Set No. 1 Question Booklet No. 140/115/10@) eT (Ho be [ited up by the candidate by blue/bleck ball-point pen) re a Rell No, (Write the digits in words) .. res feral No. of OMR Answer: ‘Sheet Day sad Sate... (Signature of Lavigilator) veneer INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (tise onty Bine/bleck ball-polnt pen inthe space above and on both sides of tho Answer Sheet) 4.‘ Wein 10 srinutss of the issue ofthe Question Booklet, check the Question BOAT fi that contains Tai ages in corrct sequence and thet no page/question is missing, fp Case of fantty Question Booklet A aes ont the Superintendert/nvigintors immediatly to cbtzin 2 ress Qe Booklet 2. Bonot bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the ‘Examination all exegpe the Admit Card without its envelope. 3. Deparate Answer Sheet i given. H should mot be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Skeet shall not de provided Only the Answer Sheet wil be credected. 2 4, Wrte your Roll Number and Serial Number ofthe Answer Shest by pen the space prvided above. 5. On the front poge of the Answer Skeet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided et the top fend by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Bookiet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. 6. Noaveruriing i allowed in the entries af Roll No, Question Booklet "0. and Seino. (if any) on OMR Bey erat Rodd No. and OMR sheet mo. on the Queston Booklet 1, dnp change in the aforesaid entries 1s te be verified by the Invigitaior, otherwine it will be taken oF unfalrmeans. 8. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For cack question, pou are 10 Each te arrect option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the APPrepr ons cirete in the corresponding raw of tne Anomer i by pen as mantioned in the guidelines plven.on the ft page of the Answer eet. 9, For gach question, darkn only one circle onthe Answer Shes! IF you darken more than one ciroke or darken waikle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect 2 0. Note tha the answer once filed in ink cannot Be changed. If Yow do not wish to ottempt a question, ote i Ne ret onthe vervesponding row lank (auth question will Pe ‘awarded zero marks). 11. For toegh woe, woo the inner buck poge of the title cover and the blank page at the end of thls Buckles, 12 aga aN Ser the end of the Test. m fe fem the Exarnination Hall wnt tha-aadl of tgs Test Ta tha eondiltate simempes to use any form of unfair nears, betas ‘be liable to sven puntstunent as the Urriversliy mary detersiine and impose on hirher- ; ‘Total Ne. of Printed Pages : 56 emda | ape trv 7 HE 4 TCE:14U/115/10(i) ROUGH WORK ward14U/115/10(i) No. of Questions : 150 peat at Wem: 150 1 Time + 25 Hours Full Marks : 450 wrt 2) wut yore : 450 Note: (1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 (Three) marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect lanawer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. oftentien ait et eet aed aT Fact at) waa wet 3 (AA) caiat ext 1 eter Tem eB AMT GH SAR MCT AAT! waG sGaa MIT HI ATA ge air (2) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one. cafe weft Menfoars TC EL ee & Pre ater ef, ot TTT aét ait F1 (3) This paper comprises of three sections + Physics,Chemistry and Biology. Each section contains 50 questions. wre wears Aa erat ar Bs Ae fons, cory Pers afta fart 1 wees wars 50 set Ft14U/}16/ 1Ofi) Section - 1 we 1 Physics (Marks - 150) 1. The velocity of a particle depends pen t as Vit) =A + Bt + CH IF velocity is in m/s, the dimensions of A & B are SH at or Ar cae Pd aa B, V(t}= A+ Bt+ Ce 1 ate aT Ao HS aA Ag Ban Pes ehh: (2) [Mita Mit? ] 2) [Moura [Mtr] (3) pute pater] (4) [nacr” Ja fate | 8 A system has basic dimension as density [D], velocity [V] & area [A]. The dimensional representation of force in this system is : Ges Preorr ot ar Pt eat (|, at [vy] me AaeEer (Ay Tar aT Fy se Pare 4 ser an fair ga an Peeer spr : @) lawn} (2) [a*vp] @) [ave] (4) [avo] 3. Angle that the vector x =2i43} makes with x-axis is: FEC Kai, coe a a acre &, aot a ATE ay sin (3) 2) ww(2) (3) sin'(3)} (4) wn(3)14/1187 1014) M 04. A particle of mass (¥) is circulating on the circle of radius r having angular momentum L, then the centripetal force will be + (32) sarees & cep apr arr ror & aT yA Be ao HAT L&i ar ar attri aa eh - Pi a Mg L Mer a 7 ar OS. Two masses A & B each of mass M are fixed together by a massless spring. A force F acts on the mass B. At the instant shown the mass Ahas acceleration a. What is the acceleration of mass B ? meagre fait art IM RA A TAB oTTe HOGS Fi TH at fxr Bou ard aren 31 za A ae ged at a faa agar aren BRAT Bar eT am eh? M M a (2) (2) (5) @) (E)-2 4) a-(F) 06. A false balance has equal arms. An object weight w, when placed in one pan & w, when placed in the other pan. The true weight w of the abject is co afte get aay aA gol ae Bea aT ETE TY FF Ba Oe CGA IT w, TT TT FH Gat Qa FE IA TT w, omer & 1g at reas. Se w BT: zw. a) few, Q fied 8 rusond @ Few) s14U/115/10(i) 7. ‘The human heart discharges 75 cc of blood through arteries at each beat against an average pressure of 10 cm of Hg. Heart beat is 72 per minute calculate the rate of working of heart in Watt (9, = 13.6 gm/ ec) : aent aa 10 Sit F asia WI RE 75cc CRT USK aS & am wrt Fo wtsar 81 eer Basar 72 wa |e Bi eet B ard et at ae at wer are A aie (Py, = 13.6 gm/ee) uy) Ligw 2) 229W (3) 3.39 Ww (4) 449W 08. What will he the depth of water in a tank so that the volume of air bubble get double from the bottem to surface ? [.p,,, = 13.6 em/cm?, 1 atm = 76 cm. of Hg | (1) 5.28 m (2) 10.34m (3) 15.67 m (4) 20.86 m 1 Oh Fae oS ag @ Gay ant ar a rarest amr SY oer ect eo arse nae ey ae SY Pu 7 13.6 ame, 1 agar = 76 &ft or) GQ) $.28 Tie (2) 10.34 Fret (3) 15.67 Aer (4) 20.86 Fee 09. A 3 HP motor requires 2.4 KW to drive it. Its efficiency is about Be Setar ater at wend & fam 0.4 Betas erfier of orc ate Bi geal amen wraT ahh (1) 50% (2) 60% (3) 70% (4) 90% 10. What is the mass of an electron moving with a velocity of 0.6 cinterms of the electronic rest mass m,? & REM 0.6 cA @ after ® A sa saa a caret feet FFA ms eq A an sy 7 oGe Ge we wp14U/118/10(i) 11. ‘The potential energy u(x) of a-particle executing SHM is given by : a) ata= Bos—ap (2) ug) k,x +h x? +kyx? (3) ufxi= A exp (-bx) (4) u(x)= constant aeet onad wf at ge ce ar at Rafesr al uGd eri : q) upp) = Foxe (2) ub)= kx +k,x? +k,x? (3) (x)= A exp (bx) (4) uy = Pret . 2 12, The bwo cuMaregiven by: asin[(2) 64 Jana % xsi 224) ‘he phasc difference between these after 1 secand is & we onad Thr at aoc @ Rear B= aacel(Z) 4] ofeaaa cert & fan, Hx as Pee ser A waiter Heat safe? 6- %0- @) Q- 8 YG14U/118/20¢i) 19. Water from inside the carth rises through the trunk of a big tree to leaves high-up. The main reasen for this is: (2) Capillary Action (2)° High viscosity of water (3) Gravitational force (4) Evaporation of water TAT S oer 8 ort Ast at oferat oem ater & eet art gear Wet BT TB ? : (1) REET Q) Fe ar ofits art BT (3) sTeRTertor are (4) 3a aa 20. The energy needed in breaking a drop of radius 'R' into ‘n' drops of radiua 'r is: i: oe aft Ae Pe 'R Bin’ Gy Poe & et A thea S fe oot A ore eit ® ‘ 2 ales? () G@xr'n—4nR?)T (2) (ee Se) 4 J: 4 (4x R?-n dar’ 3) (= (axe tay eR 21, A dog barking delivers about 1 m W of power. If thia power is uni distributed over a hemispherical area, what {a the sound level at © distance of 5m? 4s een gon oer Tsflo are after erat acer & 1 a ae feet on Set 8e 8 srbiterere a & Geer 8 eee Sato wg oe ef or ee am eh? () 10 4B (2) 3845 (3) 58 dB (4) 68 aB 10440/115/ 104i) 22. The temperature at which speed of sound in air becomes double of its valye at 27°C ? ang Fahy a ae 27°C B ava A GT A Pe oa we SET A ‘aT 2. (1) 54°C (2) 327°C (3): 927°C (ay .-123°C b 43. A-wire of density 9 * 10° Kg/m! is stretched between two clamps Im apart and is ‘subjected to an extension ot 4.9 * 10‘ m, What will be the lowest frequency of vibration in wire ? (1) 25 Hz ° (2) 35 Hz (3) 45 Hz (4) 55 Hz 9x10 fore aaer B are at 1 ter At gO ae a Get F tte arr ta att aa 49x 104 Ho gfe BTA) ae BH THA FF wargfts var eet ? : a) aseér —) a5eeT (3) 45 FER (4) ssedt 24, The wavelength of light coming from a distant galaxy ie found to be 0.5% imue than that coming from a source on earth. What is the velocity of galaxy ? (1) 0.5 * 10° m/sec (2) 1.0 x 108 m/sec (3) 1.5 * 10 m/sec {4) 2.0 * 108 m/sec ae & smear & oA ara sane a eeHRe 0.5% TET BL TT ge ce Fee seer et AH got Ay er a ART =e ETA? (4 0.5 #108 Hoste (2) 1.0 10° Moto 19" 10" Atorae (4). 20% 10° HosFo 1.140/ 115/ 10{i) 25. In upen organ pipe the fundamental note is produced when its length is: we ants aga | ya te get den 8 a geht wand B : a a 3h MG 5 oF Ma 26. A sphere of diameter Tem and mass 266.5 gm tloats in a bath of liquid. As the temperature is raised, the sphere begains to sink at temperature of 35°C. If the density of the liquid is 1.527 em/ec at °C, find the coetficient of cubical expansion of the liquid. Neglect the expansion of the sphere, 7 @h are Ten 266.5 0a REMI aT Ua ata aT A AaB) aa ane Sg cer & ste Gara aT HL eT ae BSC TT Ew TT WET Bi ovc ay ae Rea a ET 1.527 ae H, Hwa ar ore Mee Ber ser aA ate aT oA gare ys aT By (1) 3.5 * 104 pc (2) 5.5.x 10*9¢ (3) 6.5 * 104 po (4) 85 104 /9C 27. Two plates each of area A, thickness L, and L, and thermal "conductivities K, and K, respectively are joined to term a single plaic. of thickness (L, + L,). If the temperatures of the tree surfaces are T, & T, what is the rate of flow of heat ? St tel seta ar Germa A, Htere 1, gar L, atte eT aero K, Ter Kat ots ame tem & Ste Reng (L, +L) an aan omen Bale ea Pet a ovary 7, car 0, et dt BT were aT ee a sh? A(ii-T) A(T +1) ATT, AVI, aq fo be 2) fl ple Lt 12140/115/ 104) 48. The variation of PV with V of a fixed mass of an ideal gas at constant temperature is graphically represented by the curve : wep Pract Arar & nach fra gas Pree area oe Py ger Var feat Pra one & fara sre & ? PV PV 0) 4 (2) \ Vv Vv mt PV i) a Vo Vo 29. A thin rod of length (/3) is placed along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length ‘f’ such that its image, which is real & elongated. What is magnification ? we wae (1/3) ang A BS ora STS ToT oat S TA Tet apt Bi siete areas cer wer are By onrerher ae ete ? (F stave aby a Stee FATE) | (1) - 3/2 {2) - 2/3 (3) 3/2 (4) 2/3 1 - 13140/115/10(4) 30. The Siin (diameter, d) subtends an angle 0 radians atthe pole of a concave mirror of focal length ‘f’. What is the diameter of fhe image of the Sun formed by the mirror ? ‘f Sine ae sramet ator B Tet oy a (are, d) 9 Wea a ater sare Bi eit arr aA at wfafers ar sara ear eh ? Q) @/f ~(2) of (3) @ (4) of c 31. Deviation § produced by a prism of refractive index 1 & small angle A is given by : erred oder ster ater Aare Boa} arr 5 Praesens : GQ) 8-(@A (2) S=(neI)A (3) S={A=1)H (8) B=(A+ 1p 82. Lose of the ability of cyc to focus un near & far objects with advancing age, is called ; (1) Presbyopia (2) Astigmatism (3) Hypermetropia (4) Myopia wet ow era Poe ote gt galt A Bare mt at sie ara wer Br ont % wa awa # (1) Peart (2) aeARo (3) BRIAR (a) ARATaT 33. The work function of sodium is 2.3 eV. Calculate the maximum wave- Jength in nm for the light that will causc photockeuuuns emitted trom sodium. [h = 6.6 * 10% J.S,¢ = 3 x 10°m/sec] ) 4500 (2) 330mm (3) 440 nm (4) 540 nm 14qv 115/005 ifteas an erhnert 2.3 e@agaiee Bi cere ar antes TOF Qed Met sftee A Peer dra frre wettest afer S seat HT we? [h=6.6 « 10% Yoto, c# 3x 10° Mo Ao] (1) 450%Aefe (2) 330°FiRHo (3) 440 Frito (4) 540 %rIo Light is polarised to the maximum, when the incident angle on the glass murtace is: fave orien ster Rr sooner ST TET AAR aft aes ae Af arn ? (1) 57° (2) 67° 3) 53° (4) 37° Bragg’s cquation will have no solution if : wert Titre wer tet Pea ot wa SATE + (i) ned (2) a< 26 3) a<($) iso ‘The force of attraction between two co-axial electric dipoles whose centres are r meter apart varies with distances as - vet we @ are nd ge fg ah oh aT ST caheftter Sem: ay Ft (h @ 47 ar: @ es 1814U/118/ 1041) 37. Two condensers of capacity C, and C, are conrie¢ted in parallel. If a charge 'q' is given to the assembly the charge on the cpacitor-C, to the charge on the capacitor C, is : @ dete caer c,ama ¥ war a % gq? Bae RA ay eer F gq onder Rar onen 8, At onder ar Baer daft cen Cut ah: 1 M) c/e, (2) Cyc, (3) Cc, (4y Ge, 38. A condenser of capacity 50 uF is charged to 110 volt. Its energy is equal to: i (1) 25mJ (2) 0.25mJ 3) sams | 4) O25 nS sg 90 ue ae 10 ase @ Sefer Feat nett & feat at Q) 2.5 fret sper (2) 0.25 Fash fag (3) 50 Preft ayer (4) 0.125 =e aT 39. Given three equal resistances, How mumy diffordnt combinations ‘of these three resistances can be made ? | aie aera % wferter Re By Peery aera wo tae ae sfrtte, at oferta art fare Pea or wear (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 @ 3 40. By how many percentage the power in alamp. ases if thecurrent drops by 1% ? tee arr 3 renter OF orem ate ak 1% Ber fear, ony ay Sea oraT faa seer ae opter ? 1 HY 25 (2) 4% (3) 1.01% (4) 1% 1614U/115/ 104) 41, ‘The time required for 1 KW heater to raise the temperature of 10 litre of water through 10°C is = (1) 210sec. (2) 420 sec. (3) 840 see. (4) 1000 sec. Lo ater OFA ar ary 10°C mH Fert A 1 Peetere lee are FAT waa, err ? (ly 2108s (2) 42086" (3) 840 ars (4) , 1000 Sars 42. In producing chlorine through electrolysis 100 KW power at 125 V is being consumed. How much chlorine per minute is liberated ? |B.C.. for chlorine is 0.367 x 10% Kg/c} (1}° 17.6 gm (2) 27.6gm (9) 97.8 em (4) 48.8 gm 100 Prattary stfter cer ras aee ara stagione arr ates ba area 1 gee fe Pre Pear ait Gert err? (Riga ot Somtoge = 0.367 « 10° Rea /c) Q) 17.69 (2) 27.68TR (3) 37.8RTF (4) 48.8 77" 43. A magnet makes 5 oscillations per minute in earth's magnetic field (4 = 0.3 gauss). By what amount should the ficld be increased so that the magnet makes 10 oscillates per minute ? geht & qraty &a (H= 0.3 gauss) 1 TH TAH S ater afer Fare aprer 31 qatar Ba S rr H fra af Pear over Bh grew oT dort sft Pra 30 8 ora ? (1) 0.3 gauss (2) 0.6 gauss (3) OP geuie (12 gauee 17140/115/10{i) 44. A 50 W, 100 V lamp is to be connected to an.A.C. mains of 200 V, 50 Hz, What capacitance is essential to be put in series with the lamp > 200V, 50 Hz R..A-e B GH 50aTe, 100 dee at Gey vitst oT Rt Sr & 2h oa F onaryre Para cenfta sitst oar enfee 7 Q) 32pF (2) 5.2F GB) 72pF (4) 92pF 45. The reactance of a inductance X, in an A.C. circuit varies with frequency 'f of the source voltage. Which one of the follawing represents this variation correctly ? - Dew x, aH sieeve Catt. after T ongitr ‘1B are vata ga fewer 4 dren 81 Prfefes & ata-er cep eel afta Breit aca BP? XL xX t «) OF / f f xX XL (3) 4 ; —____, 18140/118/ 1011) 46, The total energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in the ground state is - 13.6 eV. The kinetic energy of this electron is : cen saagrt Bt SEQTT a aac wat - 13.6 eV SLEae Gita one a . iss eV (2) 27.2eV (3) 6B LV (4) 340 47. ‘Tritium has a half - life of 12.5 years ter p—decay. The fraction which will have decayed after 50 years : as Afean ar siteng 12.5798) ovat aearg a ArT ay 4/4 (2) 3/4 (3) 1/16 (4) 15/16 48. Pure Si at 300K has equal electron (n,) and hole {n) concentrations of L5 10" m°. Dopping by indium increases (n,} fo 4.3 ~ 107 a. Calculate n, in the doped Si = (1) 5.0 * 10 m> (2) 8.8 ¥ 10°? (3) 6% 10? m* {4} 9 * 10° n> 200K Ue ge Ratens H aaaT SAAT (ny sear Sie) Mt AAT 15% 10% me? 1 ssrt FH SIT B BLT (n,) ze at ant ® as ~ oem, Age fata A in.) Bl AM FAT ? (1) 5.0 x 102 At (2) 5.5 * 10° HI (3) 6x 10° ATs (4) 9 * 10% a 49. ‘The forbidden energy band gaps in conductors, scmi-conductors & insulators are Eg,, Bg, & Bg, respectively. The relation among them iss ath, arian vite gars H enPyta sat fe Ort ae: Eg, QTM Bg, 8 | eh Ate wl eee aim: (1) Ber Fe- eS (2) Ea, + Bay< Bee (3) Be,> Bgy> Ee, (4) Bg, < Egy? Ey 19140/115/ 104i) 50, What is the sum of two binary digits 10011 and 1001 > @ agtf det 10011 ser 1001 =r Aer Far Sh ? {1) 11001 (2) 11100 (3) dna (4) 0111 20140/ 115/164) Section - 1 ws - lI Chemistry (Marks - 150) 61. Which one among the foliawing compounds is most easily sulphonated ? (1) Benzene (2) Toluene (3) Chlorobenzene (4) Nitrobenzene Roafaftar dfret @ dra a @ Sa age onartt & aeatsige wet a? Q) ait (2) tgeT @) RIT (4) AIR SZ. The lormation of cyanohydriu fium a ketone io an example of (1) Electrophilic addition (2) Nucleophilic addition (2) Nucleophilic substitution (4) Electrophilic substitution Ada & aertegiet FA wr vere t- (1) saagrretét arr 2) ahr der Q) ARE ofreat 4) sage sess 53. An S,; reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a compound always gives: (1) an enantiomer of the substrate (2) a mixture of diastereoisomers (3) a product with opposite optical rotation {4) a single stereoisomers a1140/118/ 104i) feat ate & sremfia art qe safer wasn ade : 0) cart ar fares aq @) aufatrs faterernaad an frert (3) favGa centre gels & oer ce gene (4) Garet Berra 84, Which of the following compounds exhibits stereoisomerism ? (1) 2- methy! butene — 1 (2) 3 - methyl butyne —1 (3) 3 ~ methyl butanoic acid (4) 2 ~ methyl butanoic acid Prater chet # @ ata PPeremaaaen at safer arco & 7 Q) 2-Prage aqfeq1 2) 3 -Rrenger aqeret_ 1 (3) 3-Rrege aeriga ora (4) 2-Rroga -apertiss or 55. When propync is teatcu with aqueous HSU, 1n the presence of HgSO,, the major product is : . ‘ (1) Propanal (2) Acetone (3) Propanol (4) Propyl hydibgen sulphate wa Soret FH sree 4,80, ary HgSO,a safeeta F suenfte wet ee a (1) Sse (2) eater. (9) Setter (4) Steet wegiort arte 22140/115/ L0{i) 66. To distinguish between 1 - butyne and 2 - butyne, which of the following reagents would you use ? (1) H, Lindler’s catalyst (2) Dilute H,SO,, HgSO, (3) Bromine, CCl, Ammoniacal Cu,Cl, solution 1- apres ote 2 eget & ata Ho ore ere aa & fem, Frafetad Aa wus Amor ofertas war ETT? 0) H, ferserce ar ote (2) %4 H,S0, Hgso, 4 3) arg, CCl, (4) ara Cu,Cl, reat §7, A solution of (+) - 2 - chloro - 2 - phenylethane in toluenc racemises slowly in the presence of asmall amount of SbCL,, due to. the formation of: (1) Carbocation (2) Carbanion (3) Carbene (4) Pree radical (H-2- FAT _2- Rearend & revert A etgiet F scl, tH WA ara Hf Prana oe UTR a sien RAT eT or sore B (1) SRR 2) wate 3) arta (4) rata ITH 58. Chloroberzene can be prepared by reacting aniline with + (1) Hydrochloric acid (2) Cuprous chloride {3} Chlorine in the presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride BH). Nitepye acid followed hy heating with ‘cuprous.shilaride 23140/115/10{1) aeRAR Far Par oT eect 8, Pt ar Per S one fear aT S : Q) wegash oper (2) Fare wits 8) eoreragS CeYPERaH aRMUTES AN ga Aa Here 4) Tere ore & oe aye Athos F arr wh Ht ae 59. When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with tert - butanol, the product ie: } Benzene . (2). t-butyl benzene (3) t~ butyl phenyl ether (4) Phenol oe Rearaet Aeifrry ates ed-aqerte & are aiftifiear sear & wt orn wre & = Q) iF Q) gta at (3) d-egfeet fiat dex 4) Ste 60. Among the following which one ne iodoform test ? (1) 1 - pentanol Af 2 - pentanone (3) 3 ~ pentanone (4) pentanal Prefer % 8 ast oe were omdtmt tee Rat & ? QQ) 1- Fert (2) 2- AR (3) 3- tere 4) tra! 61. Which reagent among the following oncs wuuld you yse for conversion of butane ~ 2 - one to propanoic acid ? ‘ (1) Tolien reagent (2) Febling solution (3) NaOH/ Nal/H* (4) NaOH/I,/H* 2462. 140/118/1OU} Bt -2- cH & Aes ors A aRafels oct & fee Preateaer 43 ate on onftraris ong watt FTF? () ae Rrra (2) Sefer errr {3} NaOH/ Nal/#* (4) NaQH/1,/H" Benzoyl chloride is prepared from benzoic acid by : (4) Cl hy (2) sa,ct, (3), soci, (4) Cl,,H,0 Qatar atgs, 8a Beat onan & Fate ora SF ara = () Cl, hv ant (2) SO,C1, aT (3) socl, art (4) Cl, H,O arr . Benzamide on treatment with POCI, gives : (1) Aniline (2) Benzylamine (3) Benzonitrile (4) Chlorobenzene acorargs 3 wre Pocl, at afafrar way Ie Re F : a) offers (2) Fang 3) FeTERIET 4) area |. Which one among the following bases is the strongest ? (}) Aniline Q) p- nitroaniline (3) m= nitroaniline a4} Benzylamine frevfafert ard a @ ara ua wast ane & 7 GQ) BRET 2) po siegerenies . ell (3) eile, 2514U/115/ 104i) 65. 66. 67. Which of the following compounds will not react with alcoholic KCN ? (1) Ethyl chloride (2) Acetyl chioride (3) Phenyl chloride (4) Benzaldehyde Feast Rest At eta-am center en sme tT atm ? OQ) ergs acs (2) eftRer aires (3) Penge wigs (4) Amtergs Aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reactions as compared to alkyl halides due to : (1) resonance stabilisation {2) inductive effect (3) formation ot less stable carbocation (4) longer carbon — halogen bond aha Sarge cf torege af gaa 4 afer ster afttar a oie a Brenetier der &, aren B - (1) sgare Rertterer (2) Fee ware (3) am Ree arta a ar (4) oria-tciers ar rat ger Which of the following has the Beer 68. Which of the fullowing will decolourise alkaline KMn0, solution ? re 4 Co on, ees wT TE wy CH, 2) CH. (3) Ce (a) CCl, 69. Which of the following js smallest in Size 2 safafen 4a as onere wee we BT qy) F i (2) 0 3) N* (4) Nav go, ‘the number and eype of bonds pperween two carbon: atoms in CAC see Qy one o and one % bond (2) one ¢ and two # bonds ia) one o and one - half = bond a) one o bond aa en compl Ber a SON TT a) Ho ATH oy wo TST TT + LR o ght aan tot 8 wre at:140/1185/1041) 71, Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by Hall-Heroult process i ut : QQ) in the Presence of NaCl (2) in the presence of fluorite (3) in the presence of eryolite which forms a melt with lower melting temperature . (4) Inthe Presence of cryolite which forms a melt with higher melting Oca ee 8 PEL oR eee a O) Naci at aofeera % . (2) goin a aufterty a 3) So a St Fer mrss & er Ream Ba & (1) one mole of phosphine (2) two moles or Phosphoric acid (3) two moles of phosphine (4) one mote of Phosphorous pentoxide Ser BT oe sr teem er her ech C1) Sr aT ear aie (2) REBT oer eat a ate 8) Groh ar a te (4) Tee IME ar tp she 73. There is no S-S bond in i S-S aw 3 agp a 1) s,0,2- 3,0, (gy 8,0,2- @) 8,02 22140/115; 104i) Th Wie MoO, is frsed with KOR, a coloured compound ig formed, the “1 jgeeduet and its colour are - {1) KMno, , purple @) KMno, , purple (3) Mn,0,, black (4) Mn,0,, brown MnO, KOH ra Sgn dhe B ch coe ete APs ar tam der 8, wart othe sae et a: (1) 1GMn0,) arf (2) kno, , rt 3) Mn,0, ier (4) Mn,o,, TT 7B. Spin only magnetic saoment of Hg (Co(scn),} is : . Hg (Ca(sem, ee Soha ate wr dar 2: QQ) “QO 8 OY Vis (4) eg 76. Satin dat stiteion ofan unknown anion when teated with Mgci, gives ‘precipitate on boiling. The anion is : OR SRT sere Siar Ter & Pore a Mec, & aRr wife ae Ba ome we eke areata Aer By seome Gar a) so,> (2) co, (3) Heo; (4) No; 77.8 (OH), + NaOH. gas NaBO, + Na [B(OH),|+H,0. How can this Teaction be made to proceed in the forward direction > Q) by the addition of borax Q)° by the additiun of Na, HPO, (3) by the addition of trants~ 1, 2 diot (4) by the addition of Cis- 1, 2 - diol 294u/115/ 1041) B(OH), + NaOH == NaBO, + Na {BOH) "HO se oar A at RT HAR tat wT FT a) aaa 3 water ar Q) Na, HPO, ® eiatert Br @ par - 1, 2-srgeitet & Aa TT a Pra -1,2- Srgattet TAI Bre 78, The types of bonds present in CuSO, 5H,0 are only : (1) electrovalcnt and covalent (2) elecuyralent and conrdinate covalent {3} electrovalent, covalent and coordinate covalent (a) covalent and coordinate covalent cuso,. 5H,0 4 aT & ware wafers BAS, Fel: a) Req ae ate aed TT gy Pag ae ote serena FT (a) Perea aa, Tecan Ae STAETAAS Fd fa) Bedtators ak sraediorm Fe 179. Among the following ones which one has the paramagnetic moment ? profes a a a om Saha Ae? Wr (11,0)," oY tou HON) GY [Fe (H,0),I” (4) Zn LO 80. The compound insoluble in acetic acid is = (1) Calcium oxide (2) Calcium oxalate (3) Calcium hydroxide (4) Calcium carbonate 3081. 82. 140/118/ 1044) cfaten fas A oyster Ars B Q) Sikerrt sires (2) Biveaa steraae 3) Sitar oegrangs (4) Bivere arte ‘The compound having tetrahedral geometry is APs Pred ara qgzserten venfiedta At B : (ys ene (2) [Pd (CN), (3) (Pd CL} (4) (Ni CLP A solution of Na,SU, is electrolysed using inert electrodes, The products at the cathode and anode are respectively : Na,S0,@ faces at ofa gaSt B seta @ Pryg ovaafer Fen are &1 Sets oft wits oe oes aH: E () H,, 0, (2) 0,,H, (3) 0,,Na (4) 0,,80, 83, The process used for extractive metallurgy of magnesium is : (1) thermite reduction (2) self reduction {3) aqueous solution electrolysis (4) molten salt electrolysis aeeanorems & ary Preanfor @ fre Pfr weer at ot B = Q) enige perm Q) war (3) Sete ert aT agg wivaet (4) aier wet or PAG oTTTET 31140/21 8/10q) 84. The octet rule is not valid for : sree Prem Road fare erg at 8? (1) NO 2) 0, {3) co, (4) 4,0 85. Which of the following has the most stable +2 oxidation state > Prafafad % @ Pra oe aad ort +2 steerer one B ? Qj) sn (2) Fe (3) Pb (4) Ag 86. Tho swlccule which has zero dipole moment is : fora ang & ory gear fiegerr gots 8? - (1) CH,cl, Gf BF, (3) NF, (4) clo, 87. ™Na is the more stable isotope of Na. The process by which “Na can undergo decay is : .6 (1) 6 emission (2) premission (3) K - electron capture (4) a- emission Sie or eee ifs wench remo tna B, me ArT-vt Paf & fad arr Ne wr are Pen B 2 (Op aR 2) Bp oR (3) Kk. Saag oer 4) a-arachr 3214U/115/10(8) 88. 32 g of oxygen contains 6.023 x 10¥ molecules at NTP. How many sulphur atoms are contained in 32 g of sulphur under the same conditions ?, 32g ateRGNrT NTP IT 6.023 « Lowarysi at afPaferat ara @ 1 Fe & aaa sae FH 32g aan Pra aewe Tey] Tat @ ? (1) 3.012 « 10% (2) 6.023 « 10 {3) 12.046 x 10% (4) 2.0% 108 $9. The mean kinetic energy of He is: (1) twice that of H, (2) same as that of H, (3) four times that of H, (4) half that of H, He a afer cant ar ort & () 4,4 yt . Q) 4% war Q) Het ae FAT (4) Ha otter 90. 2g of H, diffuses out from a container in 10 minutes. How auch amount of O, would diffuse from the container in the same time unde under conditions ? wm Ws 2g 1,10 PATE A PaeRe Ser By ery ovate A waa 4 far 0, aa & Raita a ? () 058° 2) 2¢ (3) 48 (4) 88 i 91. Urea is added to 1 litre of water to an amount such that 41,!K, becomes 0.001, What is amount of urea added ? rep Stet rer HF Re afta Prema B Ph Seen wll aT, 0.001 a ser Fer ser mR? () 60g 2) 68 i (4 oue€ 3314U/116/10(i) 1 92. K,/K. for the reaction CO + 7 On = CO, is: sififiert Co +5 0, = CO, & FI K,/K.B : QQ) RT (2) UWRF 8) Jar a1 93. The pH of a solution containing 0.1 M CH,COOH and 0.1M HCl is : te fae ot 0.1 M CH,COOH aft 0.1M HOI vet 3, ar pu 2: agi 2) 2 (3) 3 . (4) 4 94. If(a-x}" vst plot where (a - x)= reactant concentration at time ‘tis linear with positive slope which does not pass through the origin, the vides of the reaction is : (1) zero (2) one oro (4) three aA (a- xp t (era) & Ate ne Chee #, et ge (awe tT Te Pearce: A axe Tela a BAT TCR aA a HST aaa @ dex adi ara, after BH ate 2: () a (2) 0a () & (4) ar 98. The rate of a reaction increases with temperature. The reaction is : (1) exothermic (2) endothermic (3) of zero heat of reaction (4) any time are & are aafirar aft ax age &, afi & Q) wena (2) Geri 8) 9 asta afiiar (4) Reet At aay 3414U/ 115/106) 96, How much will the potential of a hydrogen electrode change when its solution initially at pH = 0 is neutralised to pH +7? (1) increases by 0.059 V (2) decreases by 0.059 V (3) increases by 0.41 V (4) decreases by 0.41 V meget seeps at Prva Peet afar arr oer gee Peta Hr SRP pHs0e sardtr eet pH=7 ata & ? (1) 0.089 Va BRR He hAT 3 2} 0050 Vas Fe BA & (3) O41 vas Ba ae BHM E (a) 0.41 Ah He Teh & 97. The difference between heats of reaction at constant presoure and constant volume for the reaction < 2C,H, (+ 15 0, (8) > 12.C0, (@) + 6 H,0() at 298 Kin kal 18 : 20,4, +150, (8 > 12 CO, (g) +6 HO apie % fee, oF 2 ate Ore tee ore Bate 9B K TC orate AAT A ore kW HB: () -7-43 (2) +3.72 (3) - 3.72 (ay +7.43 98, For a’reaction both aH and TAS are positive, The reaction will occur spontaneously when : rex vafhferar & fea AH aire TAS SAT garers B 1 ofA TTT wah seit, Aa: @ an FTAs an eTAS 35140/115/ 2044) 99. The numbgr of Bravais lattices in a cubic crystal is : ij (a i 3 (3) 7 (4) 14 100. Bragg's law is given by : Sea ar Por Pret art otaatta Pear nar & : (1) ms 4° (2) m=2dsine (3) 2d=ndsine (4) d~rhoind 3619U/1.15/ 104) Section — IT ws - OI Biology (Marks : 150) 401. Which of the following is the proginator for the origin of first living cell on the earth ? Ql) RNA @Q) DNA (3) Protein (4) Lipid + Brat a @ Pret Gore are ses stey aren a acaet get 7 en? Q) ame 2 Hae @ er (4) fers 102.in which of the following DNA is not found? (J) Mitochondria * (2) Nucleus (3) Peroxysome (4) Chloroplast fret 4 & Reet & or Uae Tat ome B ? () argeaitar Q) yee (3) TARR (4) aaron 103.Formation of RNA from DNA template is called : (1) Transition (2) ‘Transcription (3) Transfection Sa ¢ dade oe one wa oy A oT aT BEAT: Q) fire (2) Pieters (3) detest (Beet (4) Translation 37140/115/10() 104.Which of the following is mot correctly matched for the organisms and its cell wall degrading enzymes ? (1) Bacteria ~ Lysozyme (2) Plant cells ~ Cellulase (3) Algae ~ Methylase (4) Fungi - Chitinase sit cat seat otftemiire Refer opps & fe Prafetad & @ ai wal qatar aR? OQ) Rang - engin (2) Tea aifirerg - Gye (3) Sart - Prengsor (4) aa ~ argfetter 4105.Who proposed for the first time the "three domain” system for classifying living organisms? * GQ) RH. Whittaker (2) Cart Woose (3) Bentham and Hooker (4) Engler and Prantel SHra-sigh aor erffewcer “attr SAT” A ede Pea fase en 2 Q) or. wa. Sar (2) at gor (3) aT a Ear (4) Gere atte teeter 106.Heterocyst is the site of : (1) CO, fixation (2) N,- fixation * ' (3) Photosynthesis (4) Starch Synthesis Bie tere (ore) Sr 8: Q) Co, Rergeprer 3 fanz (2) N,Rerftrmy 3 fae (3) Serres Bry (4) tard aaa S fay 38140/115/ 104] 107. What is the product of photophosphorylation ? (1) PGA (2) ADP (3) ATP (4) NAD PARAS aT GeTK sar B ? Heat gg eat @ cat @ wer 108. The red rust of tea plants is caused by = (i) Puceinia (2) Cephaleuros (3) Prion (4) Xanthomonas ara & Get oe are Fre wT IE B 1) yeeifrar Q) adegie (3) Beta (4) Asien 409.1n Funaria, meiotic division takes place in : (1) protonémal cells (2) antheridium (3) archegonium (4) capsule RARar H sree rar wet stat B 7 Q) Meare aa F QQ) wettest 7 3) aretha 4 aa 4 110, Which of the following is considered as the most primitive stele ? (1) Siphonostele (2) Protostele (3) Bustele (4) Dictyostele Prafataer 28 Sr wae omer OF arett ore & 7 (eT Q) aa 3) Or (4) Serer 3914U/115/10() AL. Heterospory is found in : (Q) Lycopodium (2) Adiantum (3) Selaginetia (4) Dryopteris oratory Peat oft ont & ? () orperaieer F (2) oer 8) Arter (4) grehereey & 112, The F, genotypic ratio in a manohybrid roe of pea is : Tee F sterstes wore Ae, et ar Abiterefter orga ae Bs MQ) 2:1 (2) 3:4 (3) 1:2:1 (4) 9:33:21 113. Jsomorphic altemation of generations is'found in : (i) Funaria (2) Rieviu (3} Rhizopus (4) Ectocarpus wae tiga an waren feat ora oer B ? (1) 9Ffar Fy (2) Repftrar 3 8) Tear A (4) seeParder ¥ 14.4 well-known naturally occurring auxin is : Q) 2,4-D (2) TAA (3) NAA (4) Maleic hydrazide ae sre wep ee A qa ont are atte & 0) 2,4-b (2) IAA (3) NAA (4) Rase meR_rnez 40140/115/ 1043) 118. Which one of the following wavelengths of light is absorbed by the phycocyanin pigment ? (1) 420nm = (2) S40nm (3) 610mm ~— (4): 660 nm Per 2 8 da ce cerein eters acts are ogra eer B? Q) 420 34%rier (9) 540 Sanfter pane. (3) 610 *Firitex (4) 660 Arie 116. Azolia is an important source of : (1) Biopepticide (2) Insecticide (3) Biofertilizer (4) Herbicide qoiter ca waa wrt & () areas a (2) greeters aT (3) araeftergare a (4) edtares ar 117.’Gladiblus' belongs to the family : {1) Liliaceae (2) Compositae {3) Iridaceae (4) Malvaceae cafsatae. Pra at a aifeer B ? (1) fafereet & (2) wipe & @) ida a (4) Aree @ 138, "The first product of atmospheric nitrogen fixation in leguminous plant 18 8) NO, Or, @ MQ, “(4) glutamate 41140/115/10(4)- ater great & arate sredhrs F Reda ar veer Gee AA-aT a? OQ) ARR 2) sriPrer (3) aE 4) Tyee 119. A single gene affecting more than one phenotype is called : (1) Pleiotropic (2) Auxotrophic (3) Azotrophic (4) Pleiotrophic we i a ee 8 afte tes at wafer aon weer B : Q) Sights 2) SrRag ie ‘ 8) wigs (4) Sieger 120. The process of photosynthesis in green plants is most active in: (1) ultra-violet light (2) green light (3) red light (4) yellow light Bt det 4 care-ietorr St fer wae cites Pied after deh 8 7 Q) aeR-arate gare F (2) Bt oar 7 (3) ae Serer 4 . (4) diet sent F 121. The female gametoplyte in angiosperms is : (1) Carpel ~ (2) Eg GY Embryo sac (4) Ovute ongrdist del 8 air argaaigirg ea & ? 0) ors (2) sist 3) arate (4) fiers: 42140/115/ 104i) 122, Peroxisomes are associated with : (1) Photorespiration (2) Transpiration (3) Fermentation . (4) Movement oferta ar arg Pree F ? Q) wprr-waes @ Q) ares & 3) Brae 4) af a 123, Potometer is used to measure the rate of : (1) Plant growth (2) Respiration (3) Photosynthesis (4) Transpiration Pare at oot sat 8, AT: QQ) det a aie (2). ert (3) BemeTtserTeT (4) amiecestt 124. Which of the following is not an antibiotic ? (1) Streptomycin (2) Chloromycetin {3} Aflotoxin (4) Penicitin Rrafaiat 3 & ae aaas oat HB ? Q) Bernd (2) werner @) Refer (4) SeaPaferr 428.'Jumping gene’ in maize was discovered by : (1) TH. Morgan (2) H.G. Khorana 18) Barbare Mc Clintock (4) Beadle ond Tatum 4314U/118/ 10(i) [ were A afin ofa’ Peat Gre at ? Q) awe. ari 3 (2) (3) aRane Fey aches 4) 126. Euglena is a member of kingdom : 0) Monera rea) (3) Aimalia (4) Fu, WT Hl Ace : Q) ARE (2) (3) Wife (4) 127.Excretory organ found in cockroach is: (1) Matpighian tubule (2) (3) Green gland 4) faoag? % aartt sin oe ond B (1 Agha Pesger 0 (3) ita afer @) 128. Zoological name of filaria worm is: () Taenia (2) (3) Trypanosoma (a) we. of. Gen 3 fasa ote ten F Frousta Plantae siferet st Metanephridia Solenocytes Rei aera Ancylostoma Wuchereria wmgatta } atery ar org Fenfrs am B (\) Gra @) 3) RoaeaT (4) 44 CrereaT FRR140/115/10(i) 129. Balanoglossus is an example of : () Urochordates (2) Hemichordates (3) Molluscs (4) Cephalochordates Satara oH saree & : Q) qtarsga (2) Btensea (3) Heres, . (4) atierarsca 190.Which one of Whe following statements regarding cnidarians is incorrect ? (1) They are so called because they possess cnidocytes in their body. (2) They exhibit ability to change their basic body forms by a process of metamu phosis. (3) The undergo metagenesis giving rise to polyp or medusoid body forms alternately or remains in any one of body forms in their life. (4) They exhibit tissue level of organization and are diploblastic. Prafeitad 4 & dt ae Pea # dest A naa @ 7 (1) 3a Psftar safera wea aie cad roe F Prdtage aAfrare aft 1 (2) & ararret at faf & ara wit At onmeqg wee at Uae at at aera geftir aet By @) 4 afer ak Ager eit wes at wera a A 8T ga FesMite Maga ead F a ory ohias A wey A shiz ae Hw waz (4) 9 See ar & anes at ueivts meat F afte feat Aa FE) 45140/115/10(1) 131.In human beings, Tacnia solium is found in (1) duodenum (2) large intestine {3) small intestine (4) rectum ama §, Afra sess oar one @ : (a) Heo 3 0) ad sti F (3) BS attr A (4) Fenera # 132. Leech is a blood sucking animal nutritionally, therefore leech is : (1) carnivorous (2)) sanguivorous + (3) herbivorous (4) omnivorous deer & Pa sts tat GY Te org B, afer ats &: ()-Rismeré (2) Seqstea(zaervtoh) (3) amrrerét (4) watert 133. Vertebrae in birds are : (1) heternenelous . (2) acoelona ¥ {3} opisthocoelous (4) amphicoelous fatsat 3 aateat act & : () renga (2) orygie (3) eerste (4) Seager 134. Cuboid bone is associated with the structure of : (1) Tarsus (2) Metataraus @) Carpus (4) Metacarpus 46AU/118/ 1044} emer aftr a der @ araftea & : Q) (3) ee (ere) (2) Ferereter arte (4) Aererta 138. The sequence of blood flow from heart to gill in fish is : a) (2 8 @ Bulbus artenosus > ventricle atrium sinus venosus Gills ‘Sinus venosus -» atrium —ventricle —» bulbus arteriosus —> Gills. Atrium > ventricle ~»sinus venosus — bulbus arteriosus > Gills Sinus venosus —sright atrium ~sright ventricle left artium right atrium >Gills ATH 1 ERT I MRSS Tl AT THF aes a AS : ay a @) @ were adie Prods aftre agate arta Tes Tae Petes aferes Prora acre oréftaitta— meres aftr Pras ae Pata saeae atest Tess wee aod af Protein (2) DNA ~+RNA ->Protein (3) Protein +RNA DNA (4) Protein +DNA RNA enfiors fafa Aap frat yera ae & fe ongaiftrs gest aT ware eta & : (1) RNA +DNA ost (2) DNA >RNA >Sta (3) STAA—RNA SDNA (4) Sta 4DNA RNA 148.hn RNA is converted into mRNA by a process called : (Q) Editing (2). Transformation 3} Replication (4) Splicing bn RNA (We ff arr mRNA ® aacrat 3, wed F : Q) wart wet Q) SIRTeT @) faye (4) eemeftir 50140/118/ 104) 246. k-nd product of glycolysis in erythrocytes is : QQ) Pyruvate (2) Acetyl CoA IW Lactate (4) Glycogen sfutaee afin 4 cangetegire a sift aca & : () WERae Q) Rfafee Besa. (3) Geez (4) STE 147.According to Landsteiner’s law, the person with blood group A will have one of the following agglutinogen : agglutinin combinations : Q) Aw (2) AB (3) Awith no @ or B (4) Awith af Sereda & Peoigore, axa age an cat Ft Prater aa Ge dae age cafe : waft ern: () Aw (2) Ag (3) A® are aa pret 4) Aw oes 148. After analysis of a DNA sample, the mole percent of base ‘A' was found to be 20. Following the Chargaff's rule, the mole percent of base cytosine will be : DNA TEN BS overt H ag a’ aL wT Ale BATT 20 WAT Ta aT! Refeited artes Pert & oper TRAM AT aT HIT MTARET BOTT = () 10 (2) 20 30 (4) 40 51140/115/ 1041) 149. Which of the radioisotopes was used to label T2 Phage DNA in Hershey- Chase experiment to prove DNA as genetic material ? DNA a ongaifirs gart Ara wel & fea we—aor weer A 12 or DNA aR aif aed & fea Hr-ar Usage sear Pear TAT a? a) oH @) 2 (3) 88 We 150.In quite condition, expiration is caused by : (1) Contraction of expiratory muscles QA Relaxation of inspiratory muscles (3) Contraction of inspiratory muscles (4) Relaxation of expiratory muscles ary oftfeaa %, cazeera or ore ster (1) Segentter frat ar feregsat (2) arsenite Orat ar fer 3) omersenftrr Aerator Rreysar 14) sega Beat ar srt of 20,00014071 8/104140/115/ 1001) 3435 14U/118/1044areaftrat 3 fora Free (yr gfe va sates es ee T= & a GOH ‘deren shearers range 7 2 fre) eran fd 0 Bae B HLM ta a fren # wt Te hs oA Fee gene ree mA CT Ta mE A ead GR Wer TEA HE qtr ra] Bh fear vier wear BATT, fee a are ate a gen SP A yaa se emarerat fe en FTP ae og Fe LH IMT TH a TTY dere sme 98 ae aP geers fer arte re eg rer pe be 9 mea era are oe rat #9 29 Fo mere ee paramere ah net SPT SPRATT ATR OAT Re BT TAT AT re gz ul glo Ure Sto WHAT HYHTE HOT, avgfiren wget Be Roe (ee IF) FT gre TC SOT, TH WHS HTC OT eer ait wtf’ aaftebere wt ATTA mt at eis wt Tai oe een AT eT BT STS Sear ee ayaa ree eT APT AIT TAT Ww enon ae ay wre devs fa re fre eT eR TAT HH ee an woe oon eed RA NE YW BT STT-OT & es OR we ite & ager 2 mg Ber tt sede ae Bat fae Bere ow GT TH BH THA safies at a rat ee meer Oe FAST SE AA Oe ge SIC TTS AAT SAT ara fs es wre argh Brie eee AF aati fl TE) SF aatoa wret & sr wtf fy ret Rt 8 eee wt Te wey tat ne ofar Red mn ve are & fre wea gerar B ePUyS B 5k ara PE ow STC HTT H BMT IS am vat tt giten 3 SVU Baer ad ew are gee TT WAH ET FH BL crite war #2 F wA Oat yaa Saree oe a Epa el A ante abe pee ten Bara ere a dn wer &, a ae Pears ae Frees de svat, ant meverhh