half the capacity of the
l

(2) must be ionized plant

lle

(3) must have least CO2 (4) group diversity factor is equal to peak
(4.) must be free from moisture diversity factor
/a

120. If a plant has low utilization factor, it

p:/

116. The area under the load curve gives

indicates that
(1) average demand
(1) plant is shut off
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(2) average kWh energy consumption

during the period (2) plant is used for base load only
(3) maximum demand (3) plant is used for peak load only
(4) None of the above (4) plant is used for standby purpose only
EEA/507
economic criteria is given by
( 16)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(2)
k=l k=l
L
computing Inequation
constraint
(P gi -+(PP
PLgi
L +--+ PD)
PLD) -+==PD)
P PD)
lj>
==
== lj>
lj> 0
n n

t.in
121. The data is obtained
The following from a power 1125.
station:
Fixed cost == <' 20 x 105

po
Variable cost == <' 30 x 105
Units generated per annum == 175 x 106 kWh

gs
The cost of generation per unit will be
(1) <' 100

blo
(2) 2857 paise
(3) 5 paise

rs.
(4) 285 paise
122. When transmission losses are considered, the
criteria of economic operation is given by

pe
dp ==A 1
Li dfc
dp .(1)
dp
== A1

dfc
dfc L. == A
pa
(2)
m
where P gl. represents generation, PL the load
xa

and P D the load demand and lj> the residual

(3)
power.
l-e

(4) L. == A
1

where Li represents penalty factor.

ica

123. transmISSIOn
Optim~m. fuel
losses ec~nomy is
bemg considered, achieved,
when 1126. The i.ncremental
are gIVen as costs of two power stations
ctr

(1) summation of incremental fuel cost and

penalty factor is same for all plants
(2) penalty factor is neglected
le

(3) penalty factor is constant

lle

(4) product of incremental fuel cost times If 13 A == 13B and yA == YB' for optimal operation,
penalty factor is constant for all plants
(1)
/a

124. A cost function for a power station is

represented as
2
PD
(2)
p:/

+ + PA==PB== -
Fc == (J.. 13P.1 y P,1 3
Hence, the incremental fuel cost will be given
PD
by (3) PA==PB==-
2
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(1) IFC == (J.. + 13 + y

(4) PA==PB==O
(2) IFC == (J.. + 13P.1 + y p,21
(3) IFC == 13 + yPi here PD represents the total load demand.
(4) IFC == (J.. + yPi
 EEA/507 ( 17)

127. Which of the following plants is used as peak 113t. In optimum generator scheduling of different

in
load plant? power plants, the minimum fuel cost is
obtained when for each plant same is its

ot.
\.11
I"~ . Pumped storage plant
(2) Steam turbine plant (1) incremental fuel cost

sp
(3) Nuclear power plant (2) penalty factor

og
(4) None of the above (3) product of (1) and (2)

(4) rate of incremental fuel cost

.bl
128. The choice of number and size of units in a
station is governed by best compromise
between

ers
(1) plant load factor and plant use factor 132. To effectively reduce the cost of generation in
a power station, increase its
(2) plant capacity factor and plant use

ap
factor (1) load factor
(3) plant load factor and plant capacity (2) diversity factor
mp
factor
(3; both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above
(4) power factor and load factor
xa

129. Plant capacity factor is

l-e

(1) actual energy produced /

maximum possible energy that could 133. Power plant having maximum demand more
than the installed rated capacity will have
ca

have been produced (based on

installed capacity) utilization factor
tri

(2) actual energy produced / (1) equal to unity

(plant capacity, hours for which the
plant has been in operation) (2) less than unity
lec

(3) energy generated in ? given period (3) more than unity

(maximum demand is in hours of the
lle

given period) (4) None of the above

(4) None of the above
/a

130. The product of diversity factor and maximum 1134. Most efficient plants are normally used as
p:/

demand is
I (1) peak load plants
sum
None of
of
(1) installed consumers'
the above maximum demand (4) either (1) or (2)
base load
average
generated
(2)
(3) plants
demand
capacity
power
! I
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(2)
EEA/507 ( 18 )

135. When a plant resorts to load shedding it can 1139. The complete circle diagram of a 3-phase

in
be concluded that induction motor can be drawn with the help

ot.
of
(1) peak demand is more than the installed
capacity (1) running-light test alone

sp
(2) both running-light and blocked-rotor
(2) daily load fac;tor is unity tests

g
(3) diversity factor is zero (3) running-light, blocked-rotor and stator

blo
resistance tests
(4) plant is under repairs
(4) blocked-rotor test alone

rs.
136. The
is input to the set under Hopkinson's test 1140. Ward - Leonard
basically alan method of speed control IS

pe
(1) field control method
(1) losses in the generator alone
(2) field diverter method
(2) losses in the motor alone pa (3) armature resistance control method
(3) output of the generator
m
(4) voltage control method
(4) losses in both the machines
xa

141. Ungrounded neutral transmission system is

not recommended because of system
l-e

137. In Swinburne's method of testing dc (1) being inadequately protected against

machines, the shunt machine is run as a ground fault
ca

(1) motor at full load (2) insulation being overstressed due to

over voltages
tri

(2) generator at full load

(3) insulation overstress may lead to failure
(3) motor at no load and subsequent phase to phase faults
lec

(4) All of the above

(4) generator at no load
lle

142. A system is said to be effectively grounded

138. The moment of inertia of rotating machine when for the portion under consideration, the
ratio of
(dc motor) can be obtained by calculations
/a

from the following test (1) zero sequence reactance to positive

sequence reactance is more than three
p:/

(1) Swinburne's test

(2) zero sequence resistance to positive
(2) Brake test sequence resistance is less than unity
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(3) zero sequence reactance to positive

(3) Hopkinson's test
sequence reactance is more than three
(4) Retardation test (4) both (1) and (2)
 EEA/507 ( 19 )

in
143. Which
for the of the following
rolling mills? motors is best suited /147. For which
motor has to of
startthewithfollowing applications,
high acceleration?

o t.
(1) Single-phase motors (1) Oil expeller

sp
(2) dc motors (2) Flour mill

(3) Squirrel cage induction motors (3) Lifts and hoists

og
(4) Slip-ring induction motors (4) Centrifugal pump

bl
rs.
144. In ~ paper mill where constant
reqmred speed IS \148. Which of the
fluctuation following machines has heavy
of load?

pe
(1) Planer
Lathe
individual
group
Printing
drive
machine
synchronous
ac
Punching
motors drive
ismotors
preferred
machine
are is preferred
preferred
are preferred
(3)
(2)
(4)
(1)
m pa
xa
l-e

145. has relatively wide range of

speed control. 149. Which of the following is preferred for
ica

automatic drives?
(1) Synchronous motor (3)'
(2)
(1)
Ward
dc
Any - Leonard
shunt
Squirrel
Synchronous
(4) of the
Slip-ring motor
cage
abovecontrolled
motors
induction
induction dc motors
motormotor
I., (2)
le ctr
lle

146. Which of the following motors is preferred

/a

when quick speed reversal is the main 150. In overhead travelling cranes
consideration ? (1\
p:/

(3) (2)
(4)
\--' j None
Wound
dc of
motor
short
continuousthe
rotor
time
Synchronous
slow speed
Squirrel cage above
induction
rated
duty motors
motors
motors
motor motor
are
are preferred
used
are preferred
induction motor
, (1)
I
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