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 CONTENTS
Section A : HISTORY A-1A-166

1. Indus Valley Civilization 1-9

2. Vedic Period and Religious Movements 10-26
3. Maurya Period and Post Mauryan Period 27-39
4. Gupta Period and Post Gupta Period 40-66
5. Ancient History (Miscellaneous) 67-72
6. Delhi Sultanate 73-91
7. Mughal Period 92-109
8. Initial Modern History 110-130
9. Indian Freedom Struggle - I (1857-1917) 131-145
10. Indian Freedom Struggle - II (1917-1947) 146-166

Section B : GEOGRAPHY B-1B-42

1. Astronomy 1-7
2. Physical Geography 8-15
3. Economic Geography 16-23
4. World Geography 24-31
5. Geography of India 32-42

Section C : INDIAN POLITY & GOVERNANCE C-1C-54

1. Indian Constitution 1-15

2. Political System 16-28
3. Local Government and Public Policy 29-39
4. Judiciary 40-54
 Section D : ECONOMICS D-1D-46

1. Indian Economy 1-12

2. Planning and Economic Development 13-19
3. Agriculture in Indian Economy 20-29
4. Indian Industry 30-37
5. World Economy 38-46

Section E : GENERAL SCIENCE E-1E-80

1. Physics 1-15
2. Chemistry 16-25
3. Biology 26-58
4. Environment and Ecology 59-70
5. Science and Technology 71-80

Section F : GENERAL AWARENESS F-1F-40

1. Art and Culture 1-7

2. National and International Awards 8-17
3. Books and Authors 18-24
4. Sports and Games 25-31
5. Miscellaneous 32-40

Section G : CURRENT AFFAIRS G-1G-60

1. National 1-11
2. International 12-19
3. Economical 20-27
4. Awards and Honours 28-35
5. Sports and Games 36-45
6. Science and Technology 46-52
7. Miscellaneous 53-60
 Section A : History
1 Indus Valley Civilization
1. Indus Valley Civilization was discovered in:
(a) 1911 (b) 1921
(c) 1931 (d) 1941
2. The people of Indus Valley Civilization were
almost :
(a) Nigroid (b) Proto-Austroloid
(c) Mediterranean (d) Nordic
3. Which metal was unknown to Indus Valley
Civilization?
(a) Gold (b) Silver
(c) Copper (d) Iron
4. The nature of Indus Valley Civilization was:
(a) Urban (b) Rural
(c) Agricultural (d) None of these
5. Indus Valley Civilization belongs to:
(a) Pre-historical (b) Historical period
(c) Proto-historical (d) Post-historical
6. A statue of bearded man was found at
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Chanhudaro (d) Dholavira
7. In Indus Valley Civilization, the script was:
(a) Kharosthi (b) Brahmi
(c) Boustrophedus (d) None of these
8. Which of the following is the latest site found?
(a) Dholavira (b) Amri
(c) Lothal (d) Kalibangan
9. Harappa is located on the bank of river:
(a) Indus (b) Ravi
(c) Beas (d) Sutlej
10. The local name of Mohenjodaro is:
(a) Mound of Living (b) Mound of Survivor
(c) Mound of Dead (d) Mound of Great
11. Which of the following animals was unknown in
Indus Valley Civilization?
(a) Lion (b) Bull
(c) Elephant (d) Horse
12. Which one of the following Indus Valley
Civilization sites gives evidence of a dockyard?
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Lothal (d) Dholavira
13. Which one of the following Indus Valley
Civilization sites gives evidence of a stadium?
(a) Harappa (b) Kalibangan
(c) Mohenjodaro (d) Dholavira
14. The people of Indus Valley Civilization usually
built their houses of:
(a) Pucca bricks (b) Wood
(c) Stone (d) None of these
15. A seal depicting Mother Goddess with plant
growing from the womb, has been found from:
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Kalibangan (d) Dholavira
16. Indus Valley Civilization was discovered by:
(a) Dayaram Sahni (b) R.D. Banerji
(c) Cunningham (d) Wheeler
17. A lot of beads were discovered from:
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Lothal (d) Dholavira
18. Mostly, beads were made of:
(a) Terracotta (b) Jasper
(c) Lapis (d) Steatite
19. Which of the following cannot be considered
Proto-Harappan culture?
(a) Sothi culture (b) Jornie culture
(c) Kot-Diji culture (d) Amri culture
A-2 || Indus Valley Civilization
20. Which of the following showed the greatest
uniformity in Indus Civilization settlement?
(a) Town planning (a) Elephant (b) Bull
(b) Bricks
(c) Religious practices
(d) Building
21. The site of Mohenjodaro is located on the bank of
river:
(a) Ravi (b) Beas
(c) Indus (d) Sutlej
22. The site of Mohenjodaro was discovered by:
(a) Dayaram Sahni (b) R.D. Banerji
(c) N.G. Majumdar (d) S.R. Rao
23. The largest of sites found in post-independence
India in:
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat
(c) Punjab (d) Haryana
24. The best drainage system (water management) in
Indus Valley Civilization was:
(a) Harappa (b) Lothal
(c) Mohenjodaro (d) Kalibangan
25. The famous dancing girl found in the Mohenjodaro
was made up of:
(a) Bronze (b) Red limestone
(c) Steatite (d) Terracotta
26. The unique structure in Mohenjodaro was:
(a) Bathing pool (b) Assembly hall
(c) Granary (d) Dockyard
27. In which of the following Indus Valley sites the
famous Bull-seal was found?
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Lothal (d) Chanhudaro
28. Which of the following Indus Valley Civilization
site was located on the Iranian border?
(a) Surkotada (b) Sutkagen Dor
(c) Kot Diji (d) Balakot
29. In which of the following Indus Valley sites, the
cemetry R-37 was found?
(a) Lothal (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Harappa (d) Dholavira
30. Which of the following is the most common motif
of the Indus seals?
(c) Rhinoceros (d) Unicorn
31. The dockyard at Lothal was well connected with
the river:
(a) Ghaggar (b) Bhogavo
(c) Narmada (d) Tapti
32. The Indus Valley Civilization people traded with
the:
(a) Romans (b) Parthians
(c) Mesopotamians (d) Chinese
33. Which of the following was unknown in Indus
Valley Civilization?
(a) Wheat (b) Pulses
(c) Barley (d) Cotton
34. Which type of seals was the most popular in
Harappan culture?
(a) Oval (b) Cylindrical
(c) Rounded (d) Quadrate
35. Remains of horse bares have been found from:
(a) Mohenjodaro (b) Lothal
(c) Surkotada (d) Sutkagendor
36. In which of the following Indus Valley Civilization
sites, the cotton piece was found ?
(a) Mohenjodaro (b) Lothal
(c) Harappa (d) Chanhudaro
37. Which of the following was unknown in Indus
Valley Civilization?
(a) Construction of wells
(b) Construction of arches
(c) Construction of pillars
(d) Construction of drains
38. Which of the following Indus Valley Civilization
sites provides the evidence of fire-altars?
(a) Alamgirpur (b) Kalibangan
(c) Banavali (d) Kunal
39. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian
subcontinent has been obtained from:
(a) Brahmagiri (b) Chirand
(c) Mehargarh (d) Burzahom
40. Which of the following was not worshipped by
Indus Valley people?
(a) Shiva (b) Peepal
(c) Mother Goddess (d) Vishnu

41. The excavation at Chanhudaro was directed by
(a) John Marshall (b) J.H. Mackay
(c) M. Wheeler (d) Aurel Stein
42. A granary outside to citadel was found at:
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Lothal (d) Dholavira
43. Which of the following sites of Harappan culture
gives evidence of Sindoor?
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Naushero (d) Balakote
44. Indus Valley Civilization site Manda is situated
near the bank of:
(a) Sutlej (b) Jhelum
(c) Chinab (d) Indus
45. The archaeological findings from Alamgirpur in
Meerut district reflect the:
(a) Harappa period (b) Vedic period
(c) Budha period (d) Mauryan period
46. In which of the following sites has a pre-Harappan
settlement not been found?
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Kalibangan (d) Dholavira
47. The Director General of Archaeological Survey
of India at the time of the excavation of Harappan
site was:
(a) Dayaram Sahni
(b) R.D. Banerji
(c) John Marshall the valley of Ghaggar and its associated rivers?
(d) Mortimer Wheeler
48. The most suitable name of Indus Valley Civilization
is:
(a) Harappan Civilization of two cemeteries?
(b) Indus Civilization
(c) Saraswati Civilization (c) Kalibangan (d) Ropar
(d) Bronze Time Civilization
49. A clay model of plough has been found from:
(a) Banawali (b) Kalibangan
(c) Rakhigarhi (d) Mitathal
50. In the excavations of Harappan sites, bones of
camels have been found at:
(a) Kalibangan (b) Lothal
(c) Harappa (d) Mohenjodaro
History || A-3
51. A glaring evidence of the art of dance in Harappan
culture comes from:
(a) Lothal (b) Harappa
(c) Mohenjodaro (d) Kalibangan
52. Which among the following was the most extensive
Harappan city?
(a) Banavali (b) Ropar
(c) Lothal (d) Rakhigarhi
53. From which of the Harappan sites has the evidence
of bead making been found?
(a) Dholavira (b) Ropar
(c) Chanhudaro (d) Kalibangan
54. Name the site which has revealed the earliest
evidence of settled life?
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Kalibangan (d) Mehargarh
55. The most common form of Harappan seal is:
(a) Cylindrical (b) Rectangular
(c) Square (d) Rounded
56. Which of the following ethnic races was not found
from skeleton of Harappan sites?
(a) Alpine (b) Mediteranean
(c) Mongoloid (d) Negrito
57. Bronze statue of dancing girl has been excavated
at:
(a) Mohenjodaro (b) Harappa
(c) Chanhudaro (d) Kalibangan
58. Which one among the following sites is located in
(a) Alamgirpur (b) Lothal
(c) Kalibangan (d) Banavali
59. Which of the Harappan sites has yielded evidence
(a) Mohenjodaro (b) Harappa
60. In which of the following sites was found the
evidence of Swastik?
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Chanhudaro (d) Kalibangan
61. Which of the following Harappan sites was found
the earliest evidence of surgery?
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Kalibangan (d) Dholavira
A-4 || Indus Valley Civilization
62. Which of the following Harappan sites shows the
earliest evidence of Earthquake
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Kalibangan (d) Dholavira
63. Three-paired cemetry was found in:
(a) Kalibangan (b) Lothal
(c) Chanhudaro (d) Mohenjodaro
64. Which amongst the following is not a site of Indus
Valley Civilization?
(a) Banawali (b) Rakhigarhi
(c) Hastinapur (d) Ropar
65. On which object, do we mainly find the inscriptions
of Harappan civilization?
(a) On pillars (b) On rocks
(c) On caves (d) On seals
66. Which site of Harappan civilization has yielded a
beautiful bronze image of a chariot?
(a) Daimabad (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Kalibangan (d) Rakhigarhi
67. Which amongst the following civilizations was not
contemporary with the Harappan civilization?
(a) Greek civilization
(b) Egyptian civilization
(c) Mesopotamian civilization
(d) Chinese civilization
68. In which Indus Valley Civilization sites, was
drainage system absent?
(a) Banawali (b) Dholavira
(c) Lothal (d) Rakhigarhi
69. In which Indus Valley Civilization sites, the people
were known to water reservoir technique?
(a) Banawali (b) Kalibangan
(c) Dholavira (d) Chanhudaro
70. Which of the following Indus Valley Civilization
sites gives evidence of a Lipstick?
(a) Chanhudaro (b) Banawali
(c) Mohenjodaro (d) Kalibangan
71. The site of Alamgirpur is located on the bank of
river:
(a) Maskra (b) Hindon
(c) Chinab (d) Bhader
72. Which one of the following sites has yielded
the cultural remains from Neolithic to Harappan
period?
(a) Amri (b) Mehargarh
(c) Kotdiji (d) Kalibangan
73. In the Indus Valley Civilization period, Lapis-
Lazuli was imported from:
(a) Badakhshah (b) Iran
(c) Mesopotamia (d) Gujrat
74. The Indus Valley Civilization was:
(a) Father base
(b) Mother base
(c) Same rights of mother and father
(d) None of these
75. Which of the following was one of the causes of
Harappan decline?
(a) Ecological change
(b) Earthquakes
(c) Aryan attack
(d) All of these
76. A ploughed field was discovered at:
(a) Harappa
(b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Kalibangan
(d) Lothal
 History || A-5

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (d) 21. (c) 31. (b) 41. (b) 51. (c) 61. (c) 71. (b)
2. (c) 12. (c) 22. (b) 32. (c) 42. (b) 52. (d) 62. (c) 72. (b)
3. (d) 13. (d) 23. (b) 33. (b) 43. (c) 53. (c) 63. (b) 73. (a)
4. (a) 14. (a) 24. (b) 34. (d) 44. (c) 54. (d) 64. (c) 74. (b)
5. (c) 15. (a) 25. (a) 35. (c) 45. (a) 55. (c) 65. (d) 75. (d)
6. (b) 16. (a) 26. (a) 36. (a) 46. (a) 56. (d) 66. (a) 76. (c)
7. (c) 17. (b) 27. (a) 37. (c) 47. (c) 57. (a) 67. (d)
8. (a) 18. (d) 28. (b) 38. (b) 48. (a) 58. (b) 68. (a)
9. (b) 19. (b) 29. (c) 39. (c) 49. (a) 59. (b) 69. (c)
10. (c) 20. (a) 30. (d) 40. (d) 50. (a) 60. (b) 70. (a)

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) The Indus Valley was discovered by Dayaram
Sahni in 1921. It is one of the worlds earliest
urban civilizations alongside its contemporaries,
Mesopotamia and Ancient Egypt. The Indus Valley
covers modern day Pakistan and the northwest of
India.
2. (c) Indus Valley Civilization had been a combination
of diverse racial elements. Certain anthropological
investigations and examinations of the human
remains show that four racial types existed in this
civilization namely Proto-Australiod, Mediterranean,
Alpinoid and the Mongoloid. Most of the people
belonged to Mediterranean race.
3. (d) Iron was not known to Indus Valley Civilization
people. The first evidence of Iron is found about l000
B.C. from Ataranjikhera in Etah district.
4. (a) Indus Valley Civilization was urbanized, highly
developed and sophisticated. The ruins exhibit high
level of planning in the cities. Excavations have
indicated that the buildings were built with baked
bricks. The streets were well constructed at right
angles with an elaborate and covered drainage
system. The civilization also had public buildings
including the vast granaries and the Great Bath at
Mohenjodaro.
6. (b) A well-known piece of art of the Harappan
period is a stone sculpture of a bearded man
discovered at Mohenjodaro. His eyes are half closed
indicating a posture of meditation. Across the left
shoulder is an embroidered cloak. In the opinion of
some scholars, it could be a bust of a priest.
7. (c) Indus Scripts are popularly known as
Boustrophedon scripts which are still not deciphered
by the historians, researchers and scholars.
8. (a) Dholavira is the latest Indus Valley Civilization
site. This site was discovered by J.P. Joshi in 1967-68.
Dholavira is located at Kutch district in Gujarat.
9. (b) Harappa was situated on the banks of river
Ravi in Montgomery district of western Punjab (in
Pakistan).
10. (c) Mohenjodaro is not the original name, of
course, but one given by local villagers referring
to the mound of the dead: the tower and hillocks
of abandoned debris of bricks that they had their
forefathers had noticed in the surroundings.
11. (d) Animals like buffaloes, sheeps and pigs and
the humped bull were bred. Animals like elephant,
camels and dogs were also domesticated. There is
no evidence found about horses in the excavation of
Indus Valley Civilization.
12. (c) The Indus Valley Civilization site Lothal gives
evidence of a dockyard. Lothal was discovered by
S.R. Rao in 1954 A.D. The dockyard is located in
eastern side of Lothal.
A-6 || Indus Valley Civilization
13. (d) Recent excavations at the small township of
Dholavira, in Kutch, Gujarat (India) have presented
to the world some of the oldest stadiums and sign
board, built by the Harappan civilization. One of
the stadiums, with terraced seats for spectators,
around 800 feet in length (around 283 metres) can
accommodate as many as 10,000 persons. The other
stadium is much smaller in size.
14. (a) Houses of Indus Valley Civilization were one
or two stories high, made of baked (Pucca) bricks,
with flat roofs. Each was built around a courtyard,
with windows overlooking the courtyard. The outside
walls had no windows. Each home had its own private
drinking well and its own private bathroom. Clay
pipes led from the bathrooms to sewers located under
the streets.
15. (a) Plant growing from the womb of women has
been found from Harappa on a seal. That represents
Earth Goddess.
16. (a) Harappan civilization was discovered in
192122 when two of its most important sites were
excavated. The first was excavated by Dayaram Sahni
and the second by R.D. Banerji.
17. (b) Many beautiful beads of blue Lapis Lazuli, Red
Carnelian, and Agate stones of all colours have been
found throughout Mohenjodaro and were probably
worn by the women. Archaeologists have found
beads in such locations as the Great Bath, where
bathers probably lost them, and in the lower city,
where bead makers may have dropped them in and
around the kilns they used to make the beads.
18. (d) The vast majority of the beads are made of
fired steatite, which was a widely used raw material,
beginning with the Ravi period and continuing
through the Late Harappan period. Beads that are
made of hard stone, such as Agate, Carnelian, are
relatively less common, with a significant drop in
numbers for stones, such as Lapis Lazuli, Grossular
Garnet, Serpentine and Amazonite.
20. (a) The greatest uniformity is noticed in the layouts
of the towns, streets, structures, brick size, drains, etc.
Almost all the major sites (Harappa, Mohenjodaro,
Kalibangan and others) are divided into two partsa
citadel on higher mound on the western side and a
lower town on the eastern side of the Indus Valley
Civilization settlement.
21. (c) Mohenjodaro is situated along the west bank
of the Indus River while Harappa is located 640 km
northeast of Mohenjodaro.
22. (b) The site of Mohenjodaro was discovered in 1922
by R. D. Banerji, an officer of the Archaeological
Survey of India, two years after major excavations
had begun at Harappa, some 590 km to the north.
Large-scale excavations were carried out at the site
under the direction of John Marshall, K. N. Dikshit,
Ernest Mackay, and other directors through the
1930s.
23. (b) The state which has accounted for highest number
of Harappan sites after independence is Gujarat.
Gujarat has been one of the main centre of the
Indus Valley Civilization. It contains major ancient
metropolitan cities from the Indus Valley such as
Lothal, Dholavira, and Gola Dhoro.
25. (a) The famous Dancing girl found in Mohenjodaro
is an artifact that is some 4,500 years old. The 10.8
cm long statue of the dancing girl was found in 1926
from a house in Mohenjodaro is made of bronze.
26. (a) The bathing pool was the unique structure of
Mohenjodaro. It measures 11.88 1.01 2.43 mt.
The floor of the bath pool was made of burnt
bricks.
27. (a) On the site of Indus Valley Civilization, the
famous Bull-seal was found in Harappa. The Bull-
seal shows a humped bull displaying a strong and
energetic bull. The figure has been made well, a proof
of the fine artistic skills acquired by the people of that
time. Seals are mainly in square or rectangular shape.
This Bull-seal dates to around 2450-2200 BC.
28. (b) Sutkagen Dor is the westernmost known
archaeological site of Indus Valley Civilization. It
is located about 480 km west of Makran coast near
the Iran border in Balochistan province of Pakistan.
Sutkagen Dor would have been on the trade route
from Lothal in Gujarat to Mesopotamia and was
probably heavily involved in the fishing trade
similar to that which exists today in the coast along
Balochistan.
29. (c) There are over fifty-five burial sites in the Indus
Valley which were found in Harappa. The burials
are interpreted primarily as reflections of social
structure and hierarchy. The strongest evidence for
this interpretation would be burial sites in Harappa,
cemetery R-37 and Cemetery H. R-37 is the smaller
site compared to Cemetery H, and has about 200
burials. Archeologists believe it was a restricted
cemetery that was used by a particular group or family
that lived in Harappa.

30. (d) The unicorn is the most common motif on Indus
seals and appears to represent a mythical animal that
Greek and Roman sources trace back to the Indian
subcontinent.
32. (c) The people of Indus Valley Civilization mainly
traded with the Mesopotamians. Dilmun and Makan
were intermediate trading stations between Meluha
and Mesopotamia. Meluha is the earliest name of
Indus area.
33. (b) In Indus Valley Civilization, pulses were
unknown. The chief food crops included wheat,
barley, sesasum, mustard, peas, etc. The evidence
for rice has come from Lothal and Rangpur in the
form of husks embedded in pottery. Cotton was
another important crop. A piece of woven cloth has
been found at Mohenjodaro. Apart from cereals, fish
and animal meat also formed a part of the Harappan
diet.
34. (d) Quadrate type of seals was the most popular in
Harappan culture.
35. (c) Surkotada site contains horse remains dated
to 2000 BC, which is considered a significant
observation with respect to Indus Valley Civilisation.
During 1974, Archaeological Survey of India
undertook excavation in this site and J.P. Joshi and
A.K. Sharma reported findings of horse bones at all
levels.
36. (a) The cotton piece was found in Mohenjodaro.
Traces of cotton fibres and textile fragments provide
evidences of production of cotton textiles from early
Harappan period. Cotton was a commodity the
people of Mohenjodaro probably exported, perhaps
in exchange for minerals, tools or other goods.
38. (b) Kalibangan is an archaeological site where
ploughed field, bones of camel, circular and
rectangular graves, distinctive fire (Vedic ) altars with
provision of ritual bathing have been found.
39. (c) The site of Mehrgarh provides evidence for
the earliest agricultural and pastoral communities in
South Asia. The first inhabitants of Mehrgarh, dating
to around 6500 BC, were farmers who cultivated
wheat and barley as their main grain crops and had
herds of cattle, sheep and goats.
History || A-7
40. (d) The numerous seals and figurines discovered in
the excavations carried out at various sites connected
with the Harappan culture point out to the religious
beliefs of the Indus Valley people.
Worship of Mother Goddess: A large number of
excavated terracotta figurines are those of a semi-
nude figure which is identified with some female
energy or Shakti or Mother Goddess, who is the
source of all creation.
Worship of Pashupati or Lord Shiva: The Pashupati
seal in which the three-faced male god is shown
seated in a yogic posture, surrounded by a rhino and
a buffalo on the right, and an elephant and a tiger on
the left, make the historians conclude that the people
of those days worshipped Lord Shiva. Discovery of a
large number of conical or cylindrical stones shows
that the people worshipped lingam, the symbol of
Lord Shiva.
Worship of Trees: The worship of trees was
widespread. The Pipal tree was considered most
sacred.
Other Objects of Worship: People also worshipped
animals, such as the bull, buffalo and tiger. Besides
animals, these people also worshipped the Sun, the
Fire and the Water.
There was no evidence of the God Vishnu worshipped
by the people of Indus Valley Civilization.
41. (b) Chanhudaro was investigated in 1931 by the
Indian archaeologist N. G. Majumdar and was
excavated in 1935-36 by the British archaeologist
Ernest John Henry Mackay.
42. (b) In Indus Valley Civilization, a granary outside to
citadel was found at Mohenjodaro. Because farmers
outside the walls of Mohenjodaro usually had their
own granaries, some archaeologists think that grain
stored within the citadel granary may have been
collected as taxes.
43. (c) Naushero gives the evidence of Sindoor in
Harappan culture. The site of Naushero, located
6 km away from Mehargarh had developed Kotdijian
settlement. It was a smaller settlement but sharing
fully the developmental process towards maturity
of urbanization.
44. (c) Indus Valley Civilization site Manda is situated
on the right bank of Chenab river in the foothills of Pir
Panjal range, 28 km northwest of Jammu. Manda is
the north site of Indus civilization. It was discovered
by J.P. Joshi in 1982.
A-8 || Indus Valley Civilization
45. (a) The archaeological evidences found from
Alamgirpur in Meerut district reflect the Harappan
period.
47. (c) At the time of excavation of Harappan site,
the Director General of Archaeological Survey of
India was John Marshall from 1902-28. In 1921,
he focused on the Indus Valley, which led to the
discovery of the ancient Indus Valley Civilization,
the ancient cities Harappa and Mohenjodaro.
48. (a) Harappan Civilization is the most suitable name
for Indus Valley Civilization because Harappa lies in
the centre of Indus Civilization. It was also an urban
trade centre.
49. (a) A clay model of plough has been found from
Banawali. It is an archaeological site belonging to
Indus Valley Civilization period in Fatehabad district
of Haryana. Banawali is earlier called Vanavali,
is situated on the left banks of dried up Saraswati
river.
50. (a) In the excavation of Indus Valley Civilization
sites, the camel bones have been found at
Kalibangan.
52. (d) Rakhigarhi was a large Harappan town
known in 1963, when the area was first surveyed.
Archaeologists found it the biggest Harappan city,
larger and more extensive.
53. (c) The evidence of beadmakers shops has
been found at Chanhudaro and Lothal. Gold and
silver beads have also been found. Ivory carving
and inlaying used in beads, bracelets and other
decorations were also in practice.
55. (c) The square shape of the seal is the most common
form of Harappan seals, although there is great
variety in their size and shapes.
56. (d) The skeleton of Negrito was not found in any
Harappan site. Negrito refers to several ethnic groups
who inhabit isolated parts of Southeast Asia.
57. (a) The most famous bronze dancing girl figurine
discovered at Mohenjodaro. It is a female figure, with
right arm on the hip and left arm hanging in a dancing
pose. She is wearing a large number of bangles. It is
the first sculpture in dancing gesture discovered in
the Indian subcontinent.
58. (b) Lothal is one of the most prominent cities of
the ancient Indus Valley Civilization located in the
valley of Ghaggar-Harka river. Many Indus Valley
(or Harappan) sites have been discovered along the
Ghaggar-Hakra beds.
59. (b) The evidence of two cemeteries has been found
from Harappa. The strongest evidence for the burial
sites in Harappa are Cemetery R-37 and Cemetery
H.
60. (b) The Swastika is said to have originated in both
the Indus River Valley Civilization and in some
ancient Mediterranean Civilizations. A tablet with
Swastika has been excavated at Mohenjodaro.
61. (c) The earliest evidence of surgery was found from
Kalibangan. Archaeologists made the discovery that
the people of Indus Valley Civilization, even from the
early Harappan periods, had knowledge of medicine
and surgery.
62. (c) The earliest evidence of earthquake was found
from Kalibangan. B. B. Lal, former DG of ASI, said:
Kalibangan in Rajasthan has shown that there
occurred an earthquake around 2600 BC, which
brought to an end the Early Indus settlement at the
site.
63. (b) In Indus Valley Civilization, the three paired-
cemetery was found from excavation of Lothal.
64. (c) Hastinapur is not a site of Indus Valley
Civilization. Hastinapur was the capital of the Kuru
dynasty of kings. All incidents in the epic Mahabharata
have taken place in the city of Hastinapur.
65. (d) Most of the inscriptions are found on seals
mostly made out of stone. Some inscriptions are also
found on copper tablets, bronze implements and small
objects made of terracotta, stone and faience.
66. (a) A sculpture of a bronze chariot, 45 cm long,
16 cm wide, yoked to two oxen, driven by a man
16 cm high standing in it and three other bronze
sculptures a rhinoceros, an elephant and a buffalo
were found at Daimabad in the Ahmednagar district
of Maharashtra.
67. (d) Archaeologist Sir John Marshall thought that
the Indus Valley Civilization belonged to the period
between 3250 BC and 2750 BC. It is the period
when the Egyptians, Babylonian and Mesopotamian
Civilizations flourished. From the objects discovered
at the cities of the Indus Valley Civilizations,
historians have made a comparative study of the
contemporary civilizations of Mesopotamia, Egypt
and Babylonia. They came to the conclusion that the
Indus Valley Civilization was at its height of glory
during the period of the contemporary civilizations
of Mesopotamia, Egypt and Babylonia.

69. (c) Dholavira had a series of water storing tanks
and step wells, and its water management system
has been called unique. The unique feature is the
sophisticated water conservation system of channels
and reservoirs, the earliest found anywhere in the
world and completely built of stone.
70. (a) The Indus Valley Civilization site Chanhudaro
finds indicate the use of lipstick.
71. (b) An Indus site has been discovered at Alamgirpur,
27 km west of Meerut. Alamgirpur is located on
the left bank of the Hindon river, a tributary of the
Yamuna.
72. (b) The best-known site of the cultural remains
is Mehrgarh. Mehrgarh is a neolithic site seen as a
precursor to the Indus Valley Civilization.
73. (a) The Sar-i Sang mines in the region of
Badakhshah in north east Afghanistan were probably
the source for all Lapis-Lazuli used by the ancient
History || A-9
people. So the people of Indus Valley Civilization
period imported Lapis-Lazuli from Badakhshah
(Afghanistan).
74. (b) The nature of Indus Valley Civilization was
mother base because condition of women was pretty
good at that time. They were entitled equal honour
along with men in the society. The worship of mother
goddess demonstrates that they were respected in the
form of mother.
75. (d) Definite reason to the decline of the Indus Valley
Civilization is not known, as no reliable resource of
that period is available at present. Every conclusion
regarding the decline is based upon speculations of
historians. It is commonly believed that ecological
change, earthquake, Aryan attack, etc. were the
causes of Harappan decline.
76. (c) Kalibangan is distinguished by the worlds
earliest attested ploughed field.
 2 Vedic Period and
Religious Movements
Vedic Period
1. Vedic literature is also known as :
(a) Shruti (b) Smriti
(c) Sanhita (d) Vedanga
2. Who was the founder of Vedic culture?
(a) Dravid (b) Arya
(c) Harappan (d) None of these
3. The word Aryan denotes :
(a) Ethnic group (b) Nomadic people
(c) Speech group (d) Superior race
4. The staple food of the Vedic Aryan was :
(a) Barley and rice
(b) Rice and pulse
(c) Vegetables and fruits
(d) Milk and its products
5. Who is the most important God in Rigaveda?
(a) Agni (b) Indra
(c) Varun (d) Vishnu
6. Who wrote a book Return of the Aryans ?
(a) Bhagvan Das Gidvani (a) Ravi (b) Jhelum
(b) L.D. Kalla
(c) Avinash Chandra Das
(d) D.S. Trivedi
7. Which river has not been mentioned in Rigveda?
(a) Sindhu (b) Saraswati
(c) Narmada (d) Tapti
8. Which of the following is the major impact of
Vedic culture on Indian history?
(a) Progress of philosophy
(b) Development of culture
(c) Rigidification of caste system
(d) Perception of a new world
9. Which of the following Vedic deities is not
mentioned in the Boghazkoi inscription ?
(a) Indra (b) Agni
(c) Mitra (d) Varun
10. Who of the following was the God of morality
during the Rigvedic times?
(a) Indra (b) Rudra
(c) Agni (d) Varuna
11. The river Chenab was known during the Vedic
period by the name :
(a) Askini (b) Parushni
(c) Shutudri (d) Vitasta
12. Which one of the following assemblies was also
called Narishta meaning a resolution that cannot
be broken?
(a) Gana (b) Vidhata
(c) Sabha (d) Samiti
13. Which of the following does not come under
Shruti literature?
(a) Brahmana (b) Vedanga
(c) Aranyaka (d) Upanishad
14. The Vedic river Vitasta has been identified with :
(c) Chenab (d) Beas
15. Which of the following Brahmana texts belongs
to Atharvaveda?
(a) Shatpatha (b) Aitareya
(c) Gopatha (d) Panchavinsh
16. Who of the following led the confederacy of ten
kings against Sudasa?
(a) Vishwamitra (b) Bharadwaja
(c) Vashistha (d) Atri
17. Dasarajana was :
(a) Ten incarnations of Vishnu
(b) A sacrifice to be performed by the king
(c) Battle of ten kings
(d) None of these

18. Which part of Rigveda gives an account of the
origin of the Universe?
(a) Second Mandala (b) Fourth Mandala
(c) Ninth Mandala (d) Tenth Mandala
19. The famous Battle of Kings between Bharat and
the host of ten kings was fought near the river :
(a) Sindhu (b) Saraswati
(c) Parushni (d) Vitasta
20. Which one of the following Vedic Gods depicts
an association with the Sun?
(a) Ashvin (b) Pushan
(c) Indra (d) Brihaspati
21. Which of the following is concerned with origin
of Indian medicine?
(a) Rigveda (b) Samveda
(c) Yajurveda (d) Atharveda
22. Which one of the following is described in
Upanishad?
(a) Dharma (b) Yoga
(c) Philosophy (d) Law
23. Which of the following Purusarthas is not a part
of Trivarga?
(a) Artha (b) Dharma
(c) Moksha (d) Kama
24. Who of the following has opened that the original
homeland of the Aryan was Arctic region?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (d) Chhandogya Upanishad
(b) Max Muller
(c) Dayanand Saraswati (a) Indra (b) Aditi
(d) A.C. Das
25. In Rigveda, maximum number of shlokas are
written in the memory of :
(a) Indra (b) Brahma
(c) Vishnu (d) Shiva
26. How many times does the word Jana occur in
the Rigveda?
(a) 75 times (b) 175 times
(c) 275 times (d) 375 times
27. Which of the following assemblies was normally
involved in the election of king?
(a) Sabha (b) Samiti
(c) Gana (d) Vidatha
28. The expounder of Yoga philosophy was :
(a) Patanjali (b) Shankaracharya
(c) Jaimini (d) Gautam
History || A-11
29. The word Gotra occurs for the first time in :
(a) Rigveda (b) Samveda
(c) Yajurveda (d) Atharveda
30. The word Visamatta was used in the latter Vedic
Age for :
(a) The king (b) The priest
(c) The trader (d) The tax collector
31. In the Vedic Period, which animal was known as
Aghanya?
(a) Bull (b) Sheep
(c) Cow (d) Elephant
32. Which of the following Samhitas of Yajurveda
contains only hymns and no prose?
(a) Katha (b) Maitrayaviya
(c) Taittriya (d) Vajasaneyi
33. The game of dice was part of the ritual of :
(a) Agnistoma (b) Aswamegha
(c) Rajasuya (d) Vajapeya
34. The rivers Ganga and Yamuna are mentioned for
the first time in :
(a) Rigveda
(b) Atharvaveda
(c) Satapath Brahmana
35. The Gayatri Mantra is dedicated to :
(c) Gayatri (d) Savitri
36. Who among the following was a Brahmavadini
that composed some hymns of the Vedas?
(a) Lopamudra (b) Gargi
(c) Leelavati (d) Savitri
37. The river most mentioned in Rigveda is :
(a) Sindhu (b) Sutudri
(c) Saraswati (d) Gandaki
38. The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and
Yama is mentioned in the :
(a) Chhandogyopanishad
(b) Mundakopnishad
(c) Kathopanishad
(d) Kenopanishad
A-12 || Vedic Period and Religious Movements
39. The flood Legend in which a divine fish has been
described as rescuing Manu occurs in detail in :
(a) Rigveda samhita
(b) Vajasaneyi samhita
(c) Satapatha Brahmana 50. With whom is the Yadu tribe mostly paired in the
(d) Aitareya Brahmana
40. Which of the following is the Samhita of the
Shukla Yajurveda?
(a) Kathaka Samhita
(b) Maitrayaniya Samhita
(c) Taittiriya Samhita (b) Atharvaveda
(d) Vajasaneyi Samhita
41. Who was the priest of the Bharatas in the battle of
ten kings?
(a) Visvamitra (b) Vasishtha
(c) Atri (d) Bhrigu
42. To which Sakha does the published Rigveda
Samhita belong?
(a) Sawnaka (b) Asvalayan
(c) Sakala (d) Sankhayana
43. Satpatha Brahmana is related to :
(a) Rigveda (b) Yajurveda
(c) Samaveda (d) Atharvaveda
44. King Asvapati of the Upanishadic Age was the
ruler of :
(a) Kekaya (b) Matsya
(c) Panchala (d) Sursena
45. Which of the following Upnishads is written in
prose?
(a) Isa (b) Katha
(c) Brihadaranyaka (d) Svetasvatara
46. Who among the following Vedic deities bears
resemblance with Avestan God Ahurmazda ?
(a) Indra (b) Varuna
(c) Rudra (d) Vishnu
47. Who among the following was a commentator of
the Manusmriti ?
(a) Asahaya (b) Visvarupa
(c) Bhattasvami (d) Medhatithi
48. Which of the following is also called
Adharvayuveda ?
(a) Rigveda (b) Yajurveda
(c) Samveda (d) Atharveda
49. Which of the following Mandalas is completely
devoted to the Vedic God Soma ?
(a) 1 (b) 5
(c) 9 (d) 10
Rigveda?
(a) Anu (b) Druhyu
(c) Turvasu (d) Puru
51. The earliest reference to Devakiputra Krishna
occurs in :
(a) Rigveda
(c) Satapatha Brahmana
(d) Chhandogya Upnishad
52. Which one of the following primarily deals with
the construction of sacrificial altars?
(a) Brahmasutra (b) Dharmasutra
(c) Grihyasutra (d) Sulvasutra
53. In the Rigveda, the first hymn of a Mandala is
often addressed to :
(a) Agni (b) Indra
(c) Mitra (d) None of these
54. Who is the propounder of the theory that the
Rigvedic Aryans and the Harappans might have
been the same people?
(a) R.S. Sharma (b) Romila Thapar
(c) B.B. Lal (d) H.D. Sankalia
55. Who was the most celebrated craftsman in the
Vedic Age?
(a) Carpenter (b) Coppersmith
(c) Goldsmith (d) Weaver
56. A story of Sunahsesha, in which his father Ajigarta
is stated to have sold him to Harishchandra,
occurs in :
(a) Aitareya Brahmana
(b) Gopatha Brahmana
(c) Svetasvatara Upnishad
(d) Brihadaranyaka Upnishad
57. Which of the following Upnisads includes
Itihasa-Purana in the list of subjects to be taught
to disciples?
(a) Mundaka Upnishad
(b) Chhandogya Upnishad
(c) Prasna Upnishad
(d) Katha Upnishad

58. Which of the following Mandalas of Rigveda is
described the battle of ten kings?
(a) Second Mandala (b) Fifth Mandala
(c) Seventh Mandala (d) Ninth Mandala
59. Who among the following wrote Sanskrit
grammar?
(a) Panini (b) Manu
(c) Kalidasa (d) Charak
60. Who wrote the first textbook on Jyotis?
(a) Panini (b) Patanjali
(c) Katyayan (d) Bhrigu
61. Ashtadhyayi was written by :
(a) Panini (b) Katyayan
(c) Vedvyas (d) Shukadeva
62. The words Satyameva Jayate in the state
emblem of India have been adopted from which
one of the following?
(a) Mundaka Upnishad
(b) Katha Upnishad
(c) Mandukya Upnishad
(d) Chhandogya Upnishad
63. The great law given of ancient time was :
(a) Vatsyayana (b) Ashoka
(c) Manu (d) Panini
64. Which of the following Upnishad is the earliest?
(a) Chhandogya Upanishad
(b) Mundakopnishad
(c) Brihdaranyak Upanishad
(d) Taitariya Upanishad
65. The largest number of Rigvedic hymns are
devoted to :
(a) Agni (b) Indra
(c) Rudra (d) Vishnu
66. During the Rigvedic period, Niska was an
ornament of :
(a) Ear (b) Neck
(c) Arm (d) Wrist
67. Which of the following were regarded as the hub
of Aryan culture during the later Vedic period?
(a) Anga and Magadh 78. The word Yava mentioned in Rigveda is used for
(b) Kosal and Videha
(c) Kuru and Panchal (a) Barley (b) Gram
(d) Matsya and Surasena
History || A-13
68. Which of the following inscriptions tells about
the Aryans movement from Iran to India?
(a) Mansehra (b) Shahbajgarhi
(c) Boghazkoi (d) Junagarh
69. Name the tribe which does not belong to the
Panchajana of Rigvedic Aryans?
(a) Yadu (b) Puru
(c) Turvasa (d) Kikat
70. In which of the Vedas, Sabha and Samiti are
called as two daughters of Prajapati?
(a) Rigveda (b) Samveda
(c) Yajurveda (d) Atharvaveda
71. The largest number of the Mantras in Rigveda
belong to :
(a) Agni (b) Varuna
(c) Vishnu (d) Rudra
72. Which of the following Upanishad is the smallest?
(a) Mundaka (b) Mandukya
(c) Katha (d) Taitariya
73. Which of the following Puranaa is the earliest?
(a) Matsya (b) Vishnu
(c) Bhagvat (d) Markandey
74. The economy of Rigvedic time was :
(a) Urban (b) Rural
(c) Mixed (d) None of these
75. Who among the following is regarded as War
God in Rigveda?
(a) Agni (b) Indra
(c) Surya (d) Varuna
76. Sayana the famous commentator of the Vedic
texts, was patronised by :
(a) Parmara rulers (b) Satvahana rulers
(c) Vijaynagar rulers (d) Vakataka rulers
77. Which of the following rivers is referred to
as Matetama, Devitama and Naditama in the
Rigveda?
(a) Sindhu (b) Saraswati
(c) Ganga (d) Yamuna
which agricultural product?
(c) Rice (d) Wheat
A-14 || Vedic Period and Religious Movements
Religious Movement
79. Buddha means :
(a) The enlightened one (a) Sanskrit (b) Ardha-Magadhi
(b) The religious preacher
(c) The genius 91. The twenty-third Jain Tirthankara was associated
(d) The powerful
80. Gautam Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana at
(a) Kapilvastu (b) Kushinagar
(c) Bodhgaya (d) Rajgriha
81. The second Buddhist council was held during the
region of
(a) Ajatashatru (b) Kanishka
(c) Kalashoka (d) Ashoka
82. Who is supposed to be the future Buddha in
Mahayana Buddhism?
(a) Krakuchanda (b) Amitabha
(c) Maitreya (d) Kanak Muni
83. Where did the Mahasamghika school arise ?
(a) Bodhagaya (b) Rajagriha
(c) Sravasti (d) Vaishali
84. Which of the following is not a text of Buddhism?
(a) Jatakas (b) Acharanga Sutra
(c) Digh Nikaya (d) Sumangalavilasini
85. Where was the order of nuns established by
Gautama Buddha ?
(a) Kapilvastu (b) Vaishali
(c) Rajgriha (d) Sravasti
86. The earliest epigraphic evidence mentioning the
birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha is obtained
from
(a) Sarnath (b) Sravasti
(c) Kausambi (d) Rummindei
87. What is Kalyan Mitra in Buddhist philosophy?
(a) Prabandhan (b) Dharmachakra
(c) Astangika Marg (d) Triratna
88. To whom of his following disciples did Buddha
preach his last sermon?
(a) Anand (b) Sariputra
(c) Subhadra (d) Upali
89. Main element (features) of Buddhist philosophy
is
(a) Pratitya Samutpad (b) Jiva and Ajiva
(c) Syadvada (d) Triratna
90. In which language, did Mahavir Swami deliver
his sermons?
(c) Vaidarbhi (d) Suraseni
with
(a) Vaishali (b) Kausambi
(c) Varanasi (d) Sravasti
92. Which one among the following Tirthankaras
was according to the Svetamber tradition, a lady?
(a) Sumatinatha (b) Shantinatha
(c) Mallinatha (d) Arishtanemi
93. The teaching of Parsvanatha is collectively
known as
(a) Triratna (b) Pancha Mahavrata
(c) Panchsila (d) Chaturyama
94. The Jain Tirthankara Mahavira has been
mentioned in the early Buddhist literature as
(a) Nigantha Nataputta
(b) Vardhamana
(c) Vesaliya
(d) Videhaputta
95. The first meeting of Ghosal with Mahavir Swami
was held at
(a) Champa (b) Vaishali
(c) Takshshila (d) Nalanda
96. The Tripitaka was written in
(a) Brahmi (b) Kharosthi
(c) Pali (d) Sanskrit
97. Who amongst the following is known as the Light
of Asia?
(a) Jesus Christ
(b) Lord Buddha
(c) Prophet Mohammad
(d) Zarathustra
98. Who was the author of Buddha Charita?
(a) Asvaghosha (b) Nagarjuna
(c) Nagasen (d) Vasumitra
99. Which one of the following is not included in the
eight-fold path of Buddhism?
(a) Right speech (b) Right contemplation
(c) Right desire (d) Right conduct
100. Yapaniya was a school of
(a) Buddhism (b) Janism
(c) Shaivism (d) Vaisnavism

101. Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana in the republic
of
(a) Mallas (b) Lichhavis
(c) Shakyas (d) Palas
102. Where was the third Buddhist council held?
(a) Vaishali (b) Pataliputra
(c) Kashmir (d) Rajgriha
103. Which one of the following is not a part of early
Jains literature?
(a) Therigatha (b) Acarangasutra
(c) Sutrakritanga (d) Brihatkalpasutra
104. The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by
(a) Mahayana Buddhism (a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra
(b) Himayana Buddhism
(c) Jainism 116. Svetambara Agama was finally edited at the Jain
(d) The Lokayata School
105. In the Mahayana Buddhism, the Bodhisatya
Avalokitesvar was also known as
(a) Vajrapani (b) Manjusri
(c) Padmapani (d) Maitreya
106. Who among the following was not a contemporary
of the other three?
(a) Bimbsara (b) Gautama Buddha
(c) Milinda (d) Prasenjit
107. The fourth Buddhist council was convened during
the region of king
(a) Ashoka (b) Kaniska
(c) Kalashok (d) Ajatasatru
108. Buddha was born at
(a) Lumbini (b) Kapilvastu
(c) Pataliputra (d) Vaishali
109. Name the clan Buddha belonged to
(a) Gnathrika (b) Maurya
(c) Shakya (d) Koliya
110. Who presided over the fourth Buddhist council in
Kashmir?
(a) Asvagosha (b) Upagupta
(c) Vasumitra (d) Mahakasyapa
111. Who of the following was a contemporary of
Gautama Buddha?
(a) Bhadrabahu (b) Kalashok
(c) Parsvanath (d) Vardhaman Mahavir
112. Buddhist, Hindu and Jain Rock-cut caves coexist
at
(a) Ajanta (b) Elephanta
(c) Ellora (d) Karle
History || A-15
113. Lumbini was the birth place of Gautam Buddha is
attested by an inscription of
(a) Ashoka
(b) Pushyamitra Shunga
(c) Kanishka
(d) Harsha
114. At which place, did Gautam Buddha give his first
sermon ?
(a) Vaishali (b) Vallabhi
(c) Rajgriha (d) Sarnath
115. Sarnath is in the state of
(c) Gujarat (d) Uttar Pradesh
council of
(a) Vaishali (b) Vallabhi
(c) Pawa (d) Vidarbha
117. Which one of the following is considered the best
Stupa?
(a) Amravati (b) Bharhut
(c) Sanchi (d) Bodhgaya
118. The first Buddhist council was held during the
region of
(a) Aniruddha (b) Ajatsatru
(c) Bimbisara (d) Udayabhadra
119. The originator of the Jain religion is
(a) Rishabhdeo (b) Arya Sudharma
(c) Mahavir Swami (d) Parshvanath
120. The Stupa site not connected with any incident of
Buddhas life is
(a) Sarnath (b) Sanchi
(c) Kushinagar (d) Bodhgaya
121. Anekantavada is a core theory and philosophy of
which one of the following?
(a) Buddhism (b) Jainism
(c) Sikhism (d) Vaishnavism
122. Milinda Panho is in the form of a dialogue
between the king Menander and Buddhist Monk
(a) Nagasena (b) Nagarjuna
(c) Nagabhatta (d) Kumarilbhatta
123. According to Boddhist, the main aim of life is
(a) Nirvana (b) Moksha
(c) Kaivalya (d) Nirjara
A-16 || Vedic Period and Religious Movements
124. Which of the following principles was added to
Jainism by Mahavira?
(a) Satya (b) Ahinsa
(c) Brahmacharya (d) Aparigraha
125. Which of the following places is associated with
Jainism?
(a) Kapilvastu (b) Pava
(c) Sarnath (d) Sravasti
126. Who is believed by the Jainas to be the first
Tirthankar?
(a) Rishabhadeva (b) Mahavira
(c) Neminath (d) Parshvanath
127. Who was the teacher of Gautam Buddha?
(a) Gautam (b) Alara Kalam
(c) Asanga (d) Sudharman
128. Tripitaka texts are related with which religion?
(a) Vedic (b) Buddhism
(c) Jainism (d) Shaivism
129. Which of the following is not representation of
Buddhist art?
(a) Stupa (b) Vihar
(c) Chaitya (d) Relic tower
130. Who was the founder of Mahayan sect of
Buddhism?
(a) Buddhadeva (b) Ghoshak
(c) Dharmtrat (d) Asang
131. Who founded the Lingayat Movement?
(a) Basava (b) Lakulisha
(c) Matsyendranath (d) Kulshekhar
132. Who was the founder of Pashupat Sampradaya?
(a) Kulshekhar (b) Lakulisha
(c) Bhavbhuti (d) Shambhunath
133. Who was the founder of Sunyavada?
(a) Asang (b) Basubandhu
(c) Vasumitra (d) Nagarjuna
134. Who was the founder of Vigyanvada or
Yogachar?
(a) Ashvaghosh (b) Nagasen
(c) Maitreyanath (d) Aryadeva
135. Who was the founder of Aajivak Sampradaya?
(a) Puran Kasyapa (b) Makkali Gosala
(c) Aryadeva (d) Ajit Keskamblin
136. Who was the founder of Lokayat sect?
(a) Brihaspati (b) Manu
(c) Vigyaneswer (d) Pakudh Kachayan
137. Syadvad is a doctrine of
(a) Buddhism (b) Jainism
(c) Shaivism (d) Vaishnavism
138. Who became the chief of Jain Sangh after the
death of Mahavira?
(a) Indrabhuti (b) Jambu
(c) Sthulbhadra (d) Sudharma
139. Who among the following is given the credit of
carrying Jainism in South India?
(a) Indrabhuti (b) Sthulbhadra
(c) Bhadrabahu (d) Sudharma
140. Vikramshila Mahavihar was founded by
(a) Harsha (b) Gopal
(c) Kumarpal (d) Dharmapal
141. Mahavir was born at
(a) Kapilvastu (b) Lumbini
(c) Kundgram (d) Champa
142. Who was the last Tirthankara ?
(a) Mahavir Swami (b) Aristnemi
(c) Parshvanath (d) None of these
143. The first Jain council was convened during the
reign of
(a) Bimbisara
(b) Shisunaga
(c) Mahapadamnand
(d) Chandragupta Maurya
144. In which of the following places, Mahavir Swami
gave his first sermon?
(a) Vaishali (b) Rajgriha
(c) Nalanda (d) Champa
145. In which Jain council, Jain dharm was divided in
Svetamber and Digamber?
(a) First council (b) Second council
(c) Third council (d) Fourth council
146. Who was the president of first Jain council?
(a) Bhadrabahu (b) Sthalabahu
(c) Devardhigan (d) Nagarjuna Suri
147. Who was the author of Kalpsutra?
(a) Vasumitra (b) Hemchandra
(c) Bhadrabahu (d) Sthulbhadra
148. Mahavir Swami breathed his last at
(a) Rajgriha (b) Pawapuri
(c) Vaishali (d) Champa

149. The custom Santhara is related to which of the
following sects?
(a) Jain (b) Buddha
(c) Shaiva (d) Vaishnava
150. The first sermon of Buddha made at Saranath is
called
(a) Dharmachakra Parivartan
(b) Dharma Sansthapan
(c) Dharma Sabha
(d) Maha Parinirvan
151. In the Bhagawat religion, the number of forms of
Bhakti
(a) 10 (b) 9
(c) 4 (d) 5
152. Amaravati Stupa is situated in
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
History || A-17
153. Mother of Gautam Buddha belonged to which
dynasty?
(a) Shakya dynasty (b) Maya dynasty
(c) Lichchavi dynasty (d) Koliyan dynasty
154. Who became the first follower of Mahavira?
(a) Jamali (b) Yashoda
(c) Aanojja (d) Trishala
155. Who installed the grand image of Gomateshwar
at Shravanbelgola?
(a) Chamundaraya (b) Krishna I
(c) Kumar Pal (d) Tejpal
156. Buddha is depicted on the coins of
(a) Wima Kadphises (b) Kanishka
(c) Nahapana (d) Budhgupta
A-18 || Vedic Period and Religious Movements

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 21. (d) 41. (b) 61. (a) 81. (c) 101. (a) 121. (b) 141. (c)
2. (b) 22. (c) 42. (c) 62. (a) 82. (c) 102. (b) 122. (a) 142. (a)
3. (d) 23. (c) 43. (b) 63. (c) 83. (d) 103. (a) 123. (a) 143. (d)
4. (d) 24. (a) 44. (a) 64. (a) 84. (b) 104. (c) 124. (c) 144. (b)
5. (b) 25. (a) 45. (c) 65. (b) 85. (b) 105. (c) 125. (b) 145. (a)
6. (a) 26. (c) 46. (a) 66. (b) 86. (d) 106. (c) 126. (a) 146. (b)
7. (d) 27. (b) 47. (d) 67. (c) 87. (c) 107. (b) 127. (b) 147. (c)
8. (c) 28. (a) 48. (b) 68. (c) 88. (c) 108. (a) 128. (b) 148. (b)
9. (b) 29. (a) 49. (c) 69. (d) 89. (a) 109. (c) 129. (d) 149. (a)
10. (d) 30. (a) 50. (c) 70. (d) 90. (b) 110. (c) 130. (d) 150. (a)
11. (a) 31. (c) 51. (d) 71. (a) 91. (c) 111. (d) 131. (a) 151. (b)
12. (c) 32. (d) 52. (d) 72. (b) 92. (c) 112. (c) 132. (b) 152. (c)
13. (b) 33. (c) 53. (a) 73. (a) 93. (d) 113. (a) 133. (d) 153. (d)
14. (b) 34. (a) 54. (c) 74. (b) 94. (a) 114. (d) 134. (c) 154. (a)
15. (c) 35. (d) 55. (a) 75. (b) 95. (d) 115. (d) 135. (b) 155. (a)
16. (a) 36. (a) 56. (a) 76. (c) 96. (c) 116. (b) 136. (a) 156. (b)
17. (c) 37. (a) 57. (b) 77. (b) 97. (b) 117. (c) 137. (b)
18. (d) 38. (c) 58. (c) 78. (a) 98. (a) 118. (b) 138. (d)
19. (c) 39. (c) 59. (a) 79. (a) 99. (c) 119. (a) 139. (c)
20. (a) 40. (d) 60. (d) 80. (b) 100. (b) 120. (b) 140. (d)

Hints & Solutions

Vedic Period
1. (a) Vedic literature is also known as Shruti. The
literature which has been handed down from time
immemorial by verbal transmission.
2. (b) The Aryans were the founder of Vedic culture.
The Aryans entered India through the Khyber
pass, around 1500 BC. They adopted the settled
agricultural lifestyle of their predecessors and
established small agrarian communities across
the state of Punjab. The Aryans are believed to
have brought with them the horse, developed the
Sanskrit language and made significant inroads
into the religion and culture of that time.
4. (d) The staple diet of the people was milk, ghee
(clarified butter), vegetables, fruit and barley. On
special occasions like a religious feast or the arrival
of a guest, a more elaborate meal was organized.
Meats from the ox, goat and sheep were served
along with intoxicating drinks, like Sura and
Madhu.
5. (b) Indra was the most important divinity and
was lord of war. 250 hymns have been devoted
to only Indra in Rigveda, which is highest for any
of the Gods. His other names are: Car-warrior
(Rathestha); A winner ( Jitendra) and Soma

Drinker (Somapa). Indra is mentioned as son of
Dyaus. He killed a demon Vritra, so he is known as
Vritrahan. He destroyed the forests so also known
as Purandhar. He held the thunderbolt (Vajra) with
which he destroyed the enemies.
6. (a) The book Return of the Aryans was written
by Bhagvan S. Gidvani. This book tells the epic
story of the Aryans a gripping tale of kings and
poets, seers and gods, battles and romance and the
rise and fall of civilizations.
7. (d) The Sapta Sindhu (seven rivers) plays a
prominent part in the hymns of the Rigveda. The
Rigveda mentions rivers Kabul, Swat, Kurram,
Gumal, Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej,
etc. which proves that the settlements were in
Afghanistan and Punjab as well.
The river Tapti is not mentioned in Rigveda.
8. (c) The earliest expressions of caste can be found
in one of Indias religious scripture known as the
Vedas. In the beginning, the caste system was not
rigid. But in the later Vedic period, it became rigid
when the Brahmins and the Kshatriyas became
powerful. So, the rigidification of caste system is
the major impact of Vedic culture on India.
9. (b) The Vedic deities Agni is not mentioned in
the Boghazkoi inscription. Four Vedic deities, i.e.
Indra, Mitra, Varuna and Nasatya were mentioned
in Boghazkoi inscription.
10. (d) Varuna, the Vedic god was the custodian of
the moral and cosmic order. He was also concerned
with societal affairs other than being a deification
of nature.
11. (a) The river Chenab was known in the Vedic
period as Chandrabhaga also Ashkini or Iskmati
and as Acesines to the Ancient Greeks.
12. (c) The Sabha is called Narishta which meant
a resolution of many that cannot be broken. It
performed the executive functions. In the later
Vedic period it lost its importance due to the rise
of royal power.
History || A-19
13. (b) Vedanga does not come under Shruti
literature. It comes from post-Vedic literature.
The Vedanga (limbs of the Veda) are six auxiliary
disciplines traditionally associated with the study
and understanding of the Vedas. They are Shiksha,
Kalpa, Vyakarana, Nirukta, Chandas and Jyotisha.
14. (b) The river Jhelum is called Vitasta in the
Rigveda. The Vitasta is mentioned as one of the
major rivers by the holy scriptures of the Indo-
Aryans the Rigveda. It has been speculated
that the Vitasta must have been one of the seven
rivers (Sapta Sindhu) mentioned so many times in
the Rigveda.
15. (c) The Gopatha Brahmana is the only
Brahmana, a genre of the prose texts describing
the Vedic rituals, associated with the Atharvaveda.
16. (a) Battle of ten kings is the story of the
campaign and the decisive battle connected with
sages Vishwamitra and Vashistha. Vishwamitra
organized a confederacy against Sudas of all those
who had enmity with Sudas.
17. (c) Dasarajana was the battle of ten kings. The
name of confederate kings involved in this war
is actually slightly over ten, but was referred to
roughly as dasha in the Rigveda. They were
Puru, Yadu, Turvasa, Anu, Druhyu, Alina, Paktha,
Bhalanas, Shiva, Vishanin, Simyu, Vaikrna and
others.
18. (d) In the tenth book (Tenth Mandala) of Rig-
veda, 129th hymn (Suktam) deals with the origin
of the universe and creation.
19. (c) The famous Battle of ten kings between
Bharat and the host of ten kings was fought near
the river of Parushi. In the most important tribal
war, the king of Bharata, Sudas was victorious.
21. (d) Atharvaveda concerned with the origin of
Indian medicine. It also consists mainly of magical
spells and charms.
22. (c) The Upanishads form the core of Indian
philosophy. They give us both spiritual vision
and philosophical argument and it is by a strictly
personal effort that one can reach the truth.
23. (c) Artha, Dharma and Kama are a part of
Trivarga. But Moksh is not a part of Trivarga, it is
a part of Chaturvarga.
A-20 || Vedic Period and Religious Movements
24. (a) The Arctic Home in the Vedas is a book
written at the end of 1898 on the origin of Aryans
by Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It propounded
the theory that the North Pole was the original
home of Aryans during pre-glacial period which
they had to leave due to the ice deluge around
8000 BC and had to migrate to the Northern parts
of Europe and Asia. In support to his theory, Tilak
has presented certain Vedic hymns, and Vedic
calendars with interpretations of the contents in
detail.
25. (a) Maximum number of Shlokas in Rigveda are
written in the memory of Indra. Indra was the most
popular God in Vedic period.
26. (c) The term Jana occurs 275 times in the
Rigveda. But Janapada is not mentioned. The term
Rajya occurs only once.
27. (b) Sabha and Samiti were the two popular
assemblies existed in Vedic period. The most
important work of the Samiti was to elect the king.
28. (a) The ancient Sage Patanjali was an expounder
of the Yoga Sutras one of the most important text
of yoga covering all aspects of life. Patanjalis
Yoga Sutras describe the working of the mind and
emotions.
29. (a) The Gotra classification came into existence
probably during the Rigvedic period. The concept
of Gotra was first attempted among Brahmins to
classify themselves among different groups. In
present days, marriage is not allowed within the
same Gotra in order to avoid impure matrimony.
This thinking is in tune with the modern day
genetic paradigms of hybrid vigour.
30. (a) The word Visamatta was used in the
latter Vedic age for the king. In the Shatapatha
Brahmana, the king is described as devourer of
the people.
31. (c) The word Aghanya is referred to as the cow in
many mantras of Vedas. The meaning of this word
means, not to be killed under any circumstances.
32. (d) The Samhita of Yajurveda that contains only
hymns and no prose is Vayasaneyi.
33. (c) Dicing seems to have a special significance
when connected with myths and rituals. Dicing
involves uncertainty, chance, the vagaries of
fortune. The dice game is representative of the
challenges that a king must endure during his
reign. The game of dice is a part of the rituals of
Rajasuya Yagya.
34. (a) The rivers Ganga and Yamuna are first time
mentioned in the Rigveda. Vedic literature hymn
that starts with the rivers as Ganga, Yamuna,
Saraswati and then other rivers to the West.
35. (d) The Gayatri Mantra is a highly revered
mantra, based on a Vedic Sanskrit verse from
a hymn of the Rigveda. The Gayatri mantra is
dedicated to Savitr, is hence called Savitri. It is
considered to be among the holiest mantras of
Hinduism.
36. (a) Lopamudra was a Brahmavadini who
composed some hymns of the Vedas. Many hymns
of Rigveda were composed by women and they
were called Brahmavadini. The prominents in them
were Lopamudra, Vishwawara, Sikta, Nivavari,
Ghosa, etc.
37. (a) Rigvedic hymns mention several rivers. In
the text Sindhu (or Indus), Saraswati (now lost),
the Gomati (modern Gomal), the Krumu (modern
Kurram) and the Kubha (modern Kabul) are
mentioned. The most important river seems to be
the Sindhu and its tributariesShutudri (Sutluj),
Vipas (Beas), Parushni (Ravi), Asikni (Chenab)
and Vitasta (Jhelum).
38. (c) The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and
Yama about transmigration of soul is mentioned
in the Kathopanishad.
39. (c) Hindu flood myth from the Satapatha
Brahmana, the Matsya Avatar saves the pious and
the first man, Manu, and advises him to build a
giant boat.
40. (d) Yajurveda has two main branches called
Shukla Yajurveda and Krishna Yajurveda.
Shukla Yajurveda is also called as Vajasameyi
Samhita and it was brought to this world by Sage
Yaajnavalkya after learning from the God Sun.

41. (b) In the battle of ten kings, Vashistha was the
priest of Bharata tribes. Vashistha and his family
are glorified in their role in the Battle of the Ten
Kings, making him the only mortal besides Bhava
to have a Rigvedic hymn dedicated to him.
43. (b) The Satapatha Brahmana is a Hindu
sacred text which describes details of Vedic
rituals, including philosophical and mythological
background, is related to Yajurveda.
44. (a) The Kekaya kingdom was situated on the
bank of river Beas, east of Gandhar kingdom. King
Aswapati ruled Kekaya when Janak was the king
of Videha.
45. (c) Brihadaranyaka Upanishad is written in
the prose. It is contained within the Shatapatha
Brahmana, and its status as an independent
Upanishad may be considered a secondary
extraction of a portion of the Brahmana text. It
consists of three sections or Khandas: the Madhu
Khanda, the Yajnavalkya or the Muni Khanda and
the Khila Khanda.
46. (a) Indra was the Vedic deities bears resemblance
with Avestan god Ahurmazda. In Zoroastrianism as
reflected in the Avesta, Ahura Mazda is identified
with the beneficent spirit and directly opposed
to the destructive one. He is all-wise, liberal,
undeceiving and the creator of everything good.
47. (d) Medhatithi was first Sanskrit scholar who did
commentary on Manusmriti a Dhramashastra. The
exact date of Medhatithis writing is unclear, and
he has been placed anywhere between about 820
and 1050 AD.
49. (c) Soma was one of the more important gods in
the Rigveda. The ninth Mandala of the Rigveda,
also called the Soma Mandala, has 114 hymns,
entirely devoted to Soma Pavamana, Purifying
Soma, the sacred potion of the Vedic religion.
50. (c) Yadu tribe is one of the Indo-Aryan tribes
mentioned in the Rigveda. They are mostly paired
with Turvasu in Rigveda.
51. (d) The first reference to Krishna occurs in the
Chhandogya Upanishad of perhaps the sixth
century B.C.
History || A-21
52. (d) The Sulvasutra are sutra texts belonging to
the Srauta ritual and deal with complex fire altars
of various shapes constructed with bricks of
specific shapes and area. This proves that despite
no existence of algebra, there was an awareness
of precise purely geometrical calculations.
53. (a) The first hymn of each Mandala has
addressed to Agni and his name is the first word
of the Rigveda. The remaining hymns are mainly
addressed to Indra, Varuna, Mitra, the Ashvins,
the Maruts, Usas, Surya, Rbhus, Rudra, Vayu,
Brhaspati, Visnu, Heaven and Earth, and all the
Gods.
54. (c) Rigvedic Aryans and the Harappans might
have been same people. The theory was given by
B.B. Lal.
55. (a) Rigveda mentions artisans as the carpenter,
the chariot-maker, the weaver, the leather worker,
the potter, etc. This indicates that they practised
all these crafts. Carpenter was the most celebrated
craftsman in the Vedic age.
56. (a) The story of Sunahsesha in which his
father Ajigarta is stated to have sold him to
Harishchandra, occurs in Aitareya Brahmana.
57. (b) Chhandogya Upanishad belongs Puranas,
together with Itihas, had acquired the high status
of a fifth or Panchama Veda.
58. (c) Battle of the Ten Kings is a battle alluded to
in Mandala 7 of the Rigveda. It is a battle between
Aryans allied with other tribes of the north-west
India and guided by the royal sage Vishvamitra,
oppose the Trtsu (Bharata) king Sudas in battle,
but are defeated.
59. (a) Panini was a Sanskrit grammarian who gave a
comprehensive and scientific theory of phonetics,
phonology and morphology of Sanskrit language.
60. (d) Maharishi Bhrigu was the first compiler of
predictive astrology, Jyotisha. He is credited as the
father of Hindu astrology and the first astrological
treatise Bhrigu Samhita is attributed to his
authorship.The Bhrigu Samhita is an astrological
(Jyotish) classic attributed to Maharishi Bhrigu
during the Vedic period.
A-22 || Vedic Period and Religious Movements
61. (a) Ashtadhyayi is a Sanskrit treatise on grammar
written in the 6th to 5th century BC by the Indian
grammarian Panini. This is one of the earliest
known grammars of Sanskrit language.
62. (a) Satyameva Jayate is a mantra from the
ancient Indian scripture Mundaka Upanishad.
Upon independence of India, it was adopted as
the national motto of India.
63. (c) Manu-smriti (Laws of Manu), traditionally,
the most authoritative of the books of the Hindu
code (Dharmashastra) in India. It is attributed to
the legendary first man and lawgiver, Manu. In its
present form, it dates from the 1st century BCE.
65. (b) The Rigvedic hymns are dedicated to various
deities, chief of whom are Indra, a heroic god
praised for having slain his enemy Vrtra; Agni,
the sacrificial fire; and Soma, the sacred potion or
the plant it is made from.
66. (b) In Rigvedic period, Niska was a gold necklace
in the beginning but later it was also used as a coin
for giving as a reward to a poet.
67. (c) The Aryans further moved towards east in the
later Vedic period. The Satapatha Brahmana refers
to the expansion of Aryans to the eastern Gangetic
plains. Several tribal groups and kingdoms are
mentioned in the later Vedic literature. One
important development during this period is the
growth of large kingdoms Kuru and Panchala
kingdoms and they were regarded as the hub of
Aryan culture.
68. (c) One of the Boghazkoi inscriptions proves
that the Aryans are from Central Asia and their
movements from Iran to India.
69. (d) Panchjanya is the common name given to
five most ancient vedic tribes. It is supposed that
they are all descendants of the Five Folks and are
known by that name, e.g. Yadav for descendants
of Yadu, Paurav for descendants of Puru and so on.
Kikat tribe does not belong to the Panchajahya of
Rigvedic aryans.
70. (d) During the Vedic period Sabha was a body of
village elders and Samiti was a general assembly
in which all the members of the community
participated. Sabha and Samiti are depicted
as the two daughters of Prajapati mentioned in
Atharvaveda.
72. (b) Mandukya Upanishad is the smallest among
the ten principal Upanishads. Though being
smallest in size, it is highest in philosophy and
deals with the subject of Pure Consciousness
directly.
73. (a) Matsya Purana is one of the oldest of the 18
post-Vedic Hindu scriptures called the Puranas. It
narrates the story of Matsya, the first of ten major
Avatars of the Hindu god Vishnu.
77. (b) The river Sarswati is referred to as Matetama,
Devitama and Naditama in Rigveda. The Saraswati
is praised lavishly in the Rigveda as the best of all
the rivers, especially in the Nadistuti Sukta.
78. (a) It is accepted that the word yava in the oldest
texts, including the Rigveda, applied to any type
of grain that was grounded into flour. Yet, many
Indologists treat the word as meaning specifically
barley.
Religious Movement
79. (a) The word Buddha actually means enlightened
one and is the name given to Gautama Siddhartha
after his enlightenment under the Bodhi tree.
80. (b) Kushinagar is an important Buddhist pilgrimage
site, where Gautama Buddha attained Parinirvana
after his death.
81. (c) The Second Buddhist council took place
approximately one hundred years after the Buddhas
parinirvana. King Kalashoka was the Second
Councils patron and the meeting took place at
Vaishali.
82. (c) Mahayana Buddhism emerged in the first century
CE as a more liberal, accessible interpretation of
Buddhism. Maitreya is a transcendent Bodhisattva
named as the universal Buddha of a future time in
Mahayana Buddhism.
83. (d) Mahasanghika is the name of an early Buddhist
school in India, during the Second Buddhist council
held at Vaishali. The Mahasanghika school represents
the first major schism ever recorded in Buddhism.
84. (b) Acharanga Sutra is not a text of Buddhism. It
is a canonical sacred text of Jainism based on Lord
Mahaviras teachings.
85. (b) The order of Buddhist monks and nuns was
founded by Gautama Buddha during his lifetime
over 2500 years ago. Buddha instituted a community
of nuns in Vaishali at the request of his aunt
Mahaprajapati.

86. (d) Rummindei Pillar Inscription says that The
Beloved of the Gods, the king Piyadassi, when he
had been consecrated twenty years, came in person
find referenced the place where Buddha Sakyamuni
was born. He caused a stone enclosure to be made
and a stone pillar to be erected. As the Lord was born
here in the village of Lumbini, he has exempted it
from tax, and fixed its contribution [i.e. of grain] at
one-eighth.
87. (c) Astangika Marg is Kalyan Mitra in Buddhist
philosophy. Buddhas Astangika Marga are :
Right belief, Right thought, Right speech, Right
action, Right living, Right effort, Right recollection
and Right meditation.
88. (c) Buddhas last ordained disciple was a very old
Brahmin in the name of Subhadra who came to pay
his last respects to him and asked for ordination.
Immediately after ordination, Subhadra attained
enlightenment and passed away.
89. (a) Pratitya Samutpad is the main element of
Buddhist philosophy. It refers to one of the central
concepts in the Buddhist tradition that all things arise
in dependence upon multiple causes and conditions.
90. (b) Mahavir Swami delivered his first sermon in
the language of the common people called Ardha
Magadhi and Prakrit.
91. (c) Tirthankar Parshvanath was the son of king
Ashvasena and queen Vama of Varanasi. He achieved
Nirvana on the Sammet Sikhar. He lived in Varanasi
around 800 BC. Parsvanatha is the 23rd Jain
Tirthankar.
92. (c) Svetambaras maintain that the 19th Tirthankara,
Mallinath, was a woman. They also believe that
women are able to obtain Moksha.
93. (d) Parsvanatha was the twenty-third Tirthankara of
Jainism. Chaturyama Dharma the fourfold teaching
of the Parshvanath. Chaturyama Dharma, abstention
from violence, theft, untruth and acquisitiveness.
94. (a) In the Buddhist Pali Canon, Mahavira is referred
to as Nigantha Nataputta. Nigantha Nataputta refers
to. A Nirgrantha refers to Jains. A person who has
attained Kevalya can be a Nirgrantha.
96. (c) The Tripitaka is the standard collection of
scriptures in the Theravada Buddhist tradition, as
History || A-23
preserved in the Pali language. It is the most complete
extant early Buddhist canon. It was composed
in North India, and preserved orally until it was
committed to writing during the Fourth Buddhist
Council in Sri Lanka in 29 BCE, approximately
four hundred and fifty four years after the death of
Gautama Buddha.
97. (b) Gautam Buddha, who was prince Siddhartha of
Kapilavastu in India/Asia before his enlightenment,
is called The Light of Asia.
98. (a) Buddha Charita (Acts of the Buddha) is an epic
poem in the Sanskrit Mahakavya style on the life of
Gautama Buddha by Asvaghosa, composed in the
early second century CE.
99. (c) The eightfold Path in Buddhism, is an early
formulation of the path to enlightenment. The idea
of the Eightfold Path appears from the first sermon of
the Buddha, which delivered after his enlightenment.
Right desire is not included in the Eight fold path of
Buddhism.
100. (b) Yapaniya was a school of Jainism. The saints
of the Yapaniya school practised nudity like the
Digambaras and believed in the liberation of women
in conformity with the Svetambaras.
101. (a) Lord Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana at
Kushinagar, the mortal remains of Tathagat were kept
in the parliament house, of the Republic of Mallas.
102. (b) According to the Theravada commentaries
and chronicles, the Third Buddhist Council was
convened by the Mauryan king Ashoka at Pataliputra
(todays Patna), under the leadership of the monk
Moggaliputta Tissa. Its objective was to purify the
Buddhist movement, particularly from opportunistic
factions which had been attracted by the royal
patronage.
103. (a) Therigatha is not a part of early Jains literature.
The Therigatha is a Buddhist scripture, a collection
of short poems supposedly recited by early members
of the Buddhist Sangha in India around 600 BC.
104. (c) In Jainism, Ahinsa is the standard by which all
actions are judged. For a householder observing the
small vows (anuvrata), the practice of ahinsa requires
that one should not kill any animal life.
A-24 || Vedic Period and Religious Movements
105. (c) Avalokitesvara is one of the most widely revered
Bodhisattvas in mainstream Mahayana Buddhism,
as well as unofficially in Theravada Buddhism.
In Sanskrit, Avalokitesvara is also referred to as
Padmapani (Holder of the Lotus) or Lokesvara (Lord
of the World).
106. (c) King Milinda was not a contemporary of the
other three given in the option. Milinda in Indian Pali
sources was a Greek of the Indo-Greek kingdom (165
BC130 BC) who established a large empire in the
South Asia and became a patron of Buddhism.
107. (b) Fourth Buddhist Council is the name of two
separate Buddhist council meetings. The first one
was held in the 1st century BC, in Sri Lanka. The
2nd Fourth Buddhist Council is said to have been
convened by the Kushan emperor Kanishka, perhaps
in 78 CE in Jalandhar or in Kashmir.
108. (a) The Lord Buddha was born in 623 BC in the
sacred area of Lumbini located in the Terai plains of
southern Nepal, testified by the inscription on the
pillar erected by the Mauryan Emperor Asoka in 249
BC.
109. (c) Siddharthas caste was the Kshatriya. He
belonged to the Shakya clan and was born in the
royal family. His father was Suddhodana and his
mother was Maya. Because of this, he was known as
Shakyamuni sage of the Shakya clan, which is the
most common name used in the Mahayana literature
to refer to the Buddha.
110. (c) The Fourth Buddhist Council was presided over
by Vasumitra in Kashmir during the reign of Kanishka
and had to deal with a serious conflict between the
Sarvasthivada teachers of Kashmir and Gandhara.
112. (c) The Ellora caves are an impressive complex of
Buddhist, Hindu and Jain cave temples carved out
of the vertical face of the Charanandri hills between
the 6th and 10th centuries AD near the ancient Indian
village of Ellora.
114. (d) Sarnath, is the place where Gautam Buddha first
gave his sermon after his enlightenment. It is one of
the most sacred places for Buddhist after Bodhgaya
where he got enlightenment.
115. (d) Sarnath is located 13 kilometres north-east of
Varanasi, in Uttar Pradesh.
116. (b) Vallabhi has been a famous Jain centre. It was
here in 453 or 466 AD, the Vallabhi council of the
Jains produced in writing the religious canon under
the head of the shraman Devardhigani. Svetambara
Agama was finally edited at the Jain council of
Vallabhi.
117. (c) Sanchi is considered as the best Stupa. The
Great Stupa at Sanchi is the oldest stone structure
in India and was originally commissioned by the
emperor Ashoka the Great in the 3rd century BC.
118. (b) According to the scriptures of all Buddhist
schools, the first Buddhist Council was held soon
after the Mahaparinirvana of the Buddha, dated by
the majority of recent scholars around 400 BCE,
under the patronage of king Ajatasatru with the monk
Mahakasyapa presiding, at Sattapanni caves Rajgriha.
Its objective was to preserve the Buddhas sayings
and the monastic discipline or rules (Vinaya).
119. (a) Jain belief goes to accept unanimously Rishabh
Dev as the founder of Jain religion. Evidences of
this fact are available to the worship of Tirthankar
Rishabh Dev was in vogue before 1st Century BC
There is no doubt that Jain religion has been practised
before Vardhman as well as before Parsvanath.
Names of Rishabh Dev, Ajitnath and Aristhnemi were
indicated in Yajurveda. Bhagwat Puran also confirms
that Rishabh Dev was the founder of Jain religion.
120. (b) Sanchi is the oldest extant Buddhist sanctuary.
Although Buddha never visited the site during any
of his former lives or during his earthly existence.
121. (b) Anekantavada is one of the most important and
fundamental doctrines of Jainism. It refers to the
notion that truth and reality are perceived differently
from diverse points of view, and that no single point
of view is the complete truth.
122. (a) Milinda Panha is in the form of a dialogue
between the Greek King Milinda (Minander I) and
the Buddhist monk Nagasena.
124. (c) Mahavira added Brahmacharya (Celibacy) to the
Chaturyama system established by the twenty-third
Tirthankara Parshvanath. Thus, he based it on five
principlesAhinsa, Satya, Asteya, Brahmacharya and
Aparigraha.
125. (b) Pawapuri or Pava is a holy site for Jains located
in Nalanda district in Bihar. Around 5th Century
BCE, Mahavira, the last Tirthankara of Jainism
achieved Moksha or Nirvana here.

127. (b) Alara Kalama was a hermit saint and a teacher
of yogic meditation who lived near Rajgriha. He
was one of the teachers of Gautama Buddha. Under
Alara Kalama Gautama, Buddha practised austerities.
Alara taught Gautama Buddha many things including
meditation.
129. (d) Relic tower is not a representation of Buddhist
art. Buddhist architecture consist mainly of Chaityas,
Viharas, Stupas and Stambhas.
130. (d) Asanga was born as the son of a Kshatriya father
and Brahmin mother in Purusapura. Current scholars
place him in the fourth century CE. He was perhaps
originally a member of the Mahisasaka school or
the Mulasarvastivada school but later converted to
Mahayana.
131. (a) The Lingayat Community was founded by
Basava in the 12th century AD. The Lingayats
are Virashaivites Saivite. The philosophy of the
Lingayatas was influenced by the teachings of
both Shankarachary and Ramanuja. This sect was
characterised by an anti-Brahmanical spirit.
132. (b) According to scholars, Lakulisha is the
founder of the Pashupata Shaivism sect. According
to a tradition stated in the Linga Purana, Lakulisha
is considered as the 28th and the last Avatar
manifestation of Shiva and the propounder of Yoga
system.
133. (d) Sunyavada was founded by an Indian Buddhist
philosopher Nagarjuna (150 250 CE) and based
on the Prajnaparamita Sutras, expounding the
philosophy of emptiness, voidness (Sunyata), which
later also influenced Chan in China and Zen in Japan.
134. (c) Maitreyanatha ( 270350 CE) is one of the three
founders of the Vigyanvada or Yogachar school
of Buddhist philosophy, along with Asanga and
Vasubandhu.
135. (b) Ajivika, an ascetic sect that emerged in India
about the same time as Buddhism and Jainism and
that lasted until the 14th century. It was founded
by Goshala Maskariputra (also called Gosala
Makkhaliputta).
136. (a) The terms Lokayata and Carvaka have
historically been used to denote the philosophical
school of Indian Materialism. Carvaka and Ajita
Kesakambalin are said to have established Indian
Materialism as a formal philosophical system,
History || A-25
but some still hold that Brihaspati was its original
founder. Brihaspati authored the classic work on
Indian Materialism, the Brihaspati Sutra.
137. (b) Syadvad is a doctrine of Jainism. Syadvad is the
philosophy of seeing an individual or an object from
various points of view; trying to understand them and
acquiring the right knowledge of those things.
138. (d) After the death of Mahavira, one of his disciple
Sudharma Swami is said to have taken over the
leadership. He was the head of Jain community till
515 BCE.
140. (d) In 8th century, King Dharampal of Pal dynasty
formed the world famous Vikramshila Mahavihar in
Antichak village, Kahalgaon.
141. (c) Lord Mahavira was the twenty-fourth and
last Tirthankara of Jain religion. He was born in
Kundagrama, i.e. Basukund of today in 599 BC.
143. (d) First Jain council was held at Pataliputra by
Sthalabahu in the beginning of the third century BC
during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya.
144. (b) Bhagwan Mahavirs first sermon (called Divya-
Dhwani) was delivered on Vipulachala Hill near
Rajgrahi. In his preaches, he gave emphasis on
non-violence, non-attachment and on Anekant and
Syadvada.
145. (a) The first Jain council (conference) of monks
was held in Pataliputra about 160 years after Lord
Mahaviras nirvana. Monk Bhadrabahu, who had the
knowledge of all 12 Angas, could not be present at
that meeting. The rest of the monks could compile
only the first eleven Angas by recollection and thus,
the twelfth Anga was lost. The monks from the South
did not agree with this compilation, and the first split
in Jainism started. Jains divided into two main groups,
Svetambaras and Digambaras. Svetambara monks
wore white clothes. Digambara monks did not wore
any clothes at all.
147. (c) The Kalpa Sutra is a Jain text containing the
biographies of the Jain Tirthankaras. Bhadrabahu is
considered the author of the text and it is traditionally
said to have been composed about one hundred and
fifty years after Nirvana of Mahavira.
149. (a) The custom Santhara is related to Jain sects.
Santhara, a Jain spiritual practice which entails a
voluntary giving up of ones life through fasting.
A-26 || Vedic Period and Religious Movements
150. (a) The Dharmachakra Parivartan is said to be the
first teaching given by the Buddha after he attained
enlightenment. It is taught that the Buddha attained
enlightenment while sitting under the Bodhi tree by
the river Neranjara, in Bodhgaya.
152. (c) The Amravati Stupa is a famous specimen of
the Buddhist art and architecture of ancient India. It
is located at Amravati in Andhra Pradesh. Amravati
was the capital of the ancient Satavahana dynasty,
came under influence of the Buddhist faith through
the Kushanas.
153. (d) Maya was the mother of the Buddha and was
from the Koliyan clan. Maya was born in Devadaha in
ancient Nepal. She was married to King Suddhodana,
who ruled in the kingdom of Kapilavastu.
154. (a) Mahavira was married to Yashoda and produced
a daughter whose husband, Jamali, became the first
disciple of Mahavira.
155. (a) The grand image of Gomoteshwara was installed
by Chavundaraya in 988 AD at Sharavanbelgola.
Chamundaraya was a military commander, poet and
a minister in the court of the Western Ganga Dynasty
of Talakad in present day Karnataka.
156. (b) Kanishkas coins portray images of Indian,
Greek, Iranian and even Sumero-Elamite divinities,
demonstrating the religious syncretism in his beliefs.
The Buddhist coins of Kanishka are comparatively
rare. Several coins show Kanishka on the obverse and
the Buddha standing on the reverse, in Hellenistic
style.
 3 Maurya and
Post-Mauryan Period

MAURYA PERIOD 9. Who was Ashokas contemporary king of Ceylon?

1. Who identified the name Sandrocottus as (a) Abhaya
Chandragupta Maurya? (b) Pakanduka
(a) Megasthenes (b) Justin (c) Devanampiya Tissa
(c) V.A. Smith (d) William Jones (d) Mutasiva
2. Which dynasty ruled over Magadha after Nanda 10. The Mauryan administrative centre Samapa can
dynasty? be identified with
(a) Maurya (b) Gupta (a) Girnar (b) Dhauli
(c) Kushana (d) Sunga (c) Brahmagiri (d) Jaugada
3. Who was the founder of Maurya dynasty? 11. Which among the following was the first empire
(a) Chandragupta II (b) Chandragupta Maurya to stretch from sea to sea from the Bay of Bengal
(c) Vishnugupta (d) Ashoka to the Arabian sea?
4. The most important source for the study of (a) Nanda (b) Maurya
Mauryan history is (c) Satvahana (d) Gupta
(a) Mudrarakshasa 12. In which of the following inscriptions, Ashoka
(b) Natural Historica declared some concessions in taxes?
(c) Devichandraguptam (a) Minor rock Edict, Sasaram
(d) Arthashastra
(b) Bhabru-Bairat Edict
5. Who was the author of Arthashastra?
(c) Lumbini pillar Edict
(a) Vasudeva (b) Megasthenes
(d) Rock Edict XII
(c) Kautilya (d) Vishakhadutta
6. Who of the following was a contemporary of 13. Who among the following said that Chandragupta
Alexander the great? Maurya overran and subdued the whole of India
(a) Chandragupta Maurya with an army of six lakhs?
(b) Pushyamitra Sunga (a) Justin (b) Strabo
(c) Bimbisara (c) Plutarch (d) Deimachus
(d) Ashoka 14. Who among the following was the Governor of
7. Who was the mentor of Chandragupta Maurya? Saurashtra during the reign of Ashoka?
(a) Vishakhadutta (b) Chanakya (a) Tusashpha (b) Suvishakha
(c) Megasthenes (d) Patanjali (c) Pushyagupta (d) Radhagupta
8. During the reign of Chandragupta Maurya, 15. Rulers of which of the following dynasties
Pataliputra was administered by a board consisting maintained diplomatic relations with distant
of the members numbered. countries like Syria in the west?
(a) 20 (b) 30 (a) Maurya (b) Gupta
(c) 40 (d) 50 (c) Pallava (d) Chola
A-28 || Maurya and Post-Mauryan Period
16. In which of the following inscriptions, Ashoka
made his famous declaration All men are my
children ?
(a) Minor Rock Edict of Ahrawra
(b) Pillar Edict VII
(c) Lumbini Pillar Edict
(d) Separate Kalinga Rock Edict I
17. Who were the beneficiaries of Ashokas donations
in the region of Barabar Hill?
(a) Buddhists (b) Ajivikas
(c) Svetambar (d) Digambar
18. The earliest example of rock cut architecture is
evident for the time of
(a) Pre-Mauryan (b) Mauryan
(c) Post-Mauryan (d) Gupta
19. Which of the following Ashoka inscriptions is in
Kharosthi script?
(a) Lumbini (b) Girnar
(c) Khalsi (d) Shahvajgarhi
20. Who was the son of Ashoka mentioned in an
inscription?
(a) Mahendra (b) Kunala
(c) Tivara (d) Jalauka
21. Sarnath Stambh was built by
(a) Harshwardhan (b) Ashoka
(c) Bindusar (d) Kanishka
22. The officers related to survey and settlement work
under Ashoka were called
(a) Rajukas (c) Ashoka
(b) Prativedaka
(c) Dharma Mahamatra 31. Which of the following was an administrative
(d) Sannidhata
23. Which one of the following inscriptions refers to
construction of two granaries to be used in the time
of distress?
(a) Madhuban copper plate
(b) Poona copper plate
(c) Damodarpur copper plate
(d) Sohagaura copper plate
24. Ashokas deep devotion to Buddha, Dhamma
and Sangha is mentioned in which of following
inscriptions?
(a) Rock Edict III 33. Who of the Jain saints is associated with
(b) Pillar Edict VII
(c) Rock Edict XIII (a) Umaswami (b) Sthulbhadra
(d) Bhabru Minor Rock Edict
25. Who replaced Megasthanese as the ambassador
of the Syrian king Antiochus I in the court of
Bindusara?
(a) Diodorus (b) Arrian
(c) Dionysius (d) Deimachos
26. Turamaya mentioned in the inscriptions of Ashoka
was his contemporary king of
(a) Afghanisthan (b) Egypt
(c) Macedonia (d) Syria
27. The Gujarra minor rock edict, on which the name
of Ashoka is mentioned, is located in
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Bihar
28. Which of the following Ashokan inscriptions is
devoted to the principle of religious tolerance
completely?
(a) Rock Edict XIII
(b) Rock Edict XII
(c) Pillar inscription VII
(d) Bhabru Minor Rock Edict
29. Which of the following mentions about the meeting
of Sandrokottas (Chandragupta Maurya) with
Alexander the Great?
(a) Pliny (b) Justin
(c) Strabo (d) Megasthenese
30. Which of the Mauryan kings wanted a Sophist
from Greece to his court?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Bindusara
(d) Kunal
centre of the Southern province of Ashokas
empire?
(a) Isila (b) Samapa
(c) Satiyaputra (d) Keralputra
32. In which of the following pillars, inscription of
Ashoka the name of his queen Karuvaki is
mentioned?
(a) Sarnath Pillar
(b) Allahabad Pillar
(c) Rampurava Pillar
(d) Lauria Nandan Garh Pillar
Chandragupta Maurya?
(c) Haribhadra (d) Bhadrabahu

34. The book Indica was written by
(a) Seleucas (b) Megasthenes
(c) Kalidas (d) Pliny
35. Which was the currency in circulation during the
Maurya period?
(a) Pana (b) Tola
(c) Kakini (d) Dinar
36. The earliest epigraphic reference to Chandragupta
Maurya is found in the
(a) Barabar cave inscription of Ashoka
(b) Hathigumpha inscription of Kharvela
(c) Junagarh Rock Edict of Ashoka
(d) Junagarh Rock inscription of Rudradaman
37. Rupadarsaka in the Mauryan administration was
(a) Manager of stage
(b) Examiner of gold, silver and copper
(c) Examiner of coins
(d) Superintendent of courtesans
38. The superintendent of weights and measures in the
Mauryan administration was
(a) Samsthadhyaksha (b) Lavanadhyaksha
(c) Shulkadhyaksha (d) Pautuvadhyaksha
39. Name the famous ruler of ancient India, who
adopted Jain Dharm in his last days.
(a) Chandragupta Maurya 49. Which of the following sources gives a detailed
(b) Ashoka
(c) Samudragupta (a) Kautilyas Arthashastra
(d) Bindusara
40. The Arthashastra of Kautilya is a
(a) Play about Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Biography
(c) History of Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Book on principles of Government
41. The name by which Ashoka is generally referred
to in his inscription is
(a) Chakravarti (b) Devraja
(c) Dharmakirti (d) Priyadarsi
42. Which one of the following texts of ancient India
allows divorce to a wife deserted by her husband?
(a) Kamasutra (b) Arthashastra
(c) Sukra Nitisara (d) Mudrarakshasa
43. Which one of the following scripts of ancient India
was written from right to left?
(a) Kharoshti (b) Brahmi
(c) Pali (d) Prakrit
History || A-29
44. Which one of the following edicts mentions the
personal name of Ashoka?
(a) Kalsi
(b) Rummindei
(c) Special Kalinga Edict
(d) Maski
45. The Ashoka major rock edicts which tell us about
the Chola, Pandya, Satyaputta and Kerelaputta?
(a) I and VII (b) II and III
(c) II and XII (d) II and XIII
46. Realizing the need of water, the first ruler who got
a lake constructed in the Girnar area was
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Rudradaman
(d) Skandagupta
47. The Lumbini was the birth place of Gautama
Buddha, is confirmed by an inscription of
(a) Ashoka (b) Kanishka
(c) Harsha (d) Dharmapal
48. Which of the following were called Sarthavaha?
(a) Brokers (b) Carvan of traders
(c) Money lenders (d) Pilgrims
account of city administration of the Mauryas?
(b) Megasthaneses Indica
(c) Mudrarakshasa of Vishakhadutta
(d) Inscription of Ashoka
50. Who was the first to have successfully read the
Ashokas inscriptions?
(a) Charles Wilkins
(b) Dayaram Sahni
(c) Rakhaldas Banerji
(d) James Prinsep
51. Who was the Prime Minister of Chandragupta
Maurya?
(a) Kautilya (b) Megasthenese
(c) Khallataka (d) Radhagupta
52. The main officer of town in Mauryan empire was
called by Megasthenes as
(a) Astyonmoi (b) Agronomoi
(c) Nagarka (d) Overseers
A-30 || Maurya and Post-Mauryan Period
53. Who of the following also had the name Devanama
Priyadasi?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya Afghanistan?
(b) Ashoka
(c) Bindusara
(d) Harsha
54. The division of Mauryan society into seven classes
was particularly mentioned in
(a) Mudrarakshasa (b) Purans
(c) Arthashastra (d) Indica
55. Kautilyas Arthashastra deals with the aspects of
(a) Economic life (b) Religious life
(c) Social life (d) Political policies
56. Who of the following was known as Amitrochates?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya 67. Who constructed the 84 thousands Stupa?
(b) Bindusar
(c) Ashoka (c) Menander (d) Kanishka
(d) Kautilya
57. Who built the city of Shrinagar in Kashmir?
(a) Porus (a) Rajgriha (b) Vaishali
(b) Chandragupta Maurya
(c) Ashoka
(d) Kanishka
58. Where did Ashoka send his son Mahendra as a
Buddhist missionary to ?
(a) Ceylon (b) Nepal
(c) Tibet (d) Khotan
59. How many Tirthas were mentioned in Arthashastra?
(a) 16 (b) 18
(c) 26 (d) 30
60. In Arthashastra, the superintendent of commerce is
known as
(a) Panyadhyaksha (b) Samsthadhyaksha
(c) Sulkadhyaksha (d) Mudradhyaksha
61. Who of the following historical personalities of
India is also known as Vishnugupta?
(a) Bindusara (b) Kunala
(c) Chanakya (d) Shreegupta
62. Which rock edict of Ashoka provides a description
of the horrors of Kalinga war?
(a) Kalinga Edict (b) 11th Rock Edict
(c) 12 Rock Edict (d) 13th Rock Edict
th
63. Which of the following Indian kings defeated
Seleucus, the administrator of Sindha and
(a) Chandragupta (b) Ashoka
(c) Bindusar (d) Kanishka
64. Who was the writer of Mudrarakshasa?
(a) Kautilya (b) Pushyagupta
(c) Vishnugupta (d) Vishakhdatta
65. Which of the following languages is used in the
inscriptions of Ashoka?
(a) Pali (b) Prakrit
(c) Sanskrit (d) Apabhramsa
66. The most famous educational centre during the
period of Mauryan age was
(a) Nalanda (b) Vaishali
(c) Ujjain (d) Takshila
(a) Ashoka (b) Pushyamitra
68. The third Buddhist council during the reign of
Ashoka was held at
(c) Pataliputra (d) Nalanda
69. Chanakya, the famous teacher of Chandragupta
Maurya, was associated with
(a) Nalanda (b) Vaishali
(c) Takshashila (d) Vikramshila
70. The last Mauryan emperor was
(a) Kunal (b) Jalok
(c) Samprati (d) Brihadratha
71. Who of the following has mentioned on the
absence of slavery in Maurya period?
(a) Megasthenes (b) Kautilya
(c) Vishakhadatta (d) Justin
72. During the reign of Ashoka the huge Maurya
empire divided into
(a) Four Provinces (b) Five Provinces
(c) Six Provinces (d) None of these
73. In Maurya empire, province was known as
(a) Chakra (b) Mandal
(c) Ahar (d) Vishaya
74. Which of the following taxes was paid in cash?
(a) Bhaga (b) Hiranya
(c) Pranaya (d) Bali
75. Visti signifies
(a) Religious tax (b) Irrigation tax
(c) Forced labour (d) Trade tax

POST-MAURYA PERIOD
76. Who was the founder of Sunga dynasty?
(a) Pushyagupta (b) Pushyamitra
(c) Pushparaja (d) Pravarsena
77. Which of the following dynasties was characterised
by its metronymics?
(a) Kushana (b) Kanva
(c) Sunga (d) Satavahana
78. Which was the capital of Kanishka?
(a) Mathura (b) Pataliputra
(c) Purushapura (d) Gandhar
79. Charaka was the famous court physician of
(a) Kanishka (b) Pushyamitra
(c) Chandragupta (d) Ashoka
80. Which Chinese general defeated Kanishka?
(a) Pan Chao (b) Pan Yang
(c) Ho Ti (d) Chi Huang Ti
81. Who was called by Vindhya Adhipati?
(a) Simuka (b) Gautamiputra
(c) Ashoka (d) Pushyamitra
82. A Buddhist council during the reign of Kanishka
was held at
(a) Mathura (b) Rajgriha
(c) Pataliputra (d) Kashmir
83. Who was the founder of Kushan dynasty?
(a) Vim Kadphises (b) Kujul Kadaphises
(c) Huvishka (d) Kanishka
84. Vijayapuri the capital of Ikshvakus is represented
by
(a) Madurai (b) Kanheri
(c) Nagarjunakonda (d) Paithan
85. The official language of the Satvahanas was
(a) Prakrit (b) Sanskrit
(c) Apabhramsa (d) Telugu
86. The Greek envoy Heliodorus of the Besnagar
inscription was sent by the Indo-Greek ruler
(a) Demetrius (b) Menander
(c) Antialcidas (d) Agathocles
87. Which God is depicted on the Yaudheya coins?
(a) Indra (b) Shiva
(c) Vasudeva (d) Kartikeya
History || A-31
88. A Kushan Devakula was found in the vicinity of
(a) Jalandhar (b) Sialkot
(c) Mathura (d) Multan
89. Who of the following had issued gold coins for
the first time?
(a) Kujula Kadphises (b) Vima Kadphises
(c) Kanishka (d) Huvishka
90. Who said, Rome is being drained of its treasure
by trading with India ?
(a) Pliny (b) Arrian
(c) Plutarch (d) Tiberins
91. In which royal family, the men usually followed
the Brahmanical religion and women were
Buddhists?
(a) Ikshvakus (b) Lichchhavis
(c) Pallavas (d) Yaudheyas
92. In which inscription, is it mentioned that
Pushyamitra had performed two horses
sacrifices?
(a) Hathigumpha inscription of Kharvela
(b) Ayodhya inscription of Dhanadeva
(c) Nasika inscription of Gautamiputra
Satakarni
(d) Reh inscription of Fatehpur
93. Rulers of which of the following dynasties bore
the title Devaputra?
(a) Maurya (b) Sunga
(c) Kushana (d) Saka
94. Who among the following was the first Satavahana
king to introduce the rulers head on coins?
(a) Satakarni I
(b) Gautamiputra Satakarni
(c) Vasishthiputra Pulumavi
(d) Yojna Satakarni
95. Who among the following is credited to have
performed four Asvamedha sacrifices?
(a) Pushyamitra Sunga
(b) Pravarasen I
(c) Nandivarman
(d) Samudragupta
96. Which one of the following items has been called
Yavanapriya?
(a) Pearl (b) Ivory
(c) Silk (d) Indian pepper
A-32 || Maurya and Post-Mauryan Period
97. Who among the following rulers has been
mentioned as protector of Varna system?
(a) Pushyamitra (b) Kharvela
(c) Gautamiputra (d) Vasudeva
98. The ratio between gold and silver coins during
Saka - Satavahan period was
(a) 1 : 10 (b) 1 : 14
(c) 1 : 20 (d) 1 : 35
99. During the Satavahanas rule, Kataka means
(a) Military clothes and settlements
(b) Military armaments and camps
(c) Military committees and camps
(d) Military camps and settlements
100. From which of the following places archaeological
remains of a Roman colony have been discovered?
(a) Sopara (b) Arikamedu
(c) Bhrigukachchha (d) Tamralipti
101. Who was the founder of Vakatak dynasty?
(a) Vindhya Shakti (b) Ishwarsena
(c) Pravarsena (d) Rudrasena
102. Who was the founder of Chedi dynasty?
(a) Vindhya Shakti (c) Brajamitra (d) Devabhuti
(b) Kharvela
(c) Mahameghavahana maximum pure gold coins?
(d) Mahapadam
103. The writer of Mahabhasya Patanjali was a
contemporary of
(a) Chandragupta Maurya Buddhist was initiated by
(b) Ashoka
(c) Chandragupta II (c) Vakatakas (d) Guptas
(d) Pushyamitra Sunga
104. Which of the following inscriptions of the time of
Kanishka indicates that his empire was extended
up to Champa in the east?
(a) Sarnath inscription
(b) Saheth-maheth inscription
(c) Rabatak inscription
(d) None of the above
105. The figure of Buddha is engraved on the coins of
(a) Ashoka (b) Menander
(c) Kanishka (d) Harsha
106. The Sunga ruler, Agnimitra was the hero of a book
written by
(a) Patanjali (b) Asvagosha
(c) Banabhatta (d) Kalidasa
107. Who was the author of Setu-bandh?
(a) Patanjali (b) Pushyamitra
(c) Praversena (d) Rudrasena
108. Which of the following dynasties introduced the
combined ruling system?
(a) Saka (b) Sunga
(c) Kushana (d) Maurya
109. Who was the founder of Satavahana dynasty?
(a) Hall (b) Simuka
(c) Satkarni (d) Shivasri
110. Who was the greatest ruler of Satavahana
dynasty?
(a) Satkarni I
(b) Hall
(c) Gautamiputra Satkarni
(d) Yajanasri Satkarni
111. Who was the last ruler of Sunga dynasty?
(a) Agnimitra (b) Vasumitra
112. Which of the following dynasties related to
(a) Sunga (b) Kushana
(c) Satavahana (d) Gupta
113. The practice of land grants to brahmins and
(a) Sungas (b) Satavahanas
114. Which of the following dynasties circulated the
lead coins?
(a) Nand (b) Maurya
(c) Satavahana (d) Kushana
115. Who was Rudradaman I?
(a) Saka ruler of Ujjain
(b) Saka ruler of Takshashila
(c) Saka ruler of Nasika
(d) Saka ruler of Mathura
116. Who was the writer of Nanaghata inscription?
(a) Naganika (b) Nagakumari
(c) Nagamati (d) Kubernaga
 History || A-33

117. Nanaghata inscription belonged to 121. The only ruler of India who ruled over territories
(a) Gautamiputra Satakarni in central Asia beyond the Pamirs was
(b) Vashistiputra Pulumavi (a) Kanishka
(c) Yajansri Satakarni (b) Harsha
(d) Satakarni I (c) Ashoka
118. Who was the founder of Kanva dynasty? (d) Chandragupta Maurya
(a) Vasumitra (b) Bhumimitra 122. Gondophernes belonged to
(c) Vasudeva (d) Devabhuti (a) The Saka dynasty
119. After the Mauryas, the most important kingdom (b) The Satavahan dynasty
in deccan and central India was (c) The Kushana dynasty
(a) Vakataka (b) Satavahana (d) The Parthian dynasty
(c) Pallava (d) Cholas 123. Gathasaptasati was written by
120. Which of the following Saka rulers was responsible (a) Hall (b) Bharatmuni
for important irrigation works in Saurashtra? (c) Bhas (d) Satakarni I
(a) Nahapana (b) Menander
(c) Rudradaman (d) None of these
A-34 || Maurya and Post-Mauryan Period

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 17. (b) 33. (d) 49. (b) 65. (b) 81. (b) 97. (a) 113. (b)
2. (a) 18. (b) 34. (b) 50. (d) 66. (d) 82. (d) 98. (d) 114. (c)
3. (b) 19. (d) 35. (a) 51. (a) 67. (a) 83. (b) 99. (d) 115. (a)
4. (d) 20. (c) 36. (d) 52. (a) 68. (c) 84. (c) 100. (b) 116. (a)
5. (c) 21. (b) 37. (c) 53. (b) 69. (c) 85. (a) 101. (a) 117. (d)
6. (a) 22. (a) 38. (d) 54. (d) 70. (d) 86. (c) 102. (c) 118. (c)
7. (a) 23. (d) 39. (a) 55. (d) 71. (a) 87. (d) 103. (d) 119. (b)
8. (b) 24. (d) 40. (d) 56. (b) 72. (b) 88. (c) 104. (c) 120. (c)
9. (c) 25. (d) 41. (d) 57. (c) 73. (a) 89. (b) 105. (c) 121. (a)
10. (d) 26. (b) 42. (b) 58. (a) 74. (b) 90. (a) 106. (d) 122. (d)
11. (b) 27. (b) 43. (a) 59. (b) 75. (d) 91. (a) 107. (d) 123. (a)
12. (c) 28. (b) 44. (d) 60. (a) 76. (b) 92. (b) 108. (a)
13. (c) 29. (b) 45. (d) 61. (c) 77. (d) 93. (c) 109. (b)
14. (a) 30. (b) 46. (a) 62. (d) 78. (c) 94. (b) 110. (c)
15. (a) 31. (a) 47. (a) 63. (a) 79. (c) 95. (b) 111. (d)
16. (d) 32. (b) 48. (b) 64. (d) 80. (a) 96. (d) 112. (b)

Hints & Solutions

MAURYA PERIOD
1. (b) The Roman historian Justin described
Sandrocottus (Greek version of Chandraguptas
name) conquered the northwest India.
2. (a) Maurya dynasty ruled over Magadha after
Nanda dynasty. Chandragupta destroyed the Nanda
dynasty around 321 BC, and became the first king of
the great Mauryan empire.
4. (d) Kautilyas Arthasastra is a very important source
for the knowledge of Mauryan dynasty. Chanakya or
Kautilya, the minister of Chandra Gupta throws a
flood of light upon the contemporary social, political
and economic conditions of the country at that time.
It also gave a wealth of information regarding duties
of the king, his foreign policy and organization of
spies.
6. (a) Chandragupta Maurya set up the Mauryan
Empire following Alexanders retreat. There
is evidence to show that Chandragupta was a
contemporary of Alexander.
7. (a) Chanakya was the mentor of Chandragupta
Maurya. He was a great scholar, teacher of economics
and political science in ancient India. Different lessons
of politics and war were taught to Chandragupta by
Chanakya. Chandragupta Maurya established Maurya
Empire by defeating Dhana Nanda of Nanda dynasty.
8. (b) Chandragupta, the founder of the Mauryan
Empire was not only a great warrior but also an able
administrator. He set up a sound and efficient system
of administration in his vast empire. There was a
municipal committee of 30 members to look after the
affairs of the city. They looked after public buildings,
water supply, sanitation, roads, gardens, hospitals,
schools, temples and other works of public utility.

9. (c) Ashoka maintained close relations with Tissa,
the ruler of Ceylon. Devaanampiya Tissa was the
second son of Mutasiva. He was a friend of Asoka
even before he became king.
10. (d) Samapa, modern-day Jaugada was administrative
centre of the Mauryan empire after the Kalinga
conquered by Ashoka.
11. (b) The Mauryan empire became the first to
stretch from sea to sea from the Bay of Bengal
to the Arabian Sea. More probably it was intended
to engross the lucrative maritime trade in timbers,
textiles, spices, gems and precious metals between
the ports of India and the Persian Gulf.
12. (c) Lumbini pillar inscriptions, King Ashoka visited
Lumbini and worshipped the Buddha, the sage of
the Sakyans was born there. He set up a pillar and
the village of Lumbini was exempted from tax and
required to pay only one-eighth of the produce
because the Lord was born there.
14. (a) Yavana Tushaspha was the Governor of
Saurashtra in Ashokas reign, evidently because
Pushyaguptas son had become a Jain monk and
left no descendants behind. Pushyagupta was
the Governor of Saurashtra appointed by the
Chandragupta Maurya.
15. (a) Mauryan Emperor Bindusara had friendly
relations with the Greek King Antiochos-I of Syria.
Deimachos was a Syrian Ambassador who came in
the court of Bindusara. Mauryan Emperor Ashoka
the Great also mentions the names of Hellenic
king Antiochus II of Syria in his 13th rock edict.
This shows that Mauryan dynasty maintained the
diplomatic relations with distant countries like Syria
in the West.
17. (b) The edicts of Ashoka are a collection of 33
inscriptions on the Pillars of Ashoka. One of the
edicts of Asokas Barbara cave inscription mentions
the donation of Barbara hills region to Ajivika sect.
19. (d) The inscriptions of Ashoka are written in two
scripts known as Brahmi and Kharosthi. Kharosthi
script has been used in the inscriptions found
at Shahbazgarhi in Mardan District of Khyber-
Pakhtunkhwa province of Pakistan and Manshera
also in Pakistan.
20. (c) The Buddhist texts mention about the family of
Ashoka. His first wife was a princess of Ujjaini called
History || A-35
Devi or Vedisa. His two other wives were Karuvaki
and Asandhimitra. Asokas only son mentioned in
inscriptions is Tivara, who was born to Karuvaki.
The name of Karuvaki and Tivara are mentioned in
Queens edict.
21. (b) Ashoka built the Sarnath pillar to commemorate
the site of the first preaching of Lord Buddha, where
he taught the Dharma to five monks. The Ashoka
Pillar at Sarnath is about 15.24 m in height and weighs
50 tons. The four-lion sculpture placed on top of this
pillar is now treasured in the Archaeological Museum
of Sarnath.
23. (d) The earliest known copper-plate, known as
the Sohgaura copper-plate, is a Maurya record that
mentions famine relief efforts. The Sohgaura copper
plate refers to a pair of Kosthagara (granaries) to be
used in the time of distress.
24. (d) Bhabru minar rock edict was placed near Viratt
in Jaipur state dated from 258 to 257 BC. In this
inscription, Ashoka expressed or rather confessed his
faith in the Buddha, Dharma and the Sangha. He also
refers to seven examples of Buddhism which were
dear to him and he wished that his subjects should
also follow them.
25. (d) Deimachos succeeded Megasthenes as
ambassador to the court of Bindusara sent by the
Syrian king Antiochus I.
26. (b) In his thirteenth inscription, Ashoka mentions
five Greek contemporary kings. Turamaya has been
identified with the contemporary ruler of Egypt up
to 247 BC.
27. (b) Gujarra edict is located north of the village
Gujarra at the foot of a low hill locally known as
Siddham ki Todiya. It was discovered in 1953 CE.
Gujarra is located near the town of Datia in Madhya
Pradesh. The edict here refers Ashoka with his
personal name.
28. (b) The Rock edict XII of Ashoka inscriptions
is devoted to the principle of religious tolerance
completely. Ashoka pleaded for tolerance of different
religious sects in an attempt to create a sense of
harmony.
30. (b) Bindusara conquered some of the parts of
southern peninsula. He also maintained contact with
his Greek counterparts. He asked the Greek kings to
send a Sophist to his court.
A-36 || Maurya and Post-Mauryan Period
31. (a) During 4th and 3rd century BCE, Karnataka was
part of Nanda and Maurya Empire. The Brahmagiri
edicts in Chitradurga dated around 230 BCE belong
to emperor Ashoka and says of the nearby region as
Isila which means fortified region. These rock
edicts indicated that the Isila was the southernmost
extent of the Mauryan empire.
33. (d) It is believed that Chandragupta Maurya adopted
Jainism and became an ascetic under the Jain saint
Bhadrabahu and migrated south with him. He ended
his life at Sravanabelgola in present day Karnataka
by Jainism custom Santhara (death by fasting).
34. (b) The Greek author Megasthenes wrote Indica.
During Alexanders invasion in the western part of
India around 300 Christian era, Megasthenes came to
India. Indica is the most authentic book to know about
the Mauryan period and the regime of Chandragupta
Maurya.
35. (a) Mauryas India had evolved its own monetary
system based on indigenous standards. In the
Arthasashtra, the silver pana with its sub-divisions is
evidently recognized as the standard coin, while the
copper mashaka with its divisions ranks as a token
currency.
40. (d) The Arthashastra is an ancient Indian treatise
on statecraft, economic policy and military strategy
which identifies its author by the names Kautilya
and Vishnugupta, both names that are traditionally
identified with Chanakya. The book, written in
Sanskrit, discusses theories and principles of
governing a state.
41. (d) The rock inscriptions of Devanampriya
Priyadarshi were being discovered all over India
for centuries. But for a long time, the identity of
this Devanampriya Priyadarshi remained a puzzle.
In the year 1915 near a village called Maski in
Raichur District of Karnataka, a rock inscription was
discovered on a hill. In this inscription, for the first
time, the name of Ashoka was found with titles like
Devanampriya and Priyadarshi. It was then certain
that Devanampriya Priyadarshi was no other than
Ashoka.
42. (b) According to social law of ancient India, a
woman was always considered a minor. Divorce
was prohibited, although it sometimes took place.
According to the Arthashastra, a wife who had been
deserted by her husband could seek a divorce.
43. (a) The Kharosthi script is an ancient script used by
the ancient Gandhara culture of South Asia primarily
in modern-day Afghanistan and Pakistan. Kharosthi
is mostly written right to left (type A), but some
inscriptions (type B) already show the left to right
direction that was to become universal for the later
South Asian scripts.
45. (d) Major Rock Edict II mentions Chola, Pandya,
Satyaputra and Keralpautra kingdoms in South India.
Major Rock Edict XIII speaks of Asokas annexation
of Kalinga. It mentions Asokas victory by dhamma
over Greek kings and the Chola, Pandya, and Andhra
kingdoms in South India.
46. (a) It is evident from the note of Megasthenes,
importance of land and water management was
realised even during 300 B.C for social welfare.
During this period, famous Sudarshan lake on Girnar
hill in Gujarat was built by Chandragupta Maurya.
48. (b) Proper rules of conduct of trade were laid by
the head of trade guilds, known as Sarthavaha or
Srenipramukha. The rules were called Samay and
Srenidharma. Taxila, Pushkalavati, Kapisa and
Vidisha prospered as trade centres, under the Indo-
Greek rulers.
49. (b) Megasthenes stayed at Pataliputra for about
five years. He wrote a book called Indica in which
he gave a detailed account of his observations of
Mauryan government and social life.
50. (d) James Princep was an English scholar, orientalist
and antiquary. Remained unread until James Princep
successfully deciphered Ashokas edicts inscription
in 1837. Stories of Ashoka flourished from the time
of his death and grew more fanciful with the passing
centuries.
54. (d) The division of Mauryan society into seven
classes was particularly mentioned in the Indica of
Megasthenes.
55. (d) Kautilyas Arthashastra is the most important
work on Public Administration in ancient India. It
deals with different aspects of management which
include strategic management, financial management,
accounting, human resource management, corporate
governance, social responsibility, etc.
56. (b) Bindusara was the son of the first Mauryan
Emperor Chandragupta Maurya. The Greeks called
him Amitrochates or Allitrochades.

57. (c) Srinagar was founded more than 2000 years ago,
around the 3rd century BC, by King Pravarasena. It
soon became part of the Mauryan Empire, one of
the largest empires in India at the time. The ruling
Mauryan emperor Ashoka built the city of Srinagari
(Srinagar).
58. (a) Ashoka sent missionaries to neighbouring states
and even to foreign lands. According to tradition,
the Ceylonese mission was sent under Ashokas son
Mahendra and daughter Sanghamitra.
60. (a) Kautiyla talked of the various heads of
the different branches of the civil service. The
superintendent of trade (Panyadhyaksha) was to
head the commercial service, including internal and
external trade.
63. (a) Chandragupta Maurya stretched his empire
from Karnataka to Afghanistan and from the river
Indus to Bengal. He attacked the Greek Governor
of Punjab, Seleucus Nikator and defeated him.
There was subsequently a treaty between the two
whereby, Seleucus ceded Punjab and Sindh to
Chandragupta and also gave his daughter in marriage
to Chandragupta.
64. (d) The Mudrarakshasa is a historical play in
Sanskrit by Vishakhadatta that narrates the ascent of
the king Chandragupta Maurya to power in India.
67. (a) In 3rd century BCE, the great emperor of
Magadha Ashoka started to build thousands of Stupas
all over the Indian subcontinent and South Asia. It is
said that 84 thousand Stupas were built by Ashoka
edicts and guidance.
68. (c) According to the Theravada commentaries and
chronicles, the Third Buddhist Council was convened
by the Mauryan king Ashoka at Pataliputra, under the
leadership of the monk Moggaliputta Tissa.
69. (c) Chanakya was a famous Indian teacher, who
taught in Takshashila, an ancient Indian university.
Later, he became royal advisor to the Maurya empire
and helped the mighty ruler Chandragupta Maurya to
establish the Maurya empire by defeating the Nanda
empire.
70. (d) Brihadratha Maurya was the last ruler of the
Mauryan dynasty. He ruled from 187180 BC. He
was killed by his senapati (commander-in-chief),
Pushyamitra Sunga.
History || A-37
74. (b) Hiranya appears as an item of revenue in the
land-grants of the period. Hiranya is taken to be the
usual taxes paid in cash or in metallic money.
POST-MAURYA PERIOD
76. (b) Pushyamitra Sunga was the founder and first
King of the Sunga Dynasty in Northern India.
77. (d) Metronymics is a name derived from the name
of a mother or female ancestor. The metronymics are
borne by the later Satavahanas and not by the early
Satavahanas. It was mainly because Satavahanas had
to establish matrimonial alliance with maharathis.
The metronymics of the Satavahanas was the result
of such alliances.
78. (c) Kanishka was the king of the Kushan dynasty
that ruled over the northern part of the Indian
subcontinent, Afghanistan, and possibly regions
north of Kashmir in Central Asia. His territory was
administered from two capitals Purushapura (now
Peshawar in northwestern Pakistan) and Mathura,
in northern India.
79. (c) Charaka was an Ayurvedic physician lived in
the period between the third and second Centuries
BC. He was the court physician of the Buddhist king
Kanishka.
80. (a) Chinese annals tell the story of a Kushana king
who was defeated by the General Pan Chao, towards
the end of the first century AD.
81. (b) Gautamiputra Satkarni was called by Vindhya
Adhipati because his kingdom included the territories
of Asika, Assaka, Mulaka, Saurashtra, Kukura,
Aparanta, Anupa, Vidarbha, Akara and Avanti and
the mountainous regions of Vindhya.
82. (d) The Kushana period saw a great resurgence of
Buddhism in Kashmir, especially during the reign of
Kanishka. The fourth Buddhist Council was held in
Kashmir, under the presidency of Katyayaniputra,
in Kanishkas time. The south Indian Buddhist
philosopher Nagarjuna lived in Kashmir during the
Kushana period.
83. (b) Kujula Kadphises (3080 AD) established the
Kushan dynasty in 78 AD by taking advantage of
disunion in existing dynasty of Pahalava (Parthian)
and Scytho-Parthians, and gradually wrested control
of southern prosperous region, which is the northwest
part of ancient India, traditionally known as Gandhar
(now in Pakistan).
A-38 || Maurya and Post-Mauryan Period
84. (c) Ikshvakus were one of the earliest recorded
ruling dynasties of the Krishna-Guntur regions
of Andhra Pradesh. Their capital Vijayapuri is
represented by Nagarjunakonda.
85. (a) Prakrit is a language of ancient and medieval
India which is the ancestor of Marathi, Konkani,
Sinhala and Maldivian. It was used in numerous
works of literature and its literary use was made
famous by the Sanskrit playwright Kalidasa. Prakrit
was commonly spoken until AD 875 and was the
official language of the Satavahana dynasty.
86. (c) An important Prakrit inscription at Besnagar of
the late 2nd century BCE, inscribed at the instance
of Heliodorus, a Greek envoy of Indo-Greek
ruler Antialcidas to the court of the Sunga king
Bhagabhadra.
87. (d) The coins of the Yaudheyas were influenced
in design and motif by the coins of the Kushanas.
Kumara Kartikeya was depicted on the most of the
Yaudheya coins.
88. (c) The family temple (Devakula in Sanskrit) of
the Kushan royal family was where patron deity or
deities of the Kushanas should be worshipped. Two
Devakulas so far discovered, one at Surkh Kotal
in South Bactria (Afghanistan) and another one at
Mat near Mathura in north India. The Devakulas
contained sculptures of Kushan rulers Kanishka and
others.
89. (b) Vima Kadphises was the Kushan emperor to first
introduce gold coinage, in addition to the existing
copper and silver coinage. The gold weight standard
of approximately eight grams.
90. (a) Pliny the Elder, in 77 CE, called Rome is being
drained of its treasure by trading with India because
Roman senators complained that their women used
too many Indian spices and luxuries, which drained
the Roman Empire of precious metal like gold.
92. (b) According to the Ayodhya inscription of
Dhanadeva, Pushyamitra performed two horse
sacrifices. The first one was probably during the time
when Pushyamitra ascended the throne of Pataliputra,
ousting the Mauryas and the second sacrifice was
due to his victory over the Bactrian Greeks and to
proclaim his dominion.
93. (c) Kushan dynasty achieved remarkable milestones
in the state of Jammu & Kashmir. His decendants
called him as Devaputra which means son of gods.
94. (b) Satavahana dynasty ruled from Pune in
Maharastra to Coastal Andhra Pradesh in the 2nd
century BC onwards. Satakarni I was the first
Satavahana King to introduce the rulers head on the
coins. The coins issued by Satavahanas had bilingual
legends. The name of the Kings was mentioned in
Prakrit as well as some south Indian language.
95. (b) The Vakataka emperor Pravarasena I performed
four Asvamedha Yajnas. Vakataka dynasty was the
most important after the fall of Satavahanas and
before the rise of Chalukyas they ruled in modern
Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. They were
contemporary of Guptas. The dynasty was founded by
Vindhyashakti but Pravarasena I was the real founder
of Vakataka empire.
96. (d) Spices exported from India to the Roman
empire. Pepper was most important item of export
to Greece and Rome. Its export was in such abundant
quantity that it was called Yavanapriya in the Indian
literature.
97. (a) Pushyamitra was a supporter of the orthodox
brahmanical faith, and revived the ancient Vedic
sacrifice including the horse-sacrifice.
99. (d) The military character of the Satavahana rule
is evident from the common use of such terms as
Kataka and Skandhavaras in their inscriptions. These
were military camps and settlements which served
as administrative centres so long as the king was
there.
100. (b) Arikamedu was an ancient industrial port city
located in the South Eastern coast of India near
Pondicherry. A large hoard of Roman coins found
at Arikamedu along with the archaeological remains
of a Roman colony have been discovered.
102. (c) The Chedis were the original inhabitants
of Maddhyadesa. Chedis are known from the
Hatigumpha Pillar inscription. According to this
inscription, Mahameghavahana, a member of the
Chedi clan founded the Chedi dynasty. Kharvela was
the famed king of Chedi dynasty.
103. (d) The writer of Mahabhasya, Patanjali was a
contemporary of Pushyamitra Sunga. The Sunga
Empire played an imperative role in patronizing
Indian culture at a time when some of the most
important developments in Hindu thought were
taking place.

104. (c) The Rabatak inscription is an inscription written
on a rock in the Bactrian language and the Greek
script, which was found in 1993 at the site of Rabatak,
near Surkh Kotal in Afghanistan. The inscription
relates to the rule of the Kushan emperor Kanishka.
He expanded the Kushan empire into the northwest
of the Indian subcontinent.
106. (d) When Agnimitra was the crown prince, he
showed his administrative capability as the governor
of the Vidisha region. By virtue of his courage and
heroism, he won many battles for Sunga empire.
His heroic deeds seem to have made him a legendary
figure. So that Kalidasa, wrote his famous historical
drama Malavikagnimitram, depicting Prince
Agnimitra as the hero of the drama.
109. (b) The founder of the Satavahana dynasty was
Simuka. He conquered Maharashtra, Malwa and part
of Madhya Pradesh. He was succeeded by his brother
Kanha who further extended his kingdom to the west
and the south.
110. (c) The great rulers of the Satavahana dynasty
Gautamiputra Satakarni and Sri Yajna Satakarni were
able to defeat the foreign invaders like the Western
Kshatrapas and stop their expansion.
111. (d) Devabhuti was the last Sunga ruler who was
killed by his own minister Vasudeva Kanva in around
73 BC and founded the Kanva dynasty.
History || A-39
113. (b) The beginning of the practice of land grants with
fiscal and administrative immunities to Brahmins and
Buddhist monks was made by the Satavahanas.
114. (c) The Satavahana kings mostly used lead as the
material for their coins. Next to lead they used an
alloy of silver and copper, called potin. Most of the
Satavahana coins have on one side the figure of an
elephant, horse, lion or Chaitya. The other side shows
the so-called Ujjain symbol a cross with four circles
at the end of the two crossing lines.
115. (a) Rudradaman I was a Saka ruler from the Western
Kshatrapas dynasty. He was the grandson of the
celebrated Sah king Chastana. Rudradaman I was
instrumental in the decline of the Satavahana empire.
117. (d) The Nanaghat inscriptions appear to suggest that
King Satakarni was the son of Simuka Satavahana
and the husband of queen Naganika.
122. (d) Gondophares was representative of the House
of Suren in Balochistan as well as founder and first
king of the Indo-Parthian Kingdom and dynasty.
123. (a) Gathasaptasati was written by the Satavahana
ruler Hall in Prakrit language. The book contains the
description of love stories of the king Hall. This book
is an example of ancient Muktak-kavya.
 4
Gupta and
Post Gupta Period
1. Who among the following Gupta kings had
another name Devagupta?
(a) Chandragupta I (b) Samudragupta
(c) Chandragupta II (d) Kumargupta
2. Who among the following Gupta kings ascended
the throne in the year 56 of Gupta era?
(a) Samudragupta (b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kumargupta (d) Skandgupta
3. Which one of the following was the biggest hoard
of Gupta coins?
(a) Basti hoard (b) Bayana hoard
(c) Hajipur hoard (d) Kotawa hoard
4. During Gupta period, which deity was called
Lokarka?
(a) Sun (b) Ganesha
(c) Kumara (d) Shiva
5. The guild organization described in the Mandsore
inscription of Kumaragupta was known as
(a) Tantuvaya (b) Dantakara
(c) Kulika (d) Tailika
6. Which one of the following was a land measure
in Gupta period?
(a) Dharaka (b) Karsha
(c) Nivartana (d) Vimsopaka
7. The word Dinara used for the gold coins in the
Gupta inscription is derived from
(a) Sanskrit (b) Greek
(c) Chinese (d) Latin
8. What was the main objective of Sultan Mahmuds
Indian conquests?
(a) Propagation of Religion
(b) Extension of Empire
(c) Acquisition of Wealth
(d) None of these
9. Who among the following was the ruler of Kanchi
during the time of Samudragupta?
(a) Hastivarman (b) Mantaraya
(c) Nilaraja (d) Vishnugopa
10. The guild which migrated from Lata to Daspura
during the time of Kumargupta, traded in
(a) Jewels (b) Horses
(c) Silken textile (d) Ivory
11. The Gupta ruler who defeated the Hunas was
(a) Samudragupta (b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kumargupta (d) Skandgupta
12. Which inscription of the Gupta period gives
details regarding the sale of land?
(a) Junagarh inscription
(b) Bhitari pillar inscription
(c) Begram copper plane
(d) Damodarpur copper plate
13. Who was the first ruler of Gupta dynasty to
assume the title of Maharajadhiraja?
(a) Srigupta (b) Chandragupta I
(c) Samudragupta (d) Chandragupta II
14. In the Gupta inscription who has been called
Lichchhavi Dauhitra ?
(a) Chandragupta I (b) Samudragupta
(c) Chandragupta II (d) Skandgupta
15. Who of the following Gupta kings was first to
issue silver coins?
(a) Chandragupta I (b) Samudragupta
(c) Chandragupta II (d) Kumargupta
16. The Gupta gold coins were known as
(a) Dramma (b) Karsapana
(c) Dinar (d) Niska
17. Prabhavati Gupta was the daughter of
(a) Chandragupta I (b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kumargupta (d) Skandgupta

18. Who of the following kings is depicted as playing
on a flute on his coins?
(a) Menander (b) Skandgupta
(c) Samudragupta (d) Kumargupta
19. The concept of Trimurti was promulgated during
the
(a) Mauryan period (b) Post-Mauryan period
(c) Gupta period (d) Post-Gupta period
20. Which of the following rulers started Gupta
currency system?
(a) Srigupta (b) Chandragupta I
(c) Samudragupta (d) Chandragupta II
21. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of Param
Bhagawata was
(a) Chandragupta I (b) Samudragupta
(c) Chandragupta II (d) Kumargupta
22. The officer responsible for the safe custody of
land records during the Gupta period was known
as
(a) Dhruvadhikarana (b) Karanika
(c) Samaharta (d) Shaulkika
23. Who among the following is known as the
Napoleon of India ?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Samudragupta
(c) Chandragupta II
(d) Harshvardhan
24. The first inscriptional evidence of Satipratha has
been found from
(a) Eran (b) Junagarh
(c) Mandsaur (d) Sanchi
25. Which of the following was a strong centre of the
Pasupatas during the time of Chandragupta II?
(a) Mathura (b) Kaushambi
(c) Tripuri (d) Udaigiri
26. Which one of the following epithets does not
belong to Samudragupta?
(a) Lichhavi Dauhitrah
(b) Sarvarajochhetta
(c) Aswamedha Parakramah
(d) Vikramaditya
27. Who among the following was the mother of
Prabhavati Gupta?
(a) Kumardevi (b) Kuberanaga
(c) Dhruvadevi (d) None of these
History || A-41
28. The travel account of Fa hien is known as
(a) Si-yu-ki (b) Yen-tu
(c) Fo-kwo-ki (d) Fa-chien
29. Who has complimented Samudragupta as the
Indian Napoleon ?
(a) Radhakumud Mukherji
(b) V.A. Smith
(c) R.N. Dandekar
(d) R.C. Majumdar
30. The Hunes invaded India during the reign of
(a) Chandragupta II (b) Kumargupta- I
(c) Skandgupta (d) Budhagupta
31. The silver coins issued by the Guptas were called
(a) Rupaka (b) Karshapana
(c) Dinara (d) Pana
32. Out of eighteen rulers of the family at least one
-third were women. This statement is applicable
to
(a) Bhaumakaras (b) Chalukyas
(c) Rastrakutas (d) Kakatiyas
33. Which ruler suffered defeat at the hands of
Samudragupta?
(a) Rudradev (b) Prithvisena
(c) Pravarasena (d) Damodarsena
34. The word Vishti means
(a) Forced labour
(b) Irrigation tax
(c) Rights of slaves
(d) Property of women
35. The royal emblem used by the Gupta period was
(a) Lakshmi (b) Varaha
(c) Garuda (d) Bull
36. Who among the following issued the largest
number of gold coins?
(a) Satavahanas (b) Kushanas
(c) Chalukyas (d) Guptas
37. Expansion of agricultural land took place on the
largest scale in which period ?
(a) Pre-Mauryan age
(b) Mauryan age
(c) Post-Mauryan age
(d) Gupta age
A-42 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
38. Who among the following credited with authoring
Brihatsamhita?
(a) Brahmagupta (b) Varahamihira
(c) Bhaskara (d) Aryabhatta
39. Which of the following contains the description
of the king Dushyant of Hastinapur?
(a) Mrichhkatikam
(b) Mundrarakshas
(c) Abhigyanashakuntalam
(d) Hitopadesh
40. Which among the following is known for his
work on medicine during the Gupta period?
(a) Sudraka (b) Shaunaka
(c) Sushruta (d) Saumilla
41. During which Gupta kings reign did the Chinese
traveller Fa hien visit India?
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Skandgupta
42. Who was the first known Gupta ruler?
(a) Srigupta (b) Ghatotakacha
(c) Chandragupta I (d) Budhagupta
43. Which of the following literary works did not
belong to the Gupta period?
(a) Amarakosa
(b) Abhigyanashakuntalam
(c) Charaka Samhita
(d) Mrichhakatikam
44. The Prayaga Prasasti inscription is associated
with which one of the following?
(a) Mahapadmanand (b) Kanishka
(c) Chandragupta II (d) Samudragupta
45. Balaiyankutai in the pallava age was the name of
(a) A scholar (b) A Goddess
(c) A pond or tank (d) A temple
46. During the reign of which dynasties, did Kalidasa
flourish?
(a) Mauryas (b) Sungas
(c) Guptas (d) Post Guptas
47. Kumar sambhavam an epic was composed by
(a) Chandbardai (b) Harisen
(c) Banabhatta (d) Kalidasa
48. Which of the following was the official language
of Gupta period ?
(a) Pali (b) Prakrit
(c) Magadhi (d) Sanskrit
49. Who of the following organised Ashwamedha
Yajana?
(a) Bindusar (b) Samudragupta
(c) Chandragupta I (d) Skandgupta
50. Which one of the following periods marks the
beginning of the Indian temple architecture?
(a) Nand (b) Maurya
(c) Sunga (d) Gupta
51. Aryabhatta and Varahamihira belong to which
age?
(a) Maurya (b) Kushana
(c) Gupta (d) Cholas
52. Who was the author of Mandasore inscription?
(a) Veersena (b) Harisena
(c) Vatsabhatta (d) Banabhatta
53. Kumarsambhavam describes the story of the birth
of
(a) Kartikeya (b) Pradyamna
(c) Abhimanyu (d) Sanatkumara
54. Who of the following Gupta kings granted
permission to Meghverma, the ruler of Sri Lanka
to build a Buddhist temple at Gaya?
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Skandgupta
55. Who was the author of legal treatise Nitisara?
(a) Veersena (b) Harisena
(c) Vishakhadutta (d) Kamandaka
56. In the Gupta administration, who was Purpala?
(a) Administrator of village
(b) Administrator of town
(c) Administrator of capital
(d) Administrator of conquered territories
57. The Nagars style of architecture development
mostly in
(a) North India (b) South India
(c) East India (d) West India
58. Who was the last ruler of the imperial Gupta
family?
(a) Ramagupta (b) Buddhagupta
(c) Kumargupta (d) Vishnugupta

59. In which century, did the famous Chinese pilgrim
Fa hien visit India?
(a) 4th century AD (b) 5th century AD
(c) 6th century AD (d) 7th century AD
60. The decimal numeral system, including the
concept of zero was invented in India during
which one of the following dynasties?
(a) Nanda (b) Maurya
(c) Gupta (d) Pala
61. In the courtyard of the Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque
of Delhi, stands the famous iron pillar in the
memory of
(a) Ashoka
(b) Chandragupta Maurya
(c) Chandragupta I
(d) Chandragupta II
62. Sudrakas Mrichhakatikam is a
(a) Novel (b) Drama
(c) Poem (d) Short story
63. The six distinct schools of Indian philosophy
Sankhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Vaishasika, Mimansa,
Vedanta became fully articulated during the
(a) Vedic period
(b) Maurya period
(c) Buddha period
(d) Gupta period
64. Who was the author of a famous Ayurvedic text
Ashtanghriday?
(a) Vagbhatta (b) Charaka
(c) Dhanvantari (d) Nagarjuna
65. Ujjain is a birth place of
(a) Aryabhatta (b) Bhaskar
(c) Bramhagupta (d) Varahamihira
66. Who was the author of Amarkosha?
(a) Chandragomina (b) Amarsingh
(c) Amar Kanta (d) Kalidasa
67. In Gupta period, which of the languages used by
the people of low society level and women?
(a) Sanskrit (b) Magadhi
(c) Pali (d) Prakrit
68. Who among the following was called Shakespeare
of India?
(a) Kalidas (b) Patanjali
(c) Chanakya (d) Gautam
69. Who of the following was the author of
Meghadoota?
(a) Vishakhdatta (b) Vishnusharma
(c) Kalidas (d) Bhashkar
History || A-43
70. Who was the author of Kamasutra?
(a) Kalidasa (b) Vatsyayan
(c) Kamandak (d) Chandragomin
71. Who was the founder of Nyaya Darshan?
(a) Patanjali (b) Gautam
(c) Kapil (d) Jaimini
72. Who was the court poet of Kumargupta?
(a) Kalidasa (b) Veersena
(c) Vatsabhatti (d) Vishnusharma
73. Who explained that the earth rotates on its axis
but revolves round the sun?
(a) Bhashkar (b) Brahmagupta
(c) Varahamihir (d) Aryabhatta
74. Which was the second capital of Chandragupta
Vikramaditya ?
(a) Rajagriha (b) Mathura
(c) Ujjain (d) Vidisha
75. Who established Nalanda University?
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kumargupta
(d) Skandgupta
76. During which period, the great epics of Ramayan
and Mahabharat were given the final form?
(a) Nanda period
(b) Maurya period
(c) Post Maurya period
(d) Gupta period
77. What was the land revenue during Gupta period?
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3
(c) 2/3 (d) 1/6 to 1/4
78. Where was the centre of higher education during
Gupta period?
(a) Nalanda (b) Vidisha
(c) Pataliputra (d) Takshashila
79. Which period is known as golden age of Indian
history?
(a) Vedic period (b) Nanda period
(c) Maurya period (d) Gupta period
80. Who was Dhanavantri?
(a) A Chemist (b) A Physician
(c) A Philosopher (d) A Surgeon
81. Who declared the Law of Gravity long before
the Newtons law ?
(a) Aryabhatta (b) Prithuyasas
(c) Brahmagupta (d) Varahamihira
A-44 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
82. Gold coins attributed to Harsha depict on the
reverse
(a) Avalokitesvara (b) Tara
(c) Surya (d) Shiva-Parvati
83. Who is credited with the establishment of the
Vikramashila Mahavihara?
(a) Harsha (b) Bhaskaravarman
(c) Dharmapala (d) Vijayasena
84. The famous commentator of Vedic literature,
associated with the Paramaras was
(a) Apararka (b) Kshirasvamin
(c) Soyana (d) Uvata
85. Ladies had comparatively a greater participation
in administration under
(a) Chalukyas (b) Cholas
(c) Kalachuris (d) Pratiharas
86. Who among the following exposed evils of the
contemporary society by his satirical writings?
(a) Vishakhadatta (b) Banabhatta
(c) Kalhana (d) Kshemendra
87. Who among the following considered themselves
Brahma-Kshatriya?
(a) Chalukyas (b) Cholas
(c) Palas (d) Senas
88. The term Mandapika occurring in early medieval
inscriptions denotes
(a) Hermitage (b) Custom house
(c) Rest house (d) Assembly hall
89. Who among the following assumed the title
Nihsanka - Sankara ?
(a) Basava (b) Sankaracharya
(c) Rajendra Chola (d) Ballalasen
90. Who is the last king described in the Rajatarangini
of Kalhna?
(a) Anantavarman (b) Chandrapida
(c) Jayasimha (d) Muktapida
91. Who among the following is considered to be the
author of the Sangitaraja?
(a) Bhoja (b) Hemadri
(c) Krishnadevaraya (d) Rana Kumbha
92. Who among the following was the patron of the
Kota school of painting?
(a) Balawant Singh (b) Govardhan Singh
(c) Savant Singh (d) Umed Singh
93. Who among the following foreign invaders
sacked the Temple of Somnath?
(a) Changez Khan
(b) Amir Timur
(c) Mahmud of Ghazni
(d) Muhammad Ghori
94. Rajashekhara, the author of Karpurmanjari, was
the teacher of
(a) Mahendrapala I (b) Narsimhavarma II
(c) Bhoja parmara (d) Yuvarajadeva II
95. Who among the following established the
Somapura Mahavihara, a good educational centre
of the time?
(a) Dharmapal (b) Mahipala
(c) Nayapala (d) Rajyapala
96. Who was the Chola king under whose
reign Brihadishwar Temple of Tanjore was
constructed?
(a) Rajendra I (b) Kulottevnga I
(c) Rajaraja I (d) Rajadhiraj I
97. How many students were studying in the Nalanda
University as mentioned by Hiuen Tsang?
(a) 8,000 (b) 10,000
(c) 12,000 (d) 15,000
98. Who among the following rulers had granted
one lakh balotras from his own treasury for the
restoration of a mosque at Khambhat?
(a) Bhima I
(b) Chamundaraya
(c) Jayasimha Siddharaja
(d) Kumarapala
99. Who among the following had the title
Amoghavarsha ?
(a) Munja Paramara
(b) Rajendra Chola
(c) Govinda Chandra Gahadavala
(d) None of these
100. The evidence of water-tax is provided by the
inscriptions of
(a) Pratiharas (b) Gahadavala
(c) Chalukyas (d) Rashtrakutas
101. Which among the following is not found inscribed
on Chola coins?
(a) Fish (b) Bow
(c) Tiger (d) Elephant

102. A Chaitya Hall at which of the following
places was built largely by the donation of the
Yavanas?
(a) Ajanta (b) Bhaja
(c) Junnar (d) Karle
103. Who among the following rulers of the Chola
dynasty carried out the first naval expedition
against South-East Asia?
(a) Rajadhiraja (b) Rajaraja I
(c) Rajendra I (d) Vira Rajendra
104. Who destroyed the Nalanda University in 1202
AD ?
(a) Muhammad Ghori
(b) Bakhtiyar Khalji
(c) Mahmud of Ghazni
(d) Qutbuddin Aibak
105. Who among the following has been criticized by
Kalhana for confiscating the temple treasure?
(a) Avantivarman (b) Didda
(c) Harsha (d) Lalitaditya
106. The Kaivarta rebellion occurred in Bengal during
the reign of
(a) Devapala (b) Vigrahapala
(c) Mahipala II (d) Ramapala
107. Who among the following Rashtrakuta rulers is
known to have made the Hiranya-garbha-dana
at Ujjaini?
(a) Dantidurga (b) Dhruva
(c) Govinda III (d) Amoghavarsha
108. Which among the following coin names occur in
the Pratihara inscriptions?
(a) Satamana (b) Nishka
(c) Dramma (d) Dinara
109. Who among the following levied Turushka-
danda?
(a) Gahadavalas (b) Chandellas
(c) Chahamanas (d) Shahis
110. Which of the following sources provides a vivid
description of Sindh?
(a) Khazainul Futuh (b) Tarikh-i-Firoz-Shahi
(c) Insha-i-mehru (d) Chachnamah
111. The ethnic composition of the armies of
Ghaznavids did not include the
(a) Arabs (b) Indians
(c) Tajiks (d) Greeks
History || A-45
112. Who was ruling the Chola kingdom at the time of
Mahmud Ghaznis expedition of Somnath?
(a) Uttama Chola (b) Rajaraja I
(c) Rajendra I (d) Kulotenga
113. Gangai Kondacholapuram became the adminis-
trative centre of the Cholas from the time of
(a) Parantaka (b) Rajendra I
(c) Rajaraja I (d) Vikrama Chola
114. The Chola rulers were generally the worshippers
of
(a) Shiva (b) Vishnu
(c) Sakti (d) Kartikeya
115. Rajasekharas marriage to Avantisundari is an
example of
(a) Sagotra marriage
(b) Savarna marriage
(c) Anuloma marriage
(d) Pratiloma marriage
116. Who shifted the Chahamana capital from Sambhar
to Ajmer?
(a) Ajayaraja (b) Arnoraja
(c) Vighraharaja (d) Prithviraja III
117. Kumardevi, the Queen of Govindachandra
Gahadavala, constructed Dharmachakra-jina-
vihar at
(a) Bodhgaya (b) Kushinagar
(c) Kannauj (d) Sarnath
118. Who among the following issued coins with
seated Lakshmi on one side and rulers name in
Devanagri on the other?
(a) Mohammad Ghori (b) Mahmud Ghazni
(c) Jainul Abidin (d) Akbar
119. The Huna princess Avalladevi was the Queen of
(a) Gangeyadeva (b) Karna
(c) Dharmapala (d) Kumarapala
120. The Kirti-Stambha at Chittor was built by
(a) Rana Sanga (b) Rana Kumbha
(c) Rana Pratap (d) Rana Udaisingh
121. Harsha had assumed the title
(a) Parama-Bhagavata
(b) Parama-Mahesvara
(c) Parama-Saugata
(d) Parama-Adityabhah
A-46 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
122. The Chola rulers were generally
(a) Saivites
(b) Vaisnavites
(c) Worshippers of Mother goddess
(d) Worshippers of Kartikeya
123. Who among the following took strong steps to
stop gambling in his state?
(a) Bhoja Paramara
(b) Kalchuri Karna
(c) Kumarapala
(d) Jayasimha Siddharaja
124. The Turkish brought with them musical
instruments
(a) Rabab and Sarangi (c) Kalilashnatha (d) Airavateshwar
(b) Sitar and Flute
(c) Veena and Tabla for the reconstruction of a mosque?
(d) Tanpura and Mridang
125. Jonaraja, in his Rajatarangini, continued the historical
narration of Kalhana upto
(a) Jayasimha they say that the women did not cover their faces
(b) Sultan Sikandar
(c) Sultan Zainul Abidin (a) Pala (b) Pratihara
(d) Muhammad Shah
126. Who among the following is famous for his
commentary on Manusmriti?
(a) Visvarupa (b) Vijnanesvara
(c) Medhatithi (d) Apararka
127. Harshas military expansion in the Deccan was
checked by
(a) Mahendravarman (b) Dantidurga
(c) Rajendra (d) Pulkesin II
128. The first meeting of Ghosal with Mahavira Swami
was held at
(a) Champa (b) Vaishali
(c) Takshashila (d) Nalanda
129. Who of the following adopted Garudas dynasty
emblem after the imperial Guptas?
(a) Rashtrakutas (b) Western Chalukyas
(c) Shilaharas (d) Chedis
130. The north Indian dynasties that confronted the
Rashtrakutas were
(a) The Pratiharas and the Paramaras
(b) The Palas and the Chandelas
(c) The Pratiharas and the Palas
(d) The Chalukyas and the Chahamans
131. Niralamba Saraswati thus lamented a poet at the
demise of
(a) Chahmana Visaladeva
(b) Chandela Kirtivarma
(c) Mihira Bhoja
(d) Bhoja Paramara
132. The Vikramshila Mahavihara, the renowed
educational centre of Pala period at
(a) Antichak (b) Aphasad
(c) Basarh (d) Chandimau
133. Which of the following temples does not belong
to the Cholas?
(a) Brihadishwara (b) Koranganatha
134. Who of the following Rajput rulers gave donation
(a) Mihir Bhoja (b) Bhoja Parmar
(c) Prithviraj III (d) Jaisingh Siddharaj
135. Which dynasty do the Arab writers refer to when
with veil?
(c) Rashtrakutas (d) Cholas
136. Which one of the following Chola rulers had
persecuted Ramanuja and Ousted him from his
Kingdom?
(a) Kulotunga I (b) Kulotunga II
(c) Adhirajendra (d) Rajaraja I
137. Which of the following refers to Pushyabhuti as
the founder of the Vardhana dynasty?
(a) Kadambari
(b) Harshacharita
(c) Banskhera Inscription of Harsha
(d) Yuan-Chwang
138. Which Chola emperor received a letter on golden
leaves from the Burmese king Kyansittha?
(a) Rajaraja I (b) Rajendra I
(c) Kulottunga I (d) Rajadhiraja I
139. Which one of the following was the primary
assembly in the Chola village administration?
(a) Nadu (b) Sabha
(c) Ur (d) Mahasabha
140. A Chalukya inscription is dated in the year 556 of
the Saka era. It is equivalent to
(a) 478 AD (b) 499 AD
(c) 613 AD (d) 634 AD

141. Vikramshila Mahavihar was established by the
ruler of
(a) Pushyabhuti dynasty
(b) Barman dynasty
(c) Sen dynasty
(d) Pala dynasty
142. Which dynasty constructed the Ellora Kailash
Temple?
(a) Rashtrakuta (b) Satvahan
(c) Maurya (d) Pulkasya
143. The Lakshman Era was started by which of the
following dynasty?
(a) Pratiharas (b) Palas
(c) Chauhans (d) Senas
144. Kumaradevi, a queen of Govinda Chandra
Gahadavala, constructed Dharma-chakra-Jina
Vihara at
(a) Bodhgaya (b) Rajgrih
(c) Kushinagar (d) Sarnath
145. Which of the following dynasties frequently
assigned to the ladies high ranking positions in
administration?
(a) Chola (b) Chalukya
(c) Pala (d) Sena
146. Which of the following was not composed by
Harshavardhana?
(a) Harshacharita (b) Ratnavali
(c) Priyadarshika (d) Nagananda
147. In which court was a Chinese embassy sent by
Tang emperor?
(a) Rajaraja I (b) Rajendra I
(c) Harshavardhana (d) Prantaka I
148. The Rock-cut temples of Mahabalipuram were
built under the patronage of the
(a) Chola kings (b) Pandya kings
(c) Pallava kings (d) Satavahan kings
149. Who wrote the Harshacharita?
(a) Kalidasa (b) Banabhatta
(c) Vishnugupta (d) Parimalgupta
150. The religious conferences were held by king
Harshavardhana at
(a) Kannauj and Prayag
(b) Prayag and Thaneshwar
(c) Thaneshwar and Vallabhi
(d) Vallabhi and Prayag
History || A-47
151. Who sent Heiun-Tsang as an envoy to Harshas
court?
(a) Tai Tsung (b) Tung-Kuan
(c) Ku Yen-wa (d) None of these
152. Where was the capital of Sasanka?
(a) Samatata (b) Tamralipta
(c) Karna-swarna (d) Lakhmawati
153. Emperor Harshas southward march was stopped
on the Narmada river by
(a) Pulkesin I (b) Pulkesin II
(c) Vikramaditya I (d) Vikramaditya II
154. Who built the Khajuraho temples?
(a) Holkars (b) Scindias
(c) Bundela (d) Chandela
155. Arabs were defeated in 738 AD by
(a) Pratiharas (b) Rashtrakutas
(c) Palas (d) Chalukyas
156. The Dilwara temple is located at
(a) Bhubaneswar (b) Aurangabad
(c) Khajuraho (d) Mount Abu
157. Who founded the four Mathas in the four corners
of India?
(a) Shankaracharya (b) Ramanujacharya
(c) Bhaskaracharya (d) Madhvacharya
158. The Lingaraja Temple built during the medieval
period is at
(a) Bhubaneswar (b) Khajuraho
(c) Madurai (d) Mount Abu
159. The presiding deity of Bhojsala Temple is
(a) Goddess Durga
(b) Goddess Laxmi
(c) Goddess Saraswati
(d) Goddess Parvati
160. Which one of the following is not a feature of
North Indian temple architecture?
(a) Shikhara (b) Garbha Griha
(c) Gopuram (d) Pradakshina-path
161. Rath Temples at Mahabalipuram were built in the
reign of which Pallava ruler?
(a) Mahendravarman
(b) Narasinghvarman I
(c) Parameshwarvarman
(d) Nandivarman I
A-48 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
162. Which one of the following Chola kings
conquered Ceylon (Sinhal) first ?
(a) Aditya I (b) Rajaraja I
(c) Rajendra (d) Vijayalaya
163. The Seven Pagodas of Mahabalipuram are a
witness to the art patronised by the
(a) Pallavas (b) Pandyas
(c) Cholas (d) Cheras
164. At which of the following places is the famous
Kailasha Temple located?
(a) Ajanta (b) Badami
(c) Chittor (d) Ellora
165. The famous Idol of Gomteshwar and famous Jain
temple is situated at
(a) Hampi (b) Srirangapattam
(c) Sravanbelgola (d) Mysore
166. Ramayan the Tamil version of the great epic
Ramayana was made by
(a) Kamban (b) Avvaiyar
(c) Ilango Adigal (d) None of these
167. Which one of the following is not a work on
architecture?
(a) Manasare
(b) Samarangana Sutradhara
(c) Mahavastu
(d) Mayamata
168. Which one of the following was a land measure?
(a) Dharaka (b) Karsha
(c) Nivartana (d) Vimsopaka
169. Which of the following writers has mentioned
the river Narmada as the dividing line between
Aryavartta and Daksinapatha?
(a) Kautilya (b) Sudraka
(c) Rajasekhara (d) Dandin
170. Sugandhadevi who issued coins with the figure of
seated Lakshmi was a Queen of
(a) Karnataka (b) Kashmir
(c) Orissa (d) Saurashtra
171. Who among the following believed in the theory
of Bheda-bhed?
(a) Vallabhacharya (b) Nimbarakacharya
(c) Madhvacharya (d) Ramanujacharya
172. Which one of the following is the smallest
measure?
(a) Adhaka (b) Kumbha
(c) Khari (d) Drona
173. Astanga Samgraha is a text on
(a) Astronomy (b) Philosophy
(c) Polity (d) Medicine
174. Which of the following places was known as
Mahodaya?
(a) Allahabad (b) Kannauj
(c) Ujjain (d) Pataliputra
175. Which of the following Orissan temples has a
Sikhar of Dravidian style?
(a) Jagannath (b) Lingaraj
(c) Rajarani (d) Vaital Devl
176. Which of the following temples was a well
known centre of higher education?
(a) Dasavatar Temple at Devogarh
(b) Sasbahu Temple at Gwalior
(c) Shore Temple at Mamallapuram
(d) Trayipurusha Temple at Salotgi
 History || A-49

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 24. (a) 47. (d) 70. (b) 93. (c) 116. (a) 139. (c) 162. (b)
2. (b) 25. (a) 48. (d) 71. (b) 94. (a) 117. (d) 140. (a) 163. (a)
3. (b) 26. (d) 49. (b) 72. (c) 95. (a) 118. (a) 141. (d) 164. (d)
4. (a) 27. (b) 50. (d) 73. (d) 96. (a) 119. (a) 142. (a) 165. (c)
5. (a) 28. (c) 51. (c) 74. (c) 97. (b) 120. (b) 143. (d) 166. (a)
6. (c) 29. (b) 52. (a) 75. (c) 98. (c) 121. (b) 144. (d) 167. (c)
7. (d) 30. (c) 53. (a) 76. (d) 99. (d) 122. (a) 145. (b) 168. (c)
8. (c) 31. (a) 54. (c) 77. (d) 100. (b) 123. (c) 146. (a) 169. (c)
9. (d) 32. (a) 55. (d) 78. (a) 101. (d) 124. (a) 147. (c) 170. (b)
10. (c) 33. (a) 56. (d) 79. (d) 102. (d) 125. (c) 148. (c) 171. (b)
11. (d) 34. (a) 57. (a) 80. (b) 103. (c) 126. (c) 149. (b) 172. (a)
12. (d) 35. (c) 58. (d) 81. (c) 104. (b) 127. (d) 150. (a) 173. (d)
13. (b) 36. (d) 59. (b) 82. (d) 105. (c) 128. (d) 151. (a) 174. (b)
14. (b) 37. (d) 60. (c) 83. (c) 106. (c) 129. (a) 152. (c) 175. (d)
15. (c) 38. (b) 61. (d) 84. (d) 107. (a) 130. (c) 153. (b) 176. (d)
16. (c) 39. (c) 62. (b) 85. (a) 108. (c) 131. (d) 154. (d)
17. (b) 40. (c) 63. (d) 86. (a) 109. (a) 132. (a) 155. (a)
18. (c) 41. (b) 64. (a) 87. (d) 110. (d) 133. (c) 156. (d)
19. (c) 42. (a) 65. (c) 88. (c) 111. (d) 134. (d) 157. (a)
20. (b 43. (d) 66. (b) 89. (d) 112. (c) 135. (d) 158. (a)
21. (c) 44. (d) 67. (d) 90. (c) 113. (b) 136. (a) 159. (c)
22. (b) 45. (c) 68. (a) 91. (a) 114. (a) 137. (b) 160. (c)
23. (b) 46. (c) 69. (c) 92. (d) 115. (c) 138. (d) 161. (b)

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) The Gupta king, Chandragupta II had
another name Devagupta. Chandragupta II was
the third, and most significant of the Gupta kings
(C.375C.415). Inheriting a large empire, he
extended his control to Gujarat (north of Bombay)
and Malwa (central India). To strengthen his
southern flank, he made marriage arrangements for
his daughters with southern dynasties. In different
inscriptions, Chandragupta II also named as Devasri
and Devaraja in various inscriptions.
A-50 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
2. (b) Chandragupta II ascended the throne in the year
56 of Gupta era. In 319, Chandragupta created for
himself the title King of Kings (Maharajadhiraja),
and he extended his rule westward to Prayaga,
in north-central India. Ten years into his rule,
Chandragupta lay dying, and he told his son,
Samudragupta, to rule the whole world. His son
tried. Samudraguptas forty-five years of rule would
be described as one vast military campaign. He
waged war along the Ganges plain, overwhelming
nine kings and incorporating their subjects and
lands into the Gupta empire.
3. (b) Bayana was the biggest hoard of Gupta eras
coins. The collection and study of coins is known
as Numismatics. The bayana hoard of coins was
discovered by A.S. Altekar. Mr. Altekar, the person
who had hoarded the coins might be a collector
himself since most of the Gupta dynasty coins
spanning 200+ years were found together in a single
vessel. The Bayan is the place in Rajasthan.
4. (a) During Gupta period, sun was called Lokarka.
The Gupta period developed a form of sculpture
that was wholly Indian, the foreign influences that
had crept in the Gandhara and Mathura schools
of arts disappeared. Most sculptures focused on
religious and spiritual themes, like the Buddha or
Hindu gods like Vishnu and Shiv. The art had been
highly developed and the sculptures were exquisite.
5. (a) The guild organization described in the
Mandsore inscription of Kumargupta was known as
Tantuvaya. This inscription informs us that he was
a feudatory of the Gupta emperor Kumargupta I. It
was during his reign, a temple dedicated to Surya
was constructed by the guild of silk-weavers at
Dashapura in the Malava Samvat 493 (436 CE).
This temple was renovated in 473 CE by the same
guild.
6. (c) Nivartana was a land measure in Gupta
period. Different land measures were known in
different regions, such as Nivartana, Kulyavapa and
Dronavapa. The importance of irrigation to help
agriculture was recognized in India from the earliest
times. According to Narada, there are two kinds of
dykes the bardhya which protected the field from
floods and the Khaya which served the purpose of
irrigation.
7. (d) The word Dinara used for the gold coins in the
gupta inscription is derived from Latin. The main
purpose behind the choice of Gupta coin designs
seems to have been one of political propaganda.
The king is always shown in ways that emphasize
his status as a great ruler and heroic warrior. The
representations are idealized images that adhere
to the strict contemporary artistic concepts of the
perfect human form.
8. (c) Acquisition of wealth was the main objective
of Sultan Mahmuds Indian conquests. In 1001,
Mahmud of Ghazni had first invaded India. Mahmud
defeated, captured and later released Shahi ruler
Jaya Pala who had moved his capital to Peshawar.
Jaya Pala killed himself and was succeeded by
his son Ananda Pala. In 1005, Mahmud of Ghazni
invaded Bhatia (probably Bhera) and in 1006 he
invaded Multan at which time Ananda Palas army
attacked him.
9. (d) Vishnugopa was the ruler of Kanchi during
the time of Samudragupta. In the southern Pallava
kingdom of Kanchipuram, he defeated king
Vishnugopa, then restored him and other defeated
southern kings to their thrones on payment of
tribute. Several northern kings were uprooted,
however, and their territories added to the Gupta
empire. At the height of Samudraguptas power,
he controlled nearly all of the valley of the Ganges
(Ganga) river and received homage from rulers of
parts of east Bengal, Assam, Nepal, the eastern part
of the Punjab, and various tribes of Rajasthan.
10. (c) The guild which migrated from Lata to
Daspura during the time of Kumargupta traded in
silken textile.
11. (d) Skandgupta was the Gupta ruler who defeated
the Hunas.Soon after his accession, Skandagupta
had to face the Hunas who had already proved
themselves to be terror to both Europe and Asia.
About the middle of the fifth century AD, one branch
of the Hunas known as White Hunas occupied the
Oxus valley and threatened both Persia and India.
They conquered Gandhara and threatened the very
existence of the Gupta empire. Skandgupta inflicted
such a terrible defeat upon the Hunas that they dared
not disturb the empire for nearly half a century.

12. (d) Damodarpur copper plate inscription of the
Gupta period gives details regarding the sale of
land. Damodarpur (in Dinajpur District) Copper
Plate No.1 of Kumargupta I (443444AD) is
probably the most important for a knowledge
of local administrative pattern and is the most
popular source for historians. It refers to Visayapati
Kumaramatya Vetravarman, who was appointed
by (Tanniyukta) the Uparika Ciratadatta, Governor
of Pundravardhana Bhukti. Vetravarman being in-
charge of Kotivarsa Visaya (dist.) administered the
government of the locality in the Administrative
Board in company of Dhrtipala, the Nagararesthi,
Bandhumitra, the Sarthavaha, Dhrtimitra the
Prathamakulika and ambapala the Prathama
Kayastha. They were seen to come together and
consult on the sales of land.
13. (b) Chandragupta I was the first ruler of Gupta
dynasty to assume the title of Maharajadhiraja
Chandragupta I assumed the high-sounding title of
Maharajadhiraja (Great king of Kings). Conceding
the importance of his wife, Chandragupta issued
gold coins in the joint names of himself, his
queent Kumaradevi and the Lichchhavi nation.
Emboldened by his success, he established a new
era.
14. (b) In the Gupta inscription, Samudragupta has
been called Lichchhavi Dauhitra. There is also
evidence of relationship between the early Guptas
and the Lichchhavis. Chandragupta I married the
Lichchhavi princess Kumaradevi, for which reason
their son Samudragupta has been called Lichchhavi
duhitra. It is further indicated by some gold coins
which, on the obverse, bear their figures and names
and, on the reverse, the name of the Lichchhavis.
15. (c) Chandragupta II, the Gupta king was first to
issue silver coins. The large number of beautiful
gold coins issued by the Gupta dynasty are a
testament to the imperial grandeur of that age.
Chandragupta II also started producing silver coins
in the Saka tradition. The conquest is indicated by
the issue of the new Gupta silver coinage modelled
on the previous Saka coinage showing on observe
the Kings head, Greek script, and dates as on Saka
coins.
16. (c) The Gupta gold coins were known as Dinar.
The worlds first coins were Greek, made in Lydia
about 640 BC. The earliest Indian coins were silver,
History || A-51
and it was not until about 100 AD that the Kushan
emperor Vima Kadaphises introduced the first
Indian gold coin, which was a gold dinar bearing the
image of Shiva. So Indias history of issuing gold
coins dates back almost 2,000 years.
17. (b) Prabhavati Gupta was the daughter of
Chandragupta II. Prabhavatigupta was married to
the powerful Vakataka dynasty ruler Rudrasena II
(r.380385 CE). Rudrasena II, died fortuitously
after a very short reign in 385 CE, following which
Queen Prabhavati Gupta (r. 385405) ruled the
Vakataka kingdom as a regent on behalf of her two
sons. During this twenty-year period, the Vakataka
realm was practically a part of the Gupta empire.
18. (c) Samudragupta is depicted as playing on a flute
on his coins. It was played with the strings being kept
parallel to the body of the player, with both hands
plucking the strings, as shown on Samudraguptas
gold coins. Early literary sources of an ancient
instrument called the Saptatantree Veenaa (7-string
Veenaa) seem to coincide generally with the type of
instrument represented on the coin.
19. (c) The concept of Trimurti was propgated during
the Gupta period. Trimurti is a Hinduism concept
in which the functions of creation, preservation and
destruction are personified. They are embodied by
the forms of the creator, Brahma, preserver, Vishnu
and the destroyer known as Shiva.
20. (b) It is usually held that Chandragupta I was the
first imperial ruler who introduced currency system
and that the Chandragupta-Kumaradevi type of gold
coins were the earliest gold coins of the dynasty.
But according to the scholars, it was Samudragupta
who first issued Gupta coins that his first gold coins
were of standard type and that later on he issued
the Chandragupta-Kumaradevi type of coins to
commemorate his fathers marriage to Lichchhavi
princess which had proved to be great benefit to
the Gupta dynasty. The minting of silver coins was
first started in the reign of Chandragupta II and was
continued by Kumargupta I and Skandgupta.
21. (c) The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of
Param Bhagawata was Chandragupta II. The
Bhagavata Purana entails the fully developed tenets
and philosophy of the Bhagavata tradition wherein
Krishna gets fused with Vasudeva and transcends
Vedic Vishnu and cosmic Hari to be turned into the
ultimate object of Bhakti.
A-52 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
22. (b) The officer responsible for the safe custody of
land records during the Gupta period was known
as Karanika. This is the Dhruvadhi-Karanika
(otherwise called Dhruvasthanadhikaranika) the
officer in-charge of the Dhruvas, the last term being
applied till recent times in Kathiawar and Cutch to
denote persons who superintended the collection of
land-revenue by the farmers on the kings behalf.
23. (b) Samudragupta (335-375 AD) of the Gupta
dynasty is known as the Napoleon of India.
Historian AV Smith called him so because of his
great military conquests known from the Prayag
Prashati written by his courtier and poet Harisena,
who also describes him as the hero of a hundred
battles. But some leading Indian historians criticise
Smith and feel that Samudragupta was a far greater
warrior than Napoleon, as the former never lost any
battle.
24. (a) The first inscriptional evidence of satipratha
has been found from Eran.Some reliable records
indicate the practice before the time of the Gupta
empire, approximately 400 CE. After about this
time, instances of Sati began to be marked by
inscribed memorial stones. According to Axel
Michaels, the first clear proofs of the practice is
from Nepal in 464 CE, and in India from 510 CE.
In India, the earliest of these memorial stones are
found in Sagar, Madhya Pradesh, though the largest
collections date from several centuries later, and are
found in Rajasthan.
25. (a) Mathura was a strong centre of the pasupates
during the time of Chandragupta II. A large number
of coins were found at places like Mathura and
Kannauj and in Panchala region which are supposed
to be associated with the Mitra rulers. The basis of
the coins are generally believed to have flourished
between C.100 BC and C.200 AD.
26. (d) Vikramaditya epithet does not belong to
Samudragupta. Samudragupta was the greatest of
the Gupta rulers, the founder of the Guptas empire,
the Indian Napoleon by virtue of his military
exploits, a diplomat and statesman of the first order,
an able and efficient administrator, the prince of
poets, (Kaviraj) the protector and defender of the
poor and the weak.
27. (b) Kuberanaga was the mother of prabhavati
gupta. Chandragupta II married the Naga Princess
Kuberanaga and gave his own daughter, Prabhabati,
in marriage to Vakataka king, Rudra Sena II. The
Vakataka alliance was master stroke of diplomacy
as it secured the subordinate alliance of the Vakataka
king who occupied a strategic geographical position.
It is noteworthy that Rudra Sena died young and his
widow reigned until her sons came of age.
28. (c) The travel account of Fa-hien is known as Fo-
kwo-ki. Fa-hien was the first Chinese monk to travel
to India in search of great Buddhist scriptures. At the
age of sixty-five, he travelled, mostly on foot, from
Central China taking the southern route through
Shenshen, Dunhuang, Khotan, and then over the
Himalayas, to Gandhara and Peshawar.
29. (b) AV Smith complimented Samudragupta as
the Indian Napoleon. Samudragupta embarked
upon a policy of conquest. In fact,Digvijay became
the ultimate call of his life. For his military
achievements, he has been aptly complemented by
the historian AV Smith as the Indian Napoleon. He
has described Samudragupta as the Hero of Hundred
Battles.
30. (c) The Hunas invaded India during the reign of
Skandgupta. Hunas were Iranian-speaking Xionite
tribes who, via Khyber Pass, entered India at the end
of the 5th or early 6th century and were defeated by
the Hindu Gupta Empire. In its farthest geographical
extent in India, the Huna empire covered the region
up to Malwa in central India.
31. (a) The silver coins issued by the Guptas were
called Rupaka. The silver coin was called Rupaka
based on Sakas of Ujjaini weighing 3236 grains.
According to Fa hien, cowries were very common
means of exchange. In Delhi Sultanate, gold coins
were called Tanka which were equivalent to the
Greek Drachm standard of 67 grains. The silver
coins were called Drama.
32. (a) Out of eighteen rulers of the family, at least
one-third were women. This statement is applicable
to Bhaunakaras. In the course of the 16th and
17th centuries during the Sultanate of Women,
women of the imperial Harem had extraordinary
influence on politics of Ottoman empire. Many of
the Sultans during this time were minors and it was
their mothers, sometimes daughters of the sultan
as Mihrimah Sultan, leaders of the Harem, who
effectively ruled the empire. Most of these women
were of slave origin.

33. (a) Rudradev suffered defeat at the hands of
Samudragupta. After the death of Hameer Dev,
Rudra Dev became the king. He was a brave
person. He established the peace in his state. He
was married to the daughter of neighbouring state
and got that state in dowry. He declared Rudri as his
capital of the state. He got the temple of lord Shiva
constructed on the bank of Mahanadi. This temple is
famous by the name of Rudreshwar.
34. (a) The word Vishti means Forced labour.While
the Kshatriyas acquired their share of the social
surplus through the force of arms in the form
of taxes (Kar, Shulka, Bali, etc.), forced labour
(Vishti, Balutam, etc.), tithes and other privileges.
The Brahmin clergy enforced its claim to the social
surplus through a moral deterrent which was based
on strength of the tribal morality of distribution.
35. (c) The royal emblem used by the Gupta period
was Garuda. Most people now realize that Rapson
was mistaken in identifying the central bird as a
peacock; rather, it is the mythic eagle Garuda, the
dynastic symbol of the Guptas. For example, A.S.
Altekar says that the three-arched hill in the centre
is replaced by Garuda, which was the imperial
insignia of the Guptas. The view of earlier writers
that the bird is a peacock is clearly untenable.
36. (d) Much is known about Samudragupta through
coins issued by him and inscriptions. These were
of eight different types and all made of pure gold.
His conquests brought him the gold and also the
coin-making expertise from his acquaintance with
the Kushana. Most certainly, Samudragupta is
the father of Gupta monetary system. He started
minting different types of coins. They are known as
the Standard Type, the Archer Type, the Battle Axe
Type, the Ashvamedha Type, the Tiger Slayer Type,
the King and Queen Type and the Lute Player Type.
37. (d) Expansion of agricultural land took place on
the largest scale in Gupta age. The degeneration
of the Vaisyas (the third, or trader caste), which
had begun earlier, intensied during this period.
Because of advanced agricultural techniques and
developments in handicrafts, the condition of the
Sudra s (the fourth, or menial caste) improved and
there was no great difference between a poor Vaisya
and a prosperous Sudra.
38. (b) Varahamihira credited with authoring Brihat
Samhita. Varahamihira, also called Varahamira
History || A-53
or simply Varaha, was one of the most celebrated
scientists in South Asian history, having made
substantial contributions to virtually all branches
of the arts and sciences. He wrote three important
books: Panchasiddhantika, Brihat Samhita, and
Brihat Jataka. Brihat Samhita is a compilation of an
assortment of topics that provides interesting details
of prevailing beliefs. Brihat Jataka is a book on
astrology.
39. (c) Abhigyanashakuntalam contains the
description of the king Dushyant of Hastinapur.
Abhigynanasakuntalam is a beautiful tale of love and
romance, the name literally meaning Of Sakuntala
who is recognized by a token. Written by one of the
greatest poets of India, Sakuntalam is synonymous
with its author, Kalidasa. Abhigynanasakuntalam
is the first Indian play ever to be translated into
western languages. It is for the very first time
translated in English language by Sir William Jones
in the year 1789. Later to this, there were at least 46
translations of this play by Kalidasa in 12 different
European languages.
40. (c) Sushruta is known for his work on medicine
during the Gupta period. Sushruta was the first
Indian surgeon of 600 century BC. The only bust
of Sushruta is placed in Sushrutanagar, near Siliguri
of India. The Sushruta Samhita is a Sanskrit text
on surgery. The work is attributed to Sushruta, a
historical physician of 6th century BCE, although
the text as preserved dates to the 3rd or 4th century
CE. It is one of three foundational texts of Ayurveda
(Indian traditional medicine).
41. (b) Chinese traveller Fa-hien visited India during
the reign of Chandragupta II. Fa-hien was the first
Chinese Buddhist pilgrim to leave an account of his
travels to Central Asia, India, and Sri Lanka. The
name of this monk may correctly be pronounced as
Faxian but is also written as Fa-hien. A native of
Shanxi (Shansi), he left home at the tender age of
three to join the Buddhist Sangha.
42. (a) Srigupta was the first known Gupta ruler.
The Gupta empire was an ancient Indian empire,
founded by Maharaja Sri Gupta, which existed from
approximately 320 to 550 CE and covered much of
the Indian Subcontinent. The peace and prosperity
created under the leadership of the Guptas enabled
the pursuit of scientific and artistic endeavours. This
period is called the Golden Age of India.
A-54 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
43. (d) Mrichhakatikam literary works did not belong
to the Gupta period. Of all the Sanskrit dramas,
Mrichhakatica remains one of the most widely
celebrated and oft-performed in the West, in part
because its plot structure more closely resembles
that of Western classics than other Hindu plays. The
work played a significant role in generating interest
in Indian theatre among European audiences
following several successful nineteenth century
translations and stage productions.
44. (d) The Prayaga Prasasti inscription is associated
with Samudragupta. The western scholars equate
him with Napoleon and call him Indian Napoleon
due to the extensive military conquests. His court
poet and minister Harisena composed the Allahabad
pillar inscription or Prayaga Prasasti. The Pillar
was an Asokan pillar erected by Asoka six century
before him.
45. (c) Balaiyankutai in the pallava age was the
name of a pond or tank. Majority of the irrigation
tanks were built from the 6th to the 10th centuries
of our era during the dynasty of the Pallavas. One
will understand the importance of these systems
of irrigation by noting that about one-third of
the surface area of the state is actually irrigated
by these omnipresent tanks (about 40,000 such
tanks), the two-thirds of water needs come from the
exploitation of ground water.
46. (c) Kalidasa flourished in the time of Chandragupta
II (reigned 380413). A traditional Indian view
would have it that he adorned Vikramadityas court
in the 1st century BC. Although he was especially
fond of the Gupta capital city, Ujjain (about 30
miles north of Indore in west-central India), there
is no proof that he was born there. Kalidasa was a
devotee of shiva, but there is no trace.
47. (d) Kumarsambhavam an epic was composed
by Kalidasa.The Kumarsambhavam is widely
regarded as one of Kalidasas finest works, a
paradigmatic example of poetry. The style of
description of spring set the standard for nature
metaphors pervading many centuries of Indian
literary tradition.The period of composition is
uncertain, although Kalidasa is thought of as having
lived in the 5th century AD.
48. (d) Sanskrit was the official language of Gupta
period. Scholars of this period includeVarahamihira
and Aryabhatta, who is believed to be the first to
come up with the concept of zero, postulated the
theory that the Earth moves round the Sun, and
studied solar and lunar eclipses. Kalidasa, who
was a great playwright, who wrote plays such as
Shakuntala, which is said to have inspired Goethe,
and marked the highest point of Sanskrit literature is
also said to have belonged to this period.
49. (b) Samudragupta organised Ashwamedha Yajana.
When a king thought that he had conquered the
whole land, he used to let loose a white horse. The
horse would roam wherever it liked. If anybody tried
to capture it, he would have to fight the kings army.
If the horse returned home without being captured,
it meant that everyone in the land recognized the
power of the king. The horse was then offered as
sacrifice and killed. The ceremony was called the
Ashvamedha Yajana.
50. (d) Gupta period marks the begining of the Indian
temple architecture. The Gupta temple was a
shikara type of temple, built in a straight edged
pyramid shape, but this cannot be fully established
by existing evidence. However, the supporting
features of copings and amalakas (a bulbous stone
finial), support the theory that a shikara existed as
part of the main shrine.
51. (c) Aryabhatta and Varahamihira belonged
to Gupta age. During Gupta period education
flourished and many great discoveries were made
in these fields. Aryabhatta and Varahamihira, the
two great mathematicians contributed in the field
of Vedic Mathematics. Aryabhatta found and
estimated the value of Pi to the fourth decimal
place. Algebra was developed to a great extent and
the concepts of zero and infinity were also found
and symbols of numbers 1 to 9 were devised which
was a great contribution in mathematics. Advances
in astronomy were also on heights in Gupta Age.
52. (a) Veersena was the author of Mandasore
inscription. There is an inscription about
Bandhuverma at Mandasore. The silk workers
had constructed a Sun temple here which was
repaired by Bandhuverma in Samvat 493. This
indicates that he was present there till 436 CE.
The Risthal stone slab inscription discovered in
1983 has brought to light another Aulikara dynasty,
which comprised the following kings in the order
of succession: Drumavardhana, Jayavardhana
Ajitavardhana, Vibhishanavardhana, Rajyavardhana
and Prakashadharma.

53. (a) Kumarsambhavam describes the story of the
birth of Kartikeya. Kumarsambhavam is a legendary
Sanskrit poem written by Mahakavi Kalidasa. It is
one of the most substantial examples of `Kavya`
poetry. Kumarsambhavam literally stands for
Birth of the War-god, i.e. Kartikeya, Shiva`s first
son. Kumarsambhavam essentially talks about the
courtship of Lord Shiva and Parvati. The bulk of
chapters have enormous details about the love and
romance between Shiva and Parvati.
54. (c) Samudragupta granted permission to
Meghverma the ruler of Sri Lanka to build a Buddhist
temple in Gaya. Kittisirimegha of Sri Lanka, a
contemporary of Samudragupta, erected with the
permission of Samudragupta, a Sangharama near
the Mahabodhi Vihara, chiefly for the use of the
Singhalese monks who went to worship the Bodhi
tree.
55. (d) Kamandaka was the author of legal treatise
Nitisara. The Nitisara of Kamandaki a post-
Maurya treatise narrating the elements of polity
divided in twenty Sargas and thirty-six Prakarans is
dependent on the Arthashastra of Kautilya dealing
inter-alia with theories of social order authority
and obligation of the temporal ruler theories
of states, structure and organs of government
principles and policies of government, interstate
relations, functions of envoys ambassadors and
spies, application of different political expedients,
varieties of battle arrays, attitude towards morality,
etc.
56. (d) In the Gupta administration, purpala was the
administrator of conquered territories. The person
was mostly from the authority who reigned in that
region itself but sometimes the faithful of king also
took the control of these territories.
57. (a) The Nagas style of architecture developed
mostly in North India. Chandra Gupta II also
married to a Kadamba princess of Kuntala region
and a princess of Naga lineage (Nagakulotpannna),
Kuberanaga. His daughter Prabhabatigupta from
this Naga queen was married to Rudrasea II, the
Vakataka ruler of Deccan. His son Kumargupta I
was married to Kadamba princess of Karnataka
region.
58. (d) Vishnugupta was the last ruler of the imperial
Gupta family. Vishnugupta was one of the lesser
known kings of the Gupta dynasty. He is generally
History || A-55
considered to be the last recognized king of the
Gupta empire. His reign lasted 10 years, from 540
to 550 CE. From the fragment of his clay sealing
discovered at Nalanda during the excavations of
192728, we came to know that he was the son of
Kumargupta III and the grandson of Narsimhagupta
Baladitya.
59. (b) In 5th century AD, the famous Chinese
pilgrim Fa-hein visited India. Travelling through
central Asia and northwest India, Fa-hien reached
northern India and then visited the holy Buddhist
sites located in the Ganges valley: Kapilavastu,
the birthplace of Buddha; Bodhgaya, the site of
Buddhas enlightenment; Sarnath, where Buddha
preached his first sermon, and Kushinagara, the
place of Buddhas nirvana.
60. (c) The decimal numeral system, including the
concept of zero was invented in India during the
Gupta dynasty. The mathematical concept of zero
emerged in India about one and a half thousand
years ago.
61. (d) In the courtyard of the Quwat-ul-Islam mosque
of Delhi stands the famous Iron pillar in the memory
of Chandragupta II. The height of the pillar, from
the top of its capital to the bottom of its base, is 7.21
m (23.7 ft), 1.12 m (3 ft 8 in) of which is below
ground. Its bell pattern capital is 1.07 m (3 ft 6 in) in
height, and its bulb-shaped base is 0.71 m (2 ft 4 in)
high. The base rests on a grid of iron bars soldered
with lead into the upper layer of the dressed stone
pavement. The pillars lower diameter is 420 mm
(17 in), and its upper diameter 306 mm (12.0 in). It
is estimated to weigh more than six tons.
62. (b) SudrakaMrichhakotikam is a ten-act Sanskrit
drama attributed to Sudraka an ancient playwright
generally thought to have lived sometime between
the second century BC and the fifth century AD
whom the prologue identifies as a Kshatriya king
and a devotee of Shiva who lived for 100 years.
The play is set in the ancient city of Ujjayani during
the reign of the King Palaka, near the end of the
Pradyota dynasty that made up the first quarter of
the fifth century BC.
63. (d) The six district school of Indian philosophy
Sankhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Vaishasika, Mimansa,
Vedanta became fully articulated during the Gupta
period.
A-56 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
64. (a) Vegbhatta was the author of a famous
Ayurvedic text Ashtanghriday. The science of
chemistry, due to its Vedic antiquity might have been
first recognized in India, as a separate discipline.
Alchemy and the science of medicine gave rise to
the study of chemistry in India. The ancient masters
as mentioned in connection with chemistry are:
Patanjali, Bhavya Dattadeva, Vyadi, Svacchanda,
Damodara, Vasudeva, Charaka, Sushruta, Harita
and Vagbhata. Ancient Sanskrit documents about
the advanced chemical science find the expression
in activities like distillation of perfumes and
fragrant ointments. It is also found in activities like
manufacturing of dyes and chemical preparation of
pigments and colours and polishing of mirrors.
65. (c) Ujjain is a birth place of Brahmagupta. By the
6th century BC, Avanti with its capital at Ujjaini, is
mentioned in Buddhist literature as one of the four
great powers along with Vatsa, Kosala and Magadha.
Ujjain lay on the main trade route between North
India and Deccan going from Mathura via Ujjain to
Mahismati (Maheshwar) on the Narmada, and on to
Paithan on the Godavari, western Asia and the West.
66. (b) Amarsingh was the author of Amarkosha.
Amara seems to have been a Buddhist, and most of
his work was destroyed, with the exception of what
is the celebrated Amara-Kosha (Treasury of Amara),
a vocabulary of Sanskrit roots, in three books, and
hence sometimes called Trikanda or the Tripartite.
It is also known as Namalinganushasana. It
contains 10,000 words, and is arranged, like other
works of its class. The first chapter of the Kosha was
printed in Rome in Tamil character in 1798.
67. (d) In the Gupta period, the language used by the
people of low society level and women was prakrit.
The word, derived from its Indian root Parikrit,
itself has a flexible definition, being defined
sometimes as, original, natural, artless, normal,
ordinary, usual, or vernacular, in contrast to
the literary and religious orthodoxy of sanskrita.
Alternatively, Prakrit can be taken to mean derived
from an original, means evolved in natural way.
68. (a) Kalidasa was called Shakespeare of India.
Numerous works have been attributed to his
authorship. Most of them, however, are either by
lesser poets bearing the same name or by others of
some intrinsic worth, whose works simply chanced
to be associated with Kalidasas name, their own
names having long before ceased to be remembered.
Only seven are generally considered genuine.
69. (c) Kalidas was the author of Meghadoota.
Meghadoota, as perhaps nowhere else so plentifully
in Kalidasas works, are an unvarying freshness of
inspiration and charm, delight imagery and fancy,
profound insight into the emotions, and a oneness
with the phenomena of nature. Moreover, the
fluidity and beauty of the language are probably
unmatched in Sanskrit literature, a feature all the
more remarkable for its inevitable loss in translation.
70. (b) Vatsyayan was the author of Kamasutra.
Vatsyayanas Kamasutra has 1250 verses, distributed
in 36 chapters, which are further organized into
seven parts.Historians attribute Kamasutra to be
composed between 400 BCE and 200 CE. Keay
says that the Kamasutra is a compendium that was
collected into its present form in the 2nd century
CE.
71. (b) Gautam was the founder of Nyaya Darshan.
The system is based on Nyaya Sutras of Gautam
who is supposed to have lived around 3rd BC.
This system investigates into both physical and
metaphysical subjects by the syllogistic method.
Thus, it includes metaphysics as well as the science
of logic.
72. (c) Vatsabhatti was the court poet of Kumargupta.
Samudragupta by Harisena and the Mandasor
Inscription of Kumargupta by Vatsabhatti. Besides,
information on Indian educational system have been
culled out from Buddhist and Jain literature along
with corroboratory account recorded by foreign
travellers like Fa-hien, Hiuen Tsang and I-tsing of
China and Hwui Lun of Korea.
73. (d) Aryabhatta explained that the earth rotates on
its axis but revolves round the sun. Aryabhatta was
the first to explain how the Lunar eclipse and the
Solar eclipse happened. Aryabhatta also gave close
approximation for Pi. In the Aryabhatiya, he wrote
: Add 4 to 100, multiply by 8, then add 62000 and
then divided by 20000. The result is approximately
the circumference of a circle of diameter twenty
thousand.
74. (c) Ujjain was the second capital of Chandragupta
Vikramaditya.

75. (c) Kumargupta established Nalanda University.
Nalanda flourished between the reign of the
Sakraditya (whose identity is uncertain and who
might have been either Kumargupta I or Kumargupta
II) and 1197 AD, supported by patronage from the
Hindugupta rulers as well as Buddhist emperors like
Harsha and later emperors from the Pala empire.
76. (d) During the Gupta period, the great epics of
Ramayan and Mahabharat were given the final form.
Traditionally, the authorship of the Mahabharata is
attributed to Vyasa. There have been many attempts
to unravel its historical growth and compositional
layers. The oldest preserved parts of the text are
thought to be not much older than around 400 BCE,
though the origins of the epic probably fall between
the 8th and 9th centuries BCE.
77. (d) The land revenue during Gupta period was 1/6
to 1/4. The government revenue essentially came
from land as commercial activity was no longer as
big a contributor as it once was. Land revenue came
from a variety of sources, like direct tax on the land
as well as a tax on the produce of the land.
78. (a) Nalanda was the centre of higher education
during Gupta period. Nalanda, situated near
Rajgriha in Bihar, was probably the highest seat of
Buddhist learning. It was established as a Buddhist
monastery probably during the reign of Kumargupta
I (414445 A.D). A Buddhist tradition says that
Sakraditya established this centre of learning. It was
spread over an area of 1.6 km 0.8 km. It had about
1500 professors and 10,000 students. Such eminent
people as Panini, Jivaka and Chanakya are said to
have studied there.
79. (d) Gupta period is known as golden age of Indian
history, as they issued large number of gold coins.
80. (b) Dhanavantri was a physician. Dhanvantari is
depicted as Vishnu with four hands, holding medical
herbs in one hand and a pot containing rejuvenating
nectar called amrita in another. He is often shown
with a leech in his hand rather than the scriptures.
The Puranas state that Dhanavantari emerged from
the Ocean of Milk and appeared with the pot of
nectar during the story of the Samudra or Sagar
Manthan whilst the ocean was being churned by the
Devas and Asuras, using the Mandara mountain and
the serpent Vasuki.
History || A-57
81. (c) Brahmagupta declared the Law of Gravity
long before the Newtons Law. The great 7th century
Indian mathematician and astronomer Brahmagupta
wrote some important works on both mathematics
and astronomy. He was from the state of Rajasthan
of northwest India (he is often referred to as
Bhillamalacharya, the teacher from Bhillamala),
and later became the head of the astronomical
observatory at Ujjain in central India.
82. (d) Gold coins attributed to Harsha depict on
the reverse Shiva-Parvati. The Gupta period is
considered the Golden Age of classical India.
This was a time when great universities flourished
in Nalanda and Takshashila, and great writers, such
as the playwright Kalidasa, and great scientists, such
as the mathematician and astronomer Aryabhatta,
who is credited with the concept of zero among his
many achievements, helped create an atmosphere of
tremendous creative impulse.
83. (c) Dharampala credited with the establishment
of the Vikramashila Mahavihara. Vikramshila
Mahavihara was one of the two most important
centres of Buddhist learning in India during the Pala
dynasty. Established by king Dharmapala (783 to
820 CE), it is located about 50 km east of Bhagalpur
and about 13 km north-east of Kahalgaon railway
station on Bhagalpur-Sahebganj section of eastern
railway. The area is under the protected jurisdiction
of Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
84. (d) The famous commentator of Vedic literature,
associated with the Parmaras was Uvata. The
Parmar dynasty was an early medieval Indian royal
house that ruled over the Malwa region in central
India. This dynasty was founded by Upendra in c.
800; the most significant ruler was Bhoja I. The seat
of the Parmar kingdom was Dhangraja, the present
day Dhar city in Madhya Pradesh.
85. (a) Women had comparatively a greater participation
in administration under Chalukyas.Some women
from the royal family enjoyed political power
in administration. Queen Vijayanka was a noted
Sanskrit poetess, Kumkumadevi, the younger
sister of Vijayaditya (and queen of Alupa king
Chitravahana) made several grants and had a
Jain Basadi called Anesajjebasadi constructed at
Puligere.
A-58 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
86. (a) Vishakhadatta exposed evils of the
contemporary society by his satirical writings.
There is no unanimity among the authorities on the
date of Mudrarakshasa. However, majority of them
are in favour of assigning the composition of this
Sanskrit work to 4th5th centuries AD. The Minister
Signets Ring centres around the schemes of the
wily Chankya to frustrate the plots of Raksasa, the
minister of Dhanananda, the last ruler of the Nanda
dynasty.
87. (d) Senas considered themselves Brahma-
Kshatriya. Brahmakshatriya or Murdhabhishikta
is (a) a term applied in Hindu Varna division to
people who have a Brahmin father and a Kshatriya
mother; or (b) a term that applies, in the Hindu
Varna division, to a Brahmin who pursues royalty,
and hence concurrently adopts the Kshatriya Varna.
According to Manusmriti, such people are treated
equal to Brahmins. Parasurama is a classical
example of a Brahmakshatriya.
88. (c) The term Mandapika occurring in early
medieval inscriptions denotes rest house. When
there are several Mandapas in the temple, it is the
biggest and the tallest. It is used for conducting
religious discourses. Sometimes, the Mahamandapa
is also built along a transversal axis with a transept
(bumped-out portions along this transversal axis).
At the exterior, the transept ends by a large window
which brings light and freshness into the temple.
89. (d) Ballalasena assumed the title Nihsanka-
sankara. According to Sena epigraph, Ballal was an
author. He wrote Danasagara in 1168. And in 1169,
he started but did not finish writing Adbhutasagara.
In Adbhutasagara, it was mentioned that Ballalsen
conquered Mithila while Vijaysen was still alive.
Besides he introduced the practice of Kulinism.
90. (c) Jayasimha is the last king described in the
Rajatarangini of Kalhana. From this, comes Steins
deduction that Kalhana was not a part of the circle
surrounding Jayasimha, the ruling monarch at the
time when he was writing the Rajatarangini. Kalhana
was born to a Kashmiri minister, Canpaka, who
probably served king Harsa of the Lohara dynasty.
It is possible that his birthplace was Parihasapura
and his birth would have been very early in the 12th
century.
91. (a) Bhoja is considered to be the author of the
Sangitaraja. Amongst Rajput rulers, the flowering of
arts and culture during Kumbhas reign is exceeded
only by Bhoja Parmara (Bhoja I). Maharana
Kumbha is credited with writing the Sangitaraja,
the Rasika-priya commentary on the Gitagovinda,
the Sudaprabandha, and the Kamaraja-ratisara.
92. (d) Umed singh was the patron of the Kota School
of Painting. The Kota school of painting is one of
the finest examples of this technique. Kota paintings
are known for their depiction of nature and hunting
scenes. Painting comprises a very integral part of
Rajasthani culture. Woven into these splendid
visuals are images of everyday life of the olden
times. The development of miniature paintings has
been one of the most important contributions of
Rajasthan to Indian art.
93. (c) Mahmud of Ghazni was the foreign invaders
sacked the temple of Somnath. Mahmud began a
series of seventeen raids into northwestern India
at the end of the 10th century. Nonetheless, he did
not attempt to rule Indian territory except for the
Punjab, which was his gateway to India, as Ghazni
lay in present day Afghanistan.
94. (a) Rajashekhara, the author of Karpurmanjri
was the teacher of Mahendrapala I. Rajashekhara
was an eminent Sanskrit poet, dramatist and critic.
He was court poet of the Gurjara Pratiharas. He
wrote Kavyamimamsa between 880 and 920 CE.
The work is essentially a practical guide for poets
that explains the elements and composition of a
good poem. The fame of Rajashekhara rests firmly
on his play Karpuramanjari, written in Sauraseni
Prakrit.
95. (a) Dharampala established the Somapura
Mahavihara, a good educational centre of the time.
Somapura Mahavihra, or the Great Monastery,
was a renowned intellectual centre until the 12th
century. Its layout perfectly adapted to its religious
function, this monasterys city represents a unique
artistic achievement.
96. (a) Rajendra I was the Chola king and under
his reign Brihadishwar temple of Tanjore was
constructed. The worlds first complete granite
temple, the Brihadeshwara temple is a distinctive
example of temple architecture during the Tamil
Chola dynasty (ca. 3rd cen. BCE-1279 CE). This
temple was originally built during the early 9th
century CE by Rajaraja Chola I and dedicated to
Shiva.

97. (b) As mentioned by Hiuen Tsang, 10,000
students were studying in the Nalanda University.
Founded in the 5th Century AD, Nalanda is known
as the ancient seat of learning. 2,000 teachers and
10,000 students from all over the Buddhist world
lived and studied at Nalanda, the first Residential
International University of the World. A walk in the
ruins of the university, takes you to an era, that saw
India leading in imparting knowledge, to the world
the era when India was a coveted place for studies.
The University flourished during the 5th and 12th
century.
98. (c) Jayasimha Siddharaja had granted one lakh
balotras from his own treasury for the restoration of
a mosque of Khambhat. Jayasimha Siddharaja was
the greatest Chalukya king who, in commemoration
of his victory against the Paramaras, adopted the title
of Avantinatha. During the reign of Bhima II (1178-
1241), Muhammad Ghori made an unsuccessful
attempt to subjugate Gujarat in 1178 AD.
99. (d) None of the above had the title Amoghavarsha.
The Arab traveller Sulaiman described
Amoghavarsha as one of the four great kings of
the world. Sulaiman also wrote that Amoghavarsha
respected Muslims and that he allowed the
construction of mosques in his cities. Because of
his religious temperament, his interest in the arts
and literature and his peace-loving nature, historian
Panchamukhi has compared him to the emperor
Ashoka and given him the honorific Ashoka of the
South
100. (b) The evidence of water tax is provided by the
inscriptions of Gahadavalas The Gahadavalas
occupy a very important place in Indian history.
They ruled for over a century (AD 1089-1097),
over a vast region of North India, which extended
from the western bank of Yamuna in the west to
Patna, Monghyr and Bodhgaya in Bihar in the east.
It extended from the foothills of the Himalayas in
the north to Baghelkhanda in Madhya Pradesh in
the south.
101. (d) Elephant is not found inscribed on the cholas
coins. Rajendra Chola, the son of Rajaraja, is also
known as Gangaikonda Chola for his conquest of
many principalities in the Gangetic valley. On either
side of this coin is found a seated tiger along with
lamp-stand, a pair of fish and a bow. Below the
lamp-stand, is a two line Sanskrit legend Gangai
History || A-59
(ko) da Chola. The other side of this coin is similar
to the first side.
102. (d) A Chaitya Hall at Karle was built largely by the
donation of the Yavanas. The Chaitya at Karle is, by
far, the largest of the cave temples. It is situated at
Karle in Pune district of Maharashtra. It is said to
have been sculptured between 100125 AD. It is cut
off of a solid rock to a depth of about 124 feet. It is
40 metres long, 15 metres high and 15 metres broad.
Inside, there are 37 octagonal pillars of remarkable
beauty.
103. (c) Rajendra I of the Chola dynasty carried out
the first naval expedition against south-east Asia.
He conquered up to the banks of Ganges and
assumed the title of Gangaikonda (the victor
of the Ganges). He established a new capital and
named it Gangaikondacholapuram. The conquest of
the Andaman and Nicober islands was his greatest
achievement.
104. (b) Bakhtiyar Khalji destroyed the Nalanda
University in 1202 AD. The prince of perverts
Muhammad Bakhtiyar Khalji is a blot on the
human race. And yet the town of Bakhtiyarpur in
Bihar, close to the site of his cruel depredations,
bears his name. Bakhtiyar Khalji holds a pride of
place because, unlike the other Muslim marauders,
he was not content with destroying the areas he
traversed.
105. (c) Harsha has been criticised by Kalhana for
confiscating the temple. Harsha (r.1089-1111)
started out as a capable and noble king. Then ran
into financial trouble because of his spending habits,
and became an evil person. For the gold, he started
raiding temples and started destroying statues.
Harsha never felt himself as a Hindu king per se
as there was no people who felt themselves to be
Hindus in those days.
106. (c) The Kaibarta rebellion occurred in Bengal
during the reign of Mahipala II. Varendra rebellion
occurred during the reign of the Pala emperor
Mahipala II (c 1075-1080 AD) and resulted in his
death and the loss of Varendra (north Bengal) to
the Kaivarta chief Divya. Mahipala II is said to
have imprisoned his two brothers, Xurapala and
Ramapala, out of suspicion that Ramapala would
capture royal power. The possibility of a dynastic
trouble arising out of the ambition of a capable
younger brother cannot be altogether ruled out.
A-60 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
107. (a) Dantidurga, the Rashtrakuta rulers, is known
to have made the Hiranyagarbha-dana at Ujjaini.
Rashtrakutas were subordinate to the Chalukyas.
Dantidurga, a Rashtrakuta chief, threw his
Chalukyan overlord and performed Hiranya-garbha,
a ritual that is thought to lead to the rebirth of the
sacrificer as a Kshatriya. Dantidurga, thus, founded
the Rashtrakuta empire.
108. (c) Dramma coin name occurs in the Pratihara
inscriptions. Mihira Bhoja Is epithet was Srimad-
Adivaraha (the fortunate primeval boar incarnation
of Vishnu) and therefore there is a broad agreement
amongst the scholars on the attribution of Adivaraha
dramma billon coins to him. These coins have a
depiction of Adivaraha on the obverse.
109. (a) Gahadavalas levied Turushka-danda.
Gahadavala dynasty rule of the district is proved by
the discovery at Kudarkot of a copper plate grant
dated in the reign of Chandradeva. Chandradeva
founded the Gahadavala dynasty at Kanyakubja
after defeating a chief named Gopala of Tuar clan.
His jurisdiction extended over nearly all of what is
modern Uttar Pradesh including this district.
110. (d) Chachnamah provides a vivid description
of Sindh. The Chachnamah was written by Kazi
Ismail. Kazi Ismail was appointed the first Kazi of
Alor by Muhammad Kasim after the conquest of the
Sindh. It was translated into Persian by Muhammad
Ali bin Hamid bin Abu Bakr Kufi in 1216 CE from
an earlier Arabic text. At one time, it was considered
to be a romance until Mountstuart Elphinstones
observations of its historical veracity. The original
work in Arabic is believed to have been composed
by the Sakif family, the kinsmen of Muhammad bin
Qasim.
111. (d) The ethnic composition of the armies of
Ghaznavids did not invalue the Greeks. The eastern
part of the later Roman empire, dating from AD
330 when Constantine I rebuilt Byzantium and
made it his capital. Its extent varied greatly over
the centuries, but its core remained the Balkan
Peninsula and Asia Minor. The empire collapsed
when Constantinople fell to the Ottoman Turks in
1453.
112. (c) Rajendra I was ruling the Chola kingdom at the
time of Mahmud Ghaznis expedition of Somnath.
Rajendra Chola I was the son of Rajaraja Chola
I, the great Chola king of present day southern
India. He succeeded his father in 1014 CE as the
Chola emperor. During his reign, he extended the
influences of the already vast Chola empire up to the
banks of the river Ganges in the north and across the
ocean.
113. (b) Gangai Kondacholapuram became the
administrative centre of the Cholas from the time of
Rajendra I. His empire extended the whole of southern
India to river Thungabathra in the north India, for
administrative and strategic purpose he built another
capital and named Gangaikondacholapuram. The
Gangaikondacholapuram temple, he constructed,
consists of 3 stories and surrounded by a huge fort
like wall, the outer wall was greatly destructed
during the English rule (1896 AD).
114. (a) The Chola rulers were generally the
worshippers of Shiva. A number of mythical heroes
and demi-gods found their place in the ancestry
claimed by the later Cholas in the long mythical
genealogies incorporated into the copper-plate
charters and stone inscription of the tenth and
eleventh centuries. The earliest version of this is
found in the Anbil Plates which gives fifteen names
before Vijayalaya Chola including the genuinely
historical ones of Karikala, Perunarikalli and
Kocengannan.
115. (c) Rajasekharas marriage to Avantisundari is an
example of Anuloma-marriage. During the Vedic
Age, inter-class marriages used to take place in the
form of Anuloma marriage. Anuloma marriage is a
social practice according to which a boy from upper
Varna/caste/class can marry a girl from lower varna/
caste/class.
116. (a) Ajayaraja shifted the Chahamana capital
from Sambhar to Ajmer. Arnorajas fight against
Turushka, i.e. the Yaminis of Lahore and Ghazna
was inheritance from his father Ajayaraja who
perhaps never succeeded in recovering Nagaur
from Muslims. Very early in Arnorajas reign, the
Muslims had reached as far as Ajmer. In the battle
that followed on the plain outside the city, the
Yamini commander was decisively beaten and fled
before the pursuing Chauhana.
117. (d) Kumardevi, the queen of Govindachandra
Gahadavala, constructed Dharmachakrajinavihar
at Sarnath. Kumaradevi, the Buddhist queen of the
great Gahadavala king Govindrachandra of Kashi
(CE 1114-1154). All the halls and apartments of the

monks have disappeared. This monastery had two
gateways towards the east, there being a distance
of 88.45 m between the two. At the western most
edge of the site, a distinct covered passage leads to
a small medieval shrine.
118. (a) Mohammad Ghori issued the coins with seated
Lakshmi on one side and rulers name in Devanagri
on the other. These were revived by Gangeyadeva
the Kalachuri ruler who issued the Seated Lakshmi
Coins which were copied by later rulers both
in gold as well as in debase form. The Bull &
Horseman types of coins were the most common
motif appearing on coins struck by the Rajput clans.
In western India, imported coins like the Byzantine
Solidi were often used reflecting trade with the
Eastern Roman Empire.
119. (a) The Huna princess Avalladevi was the queen
of Gangeyadeva. Their son Allata married a Huna
princess named Hariyadevi. The Jabbalpore
copper-plate inscription of Yasahkarnadeva,
of the Kalachuri dynasty of Chedi 17 describes
Yasahkarnadeva as the son of king Karnadeva and
Avalladevi, a Huna princess.
120. (b) The Kirtistambha at Chittor was built by
Rana Kumbha.The Kirtistambha (tower of fame)
dedicated to Lord Adinath was constructed by
Baghervala merchant Sah Jija by using Nija-
bhujoparjita, i.e. self-earned money, according
to an inscription by his great-grandson who had
the monument repaired in 1489. The exact date of
building of the Kirti-stambha is not known. Some
believe that Sah Jija had an older tower rebuilt,
perhaps from 12th cent.
121. (b) Harsha had assumed the title Parama-
Maheswara. An early copper plate grant of king
Dantidurga (753) shows an image of god Shiva and
the coins of his successor, king Krishna I (768),
bear the legend Parama-Maheshwara (another name
for Shiva). The kings titles such as Veeranarayana
showed their Vaishnava leanings. Their flag had
the sign of the Ganges and Yamuna rivers, perhaps
copied from the Badami Chalukyas.
122. (a) The Chola rulers were generally Saivites.
Among the existing specimens in museums around
the world and in the temples of South India may be
seen many fine figures of Shiva in various forms,
such as Vishnu and his consort Lakshmi, and the
Saivaite saints. Though conforming generally to
History || A-61
the iconographic conventions established by long
tradition, the sculptors worked with great freedom
in the 11th and the 12th centuries to achieve a classic
grace and grandeur. The best example of this can be
seen in the form of Nataraja the Divine Dancer.
123. (c) Kumargupta took strong steps to stop
gambling in his state. As because of gambling, there
were various crimes spread in society. For that he
appointed some persons in different regions to give
report of illegal acts.
124. (a) The Turkish brought with them musical
instruments Rabab and Sarangi. During this time,
the music of North India began to acquire and
adapt to the presence of Persian language, music,
and musical instruments, such as the Setar, from
which the Sitar got its name; the Kemancheh and
Santur, which became popular in Kashmir; and the
Rabab [alternately known as Rebab and Rubab],
which preceded the Sarod. New instruments were
introduced, including the Tabla and Sitar.
125. (c) Jonaraja, in his Rajatarangini continued
the historical narration of Kalhana up to Sultan
Zainul Abidin. Rajatarangini, which consists of
7,826 verses, is divided into eight books. Book
I attempts to weave imaginary tales of Kashmir
kings into epic legends. Gonanda was the first king
and a contemporary and enemy of the Hindu deity
Krishna.
126. (c) Medhatithi is famous for his commentary on
Manusmriti. Medhtithi is one of the oldest and
most famous commentators on the Manusmriti,
more commonly known as the Laws of Manu. The
Manusmriti text is a part of the Hindu Dharmasas
tradition, which attempts to record the laws of
Dharma.
127. (d) Harshas military expansion in the Deccan was
checked by Pulkesin II.When Pulikeshi II pushed
forth up to the Narmada, he came face to face with
Harshavardhana of Kanauj who already had the title
Uttarapatheshvara (Lord of the north). In a decisive
battle fought on the banks of the river Narmada,
Harsha lost a major part of his elephant force and
had to retreat. The Aihole inscription describes how
the mighty Harsha lost his harsha (joy) when he
suffered the ignominy of defeat.
128. (d) The first meeting of Ghosal with Mahavir
Swami was held at Nalanda. Parsva, the traditional
predecessor of Mahavira is the first Jain figure for
A-62 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
whom there is reasonable historical evidence. He
might have lived somewhere in the 9th7th century
BCE. Followers of Parsva are mentioned in the
canonical books; and a legend in the Uttardhyayana
stra relates a meeting between a disciple of Parsva
and a disciple of Mahavira which brought about the
union of the old branch of the Jain church and the
new one.
129. (a) Rashtrakutas adopted Garuda as dynastic
emblem after the imperial Gupta. Silver coins
of the Gupta kings Chandragupta II and his son
Kumargupta I adopted the Western Satrap design
(itself derived from the Indo-Greeks) with bust
of the ruler and pseudo-Greek inscription on the
obverse, and a royal eagle (Garuda, the dynastic
symbol of the Guptas) replacing the Chaitya hill
with star and crescent on the reverse.
130. (c) The North Indian dynasties that confronted the
Rashtrakutas were the Pratiharas and the Palas.The
Pratiharas are believed to be the clan of Rajputs.
The greatest ruler of the Pratihara dynasty was
Mihir Bhoja. He recovered Kanauj (Kanyakubja)
by 836, and it remained the capital of the Pratiharas
for almost a century. The Pratihara dynasty started
well under the ruler Nagabhatta-I. Though initially
he had hiccups with the Rashtrakutas, he was able to
leave behind a strong State comprising Malwa, parts
of Rajputana and Gujarat
131. (d) Niralamba Saraswati thus lamented a poet at
the demise of Bhoj Paramara. Raja Bhoja of Dhar
was a philosopher king and polymath of medieval
India. He was from the Paramara dynasty of Arya,
who ruled the kingdom of Malwa in Central India
from about 1010 to 1060. On his demise, a poet
lamented Adya Dhara Niradhara, Niralamba
Saraswati Panditah Khanditah Sarve Bhojraje
Divam Gate.
132. (a) Vikramshila Mahavihara was one of the two
most important centres of Buddhist learning in
India during the Pala dynasty. Established by King
Dharmapala (783 to 820 CE), it is located about 50
km east of Bhagalpur and about 13 km north-east of
Kahalgaon railway station on Bhagalpur-Sahebganj
section of eastern railway. The area is under the
protected jurisdiction of Archaeological Survey of
India (ASI).
133. (c) Kailashnatha temples do not belong to the
Cholas. King Rajasimha, of the Pallava dynasty,
built this Shiva temple in the early 8th century. It
is an early structural temple, built of sandstone, and
partly renovated in recent times. The modest scale
of the temple, and the closeness of its enclosing
wall, lend a feeling of intimacy to the surroundings.
Kailasanatha contains in embryo many of the
features of the rapidly emerging South Indian style:
gopuras, pilastered walls, a pyramidal Shikhara, and
a perimeter wall enclosing the complex.
134. (d) Rajput rulers Jaisingh Siddharaj gave donation
for the reconstruction of a mosque. Siddhraj is said
to have ascended the throne of Patan after the death
of his Father Karandev. Patans condition was worse
in the last days of Karandev. The successors from
his grandfather Bhimdevs first wife Bauladevi tried
their best to acquire the throne from child Jaysingh.
His mother Minaldevi, Maha mantri Santu and
Munjal Mehta initially played a great part to deter
the internal revolt and in establishing his rule and
stability to Patan in Gujarat.
135. (d) Chola dynasty is meant by Arab writers when
they say that the women did not cover their faces with
veil. This clan came to be known as the Rashtrakutas
of Manyakheta, rising to power in South India in
753. At the same time, the Pala dynasty of Bengal
and the Pratihara dynasty of Malwa were gaining
force in eastern and northwestern India respectively.
An Arabic writing Silsilatuttavarikh (851) called the
Rashtrakutas one of the four principal empires of
the world.
136. (a) Kulotinga I Chola ruler had persecuted
Ramanuja and ousted him from his kingdom.
Ramanuja was the contemporary of Kulothunga II.
It is Kulothunga II who banished Ramanuja from
Tamil country and the latter had to seek refuge
in Melkote, Karnataka. Hence even bringing
Ramunaja into Athirajendras death would cause
more confusion. Till Kulothunga II, all the Chola
kings and emperors supported all the religions
equally although they were staunch Saivaites.
137. (b) Harshacharita refers to pushyabhuti as the
founder of the Vardhana dynasty. Prabhakara
Vardhana, the ruler of Sthanvisvara, who belonged
to the Pushyabhuti family, extended his control over
neighbouring states. Prabhakara Vardhana was the
first king of the Vardhana dynasty with his capital at
Thaneswar.

138. (d) Rajadhiraja I received a letter on golden leaves
from the Burmese king Kyansittha. Kyansittha
strengthened the foundations of Pagan empire
which Anawrahta had built. Although he suppressed
the Mon rebellion, he pursued a conciliatory policy
towards the Mon. Having spent seven years in the
Mon country in exile, the king had great respect for
the Mon culture, and kept Mon scholars at his court.
139. (c) Ur was the primary village assembly in the
Chola village administration. Every village was
a self-governing unit. A number of such villages
constituted a Korram in different parts of the
country. Taniyur was a large village big enough
to be a Kurram by itself. A number of Kurrams
constituted a Valanadu. Several Valanadus made
up one Mandalam, a province. At the height of the
Chola empire, there were eight or nine of these
provinces including Sri Lanka. These divisions and
names underwent constant changes throughout the
Chola period.
140. (a) A Chalukya inscription is dated in the year
556 of the Saka era. Its equivalent to 478 AD.
This undated inscription belongs to the reign of the
Chalukaya king Vijayaditya Satyasraya. It registers
the grant of 20 mattars of red soil, amattar of wet
land and 2 mattars of garden land to Talereyar
by Vikramaditya, the uncle of Banarja, when the
latter was ruling Turamara-vishaya as the kings
feudatory. It also states that Vikramaditya had the
birudas Taruna-Vasantan and Samanta-kesari and
that he was ruling Ayiradi. The inscription was
written by Singutti.
141. (d) Vikramshila Mahavihar was established by the
ruler of pala dynasty. Pala Dynasty was the ruling
dynasty in Bihar and Bengal, from the 8th to the
12th century. Called the Palas because all their
names ended in Pala, protector, the Palas rescued
Bengal from the chaos into which it had fallen after
the death of Shashanka, a rival of Harsha of Kanauj.
The founder of the dynasty was Gopala.
142. (a) Rashtrakuta constructed the Ellora Kailash
Temple. Kailash Temple is situated near the village
of Ellora, 30 km from Aurangabad. The temple is
considered as one of the most astonishing buildings
in the history of architecture. This is one of the
largest 34 excavations at Ellora, which took almost
a century. Kailash Temple is dedicated to Lord
Shiva. The idol measures 109 feet wide by 164 feet
long.
History || A-63
143. (d) The Lakshman Era was started by Senas
dynasty. Vijaysen the second ruler of this dynasty
defeated the last Pala emperor Madanapala and
established his reign. Ballal Sena introduced caste
system in Bengal and made Nabadwip the capital.
The fourth king of this dynasty Lakshman Sena
expanded the empire beyond Bengal to Bihar,
Assam, Orissa and probably to Varanasi.
144. (d) Kumaradevi, a queen of Govindachandra
Gahadavala, constructed Dharmachakra-Jina
Vihara at Sarnath. Monastery lying 232 m from
east to west and occupied by a central block of
buildings, Dharmachakra Jina Vihara was the gift
of Kumaradevi, the Buddhist queen of the great
Gahadavala king Govindrachandra of Kashi (CE
1114-1154). All the halls and apartments of the
monks have disappeared.
145. (b) Chalukya dynasties were frequently assigned
to the ladies high ranking positions in administration.
During this period, the society became increasingly
sophisticated. The status of women was varied.
Some royal women were involved in administrative
matters as shown in contemporary records describing
Queen Umadevis administration of Halebidu in the
absence of Veera Ballala II during his long military
campaigns in northern territories.
146. (a) Harshacharita was not composed by
Harshavardhana. The Harshacharita ranks as the
first historical biography in Sanskrit although it is
written in a florid and fanciful style. Banas detailed
and vivid descriptions of rural Indias natural
environment as well as the extraordinary industry
of the Indian people exudes the vitality of life at
that time. Since he received the patronage of the
emperor Harsha, his descriptions of his patron are
not an unbiased appraisal and present the emperors
actions in an overly favourable light.
147. (c) In Harshavardhana court, a Chinese embassy
was sent by Tang emperor. The Tang dynasty was
formed in 618 due to the failed exhibitions to Korea
by the Sui, which had led to conflicts in the north
of China. The Tangs founder, Li Yuan was a rebel
from an aristocratic family (traced from the Han)
that was influential under the Northern Zhou. The
Tang took some time to establish, in part due to a
rebellion in 617 that took several years to succeed
with the help of the Turks.
A-64 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
148. (c) The Rock-cut temples of Mahabalipuram
were built under the patronage of the Pallava kings.
Mahabalipuram lies on the Coromandel coast which
faces the Bay of Bengal. This is an elegant place to
watch which was a well-established sea port during
the 7th and 10th centuries of the Pallava dynasty.
This was the second capital of the Pallavas who
ruled Kanchipuram.
149. (b) Harshacharita was written by Banabhatta.
Banabhatta was born around the 7th century in a
village in India. He was born in Pritikuta village,
which was situated on the banks of Hiranyavahu.
This village used to exist in the district, which is
now called, Chhapra. He was born to Chitrabhanu
and Rajadevi and his was a family of Vatsyayana
Gotra. Born in a Brahman family, he was a poor
but a clever child. Even during his childhood, he
showed signs of great potential and finished his
education with much dedication and hard work.
150. (a) The religious conference was held by
king Harshavardhana at Kannauj and Prayag. A
courier brought the distressing intelligence that
Grahavarman, king of Kanauj, and husband of
Rajyasri, sister of the princes, had been slain by the
King of Malwa, who cruelly misused the princess,
confining her like a brigands wife, with a pair
of iron fetters kissing her feet. The young king,
resolute to avenge his sisters wrongs, started at
once with a mobile force of ten thousand cavalry,
leaving the elephants and heavy troops behind in his
brothers charge.
151. (a) Tai Tsung sent Hiuen-Tsang as envoy to
Harshas court. According to the Chinese pilgrim
Xuanzang, who visited his kingdom in 636, Harsha
built numerous Stupas in the name of Buddha.
Xuanzang entered a grand competition organized
by Harsha and won the theological debate. Harsha
also became a patron of art and literature. He made
numerous endowments to the University at Nalanda.
152. (c) Karnaswarna was the capital of Sasanka.Hiuen-
Tsang gives a graphic description of Karnasarna,
which acquaints us with the locality and its people.
According to him, the country was well inhabited
and the people were very rich. The land was low
and moist, farming operations were regular, flowers
and fruits were abundant, the climate was temperate
and the people were of good character and were
patrons of learning. This description indicates the
prosperous state of the country.
153. (b) Emperor Harshas southward march was
stopped on the Narmada river by Pulkesin
II.When Pulakesin II (c. ad 610-643), eldest son of
Kirtivarman, came of age, he claimed the throne at
Vatapi but was resisted by his uncle, Mangalesa.
With the assistance of his brothers Vishnuvardhana
and Jayasimha, Pulakesin defeated and killed
Mangalesa and ascended the throne in c. ad 610.
154. (d) Chandela built the Khajuraho temples.
Chandela, also spelled Candella, Rajput clan of Gond
origin that for some centuries ruled Bundelkhand
in north-central India and fought against the early
Muslim invaders. The first Chandela is thought to
have ruled early in the 9th century CE. Chandela
dominion extended from the Yamuna (Jumna) river
in the north to the region of Saguar (now Sagar) and
from the Dhasan river in the west to the Vindhya
hills.
155. (a) Arabs were defeated by Pratiharas in 738 AD.
Indian inscriptions confirm this invasion but record
the Arab success only against the smaller states in
Gujarat. They also record the defeat of the Arabs at
two places. The southern army moving south into
Gujarat was repulsed at Navsari by the south Indian
emperor Vikramaditya II of the Chalukya dynasty
and Rashtrakutas.
156. (d) The Dilwara temple is located at Mount Abu.
It seems fairly basic temple from outside but the
interior showcases the extraordinary work of human
craftsmanship at its best. These temples were built
between 11th to 13th century AD. The beautiful
lush green hills surrounding the temple gives a very
pleasant feeling.
157. (a) Sankaracharya founded the four Mathas
in the four corners of India. Shankara was born
at Kaladi in Kerala as a result of austerities and
earnest prayers of his childless parents to Lord
Shiva. Shankaras father Shivaguru and mother
Aryambal were Namboodiri Brahmin couples who
led a holy life performing Vedic rituals ordained for
a householder. However, they were childless.
158. (a) The Lingaraja temple built during the medieval
period is at Bhubaneshwar. The Lingaraj temple
the largest of these is an outstanding specimen of
the Orissa style of temple building. It is about a
thousand years old. Bhubaneshwar, Konarak and
Puri constitute the Golden triangle of Orissa, visited
in large numbers by pilgrims and tourists.

159. (c) The presiding diety of Bhojsala temple is
goddess Saraswati. Bhojshala is one of the most
significant monuments of Madhya Pradesh as a
whole as it spots the land of Dhar. It is an ancient
monument that had been dedicated to goddess
Saraswati. This was the only temple that was
dedicated to this deity of the Hindu cult.
160. (c) Gopuram is not a feature of north Indian temple
architecture. In the north, the Shikhara remains
the most prominent element of the temple and the
gateway is usually modest. In the south, enclosure
walls were built around the whole complex and
along these walls, ideally set along the east-west and
north-south axes, elaborate and often magnificent
gateways called Gopurams led the devotees into the
sacred courtyard.
161. (b) Rath temples of Mahabalipuram were built in
the reign of Narasinghvarman I. There are about
nine monolithic temples at Mahabalipuram. They
are the unique contribution of the Pallavas to Indian
art. The monolithic temples are called locally as
Ratha (chariot) as they resemble the processional
chariots of a temple. The five Rathas, the best of all
monolithic temples, are hewn out of a huge boulder.
162. (b) Rajaraja I the Chola Kings conquered Ceylon
(Sinhal) first. Rajaraja began his career by the
conquest of the Chera country. He defeated
Chera king Bhaskara Ravivarman, whose fleet he
destroyed in the port of Kandalur. He also seized
Pandya Amara Bhujanga and captured the port of
Vilinam. By his campaign against the Singhalees
he annexed northern Ceylon, building a number of
stone temples in the Ceylonese capital Polonnaruva.
163. (a) The seven Pagodas of Mahabalipuram are
a witness to the art patronised by the Pallavas.
Interestingly, it is documented in Carta Cartalana,
a 14th century Spanish world map as Setemelti
referring to Sette Templi, the obvious reference to
the Seven Shore temples, of which only one exists
today.
164. (d) The famous Kailash temple is located at
Ellora. The Kailash temple is notable for its vertical
excavationcarvers started at the top of the original
rock, and excavated downward. The traditional
methods were rigidly followed by the master
architect which could not have been achieved by
excavating from the front.
History || A-65
165. (c) The famous idol of Gomateshwar and famous
Jain temple is situated at Sravanbelgola. From
Mangalore to Karkala is the Jain temple and the
giant statue of lord Gomateshwara. This nude statue
of Bhagban Bahubali attracts thousands of foreign
visitors because of its beautiful carvings. The statue
is situated on top of a rock in the centre of the town,
so one needs to take up the flight of rocky steps to
reach the statue.
166. (a) Ramayanam the Tamil version of the
great epic Ramayana was made by Kamban.
Ramavataram, popularly referred to as Kamba
Ramayanam, is a Tamil epic that was written by
Kamban during the 12th century. Based onValmikis
Ramayana in Sanskrit, the story describes the life of
king Rama of Ayodhya. However, Ramavataram is
different from the Sanskrit original in many aspects
both in spiritual concepts and in the specifics of
the story line.
167. (c) Mahavastu is not a work on architecture.
Mahavastu is more refined version of Vastu Shastra.
Vastu Shastra being a very old subject didnt have a
proper procedure to apply the beneficial wisdom in
modern lifestyle. Due to lack of proper research and
documentation of results, it has never been possible
to give it a scientific working procedure.
168. (c) Nivartana was a land measure containing 400
square poles of ten cubits each, according to the
Lilavati.
169. (c) Rajashekhara has mentioned the river Narmada
as the dividing line between Aryavarta and
Dakshinapatha. Sanskrit literature names as the
dividing-line between Aryavarta or the Uttarapatha
and the Dakshinapatha, i.e. between northern and
southern India, sometimes the Vindhya mountains,
sometimes the river Nerbudda (Narmada, Narbada)
which, flowing close along the south of the Vindhya
range, empties itself into the gulf of Cambay near
Broach, in Gujarat.
170. (b) Sugandhadevi who issued coins with the
figure of seated Lakshmi was a queen of Kashmir.
The auspicious markings on Srimati Radharanis
lotus feet include the signs of the conchshell, moon,
elephant, barleycorn, rod for controlling elephants,
chariot flag, small drum, svastika and fish.
A-66 || Gupta and Post Gupta Period
171. (b) Nimbarakacharya believed in the theory
of Bheda-abheda. Sri Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
amalgamated the views of all the previous Acaryas
in his thesis of Acintya-bhedabheda Tattva explicitly
explained by Sri Baladeva Vidyabhusana in his
Govinda Bhasya of the Vedanta-sutra.
172. (a) Adhaka is the smallest measure. Equal
attention is given to the measurement of time, based
on the device named the Nalika, being the time
taken for one Adhaka of water to flow out of a pot
through a hole of the same diameter as that of a wire
4 angulas long, made from 4 masas of gold.
173. (d) Astangasangraha is a text on medicine. This
book Astanga Sangraha of Acarya Vagbhata is an
ancient authoritative text on Ayurveda studies many
centuries by students, scholars and practitioners
of Indian medicine. Because of its archaic style of
composition and terse language certain amount of
difficulty is being experienced.
174. (b) Kanauj was known as Mahodaya. Kannuaj
remained a focal point for the three powerful
dynasties, namely the Gurjara Pratiharas, Palas and
Rashtrakutas, between the 8th and 10th centuries.
The conflict between the three dynasties has been
referred to as the Tripartite struggle by many
historians.
175. (d) Vaital Deul, the Odishan temples, has a
Shikhar of Dravidian style.Vaital Deul temple is a
eight century temple situated near Bindu Sarovar
where main deity is Chamunda, the Tantric form of
goddess Durga.
176. (d) Trayipurusha temple at Salotgi was a well
known centre of higher education. Shri Narayan,
minister to the Rastrakulta king of South India,
constructed a temple in Salotgi ( Bijapur ) which
in the twelfth century became a centre for Vedic
education. Many buildings were built there for
students to stay in. A description of this says that
five hundred acres of land were donated ( Epigraphia
India ) for classrooms, lodging and boarding.
 5
Ancient History
(Miscellaneous)
1. The credit of the discovery of the first Palaeolith in
India which opened the field of prehistoric studies
in the country goes to
(a) Burkitt
(b) De Terra and Paterson
(c) Robert Bruce Foote
(d) H D Sankalia
2. The temple of Angkorwat in Combodia was
dedicated to
(a) Buddha (b) Tara
(c) Shiva (d) Vishnu
3. Who among the following is known to have
regulated the course of Vitasta in Kashmir by his
engineering operations?
(a) Vajraditya (b) Damodargupta
(c) Sura (d) Suyya
4. From which of the following regions, the remains
of Palaeolithic, Mesolithic and Neolithic cultures
have been found in a sequence?
(a) Kashmir valley (b) Krishna valley
(c) Belan valley (d) Godavary valley
5. How many of the sixteen Mahajanapadas were
situated in the Ganga valley?
(a) 8 (b) 9
(c) 10 (d) 11
6. By which ruler Pataliputra was chosen for the first
time as a capital?
(a) Bimbisara (b) Ajatsatru
(c) Udayin (d) Sisunaga
7. In which Indian state, Inamgam is located?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Andhra Pradesh
8. In which Mahajanapada was situated the city of
Mahishmati?
(a) Asmaka (b) Avanti
(c) Matsya (d) Vatsa
9. The Sangam text Tolkappiyam is a work on
(a) Astronomy (b) Grammar
(c) Music (d) Medicine
10. Which among the following dynasties is not
mentioned in the Sangam literature?
(a) Chola (b) Chera
(c) Pandya (d) Pallava
11. Which one of the following texts describes the
difficult sea voyage of Indian merchants to Kataha
island?
(a) Periplus of the Erythriyan Sea
(b) Samaraichchakaha
(c) Baveru Jataka
(d) Milindapanho
12. A Homo erectus skull was found at one of the
following sites
(a) Hathnora in Narmada valley
(b) Hoshangabad in Narmada valley
(c) Baghor in Son valley
(d) Bansghat in Belan valley
13. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian
subcontinent has been obtained from
(a) Brahmagiri (b) Chirand
(c) Mehargarh (d) Burzahom
14. Robert Bruce Foote, who discovered first
Palaeolithic tool in India, was originally a
(a) Palaeobotanist (b) Geologist
(c) Archaeologist (d) Historian
15. Who among the following had introduced
Vaishnavism in Kamrupa?
(a) Chaitanya (b) Purandra Dasa
(c) Ramanuja (d) Shankaradeva
A-68 || Ancient History (Miscellaneous)
16. In which type of marriage, payment of bride price
was a condition?
(a) Aasura (b) Brahma
(c) Davia (d) Gandharva
17. Who among the following was considered to be
first successor for Stridhana?
(a) Husband (b) Son
(c) Daughter (d) Daughter in law
18. Who among the following scholars established
Vajrayana sect of Buddhism in Tibet?
(a) Shanta Rakshita (b) Padma Sambhava
(c) Dharm Raksha (d) Kumarajiva
19. Tiruvachakam, which occupies a place in Tamil
sacred literature analogous to the Upanishads,
contains the compositions of
(a) Sambandar (b) Appar
(c) Sundar (d) Manikkavachakar
20. Jeevak the royal physician of Rajgrih was the son
of the Ganika named as
(a) Shalwati (b) Ramaniya
(c) Basantsena (d) Amrapali
21. Which one of the following sites is famous for
prehistoric paintings?
(a) Bagh (b) Ajanta
(c) Bhimbetka (d) Amrawati
22. The earliest evidence of Silk in India comes from
the archaeological site of
(a) Bhagwanpura (b) Nevasa
(c) Rangpur (d) Ropar
23. Which one of the following Janapadas was
republican state in sixth century BC?
(a) Kosala (b) Anga
(c) Mayadha (d) Vajji
24. Dogs were buried in human burials at
(a) Gufkral (b) Burzahom
(c) Martand (d) Mehargarh
25. Ash mounds are related to the Neolithic culture
of
(a) Eastern India 35. In ancient India, the earliest capital of Magadha
(b) South India
(c) Northern Vindhyas (a) Pataliputra (b) Rajgir
(d) Kashmir valley
26. Who among the following was the Tamil poet in
Sangam age from Sri Lanka?
(a) Gajabahu
(b) Eelattu Poothanthevnar
(c) Ilambodhiyar
(d) Tetradaran
27. In the early period of Indian history, Tondi was a
flourishing seaport of
(a) Cheras (b) Cholas
(c) Pandyas (d) Andhras
28. Which of the following texts supplies evidence for
polyandry?
(a) Manimekalai (b) Silppadikaram
(c) Mahabharat (d) Ramayana
29. Ancient Pushkalavati has been identified with
(a) Balkh (b) Charsadda
(c) Hadda (d) Sirkap
30. The mention of Ayodhya occurs for the first time
in
(a) Rigveda (b) Atharvaveda
(c) Ramayana (d) Mahabharata
31. Which of the following is not a Buddhist writing?
(a) Baveru Jataka (b) Dasarath Jataka
(c) Sibi Jataka (d) Yavana Jataka
32. The area between rivers Saraswati and Drisadvati
has been defined by the Manusmriti as
(a) Aryavarta (b) Brahmavarta
(c) Brahmarshidesa (d) Saptasaindhava
33. An upper Palaeolithic Mother Goddess made of
bone has been obtained from
(a) Godavari valley (b) Narmada valley
(c) Son valley (d) Belan valley
34. The Indian king who opposed Alexander was
(a) Ambhi
(b) Porus
(c) Dhanananda
(d) Chandragupta Maurya
kingdom was at
(c) Vaishali (d) Nalanda

36. By whom, the first republic of the world was
established in Vaishali?
(a) Maurya (b) Nand
(c) Lichhavi (d) Gupta
37. Mahajanapada situated on the bank of river
Godawari was
(a) Avanti (b) Vatsa
(c) Asmaka (d) Kamboja
38. The list of sixteen Mahajanapadas is available in
(a) Mahabharata
(b) Chhandogya Upanishad
(c) Samyukta Nikaya
(d) Anguttar Nikaya
39. Who was the founder of Nanda dynasty?
(a) Bimbisar (b) Dhanananda
(c) Ramananda (d) Mahapadamananda
40. When Alexander invaded India, who were the
rulers of Magadha?
(a) Haryankas (b) Shishunagas
(c) Nandas (d) Mauryas
41. Who among the following discovered the
Monsoon?
(a) Herodotus (b) Hippalus
(c) Homer (d) Ptotemy
42. Who of the following has been compared to
Parashuram in the Puranas?
(a) Kharavela
(b) Gautamiputra Satakarni
(c) Pushyamitra Sunga
(d) Mahapadma Nanda
43. Which of the following was not an ancient seaport?
(a) Tamralipti (b) Bhrigukachchha
(c) Vidisha (d) Shurparaka
44. The Third Tamil Sangam was held at
(a) Tanjore (b) Madurai
(c) Kanjeevaram (d) Mahabalipuram
45. Who was the founder of Kaveripattanam?
(a) Karikal (b) Rajraja
(c) Senguttuvan (d) None of these
46. Which of the following is called The Bible of
Tamil?
(a) Tolkappiyam (b) Silappadikaram
(c) Manimekalai (d) Kural
History || A-69
47. Which of the following were the patrons of
Sangam, an assembly of Tamil poets?
(a) Cheras (b) Cholas
(c) Pandyas (d) Kadambas
48. Who was the president of third Tamil Sangam?
(a) Nakkirara (b) Agustya
(c) Tolkappiyara (d) Kapilara
49. In sixth century BC, Suktimati was the capital
of
(a) Panchala (b) Kuru
(c) Chedi (d) Avanti
50. The southern most Mahajanapada was
(a) Avanti (b) Asmaka
(c) Chedi (d) Matsya
51. Name of the Mahajanapada, which was a
confederacy of eight republican clans?
(a) Vatsa (b) Magadha
(c) Vajji (d) Malla
52. The earliest inscriptions were written in which
language?
(a) Pali (b) Prakrit
(c) Sanskrit (d) Tamil
53. Which of these epics is also known as Satasahsri
Samhita?
(a) Ramayana (b) Mahabharata
(c) Rigveda (d) Manusmriti
54. Where did the game of Chess originated?
(a) India (b) Persia
(c) Arabia (d) Europe
55. The subject matter of Ajanta paintings pertains to
(a) Jainism (b) Buddhism
(c) Vaishnavism (d) Shaivism
56. Periya Puranam is a work on
(a) Bengal Vaishnavism
(b) Tamil Saivism
(c) Kashmir Saivism
(d) Ujjain Saktism
57. The story of the transformation of a dancing girl
into a Buddhist nun is narrated in
(a) Silappadikaram (b) Tolkappiyam
(c) Paripadal (d) Manimekhalai
A-70 || Ancient History (Miscellaneous)

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 9. (b) 17. (c) 25. (b) 33. (d) 41. (b) 49. (c) 57. (d)
2. (d) 10. (d) 18. (b) 26. (c) 34. (b) 42. (d) 50. (b)
3. (d) 11. (b) 19. (d) 27. (a) 35. (b) 43. (c) 51. (c)
4. (c) 12. (a) 20. (a) 28. (c) 36. (c) 44. (b) 52. (a)
5. (c) 13. (c) 21. (c) 29. (b) 37. (c) 45. (a) 53. (b)
6. (c) 14. (b) 22. (b) 30. (a) 38. (d) 46. (d) 54. (a)
7. (a) 15. (d) 23. (d) 31. (d) 39. (d) 47. (c) 55. (b)
8. (b) 16. (a) 24. (b) 32. (b) 40. (c) 48. (a) 56. (b)

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Robert Bruce Foote was a British geologist and
archaeologist who conducted geological surveys
of prehistoric locations in India for the Geological
Survey of India.
2. (d) The temple of Angkorwat in Combodia was
dedicated to Vishnu, the supreme god of Hinduism.
The temple was built by the Khmer king Suryavarman II
in the early 12th century.
3. (d) Suyya is known by his engineering operations,
regulated the course of the Vitasta in Kashmir,
thereby arresting the devastating periodical floods
and consequent famine and promoted irrigation and
agricultural operations over an extensive area.
4. (c) In the Belan valley (Uttar Pradesh), all the three
phases, the Palaeolithic, Mesolithic and Neolithic,
have been found in sequence.
5. (c) In ancient India, a number of kingdoms emerged
during the Vedic age that were spread across the
Indo-Gangetic plain. These kingdoms were also
called as republics and 16 of them were regarded as
the Mahajanapadas. 10 out of the 16 Mahajanapadas
were situated in the Ganga valley.
6. (c) Udayin choose Pataliputra as a capital because
Pataliputra was located in the centre of Magadhan
empire. The earliest capital of Magadha was at Rajgir,
which was called Girivraja at that time.
7. (a) Inamgaon is a post-Harappan agrarian village
and archaeological site located in Maharashtra
situated along the right bank of the Ghod river, it is
considered to be the regional centre of the Bhima
valley.
8. (b) Mahishamati and Ujjaini were the capital
of Southern and Northern Avanti Mahajanapada,
respectively.
9. (b) The Tolkappiyam is a work on the grammar of
the Tamil language and the earliest extant work of
Tamil literature written by Tholkappiyar.
13. (c) Mehargarh is one of the most important
Neolithic (7000 to 2500 BCE) sites in archaeology.
It lies on the Kacchi plain of Balochistan, Pakistan.
It is one of the earliest sites with evidence of farming
and herding in South Asia.
15. (d) Shankaradeva was a 15th16th century
Assamese polymath, a saint-scholar, poet, playwright,
social-religious reformer and a figure of importance
in the cultural and religious history of Assam.
Shankaradeva introduced the Eka Saran Naba
Vaishnava Dharma in Assam and for its propagation,
wrote and translated a huge number of songs and
couplets, dramas, epic poetry, theoretical essays,
nat, bhaona and the like.
16. (a) In Asura marriage, bridegroom gave as much
wealth as he could afford to the brides relatives, not
in accordance with the injunctions of the scriptures
because it was like buying the bride, which was
prohibited.

18. (b) In 747, the Indian master Padma Sambhava
travelled from Afghanistan to bring Vajrayana
Buddhism to Tibet and Bhutan at the request of the
king of Tibet.
19. (d) Tiruvachakam, which occupies a place in Tamil
sacred literature analogous to the Upanishadas,
contains the compositions of Manikkavachakar.
20. (a) Jeevak was the royal physician during the reign
of Ajatashatru and Bimbisara of Magadha empire. He
was the son of the Ganika named Shalwati.
21. (c) The rock shelters of Bhimbetka are a repository
of rock paintings within natural rock shelters with
archaeological evidences from the Palaeolithic and
Mesolithic periods through the Chalcolithic to the
Medieval period.
23. (d) Vajji Janapada was republican state in sixth
century BC. Its capital was Vaishali. The Vajji
republic was ruled by a confederation of eight clans
(Atthakula) of whom the Vrijis, the Lichchavis, the
Jnatrikass and the Videhas were the most important.
24. (b) Burzahom was the first Neolithic site to be
discovered in Kashmir. After the excavation, many
burials of this phase were discovered, usually under
house floors or in the compounds. Apart from human
burials, animals were sometimes buried along with
humans or in separate graves. The buried animals are
domesticated animals like dogs, sheep and goats.
25. (b) In South India, in the central part of Deccan
plateau, archaeologists have discovered ash mounds
of varying sizes and shapes with uneven surface either
covered with soil or grass.
26. (b) According to legends, the origin of Sri Lankan
Tamil literature dates back to the Sangam age
dated variously from 200 BCE to 600 CE. Eelattu
Poothanthevanar was one of the earliest known
classical Tamil poets. His poems were included in
the Tamil Sangam or Cankam poetry anthologies
compiled in Tamilakam before 250 AD.
27. (a) Chera dynasty was one of the most ancient Tamil
dynasties in India, ruling over modern-day Tamil
Nadu and Kerala. During the Sangam age, Tondi was
one of the most flourishing seaports of Kerala.
29. (b) Pushkalavati, meaning the Lotus City in
Sanskrit, was the earliest capital of Gandhara. The
History || A-71
lotus city has been identified with the region we now
know as Charsadda and its neighbourhood.
31. (d) Yavana Jataka is not a Buddhist writing. Sage
Yavana, who belonged to the Alexander period, wrote
Yavana Jataka. He was an astrologer in the Greek
court in India.
32. (b) The land between the Saraswati and Drishadvati
was called the Brahmavarta. The place which first
witnessed the creation of mankind came to be known
as Brahmavarta or the seat of Brahma.
33. (d) Mother goddess of bone has been obtained from
the upper Palaeolithic level of the Belan valley.
34. (b) Porus was an Indian king who fought Alexander
the Great in the Battle of the Hydaspes river in 326
BC and was defeated. He then served Alexander as
a client king.
36. (c) Lichhavis established the first republic of the
world in Vajji Mahajanapada of ancient India.
They were the most famous clan amongst the ruling
confederate clans of the Vajji. Vaishali was the capital
of the Lichhavis,
37. (c) Asmaka was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas
in the 6th century BCE, mentioned in the Buddhist
text Anguttara Nikaya. The region was located on
the banks of the Godavari river, between the rivers
Godavari and Manjira.
38. (d) The ancient Buddhist text Anguttara Nikaya
gives the list of sixteen Mahajanapadas includes
the Gandhara and the Kamboja as the only two
salient Mahajanapadas in the Uttarapatha. Another
Buddhist text Digha Nikaya mentions only twelve
Mahajanapadas.
41. (b) Hippalus was a Greek navigator and merchant
who probably lived in the 1st century BCE. He
discovered the monsoon winds and the route across
the Arabian Sea to India around 45 AD.
42. (d) Parashurama is most known for ridding the world
of Kshatriyas over twenty-one times. Mahapadma
Nanda, who has been described as the destroyer of
all the Kshatriyas, defeated the Panchalas, Kasis,
Haihayas, Kalingas, Asmakas, Kurus, Maithilas,
Surasenas and the Vitihotras. So, Mahapadma Nanda
has been compared to Parashurama in the Puranas.
43. (c) Vidisha was not an ancient seaport. Vidisha was
an important trade centre in the 6th and 5th centuries
BCE, under the Sungas, Nagas, Satavahanas, and
Guptas, and was mentioned in the Pali scriptures.
A-72 || Ancient History (Miscellaneous)
46. (d) The classical work Tamil literature Tiru Kural
called the Bible of Tamil land. It consists of series
of metrical proverbs and many aspects of life and
religion. Kural by Thiruvalluvar has been translated
into many languages both Indian and foreign.
47. (c) Pandyas were the patrons of Sangam, an
assembly of Tamil poets. Pandya kings find mention
in a number of poems in the Sangam literature.
49. (c) Chedi kingdom was one among the many
kingdoms ruled during early periods by Paurava kings
in the central and western India. Suktimati was the
capital of Chedi.
50. (b) Asmaka was the only Mahajanapada situated
to the south of the Vindhya range and was in
Dakshinapatha or southern India.
54. (a) Many countries claim to have invented the chess
game in some incipient form. The most commonly
held belief is that chess originated in India, where it
was called Chaturanga, which appears to have been
invented in the 6th century AD.
55. (b) The subject matter of most of the paintings
at Ajanta is the life and teachings of Buddha. This
covers various lives and incarnations of Buddha as
told in Jataka stories. The rocks here in Ajanta are
cut in the shapes of Chaitya, Stupa and Vihara all
are important religious places of Buddhists.
56. (b) The Periya Puranam is a classical Tamil
scripture that describes the lives of 63 Saivite saints.
It has immense influence over the devotional tradition
of Saivism in south India. It was compiled during the
12th century by Sekkizhar.
57. (d) Manimekhalai is a second-century Tamil verse
epic reflects the ancient culture of India in the story of
a beautiful young dancer who abandons her future as a
courtesan in order to dedicate her life to the pursuit of
Buddhism. She became a Buddhist nun or Bhikshuni
and practiced to rid herself from the bondage of birth
and death and attain Nirvana.
 6 Delhi Sultanate
1. Who was the first ruler of the Slave dynasty?
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Sultan Mahmud the fixed revenue?
(d) Balban
2. Who abolished Iqta system?
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Iltutmish
(c) Balban (d) Alauddin Khilji
3. The ruler of Bundelkhand defeated by Qutubuddin
Aibak was
(a) Parmardi Deva (b) Lakshman Sen
(c) Uday Singh (d) Malayvarma Deva
4. Which Sultan of Delhi founded and built the Fort
of Siri?
(a) Iltutmish
(b) Balban
(c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
5. Who among the following Amirs was the one
publicly flogged by the orders of Sultan Balban?
(a) Haibat Khan (b) Imaduddin Raihan
(c) Sher Khan (d) Malik Baqbaq
6. Who was the Governor of Kara-Manikpur to have
revolted against Sultan Jalaluddin Firoz Khilji?
(a) Arkali Khan (b) Almas Beg
(c) Jawna Khan (d) Malik Chajju
7. Who among the following were called Neo-
Muslims during the reign of Jalaluddin Firoz
Khilji?
(a) Mongols (b) Indian Muslims
(c) Tazikh (d) Abyssinians
8. Which sultan of Delhi made a rule that, in any
given year, the land revenue can be increased
only nominally, viz. one-tenth or one-eleventh of
(a) Balban
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(d) Firozshah Tughlaq
9. Tarikh-e-Ferozshahi was written by
(a) Al-Utbi (b) Barni & Afif
(c) Roomi (d) Amir Khusro
10. The Turkish brought with them musical instruments.
(a) Rabab and Sarangi
(b) Sitar and Flute
(c) Veena and Tabla
(d) Tanpura and Mridanga
11. Who of the following was responsible for the
murder of his father?
(a) Balban
(b) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
(c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
12. Which of the following works of Amir Khusro
deals with the military expeditions of Alauddin
Khilji?
(a) Qairanus Sadain (b) Miftah-Ul-Futuh
(c) Nuh Siphar (d) Khazain-Ul-Futuh
13. Who among the following foreign historians
is considered an authority on the history of the
Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Richard Fox (b) Peter Jackson
(c) Aden Southall (d) Chris Bayly
A-74 || Delhi Sultanate
14. Which Sultan of Delhi categorized the Ulema 22. Balban failed to expand his territories because of
into Ulma-i-Akhiral and Ulma-i-Duniya and (a) Non-co-operation of nobles
praised the former? (b) Resistance of the Rajputs
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Iltutmish (c) Fear of Mongol invaders
(c) Balban (d) Alauddin Khilji (d) Revolt of his son
15. About which Sultan of Delhi did Barani write 23. Which one of the following was not constructed
that he had his Amirs murdered silently? by Qutubuddin Aibak ?
(a) Balban (a) Kubbat-ul-Islam mosque
(b) Alauddin Khilji (b) Qutub Minar
(c) Qutbuddin Mubarak Khilji (c) Adhai Din Ka Jhopada
(d) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq (d) Alai Darwaja
16. Who was the author of Futuhat-i-Firozshahi? 24. During the time of Alauddins invasion, Warangal
(a) Shams-i-Siraj Afif was ruled by
(b) Isami (a) Chalukya dynasty (b) Chola dynasty
(c) Ziauddin Barani (c) Kakatiya dynasty (d) Yadava dynasty
(d) Sultan Firoz Shah 25. Which new department was started by Muhammad
17. The city of Jaunpur was founded by Bin Tughlaq for the development of agriculture?
(a) Mohmmad Bin Tughlaq (a) Diwan-i-Risalat (b) Diwan-i-Ashraf
(b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (c) Diwan-i-Kohi (d) Diwan-i-Mustkharaz
(c) Ibrahim Lodi 26. Who among the following constituted Turkan-i-
(d) Sikandar Lodi Chihalgani?
18. The first Silver Tanka of Delhi Sultanate was (a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Iltutmish
issued by (c) Balban (d) None of these
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak 27. Which one of the following Sultans was an off
(b) Iltutmish spring of Iltutmish, and was the last successor of
(c) Razia Sultan his dynasty?
(d) Ghiyasuddin Balban (a) Ruknuddin Firoz
19. Which one of the following represented the royal (b) Razia Sultana
secretariat during the Sultanate period? (c) Muizuddin Bahram Shah
(a) Diwan-i-Arz (b) Diwan-i-Insha (d) Nasiruddin Mahmud
(c) Diwan-i-Wizarat (d) Diwan-i-Barid 28. Which one of the following sons of Alauddin
20. During the reign of which Delhi Sultan, the state Khilji was born of his wife Jhatyapali, the daughter
department of translation was established for of Raja Ramchandra Dev of Devagiri?
translating Sanskrit texts into Arabic-Persian and (a) Shihabuddin Umar
vice-versa? (b) Khizra Khan
(a) Sikandar Lodi (c) Qutbuddin Mubarak
(b) Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah Khilji (d) Sadi Khan
(c) Mohammad Tughlaq 29. The ethnic composition of the armies of
(d) Razia Sultana Ghaznavids did not include the
21. Which one of the following names was not (a) Arabs (b) Indians
included in the Khutba of Firoz Shah Tughlaq? (c) Tajiks (d) Greeks
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak 30. The Tibb-i-Sikandari, which was compiled
(b) Balban from Sanskrit sources dealt with
(c) Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah Khilji (a) Astronomy (b) Medicine
(d) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq (c) Music (d) Philosophy
 History || A-75

31. The term Sondhar as loans to peasants was used 40. Which one of the following Sultans currency
during the time of continued as the medium of exchange till the
(a) Balban time of Akbar?
(b) Alauddin Khilji (a) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(c) Muhammad Tughlaq (b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Firoz Tughlaq (c) Bahlol Lodhi
32. Who among the following Sultans invoked (d) Ibrahim Lodhi
Persian monarchical traditions and adjusted them 41. Most authoritative account of Malik Kafurs
to Indian milieu? deccan campaign is given by
(a) Iltutmish (a) Amir Khusro (b) Hasan Nizami
(b) Ruknuddin Firoz (c) Minhaj (d) Ziauddin Barani
(c) Alauddin Khilji 42. Which one of the following Sultans had close
(d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq contact with the Jain scholars?
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak
33. Which of the following represented the Royal
(b) Balban
secretariat during the Sultanate period?
(c) Alauddin Khilji
(a) Diwan-i-Arz (b) Diwan-i-Insha
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(c) Diwan-i-Wizarat (d) Diwan-i-Barid
43. Important aspect of the Turkish conquest of
34. Shashgani was a small silver coin equal to
North India was the Urban revolution. Who said
(a) 4 Jitals (b) 6 Jitals this statement?
(c) 8 Jitals (d) 10 Jitals (a) K.A. Nizami (b) M. Habib
35. The bone of contention between Bahmani and (c) R.P. Tripathi (d) Yusuf Hussain
Vijayanagar kingdom was 44. Nizamuddin Junaidi was the Wazir of
(a) Kavery delta (a) Muizzuddin Ghori (b) Qutubuddin Aibak
(b) Malabar parts (c) Iltutmish (d) Balban
(c) Krishna delta 45. Who among the following historians had accom-
(d) Krishna-Tungabhadra doab panied Alauddin Khilji in his Deccan campaign?
36. The difference between Gaz-i-Sikandari and Gaz- (a) Hasan Nizami (b) Minhaj
i-Ilahi was (c) Amir Khusro (d) Ziauddin Barani
(a) 39 : 41 (b) 40 : 43 46. Amir Khusro wrote his famous masanavi Ashiqa
(c) 42 : 45 (d) 43 : 47 on the order of
37. Who among the following Sultans received the (a) Alauddin Khilji (b) Khizra Khan
title of Syed-us-Salatin from the Caliph? (c) Rai Karan (d) Rani Kamla Devi
(a) Iltutmish 47. Which one of the following was not a slave of
(b) Balban Muhammad Ghori?
(c) Alauddin Khilji (a) Ikhtiyaruddin Bakhtiyar Khilji
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (b) Tajuddin Yaldauz
38. Who founded Agra? (c) Qutbuddin Aibak
(d) Shamsuddin Iltutmish
(a) Iltutmish (b) Firoz Tughlaq
48. The statement. India is not Arabia, it is not
(c) Sikander Lodhi (d) Ibrahim Lodhi
practically feasible to convert it into Qarul
39. Ibn Battuta visited India during the reign of Islam. is associated with
(a) Jalaluddin Firoz Shah (a) Iltutmish
(b) Alauddin Khilji (b) Balban
(c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq (c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
A-76 || Delhi Sultanate
49. With which Sultan of Delhi do you associate the 57. Which one of the following Sultans is credited
compilation of Kingship theory and principles of with the appointment of Amir-Sadah in the
administration called Vassayya ? provinces?
(a) Iltutmish (a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Balban (b) Muhammad Tughlaq
(c) Alauddin Khilji (c) Firoz Tughlaq
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (d) Bahlol Lodi
50. Which one of the following works of Amir 58. The state language of India during the Turkish
Khusro deals with the military expeditions of period was
Alauddin Khilji? (a) Arabic (b) Persian
(a) Nuh Siphar (b) Khajain-ul-Futuh (c) Turkish (d) Urdu
(c) Miftah-ul-Futuh (d) Quairanus Sadain 59. According to historian Ziauddin Barani, the ideal
51. Who among the following scholars has been Sultan of Delhi was
given the title of Hujjat-ul-Islam? (a) Balban
(a) Shah Wali Ullah (b) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Abu Yazid Al Bistami (c) Firoj Shah Tughlaq
(c) Shaikh Junaid (d) Bahlol Lodi
(d) Abu Hamid Mohammad Al-Ghazali 60. Which one of the following Sultans had close
52. Which one of the following was not a currency in contact with the Jain scholars?
circulation under the Sultans of Delhi? (a) Qutbuddin Aibak
(a) Dam (b) Tanka (b) Balban
(c) Jital (d) Dogani (c) Alauddin Khilji
53. What was the name of Jain saint with whom (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
Muhammad Tughlaq held discussions? 61. Which one of the following is an octagonal
(a) Rishabadeva (b) Hemchandra tomb?
(c) Jinasena Suri (d) Jinaprabha Suri (a) Tomb of Sikandar Lodi
54. Which one of the following Sultans of Delhi for (b) Tomb of Balban
the first time banned the visit of Muslim women (c) Tomb of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
to the tombs situated outside Delhi? (d) Tomb of Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(a) Balban 62. Which Sultan of the Sultanate period introduced
(b) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq irrigation tax for the first time?
(c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (a) Allauddin Khilji
(d) Alauddin Khilji (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
55. Which Muslim ruler played Holi for the first time (c) Muhammad Tughlaq
in Medieval India? (d) Firoz Tughlaq
(a) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq 63. With which Sufi saint of Delhi is associated the
(b) Humayun famous saying Hanooz Dilli Door Ast ?
(c) Akbar (a) Nizamuddin Aulia
(d) Jahangir (b) Sheikh Salim Chisti
56. Who destroyed the Nalanda University in 1193 (c) Bhakhtiyaruddin Kaki
AD and burnt it down? (d) Mohammad Ghaus
(a) Muizuddin Muhammad Ghori 64. Who established Diwan-i-Mustakharaj?
(b) Ikhtiyaruddin Muhammad Bin Bakhtiyar (a) Qutubuddin Aibak
Khilji (b) Razia Sultana
(c) Mahmud Ghazni (c) Balban
(d) Qutubuddin Aibak (d) Alauddin Khilji
 History || A-77

65. Who among the following Sultans of Delhi 74. Who of the following Sultans of Delhi had
founded the city of Agra? abolished the tax on grain (also called Zakat on
(a) Balban grain)?
(b) Alauddin Khilji (a) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(d) Sikandar Lodi (c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
66. Who among the following historians was made (d) Sikandar Lodi
prisoner by the Mongols?
75. What was Arghatta?
(a) Hasan Nizami (b) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(a) A machine to break forts
(c) Amir Khusrow (d) Ziauddin Barani
67. Who among the following Sultans introduced (b) An irrigation canal
professional courses in education? (c) A device to lift water
(a) Balban (d) A type of cloth
(b) Alauddin Khilji 76. At the time of Qutubuddin Aibaks death,
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq Iltutmish was the Subedar of
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (a) Delhi (b) Gwalior
68. Who among the following has given a detailed (c) Badayun (d) Lahore
account of the postal system during the Sultanate 77. Which of the following places was named as
period? Khizrabad during the Sultanate period?
(a) Amir Khusro (b) Ibn Battuta (a) Agra (b) Chittor
(c) Sultan Firoz Shah (d) Ziauddin Barani (c) Jaunpur (d) Devagiri
69. Which type of work was looked after by the 78. Who of the following was the Sultan of Delhi at
department of Diwan-i-Kohi under Muhammad
the time of Timurs invasion?
Tughlaq?
(a) Daulat Khan Lodi
(a) Agriculture
(b) Army (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(c) Justice (c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Royal correspondence (d) Nasiruddin Mahmud Shah Tughlaq
70. The land which directly yielded revenue to the 79. On whose coins, the name of the last Calipha of
Sultan was known as Baghdad appeared for the first time?
(a) Khalisa (b) Inam (a) Qutubuddin Aibak
(c) Waqf (d) Iqta (b) Iltutmish
71. Ijaradari system was first introduced in (c) Alauddin Khilji
(a) Khalisa lands (b) Jagir lands (d) Alauddin Masud Shah
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 80. Which Sultan of Delhi imposed Jaziya on the
72. Which one of the following Sultans brought the Brahmins also?
Ashokan pillar to Delhi? (a) Balban
(a) Ghiasuddin Tughlaq
(b) Firoz Tughlaq
(b) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(c) Allauddin Khilji
(c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Alauddin Khilji (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
73. Who among the following died while playing 81. Which Sultan of Delhi assumed the title of
Chaugan? Alexander the Great?
(a) Iltutmish (a) Balban
(b) Alauddin Khilji (b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Mohammad Tughlaq (c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(d) Qutubuddin Aibak (d) Sikandar Lodi
A-78 || Delhi Sultanate
82. Which Sultan of Delhi had established a separate 90. Who among the following Sultanate rulers
agriculture department and had planned the himself encouraged bribery in administration?
rotation of crops? (a) Balban
(a) Iltutmish (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(b) Balban (c) Firoz Tughlaq
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq 91. Which of the following works describes the
83. Who amongst the following Sultans built the fifth qualities of an ideal Muslim ruler?
storey of Qutub Minar? (a) Taj-ul-Masir (b) Tabqat-e-Nasiri
(a) Qutbuddin Aibak (c) Khazain-ul-Futuh (d) Fatwa-e-Jahandari
(b) Iltutmish 92. Which one of the following Sultans assumed the
(c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq title Umdat-ul-Niswan on the coins?
(d) Sikandar Lodi (a) Razia Sultana (b) Balban
84. Which medieval king of India indroduced the (c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Firoz Tughlaq
Iqkta system? 93. Who was the ruler of Devagiri at the time of
(a) Iltutmish (b) Balban Alauddin Khiljis invasion?
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) None of these (a) Pratap Rudra Dev (b) Ramchandra Dev
85. What was Dar-ul-Shafa established by Firoz (c) Malik Kafoor (d) Rana Ratan Singh
Tughlaq? 94. The transfer of capital from Delhi to Daulatabad
(a) An alms house was ordered by Sultan
(b) A free hospital (a) Mubarak Shah Khilji
(c) A library (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(d) A guest house for pilgrims (c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
86. Who were instrumental in deposing Raziya (d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Begum? 95. Which Sultan of Delhi was the first to charge
(a) Afghans (b) Mongols Ghari or House tax?
(c) Turkish (d) Arabs (a) Balban
87. For the first time, the token currency in India was (b) Alauddin Khilji
introduced by (c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(a) Iltutmish (d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(b) Alauddin Khilji 96. Ibn Batutta visited India during the reign of
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (a) Ghayasuddin Tughlaq
(d) Sher Shah Suri (b) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
88. Which Muslim ruler enforced price control (c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
system for the first time? (d) Bahlol Lodi
(a) Iltutmish 97. Which one of the following kings of the medieval
(b) Balban India began the Public Distribution System?
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (a) Balban
(d) Alauddin Khilji (b) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
89. Which of the following was not established by (c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Firoz Tughlaq? (d) Alauddin Khilji
(a) Diwan-i-Mustakharaj 98. Which Sultan of Delhi is said to have followed
(b) Diwan-i-Khairat the Policy of Blood and Iron?
(c) Diwan-i-Bandagan (a) Jalaluddin Khilji (b) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Darul Shafa (c) Balban (d) Iltutmish

99. For whom did historian Badayuni commented on
his death Sultan got freedom from his masses
and the masses from the Sultan?
(a) Iltutmish
(b) Balban
(c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
100. Which Sultan of Delhi was a contemporary of the
Mongol leader Chengiz Khan?
(a) Iltutmish (b) Razia
(c) Balban (d) Alauddin Khilji
101. Who among the following established Delhi as
the capital of Sultanate?
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Iltutmish
(c) Razia (d) Muizzuddin Ghori
102. Who of the following was the first woman ruler
of medieval India?
(a) Razia Sultan (b) Chand Bibi
(c) Durgavati (d) Noorjahan
103. The city of Jaunpur was founded in the memory
of
(a) Jalaluddin Khilji
(b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
104. Which of the following was not built by Firoz
Shah Tughlaq?
(a) Palace Fort of Firozabad
(b) Kotla Firoz Shah
(c) City of Jahanpanah 113. The Lodi dynasty was founded by
(d) Hauz-i-Khas
105. Which of the following Sultans had greatest
number of slaves in his court?
(a) Balban
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
106. Who among the following appointed Ibn Battuta
as the Chief Qazi of Delhi?
(a) Ghiyasuddin Balban 116. The famous poet Amir Khusro was associated
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
History || A-79
107. Who was the last ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty of
the Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq II
(c) Nasiruddin Mahmud
(d) Nusrat Shah
108. Who was the founder of Sayyid dynasty?
(a) Khizr Khan (b) Mubarak Shah
(c) Muhammad Shah (d) Alauddin Alam Shah
109. The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built
the biggest network of canals in India was
(a) Iltutmish
(b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Sikandar Lodi
110. The term used for the measurement of land in the
Delhi Sultanate period was
(a) Kismat-i-Ghalla (b) Masahat
(c) Ghalla Bakshi (d) Ghori
111. Which of the dynasties ruled for the shortest period
of time during to course of Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Slave dynasty (b) Khilji dynasty
(c) Sayyid dynasty (d) Lodi dynasty
112. The Sultan who desecrated the Puri Jagannath
temple and Jwalamukhi temple at Kangra was
(a) Balban
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Sikandar Lodi
(a) Bahlol Lodi (b) Mubarak Shah
(c) Sikandar Lodi (d) Ibrahim Lodi
114. Who was the first real king of Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Iltutmish
(c) Balban (d) Alauddin Khilji
115. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq shifted his capital from
Delhi to
(a) Lahore (b) Kalinjan
(c) Kannauj (d) Daulatabad
with the court of
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Sikandar Lodi (d) Akbar
A-80 || Delhi Sultanate
117. Which of the following Sultans of Delhi was
known as Lakh Bakhsh?
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Balban
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Jalaluddin Khilji
118. Who has been described by Elliot as the Akbar of
Sultanate?
(a) Iltutmish (b) Balban
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Firoz Tughlaq
119. In the Delhi Sultanate, an administrative unit called
paragana was headed by an official known as
(a) Amil (b) Ariz
(c) Shiqdar (d) Barid
120. Who among the following Sultans was advised by
Qazi Mughisuddin to act according to the laws of
Shariat but the Sultan rejected his advice?
(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Jalaluddin Khilji
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
121. Malik Kafur was the General of
(a) Balban 131. The first capital of Vijayanagar empire was Hampi.
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
122. In the Sultanate period, the highest rural authority
for land revenue was
(a) Rawat (b) Malik
(c) Chaudhary (d) Patwari
123. Coins of which Muslim ruler have been image of
Devi Lakshmi?
(a) Muhammad Ghori (b) Iltutmish
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) None of these
124. Who was the Muslim General to have conquered
Bengal in 13th century AD?
(a) Malik Kafur
(b) Nusrat Khan
(c) Muhammad Ghori
(d) Ikhtiaruddin Bakhtiar Khilji
125. Who among the following witnessed the reign of
Seven Sultans of Delhi?
(a) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti
(b) Shams Siraj Afif
(c) Amir Khusro
(d) None of these
126. Who was the last ruler of Jaunpur State?
(a) Muhammad Shah (b) Hussain Shah
(c) Mubarak Shah (d) Ibrahim Shah
127. Who was the founder of Gajapati dynasty of
Orissa?
(a) Purushottama (b) Vidhyadhara
(c) Kapilendra (d) Prataprudra
128. Zain-ul-Abdin, who prohibited cow slaughter, was
a ruler of
(a) Bengal (b) Gujarat
(c) Malwa (d) Kashmir
129. The foreign traveller who visited and described
Vijayanagar soon after its fall in the battle of
Talikota, was
(a) Abdur Razzak (b) Ceasar Frederick
(c) Nicolo Conti (d) Nuniz
130. Who of the following Vijayanagar kings had
assumed the tittle Andhra Bhoja?
(a) Devaraya I (b) Devaraya II
(c) Krishnadeva Raya (d) Virupaksha II
Where was its second capital?
(a) Vijayanagar (b) Kanchi
(c) Bellore (d) Penukonda
132. Who among the following was the first Vijayanagar
ruler to have the title of Maharajadhiraj?
(a) Harihar II (b) Harihar I
(c) Bukka I (d) Bukka II
133. Who among the following kings of Vijayanagar
sent an ambassador to China?
(a) Bukka I (b) Harihar I
(c) Harihar II (d) Devaraya II
134. What were the districts called in the Vijayanagar
empire?
(a) Nadu (b) Khurram
(c) Kottam (d) Janpad
135. Who among the following Vijayanagar kings
started to recruit Muslim fighters in the army?
(a) Harihara I (b) Harihara II
(c) Bukka (d) Devaraya II
136. Which among the following commodities was
exported on a large scale from Vijayanagar
empire?
(a) Tea (b) Coffee
(c) Pepper (d) Perfume

137. Which one of the following places has been referred
to by Arab travellers as the House of Gold?
(a) Mysore (b) Multan
(c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat
138. What was the nationality of Marcopolo who visited
India in the last decade of 13th century?
(a) Dutch (b) Spanish
(c) Italian (d) Portuguese
139. Who among the following Sufis has called India
a paradise on earth?
(a) Baba Farid
(b) Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya
(c) Amir Khurd
(d) Amir Khusro
140. Which one of the following was the first ruler of
Vijayanagar to have employed Turkish bowmen?
(a) Harihara I (b) Harihara II
(c) Bukka I (d) Devaraya I
141. The term Amaram in the Vijayanagar empire
stood for
(a) Grants given to the Brahamanas
(b) Military grants
(c) Grants given to scholars and poets
(d) Grants given to the widows and the poor
142. Which sects of Sufis adopted Yoga?
(a) Qadiri (b) Shattari
(c) Chishtiya (d) None of these
143. Who of the following Rajput rulers gave donation
for the reconstruction of a mosque?
(a) Mihir Bhoja (b) Bhoj Parmar
(c) Prithviraj III (d) Jaisingh Siddharaj
144. The historian Sewell has written a book entitled
A Forgotten Empire. What was the name of
empire?
(a) Mauryan Empire (b) Mughal Empire
(c) Maratha Empire (d) Vijayanagar Empire
145. Jonaraja, in his Rajatarangini continued the
narration of Kalhana up to
(a) Jayasingh
(b) Sultan Sikandar
(c) Sultan Zainul Abidin
(d) Muhammad Shah
History || A-81
146. What was Khanqah?
(a) Works of poet Amir Khusro
(b) The place where Sufi mystics lived
(c) Court of Sikandar Lodi
(d) Birth place of Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti
147. Sugandhadevi, who issued coins with the figure of
seated Lakshmi, was a Queen of
(a) Karnataka (b) Kashmir
(c) Orissa (d) Saurashtra
148. The capital of the Sharqi dynasty was
(a) Jaunpur (b) Banaras
(c) Kara Manikpur (d) Zafarabad
149. Which one of the following Sufi Saints of the
Chistiya order was called the Chirag-i-Dehalvi?
(a) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya
(b) Sheikh Fariduddin
(c) Sheikh Nasiruddin
(d) Sheikh Salim Chisti
150. The kingdom of Vijayanagar was established
during the reign of
(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
151. The old capital of Vijayanagar is now represented
by the extensive ruins of
(a) Hampi (b) Badami
(c) Bijapur (d) Vijayanagaram
152. Vidyaranya was associated with
(a) Harihar II (b) Ramraj
(c) Devaraya II (d) Sayan
153. Who among the following rulers allowed the
Portuguese to build Churches in Vellore?
(a) Devaraya II (b) Venkat II
(c) Krishnadeva Raya (d) Achyutadeva Raya
154. Who among the following was a disciple of
Nizamuddin Aulia?
(a) Amir Khusro (b) Alauddin Sabir
(c) Nasiruddin (d) Ibrahim Lodi
155. The Sufi saint who was supposed to be the greatest
musician of the age was
(a) Mansur Din Hallaj
(b) Al-Gajjali
(c) Pir Bodhan
(d) Rabia
A-82 || Delhi Sultanate
156. Which one of the following works of Amir Khusro
deals with the military expedition of Alauddin
Khilji?
(a) Qairanus Sadain (b) Miftah-ul-Futuh
(c) Nuh Siphar (d) Khazain-ul-Futuh
157. Who was the founder of Pushtimarg?
(a) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu Vijayanagar ruler Devaraya II?
(b) Vallabhacharya
(c) Madhavacharya
(d) Yamunacharya
158. In which capacity, thousands of women were
employed in the empire of Vijayanagar?
(a) Accountants (b) Royal bodyguards
(c) Palace guards (d) All of these
159. Who built the city of Nagalapura?
(a) Bukka I (b) Devaraya I
(c) Krishnadeva Raya (d) Virupaksha
160. In which Hindu Kingdom of medieval India, the
image of deity Tirupati or Lord Venkateshvara has
been depicted on its gold coins?
(a) The Vijayanagar empire
(b) The kingdom of Hoyasalas of Dwarasamudra
(c) The kingdom of Kakathiyas of Warrangal
(d) The kingdom of Yadavas of Devagiri
161. What was the religion of the king Krishnadeva
Raya ?
(a) Vaishnavism (b) Shaivism
(c) Jainism (d) Buddhism
162. To whom did Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya bestow
the title of Ain-i-Hind (Mirror of India)?
(a) Sheikh Bahauddin Zakaria
(b) Sheikh Sirajuddin Usmani
(c) Sheikh Nasiruddin Chirag Dehlavi
(d) Khwaja Syed Muhammad Gesudaraj
163. Who among the following Sufi saints witnessed
the rule of Seven Sultans of Delhi?
(a) Shekh Ahmad Sirhindi
(b) Shekh Nizamuddin Auliya
(c) Baba Fareed
(d) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti
164. Who is known as the Parrot of India?
(a) Abul Fazl (b) Raskhan
(c) Amir Khusro (d) Mirabai
165. The famous Hazara Ram temple was built by
whom?
(a) Harihara I (b) Devaraya I
(c) Narshimha Salva (d) Krishnadeva Raya
166. Who among the following Telugu authors had
the honour of Kanakabhiseka at the hands of
(a) Bhairava Kavi (b) Nandi Mallaya
(c) Potana (d) Srinatha
167. Which one of the following dance traditions
developed during the age of the Vijayanagar
empire?
(a) Yakshagan (b) Mohiniattam
(c) Bharatanatyam (d) Kathakali
168. Who among the following Sufis used to wear ladies
dress?
(a) Sheikh Moosa
(b) Sheikh Hamiduddin Nagauri
(c) Shah Daula Dariyai
(d) Shah Muhammad Ghaus
169. Who among the following is the author of Siyarul
Aulia?
(a) Dara Shikoh (b) Amir Hasan
(c) Amir Khusro (d) Indus
170. Amuktamalyada written by Krishnadeva Raya,
the ruler of Vijayanagar, was in
(a) Sanskrit (b) Kannada
(c) Telugu (d) Tamil
171. Who was the founder of the Sufi order in India?
(a) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti
(b) Khwaja Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki
(c) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya
(d) Sheikh Nasiruddin Mahmud
172. Who was called the Akbar of Kashmir?
(a) Shihabuddin (b) Sultan Sikandar
(c) Hussain Shah (d) Zainul Abidin
173. The founder of the Bahmani Kingdom was
(a) Alauddin Mujahid Shah
(b) Ahmed Shah
(c) Alauddin Bahaman Shah
(d) Tajuddin Firoz Shah
174. The first dynasty of the Vijayanagar Kingdom
was
(a) Hoyasala (b) Sangama
(c) Saluva (d) Tuluva
 History || A-83

175. Who were the Ashta-diggaja in the court of 183. Taraf in the Bahmani kingdom signified
Krishnadeva Raya? (a) Province (b) Lord grant
(a) Eight great Generals (c) Transit tax (d) Gold coin
(b) Eight Telugu poets 184. Where is the famous Virupaksha temple located?
(c) Eight ministers (a) Bhadrachalam (b) Hampi
(d) Eight advisors (c) Chidambaram (d) Srikalahasti
176. Who among the following was the first Bhakti saint 185. Amir Khusrow played a pioneer role in the
to use Hindi for the propagation of his message? development of
(a) Dadu (b) Kabir (a) Khari Boli (b) Awadhi
(c) Ramananda (d) Tulsidas (c) Bhojpuri (d) Maithili
177. Which philosophy is known as Advaitvad? 186. Nicolo Conti the Italian traveller visited Vijayanagar
(a) Shankaracharya (b) Ramanujacharya empire during the times of
(c) Nagarajuna (d) Vallabhacharya (a) Devaraya I
178. Gita Govinda was written by (b) Devaraya II
(a) Jayant (b) Jayadeva (c) Krishnadeva Raya
(c) Jayasimha (d) Jayachandra (d) Achyuta Raya
179. The Nayakas in the Vijayanagar empire were 187. When Babur invaded India who was the ruler of
(a) Central ministers Vijayanagar empire in south India?
(b) Cavalry soldiers (a) Devaraya I
(c) Priests of large and powerful temples (b) Devaraya II
(d) Military chiefs controlling particular territories (c) Krishnadev Raya
180. The kingdom of Vijayanagar was founded by (d) Sadashiva Raya
(a) Vijayraj (b) Krishnadeva Raya 188. Which of the following was not one of the foreign
(c) Devaraya (d) Harihar and Bukka travellers to visit India during the period of
181. When Raja Wodeyar founded the Kingdom of Krishnadeva Raya?
Mysore, who was the ruler of the Vijayanagar (a) Fernando Nuniz
empire? (b) Domingo Paes
(a) Sadasiva (b) Tirumala (c) Duarte Barbosa
(c) Venkata II (d) Ranga II (d) Nicolo Conti
182. Who among the following Bahmani rulers built 189. Which Chisti Saints verses are quoted in the
the famous Gol Gumbaz at Bijapur? Adigranth of the Sikhas?
(a) Mahmud Gawan (a) Moinuddin Chisti
(b) Ismail Adil Shah (b) Bakhtiyar Kaki
(c) Muhammad Adil Shah (c) Fariduddin
(d) Yusuf Adil Shah (d) Nizamuddin Auliya
A-84 || Delhi Sultanate

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 25. (c) 49. (b) 73. (d) 97. (d) 121. (b) 145. (c) 169. (c)
2. (b) 26. (b) 50. (b) 74. (d) 98. (c) 122. (c) 146. (b) 170. (c)
3. (a) 27. (d) 51. (a) 75. (c) 99. (d) 123. (a) 147. (b) 171. (a)
4. (c) 28. (a) 52. (a) 76. (c) 100. (a) 124. (d) 148. (a) 172. (d)
5. (d) 29. (d) 53. (d) 77. (b) 101. (b) 125. (c) 149. (c) 173. (c)
6. (d) 30. (b) 54. (c) 78. (d) 102. (a) 126. (b) 150. (b) 174. (b)
7. (a) 31. (c) 55. (a) 79. (d) 103. (c) 127. (c) 151. (a) 175. (b)
8. (c) 32. (a) 56. (b) 80. (b) 104. (c) 128. (d) 152. (d) 176. (c)
9. (b) 33. (b) 57. (b) 81. (b) 105. (d) 129. (b) 153. (b) 177. (a)
10. (a) 34. (b) 58. (b) 82. (d) 106. (d) 130. (c) 154. (a) 178. (b)
11. (b) 35. (d) 59. (c) 83. (c) 107. (c) 131. (d) 155. (c) 179. (d)
12. (d) 36. (a) 60. (d) 84. (a) 108. (a) 132. (d) 156. (d) 180. (d)
13. (d) 37. (b) 61. (a) 85. (b) 109. (c) 133. (a) 157. (b) 181. (c)
14. (c) 38. (c) 62. (d) 86. (c) 110. (b) 134. (a) 158. (d) 182. (c)
15. (a) 39. (d) 63. (a) 87. (c) 111. (c) 135. (d) 159. (c) 183. (a)
16. (d) 40. (d) 64. (d) 88. (d) 112. (c) 136. (c) 160. (a) 184. (b)
17. (b) 41. (a) 65. (d) 89. (a) 113. (a) 137. (b) 161. (a) 185. (a)
18. (b) 42. (d) 66. (c) 90. (c) 114. (b) 138. (c) 162. (b) 186. (a)
19. (b) 43. (b) 67. (d) 91. (d) 115. (d) 139. (d) 163. (b) 187. (c)
20. (a) 44. (c) 68. (b) 92. (a) 116. (b) 140. (d) 164. (c) 188. (d)
21. (a) 45. (c) 69. (a) 93. (b) 117. (a) 141. (b) 165. (d) 189. (c)
22. (c) 46. (a) 70. (a) 94. (c) 118. (d) 142. (c) 166. (d)
23. (d) 47. (a) 71. (b) 95. (b) 119. (a) 143. (d) 167. (a)
24. (c) 48. (a) 72. (c) 96. (b) 120. (a) 144. (d) 168. (a)

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Qutubuddin Aibak was bought by Muhammad
Ghori who later made him his Governor. After the
death of Ghori, Aibak took up sovereign powers on
24th June 1206 founding the Slave Dynasty in India.
2. (b) Alauddin Khilji abolished Iqta system. He was
son-in-law and nephew of Jalaluddin Khilji. He
succeeded the throne in 1296 after killing Jalaluddin
Khilji.
4. (c) Alauddin Khilji, Sultan of Delhi, built the fort
of Siri during 12971307. The main objective of the
construction of this fort to protect Delhi from invasion
of Mongol.
5. (d) Malik Baqbaq, the governor of Baduan, who
had one of his servants beaten to death in druken
condition, was publicly flogged.
6. (d) Chajju rebelled at Kara in 1290. He assumed the
title Sultan Mughisuddin, issued coins in his name

and had the Khutba read in his honour. Jalaluddin led
his forces to meet the rebel. Chajju was captured and
punished mildly by sending to Multan in honourable
confinement.
7. (a) After battle, the leader of Mongol, Abdullah
exchanged friendly greetings with the Sultan
Jalaluddin Another Mongol leader, Ulghu embraced
Islam and decided to stay back. The Sultan acceded
to their request, arranged for their settlement in Delhi.
These were called Neo-Muslims.
8. (c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq came to power in AD
1320 after killing the last Khilji, Khusrau Khan. He
made a rule that, in any given year, the land revenue
can be increased only nominally viz-1/10 th or 1/11th
of the fixed revenue.
9. (b) Tarikh-e-Firozshahi was written by Jiyauddin
Barni and Afif. This book gives details from throaning
of Balban to the decline of Tughlaq dynasty.
11. (b) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq was responsible for
the murder of his father, Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq. To
welcome the Sultan, a temporary wooden pavilion
had been hastily constructed at Afganpur, a village
some distance away from Tughlaqabad. All of a was son of Iltutmish.
sudden, the pavillion came crashing down and killing
the sultan, Ghiyasuddin.
12. (d) Khazain-ul-Futuh, work of Amir Khusro
describes the military expeditions of Alauddin Khilji
containing Gujarat (1299), Ranthambhor (1301),
Mewar (1303), Malva (1305), Devagiri (1307-08)
Warangal (1309-10) and Dwarsamudra (1310-11).
16. (d) Futuhat-i-Firozshashi was written by Sultan
Firoz Shah illustrating the rule and regulations passed
by him.
17. (b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq founded Jaunpur, Fatehabad,
Hissar, Salura, Firozpur, etc. Two hundred towns
apparently include those villages abandoned by the
people which were repopulated during Firozs reign
due to the increased facilities provided by the state.
18. (b) Iltutmish was the first to introduce a purely
Arabic coinage. The credit of introducing the silver
Tanka weighing 175 grains and the copper Jital, the
two basic coinage of the Sultanate.
20. (a) During the reign of Sikandar Lodi, the state
department of translation was established for
translating Sanskrit texts into Arabic-Persian and
vice-versa. He was patron of learning. He used to
compose poems in the name of Gulrukhi. He got
translated the Sanskrit book of Ayurveda into Arabic
language in the name of Farhang-i-Sikandari.
History || A-85
22. (c) Balban preferred consolidation over expansion
of empire. Because firstly, the Hindu chiefs within
the empire were on the lookout for an opportunity to
overthrow the yoke of the Delhi Sultan and secondly,
the Mongol presence was a source of grave concern.
23. (d) Alai Darwaza was constructed by Alauddin
Khilji in 1311 AD situated at Qutub Minar complex in
Delhi. It is an entrance door to the Quwatul mosque.
It has a dome and a true arch, decorated with merlons.
The trellis work is of white marble and there are
marble decorative bands setting off the red sand stone.
24. (c) During the time of Alauddins invasion Warangal
was ruled by Kakatiya Dynasty. The king was Rudra
Deva who surrendered before Kafur offering him a
golden image of himself, 2000 horses, 100 elephants
and the diamond Kohinoor.
26. (b) Iltutmish constituted Turkan-i-Chihalgani
(Chargan). It was a group of forty Turkish slaves.
With the help of this group, he ran his administration.
27. (d) Nasiruddin Mahmud (12461265) was
seventeen when he took the throne. He was very
poius and noble so he was called Darvesi King. He
32. (a) Iltutmish invoked Persian monarchial traditions
and adjusted them to Indian milien. He consolidated
the empire by organising the nobility into a select
group of forty known as Chahalgani. He divided
the Sultanate into small and large tracts called iqtas,
these were given to nobles and officers instead of
cash salaries.
33. (b) Diwani-i-Insha represented the department
of correspondence, its head was Dabir-i-Mumalik
during the Sultanate period.
35. (d) The bone of contention between Bahmani and
Vijayanagar kingdoms was Krishna-Tungabhadra
doab. The conflict started on a large scale in 1367
during the reign of Bukka I.
38. (c) In 1504, Sikandar Shah Lodi founded Agra. He
transferred the capital from Delhi to Agra. He was the
most capable monarch of the Lodi dynasty. He sacked
the temples of Mathura and converted the buildings
to muslim uses. He charged Jaziya and pilgrims tax
from the Hindus with severity. He was against taking
out tazias in procession during Muharram.
39. (d) Ibn Battuta visited India during the reign of
Muhammad Bin Tughlaq in 1333. He was born
in 1304 in Moroccos northern port of Targier. He
traversed North Africa, Egypt and the Swahili coast,
reached Mecca on the Arabian Peninsula.
A-86 || Delhi Sultanate
41. (a) Amir Khusro gave the most anthoritative
account of Malik Ke furs deccan campaign Devagiri
(130708), Warangal (130910) & Dwar Samudra
(131011).
47. (a) Ikhtiyaruddin Bakhtiyar Khilji was a Turkish
military general of Qutubuddin Aibak. He was not a
slave of Muhammad Ghori.
52. (a) Dam was not a currency in circulation under
the Sultans of Delhi. It was circulated during Sher
Shah, made up of copper, equal to 1/40th of one rupee
coin.
56. (b) Bakhtiyar Khilji destroyed the Nalanda
University in 1193 AD and burnt it down. In 1193,
the Nalanda University was sacked by Bakhtiyar
Khilji, a Turk. This event is seen by scholars as a late
milestone in the decline of Buddhism in India. The
Persian historian Minhaj-i-Siraj reported this event
in his chronicle the Tabaquat-i-Nasiri.
57. (b) Muhammad Tughlaq is credited with the
appointment of Amir-i-Sadah in the provinces.
58. (b) The state language of India during the Turkish
period was Persian.
59. (c) According to historian Ziauddin Barani, the
ideal Sultan of Delhi was Firoz Shah Tughlaq. The
Tarikh-i-Firozshahi (Firoz Shahs History) (1357)
was an interpretation of the history of the Delhi
Sultanate up to the then-present Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
60. (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq had close contact
with the jain scholars. The Jain saint Prabhu Suri
was called and honoured in the court by Muhammad
Tughlaq.
61. (a) The tomb of Sikandar Lodi is an octagonal tomb.
The tombs of Muhammad Shah and Sikandar Lodi
are the good examples of octagonal tombs. Shish and
Bara Gumbad are square tombs with imposing dome,
turrets on corners and facades giving false impression
of being double storeyed.
62. (d) Firoz Tughlaq introduced irrigation tax for the
first time. Firoz Shah Tughlaq was the cousin brother
of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, and became the ruler of
Delhi on 23rd march 1351 AD. He imposed only four
taxes sanctioned by Islamic, viz., Kharaj (land tax),
Khams (1/5 of the looted property during wars), Jizya
(religious tax on the Hindus), and Zakat (2per cent
of the income of the Muslims which was spent for
the welfare of Muslim subjects and their religion).
He imposed irrigation tax after getting it sanctioned
from the Ulema.
63. (a) Nizamuddin Aulia, Sufi saint of Delhi is
associated with the famous saying Hanooz Dilli
Door Ast. Sultan Ghiasuddin was annoyed with a
Sufi saint, Nizamuddin Auliya. During one of his
expeditions he vowed that he would behead the saint
in Delhi. The saint responded, Hunooz Dilli Door
Ast, which means its a long way to Delhi.
64. (d) Alauddin Khilji established Diwan-i-
Mustakhraj. To know about the revenue arrears and
collect them, he introduced a new department of
Diwan-i-Mustakhraj.
65. (d) Sikandar Lodi, Sultan of Delhi, founded the
city of Agra. Sikandar Lodi (r.14891517) (born
Nizam Khan), the second son of Bahlol, succeeded
him after his death on July 17, 1489 and took up the
title Sikandar Shah. He was nominated by his father
to succeed him and was crowned Sultan on July 15,
1489. He founded Agra in 1504 and constructed
mosques. He abolished corn duties and patronized
trade and commerce. He was a poet of repute. He
composed under the pen-name of Gulruk. He was
also patron of learning and ordered Sanskrit work in
medicine to be translated into Persian.
66. (c) Amir Khusro was made prisoner by the
Mongols. Khusro was a great poet and he created
much divan poetry like Tuhfatus-Sighr. He was
a loyal servant of Sultan Muhammad who was the
second son of Balban. Khusro also fought against the
Mongols and he was imprisoned during the war.
67. (d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq introduced professional
courses in education.
68. (b) Ibn Battuta has given a detailed account of the
postal system during the Sultanate period.
69. (a) Agriculture was looked after by the department
of Diwan-i-Kohi under Muhammad Tughlaq.
70. (a) The land which directly yielded revenue to the
Sultan was known as Khalisa.
71. (b) Ijaradari system was first introduced in Jagir
lands.
72. (c) Firoz shah Tughlaq brought the Ashokan pillar
to Delhi. Feroz Shah Tughlaq (r. 135188), the Sultan
of Delhi, established the fortified city of Ferozabad
in 1354, as the new capital of the Delhi Sultanate
on the banks of Yamuna river, the site of the present
Feroz Shah Kotla, literally Kotla (fortress or citadel)
of Feroz Shah. Here he erected the Lat or Ashoka
Column, attributed to Mauryan ruler Ashoka.

73. (d) Qutubuddin Aibak died while playing Chaugan.
Qutubuddin Aibak died in 1210 by falling from his
horse while playing Cahugan (the precursor of the
game of Polo).
74. (d) Sikandar Lodi was the Sultan of Delhi between
1489 to 1517 AD. He was a laborious, generous and
just ruler. Owing to a transient shortage of maize, he
abolished the Zakat on grain and it was not renewed
by any subsequent Sultan. The prices of all necessary
articles remained low during his period.
75. (c) Arghatta was a device to lift water.
76. (c) At the time of Qutubuddin Aibaks death,
Iltutmish was the Subedar of Badayun.
77. (b) Chittor was named as Khizrabad during the
Sultanate period. Alauddin Khilji, after the conquest
of Gujarat captured Ranthambhor. In 1303, he
attacked Chittor, the capital of Mewar which was
ruled by the Ghuilot king Ratna Singh. Alauddin
captured Chittor which was named Khizrabad, after
Alauddins son Khizr Khan.
78. (d) In 1398, Timur invaded northern India, attacking
the Delhi Sultanate ruled by Sultan Nasir-ud-Din
Mahmud Shah Tughlaq of the Tughlaq dynasty. He
was opposed by Ahirs and Jats but the Sultanate at
Delhi did nothing to stop him. After crossing the
Indus river on 30 September 1398, he sackedTulamba
and massacred its inhabitants. Then he advanced and
captured Multan.
79. (d) Alauddin Masud Shah the last Calipha of
Baghdad appeared for the first time.
81. (b) Alauddin Khilji, Sultan of Delhi, assumed
the title of Alexander the Great. He was a very
ambitious person and a warmonger. He liked to call
himself The Second Alexander. He took the title
Sikander-i-Sani.
82. (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq had established a
separate agriculture department and had planned the
rotation of crops.
83. (c) The Minar has been damaged by earthquakes
and lightning strikes on several occasions but has
been repaired and renovated by various rulers. During
the rule of Firoz Shah, the Minars two top floors
were damaged due to lightning but were repaired by
Firoz Shah. In 1505, an earthquake struck and it was
repaired by Sikandar Lodi. Later in 1794, the Minar
suffered another earthquake and it was Major Smith,
an engineer, who repaired the affected parts of the
Minar. He replaced Firoz Shahs pavilion at the top
of the tower with his own pavilion.
History || A-87
84. (a) Iltutmish, the medieval king of India, introduced
the Iqta system. Iqta (Ikta) means the land or revenue
assigned by a ruler to an individual. Since the early
days of Islam, Iqta existed as a form of reward for
service to the state and Iltutmish used it to get rid of
the existing feudal order and to bring the distant parts
of the empire together.
87. (c) For the first time, the token currency in India was
introduced by Muhammad Bin Tughlaq. Muhammad
Tughlaq decided to introduce bronze coins, which
were to have the same value as the silver coins.
Muhammad Tughlaq might have been successful, if
he could prevent people from forging the new coins.
He was not able to to do so and soon the new coins
begain to be greatly devalued in markets.
88. (d) Alauddin Khilji, the muslim ruler, enforced
price control system for the first time. The primary
reason of controlling the market by Alauddin was not
to reduce the salary of his soldiers but to check the
rising prices of different articles in terms of inflation.
Alauddin did not fix the prices of different articles
lower than the prevalent prices of those articles in
places around Delhi. Besides, the prices fixed by
Alauddin were not very different from what we
find then afterwards during the reign of Firoz Shah
Tughlaq
90. (c) Firoz Tughlaq, Sultanate ruler himself
encouraged bribery in administration. Sultan Feroze
Shah Tughlaqs reign has been described as the
greatest age of corruption in medieval India. It can
be imagined from the fact that Sultan Feroze Shah
Tughlaq once gave a golden Tanka to a distraught
soldier so that he could bribe the clerk to pass his
substandard horse. The case of Imadulmulk Bashir,
the minister of war who began his career as an
inherited slave of Sultan Firoz Shah Tughlaq, in
course of his service is said to have accumulated
wealth to the tune of thirteen crores, when the states
yearly income was six crores and seventy-five lakh
Tankas.
91. (d) Fatwa-e-Jahandari describes the qualities of an
ideal Muslim ruler. The Fatwa-i-Jahandari is a work
containing the political ideals to be pursued by a
Muslim ruler in order to earn religious merit and the
gratitude of his subjects.
92. (a) Razia Sultan assumed the title Umdat-ul-
Niswan on the coins. Razia was awarded with the
title Raziyat-ul-Din. On the coins she was inscribed
A-88 || Delhi Sultanate
as Umdat-ul-Niswan and she assumed the title of
Sultan-ul-Duniyal wal Din bint-alsultan and Sultan
Jaaltudunya-wad-Din.
93. (b) Ramchandra Dev was the ruler of Devagiri at the
time of Alauddin Khiljis invasion. In 1294, Alauddin
Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate captured Devagiri. Khilji
restored it to Ramachandra in return for his promise
of payment of a high ransom and an annual tribute.
However, this was not paid and the Seuna kingdoms
arrears to Khilji kept mounting. In 1307, Khilji sent
an army commanded by Malik Kafur, accompanied
by Khwaja Haji to Devagiri. The Muslim governors
of Malwa and Gujarat were ordered to help Malik
Kafur. Their huge army conquered the weakened and
defeated forces of Devagiri almost without a battle.
Ramachandra was taken to Delhi. Khilji reinstated
Ramachandra as governor in return for a promise
to help him subdue the Hindu kingdoms in south
India. In 1310, Malik Kafur mounted an assault on
the Kakatiya kingdom from Devagiri.
94. (c) The transfer of capital from Delhi to Daulatabad
was ordered by Mahammad Bin Tughlaq. It appears
that the Sultan wanted to make Deogir second capital
so that he might be able to control south India better.
Deogir was named Daulatabad. However, after a
couple of years, Muhammad Tughlaq decided to
abandon Daulatabad largely because he soon found
that just as he could not control south India from
Delhi, he could not control North from Daulatabad.
96. (b) Ibn Battuta visited India during the reign of
Muhammad Bin Tughlaq. Ibn Battuta (1333 1347)
was a Moroccan Scholar and traveller who visited
India during the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq.
His book titled Rehala throws a lot of light on
Muhammad Tughlaqs reign.
99. (d) Historian Badayuni commented on the death of
Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, Sultan got freedom from
his masses and the masses from the Sultan.
101. (b) Iltutmish established Delhi as the capital of
Sultanate. After the death of Aibak, the governor
of Bengal revolted. He was defeated by Iltutmish.
Iltutmish conquered Ujjain, Ranthambh or, Gwalior
and Malwa and gained control over the whole of north
India. Iltutmish suppressed the revolts of the Amires
in the areas around Delhi. He made Delhi his capital.
102. (a) Razia Sultan was the first woman ruler of
medieval India. Sultan Iltutmish had nominated his
daughter Razia Sultan as the next Sultan of the Delhi
Sultanate. She was much more able and qualified than
any of her brothers. Thus she became the first woman
ruler of medieval India.
103. (c) The city of Jaunpur was founded in the memory
of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq. Jaunpur historically
known as Sheeraz-e-Hind having its historical dates
from 1359, when the city was founded by the Sultan
of Delhi Feroz Shah Tughlaq and named in memory
of his cousin, Muhammad bin Tughluq, whose given
name was Jauna Khan. In 1388, Feroz Shah Tughlaq
appointed Malik Sarwar, a eunuch, as the governor
of the region.
104. (c) Jahanpanah was the fourth medieval city of
Delhi established in 13261327 by Muhammad Bin
Tughlaq (132151) of the Delhi Sultanate.
106. (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq appointed Ibn Battuta
as the Chief Qazi of Delhi. Ibn Battuta has discussed
his travels and incursions in contemporary Islamic
world and documented them in Rihla. He was
appointed as Qazi by Muhammad Tughlaq and was
also appointed ambassador to China.
107. (c) Nasiruddin Mahmud was the last ruler of the
Tughlaq dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate. He was the
son of Mahmud Nasiruddin and used to control the
east from Delhi.
108. (a) Khizr Khan ibn Malik Sulaiman (reigned
141421) was the founder of the Sayyid dynasty,
the ruling dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, in northern
India soon after the invasion of Timur and the fall
of the Tughlaq dynasty. He was known to be an able
administrator.
109. (c) The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built
the biggest network of canals in India was Firoz Shah
Tughlaq. Canal system of Firoz Shah Tughlaq:
To support the newly founded city of Hissar-i-
Firoza, in 1355, he constructed a double system of
canals from Yamuna to Sutlej.
They are referred to as rajwahas in the Indo-
Persian historical texts.
This Yamuna canal was repaired for irrigation
purposes during the time of Akbar.
112. (c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq desecrated the Puri Jaganath
temple and Jwalamukhi temple at Kangra. In 1360,
he invaded Jajnagar to destroy the Jagannath Puri
temple. In 1326 AD, he met with success in his
expedition to Sindh, before this he had led an invasion
to Nagarkot with an idea to destroy the Jwalamukhi
temples. The Sultan was not tolerant towards people
with different religions.

113. (a) The Lodi dynasty was an Afghan dynasty that
ruled parts of northern India and Punjab and Khyber
Pakhtunkhwa province of modern-day Pakistan, from
1451 to 1526. It was founded by Bahlol Khan Lodi
when he replaced the Sayyid dynasty.
114. (b) Iltutmish (1210 1236) was the real founder of
the Delhi Sultanate. He was born in a noble family of
the Ilbari tribe of Turkistan. Iltutmish was the son-in-
law of Aibak. He rendered great service to the Islamic
empire in India. He secured a letter of investiture from
the Caliph of Baghdad in 1229 which bestowed him
the title of Sultan of Hindustan.
115. (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq shifted his capital
from Delhi to Daulatabad. It appears that the Sultan
wanted to make Deogir second capital so that he
might be able to control south India better. Deogir
was named Daulatabad. However, after a couple
of years, Muhammad Tughlaq decided to abandon
Daulatabad largely because he soon found that just
as he could not control south India from Delhi, he
could not control North from Daulatabad.
116. (b) The famous poet Amir Khusrow was associated
with the court of Alauddin Khilji. Amir Khusrow
wrote a short auto-biographical Masnavi called Shah
Name munof Alauddins life. Khusrow in his
book Khazinatul-Futuh (the treasures of victory)
recorded Alauddins construction works, wars, peace
and security, administrative services.
117. (a) Qutubuddin Aibak, Sultan of Delhi, was known
as Lakh Baksh. He was called Lakh Baksh because
he was generous and donated large sums of money
as donations.
120. (a) Alauddin Khilji was advised by Qazi
Mughisuddin to act according to the laws of Shariat,
but the Sultan rejected his advice.
121. (b) Malik Kafur was the General of Alauddin Khilji.
Behind the success of his war strategies was a slave
called Malik Kafur. He discovered Malik Kafur
during the conquest of Gujarat. Malik Kafur was a
powerful Army Chief. He helped Alauddin to conquer
many states.
125. (c) Amir Khusrow witnessed the reign of Seven
Sultans of Delhi. Khusro was a prolific classical poet
associated with the royal courts of more than seven
rulers of the Delhi Sultanate.
History || A-89
126. (b) Hussain Shah was the last ruler of Jaunpur
State. During the reign of Husain Shah (145676),
the Jaunpur army was perhaps the biggest in India,
and Husain decided to attempt a conquest of Delhi.
However, he was defeated on three successive
attempts by Bahlol Khan Lodi. Finally, under
Sikandar Lodi, the Delhi Sultanate was able to
reconquer Jaunpur in 1493, bringing that sultanate
to an end.
127. (c) The Gajapatis were a medieval Hindu dynasty
that ruled over Orissa, large parts of Andhra Pradesh
and West Bengal, and the eastern and central parts
of Madhya Pradesh and the southern parts of Bihar
from 14341541. Gajapati dynasty was established
by Kapilendra Deva (143466) in 1434.
128. (d) Zain-ul-Abidin, who prohibited cow-slaughter,
was a ruler of Kashmir. Zain-ul-Abidin was very
tolerant towards the Hindus and took into his service
such men that deserved his patronage and recognition
of merit. The Sultan remitted the Jazial Poll Tax,
banned the killing of cows and granted Jagirs to
Hindus. He celebrated Hindu festivals and visited
their Tirthas with great reverence.
129. (b) The foreign traveller who visited and described
Vijayanagar soon after its fall in the battle of Talikota,
was Ceaser Frederick.
130. (c) Emperor Krishnadeva Raya, the king of
Vijayanagar had assumed the title Andhra Bhoja,
Mooru Rayara Ganda and Kannada Rajya Rama
Ramana. He became the dominant ruler of the
peninsula of India by defeating the Sultans of Bijapur,
Golconda and the Raja of Odisha.
134. (a) The Vijayanagar empire was divided into six
provinces (Mandalam or Rajya). These provinces
were placed under a governor, who was responsible
for its overall administration. The provinces were
further divided into Nadu and Grawa. Villages
were governed by hereditary officials.
135. (d) Devaraya II, the king of Vijayanagar, started to
recruit Muslim fighters in the army. Since Vijayanagar
was a multi-cultural country, Muslims also joined the
army. Their strength increased from Devaraya II time
and peaked in the time of Aliyaramaraya.
136. (c) Pepper was exported on a large scale from
Vijayanagar empire. Spices such as turmeric, pepper,
cardamom and ginger grew in the remote Malnad hill
region and were transported to the city for trade.
A-90 || Delhi Sultanate
137. (b) Multan has been referred by Arab travellers
as the House of Gold. During the early period,
Multan was known as the city of gold for its large and
wealthy temples. The Sun temple, Suraj Mandir, was
considered one of the largest and wealthiest temples
in the entire sub-continent. Numerous historians have
written about this extremely large Hindu temple that
housed over 6,000 people within it.
143. (d) Jaya Singh Siddharaja, Chalukya king of Gujarat
was the son of Kama and ascended the throne in 1094
A.D. He gave shelter to many scholars of different
religion and castes. He was a Rajput ruler who gave
donation of one lac Baltoras (coins) for rebuilding a
mosque in Cambay.
146. (b) Khanqah was the place where Sufi mystics
lived. The Sufi masters held their assemblies in their
Khanqahs. Devotees of all descriptions including
members of the royalty and nobility and ordinary
people flocked to these Khanqahs.
148. (a) The capital of the Sharqi dynasty was Jaunpur.
The Jaunpur sultanate was ruled by the Sharqi
dynasty. The Khwajah-i-Jahan Malik Sarwar, the
first ruler of the dynasty was a wazir (minister) under
Sultan Nasiruddin Muhammad Shah IV Tughlaq
(13901394). In 1394, he established himself as
an independent ruler of Jaunpur and extended his
authority over Awadh and a large part of Ganges-
Yamuna doab.
149. (c) Sheikh Nasiruddin Sufi saint of the Chistiya
order was called the Chirag-i-Dehli. Nasiruddin
Mahmud Chirag-e-Delhi (or Chiragh-e-Delhi) was a
prominent saint of the Chishti order. He was a mureed
(disciple) of the great saint, Hazrat Nizamuddin
Auliya and later his Khalifa (successor).
150. (b) The kingdom of Vijayanagar was established
during the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq. During
his last days, the whole of India became independent
and three major independent states The empire of
Vijayanagar, The Bahmani kingdom and Sultanate
of Madura were founded.
151. (a) The old capital of Vijayanagar is now
represented by the extensive ruins of Hampi. It is
located within the ruins of Vijayanagar, the former
capital of the Vijayanagar empire. Predating the
city of Vijayanagar, it continues to be an important
religious centre, housing the Virupaksha Temple, as
well as several other monuments belonging to the old
city. The ruins are a UNESCO World Heritage Site,
listed as the Group of Monuments at Hampi.
154. (a) Amir Khusro was a disciple of Nizamuddin
Auliya. Amir Khusro (or Khusrau) Dehlawi was
an Indian musician, scholar and poet. He was an
iconic figure in the cultural history of the Indian
subcontinent. He was a disciple of Nizamuddin
Auliya of Delhi, a Sufi mystic and a spiritual leader.
155. (c) The Sufi saint who was supposed to be the
greatest musician of the age was Pir Bodhan. The
Indian classical work Ragadarpan was translated into
persian during the reign of Firoz Tughlaq. Musical
gatherings spread from the abodes of the Sufis to the
places of the nobles. The Sufi saint, Pir Bodhan, is
supposed to have been one of the great musicians of
the age.
157. (b) Vallabhacharya was the founder of Pushtimarg.
He wanted to preach his message of devotion to God
and Gods grace called Pushtimarg. Vallabhacharya
represented the culmination of philosophical
thought during the Bhakti Movement in the middle
ages. The sect established by him is unique in its
facets of devotion to Krishna, especially his child
manifestation, and is enriched with the use of
traditions, music and festivals. Today, most of the
followers of this sect reside in western and northern
India.
158. (d) Thousands of women were employed in
the empire of Vijayanagar. As accountants, royal
bodyguard and palace guards.
160. (a) In Vijayanagar empire, the Hindu kingdom of
medieval India, the image of deity Tirupati or lord
Venkateshvara has been depicted on its gold coins.
163. (b) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya (1236-1325) gained
the popular title Mehboob-i-Ilahi and Sultan-ul-
Auliya, he built his Khanqah in Delhi. He was a
famous sufi saints of the chisti order. He witnessed
the raign of seven sultan in Delhi. Amir Khusarow
was his follower.
164. (c) Amir Khusrow is known as the parrot of India.
It was he, who himself called Tuti-e-Hind (parrot of
India). To speak the truth, I am an Indian Parrot. If
you want to listen from me some subtle verses, ask me
then to recite some of my Hindwi poems. He himself
did not collect and preserve his Hindwi poems but
made a gift of them to his friends. His poem, Kaliq
Bari is a lexicon composed of synonymous words,
from four languages, Arabic, Persian, Turkish and
Hindwi.

171. (a) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti was the founder of
the Sufi order in India. The Chist order was founded
by Abu Ishaq Shami (the Syrian) in Chisht,
some 95 miles east of Herat in present-day western
Afghanistan. Moinuddin Chisti established the order
in India, in the city of Ajmer in North India.
172. (d) Zainul Abidin may be regarded as the Akbar
of Kashmir. He lacked the Mughuls natural genius,
spirit of enterprise, and physical vigour, and his
outlook was restricted to the comparatively narrow
limits of his kingdom, but he possessed a stock of
learning and accomplishments from which Akbars
youthful indolence had, to a great extent, excluded
him, his views were more enlightened than the
emperors, and he practised a tolerance which Akbar
only preached, and found it possible to restrain,
without persecution, the bigotry of Muslim zealots.
173. (c) Alauddin Bahaman Shah was the founder of
the Bahmani kingdom. The Bahmani kingdom was
founded in 1347 by Hasan Gangu who revolted and
proclaimed his independence from the Sultanate. He
assumed the title of Alauddin Bahmani. Gulbarga was
his capital.
174. (b) Sangama was the first dynasty of the Vijayanagar
kingdom. Harihara and Bukka were the sons of one
Sangama of Warrangal. Drenched in poverty due to
the Muslim attack in 1323, they had run away from
Warrangal and subsequently laid foundations of their
own principality Vijayanagar.
176. (c) Ramananda was the first Bhakti saint to use
Hindi for the propagation of his message. He was
known for communicating in vernacular Hindi, and
accepting disciples of all castes.
History || A-91
177. (a) The philosophy of Sankaracharya is known as
Advaitvada. Shankaracharya was one of the most
influencial philosophers of India. He was born in
Kerala in the eighth century. He was an advocate
of Advaita or the doctrine of the oneness of the
individual soul and the supreme God which is the
ultimate reality.
178. (b) Jayadeva is most known for his composition,
the epic poem Gita Govinda, which depicts the divine
love of Krishna, and his consort, Radha. This poem,
which presents the view that Radha is greater than
Hari, is considered an important text in the Bhakti
movement of Hinduism.
182. (c) Muhammad Adil Shah the Bahmani rulers
built the famous Gol Gumbaj at Bijapur. The most
amazing part of this monument is its huge dome,
constructed in the year 1656, the dome is 44 metres
in diameter, which made it the second largest dome
in the world when it was constructed.
183. (a) Taraf in the Bahmani kingdom signified the
province. In Bahmani kingdom, Taraf signified as
the province. Alauddin Bahmani divided his kingdom
into four Tarafs or provinces and placed each one
under a Trarafdar or governor.
184. (b) Virupaksha temple is located in Hampi, 350 km
from Bangalore, in the state of Karnataka in southern
India. It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi.
Virupaksha is a form of Shiva.
186. (a) Nicolo Conti, an Italian, was at Vijayanagar in
about 1420, just after the accession of Devaraya I.
The first known foreign traveller, he mentions that
the fortifications of the city and the thousands of men
employed in the army of the rulers.
 7 Mughal Period
1. Who was the founder of Mughal dynasty?
(a) Babur (b) Humayun
(c) Akbar (d) Shahjahan
2. Before which of his important battles in India did
Babur declare the abolition of Tamgha tax ?
(a) Panipat (b) Khanwa
(c) Chanderi (d) None of these
3. Who was favoured by Prime Minister Mir Khalifa
as Baburs successor instead of Humayun?
(a) Mirza Suleiman (b) Mirza Kamran
(c) Mirza Askari (d) Mehdi Khwaja
4. Who was the infamous Qazi Fazihat or Qazi Fazilat
during the reign of Sher Shah?
(a) Governor of Bengal (c) Daswant (d) Abul Hasan
(b) Qazi-i-Lashkar
(c) Qazi-ul-Qazzat the Ibadat Khana was not a Jain Monk?
(d) Qazi of Bengal
5. Which of the following works shows Humayuns
interest in astronomy and astrology?
(a) Tarikh-i-Salatin-i-Afghana
(b) Tarikh-i-Rashidi
(c) Qanun-i-Humayuni
(d) Tazkirat-ul-Waqiat
6. Who was proclaimed as Mughal emperor by Asaf
Khan on Jahangirs death to ensure Khurrams
(Shahjahans) enthronement?
(a) Shahryar (b) Dawar Baksh
(c) Tahmurs (d) Hoshang
7. Which two sons did Khurram send to Jahangirs
court in compliance with the terms of surrender
after his revolt?
(a) Murad and Aurangzeb
(b) Murad and Shah Shuja
(c) Shah Shuja and Aurangzeb
(d) Dara and Aurangzeb
8. Who like Dara Shikoh considered Vedas as the
revealed book?
(a) Sheikh Abdul Haqq (Qadiriya)
(b) Mirza Mazhar Jan-i-Jahan (Naqshbandiya)
(c) Sheikh Kalimuddin (Chistiya)
(d) None of these
9. Who among the following was the first Mughal
ruler to adopt the custom of Tuladan?
(a) Humayun (b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir (d) Shahjahan
10. Who among the following was a noted Jehangiri
painter?
(a) Mir Sayyad Ali (b) Abdus Samad
11. Who among the following invitees of Akbar to
(a) Hari Vijay Suri (b) Meher Ji Rana
(c) Jin Chandra Suri (d) Shanti Chandra
12. Month scale in the Mansabdari system was
introduced by
(a) Jahangir (b) Shahjahan
(c) Aurangzeb (d) None of these
13. Who among the following Englishmen was
well versed in the Turkish language, received a
Mansab of 400 and the title of English Khan or
Firangi Khan?
(a) Fitch (b) Mildenhall
(c) Hawkins (d) Sir Thomas Roe
14. In which language did Babar wrote his
Autobiography?
(a) Farsee (b) Arabi
(c) Turki (d) None of these
15. When was the famous Treaty of Chittor signed
during the reign of Jahangir?
(a) 1605 AD (b) 1610 AD
(c) 1615 AD (d) 1620 AD

16. Which Mughal emperor wrote a will and
instructed his sons, that they continue Asad Khan
as the Vazir?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
17. What was Jihat in the Mughal land revenue
administrative terminology?
(a) Access over fixed rates
(b) A religious tax
(c) A toll tax
(d) None of these
18. What was the percentage (of the total revenue
charged) of the extra tax charged by Sher Shah
for the use of general welfare in calamities and
emergencies?
(a) 7.5% (b) 5.0%
(c) 2.5% (d) 1.5%
19. Who among the following had joined Akbars
Din-i-Ilahi?
(a) Birbal (b) Bhagwan Das
(c) Man Singh (d) Surjan Rai
20. Which one of the following officers was the
superintendent of port under the Mughals?
(a) Mir-i-Bahar (b) Tahvildar
(c) Mushrif (d) Mutsaddi
21. Who was the member of Ulema, who issued the
Fatwa against Akbar from Jaunpur?
(a) Mirza Hakim (b) Mullayazdi
(c) Abdun Nabi (d) Abdullah Sultanpuri
22. On whom emperor, Akbar conferred the title of
Jagat Guru ?
(a) Purushottam (c) Abul Fazal (d) Faizi
(b) Dastur Meherji Rana
(c) Hari Vijay Suri Diwan of Multan by Akbar?
(d) Devi
23. Which Queen of Jahangir had committed suicide
by consuming poison?
(a) Harkhabai (b) Manmati
(c) Jodhpuri Begam (d) Zebunnisa
24. What does the term Elchi or Safir denote in
the sixteenth century Mughal administrative
vocabulary?
(a) Ambassadors (b) Rebels
(c) Spies (d) Governors
History || A-93
25. Who among the foreign travellers describes how
the Ganga water was carried in copper vessels for
Mughal emperors to drink?
(a) Thomas Coryat (b) Edward Terry
(c) Ralph Fitch (d) Sir Thomas Roe
26. Which year of Akbars reign has been regarded by
the historian Vicent A. Smith as the most critical
time?
(a) 1556 AD (b) 1561 AD
(c) 1571 AD (d) 1581 AD
27. Which one of the following had bestowed the
title of Jagat Seth to Fatehchand?
(a) Alivardi Khan (b) Sirajuddaula
(c) Mir Zafar (d) Muhammad Shah
28. During the Mughal period, what was Narnal or
light artillery?
(a) One carried on elephant back
(b) One carried on camel back
(c) One carried by man
(d) None of these
29. Who was the author of Humayun-nama?
(a) Humayun (b) Gulbadan Begam
(c) Badauni (d) Ahmad Yadgar
30. Mansabdari system of the Mughals had its origin
in
(a) Persia (b) Arabia
(c) Central Asia (d) India
31. Mahzar of 1579 was drafted by
(a) Sheikh Mubarak (b) Abdun Nabi
32. Who among the following painters was appointed
(a) Abdul Samad (b) Abul Hasan
(c) Mir Syed Ali (d) Daswant
33. Among the following, which Mughal emperor
introduced the policy of Sulah-i-Kul?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Humayun (d) Aurangzeb
34. How many total Subas did Akbar have in his
Empire?
(a) Ten (b) Eighteen
(c) Sixteen (d) Fifteen
A-94 || Mughal Period
35. Which among the following became an integral
part of Shahjahans empire ?
(a) Golkunda (b) Ahmednagar
(c) Bijapur (d) None of these
36. Who among the following rulers gave court
protection to Urdu?
(a) Shahjahan (b) Jahangir
(c) Aurangzeb (d) Muhammad Shah
37. Which company was authorized by Jahangir to
set up a factory in Surat?
(a) The English East India Company
(b) The French East India Company
(c) The United East India Company
(d) The Portuguese East India Company
38. Peasants who were brought from other villages
for tilling were called
(a) Khud Kasht (b) Pai or Pahi
(c) Girast (d) Gharuhala
39. The land which was kept reserved for the
assignment of land revenue was known as
(a) Mahal-i-Jagir (b) Mahal-i-Khalsa
(c) Mahal-i-Paibaqi (d) None of these
40. Which one of the following Mughal Generals
was not sent by Shahjahan against the Bundelas?
(a) Aurangzeb (b) Dara Shikoh
(c) Mahabat Khan (d) Abdullah Khan
41. As a Subedar of Deccan, for his second term,
whose assistance did Aurangzeb take in
implementing Todarmals revenue reforms in this
region?
(a) Murshid Quli Khan
(b) Shahnawaz Khan
(c) Malik Amber (b) Actual revenue
(d) Asad Khan
42. Who among the following has written that Babur
died of poisoning?
(a) Abul Fazal (b) Nizamuddin Ahmad
(c) Gulbadan Begum (d) Abbas Khan Sarwani
43. Who among the following emperors had the
highest number of Deccani in his army?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
44. Which of the following was the court language
during the reign of Akbar?
(a) Hindi (b) Urdu
(c) Persian (d) Arabic
45. Which of the following commodities constituted
the main item of exports in Mughal India?
(a) Opium and Indigo
(b) Cotton and silk fabrics
(c) Bullion and horses
(d) Sugar and Saltpetre
46. Which of the following tombs is placed in the
centre of a large garden and resembles as a
prototype of the Taj Mahal?
(a) Akbars tomb at Sikandara
(b) Itmaduddaulas tomb at Agra
(c) Shershahs tomb at Sasaram
(d) Humayuns tomb at Delhi
47. The largest number of Hindu Mansabdars were in
the period of
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
48. Where is Baburs tomb situated?
(a) Kabul (b) Lahore
(c) Delhi (d) Ayodhya
49. Which one of the following contemporary sources
depicts Humayuns passion for astronomy and
astrology?
(a) Tarikh-i-Rashidi (b) Tuzuk-i-Babri
(c) Humayun Namah (d) Qanun-i-Humayuni
50. On whose silver coins, Zodiac was depicted?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Humayun (d) Shahjahan
51. In the Mughal land revenue administration, we
come across a term Mahsul. What do you mean
by it?
(a) Expected revenue
(c) Revenue arrears
(d) Revenue from Khalsa lands
52. Which Mughal emperor abolished the old custom
of Sizda?
(a) Akbar (b) Shahjahan
(c) Aurangzeb (d) Bahadurshah
53. The officer called Diwan-i-Bayutat under Akbar
was concerned with
(a) Examination of expenditure of the Royal
Karkhanas
(b) Maintenance of revenue records
(c) Administration of Justice
(d) Supervision of Royal mints

54. Which one of the following tombs of the Mughal
emperors does not have a middle dome?
(a) Akbars tomb (b) Jahangirs tomb
(c) Shahjahan tomb (d) Aurangzebs tomb
55. The Delhi Madarasa known as Khairul Manazil
was built by
(a) Hamida Bano Begum (a) Dara Shikoh (b) Khwaja Baqi Billah
(b) Gulbadan Begum
(c) Maham Angah 66. Who among the following painters committed
(d) Shah Begum
56. What was the name of the rectangular silver coin
during Akbars reign?
(a) Rupiyah (b) Mohur
(c) Dinar (d) Jalali
57. Both Agra and Fatehpur Sikri are bigger than
London. This statement was made by
(a) Bernier (b) Manueci
(c) Ralph Fitch (d) Hawkins
58. The greatest painter of birds at Jahangirs court
was
(a) Basawan (b) Mansur
(c) Syed Ali Tabrizi (d) Khwaja Abdus Samad
59. Who among the following prohibited the use of
Tobacco?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
60. The noble who introduced important reforms in
the land revenue administration of Mughals in
Deccan during the reign of Shahjahan, was
(a) Murshid Quli Khan
(b) Asaf Khan
(c) Mahabat Khan (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
(d) Khan-i-Zama
61. Who among the following led a deputation of
Banaras Pandits to the Mughal emperor to seek
abolition of the Banaras and Allahabad?
(a) Harnath (b) Jagannath
(c) Kavi Hariram (d) Kavindracharya
62. Who among the following was the first English
man to visit western India ?
(a) Captain Hawkins (b) John Mildenhall
(c) Ralph Fitch (d) Thomas Stephens
63. Who among the following was the official
historian of Aurangzebs reign?
(a) Ishwardas Nagar (b) Bhimsen Kayastha
(c) Khafi Khan (d) Mohammad Kazim
History || A-95
64. Din-i-Ilahi was a movement of Akbars folly,
not of his wisdom. Who made this statement?
(a) A.L. Srivastava (b) R.P. Tripathi
(c) V.A. Smith (d) S.R. Sharma
65. Who among the following Sufis is known as
Mujaddid or reformer?
(c) Shah Waliullah (d) Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi
suicide?
(a) Basawan (b) Lal
(c) Daswant (d) Mahesh
67. The offsprings of which Mughal emperor were
born in a Sufis Khanqah instead of the Mughal
haram?
(a) Humayun (b) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
68. Historian Abul Fazal was killed by
(a) Hemu (b) Bairam Khan
(c) Udai Singh (d) Vir Singh Deo Bundela
69. Which among the following Hindu Painters was
sent by Jahangir to portrait Shah Abbas-I of Persia?
(a) Basawan (b) Bishan Das
(c) Dasrath (d) Manohar
70. Which one of the following Mughal emperors
is described in a Sanskrit text entitled.
Sarvadeshavrittanta Sangraha?
(a) Humayun (b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir (d) Shahjahan
71. During whose reign did Khan-Jahan Lodi revolt?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
72. Who among the following poets was given the
title of Malik-ush-Shoara by Akbar?
(a) Ashki (b) Qudsi
(c) Faizi (d) Farebi
73. Jahandar Shah ascended the throne after the death
of
(a) Azam Shah (b) Bahadur Shah I
(c) Farrukh Siyar (d) Muhammad Shah
74. Which one of the following was not among the
12 Ordinances of Jahangir?
(a) Prohibition of Wine
(b) Amnesty to Prisoners
(c) Abolition of Tamgha and Mir Bahri
(d) Confiscation of Madad-i-Mash lands
A-96 || Mughal Period
75. Kalanaur is known as a place of
(a) Akbars birth place
(b) Proclaimation of Akbar as the emperor
(c) Marriage ceremony of Humayun
(d) None of the above
76. What term was used for the advance money given
by the merchants to artisans for the required
goods?
(a) Taqavi (b) Dasturi
(c) Dadni (d) None of these
77. Who among the following Mughal kings had sent
Raja Ram Mohan Roy as his envoy to London?
(a) Alamgir II (b) Shah Alam II
(c) Akbar II (d) Bahadur Shah II
78. Who among the following ladies was a poetess?
(a) Gulbadan Begum (b) Jahanara
(c) Roshanara (d) Asmat Begum
79. One of the greatest painters of Akbars court
whom he employed as mint officer was
(a) Basawan (b) Keshav
(c) Mukund (d) Daswant
80. Which one of the following scholars was given
the title of Amir-i-Akhbar by Humayun?
(a) Jauhar
(b) Mirza Haidar Daughalat
(c) Abdul Wahid
(d) Khwandmir
81. The famous Jama-Masjid of Delhi was built by
(a) Humayun (b) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
82. Which among the following was also known as
Bandobast system?
(a) Zabti (b) Dahsala
(c) Nasaq (d) Kankut
83. Who among the following Mughal ministers was
the paymaster general as well?
(a) Diwan (b) Mir Bakshi
(c) Khan-i-Saman (d) Vakil
84. A Mansabdar who was paid in cash was called
(a) Naqdi (b) Jagirdar
(c) Amir (d) Mirza
85. Who among the following was the Diwan of
Akbar?
(a) Asad Khan (b) Sadulla Khan
(c) Muzaffar Khan (d) Mahabat Khan
86. Who of the following built the Agra Fort?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Sikandar Lodi (d) Shah Jahan
87. Which one of the following states of Rajputana
did not willingly accept Akbars sovereignty?
(a) Amer (b) Mewar
(c) Marwar (d) Bikaner
88. The Upanishads were translated into Persian by
Dara Sikoh under the title
(a) Al-Fihrist (b) Kitab-ul-Bayan
(c) Majm-ul-Bahrain (d) Sirr-i-Akbar
89. The building known as Purana Qila at Delhi were
built by
(a) Babur (b) Firoz Tughlaq
(c) Sher Shah (d) Shahjahan
90. What was the district called during the Mughal
period?
(a) Iqta (b) Sarkar
(c) Tarf (d) Subah
91. Mal is Mughal administrative terminology
represents
(a) Land revenue (b) Salary
(c) Allowances (d) None of these
92. In whose reign was the Treaty of Chittor signed
between Mughal and the Rana of Mewar?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
93. Who translated Ramayana into Persian in
accordance with the wishes of Akbar?
(a) Abul Fazl
(b) Abdul Rahim Khan-Khana
(c) Faizi
(d) Thomas Roe
94. The famous historical book Travels of the
Mughal Empire was written by
(a) Ibn-e-Battuta (b) Francois Bernier
(c) Al Baruni (d) Thomas Roe
95. Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri was built by
Akbar to commemorate his victory over which
province?
(a) Sindh (b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat (d) Mewar
96. Which of the following are the hereditary Jagirs?
(a) Watan Jagirs (b) Tankhwah Jagirs
(c) Tamgha Jagirs (d) None of the above

97. Who among the following was illiterate?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
98. The Battle of Khanwa in 1527 was fought
between
(a) Ibrahim Lodi and Rana Sanga contemporary of Akbar?
(b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
(c) Babur and Rana Sanga
(d) Humayun and Sher Shah
99. At the time, when Nadir Shah attacked Delhi, the
Mughal emperor was
(a) Ahmad Shah (b) Bahadur Shah
(c) Shah Alam II (d) Muhammad Shah
100. With whose permission, did the English set up
their first factory at Surat?
(a) Akbar (b) Humayun
(c) Jahangir (d) Shahjahan
101. Painting reached its highest level of development
during the reign of
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
102. The original name of Mumtaj Mahal was
(a) Arjumand Banu Begum
(b) Mehrunnisa
(c) Roshan Ara
(d) Ladli Begum
103. What were the Ahdis of Akbars time?
(a) Village level money lenders
(b) Village guards
(c) Cashiers working in Diwani
(d) Foot soldiers in the army
104. Which one of the following emperors was known
as Alamgir?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
105. Who built the Ibadatkhana at Fatehpur Sikri?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
106. In the Mughal administration, Muhatsib was
(a) Military officer
(b) Officer of foreign affair
(c) An officer in charge of public morals
(d) Office of correspondence department
History || A-97
107. Who among the following was defeated by Babur
in the First Battle of Panipat?
(a) Bahlol Lodi (b) Ibrahim Lodi
(c) Sikandar Lodi (d) Dawlat Khan Lodi
108. Who among the following Indian rulers was a
(a) Rani Durgawati (b) Ahilya Bai
(c) Martand Verma (d) Swai Jai Singh
109. Where did Babur die?
(a) Delhi (b) Agra
(c) Lahore (d) Kabul
110. Who was the author of Ain-i-Akbari?
(a) Abdul Qadir Badauni
(b) Gulbadan Begum
(c) Faizi
(d) Abul Fazl
111. Who was defeated at Kannauj in the hands of
Sher Shah in 1540?
(a) Humayun (b) Akbar
(c) Babar (d) Jahangir
112. Who among the following built the tomb of her
husband?
(a) Shah Begum (b) Haji Begum
(c) Ladli Begum (d) Noorjahan Begum
113. Who among the following deserves the credit for
construction of Lal Quila?
(a) Humayun (b) Sher Shah
(c) Akbar (d) Shahjahan
114. Kabuliyat and Patta was introduced by
(a) Sher Shah (b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir (d) Aurangzeb
115. Who wrote Akbarnama?
(a) Abdul Qadir Badauni
(b) Abdur Rahim Khanekhana
(c) Abul Fazl
(d) Faizi
116. Which historical monument in Delhi is a synthesis
of Persian and Indian styles of architectures?
(a) Qutub Minar (b) Lodis tomb
(c) Humayuns tomb (d) Red Fort
117. Aurangzeb was an expert musician of which
instrument?
(a) Flute (b) Tabla
(c) Veena (d) Sitar
A-98 || Mughal Period
118. A Mughal Begum whose name was written to all
the mughal Firmans and inscribed on the coins,
was
(a) Maham Anaga (b) Nur Jahan
(c) Mumtaz Mahal (d) Mariam Makani
119. Dara Shikoh finally lost the war of succession to
Aurangzeb in the battle of
(a) Dharmat (b) Samugarh
(c) Deorai (d) Khanua
120. In the Mughal administration, Madad-i-Mash
indicates
(a) Toll tax
(b) Revenue free land given to learned person
(c) Pension to army persons
(d) Cultivation tax
121. Tulsidas composed his Ramcharitamanasa in the
reign of
(a) Babur (b) Akbar
(c) Aurangzeb (d) Bahadur Shah
122. Itimad-ud-Daulas tomb at Agra was built by
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Nur Jahan
123. Who was called Zinda Pir in Mughal time?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Aurangzeb (d) Shahjahan
124. Who was the Sikh Guru to be slaughtered by
Aurangzeb?
(a) Ramdas (b) Arjundev
(c) Teg Bahadur (d) Govind Singh
125. Who of the following Mughal emperors was
coronated twice?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
126. Upanishads were translated into Persian during
the reign of
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
127. Who of the following was the emperor of India
when British East India company was formed in
London?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Humayun
128. The Mughal rulers of medieval India were in
fact
(a) Persians (Iranians) (b) Afghans
(c) Chagtai Turks (d) None of these
129. Which Mughal emperor abolished the Persian
court custom of Sijda?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
130. Todar Mal was associated to
(a) Law
(b) Land revenue reforms
(c) Literature
(d) Music
131. Court language during Mughal period was
(a) Arabic (b) Turki
(c) Persian (d) Urdu
132. Mausoleum (Dargah) of which Chisti saint was
most visited by Akbar?
(a) Moinuddin Chisti
(b) Sheikh Nasimuddin Chirag Dehalvi
(c) Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Qaki
(d) Sheikh Farid Ganja-i-Shakar
133. Mughal style of painting was started by
(a) Jahangir (b) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan (d) Humayun
134. The educational centre at Delhi called Madrasah-
i-Begam was established by
(a) Gulbadan Begam (b) Maham Anaga
(c) Zia-un-Nisa (d) Zinat-un-Nisa
135. During which one of the following battles, did
Babur declare Jehad?
(a) Battle of Panipat (b) Battle of Khanwa
(c) Battle of Chanderi (d) None of these
136. Who among the following emperors may be
called an enlightened despot?
(a) Babur (b) Humayun
(c) Akbar (d) Aurangzeb
137. Who among the following was appointed as a
physician in the Mughal service?
(a) Bernier (b) Coreri
(c) Manuchi (d) Tavernier
138. Who among the following shifted the capital of
the empire from Agra to Delhi?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
139. With which medieval ruler, would you associate
the statement I would have lost the empire just
for a handful of Millet?
(a) Babur (b) Akbar
(c) Sher Shah (d) Aurangzeb

140. Thomas Roe was received in audience by
Jahangir at
(a) Agra (b) Ajmer
(c) Delhi (d) Fatehpur Sikri
141. Which son of Aurangzeb revolted against his
father, weakening the latters position against the
Rajputs?
(a) Azam (b) Muazzam
(c) Akbar II (d) Kam Baksh
142. Revenue system during Akbars reign was in the
hands of
(a) Bairam Khan (b) Asad Khan
(c) Man Singh (d) Todar Mal
143. During the Mughal period, the copper coin was
known as
(a) Rupee (b) Dam
(c) Tanka (d) Shamsi
144. Jaziya was reimposed during the reign of
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Aurangzeb (d) Shahjahan
145. Two of the following states which Aurangzeb had
conquered in Deccan, were
(a) Ahmednagar and Bijapur
(b) Bidar and Bijapur
(c) Bijapur and Golconda
(d) Golconda and Ahmednagar
146. Where is the mausoleum of Sher Shah?
(a) Sasaram (b) Delhi
(c) Kalinjar (d) Sonargaon
147. Who did illustrate Datan-i-Amir Hamza?
(a) Abdus Samad (b) Mansor
(c) Mir Sayyed Ali (d) Abul Hasan
148. Who among the following was the daughter of
Emperor Aurangzeb?
(a) Jahan Ara (b) Roshan Ara
(c) Gauhar Ara (d) Zebunnisa
149. The Mughal emperor who prohibited the use of
Tobacco was
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
150. Which one is not situated at Fatepur Sikri?
(a) The Panch Mahal
(b) Moti Masjid
(c) Tomb of Salim Chisti
(d) The Mariam Palace
History || A-99
151. Who was the founder of Maratha dynasty?
(a) Shahu (b) Shivaji
(c) Rajaram (d) Balaji Vishwanath
152. Who among the following Maratha Chieftains
helped the Syed brothers in dethroning the
emperor Farrukhsiyer?
(a) Balaji Vishwanath (b) Baji Rao I
(c) Raghunath Rao (d) Raja Ram
153. Who was the Maratha Chieftain who captured
Lahore and brought Punjab under Maratha
Supremacy for a short period?
(a) Vishwas Rao
(b) Balaji Vishwanath
(c) Sadashiv Rao Bhau
(d) Raghunath Rao
154. Which one of the following wives of Shivaji
became Sati?
(a) Soyrabai (b) Sakawarbai
(c) Puttabai (d) None of these
155. What was Paga in the Maratha administration?
(a) Independent soldiers
(b) State dependent soldiers
(c) Professional soldiers
(d) Soldiers of other country
156. Which of the following Rajput states was taken
under direct control by Aurangzeb?
(a) Amber (b) Jaisalmer
(c) Marwar (d) Mewar
157. Which of the following was the last battle of Sher
Shah which proved most fatal to him?
(a) Gaur (b) Kannauj
(c) Kalinjar (d) Raisen
158. The English ambassador who had attended the
coronation of Shivaji with presents from East
India Company at Raigarh, was
(a) Captain Gray (b) Oxenden
(c) Humphery Cooke (d) Sir Gervase Lucas
159. Who among the following was the first Peshwa of
Shahu?
(a) Balaji Vishwanath (b) Baji Rao
(c) Balaji Baji Rao (d) Madhava Rao
160. In the Cavalry of Shivaji, a Jumla commanded
(a) 9 Havaldars (b) 10 Havaldars
(c) 15 Havaldars (d) 5 Havaldars
A-100 || Mughal Period
161. Which Fort ceded by Shivaji to the Mughals by
the terms of the Treaty of Purandar (1665 AD)
could not be won back by Shivaji?
(a) Purandhar (b) Mahuli
(c) Lohagadh (d) Shivneri
162. Raushaniya movement in India during the 16th
century was started by
(a) Akhund Darwiza (c) Ibrahim Khan Gardi
(b) Miyan Bayazid Ansari
(c) Miyan-Mustafa Gujarati 174. The Maratha power reached its zenith during the
(d) None of these
163. Mahdawi movement in India was started by
(a) Saiyid Muhammad Jaunpuri
(b) Abdullah Sultanpuri
(c) Shaikh Alai
(d) Abdullah Niyazi
164. Guru Granth Sahib in its present form was
compiled by
(a) Guru Nanak Dev (b) Guru Ramdas
(c) Guru Arjun Dev (d) Guru Gobind Singh
165. What was Bargir in Maratha army?
(a) Infantry (b) Front liner
(c) Cavalry (d) Water carrier
166. Who among the following was the lowest in rank
in the Maratha infantry?
(a) Nayak (b) Hawaldar
(c) Zumaldar (d) Hazari
167. In the third battle of Panipat, Marathas were
defeated by
(a) Mughals (b) Rohillas
(c) Britishers (d) Afghans
168. Roshan Akhtar was another name of
(a) Ahmed Shah (b) Muhammad Shah
(c) Jahandar Shah (d) Shah Alam
169. What was the original name of Afzal Khan?
(a) Abdullah Bhatari (b) Samsuddin
(c) Sabar (d) Muhammad Khan
170. Who among the following Maratha officers
looked after the revenue department?
(a) Peshwa (b) Amatya
(c) Sachiva (d) Sumant
171. One of the observatories established by Sawai Jai
Singh was at
(a) Agra (b) Indore
(c) Ujjain (d) Jodhpur
172. What was the stake in the agricultural production
in the land revenue system of Shivaji?
(a) 16% (b) 25%
(c) 35% (d) 40%
173. The Maratha artillery was mainly organised by
(a) Mir Habib
(b) Kanhoji
(d) Khande Rao Dabhade
Peshwaship of
(a) Balaji Vishwanath (b) Balaji II
(c) Baji Rao I (d) Madhav Rao
175. The largest number of Hindu mansabdars were in
the period of
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
176. This chief pays his spies liberally which has
greatly helped his conquests by the correct
information they give. Who gave this account of
Shivaji?
(a) Kafi Khan (b) Peter Mundi
(c) Abbe Carre (d) Massieur Germain
177. Name the Hindu ruler of the 18th century who
distinguished himself by performing Asvamedha
sacrifice twice
(a) Shivaji
(b) Abhaya Singh of Marwar
(c) Rana Jagat Singh of Mewar
(d) Sawai Jai Singh of Amber
178. On which aspect of medieval Indian history have
Havell, Furgusson and Percy Brown written?
(a) Literature
(b) Art and architecture
(c) Administration
(d) Socio-economic history
179. Who led the Marathas at the third battle of
Panipat?
(a) Baji Rao II (b) Jaswant Rao Holkar
(c) Mahadji Sindhia (d) Sadashiva Rao Bhau
180. The treaty of Purandra between Shivaji and Raja
Jai Singh took place in
(a) 1665 (b) 1664
(c) 1666 (d) 1669
 History || A-101

181. Khan-i-Jahan Lodi rebelled during the reign of
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
182. The first Mughal emperor who incorporated the
Marathas in the class of Umara was
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
183. Who among the following was given the title of
Shekh-ul-Hind?
(a) Baba Fariduddin
(b) Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti
(c) Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki
(d) Sheikh Salim Chisti
184. Who among the following Maratha Peshwas
followed the ideal of Hindu Pada Padshahi?
(a) Balaji Vishwanath (b) Baji Rao I
(c) Madhav Rao (d) Narayana Rao
185. Who among the following Maratha women led
struggles against of Mughal empire from 1700
AD onwards?
(a) Ahalya Bai (b) Mukta Bai
(c) Tara Bai (d) Rukmini Bai
186. In Shivajis Council of Ministers, the Prime
Minister was called
(a) Peshwa (b) Mantri
(c) Sachiv (d) Sumanta
187. Shivaji died in the year
(a) 1676 (b) 1677
(c) 1678 (d) 1680
188. Who was called Chankya of Maratha politics?
(a) Mahadji Sindhia (b) Nana Pharnabis
(c) Balaji Viswanath (d) Baji Rao II
189. During the reign of which of the following
Mughal emperors, was the Sikh leader Banda
Bahadur captured and executed?
(a) Aurangzeb (b) Bahadur Shah
(c) Jahandar Shah (d) Farrukhsiyar
190. The Sikh Khalsa was founded by
(a) Guru Nanak (b) Guru Hargobind
(c) Guru Teg Bahadur (d) Guru Govind Singh
191. The Maratha kingdom was founded by Shivaji
during the reign of
(a) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(b) Akbar
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
192. Who is considered the father of Sitar?
(a) Mian Tansen
(b) Baiju Bawara
(c) Khushro Khan
(d) Bade Ghulam Ali Khan
193. The medieval Indian writer, who refers to the
discovery of America was
(a) Malik Mohammad Jayasi
(b) Amir Khusrow
(c) Abul Fazal
(d) Raskhan
194. The Kirti-Stambha at Chittor was built by
(a) Rana Kumbha
(b) Rana Sanga
(c) Rana Pratap
(d) Rana Uday Singh
195. Who among the following rulers issued some
coins with figures of Rama and Sita and
Devanagari legend Rama-Siya?
(a) Bhoja (b) Akbar
(c) Zain-ul-Abidin (d) Jai Singh
196. Which of the following was the birth place of
Guru Nanak?
(a) Amritsar (b) Nabha
(c) Nankana (d) Nander
197. Who among the following was killed by Shivaji?
(a) Shaista Khan (b) Afzal Khan
(c) Jai Singh (d) Najib Khan
198. Who was the envoy of British king James I at the
court of Jahangir?
(a) William Finch
(b) Pietra Della Vella
(c) Edward Terry
(d) William Hawkins
199. The famous Kohinour diamond was produced
from one of the mines in
(a) Orissa (b) Chhotanagpur
(c) Bijapur (d) Golconda
200. Who of the following Sikh Guru was started
Gurumukhi script?
(a) Guru Nanak
(b) Guru Angad
(c) Guru Arjundev
(d) Guru Govind Singh
A-102 || Mughal Period

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 26. (d) 51. (a) 76. (c) 101. (b) 126. (c) 151. (b) 176. (c)
2. (b) 27. (d) 52. (b) 77. (c) 102. (a) 127. (a) 152. (a) 177. (d)
3. (d) 28. (c) 53. (a) 78. (b) 103. (d) 128. (c) 153. (d) 178. (b)
4. (a) 29. (b) 54. (a) 79. (d) 104. (d) 129. (c) 154. (c) 179. (d)
5. (c) 30. (c) 55. (c) 80. (d) 105. (a) 130. (b) 155. (b) 180. (a)
6. (b) 31. (a) 56. (d) 81. (c) 106. (c) 131. (c) 156. (c) 181. (c)
7. (d) 32. (a) 57. (c) 82. (b) 107. (b) 132. (a) 157. (c) 182. (b)
8. (b) 33. (a) 58. (b) 83. (a) 108. (a) 133. (d) 158. (b) 183. (d)
9. (a) 34. (d) 59. (b) 84. (a) 109. (b) 134. (b) 159. (a) 184. (b)
10. (d) 35. (b) 60. (a) 85. (c) 110. (d) 135. (b) 160. (d) 185. (c)
11. (b) 36. (d) 61. (d) 86. (a) 111. (a) 136. (c) 161. (d) 186. (a)
12. (b) 37. (a) 62. (d) 87. (b) 112. (b) 137. (c) 162. (b) 187. (d)
13. (c) 38. (b) 63. (d) 88. (d) 113. (d) 138. (c) 163. (a) 188. (b)
14. (c) 39. (c) 64. (c) 89. (c) 114. (a) 139. (c) 164. (c) 189. (d)
15. (c) 40. (b) 65. (d) 90. (b) 115. (c) 140. (b) 165. (c) 190. (d)
16. (d) 41. (a) 66. (c) 91. (a) 116. (c) 141. (c) 166. (a) 191. (d)
17. (a) 42. (c) 67. (b) 92. (b) 117. (c) 142. (d) 167. (d) 192. (c)
18. (c) 43. (d) 68. (d) 93. (d) 118. (b) 143. (b) 168. (b) 193. (c)
19. (a) 44. (c) 69. (b) 94. (b) 119. (b) 144. (c) 169. (a) 194. (a)
20. (d) 45. (b) 70. (b) 95. (c) 120. (b) 145. (c) 170. (b) 195. (b)
21. (b) 46. (d) 71. (c) 96. (a) 121. (b) 146. (a) 171. (c) 196. (c)
22. (c) 47. (d) 72. (b) 97. (a) 122. (d) 147. (a) 172. (d) 197. (b)
23. (b) 48. (a) 73. (b) 98. (c) 123. (c) 148. (d) 173. (c) 198. (d)
24. (a) 49. (d) 74. (d) 99. (d) 124. (c) 149. (b) 174. (b) 199. (d)
25. (b) 50. (b) 75. (b) 100. (c) 125. (d) 150. (b) 175. (d) 200. (b)

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Babur was the founder of Mughal dynasty.
Born on February 14, 1483 at Andizhan Babur was
the eldest of the three sons of Umar Sheikh Mirza.
The Mughal emperor Babur is described as a military
genius and a skillful warrior.
3. (d) Mehndi Khwaja favoured by prime minister Mir
Khalifa as Baburs successor instead of Humayun.
Baburs prime minister Mir Khalifa had doubts about
Humayuns abilities and tried to raise Mehdi Khwaja,
Baburs brother-in-law to the throne.
4. (a) Governor of Bengal was the infamous Qazi
Fazihat or Qazi Fazilat during the reign of Shar
Shah.
6. (b) Dawar Baksh was proclaimed as Mughal
emperor by Asaf Khan on Jahangirs death to ensure
Khurrams (Shahjahans) enthronement. Upon the

death of Jahangir, in order to secure the accession
of Shahjahan, Asaf Khan, the brother of Nur Jahan,
brought Dawar Baksh out of confinement, declared
him king and sent him to Lahore.
7. (d) Khurram sent Dara and Aurangzeb to Jahangirs
court in compliance with the terms of surrender after
his revolt.
8. (b) Mirra Marhar Jan-i-Jahan (Naqshbandiya) like
Dara Shikoh considered Vedas as the revealed book.
10. (d) Abul Hasan was a noted Jahangiri painter. Abu
al-Hasan was the son of Aqa Reza of Herat in western
Afghanistan, a city with an artistic tradition. Aqa Reza
had taken up employment with Jahangir before the
latters accession to the throne of the Mughal empire.
11. (b) Mehar Ji Rana was the invitees of Akbar to the
Ibadat Khana was not a Jain monk. The first Dastur
Meher Ji Rana was the undisputed spiritual leader
of the Parsi community in India during the sixteenth
century.
12. (b) Month scale in the Mansabdari system was
introduced by Shahjahan. Under Shah Jahan we
have new scales of pay, monthly rations and new
regulations prescribing the sizes of contingents under
various Sawar ranks.
13. (c) Hawkins was well versed in the Turkish
language, received a Mansab of 400 and the title of
English Khan or Firangi Khan.
14. (c) Babur wrote his autobiography in Turki
language. It is an autobiographical work, written
in the Chagatai language, known to Babur as
Turki (meaning Turkic), the spoken language
of the Andijan-Timurids. Baburs prose is highly
Persianized in its sentence structure, morphology,
and vocabulary, and also contains many phrases and
smaller poems in Persian.
15. (c) In 1615 AD, the famous treaty of Chittor signed
during the reign of Jahangir. In pursuance of his
fathers policy of imperialism, Jahangir aimed at the
conquest of the entire country. In 1605, he sent his
second son to reduce Rana Amar Singh, a Hindu ruler,
to submission. It was not easy to conquer the great fort
of Chittor. In 1608, the emperor sent another force.
Eventually, a treaty of peace was signed in 1615.
19. (a) Birbal had joined Akbars Din-i-Ilahi. Akbar
had started a religion called Din-i-Ilahi, which
History || A-103
acknowledges Akbar as Gods representative on earth
and had a combination of Hindu and Muslim beliefs.
In the Ain-i-Akbari (The Institutes of Akbar), it is
mentioned that Birbal was one of the few people other
than Akbar who were its followers, besides being the
only Hindu.
22. (c) Emperor Akbar conferred the title of Jagat Guru
on Harivijay Suri. 15261595 C.E: Muni Hiravijayji
Suri was the supreme pontiff of Tapa Gachcha order
of Jain Svetambara tradition. He is famous for
propounding the Jain philosophy to emperor Akbar
and turning him towards vegetarianism. Akbar was so
impressed with Hiravijaya Suri that he bestowed on
him the title of Jagat Guru. Akbar almost denounced
meat eating and almost turned to vegetarianism due
to inspiration from him.
25. (b) Edward Terry, the foreign traveller, describes
how the Ganga water was carried in copper vessels
for Mughal emperors to drink.
26. (d) The year 1581 AD of Akbars reign has been
regarded by the historian Vicent A. Smith as the most
critical time.
27. (d) Muhammad Shah had bestowed the title of Jagat
Seth to Fatehchand. Fatehchand was adopted son of
Manik Chand. He obtained the title of Seth from the
Emperor Farrakhsiyar. Muhammad Shah bestowed
him with the title of Jagat Seth.
28. (c) There were several types of Mughal light
artillery. If carried on the back of a man, they were
called Narnal; if carried on backs of elephants Gajal,
if on backs of camels Shutrnal.
29. (b) Gulbadan Begam was the author of Humayun-
nama. The Imperial Princess Gulbadan Begum (1523
1603) was a Perso-Turkic Princess, the daughter
of emperor Babur of India, she is most known as the
author of Humayunnama, the account of the life of
her half-brother, Humayun.
30. (c) The Mansabdari system introduced by Akbar
was a unique feature of the administrative system
of the Mughal empire. The term Mansab (i.e. office,
position or rank) in the Mughal administration
indicated the rank of its holder (Mansabdar) in the
official hierarchy. The Mansabdari system was of
central Asian origin. According to one view, Babur
brought it to north India.
A-104 || Mughal Period
33. (a) Akbar introduced the policy Sulah-i-Kul. By
Akbars time, many of the traditional difficulties had
been removed, and he was able to take full advantage
of the changes in outlook on both sides. One example
of this was his enunciation of the principle of Sulah-i
Kul, or universal tolerance, by which he accepted
responsibility for all sections of the population,
irrespective of their religion.
46. (d) Humayuns tomb at Delhi is placed in the centre
of a large garden and resembles as a prototype of the
Taj Mahal. Fourteen years after Humayuns death,
Hamida Banu Begam also known as Haji Begam
commenced the construction of his tomb. It is the
first proper example of the Mughal style influenced
by Persian architecture. Mirak Mirza Ghiyath, a
Persian architect was employed for this job. It is
now a UNESCO World heritage site. The tombs
centre piece is the tomb. This is believed to be the
predecessor or prototype of Agras Taj Mahal.
48. (a) The Bagh-e-Babur garden is the final resting
place of the first Mughal emperor, Babur. Although
present-day Afghanistan was not Baburs original
homeland (he was born in Ferghana in present-day
Uzbekistan), he felt sufficiently enamoured of Kabul
that he desired to be buried here. When Babur died
in 1530, he was initially buried in Agra against his
wishes. Between 1539 and 1544, Sher Shah Suri, a
rival of Baburs son Humayun, fulfilled his wishes
and interred him at Baburs Garden. The headstone
placed on his grave read If there is a paradise on
earth, it is this, it is this, it is this.
50. (b) Zodiac was depicted on the silver coins of
Jahangir. Mughal coins depicted images and zodiac
signs against Islams belief. The reading of the
Mughal coins opens up a whole new world. Each
Mughal coin has the full name of the respective
emperor and the years of his rule. Jahangirs coins
depicted him holding a glass of wine, with a halo.
He believed in zodiac signs. However, Shahjahan
melted the zodiac coins under pressure from religious
leaders.
56. (d) The mints during Akbars time issued gold,
silver and copper coins. The silver coin during the
Mughal rule of Akbar, known as rupee was round in
shape. The weight of the silver coins of Akbar was
172 grains. Akbar also issued a square-shaped rupee
coins, called Jalali. The rupee had its one-half, one-
fourth, one-eighth, one-sixteenth and one-twentieth
pieces.
58. (b) The greatest painter of birds at Jahangirs
court was Mansur. Mansur was the leading nature
painter at the court of the Mughal emperor Jahangir.
Mansur was extraordinarily talented for scientific
documentation. His detailed careful depictions of
plants and animals avoided all personal expression
and are extremely valuable for their scientific
accuracy as well as their artistic perfection. Some of
his studies are unsurpassed today.
63. (d) Mohammad Kazim was the official historian of
Aurangzebs reign. During the reign of Aurangzeb,
the man picked to write the AlamgirNamah was
Mirza Muhammad Kazim Shirazi. He successfully
compiled facts about the first 10 years of Aurangzebs
rule. After this, Aurangzeb forbade Kazim Shirazi
to continue any further probably because of the
extravagant expenditure involved in this work.
65. (d) Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi is known as Mujaddid
or reformer. He is described as Mujaddid Alf Thani
meaning the reviver of the second millennium,
for his work in rejuvenating Islam and opposing the
heterodoxies prevalent in the time of Mughal emperor
Akbar.
68. (d) Historian Abul Fazal was killed by Vir Singh
Deo Bundela. Vir Singh Deo was an ally of Jahangir
in the latters struggles against his father, Akbar.
Vir Singh killed Abul-Fazal Mubarak, an adviser of
Akbar in 1602.
69. (b) Bishandas was a 17th century portrait painter at
the court of the Mughal emperor Jahangir. Jahangir
praised him as unrivalled in the art of portraiture.
Though little is known of Bishandas life, his name
can indicate that he was a Hindu. In 1613, he was
sent on a diplomatic mission to Persia, to paint the
Shahs portrait. Here he was so successful that he
remained until 1620, when he returned with the gift
of an elephant.
71. (c) Khan-Jahan Lodis revolt during the reign of
Shahjahan. In 1628, Shahjahan faced a major revolt
by Khan Jahan Lodi. He had united with the ruler of
Ahmednagar and came out in open rebellion against
the emperor. The aggression by Khan Jahan came to
an end by the year 1660, when he surrendered and
died near the fort of Kalinjar.
73. (b) Jahandar Shah ascended the throne after the
death of Bahadur Shah I. The death of Bahadur

Shah was followed by the usual struggle among his
four sons for the throne. Jahandar Shah, the eldest
son of Bahadur Shah, killed his two brothers in the
battle which was fought on March 27 to 28, 1712 AD
ultimately, Jahandar Shah ascended the throne on
March 29, 1712 AD.
75. (b) Kalanaur is known as a place of proclamation
of Akbar as the emperor. In Kalanaur, Punjab, the
13-year-old Akbar was enthroned by Bairam Khan
on a newly constructed platform, which still stands.
He was proclaimed Shahanshah (Persian for King
of Kings). Bairam Khan ruled on his behalf until he
came of age.
76. (c) Dadni was used for the advance money given
by the merchants to artisans for the required goods.
Dadni system was the chief mode of business
activities of the European merchants. In this system,
long before the advent of season for a particular
commodity, the merchants used to reach the actual
cultivator or manufacturer through the local small
agents or Paikars and advanced money to them so
as to obtain right for the purchase of a particular
commodity.
77. (c) Akbar II had sent Raja Ram Mohan Roy as his
envoy to London. Akbar had little de-facto power
due to the increasing British control of India through
the East India Company. Shortly before his death, he
sent Ram Mohan Roy as an ambassador to Britain.
78. (b) Among the given ladies, Jahanara was a poetess.
She was highly educated and well versed in Persian
and Arabic, as well as a writer, painter and poet.
81. (c) The largest mosque in India, Jama Masjid in
Delhi, was built by Mughal emperor, Shahjahan in
1656 AD. The mosque in Old Delhi, displaying both
Hindu and Islamic styles of architecture, was built to
replicate Moti Masjid at Red Fort in Agra.
82. (b) Dahsala was also known as Bandobast system.
In 1580, Akbar instituted a new system called the
Dahsala or the Bandobast Arazi or the Zabti system.
Under this, the average produce of different crops
as well as the average prices prevailing over the last
ten years was calculated. One-third of the average
produce was the state share, which was, however,
stated in cash.
84. (a) A Mansabdar who was paid in cash was called
Naqdi. All those holding ranks below 1,000 began to
be called Mansabdars. The Mansabdars who received
History || A-105
pay in cash were known as Naqdi and those paid
through assignment of Jagirs were called Jagirdars.
86. (a) Akbar built the Agra Fort. The fort is built
alongside the Yamuna river and stretches almost 2.5
km. It consists of a wall built in red sandstone and
several buildings inside. The wall has 2 gates, the
Delhi Gate and the Amar Singh Gate. You can only
enter the fort via the Amar Singh Gate.
88. (d) Dara Shikohs spiritual quest for monotheistic
strands in Hindu philosophy was a continuous
process. This led him to study the Upanishads
and with the help of some scholars of Banaras, he
translated 50 Upanishads from Sanskrit to Persian.
The text he prepared, the Sirr-i-Akbar, the Great
Secret was completed in 1657. He was of the firm
opinion that the Great Secret of the Upanishads is
the monotheistic message, which is identical to that
on which the Quran is based.
89. (c) The building known as Purana Qila at Delhi was
built by Sher Shah. Three main gates on the north,
south and west are part of the fortifications of the
Purana Qila, the sixth city of Delhi, built by Sher Shah
Suri (153845). Sher Shah Suri raised his citadel after
demolishing Dinpanah, the city built byHumayun.
The fortifications of the Qila extended to a boundary
of 2 km (1.2 mi) on an irregularly oblong plan.
90. (b) During the Mughal period, district was called
Sarkar. In the 16th century, the Mughal emperor
Akbar organised the empire into Subahs, which
were further subdivided into Sarkars, roughly the
equivalent of districts, which were themselves
organised into Parganas. In the Mughal system,
Parganas served as the local administrative units of
a Sarkar
96. (a) Watan Jagirs are the hereditary Jagirs. Watan
jagirs were assigned to local Zamindars or Rajas and
were hereditary and non-transferable in nature. Many
Rajput princes were also the recipients of such Jagirs
from the Mughals.
97. (a) Akbar spent his childhood in the rough terrain of
Afghanistan. His early years were spent learning how
to hunt, fight and mature into a skilful warrior. He did
not find time to read and write and was illiterate. But
his illiteracy did not hamper his quest for knowledge
and desire to know about new things. Akbar had
a huge library and a vast collection of books and
scriptures.
A-106 || Mughal Period
98. (c) The battle of Khanwa in 1527 was fought
between Babur and Rana Sanga. The Rajput forces
of Rana Sanga, supplemented by the contingents
of Hasan Khan Mewati and the Afghan, Mehmud
Lodi and Raja Medini Rai of Alwar, met Baburs
army at Khanwa near Fatehpur Sikri in 1527. The
battle, which lasted for not more than 10 hours, was
bitterly contested and became an exceedingly brutal
affair. At a critical moment of battle, the defection of
Silhadi and his contingent caused a split in the Rajput
forces. Rana Sanga while trying to rebuild his front
was wounded and fell unconscious from his horse.
The Rajput army thought their leader was dead and
fled in disorder, thus allowing the Mughals to win
the day.
99. (d) At the time of Muhammad Shah, Nadir Shah
attacked Delhi. In the year 1739, Nadir Shah invaded
the Mughal empire and defeated the Mughal emperor
Muhammad Shah during the battle of Karnal, then
occupied and looted Delhi and much of the northern
regions of the Mughal empire.
101. (b) Painting reached its highest level of development
during the reign of Jahangir. He showed a leaning
towards painting and had an atelier of his own. His
interest in portraiture led to much development in this
artform. The art of Mughal painting reached great
heights under Jahangirs reign, combining technical
mastery with spiritual understanding of personalities
depicted in its portraits. Jahangirs expertise in the
arts is documented in his diary.
102. (a) Arjumand Banu Begum (also called Mumtaz
Mahal) was the third wife of Shahjahan, the Mughal
emperor. Mumtaz Mahal (meaning Jewel of the
palace) was the nickname her husband gave to her.
105. (a) Akbar built the Ibadatkhana at Fatehpur Sikri.
Ibadatkhana (House of Worship) was a meeting house
built in 1575 CE by the Mughal emperor Akbar,
where the foundations of a new Syncretistic faith,
Din-e-Ilahi were laid by Akbar.
107. (b) Ibrahim Lodi was defeated by Babur in the first
battle of Panipat. The first battle of Panipat was fought
on 21 April 1526 between Ibrahim Lodi, Sultan of
Delhi, and the Timurid warlord Zaheeruddin Babur.
Baburs force defeated Ibrahims much larger force
of over one lakh (one hundred thousand) soldiers.
This first battle of Panipat thus ended the Lodi Rule
established by Bahlol Lodi in India.
108. (a) Rani Durgavati was a contemporary of Akbar.
The riches of Rani Durgavatis state drew Abdul
Mazid Khans attention. He sought and gained
permission from Akbar to attack the Rani. Akbars
interest in the invasion was his wish to expand his
rule over central India.
109. (b) Babur died on 26 December 1530, of fever, aged
47, in Agra, India. Buried 9 years later, as per his
wishes, in a garden in Kabul. His sister Khanzada and
son Hindal also buried on the same garden terrace.
110. (d) Abul Fazal was the author of Ain-i-Akbari.
The Akbarnama is a document of history of Akbars
reign and his ancestors spread over three volumes. It
contains the history of Akbars ancestors from Timur
to Humayun, Akbars reign up to the 46th regnal
year (1602), and an administrative report of Akbars
empire, the Ain-i-Akbari, which itself is in three
volumes. The third volume of Ain-i-Akbari gives an
account of the ancestry and life of the author. The
Ain-i-Akbari was completed in the 42nd regnal year,
but a slight addition was made to it in the 43rd regnal
year on the account of the conquest of Berar.
111. (a) Humayun was defeated at Kannauj in the hands
of Sher Shah in 1540. In 1540, Humayun led an army
against Sher Shah, but was defeated at Bilgram Veer
Kannauj and fled from the country. Sher Shah became
the king and once again the Afghans became the ruler
of northern India.
112. (b) Haji Begum built the tomb of her husband. Her
important architectural legacy, is the mausoleum
of her husband, Humayuns tomb at Delhi, which
she commissioned in the late 16th century. The
mausoleum was the first one to have been built for
a Mughal emperor and was the first garden-tomb on
the Indian subcontinent. Begum was also known as
Haji Begum after she undertook the pilgrimage to
Hajj.
114. (a) Kabuliyat and Patta was introduced by Sher
Shah. Pathan Sultan Sher Shah Suri (1540 1545)
measured and classified the land in terms of the
produce and introduced Kabuliyat and Patta as
instruments of settlement. During Akbars time,
Todar Mal made some reforms to that system and the
whole empire was divided into Suba, Sarkar, Pargana
and Mahal.
115. (c) Abul Fazl wrote Akbarnama. Abul Fazal wrote
the work between 1590 and 1596 and is thought

to have been illustrated between c. 1592 and 1594
by at least forty-nine different artists from Akbars
studio.
117. (c) Aurangzeb banned music in the court and
relieved the musicians. Though instrumental music
was continued in the court. He was himself expert in
playing Veena.
119. (b) Dara Shikoh finally lost the war of succession to
Aurangzeb in the battle of Samugarh. Although Dara
Shikoh was the most powerful man in the Mughal
empire after his father Shahjahan, he knew little about
the art of war and military command. His loosely knit
army eventually crumbled and even refused to aid
each other.
122. (d) Itimad-ud-Daulahs tomb at Agra was built by
Nur Jahan. After her fathers death, Nur Jahan built
this mausoleum in memory of Mirza Ghiyas Beg,
from 1622 1625 AD. The first example of a tomb
built on a riverbank in India. Itmad-ud-Daulahs tomb
situated on the banks of the Yamuna, has many design
features that were later used in the Taj Mahal.
123. (c) Aurangzeb was called Zinda Pir in Mughal time.
Aurangzeb, was an orthodox, God-fearing Muslim.
Unlike the earlier Mughal emperors, he had a very
simple lifestyle. He never wore costly robes or used
gold and silver vessels. He even sewed caps and
copied the Quran to sell, so that he could earn money
for his use, rather than take it from the treasury. Due
to his smplicity, he was popularly called Zinda Pir
or a living saint.
126. (c) Upnishads were translated into persian
during the reign of Shahjahan. During the reign of
Shahjahan, his son Dara Shikoh, well versed in Indian
religion and philosophy, translated the Upanishads
into Persian.
129. (c) Shahjahan abolished the Persian court custom
of Sijda. Shahjahan also abolished the discipleship
ritual and other practices of his father and grandfather.
This pleased the orthodox Muslims immensely. The
tradition of Khanazadgi, born to the house, was
maintained, in which high-ranking nobles (Amirs)
were identified as the emperors extended household.
Khanazadgi and the hereditary service associated
with it applied to officers in high position and in
financial administration (Diwans, etc.)
132. (a) The Mausoleum (Dargah) of Moinuddin Chisti
was most visited by Akbar. The emperor Akbar was
perhaps the most fervent of them. It is said to be by
History || A-107
the blessing of Sheikh Salim Chishti that Akbars
first surviving child, the future Jahangir, was born.
The child was named Salim after the Sheikh and was
affectionately addressed by Akbar as Sheikhu Baba.
133. (d) Mughal style of painting was started by
Humayun. Mughal paintings dawned during the
time of Humayun. Praiseworthy Persian artists
Abd-us-Samad and Mir-Sayyid Ali accompanied him
on his return to India from exile. These artists hold
the credit for the growth of Mughal painting. )
135. (b) In 1527, Babur ordered a Jihad against Rajputs
at the battle of Khanwa. Publicly addressing his
men, he declared the forthcoming battle a Jihad. His
soldiers were facing a non-Muslim army for the first
time ever. This, he said, was their chance to become
either a Ghazi (soldier of Islam) or a Shaheed (Martyr
of Islam).
138. (c) In 1638, Shahjahan moved his capital from Agra
to a city in Delhi, known as Shahjahanabad, the new
capital city was laid out under the emperors auspices
from 1639 1648.
140. (b) Sir Thomas Roe was sent by James I in 1615.
He was both a scholar and a courtier and was well
qualified for the job given to him. He reached Surat
in September 1615 and proceeded to Ajmer where
Jahangir was. He remained at the court of Jahangir
from 1615 to 1618. He succeeded in obtaining a
Firman from Jahangir allowing the English to trade
at Surat. .
142. (d) Raja Todar Mal was the minister for revenue
in the court of Akbar. Building upon the foundations
laid by Sher Shah, Todar Mal introduced a system of
land reforms, the essence of which was an assessment
of the land revenue according to the extent of
cultivation, the nature of the soil and the quality of
the crops.
143. (b) During the Mughal period, the copper coin
was known as Dam. Silver Shahrukhis of 72 grains
weight and silver Rupiyahs 198 grains in weight had
a great circulation. Akbars copper coins of 330 grains
weight were known as Dam. 40 Dams were equal
to 1 silver Rupiyah and 9 Rupiyahs were equal to 1
Muhar in value.
144. (c) Jaziya was reimposed during the reign of
Aurangzeb. Aurangzeb reimposed the Jaziya the
hated poll-tax on non-Muslims, which the wise and
compassionate Akbar abolished early in his region.
A-108 || Mughal Period
145. (c) The two states which Aurangzeb had conquered
in Deccan were Bijapur and Golconda. In 1685,
Aurangzeb dispatched his son, Muhammad Azam
Shah, with a force of nearly 50,000 men to capture
Bijapur Fort and defeated Sikandar Adil Shah (the
ruler of Bijapur) who refused to be a vassal. The
Mughals could not make any advancement upon
Bijapur Fort mainly due to the superior usage of
cannon batteries on both sides. Outraged by the
stalemate, Aurangzeb himself arrived on 4 September
1686 and commanded the Siege of Bijapur; after eight
days of fighting, the Mughals were victorious. In
1687, Aurangzeb led his grand Mughal army against
the Deccan Qutbshahi fortress during the Siege of
Golconda.
146. (a) Sasaram is the mausoleum of Sher Shah.
Sasaram is the birthplace of the Afghan king Sher
Shah Suri, who ruled over Delhi, much of northern
India, now in Pakistan, and eastern Afghanistan
for five years, after defeating the Mughal Emperor
Humayun. The tomb of Sher Shah Suri at Sasaram is
an imposing structure of stone standing in the middle
of a fine tank and rising from a large stone terrace.
147. (a) Abdus Samad illustrates Dastan-i-Amir
Hamza. Mir Sayyed Ali, Khawaja Abdul Samad,
Mir Musavir and Dost Mir Hammad were the most
renowned Persian painters. They gave lessons to
Humayun and Akbar in painting. Humayun instructed
Mir Sayyed Ali and Khawaja Abdul Samad to
illustrate the Dastan-i-Amir Hamzah, the renowned
Persian book.
148. (d) Zebunnisa was the daughter of Aurangzeb.
Princess Zebunnisa is remembered as a poet, and her
writings were collected posthumously as Diwan-i-
Makhfi
150. (b) The Moti Masjid is a white marble mosque built
by the Mughal emperor Aurangazeb at the Red Fort
complex in Delhi.
151. (b) Shivaji was the founder of Maratha dynasty.
The Maratha empire (also spelled Mahratta and
also called the Maratha Confederacy) of India, was
founded by Chhatrapati Shivaji in 1674 when he
carved out an independent Maratha zone around
Pune from the Bijapur Sultanate. 167. (d) In the third battle of Panipat, Marathas were
156. (c) Marwar was taken under direct control by
Aurangzeb. In 1679, the Rathore clan under the
command of Durgadas Rathore rebelled when
Auranzeb refused to make the young Rathore prince
the king and took direct command of Jodhpur. This
caused great unrest amongst the Hindu Rajput rulers
under Aurangzeb and lead to many rebellions in
Rajputana.
157. (c) Kalinjar was the last battle of Sher Shah which
proved most fatal to him. In May 1545, when he
was campaigning against the Chandel Rajputs in
Bundelkhand (Kalinjar), a gunpowder explosion
fatally wounded him and thus this Afghan Tiger lost
his life in Bundelkhand, laying wounded in his tent
and worrying about the future of his wise schemes.
158. (b) The English ambassador who had attended the
coronation of Shivaji with presents from East India
Company at Raigarh was Oxendon.
159. (a) Balaji Vishwanath was the first Peshwa of
Shahu. Balaji Vishwanath assisted a young Maratha
emperor Shahu to consolidate his grip on a kingdom
that had been racked by civil war and persistent
attack by the Mughals under Aurangzeb.
160. (d) In the cavalry of Shivaji, a Jumla commanded
5 Havaldars. The most significant part of his army
was the Paga on state cavalry. There were two
classes in the cavalry, the Bargirs and the Shiladars.
There were regular grades in the cavalry, the unit
formed by 25 troopers over 25 troopers, there was
a Havaldar. Five Havaldars were placed under one
Jumladar and over 10 Jumladars, there was one
Hazari, five one Hazaris were under a Panj Hazari.
161. (d) Shivneri Fort ceded by Shivaji to the Mughals
by the terms of the Treaty of Purandar (1665 AD)
could not be won back by Shivaji.
162. (b) Raushanuja movement in India during the 16th
century was started by Miyan-Bayazid Ansari. He
was born in 1525 or 1515, in the city of Jalandhar,
Punjab. He was the leader of the antifeudal and anti-
Mughal movement of the Roshani in Afghanistan.
165. (c) Bargir was the Royal cavalry of the Maratha
army system. There were two kinds of cavalry, viz.
Bargirs and the Shiledars. Bargirs were provided
horses from the state and thus, the horses were
property of the royal household and were looked
after by state officers. Shiledars used to keep their
own horses.
defeated by Afghans. Battle of Panipat fought
on January 14th 1761 between the forces of the
Maratha Confederacy and the coalition of the kings

of Afghanistan, Ahmad Shah Durrani (also known
as Ahmed Shah Abdali) and his two Indian Muslim
allies; The Rohilla Afghans of Doab and the Nawab
of Oudh, Shuja-ud-aula. The battle was fought
at Panipat in present day Haryana, 95.5 km from
Delhi. took over the title of the emperor of the Maratha
169. (a) The original name of Afzal Khan was Abdullah
Bhatari. Afzal Khan was a medieval Indian
commander who served the Adil Shahi dynasty of
Bijapur, and fought against Shivaji. He was killed at
a meeting with Shivaji and his army was defeated in
the Battle of Pratapgad 1656. by fixing three strings to it and calling it the Sehtar
171. (c) One of the observatories established by Sawai
Jai Singh was of Ujjain. The idea behind building a
number of observatories at different locations in the
northern India was to make the same observations
from different places and thus reduce the errors
introduced due to the limits of resolution of human
vision. Sawai Jai Singh built the three small ones
at Ujjain, Mathura, and Banaras with the help of
Hindu astronomers who themselves had limitations
in civil engineering (architectural engineering).
174. (b) The Maratha power reached its zenith during
the Peshwaship of Balaji II. The Maratha state under
him reached its territorial zenith extending from
Cuttack to Attack and in July 1760 the Marathas
occupied Delhi.
179. (d) Nanasaheb Peshwa was then at the zenith of
his power having defeated the Nizam at Udgir. He
chose Sadashiv Rao Bhau to lead the Maratha army
to Delhi. Both Malhar Rao Holkar and Raghunath
Rao had deep knowledge of north India having lived
there and fought many battles there but Sadashiv
Rao Bhau was totally new to north India.
181. (c) Khan-i-Jahan Lodi rebelled during the reign of
Shahjahan. In 1628, Shahjahan faced a major revolt
by Khan Jahan Lodi. He had united with the ruler of
Ahmednagar and came out in open rebellion against
the emperor. The aggression by Khan Jahan came to
an end by the year 1660, when he surrendered and
died near the fort of Kalinjar.
186. (a) In Shivajis time, the king was the supreme
head of the state. He was assisted by a Council of
Ministers known as the Ashta Pradhan. The Prime
History || A-109
Minister or the Mukhya Pradhan was called the
Peshwa.
187. (d) Shivaji died on April 3, 1680. He was 50 years
of age during his time of death. He died at Raigad
due to high fever for three weeks. His son Sambhaji
empire.
192. (c) The origin of the Sitar is lost in antiquity.
Though its origin is generally attributed to Amir
Khusrow, and is one of the most ancient Indian
instruments. He is credited with making the Sitar
(seh three; tar strings). The word Sitar is said to
be a corruption of the word Sehtar.
194. (a) The Vijay Stambh (tower of victory) is located
in Chittorgarh, which was built by Rana Kumbha
in 1440 AD to celebrate his victory over Mahmud
Khilji of Malwa.
196. (c) Guru Nanaks birth place is now called Nankana
Sahib, near Lahore, Pakistan. His birthplace is
marked by Gurdwara Janam Asthan.
198. (d) In 1608, Captain William Hawkins came to
the court of Jahangir with a letter from James I,
king of England, requesting permission for the
English merchants to establish in India. But due
to vehement opposition of the Portuguese and the
Surat merchants, emperor Jahangir had to change
his mind and Hawkins mission failed.
199. (d) The Golconda fort used to have a vault where
once the famous Kohinoor and Hopediamonds were
stored along with other diamonds. Golconda was
once renowned for the diamonds found on the south-
east at Kollur Mine near Kollur (modern day Guntur
district), Paritala (modern day Krishna district) and
cut in the city during the Kakatiya reign. At that
time, India had the only known diamond mines in
the world.
200. (b) Guru Angad Sahib introduced a new alphabet
known as Gurmukhi Script, modifying the old
Punjabi scripts characters. It became the script of
the masses very soon. He took great interest in the
education of the children by opening many schools
for their instruction and thus increased the number
of literates.
 8
Initial Modern
History
1. In 1600, the charter to the English East India
Company for monopoly of eastern trade for 15
years was given by
(a) Queen Victoria (b) Queen Elizabeth I
(c) James Princep (d) Oliver Crownwell
2. Which one of the following was the first English
ship that came to India?
(a) Elizabeth (b) Titanic
(c) Red Dragon (d) Mayflower
3. Who were the first European to set up sea trade
centres in India?
(a) The Portuguese (b) The French
(c) The English (d) The Dutch
4. Who was the first Portuguese Viceroy in India?
(a) Vasco da Gama (a) War of Spanish succession
(b) Diaz
(c) Francisco de Almeida (c) War of devolution
(d) Albuquerque
5. Which one of the following factories in Bengal
was established by Portuguese?
(a) Kasim Bazar (b) Chinsura
(c) Hoogly (d) Srirampur
6. Vasco da Gama discovered the sea route to India
in which one of the following years?
(a) 1453 (b) 1492
(c) 1494 (d) 1498
7. Which one of the following was the first fort
constructed by the British in India?
(a) Fort St. Angelo (b) Fort St. George
(c) Fort St. David (d) Fort William
8. Which one of the following European trading
companies adopted the Blue Water Policy in
India?
(a) Dutch company
(b) French company
(c) Portuguese company
(d) British East India company
9. The battle of Wandiwas was fought between
(a) British and French companies
(b) British and Dutch companies
(c) Dutch and Portuguese companies
(d) French and Dutch companies
10. In the beginning, the motive of British East India
Company was
(a) Trade and territory
(b) Trade, not territory
(c) Only territory
(d) None of the above
11. Which of the following European wars flared up
the first Karnatic Wars in India?
(b) War of Austrian succession
(d) Franco-Prussian war
12. Where in India, did the Portuguese build their first
fortress?
(a) Cochin (b) Goa
(c) Anjidiv (d) Cannanore
13. Which European power did assist Balaji Baji Rao
against the Angres?
(a) The Portuguese (b) The Dutch
(c) The English (d) The French
14. The British East India Company was formed
during the reign of
(a) Henry VIII (b) James I
(c) Charles I (d) Elizabeth I
15. What was the name of the first ship of East India
Company of England which reached here on
August 24, 1600 AD?
(a) Edward (b) Hector
(c) Henary (d) William

16. How many times did Vascoda Gama come to
India?
(a) One only (b) Two times
(c) Three times (d) Four times
17. Where did the British East India Company open
its first factory in India?
(a) Masulipatanam (b) Surat
(c) Bharuch (d) Mumbai
18. Which Governor of Madras presidency made
treaty of Mangalore with Tipu?
(a) Eyercoote (b) Stephenson
(c) Lord Macartany (d) Wellesely
19. Who granted the permission to establish the first
British factory of Hoogly in Bengal?
(a) Shah Shuja (b) Murshid Quli Khan
(c) Shujauddin (d) Alivardi Khan
20. Who founded independent state of Bengal?
(a) Ilias
(b) Hussain Shah
(c) Murshid Quli Khan
(d) Alivardi Khan
21. Who among the following Europeans were the last
to come to pre-independence India as traders?
(a) French (b) English
(c) Dutch (d) Portuguese
22. Who among the following introduced
Cashewnut, Pineapple and Tobacco in India?
(a) Dutch (b) English
(c) French (d) Portuguese
23. The greatest Portuguese governor who laid the
real foundation of Portuguese power in India
was
(a) Francisco de Almedia (c) The Sarkar of Guntur
(b) Francis Drake
(c) Albuquerque 32. The statement, We have crippled over enemy
(d) Vascoda Gama
24. Who was Sir George Oxenden?
(a) First president of Council of Surat
(b) First governor of Bombay
(c) First president of Council of Madras
(d) None of the above
25. Which English governor of East India Company
in India was expelled by Aurangzeb?
(a) Aungier territories of Bengal, Hyderabad and Gujarat to
(b) Sir John Child
(c) Sir John William (a) Muhammad Shah (b) Aurangzeb
(d) Sir Nicholas Waite
History || A-111
26. Which one of the following Mughal emperors
gave an important Firman to the English of
facilitating their trade in India?
(a) Bahadur Shah I (b) Bahadur Shah II
(c) Shah Alam II (d) Farrukhsiyar
27. The Peshwa who engineered the capture of
Salsette and Bassein from the Portuguese in 1739
was
(a) Balaji Vishwanath (b) Baji Rao I
(c) Baji Rao II (d) Madhava Rao
28. Who was the first Indian native ruler to accept the
system of subsidiary alliance?
(a) Sindhia of Gwalior
(b) Nawab of Awadh
(c) Dilip Singh of Punjab
(d) Nizam of Hyderabad
29. The book Zij Muhammad Shahi related to
knowledge of astrology produced in 1733 is
written by
(a) Jaswant Singh of Jodhpur
(b) Raja Bharmall of Amber
(c) Sawai Jai Singh of Jaipur
(d) Maharana Amar Singh of Udaipur
30. The South Indian ruler who introduced sericulture
as an agro-industry in his kingdom was
(a) Tipu Sultan (b) Hyder Ali
(c) Krishnadeva Raya (d) Rajaraja II
31. What was the bone of contention between Nizam
Ali, the ruler of Hydrabad and the English?
(a) Masulipatanum
(b) Karnataka
(d) The Northern Sarkars
without making our friends too formidable, is
associated with
(a) Fourth Anglo-Mysore War
(b) Third Anglo-Mysore War
(c) Second Angle-Mysore War
(d) First Anglo-Mysore War
33. Who among the following Mughal emperors
granted permission to trade free of tax in the
the British?
(c) Bahadur Shah (d) Farrukhsiyar
A-112 || Initial Modern History
34. The Whitley Commission was concerned with
(a) Labour
(b) Education
(c) Public Health
(d) Reorganisation of civil services
35. Whom did Sir Charles Napier replace as British
resident of Sindh?
(a) Alexander Burnier
(b) James Outram
(c) Sir John Karne 45. The first English translation of Kalidasas
(d) Sir Eyre Coote
36. When was the East India Company brought under
the parliamentary control?
(a) 1773 (b) 1784
(c) 1793 (d) None of these
37. Which one of the following Acts created Board of
Control?
(a) Regulating Act 1773 Indian coins with the portrait of the British king?
(b) Pitts India Act 1784
(c) Act of 1813 (c) 1860 (d) 1758
(d) Act of 1833
38. Which one of the following, journals had
conducted a bitter campaign against the abolition
of the practice of Sati?
(a) Sambad Kaumadi (b) Residency (Lucknow)
(b) Bangadoot
(c) Samachar Darpan (d) Victoria Memorial (Calcutta)
(d) Samachar Chandrika
39. The emergence of British power in India is from
the battle of Buxar. Who made this statement?
(a) Sir Stephen (b) Ramsay Muir
(c) Dr. K.K. Datta (d) Dr. R.C. Majumdar
40. In 1757, Sirajuddaulah attacked British factory
at
(a) Dhaka (b) Calcutta
(c) Kasimbazar (d) Murshidabad
41. Which one of the following states was a
Milk-cow for the British?
(a) Hyderabad (b) Punjab
(c) Mysore (d) Awadh
42. Who among the following Europeans was first to
come India to establish trade relation with their
country?
(a) Dutch (b) Portuguese
(c) British (d) French
43. In which year, did the Nawab of Awadh virtually
become independent of the Mughal rule?
(a) 1740 (b) 1753
(c) 1756 (d) 1665
44. The permanent settlement of Lord Cornwallis
gave the ownership of land to
(a) Zamindars (b) Peasants
(c) State (d) Nobles
Shakuntala was published in 1781. Who
translated it?
(a) Charles Wilkins
(b) Johann Wolfgang Von Goethe
(c) James Princep
(d) William Jones
46. From which year, did the British start striking
(a) 1835 (b) 1858
47. Which building constructed in India by the British
was known as White Town?
(a) Fort William (Calcutta)
(c) St. George (Madras)
48. The British resident in Awadh at the time of its
annexation into British dominion was
(a) Bishop R. Heber (b) Colonel Napier
(c) James Outram (d) W.H. Sleeman
49. Who was the founder of the renowned Presidency
College (Former Hindu College) of Calcutta?
(a) Nathaniel Wallich
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Devendra Nath Tagore
(d) William Carey
50. The first all-Hindi newspaper Udanta Martanda
was published from Calcutta in the year 1826.
Who was its editor?
(a) Pandit Jugal Kishore Shukla
(b) Pandit Sadal Mishra
(c) Bhartendu Harishchandra
(d) Mahavir Prasad Dwivedi

51. Who influenced Mahadev Govind Ranade to
establish Prarthana Samaj in Bombay?
(a) Keshav Chandra Sen (c) Samachar Darpan
(b) Devendra Nath Tagore
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 59. Who among the following was the author of a
(d) Tek Chand
52. Dharma Sabha was founded in Calcutta in
opposition to the Brahma Samaj of Raja Ram
Mohan Roy. Who was its founder?
(a) Madhusudan Dutt
(b) Ram Narayan Tarkaratana
(c) Radha Kant Dev
(d) Man Mohan Ghosh
53. What was the main aim of the Deoband
Movement?
(a) To reform Islam
(b) To oppose English education
(c) To co-operate the British regime
(d) To modernise the Muslims
54. Who was the Nawab of Bengal when Diwani of
Bengal, Bihar and Orissa was granted to East
India Company?
(a) Siraj-ud-Daulah (b) Nazam-ud-Daulah
(c) Mir Kasim (d) Mir Jafar
55. Eden Gardens of Calcutta was built in 1840.
It was named Eden after the name of a sister
of a Governor General of India. Who was the
Governor General?
(a) Lord William Bentinck
(b) Charles Metacalfe
(c) Lord Auckland
(d) Lord Ellenbourough
56. Who was the first President of Fort William?
(a) Job Charnoka (b) Sir John Clive
(c) Sir Lord Clive (d) Sir Charls Ayar
57. Who was the chairman of the committee which
was to study the development in education after
1854 AD?
(a) H.T. Princep (b) W.W. Hunter
(c) H.H. Wilson (d) W. Jones
58. The first Vernacular newspaper of India was
published on May 31, 1818 by Carey and
Marshman from Serampore. It was in Bengali
language. What was its name?
History || A-113
(a) Samachar Sandhaya
(b) Samachar Bhumi
(d) Pratham Samachar
Drama Nila Darpana ?
(a) Sharat Chandra
(b) Harishchandra Mukherji
(c) Bankimchandra Chatterji
(d) Dinabandhu Mitra
60. Who was the Governor General who changed
the official language of the courts of Justice from
Persian to English?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord William Bentick
(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord Dalhousie
61. In which year, did the British introduce Gregorian
calender in their dominion in India?
(a) 1740 (b) 1752
(c) 1765 (d) 1772
62. Who was the Scholar who deciphered the ancient
Brahmi script for the first time?
(a) William Carey (b) William Jones
(c) James Princep (d) Nathanial Wallich
63. What was the real number of prisoners who died
in the Black Hole Tragedy according to the
available reports?
(a) 146 (b) 169
(c) 210 (d) 300
64. Who said, We have effectively crippled
our enemy without making our friends too
formidable?
(a) Lord Hastings (b) Lord Welleseley
(c) Sir John Shore (d) Lord Cornwallis
65. To overthrow the British rule, Kuka Movement
was organised in
(a) Punjab (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bihar (d) Maharashtra
66. The first financial bank under European guidelines
was established in India in 1770 in Calcutta by
Alexander and Co. What was the name of that
bank?
(a) People Bank (b) Indian Bank
(c) European Bank (d) Bank of Hindustan
A-114 || Initial Modern History
67. After his defeat in the battle of Plassey, Siraj-ud- 76. Which one of the following Governors General
Daulah fled from the battlefield, which one of the was conversant with Arabic, Persian and Bengali
following carriers he used? (a) Sir John Shore
(a) Camel (b) Elephant (b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Horse (d) Palanquin (c) Lord William Bentinck
68. Which one of the following poets had said that (d) Warren Hastings
the Battle of Plassey was A Night of Eternal 77. Which one of the following founded the Atmiya
Gloom? Sabha?
(a) Navin Chandra Sen (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (b) Devendra Nath Tagore
(c) Ravindranath Tagore (c) Swami Vivekanand
(d) Subramania Bharti (d) Akshay Kumar Dutt
69. Who of the following was not amongst the 78. Tuhafat-ul-Muwahidin a tract written by Ram
members of Governor Generals Council named Mohan Roy is
in the Regulating Act 1773? (a) First tract against idolatry
(a) Clavering (b) Monson (b) First tract against Kulinism
(c) Barwell (d) Hyde (c) First tract against system of Sati
70. Who signed the Treaty of Pune on the 13th June (d) First tract against widow remarriage
1817? 79. By which treaty, did the English East India
(a) Daulat Rao Schindhia Company gain the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar
(b) Baji Rao II and Orissa?
(c) Appa Saheb (a) Treaty of Murshidabad
(d) Malhar Rao Holkar (b) Treaty of Hoogly
71. State the sectors where highest amount of British (c) Treaty of Allahabad
capital was invested in India? (d) Treaty of Hariharpur
80. By which of the following Acts, was the Board
(a) Tea, coffee and indigo
of Control created?
(b) Railways, banking, insurance and shipping
(a) Regulating Act, 1773
(c) Taxtiles
(b) Pitts India Act, 1784
(d) Jute Mills
(c) Charter Act, 1813
72. Kamiauti system prevalent in Bihar and Orissa
(d) Charter Act, 1833
meant
81. The first newspaper published in India was
(a) A social custom
(a) The Calcutta Chronicle
(b) A religious rite
(b) The Calcutta Gazette
(c) A form of bonded labour
(c) The Indian Gazette
(d) A traditional village institution (d) The Bengal Gazette
73. The Filtration Theory in educational policy of 82. The treaty of Manglore was signed at the end of
India was propagated by (a) First Anglo-Mysore war
(a) W.C. Wood (b) Lord Macaulay (b) Second Anglo-Mysore war
(c) J. Mill (d) Lord Cornwallis (c) Third Anglo-Mysore war
74. The journal Bengal Gazette was (d) Fourth Anglo-Mysore war
(a) daily (b) weekly 83. First decisive military success of English East
(c) fortnightly (d) monthly India Company in india is marked by
75. Who said, Bantinck infused into oriented (a) Battle of Buxar
despotism the spirit of British freedom? (b) Battle of Plassey
(a) Jeremy Bentham (b) J.S. Mill (c) Battle of Wandiwash
(c) Lord Macaulay (d) Grenville (d) Battle of Chilianwala
 History || A-115

84. Which one of the following wars was ended by 93. The Treaty of Bassein was signed with the British
the treaty of madras ? by Peshwa
(a) First Carnatic war (a) Balaji Baji Rao (b) Baji Rao I
(b) Second Carnatic war (c) Baji Rao II (d) Madhav Rao
(c) First Mysore war 94. Which Maratha state was the last to accept the
(d) Second Mysore war subsidiary alliance of the British?
85. Who was appointed Deputy Diwan of Bengal by (a) Gaikwad (b) Sindhia
Robert Clive after Allahabad treaty? (c) Holkar (d) Bhonsle
(a) Rai Durlabh 95. During whose tenure, did the incident of Black
(b) Raja Shitab Rai Hole take place?
(c) Syed Ghulam Hussain (a) Mir Zafar (b) Mir Qasim
(d) Mohammed Raz Khan (c) Alivardi Khan (d) Siraj-ud-Daulah
86. Who among the following Governors General 96. Which one of the following had for the first time
formed the triple alliance against Tipu Sultan? accepted that British victory at Plasy was the
(a) Warren Hastings victory of breach of faith?
(b) Lord Cornwallis (a) Lord Clive (b) Vansittort
(c) Lord Wellesley (c) Hector Munro (d) None of these
(d) Lord William Bentick 97. When was the treaty of Alinagar signed?
87. Who among the following joined Mir Qasim and (a) February 1756 (b) September 1756
Shuja-ud-Daula in declaring war upon the English (c) February 1757 (d) April 1757
East India Company and was later defeated by 98. Which one of the following had drafted the Hindu
the British at the Battle of Buxar? Widows Remarriage Act ?
(a) Farrukhsiyar (b) Jahandar Shah (a) Lord Canning
(c) Muhammad Shah (d) Shah Alam II (b) Lord Dalhousie
88. Which one of the following Indians was appointed (c) Lord Hardinge
as Deputy Diwan of Bihar? (d) None of the above
(a) Manik Chand (b) Omi Chand 99. Who among the following had started the Public
(c) Rai Durlabh (d) Raja Shitab Rai Works Department in India in 1848?
89. The treaty of Amritsar was concluded between (a) Lord William Bentinck
Maharaja Ranjit Singh and who of the (b) Lord Dalhousie
following? (c) Lord Wellesley
(a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Dalhousie (d) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Hastings (d) Lord Minto 100. Between which stations was the first railway line
90. The ruler of which one of the following states was opened in India?
removed from power by the British on the pretext (a) Calcutta to Raniganj
of misgovernance? (b) Bombay to Pune
(a) Awadh (b) Jhansi (c) Calcutta to Jamshedpur
(c) Nagpur (d) Satara (d) Bombay to Thane
91. Who founded the independent state of Awadh? 101. Marathas signed the treaty of Salbai in 1782 with
(a) Shujauddaula (b) Aasfuddaula the English at the instance of
(c) Safdarjung (d) Saadat Khan (a) Peshwa (b) Gaekwar
92. The Treaty of Alinagar was concluded between (c) Sindhia (d) Holkar
(a) Murshid Quili Khan and Lord Welleseley 102. In the permanent settlement, the share of
(b) Shuja-ud-Daulah and Warren Hastings Zamindar stood at
(c) Siraj-ud-Daulah and Lord Clive (a) 1/4 (b) 1/6
(d) Mir Jafar and Lord Clive (c) 1/11 (d) 1/2
A-116 || Initial Modern History
103. The Ryotwari settlement of Madras was 111. The name of the Act enabling the Hindus converted
introduced by into Christianity to inherit their ancestral property
(a) Cornwallis (b) Wingate was
(c) Clive (d) Munro (a) Act XXI, 1850 (b) Act XXII, 1850
104. The drain of wealth from India to England began (c) Act XXIII, 1850 (d) Act XXIV, 1850
after the 112. Which one of the following settlements did
(a) Permanent settlement comprise Zamindar as middleman to collect the
(b) Grant of Diwani land revenue?
(c) Removal of Mir Qasim (a) Mahalwari settlement
(d) Conquest of Mysore
(b) Ryotwari settlement
105. A single shelf of a good European library was
(c) Permanent settlement
worth the whole native literature of India and
(d) None of the above
Arabia. Who made this statement?
113. Who was the Governor General of India at the
(a) Lord Macaulay
(b) Lord William Bentinck time of Sindh-annexation?
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (a) Lord Auckland
(d) Sir Charles Wood (b) Lord Mayo
106. The first definite step to provide parliamentary (c) Lord Dalhousie
control over East East India Company was taken (d) Lord Ellenborough
by 114. Identify the districts of Bengal whose revenue
(a) Regulating Act 1773 administration was transferred to the East India
(b) Pitts India Act 1784 Company for the acquisition of the Nawabship of
(c) Charter Act 1793 Bengal by Mir Qasim in 1760
(d) Charter Act 1833 (a) Burdwan, Midnapur and Hoogly
107. Who started the practice of granting the rights of (b) Decca, Chattagaon and Hoogly
collecting land revenue to the highest bidder? (c) Howrah, Midnapur and Hoogly
(a) Lord Clive (b) Lord Cornwallis (d) Murshidabad, Balasore and Chandranagar
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Warren Hastings 115. Who among the following was the advisor of
108. The first tribal group which rose against the Lord Cornwallis in his judicial reforms?
British was (a) Jonathan Duncan (b) Charles Grant
(a) Kolarian (b) Mundas
(c) James Grant (d) Sir William Jones
(c) Khasis (d) Santhals
116. Which one of the following regulations declared
109. Who among the following historians has remarked
the custom of Sati as illegal?
that the government of Bengal during the period
(a) Regulation XIV of 1829
1765 AD to 1772 AD was a Robber State?
(a) K. M. Panikkar (b) Regulation XV of 1829
(b) G.W. Forest (c) Regulation XVI of 1829
(c) Lord Macaulay (d) Regulation XVII of 1829
(d) Nand Lal Chatterjee 117. Who started the socio-religious organization
110. The Rahnumai Mazadayasan Sabha was started Tattvabodhini Sabha and its appended journal
in 1851 to bring about socio-religious reforms Tattvabodhini?
amongst the Parsees. Whose name does not occur (a) Ram Mohan Roy
in its founders list? (b) Radhakant Dev
(a) Naoroji Furdonji (b) Dadabhai Naoroji (c) Devendranath Tagore
(c) S.S. Bengali (d) Shibli Nomani (d) Dwarkanath Tagore
 History || A-117

118. Who among the following authored the book 127. The first Englishman to acquire the knowledge of
entitled The Precepts of Jesus, the Guide to Sanskrit was
Peace and Happiness? (a) James Princep (b) Sir William Jones
(a) Ram Mohan Roy (c) Charles Wilkins (d) Max Muller
(b) Michael Madhusudan Dutt 128. Which one of the following had received the title
(c) Thomas Babington Macaulay of Jagat Seth from Muhammad Shah?
(d) William Carey (a) Hiranand Shah (b) Omichand
119. Who was the leader of the Farazi rebellion? (c) Fatehchand (d) None of the above
(a) Aga Muhammad Raza 129. Who was the Marathee Sardar when Alivardi
(b) Dudu Miyan Khan ceded the revenues of a part of Orissa?
(c) Shamsher Gazi (a) Raghuji Bhonsle
(d) Wazir Ali (b) Trimbak Rao Dhabade
120. What did the India Act V of 1843 made illegal? (c) Ranoji Sindhia
(a) Child marriage (b) Infanticide (d) Malhar Rao Holkar
(c) Slavery (d) Sati 130. Who of the following laid the first rail line in
121. Who of the following introduced the revenue India?
system called Permanent Settlement? (a) Lord Ellenborough
(a) Lord William Bentinck (b) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Cornwallis (c) Lord Dufferin
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Dalhousie 131. Which one among the following states was first
122. In which year, Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the annexed by Lord Dalhousie under the Doctrine
Brahmo Samaj? of Lapse?
(a) 1822 (b) 1828 (a) Hydarabad (b) Jhansi
(c) 1830 (d) 1833 (c) Sambalpur (d) Satara
132. Who among the following was the first European
123. In India, among the following locations, the
to initiate the policy of taking part in the quarrels
Dutch established their earliest factory at
of Indian Princes with a view to acquire territories?
(a) Surat (b) Pulicat
(a) Lord Clive (b) Dupleix
(c) Cochin (d) Cassimbazar
(c) Albuquerque (d) Warren Hastings
124. Who of the following led the army of the East
133. At the time when empires in Europe were
India Company in the battle of Buxar in 1764?
crumbling before the might of Napoleon, which
(a) Hector Munro (b) Watson
one of the following Governors General kept the
(c) Warren Hastings (d) Lord Clive
British flag flying high in India?
125. Who was the father of Civil Service?
(a) Warren Hastings (b) Lord Cornwallis
(a) Lord Minto
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Wellesley
134. Who was the first Governor General of Bengal?
(c) Lord William Bentinck (a) Lord Clive (b) Warren Hastings
(d) Lord Cornwallis (c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Hastings
126. Whom did Sir Charles Napier replace as the 135. Who among the following was the first Governor
British resident of Sindh? General of India?
(a) Alexander Burner (a) Robert Clive
(b) Major James Outram (b) Lord Canning
(c) Sir John Karne (c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Sir Eyer Coote (d) Lord Wellesley
A-118 || Initial Modern History
136. Kol revolt of 1831 32 was led by 144. Who among the following was the British
(a) Buddhu Bhagat (b) Surga residence in Awadh at the time of its annexation
(c) Siddhu (d) Ram Singh into British dominion?
137. Which British Commander was defeated by the (a) James Outram (b) W.H. Sleeman
Santhals in 1855?
(c) General Low (d) Bishop R. Hebar
(a) Captain Nek Feville
145. Subsidiary alliance was implemented during the
(b) Lt. Bastain
(c) Major Burrough reign of
(d) Colonel White (a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Wellesley
138. By virtue of whose efforts, Hindu Widow (c) Sir John Shore (d) Lord Auckland
Remarriage Act was passed in 1856? 146. In which of the following Acts, the provision was
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar made for the establishment of Supreme Court at
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy Calcutta?
(c) H.V. Derozio (a) Regulating Act, 1773
(d) Vishnu Shastri Pandit (b) Pitts India Act, 1784
139. Which one of the following revolts was made (c) Charter Act, 1813
famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his (d) Charter Act, 1833
novel Anand Math? 147. The last King of Sikh Kingdom was
(a) Bhil Uprising (a) Ranjeet Singh (b) Navnihal Singh
(b) Pagal Panthis Revolt
(c) Daleep Singh (d) Sher Singh
(c) Munda Revolt
148. Who among the following has been called as a
(d) Sanyasi Rebellion
Heaven Born General?
140. Who among the following immediately
succeeded Ram Mohan Roy as the head of the (a) Francis Dupleix (b) Robert Clive
Brahma Samaj? (c) Albuquerque (d) Lord Cornwallis
(a) Keshav Chandra Sen 149. Who among the following had said, God
(b) Devendra Nath Tagore intended me to look upon all religions with one
(c) Akshay Kumar Datta eye, that is why he took away the light from the
(d) Shinath Shastri other?
141. Who among the following started the newspaper (a) Maharaja Dalip Singh
Shome Prakash? (b) Maharaja Sher Singh
(a) Dayanand Saraswati (c) Maharaja Ranjeet Singh
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (d) None of the above
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 150. Who of the following was impeached in the
(d) Akshay Kumar Datta British Parliament?
142. The tomb of Lord Cornwallis is situated at
(a) Warren Hastings
(a) Ghazipur (b) Gorakhpur
(b) Lord Hastings
(c) Varanasi (d) Ballia
(c) Lord Clive
143. Which Governor General had abolished slavery
(d) None of the above
in India?
(a) Lord Cornwallis 151. Who among the following was founded the
(b) Lord Wellesley Asiatic Society of Bengal?
(c) Lord William Bentinck (a) J.A. Hickey (b) Max. Muller
(d) Lord Ellenborough (c) Willkins (d) William Jones

152. The leading light of the Renaissance Movement
in India was
(a) Devendra Nath Tagore
(b) Keshav Chandra Sen
(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
153. The kingdom of Ranjeet Singh included
(a) Delhi (b) Kabul
(c) Makran (d) Srinagar
154. Who among the following was the founder of
Calcutta?
(a) Charles Ayar (b) Job Charnock
(c) Garold Angiyar (d) William Novris
155. Brahmo Samaj of Raja Ram Mohan Roy was
against child marriage. Inspite of this, one of
his followers himself married his daughter in
childhood and paved the way for disintegration
of this institution. Who was that follower?
(a) Devendra Nath Tagore
(b) Keshav Chandra Sen
(c) Ramchandra Vidyavageesh
(d) Dwarka Nath Tagore
156. The Bengali leader who opposed socio-religious
reforms and supported orthodoxy was
(a) Radhakant Dev 163. Cornwallis code of 1793 separated
(b) Nemisadhan Bose
(c) Hemchandra Biswas civil justice
(d) Hemchandra De
157. Ram Mohan Roy was given the title of Raja by
(a) Lord William Bentinck
(b) Akbar II
(c) Followers of Brahma Samaj
(d) Intellectuals opposing the custom of Sati
History || A-119
158. Sharada Act fixed the minimum age of marriage
of girls and boys respectively as
(a) 12 and 16 (b) 14 and 18
(c) 15 and 21 (d) 16 and 22
159. Who is considered as the prophet of Indian
Nationalism?
(a) M.K. Gandhi
(b) Ravindra Nath Tagore
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Dayanand Saraswati
160. The Brahmo Samaj is based on the principle of
(a) Monotheism (b) Polytheism
(c) Atheism (d) Monism
161. Who among the following formulated and
implemented the Doctrine of Lapse?
(a) Lord Wellesley (b) Lord Clive
(c) Lord Hastings (d) Lord Dalhousie
162. Through which one of the following were
commercial activities of the East India Company
finally put to an end ?
(a) The Charter Act of 1793
(b) The Charter Act of 1813
(c) The Charter Act of 1833
(d) The Charter Act of 1853
(a) Revenue collection for administration of
(b) Civil administration from judicial
administration
(c) The Bengal administration from central
administration
(d) The civil administration from military
administration
A-120 || Initial Modern History

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 22. (d) 43. (b) 64. (d) 85. (d) 106. (a) 127. (c) 148. (b)
2. (c) 23. (c) 44. (a) 65. (a) 86. (b) 107. (d) 128. (c) 149. (c)
3. (a) 24. (b) 45. (d) 66. (d) 87. (d) 108. (c) 129. (a) 150. (a)
4. (c) 25. (b) 46. (a) 67. (a) 88. (d) 109. (a) 130. (d) 151. (d)
5. (c) 26. (d) 47. (c) 68. (a) 89. (d) 110. (d) 131. (d) 152. (d)
6. (d) 27. (b) 48. (c) 69. (d) 90. (a) 111. (a) 132. (b) 153. (d)
7. (b) 28. (d) 49. (b) 70. (b) 91. (d) 112. (c) 133. (d) 154. (b)
8. (c) 29. (c) 50. (a) 71. (b) 92. (c) 113. (d) 134. (b) 155. (b)
9. (a) 30. (a) 51. (a) 72. (c) 93. (c) 114. (a) 135. (c) 156. (a)
10. (b) 31. (c) 52. (c) 73. (b) 94. (c) 115. (d) 136. (a) 157. (b)
11. (b) 32. (b) 53. (b) 74. (b) 95. (d) 116. (d) 137. (c) 158. (b)
12. (a) 33. (d) 54. (b) 75. (c) 96. (a) 117. (c) 138. (a) 159. (c)
13. (c) 34. (a) 55. (c) 76. (d) 97. (c) 118. (a) 139. (d) 160. (a)
14. (d) 35. (b) 56. (d) 77. (a) 98. (b) 119. (b) 140. (b) 161. (d)
15. (b) 36. (a) 57. (b) 78. (a) 99. (b) 120. (c) 141. (b) 162. (c)
16. (c) 37. (b) 58. (c) 79. (c) 100. (d) 121. (b) 142. (a) 163. (b)
17. (b) 38. (d) 59. (d) 80. (b) 101. (c) 122. (b) 143. (d)
18. (c) 39. (a) 60. (b) 81. (d) 102. (c) 123. (c) 144. (a)
19. (a) 40. (c) 61. (b) 82. (b) 103. (d) 124. (a) 145. (b)
20. (c) 41. (d) 62. (c) 83. (a) 104. (b) 125. (d) 146. (a)
21. (a) 42. (b) 63. (a) 84. (c) 105. (a) 126. (b) 147. (c)

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) The charter to the English East India Company
for monopoly of eastern trade for 15 years was
given by Queen Elizabeth I in 1600. Initially, the
Company struggled in the spice trade due to the
competition from the already well-established
Dutch East India Company. The company opened
a factory in Bantam on the first voyage and imports
of pepper from Java were an important part of the
companys trade for twenty years. The factory in
Bantam was closed in 1683. During this time, ships
belonging to the company arriving in India docked
at Surat, which was established as a trade transit
point in 1608.
2. (c) Red Dragon was the first English ship that came
to India. The Red Dragon fought the Portuguese
at the Battle of Swally in 1612, and made several
voyages to the East Indies.
3. (a) The Portuguese were the first Europeans to set
up Sea trade centres in India. The first successful
voyage to India was by Vasco da Gama in 1498,
when he arrived in Calicut, now in Kerala. The
colonial era in India began in 1502, when the
Portuguese empire established the first European
trading centre at Kollam, Kerala.

4. (c) Francisco de Almeida was the first Portuguese
viceroy in India. In 1505, the King of Portugal
appointed Dom Francisco de Almeida as the first
Portuguese viceroy in India, followed in 1509 by
Dom Afonso de Albuquerque. In 1510, Albuquerque
conquered the city of Goa, which had been controlled
by Muslims.
5. (c) The factory of Hoogly in Bengal was
established by Portuguese.
6. (d) Vasco da Gama discovered the sea route to
India in 1498. The first Portuguese encounter with
India was on 20 May 1498 when Vasco da Gama
reached Calicut on Malabar Coast. Vasco da Gama
sailed to India for a second time with 15 ships and
800 men, arriving at Calicut on 30 October 1502,
where the ruler was willing to sign a treaty.
7. (b) Fort St. George was the first fort constructed by
the British in India. Fort St George was founded in
1644 at the coastal city of Madras, the modern city
of Chennai. The construction of the fort provided the
impetus for further settlements and trading activity,
in what was originally an uninhabited land. The fort
is one of the 163 notified areas (megalithic sites) in
the state of Tamil Nadu.
8. (c) Portuguese trading company adopted the Blue
Water Policy in India. Francisco de Almeida became
the 1st Portuguese viceroy in India initiated the
Blue Water Policy, which aimed at the Portuguese
Mastery of the Sea and confined Portuguese
relationship with India only for the purpose of trade
and commerce.
9. (a) The battle of Wandiwas was fought between
the British and French companies. This was the
Third Carnatic War fought between the French
and the British. After making substantial gains in
Bengal and Hyderabad, the British, after collecting
huge amount of revenue, were fully equipped to
face the French in Wandiwash. Thus, they defeated
the French comprehensively in this battle.
History || A-121
11. (b) War of Austrian succession flared up the first
Carnatic War in India. The First Carnatic War
(1746 1748) was the first of a series of Carnatic
Wars that established early British dominance
on the east coast of the Indian subcontinent. The
war demonstrated to French, British, and Indian
observers the extraordinary advantage of European-
trained military forces over those of the local Indian
powers, and set the stage for the rapid growth of
French hegemony in southern India under the
command of French Governor-General Joseph
Franois Dupleix in the Second Carnatic War.
14. (d) The British East India Company was formed
during the reign of Elizabeth I. Commonly
associated with trade in basic commodities, which
included cotton, silk, indigo dye, salt, saltpetre, tea
and opium, the Company received a Royal Charter
from Queen Elizabeth in 1600, making it the oldest
among several similarly formed European East
India Companies.
16. (c) Vasco Da Gama came to India for three times.
He arrived in India in September 1524 and died in
the city of Cochin on Christmas Eve in 1524, three
months after his arrival. As per royal instructions,
Gama was succeeded as governor of India by one of
the captains who had come with him, Henrique de
Menezes.
17. (b) The British East India Company opened its
first factory in India at Surat. The first English
factory was set up on the banks of the river
Hugly in 1651.
18. (c) Lord Macartany the Governor of Madras
Presidency made treaty of Mangalore with Tipu. The
second Anglo-Mysore war was ended on 11 March
1784 with the signing of the treaty of Mangalore.
The treaty is an important document in the history
of India, because it was the last occasion when an
Indian power dictated terms to the British, who were
under orders from London to negotiate a peace.
A-122 || Initial Modern History
20. (c) Murshid Quli Khan founded independent state
of Bengal. Murshid Quli Khan united his force and
position and in the year 1719 he renamed his capital
city from Makhsusabad to Murshidabad after his
name. This change of name was approved by the
then Mughal emperor and thus Murshid Quli Khan
became the independent Nawab of Bengal.
21. (a) The French were last to come to pre-
independence India as traders. France was the last
of the major European maritime powers of the 17th
century to enter the East India trade in a significant
way. Six decades after the foundation of the English
and Dutch East India companies (in 1600 and 1602
respectively), and at a time when both companies
were multiplying factories on the shores of India,
the French still didnt have a viable trading company
and a single permanent establishment in the East.
22. (d) The portuguese introduced cashewnut,
pineapple and tobacco in India. The Portuguese
introduced into India the following agricultural
products: cashew-nut, tobacco, the custard apple,
guava, the pineapple, and the papaya, and also an
improved variety of coconut seeds.
23. (c) The greatest Portuguese Governor who laid the
real foundation of Portuguese power in India was
Albuquerque. On 4 November 1509, Albuquerque
became the second Governor of the State of India, a
position he would hold until his death. Albuquerque
speedily showed the energy and determination of
his character. He intended to dominate the Muslim
world and control the spice trade.
24. (b) Sir George Oxenden was the first Governor of
Bombay. In March 1667, Charles II ceded Bombay
to the East India Company, and they commissioned
Oxenden to take possession of the island of Bombay.
In August of that year, the court of directors
appointed him governor and commander-in-chief of
Bombay.
25. (b) Sir John Child, the English Governor of East
India Company in India, was expelled by Aurangzeb.
Child became involved in a war with the Mughal
emperor Aurangzeb, whose troops captured Surat
and forced Child to make peace. One of the peace
terms required Child to leave India, but he died
while the matter was still pending.
26. (d) Farrukhsiyar gave an important Firman to the
English of facilitating their trade in India. It was
during Farrukhsiyars reign, in 1717, that the British
East India Company purchased duty-free trading
rights in all of Bengal for a mere three thousand
rupees a year.
27. (b) The Peshwa who engineered the capture of
Salsette and Bassein from the Portuguese in 1739
was Baji Rao I. In 1720, one of the ports of Bassein,
Kalyan, was conquered by the Marathas and in
1737, they took possession of Thane including all
the forts in Salsette island and the forts of Parsica,
Trangipara, Saibana, Ilha das Vaccas - (Island of
Arnala), Manora, Sabajo, the hills of Santa Cruz and
Santa Maria.
28. (d) Nizam of Hyderabad was the first Indian native
ruler to accept the system of subsidiary alliance.
Tipu Sultan of Mysore refused to accept it but after
the British victory in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War,
Mysore was forced to become a subsidiary ally.
Later the Maratha ruler Baji Rao II also accepted
subsidiary alliance in the treaty of Bassein.
29. (c) The book Zij Muhammad Shahi related to
knowledge of Astrology produced in 1733 is written
by Sawai Jai Singh of Jaipur. Zij is the generic name
applied to Islamic astronomical books that tabulate
parameters used for astronomical calculations of the
positions of the Sun, moon, stars, and planets. The
Zij-i Muhammad Shahi, was one of the most famous
Zij compiled at Jai Singh II of Ambers Jantar
Mantar observatories. It is notable for employing
the use of telescopic observations.
30. (a) The South Indian ruler who introduced
sericulture as an agro-industry in his kingdom was
Tipu Sultan. Sericulture was started during 1875,
during the regime of Tipu Sultan ruler of Mysore
kingdom, who brought mulberry from Bengal to

the south and planted it in Kollegal and adjoining
areas, while the silkworm Bombyx mori races were
brought by him from China.
31. (c) The Sarkar of Guntur was the bone of contention
between Nizam Ali, the ruler of Hyderabad and the
English.
32. (b) The statement, We have crippled our enemy
without making our friends too formidable, is
associated with the Third Anglo-Mysore War.
33. (d) Farruksiyar granted permission to trade free
of tax in the territories of Bengal, Hyderabad and
Gujarat to the British.
34. (a) The Whitley Commission was concerned with
Labour. An Irish scholar and lawyer Whitley Stokes
(1830 1909), worked in India for about 20 years.
After a period during which he drafted procedural
codes for both civil and criminal law, he was
appointed president of a commission charged with
drawing up a comprehensive code of law for India.
36. (a) The East India Company was brought under
the parliamentary control in 1773. The Parliament
of Great Britain imposed a series of administrative
and economic reforms by the Regulating Act of 1773
and by doing so clearly established its sovereignty
and ultimate control over the Company.
37. (b) Pitts India Act (1784) created the Board of
Control. Relationship to the British government: the
bill differentiated the East India Companys political
functions from its commercial activities. In political
matters, the East India Company was subordinated
to the British government directly. To accomplish
this, the Act created a Board of Commissioners for
the affairs of India, usually referred to as the Board
of Control.
38. (d) Samachar Chandrika had conducted a bitter
compaign against the abolition of the practice of
Sati. In Calcutta, the gifted Bhabani Charan Banerji
left Ram Mohans Bengali paper and conducted
in opposition to him a rival journal the Sambad
Chandrika. Bhabani Charan (1814 1833) was
History || A-123
a master of satire and between 1825 and 1831
castigated the men and women who were inclining
to new ways of life and abandoning the traditional
simple habits.
40. (c) In 1757, Sirajuddaulah attacked British factory
at Kasimbazar. Sirajuddaulah asked the Company
to stop meddling in the political affairs of his
dominion, stop fortification, and pay the revenues.
After negotiations failed, the Nawab marched
with 30,000 soldiers to the English factory at
Kasimbazar, captured the Company officials, locked
the warehouse, disarmed all Englishmen, and
blockaded English ships. Then he marched to
Calcutta to establish control over the Companys
fort there.
42. (b) Portuguese were first to come India to establish
trade relation wish their country. The colonial era in
India began in 1502, when the Portuguese empire
established the first European trading centre at
Kollam, Kerala. In 1505, the King of Portugal
appointed Dom Francisco de Almeida as the first
Portuguese viceroy in India.
44. (a) The permanent settlement of Lord Cornwallis
gave the ownership of land to Zamindars. The
Zamindars were made the owners of the whole land
in their Zamindaris as long as they paid their dues to
the state and they worked as agents of government
in collecting the land revenue.
46. (a) In 1835, the Bitish started striking Indian coins
with the portrait of the British king. British India
Coins (1862 1947) were stuck under the authority
of the crown. The new coins minted under the
Coinage Act, 1835 had the effigy of William IV on
the obverse and the value on the reverse in English
and Persian. The coins issued after 1840 bore the
portrait of Queen Victoria. The first coinage under
the crown was issued in 1862 and in 1877 Queen
Victoria assumed the title of the Empress of India.
We have tried to cover the Uniform coinage of this
period.
A-124 || Initial Modern History
49. (b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of the
renowned Presidency College of Calcutta. Initially
established as the Mahapathshala wing of Hindu
College, it was renamed Presidency College, i.e. the
college of the Bengal Presidency, in 1855. He is also
regarded as the Father of the Bengal Renaissance.
The superstitious practices to which Rammohan
Roy objected included Sati, caste rigidity, polygamy
and child marriages.
50. (a) Pandit Jugal Kishore Shukla was the editor of
the first all Hindu newspaper Udanta-Martanda
published from Kanpur in the year 1826. The
newspaper was started on May 20, 1826; with it for
the first time a newspaper was published completely
in Hindi, using Devanagari script. Udant Martand
employed a mix of Khari Boli and Braj Bhasha
dialects of Hindi. The first issue printed 500 copies,
and the newspaper was published every Tuesday.
51. (a) Keshav Chandra Sen influenced Mahadev
Govind Ranade to establish Prarthana Samaj in
Bombay. M.G. Ranade worked for the emancipation
of women. In 1861, he founded the Widow Marriage
Association. In 1870, Ranade rendered help in the
establishment of Sarvajanik Sabha at Poona.
52. (c) Dharma Sabha was founded in Calcutta in
1830, in opposition to the Brahma Samaj of Raja
Ram Mohan Roy by Radha Kant Dev. An orthodox
society, it stood for the preservation of the status
quo in socio-religious matters opposing even the
abolition of Sati. However, it favoured the promotion
of western education, even for girls.
53. (b) The main aim of the Deoband Movement
was to oppose English education. The Deoband
Movement was established in Saharnpur district in
1866 by Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi (1832 80)
and Rashid Ahmed Gangohi (1828 1905) to train
religious leaders for the Muslim community.
54. (b) Nazam-ud-daulah was the Nawab of Bengal
when Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa was
granted to East India Company. In 1765, the
Company was granted the Diwani, or the right to
collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar.
55. (c) Lord Auckland was the Governor General
when the Eden Gardens of Calcutta was built in
1840. The Gardens came into being when the
Governor General Lord Auckland desired to create
a circus and a garden. A pleasure ground with an
oblong tank in centre was laid out on this site. The
site was initially named Auckland Circus Gardens.
57. (b) W.W. Hunter was the Chairman of the
committee which was to study the development in
education after 1854 AD. Lord Ripon appointed the
first Indian Education Commission on 3rd February
1882. Sir Willium Hunter (a member of viceroys
Executive Council) was appointed as the chairman
of the commission. The commission was popularly
known as Hunter Commission after the name of its
chairman. Besides the chairman, the commission
consisted of 20 other members. There was a good
representation of missionaries and Indians in the
commission. Among the Indian members were
Sayed Mahmud, Bhudev Mukherjee, Anand Mohan
Bose and K.T. Telang.
58. (c) Samachar Darpan, the first vernacular
newspaper of India, was published on May 31, 1818
by Carey and Marshman from Serampore. It started
during the period of Lord Hastings. The first Indian
newspaper was the Bengal Gazette started in 1780
by James Augustus Hickey.
59. (d) Dinabandhu Mitra was the author of a Drama
Nila Darpana. Mitra stormed the social and the
literary circle of Bengal by his most notable play
Nildarpan in the year 1860. It was published from
Dhaka and soon after its publication it ignited a
major argument in the newspapers.
60. (b) Lord William Bentinck was the Governor
General who changed the official language of the
courts of justice from Persian to English. Printing
of English books were made free and these were
available at a relatively low price.

63. (a) The real number of prisoners who died in the
Black Hole Tragedy, according to the available
reports, was 146. The Black Hole of Calcutta was a
dungeon in colonial India in which a large number
of British prisoners of war allegedly died on the
night of 20 June 1756.
65. (a) To overthrew the British rule, Kuka movement
was organised in Punjab. Its principal objective was
to spread the true spirit of Sikhism shorn of tawdry
customs and mannerism, which had been growing
on it since the beginning of Sikh monarchy. In
the midst of national pride born of military glory
and political power, this movement extolled the
religious obligation for a pious and simple living.
They were called Kukas because of their peculiar
style to recite the Gurbani.
66. (d) Bank of Hindustan, the first financial bank
under European guidelines, was established in India
in 1770 in Calcutta by Alexander and company. The
origin of western type commercial banking in India
dates back to the 18th century. The story of banking
starts from Bank of Hindusthan established in 1770
and it was first bank at Calcutta under European
management. In 1786, General Bank of India was
set up. Since Calcutta was the most active trading
port in India, mainly due to the trade of the British
empire, it became a banking centre.
70. (b) Baji Rao II signed the treaty of Pune on the 13th
June 1817. Peshwa Baji Rao II wanted to become
the head of the Maratha Confederacy and at the
same time wanted freedom from the British control.
His Chief Minister Tirimbakji encouraged him. On
the advice of the Company, the Gaekwar sent his
Prime Minister Gangadhar Shastri to negotiate with
the Peshwa. On his way back, Gangadhar Shastri
was murdered at Nasik in July 1815, at the instance
of Triambakji. This caused a lot of anger not only
among the Marathas but also among the British.
The latter asked the Peshwa to hand overTriambakji
History || A-125
to them. Peshwa handed over his Minister to the
British, who lodged him in Thana jail from where
he escaped. Consequently, on 13 June 1817, the
British Resident Elphinstone forced the Peshwa to
sign the treaty of Poona. Baji Rao gave up his desire
to become the supreme head of the Marathas.
73. (b) The Filtration Theory, in educational policy
of India, was propagated by Lord Macaulay. The
British planned to educate a small section of upper
and middle classes, thus creating a class who would
act as interpreters between the government and
masses and would enrich the vernaculars by which
knowledge of western sciences and literature would
reach the masses. This was called the Downward
Filtration Theory.
76. (d) Warren Hastings was conversant with Arabic,
Persian and Bengali languages besides English.
He was a gifted personality endowed with strong
will, great energy and resourcefulness. His long
stay in Bengal in the shadow of the Mughal
cultural tradition gave him enough opportunity
to learn oriental languages, such as Bengali
(the local language) and Persian (the diplomatic
language) and to develop oriental tastes. Since
he considered Indian culture as a basis for sound
Indian administration, he patronised the learning of
Indian languages and arts.
77. (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Atmiya
Sabha. In 1814, he set up a Amitya Sabha in
Calcutta to campaign against idolatry, caste
rigidities, meaningless rituals and other social ills.
78. (a) Tuhafat-ul-Muwahidin, a tract written by
Ram Mohan Roy, is the first tract against idolatry.
He believed that prayers, meditation and reading
of the Upanishads were to be forms of worship
and no graven image. Statue or sculpture, craving,
painting, picture, portrait, etc. were to be allowed in
the society building thus proclaiming opposition to
idolatry and meaningless rituals.
A-126 || Initial Modern History
80. (b) The Board of Control created by the Pitts
India Act, 1784. The implication of the Act was
the establishment of dual control; the companys
directors were political executants with charge of
commerce, but they were politically superintended
by a new Board of Control.
81. (d) The first newspaper published in India was the
Bengal Gazette. James Augustus Hickey published
the first newspaper in India on January 29, 1780.
It was the liberal policy of the Press Act of 1835,
which continued till 1856, that encouraged the
growth of newspapers in the country.
82. (b) The second Anglo-Mysore War ended with the
signing of the treaty of Mangalore in 1784. Lack of
resources, uncertainty of the attitude of the Marathas,
the presence of the French fleet on the Coromandel
coast and some other considerations forced the
English to seek peace. The treaty was fallout of a
peace between the French and the English.
83. (a) First decisive military success of English East
India Company in India is marked by the battle
of Buxar. The victory at the Buxar was solely
due to superior military power. The defeat of the
confederacy was inherent in the defects of the Indian
army and state organization.
84. (c) First Mysore War was ended by the treaty
of Madras. The first Anglo-Mysore war proved
indecisive and ended with a peace treaty in 1769.
Haidar Ali dictated the treaty which provided for
the exchange of prisoners and mutual restitution of
conquests.
85. (d) Mohammad Raza Khan was appointed
Deputy Diwan of Bengal by Robert Clive after
the Allahabad treaty. For the exercise of Diwani
functions, the Company appointed two deputy
Diwans, Mohammad Raza Khan for Bengal and
Raja Sitab Roy for Bihar. Mohammad Raza Khan
also acted as deputy Nazim or deputy Subahdar.
86. (b) Lord Cornwallis formed the triple alliance
against Tipu Sultan, The English, the Nizam and the
Marathas entered into a Triple Alliance against
Mysore. The war against Mysore was carried on in
three campaigns. The first under Medows proved
indecisive. The other two campaigns were led by
Cornwallis himself.
87. (d) Shah Alam II joined Mir Qasim and Shuja-ud-
Daula in declaring war upon the English East India
Company and was later defeated by the British at
the battle of Buxar.
88. (d) Raja Shitab Rai was appointed as Deputy
Diwan of Bihar. For the exercise of Diwani
functions, the company appointed two deputy
Diwans, Mohammad Raza Khan for Bengal and
Raja Sitab Roy for Bihar.
91. (d) Saadat Khan founded the independent state
of Awadh. Saadat Khan was popularly known as
Burhan-ul-Mulk. He had joined in a conspiracy
against the Sayyid brothers, later, driven out of the
court; he was promoted to found a new independent
state.
93. (c) The treaty of Bassein was signed with the
British by Peshwa Baji Rao II. The treaty brought the
company into definite relation with the formal head
of the Maratha confederacy. The treaty of Bassein,
described as a treaty with a cipher wounded the
feelings of the other Maratha leaders.
95. (d) During the tenure of Sirajuddaula, the incident
of Black Hole take place. The Black Hole of Calcutta
was a dungeon in colonial India in which a large
number of British prisoners of war allegedly died on
the night of 20 June 1756.
97. (c) In February 1757, the treaty of Alinagar was
signed. The treaty of Alinagar was concluded
between Sirajuddaula and Lord Clive. The Nawab
was forced to sign the Treaty of Alinagar on 9th
February 1757, wherein all the demands of the
English were conceded. The Nawab was asked to
restore the rights and immunities of the Company
and to compensate them for the losses they had
suffered in the war.

98. (b) Lord Dalhousie had drafted the Hindu Widows
Remarriage Act. It was mainly due to the efforts
of Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (1820 91),
the principal of Sanskrit college, Calcutta that the
Hindu Widows Remarriage Act, 1856, which
legalized marriage of widows and declared issues
from such marriages as legitimate, was passed by
the government.
99. (b) Lord Dalhousie had started the Public Works
Department in India in 1848. Before the period of
Dalhousie, the job of the Public Works Department
was done by the Military Board. Dalhousie created
a separate Public Works Department and allotted
more funds for cutting canals and roads. The Upper
Ganges Canal was completed in 1854. Many bridges
were constructed. By modernizing the Public
Works Department, he laid the foundations of the
engineering service in India.
101. (c) Marathas signed the treaty of Salbai in 1782
with the English at the instance of Sindhia. The
treaty established the status quo in Anglo-Maratha
relations. Though the material gains of the English
from the treaty were not very impressive, it gave
them peace with the Marathas for twenty years, the
time which was needed by the British to concentrate
on other fronts, especially Mysore.
102. (c) In the Permanent settlement, the share of
Zamindar stood at 1/11. The Zamindar was required
to pay about 89 per cent (10/11) of what he received
as land revenue to the government and retain 11 per
cent (1/11) with himself for his service.
103. (d) The Ryotwari settlement of Madras was
introduced by Munro. In this system, revenue
settlement was done directly with the ryots. Ryots
would be periodically revised generally after 20 to
30 years. But the government retained the right to
enhance the land revenue at will.
112. (c) Permanent settlement comprises Zamindar
as middleman to collect the land revenue. The
Zamindars were made the owners of the whole land
in their Zamindari as long as they paid their dues to
the state and they worked as agents of government
in collecting the land revenue.
History || A-127
114. (a) Burdwan, Midnapur and Hoogly were the
districts of Bengal whose revenue administration
was transferred to the East India Company for the
acquisition of the Nawabship of Bengal by Mir
Qasim in 1760.
115. (d) Sir William Jones was the advisor of Lord
Cornwallis in his judicial reforms. In the work of
judicial reorganization, Cornwallis secured the
services of Sir William Jones, who was a judge
and a great scholar. Civil and criminal courts were
completely reorganized.
116. (d) Regulation XVII of 1829 declared the custom
of Sati as illegal. Bentinck became a crusader
against it and promulgated his Regulation XVII
on 4 December 1829 prohibiting the practice of
Sati. Those who practiced Sati were made liable
for punishment by law courts as accessories to the
crime. The Regulation was extended to the Madras
and Bombay Presidencies in 1830.
117. (c) Devendranath Tagore started the socio-
religious organization Tattvabodhini Sabha
and its appended jounral Tattvabodhini. Before
Debendranath joined the Brahmo Samaj, he had
organized a Tattvaranjini Sabha at Calcutta. The
same Sabha was later known as Tattvabodhini
Sabha. The objectives of Tattvabodhini Sabha were
to encourage religious inquiries and disseminate the
essence of Upanishads.
118. (a) Ram Mohan Roy authored the book entitled
The Precepts of Jesus, the Guide to Peace and
Happiness. In this book, he tried to separate the
moral and philosophical message of the New
Testament, which he praised from its miracle
stories.
119. (b) Dadu Miyan was the leader of the Farazi
rebellion. Farazis were the followers of a Muslim
sect founded by Haji Shariatallah of Faridpur in
eastern Bengal. They advocated radical religious,
social and political changes. Shariatullahs son
Dadu Miyan organized his followers with an aim to
expel the English intruders from Bengal.
A-128 || Initial Modern History
120. (c) Slavery was made illegal by the India Act V
of 1843. The Indian Slavery Act, 1843, also Act V
of 1843, was an act passed in British India under
East India Company rule, which outlawed many
economic transactions associated with slavery.
121. (b) Lord Cornwallis introduced the revenue system
called permanent settlement. Lord Cornwallis
most conspicuous administrative measure was the
Permanent Land Revenue Settlement of Bengal,
which was extended to the provinces of Bihar and
Orissa. The Zamindars of Bengal were recognised
as the owners of land as long as they paid the
revenue to the East India Company regularly. The
amount of revenue that the Zamindars had to pay
to the Company was firmly fixed and would not be
raised under any circumstances. In other words, the
government of the East India Company got 89%
leaving the rest to the Zamindars.
122. (b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo
Samaj in 1828. He founded Brahmo Samaj in order
to institutionalise his ideas and mission which
aimed at political uplift of the masses through social
reform and to that extent can be said to have had
nationalist undertones.
123. (c) The Battle of Wandiwash was fought between
British and the French. Merchants of the Dutch
East India Company first established themselves in
Dutch Coromandel, notably Pulicat, as they were
looking for textiles to exchange with the spices they
traded in the East Indies.
124. (a) Hector Munro led the army of the East India
Company in the battle of Buxar in 1764. The
combined armies of Mir Kasim, the Nawab of Awadh
and Shah Alam II were defeated by the English
forces under Major Hector Munro at Buxar.
125. (d) Lord Cornwallis was the father of Civil
Services. The term civil service was used for the
first time by the East India Company to distinguish its
civilian employee from their military counterparts.
Lord Cornwallis started the Civil Service in Indian
to effectively administer British territories in India.
127. (c) The first Englishman to acquire the knowledge
of Sanskrit was Charles Wilkins. He was encouraged
by Warren Hastings to study with the Pundits at
Banaras.
128. (c) Fatehchand had received the title of Jagat Seth
from Muhammad Shah. Fatehchand was adopted
son of Manik Chand. He obtained the title of Seth
from the Emperor Farrakhsiyar. Muhammad Shah
bestowed him with the title of Jagat Seth.
130. (d) Lord Dalhousie laid the frist rail line in India.
Railways were first introduced to India in 1853
from Bombay to Thane.
131. (d) Satara was first annexed by Lord Dalhousie
under the Doctrine of Lapse. The Doctrine of Lapse
was applied by Dalhousie to Satara and it was
annexed in 1848. Jhansi and Nagpur were annexed
in 1854. As a result of these annexations, a large
part of the central provinces came under the British
rule. The new province was governed by a Chief
Commissioner from 1861.
132. (b) Dupleix was the first European to initiate
the policy of taking part in the quarrels of Indian
princes with a view to acquire territories.
133. (d) When empires in Europe were crumbling
before the might of Napoleon. On the other hand,
Lord Hastings the Governor General kept the
British flag flying high in India.
134. (b) Warren Hastings was the first Governor
General of Bengal. When Warren Hastings assumed
the administration of Bengal in 1772, he found it in
utter chaos. The financial position of the Company
became worse and the difficulties were intensified
by famine. Therefore, Warren Hastings realized the
immediate need for introducing reforms and was
responsible for lot of reforms in Bengal.
136. (a) Kol revolt of 183132 was led by Buddhu
Bhagat. Kol Mutiny covered Ranchi, Singhbhum,
Hazaribagh, Palamau and the western parts of
Manbhum.

137. (c) Major Burrough the British Commander
was defeated by the Santhals in 1855. The British
werent ready for such a revolt from Santhals, a
small contingent of force under Major Burrough
was called to suppress the rebels but he meet
tremendous resistance and was defeated at
Pirpainati. The victory of the Santhals over the all
mighty British further fuelled the rebellion and it
spread like wildfire.
138. (a) The Hindu Widows Remarriage Act of 1856,
enacted in response to the campaign of Pandit Ishwar
Chandra Vidyasagar, provided legal safeguards
against loss of certain forms of inheritance for a
remarrying Hindu widow.
139. (d) Sanyasi Rebellion was made famous by
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel Anand
Math. The restrictions imposed on visits to holy
places estranged the Sanyasis. The Sanyasis
retaliated by organizing raids on the companys
factories and state treasuries.
141. (b) Newspapers were an important medium for the
dissemination of information on various problems.
It is great help in the campaigns for social reform
and to influence activities of the state. The first
newspaper in India was the Bengal-Gazette started
in 1780. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar started Shome
Prakash in 1890.
142. (a) The tomb of Lord Cornwallis is located at
Ghazipur, a small town in the eastern part of Uttar
Pradesh approximately seventy kilometres east of
Varanasi. It is well connected by road and railways
with different parts of the country. Lord Cornwallis
is known as a great administrator and a successful
commander-in-chief in the history of India during
British period.
143. (d) Lord Ellenborough had abolished slavery in
India. The Indian Slavery Act, 1843, also Act V
of 1843, was an act passed in British India under
East India Company rule, which outlawed many
economic transactions associated with slavery.
History || A-129
144. (a) James Outram was the British residence in
Awadh at the time of its annexation into British
Dominion. In 1854, he was appointed resident
at Lucknow, in which capacity two years later he
carried out the annexation of Oudh and became the
first chief commissioner of that province.
145. (b) Subsidiary alliance was implemented during
the reign of Lord Wellesley. Wellesleys Subsidiary
System is regarded as one of the masterstrokes
of British imperialism. It increased the military
strength of the Company in India at the expense
of the protected states. The territories of the
Company were free from the ravages of war thereby
establishing the stability of the British power in
India.
147. (c) The last king of Sikh kingdom was Daleep
Singh. In 1849, the British Government deposed the
Maharaja Duleep Singh and annexed the Punjab;
since which time it has been under British rule, and
the Maharaja has been a pensioner of the British
Government.
148. (b) Robert Clive has been called as a Heaven
born General. Clives brilliant leadership at Arcot
gave him an immense reputation in Europe. When
he went home in 1753, William Pitt the Elder
called him a heaven-born general. After running
unsuccessfully for Parliament, Clive returned to
India in 1755 as governor of Fort St. David and as
lieutenant colonel in the royal army.
149. (c) Maharaja Ranjeet Singh had said God
intended me to look upon all religions with one eye,
that is why he took away the light from the other.
150. (a) In 1787, Warren Hastings was impeached in
the Parliament by Edmund Burke and the Whigs for
his administrative excess. Burke brought forward
22 charges against him. The most important of them
were related to the Rohilla War, the Case of Nanda
Kumar, the treatment of Raja Chait Singh of Banaras
and the pressures on the Begums of Oudh. After a
long trail which lasted till 1795, Warren Hastings
was completely acquitted. He received pension
from the Company and lived till 1818.
A-130 || Initial Modern History
151. (d) William Jones was founded the Asiatic Society
of Bengal on 15 January 1784. It was started to
enhance the cause of Oriental research. It was
presided over by Sir Robert Chambers, the Chief
Justice of the Supreme Court at the Fort William in
Calcutta.
154. (b) Job Charnock was the founder of Calcutta.
In March 1690, the Company received permission
from Aurangzeb in Delhi to re-establish a factory in
Bengal, and on 24 August 1690 Charnock returned
to set up his headquarters in the place he called
Calcutta; the appointment of a new Nawab ensured
this agreement was honoured, and on 10 February
1691, an imperial grant was issued for the English
to contentedly continue their trade.
155. (b) Brahmo Samaj of Raja Ram Mohan Roy was
against child marriage. Inspite of this, Kehsav
Chandra Sen his followers himself married his
daughter in childhood and paved the way for
disintegration of this institution.
156. (a) Radhakant Dev opposed the socio-religious
reforms and supported orthodoxy. Despite his
contribution to the cause of educational improvement,
Radhakanta Dev was a strong upholder of social
conservatism. He became the leader of a party of
orthodox Hindus who were bitterly opposed to the
liberal-minded Hindus like Ram Mohan Roy who
advocated social and religious reforms.
157. (b) Ram Mohan Roy was given the title of Raja
by Akbar II. He was the first educated Indian to sail
to England. At the time, Roy was an ambassador
of the Mughal emperor Akbar II, who conferred on
him the title of Raja to lobby the British government
for the welfare of India and to ensure that the Lord
Benticks regulation banning the practice of Sati
was not overturned.
158. (b) Sharada Act fixed the minimum age of
marriage of girls and boys respectively as 14 and
18. Child Marriage Restraint Act 1929 popularly
kwown as the Sharda Act after its sponsor Rai Sahib
Harbilas Sarda to the British India Legislature in
India was passed on 28 September 1929 fixed the
age of marriage for girls at 14 years. It was a result
of social reform movement in India. The legislation
was passed by the British Indian Government.
159. (c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy is considered as the
prophet of Indian Nationalism. His influence
was apparent in the fields of politics, public
administration, and education, as well as religion.
He was described by Rabindranath Tagore as the
Father of Indian Renaissance and the Prophet of
Indian Nationalism.
161. (d) Lord Dalhousie formulated and implemented
the Doctrine of Lapse. It was customary for a ruler
without a natural heir to ask the British Government
whether he could adopt a son to succeed him.
According to Dalhousie, if such permission was
refused by the British, the state would lapse and
thereby become part of the British India. Dalhousie
maintained that there was a difference in principle
between the right to inherit private property and
the right to govern. This principle was called the
Doctrine of Lapse.
162. (c) Through the Charter Act of 1833, the
commercial activities of the East India Company
were finally put to an end. The Industrial Revolution
in Britain, the consequent search for markets, and
the rise of laissez-faire economic ideology form the
background to the Government of India Act 1833.
The Act removed the Companys remaining trade
monopolies and divested it of all its commercial
functions and renewed for another twenty years the
Companys political and administrative authority.
163. (b) Cornwallis code of 1793 separated civil
administration from judicial administration. The
greatest work of Cornwallis was the purification
of the civil service by the employment of capable
and honest public servants. He aimed at economy,
simplification and purity. Another major reform
that Cornwallis introduced was the separation of
the three branches of service, namely commercial,
judicial and revenue.
 9
Indian Freedom
Struggle-I (18571917)

1. Who was the first Viceroy of India?
(a) Lord Canning during the Rebellion of 1857?
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) Lord William Bentinck (b) Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
(d) Lord Curzon
2. Who produced for the first time statistical
estimate of average per capita income of India?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (a) Wilton Oldham
(b) Ramesh Chandra Dutta
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Pherozshah Mehta
3. Who was the first Indian to have written in an
Indian language on the causes of the Revolt of
1857?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(b) V.D. Savarkar
(c) Syed Ahmed Khan
(d) None of these
4. Which one of the following books is the official
History of Revolt of 1857?
(a) Theories of Indian Mutiny
(b) Eighteen Fifty Seven
(c) The Sepoy Muting and the Revolt of 1857
(d) None of these
5. Who said, Like summer gale revolt of Meerut
was unprecedented and short-lived?
(a) S.N. Sen (b) R.C. Majumdar
(c) S.B. Chaudhari (d) V.D. Savarkar
6. Who wrote the book entitled Ghulamgiri?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) Narayan Guru
(c) Jyotiba Phule (d) M.P. Pillai
7. Which one of the following is known as Mother
of Indian Revolutionaries?
(a) Annie Besant (b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Madam Cama (d) Usha Mehta
8. Who propagated Jehad against the Britishers
(a) Maulvi Ahsanullah
(c) Maulvi Barkal Ali
(d) Maulvi Kudrat Ali
9. The Scientific Society was founded by
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(d) Raja Shiv Prasad
10. Who was the propounder of the Drain Theory in
India?
(a) R.C. Dutta (b) Henry Cotton
(c) S.N. Banerjee (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
11. In whose viceroyalty, the white mutiny took
place?
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Minto
(c) Lord Hardinge (d) Lord Ripon
12. Which of the Acts wrote an epitaph on the grave
of the East India Company?
(a) Act of 1858 (b) Act of 1861
(c) Act of 1892 (d) None of these
13. J.E.D. Bethune was closely associated with
(a) Abolition of Pardah system
(b) Female education
(c) Widow remarraige
(d) Abolition of slavery
14. Who was not associated with the Gaddar Party?
(a) Lala Hardayal
(b) Kartar Singh
(c) Ganesh Vishnu Pingle
(d) Shyamji Krishna Verma
A-132 || Indian Freedom Struggle-I (18571917)
15. Who among the following was not associated
with Prarthana Samaj?
(a) Atmaram Pandurang belong to?
(b) R.G. Bhandarkar
(c) M.G. Ranade (c) Rajasthan (d) Bihar
(d) Devendra Nath Tagore
16. Who influenced Mahadev Govind Ranade to
establish Prathana Samaj in Bombay?
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (c) Nana Saheb (d) Kunwar Singh
(b) Devendra Nath Tagore
(c) Keshav Chandra Sen
(d) Tek Chand Mitra
17. The first official history of Indian National
Congress was written by
(a) Pattabhi Sitaramaya 28. Babu Kunwar Singh who took part in great leader
(b) B.N. Pande
(c) Dr. R.C. Magumdar (a) Gorakhpur (b) Jagdishpur
(d) Dr. Tarachand
18. The official historian of the movement of 1857
was
(a) S.N. Sen (b) R.C. Majumdar
(c) Dr. Tarachand (d) V.D. Savarkar
19. Which one of the following historians has written
about the nature of the movement of 1857 that
It was neither first nor national nor a war of
Independence?
(a) T.R. Holmes (b) R.C. Majumdar
(c) S.B. Chudhari (d) G.B. Mallison
20. Who was the founder of Seva Sadan in Bombay?
(a) Shiva Narayan Agnihotri
(b) Baharamji Malabari
(c) R.G. Bhandarkar
(d) B.K. Jayakar
21. The Revolt of 1857 at Lucknow was led by
(a) Begum Hazarat Mahal
(b) Tantiya Tope
(c) Rani Laxmi Bai
(d) Nana Saheb
22. The Revolt of 1857 was witnessed by the poet
(a) Taqi Mir (b) Zauq
(c) Ghalib (d) Iqbal
23. Who was the Governor General of India during
the Sepoy mutiny?
(a) Lord Dalhousei (b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Hardinge (d) Lord Lytton
24. Which one of the following places did Kunwar
Singh, a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857,
(a) U.P. (b) M.P.
25. Who was the leader of Kanpur spear heading Revolt
of 1857?
(a) Birjis Quadir (b) Khan Bahadur
26. The first Indian Factory Act was passed by
(a) Lord Ripon (b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Curzon
27. Siddhu was associated with
(a) Santhal Rebellion (b) Sanyasi Rebellion
(c) Munda Rebellion (d) Kol Rebellion
of Revolt of 1857 was Zamindar of
(c) Rohilkhand (d) Raipur
29. Who was the founder of Ram Krishna Mission?
(a) Ram Krishna Paramahansa
(b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Swami Vivekanand
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
30. Who among the following is known as Martin
Luther of India?
(a) Swami Vivekanand
(b) Swami Shraddhanand
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
31. Who among the following had founded the
Theosophical Society in the United States of
America?
(a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(b) Lala Hardayal
(c) Madam Blavatsky
(d) Madam Bhikaji Cama
32. Vande Mataram the national song was a part of
(a) Durgesh Nandini (b) Anand Math
(c) Grihadaha (d) Bhagvad-Gita
33. Which one among the following was not a
demand of the Prarthana Samaj?
(a) Women education
(b) Widow remarriage
(c) Raising the age of marriage for boys and
girls
(d) Abolition of untouchability
 History || A-133

34. The call of Back to the Vedas was given by 43. Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of the
(a) Swami Vivekanand formation of the Indian National Congress?
(b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati (a) Lord Canning (b) Lord Curzon
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh (c) Lord Dufferin (d) Lord Dalhausie
(d) Vishnu Shastri Pandit 44. Who was called Grand Old Man of India?
35. Young Bengal Movement was started by (a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(a) Alexander Duft (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhle
(b) H.V. Derozio (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Jonathan Duncan (d) Feroz Shah Mehta
(d) Swami Vivekanand 45. Who among the following was not present in the
36. Who among the following British persons founding session of Indian National Congress?
admitted the Revolt of 1857 as a national revolt? (a) Dadabai Naoroji
(a) Lord Dalhousie (b) G. Subramaniyam Iyer
(b) Lord Canning (c) Justice Ranade
(c) Lord Ellenborough (d) Surendranath Banerjee
(d) Disraelli 46. Poverty and the Un-British Rule in India was
37. Which part of India was silent when Revolt of written by
1857 was spreading in India? (a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(a) South India (b) North India (b) Ramesh Chandra Dutta
(c) Central India (d) Western India (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhle
38. Satyartha Prakash was written by (d) Surendranath Banerjee
(a) Swami Shraddhanand 47. Who among the following had repealed the
(b) Swami Vivekanand Vernacular Press Act ?
(c) Swami Dayanand Sarswati (a) Lord Lytton
(d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (b) Lord Ripon
39. Who of the following organized the East India (c) Lord Dufferin
association in London to mobilize public (d) Lord Lansdowne
(a) Ananda Mohan Bose 48. Lord Curzon is best known for which of the
(b) Bhikaji Cama following?
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji (a) Universities Act 1904
(d) Surendranath Banerjee (b) Partition of Bengal in 1905
40. In which one of the following cities, was the East (c) Indian Council Act 1892
India Association founded by Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Government of India Act 1909
in 1866? 49. King George V visited India during the viceroyship
(a) Paris (b) London of
(c) New York (d) Tokyo (a) Lord Hardinge (b) Lord Mayo
41. The word Adivasi was used for the first time to (c) Lord Ripon (d) Lord Curzon
refer to the tribal people by 50. My own belief is that congress is tottering and
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Thakkar Bappa one of my great ambitions is to assist it to peaceful
(c) Jyotiba Phule (d) B.R. Ambedkar death. Who said it?
42. Who was the first Indian to become member of (a) Winston Churchill
the British Parliament? (b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(a) Badruddin Tyabji (b) W.C. Banerjee (c) Lord Curzon
(c) D.N. Wacha (d) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Lord Dufferin
A-134 || Indian Freedom Struggle-I (18571917)
51. Who is rightly called the Father of Local Self
Government in India?
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Hardinge
(c) Lord Lytton (d) Lord Ripon
52. Who was the Viceroy of India when the British
Indias capital was shifted from Calcutta to
Delhi?
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Hardinge
(c) Lord Dalhousie (d) Lord Dufferin
53. The 1909 Indian Council Act is also known as
(a) The Chelmsford Reforms
(b) The Pitts India Act
(c) The August offer
(d) The Minto-Marley Reforms
54. Who among the followinig never became
President of Indian National Congress?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak time, Indian Penal Code, Civil Procedure Code,
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose (a) Lord Canning (b) Lord Mayo
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
55. Indian National Congress was founded by
(a) Womesh Chandra Banerjee
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Allan Octavian Hume
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
56. Who was the founder of Indian Association of
Calcutta?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Womesh Chandra Banerjee
(c) Surendranath Banerjee
(d) Feroz Shah Mehta
57. In which of the following movements, Vande
Mataram was adopted slogan for agitation?
(a) Revolt of 1857
(b) Partition of Bengal in 1905
(c) Non-cooperation Movement in 1920
(d) Quit India Movement in 1942
58. Who was the founder of All India Muslim League?
(a) Syed Ahmed Khan
(b) Mohammad Iqbal
(c) Agha Khan
(d) Nawab Salimullah Khan
59. Who founded Anushilan Samiti at Dhaka?
(a) Pulin Bihari Das (a) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
(b) Pramath Nath Mitra
(c) Swami Shraddhanand (c) Servants of India Society
(d) Barindra Kumar Ghosh
60. The number of delegates who attended the first
session of the Indian National Congress, held in
Bombay in 1885, was
(a) 72 (b) 304
(c) 556 (d) 1500
61. Who said, Swaraj is my birth right and I shall
have it?
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
62. Who was the biographer of A.O. Hume?
(a) V. Chirol (b) W. Wedderburn
(c) George Yule (d) None of these
63. Among the following viceroys of India in whose
and Criminal Code were passed?
(c) Lord Lytton (d) Lord Dufferin
64. Who established the first Womens University of
India?
(a) D.K. Karve (b) Annie Besant
(c) Ramabai Ranade (d) Hirabai Tata
65. Who among the following gave call to one
religion, one creed and one God for mankind?
(a) Jyotiba Phule (b) Vivekanand
(c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) Sri Narain Guru
66. Who was the president of the provisional
government formed in Kabul in 1915 by Indians?
(a) Anand Mohan Sahay
(b) Ras Bihari Bose
(c) Shyamji Krishna Verma
(d) Mahendra Pratap
67. Devi Chaudharani patronised a historic movement
of Bengal. Find out the correct answer among the
options given below:
(a) Weavers Movement
(b) Sanyasi Movement
(c) Indigo Growers Movement
(d) Swadeshi Movement
68. Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded
(b) Bombay Presidency Association
(d) Land Holders Society
 History || A-135

69. The system of separate electorates was introduced 79. Who characterised the policies of moderate
by the Act of leaders as the political mendicancy?
(a) 1813 (b) 1835 (a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) 1895 (d) 1909 (b) Aurobindo Ghosh
70. In which of the following years, the Vernacular (c) Lala Lajpat Rai
Press Act was Passed? (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(a) 1875 (b) 1878
80. In which of the following places, Hindu
(c) 1882 (d) 1884
Mahasabha was for the first time organised in
71. Rahnumai Mazdyasan Sabha is associated with
1915?
(a) Sikhs (b) Parsis
(a) Haridwar (b) Varanasi
(c) Sindhis (d) Muslims
72. In which of the following years, Enfield Rifle was (c) Allahabad (d) None of these
introduced in India? 81. The first President of Muslim league was
(a) 1852 (b) 1853 (a) Nawab Vakar-ul-Mulk
(c) 1854 (d) 1856 (b) Miyan Abdul Aziz
73. Where did Mangal Pandey for the first time learn (c) Hidayat Hussain Khan
from a Lashkar that cartridges to be used in (d) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
Enfield Rifle were greased from the fat of cow 82. Who is known as the father of Muslim Renaissance
and pork? in Bengal?
(a) Calcutta (b) Barrackpur (a) Abdul Latif
(c) Dum Dum (d) Ambala (b) Mirza Ghulam Ahmed
74. Which one of the following had presided over (c) Muhammad Qasim
the Surat Session of Indian National Congress
(d) Rashid Ahmed Gangohi
1907?
83. Who was the President of Lucknow Session of
(a) Rash Bihari Bose
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale Indian National Congress (1916)?
(c) Feroz Shah Mehta (a) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Ambika Charan Majumdar
75. Who had chaired the Indian Education Commision (c) Madan Mohan Malaviya
in 1882? (d) Annie Besant
(a) Macaulay (b) Sadler 84. The policy of Masterly Inactivity was associated
(c) W.W. Hunter (d) None of these with
76. Who called Bal Gangadhar Tilak The Father of (a) Lord Wellesley (b) Lord Dalhousie
Indian Unrest? (c) John Lawrence (d) Lord Curzon
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Vincent Smith 85. Who was the first Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) Valentine Chirol (d) Henry Cotton of Calcutta?
77. Who was the first Muslim President of Indian (a) Hyde (b) Elijah Impey
National Congress?
(c) Lemaistre (d) Monson
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
86. In which of the following sessions of Indian
(b) Shaukat Ali
National Congress, the resolution of Swadeshi
(c) Badruddin Tyabji
was adopted?
(d) Muhammad Ali
78. Which viceroy is regarded as the catalyst of (a) Madras Session 1903
Indian nationalism? (b) Bombay Session 1904
(a) Lord Minto (b) Lord Dalhousie (c) Banaras Session 1905
(c) Lord Canning (d) Lord Curzon (d) Calcutta Session 1906
A-136 || Indian Freedom Struggle-I (18571917)
87. The first Secretary of Indian National Congress was 96. Who of the following termed the revolt of 1857 as
(a) Allan Octavian Hume Indian War of Independence for the first time?
(b) George Yule (a) Ramesh Chandra Majumdar
(c) Feroz Shah Mehta (b) V.D. Sawarkar
(d) William Wedderburn (c) Ishwari Prasad
88. Abhinav Bharata secret society of revolutionaries (d) Tara Chand
was organised in 1904 by 97. Maulavi Liaqat Ali who played a significant role
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh (b) Bipin Chandra Pal during the freedom struggle of 1857 belonged to
(c) Rash Bihari Bose (d) V.D.Savarkar which of the following cities?
89. Who was the first President of Indian National (a) Bareilly (b) Faizabad
Congress? (c) Allahabad (d) Lucknow
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji 98. In which session of the Indian National Congress,
(b) William Wedderburn Vande Mataram was first sung?
(c) Allan Octavian Hume (a) 1886 (b) 1890
(d) W.C. Banerjee (c) 1896 (d) 1905
99. The capital of India was shifted from Calcutta to
90. During the tenure of which Governor General
Delhi in
was the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act
(a) 1910 (b) 1911
passed?
(c) 1912 (d) 1913
(a) Lord Minto (b) Lord Canning
100. Where did the Indian National Congress get
(c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Linlithgo
divided into two wings moderates and extremists?
91. When did the Indian National Congress accept
(a) Surat Session 1907
the theory of Drain of Wealths?
(b) Lahor Session 1909
(a) In 1896 (b) In 1902 (c) Calcutta Session 1911
(c) In 1906 (d) In 1935 (d) Karachi Session 1913
92. Who among the following said, India has to 101. Who compared Curzons administration in India
unite and conquer the whole world once again to that of Aurangzeb?
with its might? (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(a) Swami Dayanand (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) Ram Krishna Param Hansha (c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Swami Vivekanand (d) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Annie Besant 102. Who was the first to suggest the boycott of British
93. Which one of the following freedom fighters of goods in Bengal?
first war of independence of 1857 was conferred (a) Aurobindo Ghosh
the title of Mahak Pari? (b) Krishna Kumar Mitra
(a) Zeenat Mahal (b) Hazarat Mahal (c) Motilal Ghosh
(c) Lakshmi Bai (d) None of these (d) Satish Chandra Mukherji
94. Who had hoisted the national flag of India at the 103. The famous Lucknow Pact was signed between
International Socialist Congress held at Stuttgart? the Indian National Congress and the Muslim
(a) M.N. Roy League in
(b) V.D. Savarkar (a) 1912 (b) 1914
(c) S.C. Bose (c) 1916 (d) 1918
(d) Madam Bhikaji Cama 104. Annie Besant is mostly associated with
95. Who among the following is remembered for the (a) Civil Disobedience Movement
annulment of the Partition of Bengal? (b) Home Rule Movement
(a) Lord Chelmsford (b) Lord Hardings (c) Khilafat Movement
(c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Curzon (d) Non-cooperation Movement

105. Queen Victorias proclamation was read out by
Lord Canning on 1st November 1858 at
(a) Allahabad (b) Calcutta
(c) Bombay (d) Madras
106. In which one of the following languages was the
first issue of journal Ghadar published?
(a) Urdu (b) Hindi
(c) English (d) Marathi
107. Shyamji Krishna Verma established Indian Home
rule society in
(a) London (b) Paris
(c) Berlin (d) San Francisco
108. During which of the following movements, Vande
Mataram became the theme song of the Indian
National Movement?
(a) Champaran Sataygrah
(b) Swadeshi Movement
(c) Anti-Rowlatt Act Agitation
(d) Non-cooperation Movement
109. The system of indirect election was introduced in
India in the year
(a) 1861 (b) 1892
(c) 1909 (d) 1919
110. Who among the following led the agitation
against the partition of Bengal (1905)?
(a) C.R. Das
(b) Ashutosh Mukherjee
(c) Ravindra Nath Tagore
(d) Surendra Nath Banerjee
111. Who among the following had led the Swadeshi
Movement in Delhi?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 120. Who was the founder of Gadar Party?
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Ajeet Singh (b) Lala Hardayal
(d) Syed Haider Raza
112. Who among the following had started Mitra
Mela Association?
(a) Shyamji Krishna Verma
(b) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(c) Lala Hardayal
(d) Sohan Singh Bakna
113. Aurobindo Ghosh was defended in the Alipore
Bomb case by
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(b) Moti Lal Nehru a microscopic minority of the people?
(c) Bhula Bhai Desai
(d) C.R. Das
History || A-137
114. Who brought about a compromise between
Muslim League and Congress in 1916?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Surendranath Banerjee
115. Who among the following was not associated
with the Home Rule Movement?
(a) C.R. Das
(b) S. Subramaniyam Iyer
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
116. The real name of which one of the following
leaders of 1857 was Ram Chandra Pandurang?
(a) Kunwar Singh (b) Tantiya Tope
(c) Nana Saheb (d) Mangal Panday
117. The President of the Surat Session of Indian
National Congress (1907) was
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Ras Bihari Bose
118. Ganpati Festival in Maharashtra was started by
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal
119. The conspiracy to divide Bengal was aimed at
(a) To weaken the National Freedom Movement
(b) To break the Hindu-Muslim Unity
(c) To bring Hindu in minority in the new state
(d) All of the above
(a) Lala Hansraj
(c) Shamji Krishna Verma
(d) Ajeet Singh
121. Under whose suggestion was Bhartiya Rashtriya
Sangh changed to Bhartiya Rashtriya Congress
in 1885 AD?
(a) Feroz Shah Mehta
(b) Kashinath Telang
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) W.C. Banerjee
122. Who had ridiculed congress as representing only
(a) Lord Ripon (b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Dufferin
A-138 || Indian Freedom Struggle-I (18571917)

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 17. (a) 33. (d) 49. (a) 65. (d) 81. (a) 97. (c) 113. (d)
2. (a) 18. (a) 34. (b) 50. (c) 66. (d) 82. (d) 98. (c) 114. (a)
3. (c) 19. (b) 35. (b) 51. (d) 67. (b) 83. (b) 99. (c) 115. (a)
4. (b) 20. (b) 36. (d) 52. (b) 68. (c) 84. (c) 100. (a) 116. (b)
5. (a) 21. (a) 37. (a) 53. (d) 69. (d) 85. (b) 101. (b) 117. (d)
6. (c) 22. (c) 38. (a) 54. (a) 70. (b) 86. (d) 102. (b) 118. (a)
7. (c) 23. (b) 39. (c) 55. (c) 71. (b) 87. (a) 103. (c) 119. (d)
8. (b) 24. (d) 40. (b) 56. (c) 72. (d) 88. (d) 104. (b) 120. (b)
9. (c) 25. (c) 41. (b) 57. (b) 73. (c) 89. (d) 105. (a) 121. (c)
10. (d) 26. (a) 42. (d) 58. (d) 74. (a) 90. (c) 106. (a) 122. (d)
11. (d) 27. (a) 43. (c) 59. (d) 75. (c) 91. (a) 107. (a)
12. (a) 28. (b) 44. (a) 60. (a) 76. (c) 92. (c) 108. (b)
13. (b) 29. (c) 45. (d) 61. (b) 77. (c) 93. (a) 109. (b)
14. (d) 30. (d) 46. (a) 62. (b) 78. (d) 94. (d) 110. (d)
15. (d) 31. (c) 47. (b) 63. (a) 79. (d) 95. (b) 111. (d)
16. (c) 32. (a) 48. (b) 64. (a) 80. (a) 96. (b) 112. (b)

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Lord Canning was the first Viceroy of India. The
title of viceroy was created in 1858 after the muting
of 1857. The office was created in 1773.
2. (a) Dadabhai Naoroji produced the statistical
estimate of average per capita income of India for
the first time. Drain Theory is attributed to Naoroji
because of his decision to estimate the net national
profit of India and the effect that colonization has on
the country.
3. (c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was the first Indian to
have written in an Indian language on the causes of
the Revolt of 1857. In 1859, Sir Syed published the
booklet Asbab-e-Baghawat-e-Hind (The Causes of
the Indian Revolt) in which he studied the causes of
the Indian revolt.
4. (b) The book Eighteen Fifty Seven is the official
history of revolt of 1857. Eighteen Fifty Seven
was written by well known Indian historian Dr.
Surendra Nath Sen, with a foreword by Abdul Kalam
Azad. Published on May 1957 by the publication
division, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting,
Government of India.
5. (a) The Revolt of 1857 began as a mutiny of sepoys
of the East India Companys army on 10 May 1857,
in the town of Meerut. The Merrut 1857 uprising was
described by Dr. Surendra Nath Sen Like summer
gale revolt of Meerut was unprecedented and short-
lived. In 1956, the Indian government commissioned
him to write a history of the Indian popular uprising
of 185759; the work, entitled Eighteen Fifty-seven,
was published in 1957.
6. (c) Jyotiba Phules works Sarvajanik Satyadharma
and Gulamgiri became sources of inspiration for the
common masses. Phule aimed at complete abolition
of caste system and the socio-economic inequalities.

7. (c) Madam Cama is known as Mother of Indian
revolutionaries. Bhikaji Cama is also known as
Madam Cama and is considered as the mother of
Indian revolution because of her contributions to
Indian freedom struggle. Madam Cama holds an
important place in the annals of Indian freedom
movement. Her name symbolised courage, integrity
and perseverance.
8. (b) Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah of Faizabad was an
outstanding leader of the revolt. He was a native of
Madras and had moved to Faizabad in the north where
he fought a stiff battle against the British troops.
9. (c) The Scientific Society was founded by Sir Syed
Ahmed Khan. He founded the Scientific Society of
Aligarh, the first scientific association of its kind in
India. Sir Syed assembled Muslim scholars from
different parts of the country. The Society held
annual conferences, disbursed funds for educational
causes and regularly published a journal on scientific
subjects in English and Urdu.
10. (d) The early nationalists, led by Dadabhai Naoroji,
R.C. Dutt, Dinshaw Wacha and others, carefully,
analysed the political economy of British rule in
India, and put forward the Drain Theory to explain
British exploitation of India.
11. (d) In Lord Ripon viceroyalty, the white muting
took place.
12. (a) The Government of India Act 1858 was an
Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom. It
brought about fundamental changes in the character
of Indian administration which was transferred from
the East India Company to the crown by the queens
proclamation of 1 Novemeber, 1858.
13. (b) The Bethune School, founded in Calcutta was
the first fruit of the powerful movement of womens
education that arose in the 1840s and 1850s.
14. (d) The Gaddar Party was an organisation founded
by Punjabi Indians in the United States and Canada.
Lala Hardayal set up the Gaddar Party in USA
to organise revolutionary activities from outside
India.
15. (d) The Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1867 in
Bombay by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang. It was a reform
movement within Hinduism and concentrated on
social reforms like inter-dining, inter-marriage,
History || A-139
widow remarriage and uplifting of women and
depressed classes. Justice M.G. Ranade and R.G.
Bhandarkar joined it in 1870.
16. (c) Keshav Chandra Sen influenced Mahadev
Govind Ranade to establish Prarthana Samaj.
17. (a) The first official history of Indian National
Congress was written by Pattabhi Sitarammaya.
18. (a) The official historian of the movement of 1857
was S.N. Sen.
19. (b) R.C. Majumdar has written about the nature of
the movement of 1857 that It was neither first nor
national nor a war of independence.
20. (b) A Parsi social reformer Behramji M. Malabari,
founded the Seva Sadan in 1885. The organisation
specialised in taking care of those women who were
exploited and then discarded by society.
21. (a) Begum Hazarat Mahal took over the regiment
Lucknow where the rebellion broke out on June 4,
1857 and popular sympathy was overwhelmingly in
favour of the deposed Nawab. Her son, Birjis Qadir,
was proclaimed the Nawab.
22. (c) Ghalib was in Delhi when the uprising of
1857 was at its peak. He observed the revolutionary
changes taking place during his lifetime.
23. (b) Lord Canning was the Governor General of
India during the Sepoy mutiny. Lord Canning had the
unique opportunity to become the Governor-General
as well as the first Viceroy according to the Act of
1858.
24. (d) Kunwar Singh, a ruined and discontented
Zamindar of Jagdishpur near Awadh, was the chief
organiser of the revolt in Bihar. He fought the British
in Bihar.
25. (c) At Kanpur, the revolt was led by Nana Saheb,
the adopted son of Baji Rao II, the last Peshwa.
Nana Saheb expelled the English from Kanpur with
the help of the Sepoys and proclaimed himself the
Peshwa.
26. (a) Lord Ripon introduced the Factory Act of
1881 to improve the service condition of the factory
workers in India. The Act banned the appointment
of children below the age of seven in factories. It
reduced the working hours for children. It made
compulsory for all dangerous machines in the
factories to be properly fenced to ensure security to
the workers.
A-140 || Indian Freedom Struggle-I (18571917)
27. (a) The Santhals under Siddhu and Kanhu rose
up against their oppressors, declared the end of the
companys rule and asserted themselves independent
in 1854.
28. (b) Babu Kunwar Singh who took part in great
leader of Revolt of 1857 was Zamindar of Jagdishpur.
Kunwar Singh, a ruined and discontented Zamindar
of Jagdishpur near Awadh, was the chief organiser of
the revolt in Bihar. He fought the British in Bihar.
29. (c) Swami Vivekananda, spread Ramakrishnas
message and tried to reconcile it to the needs of
contemporary Indian society. He founded Ramkrishna
Mission for humanitarian relief and social work.
30. (d) Dayanand Saraswati was called the Martin
Luther of Hinduism. Dayanands vision of India
included a classless and casteless society, a united
India and an India free from foreign rule, with Aryan
religion being the common religion of all.
31. (c) A group of westerners led by Madam H.P.
Blavatsky (18311891) and colonel M.S. Olcott, who
were inspired by Indian thought and culture founded
the Theosophical Society in the United States in
1875.
32. (a) Vande Mataram the national song was a part of
Durgesh Nandini.
33. (d) There was a four-point social agenda propagated
by Prarthana Samaj.
1. Disapproval of caste system
2. Womens education
3. Widow remarriage
4. Raising the age of marriage for both males
and females
34. (b) Dayanand Saraswati gave the slogan Back to
the Vedas. He took inspiration from the Vedas and
considered them to be Indias Rock of Ages, the
infallible and the true original seed of Hinduism.
35. (b) Henry Vivan Derorio was the founder of the
Young Bengal Movement. His followers were known
as the Derozians. They attacked old traditions and
decadent customs.
36. (d) Disraelli admitted the Revolt of 1857 as a
national revolt.
37. (a) South India was silent when revolt of 1857 was
spreading in India.
38. (a) Dayanands views were published in his famous
work, Satyarth Prakash. Dayanands vision of India
included a classless and casteless society.
39. (c) Dadabhai Naoroji organised the East India
association in London to mobilize public opinion for
Indian welfare.
40. (b) London was the city where the East India
Association founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866.
41. (b) Thakkar Bappa was an Indian social worker
who worked for upliftment of tribal people in Gujarat
state in India. He became a member of the servants
of India Society founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale
in 1914.
42. (d) Dadabhai Naoroji was known as the Grand
old Man of India. He is regarded as Indias
unofficial Ambassador in England. He was the first
Indian to become a member of the British House of
Commons.
43. (c) Lord Dufferin was the Viceroy of India at
the time of the formation of the Indian National
Congress.
44. (a) Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the Grand Old
Man, was a Parsi intellectual, educator, cotton trader,
and an early Indian political and social leader.
45. (d) Surendra Nath Banerjee was not present in
the founding session of Indian National Congress.
He founded the Indian National Association. After
the founding of the Indian National Congress in
1885 in Bombay, Banerjee merged his organization
with it owing to their common objectives and
memberships.
46. (a) Dadabhai Naoroji did the analysis of the colonial
economy and put forward the theory of economic
drain in his book Poverty and unbritish Rule in
India.
47. (b) Lord Ripon was a staunch liberal democrat
with faith in self-government. He repealed the
Vernacular Press Act and earned much popularity
among Indians.
48. (b) Lord Curzon is best known for partition of
Bengal in 1905. The partition of Bengal into two
provinces was effected on 4 July 1905. The new
province of Eastern Bengal and Assam included
the whole of Assam and the Dacca, Rajshahi and
Chittagong divisions of Bengal with headquarters

at Dacca. Though Curzon justified his action on
administrative lines, partition divided the Hindus and
Muslims in Bengal.
49. (a) King George V visited India during the
viceroyship of Lord Hardinge.
50. (c) Lord Curzen said, My own belief is that
congress is tottering and one of my great ambitions
is to assist it to peaceful death.
51. (d) Lord Ripon is rightly called the Father of Local
Self-Government in India. Ripon believed that self-
government is the highest and noblest principles of
politics. Therefore, Ripon helped the growth of local
bodies like the Municipal Committees in towns and
the local boards in Talukas and villages.
52. (b) Lord Hardinge was the Vicroy of India when
the British Indias capital was shifted from Calcutta
to Delhi.
53. (d) With this reform, the number of elected members
in the Imperial Legislative Council and the Provincial
Legisla Time Councils was increased.
54. (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak never became President
of Indian National Congress. Tilak joined the
Indian National Congress in 1890. He opposed its
moderate attitude, especially towards the fight for
self-government. He was supported by fellow Indian
nationalists Bipin Chandra Pal in Bengal and Lala
Lajpat Rai in Punjab. They were referred to as the
Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate.
55. (c) Indian National Congress was founded by Allan
Octavian Hume. Allan Octavian Hume, a retired civil
servant in the British Government took the initiative
to form an all-India organization. Thus, the Indian
National Congress was founded and its first session
was held at Bombay in 1885. W.C. Banerjee was its
first president.
56. (c) Surendra Nath Banerjee was the founder of
Indian Association of Calcutta.
57. (b) October 16, 1905, the day the partition formally
came into force, was observed as a day of mourning
throughout Bengal. People fasted, bathed in the
Ganga and walked barefoot in processions singing
Bande Mataram which became the theme song of the
movement.
58. (d) Nawab Salimullah Khan was the founder of
All India Muslim League. Nawab Salimullah of
History || A-141
Dacca proposed the setting up of an organisation
to look after the Muslim interests. The proposal
was accepted. The All-India Muslim League was
finally set up on December 30, 1906. Like the Indian
National Congress, they conducted annual sessions
and put their demands to the British government.
59. (d) Barindra Kumar Ghosh founded Anushilam
Samiti at Dhaka.
60. (a) The Indian National Congress was founded and
its first session was held at Bombay in 1885. W.C.
Banerjee was its first president. It was attended by 72
delegates from all over India. Persons attending the
session belonged to different religious faiths. They
discussed the problems of all the Indians irrespective
of their religion, caste, language and regions.
61. (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak attacked the British
through his weeklies, the Mahratta and the Kesari.
He was jailed twice by the British for his nationalist
activities and in 1908 deported to Mandalay for six
years. He set up the Home Rule League in 1916 at
Poona and declared Swaraj is my birth right and I
shall have it.
62. (b) W. Wedderburn was the biographer of A.O.
Hume.
63. (a) In the period of Lord Canning, Indian Penal
Code, Civil Procedure Code and Criminal Code were
passed. The First Law Commission was established
in 1834 by the British Government under the
Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay. It suggested various
enactments to the British Government, most of which
were passed and enacted and are still in force in India.
Few of the most important recommendations made
by this First Law Commission were those on, Indian
Penal Code (first submitted in 1837 but enacted in
1860 and still in force), Criminal Procedure Code
(enacted in 1898, repealed and succeeded by the
Criminal Procedure Code of 1973), etc.
64. (a) D.K. Karve established the first womens
university in India. After reading about the Japan
Womens University, Karve was inspired to set up
the first women university in India in Pune in the
year 1916. The University started with just five
students. The University expanded rapidly when in
1920 an industrialist and philanthropist, Sir Vithaldas
Thackersey, donated 1.5 million rupees.
A-142 || Indian Freedom Struggle-I (18571917)
65. (d) Sri Narayan Guru in Kerala led a lifelong
struggle against upper caste domination. He coined
the slogan One religion, one caste, one God for
mankind.
66. (d) The provisional Government of India was
a provisional government-in-exile established in
Kabul, Afghanistan on December 1, 1915 by Muslim
Indian nationalists during World War I with support
from the Central Powers. The provisional government
was composed of Mahendra Pratap as President and
Maulana Barkatullah as Prime Minister.
67. (b) Devi Chaudharani patronised the historic
Sanyasi Movement of Bengal.
68. (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded Servants of
India Society in Pune, Maharashtra, on June 12,
who left the Deccan Education Society to form this
association. Along with him were a small group of
educated Indians, as Natesh Appaji Dravid, Gopal
Krishna Deodhar and Anant Patwardhan who wanted
to promote social and human development and
overthrow the British rule in India.
69. (d) The system of separate electorates was
introduced by the Act of 1909. Indian Council Act of
1909, popularly known as Morley-Minto reforms was
the first true attempt at introducing a representative
and popular element in India. The seats of the
Councils were to be filled in by elections. The Act
provided for separate or special electorates for due
representation of the different communities, classes
and interests.
70. (b) In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed.
This Act empowered a magistrate to secure an
undertaking from the editor, publisher and printer
of a vernacular newspaper that nothing would be
published against the English Government.
71. (b) The Rahnumai Mardyasan Sabha was founded
in 1851 by a group of English educated Parsis for the
regeneration of the social conditions of the Parsis
and the restoration of the Zoroastrian religion to its
pristine purity.
72. (d) In 1856, Enfield Rifle was introduced in India.
The 1857 revolt was sparked off by the episode of the
greased cartridges. The new Enfield Rifle had been
introduced for the first time in the Indian army.
73. (c) In Dum Dum, for the first time, Mangal Pandey
learned from a Lashkar that cartridges to be used in
Enfield Rifle were greased from the fat of cow and
pork.
74. (a) Rash Bihari Ghosh had presided over Surat
Session of Indian National Congress 1907. The 23rd
session of the Congress was held at Surat. It was very
important from historical point of view. There was an
open clash between the moderates and the extremists
and ultimately it led to a split in the Congress.
75. (c) In 1882, the Government appointed a
commission under the chairmanship of W.W. Hunter
to review the progress of education in the country
since the Despatch of 1854. The Hunter Commission
mostly confined its recommendations to primary and
secondary education.
76. (c) The man who really blazed the trial of extremism
in India was Bal Gangadhar Tilak, who has been
called the Father of Indian Unrest by Valentine
Chirol.
77. (c) Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim president
of Indian National Congress. He was an Indian
lawyer who served as the third president of the Indian
National Congress. He was considered among the
moderate Muslims during the freedom movement
of India. He along with Pherozshah Mehta, K.T.
Telang and others formed the Bombay Presidency
Association in 1885.
78. (d) The Viceroy, Lord Curzon is regarded as the
catalyst of Indian Nationalism.
79. (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak characterised the policies
of moderate leaders as the political mendicancy.
Tilak joined the Indian National Congress in 1890.
He opposed its moderate attitude, especially towards
the fight for self-government. He was one of the
most-eminent radicals at the time.
80. (a) In Haridwar, the Hindu Mahasabha was for
the first time, organised in 1915. Hindu Mahasabha
was founded in 1915 by Madan Mohan Malviya. It
worked with Arya Samaj and other Hindu communal
organizations. It was directly linked with Rashtriya
Swam Sevak Sangh founded in 1925 at Nagpur by
K.B. Hegewar. The first All India Hindu Mahasabha
Conference was organized at Hardwar in 1915.
The Sabha became more aggressive after 1929 and
started propagating Hindu Rashtra which was totally
different from Gandhijis Ram Rajya.

81. (a) The first president of Muslim league was
Nawab Vakar-ul-Mulk. Muslim League, a political
organization of India and Pakistan, founded in 1906
as the All-India Muslim League by Aga Khan III.
Its original purpose was to safeguard the political
rights of Muslims in India. Nawab Mushtaq Husain
Vakar-ul-Mulk, also known as Mushtaq Hussain,
was a Muslim politician and one of the founders of
All India Muslim League. He is also known for his
involvement in the Aligarh Movement.
82. (d) Nawab Abdul Latif Khan: (18281893) a
prominent personality of mid-19th century Bengal,
the pioneer of Muslim modernization and the
architect of the Muslim Renaissance, was one of
those great men who appeared as saviours of their
frustrated, humiliated, demoralized and disorganised
fellow countrymen under colonial rule. His chief
contribution was in the field of education. He was
among the first to understand that young Bengali
Muslims should receive modern education. He
understood that the Muslims of Bengal had fallen
behind in everything because of their prejudices
against modern education. He devoted his whole life
to removing this self-destructive prejudice from their
minds.
83. (b) Ambika Charan Majumdar was the President
of Lucknow Session of Indian National Congress
(1916).
84. (c) The policy of Masterly Inactivity was associated
with John Lawrance.
85. (b) Elijah Impey was the first chief justice of
Supreme Court of Calcutta.
86. (d) The resolution of Swadeshi was adopted in the
Calcutta Session, 1906 of Indian National Congress.
The Swadeshi Movement involved programmes like
the boycott of government service, courts, schools
and colleges and of foreign goods, promotion of
Swadeshi goods, promotion of national education
through the establishment of national schools
and colleges. It was both a political and economic
movement.
87. (a) The first secretary of Indian National Congress
was Allan Octavian Hume. The Congress was
founded by Indian and British members of the
Theosophical Society movement, most notably
History || A-143
A.O. Hume. It has been suggested that the idea was
originally conceived in a private meeting of seventeen
men after a Theosophical Convention held at Madras
in December 1884. Hume took the initiative, and it
was in March 1885 that the first notice was issued
convening the first Indian National Union to meet at
Poona the following December.
88. (d) Abhinav Bharat a secret society of revolutionaries
was organised in 1904 by V.D. Savarkar. Abhinav
Bharat Society (Young India Society) was a secret
society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in
1904. Initially founded at Nasik while still a student
of Fergusson College at Pune, the society developed
from an organisation called Mitra Mela.
89. (d) W. C. Banerjee in his presidential address
outlined the following objectives: promotion of
friendship among all those working for the cause
of the country; development and consolidation of
the feeling of national unity irrespective of race
or creed; formulation and presentation of the
peoples grievances before the government and the
mobilisation of public opinion.
90. (c) The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act was
passed during the tenure of Lord Curzon on 18, March
1904. It is expedient to provide for the preservation
of ancient monuments, for the exercise of control
over traffic in antiquities and over excavation in
certain places, and for the protection and acquisition
in certain cases of ancient monuments and of objects
of archaeological, historical or artistic interest. Act
preserves and restores ancient Indian monuments by
Archaeological Survey of India.
91. (a) In 1867, Dadabhai Naoroji put forward the
famous Drain Theory. In 1896, in its annual session
held at Calcutta, the Indian National Congress
adopted the Drain Theory by proclaiming that the
famines in the country and poverty of the people
had been brought on by the drain of wealth from the
country.
92. (c) Swami Vivekanand said, India has to unite and
conquer the whole world once again with its might.
93. (a) Zeenat Mahal the freedom fighter of first war
of independence of 1857 was conferred the title of
Mahak Pari.
A-144 || Indian Freedom Struggle-I (18571917)
94. (d) On 22 August 1907, Cama attended the
International Socialist Conference in Stuttgart,
Germany, where she described the devastating effects
of a famine that had struck the Indian subcontinent.
In her appeal for human rights, equality and for
autonomy from Great Britain, she unfurled what she
called the Flag of Indian Independence.
95. (b) Lord Harding is remembered for the annulment
of the partition of Bengal. Lord Harding, who
succeeded Lord Minto, finally announced the
annulment of the partition of Bengal in December
1911. Formal reunification of the Bengal was effected
on April 1912 and Lord Carmichael was appointed
as the first Governor of the reunited Bengal.
96. (b) It was at the beginning of the twentieth
century that the 1857 revolt came to be interpreted
as a planned war of national independence, by
V.D. Savarkar in his book, First War of Indian
Independence.
97. (c) Maulvi Liaquat Ali was a Muslim religious
leader from Allahabad. He was one of the leaders in
the revolt of 1857 against the British, what is now
known as the Indian Mutiny, or the Sepoy Mutiny.
98. (c) In 1896 in the Calcutta Session of the Indian
National Congress, Vande Mataram was first sung.
99. (c) In 1911, when King George V was crowned in
England, a Durbar was held in Delhi to celebrate
the occasion. The decision to shift the capital of
India from Calcutta to Delhi was announced at this
Durbar.
100. (a) The extrimists wanted a strong resolution
supporting their programme at the Benaras session.
The moderates, on the other hand were not in favour
of extending the movement beyond Bengal and were
totally opposed to boycott of councils and similar
associations.
101. (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale compared Curzons
administratin in India to that of Aurangzeb.
102. (b) Krishna Kumar Mitra was the first to suggest
the boycott of British goods in Bengal. The Swadeshi
Movement had its genesis in the antipartition
movement which was started to oppose the British
decision to partition Bengal. The formal proclamation
of the Swadeshi movement was made on August 7,
1905 at a meeting held at the Calcutta Town hall. At
the August 7 meeting, the famous Boycott resolution
was passed. Boycott was first suggested by Krishan
Kumar Mitra in Sanjivani in 1905.
103. (c) During the 1916 Congress session at Lucknow,
two major events occurred. The divided Congress
became united. An understanding for joint action
against the British was reached between the Congress
and the Muslim League and it was called the
Lucknow Pact. The signing of the Lucknow Pact by
the Congress and the Muslim League in 1916 marked
an important step in the Hindu-Muslim unity.
104. (b) Annie Besant the Irish theosophist based in
India since 1896, had decided to enlarge the sphere of
her activities to include the building of a movement
for Home Rule on the lines of the Irish Home Rule
Leagues.
105. (a) Queen Victorias proclamation was read out by
Lord Canning on 1st November 1858 at Allahabad.
106. (a) The first issue of Journal Ghadar was published
in Urdu language.
107. (a) Shyamji Krishna Verma established Indian
Home rule society in London. The Indian Home Rule
Society (IHRS) was an Indian organisation founded
in London in 1905 that sought to promote the cause
of self-rule in British India. The organisation was
founded by Shyamji Krishna Varma, with support
from a number of prominent Indian nationalists in
Britain at the time, including Bhikaji Cama, Dadabhai
Naoroji and S.R. Rana.
108. (b) During Swadeshi Movement Vande Mataram
became the theme song of the Indian National
Movement. Vande Mataram was the national
cry for freedom during the Indian independence
movement. Large rallies, fermenting initially in
Bengal, in the major metropolis of Calcutta, would
work themselves up into a patriotic fervour by
shouting the slogan Vande Mataram, or Hail to
the Mother(land)!
109. (b) The system of indirect election was introduced
in India in the year 1892. The Indian Councils Act
1892 was an Act of the Parliament of the United
Kingdom that authorized an increase in the size of
the various legislative councils in British India.
110. (d) Surendranath was one of the most important
public leaders who protested the partition of the
Bengal province in 1905.

111. (d) Syed Haider Raza had led the Swadeshi Movement
in Delhi.
112. (b) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar had founded the
society called Mitra Mela (Friends Group) which
later became Abhinav Bharat (Young India Society)
on the model of the Italian revolutionary Giuseppe
Mazzinis Young Italy.
113. (d) When Bengal was partitioned, it sparked an
outburst of public anger against the British. The
anger led to civil unrest and a nationalist campaign
was carried out by groups of revolutionaries, led by
Aurobindo Ghosh, Rasbihari Bose and Bagha Jatin
and organized into groups like Yugantar. The British
cracked down hard on the activists and the conflict
came to a head on April 30, 1908 when Khudiram
Bose and Prafulla Chaki attempted to kill Magistrate
Kingsford. Aurobindo Ghosh was also arrested on
charges of planning and overseeing the attack and
imprisoned in solitary confinement in Alipore Jail.
The trial continued for a year (19081909), and
Bose was found guilty and later hanged. Aurobindo
Ghosh, however, was defended by the young lawyer
Chittaranjan Das, who concluded his defence.
114. (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak brought about a compromise
between Muslim league and Congress in 1916. Two
Home Rule Leagues were established, one by B.G.
Tilak at Poona in April 1916 and the other by Mrs.
Annie Besant at Madras in September 1916. The two
leagues cooperated with each other as well with the
Congress and the Muslim League in putting their
demand for home rule.
History || A-145
115. (a) The Indian Home Rule leagues were organised
on the lines of the Irish Home Rule leagues and
they represented the emergence of a new trend of
aggressive politics. Annie Basant and Tilak proved
to be the pioneers of this new trend.
116. (b) The real name of Tantiya Tope the leader of
1857 was Ram Chandra Pandurang Tope. He was
an Indian Maratha leader in the Indian Rebellion of
1857 and one of its more renowned generals. He was
a personal adherent of Nana Saheb of Bithur.
117. (d) The President of the Surat session of Indian
National Congress (1907) was Ras Bihari Ghose.
118. (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak used religious or Hiodoxy
as a method of mass contact through his alignment
against reformers on the age of Consent Bill in 1891
followed by the organisation of the Ganapati festival
from 1894 and the development of a patriotic-cum-
historical culture as a central symbol of nationalism,
through the Shivaji festivals form 1896 onwards.
119. (d) All the above given aspects were aimed at the
conspiracy to divide Bengal.
120. (b) Lala Hardayal was the founder of Gaddar Party.
121. (c) Bhartiya Rashtriya Sangh, was changed to
Bhartiya Rashtriya Congress in 1885 under the
suggestion of Dadabhai Naoroji.
122. (d) Lord Dufferin had ridiculed congress as
representing only a microscopic minority of the
people.
A-146 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917-1947)

10 Indian Freedom
Struggle-II (19171947)

1. After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji
launched his first successful Satyagraha in
(a) Champaran (b) Chauri Chaura
(c) Bardoli (d) Dandi
2. The only session of the Indian National Congress
which was presided over by Mahatma Gandhi
was
(a) Amravati (b) Belgaum
(c) Karachi (d) Nagpur
3. The first mass movement started by Mahatma
Gandhi was
(a) Non-cooperation Movement
(b) Salt Movement
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Indigo Movement
4. In which of the following sessions of the Indian
National Congress, did Mohan Das Karamchand
Gandhi participate for the first time?
(a) Calcutta Session 1901 (c) Autobiography of an Indian Pilgrim
(b) Banaras Session 1905
(c) Surat Session 1907 11. Who was the architect of Communal Award?
(d) Lucknow Session 1916
5. In which of the following movements, did
Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of hunger
strike as a weapon?
(a) Non-cooperation Movement
(b) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(c) Ahmedabad Strike
(d) Bardoli Satyagraha
6. Who among the following ladies was the first
President of Indian National Congress?
(a) Aruna Asaf Ali (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Sarojini Naidu (c) C. Rajgopalachari
(d) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
7. Where did Subhash Chandra Bose set up the
Azad Hind Fauz and Azad Hind Government?
(a) Burma (b) Japan
(c) Malaya (d) Singapore
8. Direct Action Day was observed by Muslim
League on
(a) 15th August 1946 (b) 16th August 1946
(c) 17th August 1946 (d) 18th August 1946
9. Where was Mahatma Gandhi when the Cabinet
Mission arrived in India?
(a) Urulikanchan (b) Poona
(c) Hyderabad (d) Bardoli
10. The title of the autobiography of Subhas Chandra
Bose is
(a) Autobiography of an unknown Indian
(b) Autobiography of a Revolutionary
(d) Autobiography of an Indian Soldier
(a) Lord Linlithgow (b) Lord Reading
(c) Lord Irwin (d) Ramsay Macdonald
12. Where was the Jatiya Sarkar formed during the
Quit India Movement?
(a) Ballia (b) Nagpur
(c) Satara (d) Tamluk
13. Vinoba Bhave was chosen as the first Satyagrahi
of the individual Satyagraha. Who was the
second?
(b) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
 History || A-147

14. Which one of the following had supported the 21. Who of the following had called Subhash
Non-cooperation Resolution of Mahatama Chandra Bose as Desh Nayak?
Gandhi in the special session of the Indian (a) Mahatma Gandhi
National Congress at Calcutta in 1920? (b) Ram Manohar Lohia
(a) C.R. Das (c) Ravindranath Tagore
(b) B.C. Pal (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Madan Mohan Malviya 22. The national leader who was elected President
(d) Moti Lal Nehru (Speaker) of the Central Legislative Assembly in
15. In which of the following sessions of Indian 1925 was
National Congress, Mahatma Gandhi had said, (a) Motilal Nehru (b) C.R. Das
Gandhi may die but Gandhism will remain (c) Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Vitthalbhai Patel
forever? 23. A Provisional Government of India with Raja
(a) Calcutta Session 1928 Mahendra Pratap as its president was established
(b) Lahore Session 1929 during the First World War in
(c) Karachi Session 1931 (a) Afghanistan (b) Germany
(d) Ramgarh Session 1940 (c) Singapore (d) Turkey
16. Where was the Hindustan Socialist Republican
24. Who out of the following had told Destruction
Association founded in 1928?
is the best method of dealing with the foreign
(a) Kanpur (b) Delhi
clothes?
(c) Allahabad (d) Lahore
(a) Ravindranath Tagore
17. Who addressed Gandhiji as the Father of the
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
Nation for the first time?
(c) Chittaranjan Das
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
25. Where was Mahatma Gandhi when a raid was
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
made by Congress Volunteers on Dharsana Salt
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Depot?
18. Jiatrang Movement started in
(a) In Yervada Jail
(a) Nagaland (b) Tripura
(b) In Sabarmati Jail
(c) Manipur (d) Mijoram
19. Who of the following presided over the session (c) In Agha Khan Palace Poona
of Indian National Congress when resolution of (d) In Ahmadanagar Fort Jail
Poorna Swaraj was passed? 26. Which one of the following had seconded the
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji Quit India Resolution of 1942?
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru (a) A. K. Azad
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Surendranath Banerjee (c) Sardar Vallabhabhai Patel
20. Aruna Asaf Ali was connected with which one of (d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
the following movements as a woman organiser 27. Who is the author of the book entitled A Nation
of underground activity? in the Making?
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Non-cooperation Movement (b) Surendranath Banerjee
(c) Quit India Movement (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Swadeshi Movement (d) Subhas Chandra Bose
A-148 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917-1947)
28. Who was the leader of the Red Shirt Party? 35. Who among the following female revolutionary
(a) Mahatma Gandhi fired at the English Governor (Chancellor) while
(b) Maulana Azad receiving her degree at the convocation?
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru (a) Shanti Ghosh (b) Suniti Chaudhary
(d) Abdul Gaffar Khan (c) Bina Das (d) Kalpana Dutta
29. Who was the founder of the Swaraj Party? 36. 1929 Lahore Session of the Indian National
(a) Mahatama Gandhi Congress was presided over by
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru (a) Moti Lal Nehru
(c) Chittaranjan Das (b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (c) C.R. Das
30. Who among the following was the one to have (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
escaped being hanged in the Kakori conspiracy 37. In which of the following sessions of the Indian
case? National Congress, Subhash Chandra Bose had
(a) Ashfaqullah Khan defeated Pattabhi Sitaramayya in the election of
(b) Rajendra Lahiri the Congress President?
(c) Ram Prasad Bismil (a) Haripura Session 1938
(d) Chandra Shekhar Azad (b) Tripura Session 1939
31. Who among the following attended all the three (c) Madras Session 1927
Round Table Conferences? (d) Lahore Session 1929
(a) Mahatma Gandhi 38. The freedom fighter who died in jail due to
(b) Bhimrao Ambedkar hunger strike was
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel (a) Ram Prasad Bismil
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Bipin Chandra Pal
32. Who among the following leaders escaped from (c) Jatin Das
the prison and organised underground activities (d) C.R. Das
during the Quit India Movement? 39. Who of the following was not amongst the
(a) J.B. Kriplani lawyers to fight the case of Indian National Army
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia in 1946 in the Delhi Red Fort trial?
(c) Achyut Patwardhan (a) Bhulabhai Desai
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan (b) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
33. The Statement, I am a socialist and a republican (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
and do not believe in Kings and Princes, is (d) Dr. Kailash Nath Katju
associated with 40. Name the first recorded Muslim revolutionary
(a) Narendra Dev who was hanged for Indias independence?
(b) Achyut Patwardhan (a) Mohammad Ali
(c) Jayaprakash Narayan (b) Shaukat Ali
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru (c) Ashfaque-ullah-Khan
34. Who among the following had moved the Non- (d) Azizuddin
cooperation resolution in the Nagpur session of 41. Which one of the following revolutionaries is not
the Indian National Congress in 1920? associated with Kakori Conspiracy Case?
(a) C.R. Das (a) Ram Prasad Bismil
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Ashfaque-ullah-Khan
(c) Moti Lal Nehru (c) Roshan Singh
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal (d) Bhagat Singh

42. The province where Indian National Congress
did not form Ministry after the general election
of 1937 was
(a) Odisha (b) Bihar
(c) Madras (d) Bengal
43. In which of the following jails, the book
Discovery of India was written by Jawahar Lal
Nehru?
(a) Ahmadnagar Fort Jail (a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Alipur Central Jail
(c) Yervada Jail (c) J.M. Sengupta
(d) Deoli Camp Jail
44. The person who on April 4, 1919 delivered a
speech on Hindu-Muslim Unity from the pulpit
of Jama Masjid in Delhi was
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Mohammad Ali
(c) Mahamana Madan Mohan Malviya
(d) Swami Shradhanand
45. The person who returned his token of honour to
Government of India on May 30, 1919 was
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(c) Ravindranath Tagore
(d) Jamna Lal Bajaj
46. The title given by the British Government to
Mahatma Gandhi and which was surrendered
during the Non-cooperation Movement was
(a) Hind Kesari (b) Kaiser-e-Hind
(c) Rai Bahadur (d) Rt. Honourable
47. Which of the following came to India after the
Second World War in 1946?
(a) Cripps Mission (a) 1936 AD (b) 1937 AD
(b) Cabinet Mission
(c) Wavell Plan 56. Tinkathia system in Champaran meant
(d) Simon Commission
48. Which of the following parties did not support
Quit India Movement?
(a) The Hindu Mahasabha
(b) The Communist Party of India
(c) The Unionist Party of Punjab
(d) All the above
History || A-149
49. Which portfolio was held by Rajendra Prasad in
the interim government formed in 1946?
(a) External Affairs
(b) Defence
(c) Food and Agriculture
(d) None of these
50. Who among the following presided over the
Karachi session of the Indian National Congress?
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel
51. Who amongst the following made regular
broadcast on Congress radio operated during
Quit India Movement?
(a) Jay Prakash Narayan
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose
(c) Ram Manohar Lohia
(d) Sucheta Kriplani
52. Who said, Imperialism is dead as dodo ?
(a) Ramje Macdonald (b) Winston Churchill
(c) Clement Attlee (d) Lord Wavell
53. Kakori conspiracy case took place in the year
(a) 1920 (b) 1925
(c) 1930 (d) 1935
54. Which one of the following was directly related
to the Poona Pact of 1932?
(a) Indian women
(b) Indian labour class
(c) Indian farmers
(d) Indian depressed class
55. Subhas Chandra Bose had founded Forward
Block in the year
(c) 1938 AD (d) 1939 AD
(a) Cultivation of Indigo on the 3/20 area of
land.
(b) Cultivation of Indigo on the 3/19 area of
land.
(c) Cultivation of Indigo on the 3/18 area of
land.
(d) None of these
A-150 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917-1947)
57. Lahore Session of Muslim League (1940) was 64. The statement, On bended knees I asked for
presided over by bread and received stone instead, is associated
(a) Liaqat Ali Khan with
(b) Chaudhary Khaliquzzaman (a) Khilafat Movement
(c) Mohammad Ali Jinnah (b) Non-cooperation Movement
(d) Fatima Jinnah (c) Dandi March
58. Which one of the following had led the defense (d) Quit India Movement
pleaders in the famous Indian National Army 65. Which one of the following had drafted the Quit
trial in the Red Fort of Delhi India Resolution
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Asaf Ali (b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Sir Tej Bahadur Saprau (c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Bhulabhai Desai (d) Acharya Narendra Deo
59. Who was the Chairman of the National Planning 66. The party which observed the Black Day on 3
Committee set up by the Indian National July, 1947 against partition of India was
Congress in 1938? (a) Indian National Congress
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Forward Bloc
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (d) Communist Party of India
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose 67. In which of the following session of Muslim
60. Who among the following was the Railway League Two-Nation Theory was propounded?
Minister during the Interim Government (1946)? (a) Lahore Session, 1940
(a) Baldev Singh (b) T.T. Chundrigar (b) Bombay Session, 1915
(c) Asaf Ali (d) Abdul Rab Nistar (c) Delhi Session, 1918
61. Which one of the following had drafted the
(d) Calcutta Session, 1917
fundamental rights resolution at the Karachi
68. Who among the following had read the English
Session, 1931?
version of Presidential address in Tripura session
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
of Indian National Congress, 1939?
(b) Acharya Narendra Deo
(a) Acharya Narendra Deo
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Sarat Chandra Bose
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
62. Which operation was started by the British
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Government to arrest the leaders of Quit India
69. Which one of the following leaders was not a part
Movement?
of Non-cooperation Movement?
(a) Operation Reander Paste
(b) Operation Zero Hour (a) M.A. Ansari
(c) Operation Thunderbolt (b) M.A. Jinnah
(d) Operation Blue Star (c) Abul Kalam Azad
63. Which one of the following Bengali writers (d) Hakim Ajamal Khan
was the first to suggest the adoption of Hindi as 70. Who hailed Gandhis call for Quit India as an
Indias national language ? Epic Movement?
(a) Dinbandhu Mitra (a) Ram Manohar Lohia
(b) Madhusudan Datta (b) Jai Prakash Narayan
(c) Kali Prasanna Sinha (c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Bhudeva Mukherjee (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
 History || A-151

71. Who was the President of the Flag Committee? 79. Which one of the following was elected as the
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) J.B. Kripalani President of Indian National Congress after the
(c) K.M. Munshi (d) D.P. Khetan resignation of Subhash Chandra Bose?
72. Which one of the following books is associated (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
with rise of National Movement in India? (b) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(a) Gitanjali (c) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Anand Math (d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Satyagrah Prakash
80. Who was the founder president of Harijan Sevak
(d) Gita Rahasya
Sangh?
73. Who was the man to propose a separate state for
(a) Mahadev Desai
the Muslims of India for the first time?
(a) Rahmat Ali (b) Ghanshyam Das Birla
(b) Fazlul Haque (c) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan (d) Amritlal Thakkar
(d) Mohammad Iqbal 81. Who among the following was not member of
74. Which movement inspired Sardar Vallabhbhai Moti Lal Nehru Committee?
Patel to become a follower of Gandhiji? (a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(a) Kheda (b) Champaran (b) G.R. Pradhan
(c) Salt (d) Khadi (c) Sir Ali Imam
75. On which of the following fleet, the naval revolt (d) Aurobindo Ghosh
of 1946 was started? 82. Who said Cripps proposals were a post-dated
(a) I.N.S. Virat cheque of a crashing bank?
(b) I.N.S. Crown (a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) I.N.S. Talwar
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) None of these
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
76. On 23 January 1948, who said about Subhas
Chandra Bose, We should emulate him. Subhash (d) M.A. Jinnah
was a great patriot. He laid down his life for the 83. Who among the following was not a member of
country. He has no use for parochialism or caste the Cabinet Mission Plan?
distinction. He treated all alike? (a) Lord Pathic Lawrence
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) A.V. Alexander
(b) Jay Prakash Narayan (c) Sir Stafford Cripps
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Lord Emery
(d) Bhulabhai Desai 84. Who was the Commander-in-Chief of INA before
77. An article Why I am an Atheist was written by Subhash Chandra Bose?
(a) Bhagat Singh (a) Gyani Pritam Singh
(b) B.K. Dutt (b) Captain Mohan Singh
(c) Bhagavati Charan Vohra (c) Major Fuzihara
(d) Yashpal
(d) Captin Suraj Mal
78. Who was the President of Congress when
85. The Constituent Assembly of India started
Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India
functioning from
Movement in 1942?
(a) 9th December 1946
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) 1st January 1947
(b) Abul Kalam Azad
(c) 26th January 1947
(c) Acharya Kripalani
(d) Rajendra Prasad (d) 15th August 1947
A-152 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917-1947)
86. Name the foreign journalist who reported
Satyagrah at Dharsana salt work was
(a) Mark Tully (b) Web Miller
(c) Philip Sprat (d) Francis Louis
87. Who among the following said about Mahatma
Gandhi, Generations to come, it may be, will
scarce believe that such one as this, ever in flesh
and blood, walked upon this earth?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Albert Einstein
88. Who among the following hailed Subhash
Chandra Bose as the flaming sword of Indian
Patriotism?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Sardar Vallabhabhai Patel
(c) Govind Vallabh Pant
(d) Sarojini Naidu
89. The first session of All India Trade Union
Congress held in Bombay was presided over by
(a) S.A. Dange Federation was included in the
(b) N.M. Joshi
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
90. In which session, did the Muslim League give the
slogan Divide and Quit?
(a) Lucknow 1931 (b) Karachi 1933
(c) Lahore 1940 (d) Karachi 1943
91. Who authored the famous book The Indian
Struggle?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
92. Who declared Every blow that is hurled on my
back will be a nail in the coffin of the British
empire?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (a) Conservative Party
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal (c) Liberal Party
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
93. There is going to be a revolution here (in India)
and we must get out quick. Who said it?
(a) Sir Stafford Cripps
(b) Lord Pethwick Lawrence
(c) Lord Wavell
(d) A.V. Alexander
94. Baba Ramchandra organised peasants in
(a) Andhra (b) Bengal
(c) Bihar (d) Awadh
95. Who of the following gave the slogan Do or
Die during Quit India Movement?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Lokmanya Tilak
96. Who of the following established Rani Jhansi
Regiment?
(a) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(b) Ras Bihari Bose
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal
97. The provision for the establishment of All India
(a) Government of India Act 1919
(c) August offer 1940
(d) Cabinet Mission Proposal 1946
98. When Gandhiji was arrested in Salt Satyagrah
who took his place as leader of the movement?
(a) Abbas Tyabji
(b) Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
99. Gandhijis Champaran Movement was for
(a) The security of the rights of Harijans
(b) Civil disobedience Movement
(c) Maintaining of Unity of Hindu Society
(d) Solving the problems of Indigo worker
100. Which one of the following parties was in power
in UK when India got Independence?
(b) Labour Party
(d) Socialist Party

101. The Muslim League demanded separate Pakistan
for the first time in the year
(a) 1939 (b) 1940
(c) 1941 (d) 1942
102. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was given the epithet Lok-
Manya during
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Revolutionary Movement
(c) Home Rule Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
103. When did Gandhiji give the slogan of Swaraj in
one year?
(a) During Non-cooperation Movement
(b) During Round Table Conference
(c) During Dandi March
(d) During Civil Disobedience Movement
104. Who amongst the following advised that the
Indian National Congress should be disbanded
as a political party after the independence of India?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Jai Prakash Narayana
(c) Acharya Kripalani
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
105. In which one of the following sessions of the
Indian National Congress, Poorna Swaraj was
declared the goal of Congress?
(a) Lahore 1929 (b) Karachi
(c) Delhi (d) Bombay
106. Where was Mahatama Gandhi when Chauri-
Chaura episode took place?
(a) At Delhi (b) At Chauri-Chaura
(c) At Calcutta (d) At Bardoli
107. Who among the following had denounced the
participation of Mahatma Gandhi in the Khilafat
Movement?
(a) Abul Kalam Azad (c) N.M. Joshi
(b) Muhammad Ali
(c) Shaukat Ali 115. The leader of Bardoli Satyagrah was
(d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
108. Who of the following called Gandhiji Mahatma
for the first time?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru formed?
(b) Madan Mohan Malviya
(c) Ravindra Nath Tagore
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
History || A-153
109. Who among the following took the burning of the
foreign clothes as the insensate waste during
the Non-cooperation Movement?
(a) C.R. Das
(b) Moti Lal Nehru
(c) Ravindra Nath Tagore
(d) Vallabh Bhai Patel
110. Which one of the following is not true about the
First Round Table Conference?
(a) It was held in 1930
(b) It was to discuss the Report of the Simon
Commission
(c) It was held in London
(d) It was attended by the Congress delegation
111. The book Mountbatten and the Partition of
India was written by
(a) Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre
(b) M.N. Das
(c) Louis Fischer
(d) None of these
112. Two independent states of India and Pakistan
were created by
(a) The Shimala Conference
(b) The Crips Proposal
(c) The Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) The Indian Independence Act
113. Where did Baba Ramchandra organise the
farmers?
(a) Awadh (b) Bihar
(c) Bengal (d) Andra
114. Who of the following founded Ahmedabad
Textile Labour Association?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) J.B. Kripalani
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Vitthalbhai Patel
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Mahadev Desai
116. Where was the first All Indian Kisan Sabha
(a) Patna (b) Lucknow
(c) Calcutta (d) Madras
A-154 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917-1947)
117. Who presided over the first session of All India 125. The Sarabandi (no tax) Campaign of 1922 was
Kisan Sabha? led by
(a) Swami Sahajanand (a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Swami Shradhanand (b) Chittaranjan Das
(c) Indulal Yajnik (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) N.N. Ranga (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
118. All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was 126. Who of the following was associated with the
founded in 1920 by August offer?
(a) V.V. Giri (b) S.A. Dange (a) Lord Wavell (b) Lord Irwin
(c) P.C. Joshi (d) N.M. Joshi (c) Lord Linlithgow (d) Lord Mountbatten
119. Who was the general secretary of the All Indian 127. Which one of the following was the first Indian
Trade Union Congress? effort to draft constitutional scheme?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (a) Simon report (b) Nehru report
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (c) Irwin report (d) None of these
(c) S.A. Dange 128. Due to leadership and success in which one of the
(d) Diwan Chaman Lal following, did Vallabhbhai Patel get the title of
120. Who among the following was not associated Sardar?
with the formation of UP Kisan Sabha in (a) Kheda Satyagrah
February 1918?
(b) Non-cooperation Movement
(a) Indra Narayan Dwivedi
(c) Bardoli Satyagrah
(b) Gauri Shankar Mishra
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Madan Mohan Malviya
129. Who among the following was nominated by
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Mahatma Gandhi for the presidentship of the
121. Who of the following was known as Deshbandhu?
Congress in 1939 against Subhash Chandra
(a) Aurobindo Ghose
Bose?
(b) Chittranjan Das
(a) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Govind Ballabh Pant
(d) Surendra Nath Banerjee
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
122. Who of the following was a founder of Naujawan
Bharat Sabha in 1926? (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai 130. While delivering the presidential address,
(b) Bhagat Singh the Congress President who advocated the
(c) Lala Hardayal introduction of Roman script for Hindi language
(d) Sohan Singh Bhakhna was
123. The editor of Young India and Harijan was (a) Mahatma Gandhi
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) B.R. Ambedkar (c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Jyotiba Phule (d) Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose 131. Which one of the following commissions was
124. Which of the following movements came to appointed by British Government to investigation
abrupt end because of Chauri Chaura incident? into the massacre in Jallianwala Bagh?
(a) Non-cooperation Movement (a) Hunter Commission
(b) Home Rule Movement (b) Simon Commission
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement (c) Welby Commission
(d) Quit India Movement (d) Butler Committee
 History || A-155

132. Who among the following was regarded by (c) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
Mahatma Gandhi as his Political Guru? (d) Abul Kalam Azad
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji 138. Who was called the Iron man of India?
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Feroz Shah Mehta (b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
133. Who played an important role in signing of (d) Lala Lajpat Rai
Gandhi-Irwin Pact? 139. The main reason for the boycott of Simon
(a) Moti Lal Nahru Commission in India was
(b) Madan Mohan Malviya (a) Appointment before time
(c) Tej Bahadur Sapru (b) All the members were Englishmen
(d) Chintamani (c) Chairman was a member of British Liberal
134. During whose tenure as the Viceroy of India, Party
were the great martyrs Bhagat Singh, Rajguru (d) None of these
and Sukhdev hanged? 140. Who was the President of Constituent Assembly?
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Irwin (a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Cheimsford (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
135. The massacre of the crowd at Jallianwala Bagh at (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Amritsar took place on (d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(a) 1st June 1918 (b) 13th March 1919 141. Which one of the following Indian freedom
(c) 12th April 1919 (d) 13th April 1919 fighters coined the slogan Jai Hind?
136. Which of the following Acts was described by (a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Jawahar Lal Nehru as New Charter of Slavery? (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(a) Regulating Act 1773 (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Government of India Act 1909 (d) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Government of India Act 1919 142. Who was invited by Lord Wavell to form the
(d) Government of India Act 1935 Interim Government in India in 1946?
137. Who was known as the Frontier Gandhi (Simanta (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Gandhi)? (b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(a) Abdul Gaffar Khan (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi (d) C. Rajagopalachari
A-156 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917-1947)

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 19. (b) 37. (b) 55. (d) 73. (d) 91. (d) 109. (c) 127. (b)
2. (b) 20. (c) 38. (c) 56. (a) 74. (a) 92. (a) 110. (d) 128. (c)
3. (a) 21. (c) 39. (c) 57. (c) 75. (c) 93. (a) 111. (a) 129. (a)
4. (a) 22. (d) 40. (c) 58. (d) 76. (c) 94. (d) 112. (d) 130. (c)
5. (c) 23. (a) 41. (d) 59. (d) 77. (a) 95. (b) 113. (a) 131. (a)
6. (b) 24. (b) 42. (d) 60. (c) 78. (b) 96. (c) 114. (a) 132. (d)
7. (d) 25. (a) 43. (a) 61. (a) 79. (a) 97. (b) 115. (c) 133. (c)
8. (b) 26. (d) 44. (d) 62. (b) 80. (b) 98. (a) 116. (b) 134. (b)
9. (a) 27. (b) 45. (c) 63. (d) 81. (d) 99. (d) 117. (a) 135. (d)
10. (c) 28. (d) 46. (b) 64. (c) 82. (c) 100. (b) 118. (d) 136. (d)
11. (d) 29. (c) 47. (b) 65. (b) 83. (c) 101. (b) 119. (d) 137. (a)
12. (d) 30. (d) 48. (d) 66 (c) 84. (b) 102. (c) 120. (d) 138. (a)
13. (b) 31. (b) 49. (c) 67. (a) 85. (a) 103. (a) 121. (b) 139. (b)
14. (d) 32. (d) 50. (d) 68. (b) 86. (b) 104. (d) 122. (b) 140. (c)
15. (c) 33. (d) 51. (c) 69. (b) 87. (d) 105. (a) 123. (a) 141. (d)
16. (b) 34. (a) 52. (c) 70. (c) 88. (a) 106. (d) 124. (a) 142. (b)
17. (a) 35. (c) 53. (b) 71. (b) 89. (c) 107. (d) 125. (d)
18. (c) 36. (b) 54. (d) 72. (b) 90. (d) 108. (c) 126. (c)

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha
in Champaran after returning from South Africa.
Mahatma Gandhi began his experiments with
Satyagraha against the oppressive European indigo
planters at Champaran in Bihar in 1917.
2. (b) The only session of the Indian National Congress
presidised by Mahatma Gandhi was in Belgaum. The
town had the honour of hosting the All India 39th
Congress session in 1924, that was the only session
which was presided over by Mahatma Gandhi, and
the only session held in Karnataka. Veersoudha is
a monument built in memory of this session.
3. (a) The first mass movement started by Mahatma
Gandhi was Non-cooperation Movement. Mahatma
Gandhi announced his plan to begin Non-Cooperation
with the government as a sequel to the Rowlatt
Act, Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Khilafat
Movement. It was approved by the Indian National
Congress at the Nagpur session in December,
1920. The movement began with Mahatma Gandhi
renouncing the titles, which were given by the
British. Other leaders and influential persons also
followed him by surrendering their honorary posts
and titles. Students came out of the government
educational institutions. National schools such as
the Kashi Vidyapeeth, the Bihar Vidyapeeth and the
Jamia Millia Islamia were set up. All the prominent
leaders of the country gave up their lucrative legal
practice. Legislatures were boycotted. No leader of
the Congress came forward to contest the elections
for the Legislatures.

4. (a) In the Calcutta Session 1901 of the Indian
National Congress, Mohan Das Karmachand Gandhi
participated for the first time. In 1901, Gandhi
reached India to attend the Calcutta session of the
Indian National Congress and had the satisfaction
of seeing his resolution on South Africa pass with
acclamation.
5. (c) In the Ahmedabad strike, Mahatma Gandhi
made his first use of hunger strike as a weapon.
In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi intervened in a dispute
between the workers and mill-owners of Ahmedabad.
He advised the workers to go on strike and to demand
a 35 per cent increase in wages. But he insisted that
the workers should not use violence against the
employers during the strike.
6. (b) Annie Besant was the first woman President of
Indian National Congress. She presided over the 1917
Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress.
Annie Besant was of Irish origin and was one of the
few foreigners who played a significant role in the
Indian freedom movement.
7. (d) In Singapore, Subhash Chandra Bose set up
the Azad Hind Fauj and Azad Hind Government.
During the course of the Second World War, armed
revolutionary activities continued to take place. The
role of Subhas Chandra Bose towards such activities
is incomparable. On 2 July 1943, Subhas Chandra
Bose reached Singapore and gave the rousing war
cry of Dilli Chalo. He was made the President of
Indian Independence League and soon became the
supreme commander of the Indian National Army.
8. (b) Direct Action Day was observed by Mulsim
league on 16th August, 1946. Direct Action Day also
known as the Great Calcutta Killings, was a day of
widespread riot and manslaughter between Hindus
and Muslims in the city of Calcutta (now known as
Kolkata) in the Bengal province of British India. The
day also marked the start of what is known as The
Week of the Long Knives.
9. (a) When the cabinet mission arrived in India,
Mahatma Gandhi was in Urulikanchan.
10. (c) The title of the autobiography of Subhash
Chandra Bose is the Autobiography of an Indian
Pilgrim.
11. (d) The Communal Award was made by the British
Prime Minister Ramsay Macdonald on 16 August
1932 granting separate electorates in British India
for the Forward Caste, Lower Caste, Muslims,
History || A-157
Buddhists, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians,
Europeans and Untouchables (then known as the
Dalits), etc. The award attracted severe criticism
from Mahatma Gandhi, the Akali Dal, etc.
12. (d) Satish Chandra Samanta became the president of
Tamluk Congress Committee and remained an active
congress member for decades. He was known for his
leadership qualities and other constructive work. His
leadership qualities could be observed during the
formation of a parallel government namedTamralipta
Jatiya Sarkar (Tamrlipta National Government) in
Tamluk during the Quit India Movement.
13. (b) Vinoba was chosen by Mahatma Gandhi as the
first Satyagrahi in the individual Satyagraha initiated
in 1940. The first Satyagraha of the individual
Satyagrahi was initiated on 17th October, 1940.
It is important to recall that Pandit Jawahar Lal
Nehru was the second Satyagrahi. Gandhiji declared
Vinayak as the first Satyagrahi and also gave him the
name Vinoba. This is the first instance that drew
everybodys attention to Vinoba. Vinobaji continued
to work in Gandhijis constructive programmes.
14. (d) Moti Lal Nehru had supported the Non-
cooperation Resolution of Mahatma Gandhi in the
special session of the Indian National Congress at
Calcutta in 1920.
15. (c) In the Kranchi Session 1931 of India National
Congress, Mahatma Gandhi had said Gandhi may
die but Gandhism will remain forever.
16. (b) Hindustan socialist Republican Association
before 1928 was known as the Hindustan Republican
Association. It is reckoned as one amongst the
Indian independence associations during the time of
freedom struggle. Bhagat Singh, Yogendra Shukla
and Chandrasekar Azad were the key functionaries
of Hindustan Socialist Republic Association.
17. (a) Subhash Chandra Bose addressed Gandhiji as
the Father of the Nation for the first time. Mahatma
Gandhiji is revered in India as the Father of the
Nation. Much before the Constitution of Free India
conferred the title of the Father of the Nation upon the
Mahatma, it was Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose who
first addressed him as such in his condolence message
to the Mahatma on the demise of Kasturba.
18. (c) Jiatrang Movement started in Manipur.
19. (b) In December 1929, the Congress held its
annual session at Lahore. Jawaharlal Nehru was the
president at this session. In this session, the Congress
A-158 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917-1947)
declared Purna Swaraj or complete independence
as its ultimate goal. It asked all Congressmen and
nationalists not to participate in elections to the
legislatures and to resign from the legislatures. It
was decided that 26 January would be henceforth
observed as the Independence Day every year. To
achieve the aim of complete independence, the
Congress decided to launch another mass movement
the Civil Disobedience Movement.
20. (c) Aruna Asaf Ali was connected with Quit India
Movement. The members of the Socialist Party
including Ram Manohar Lohia, Jayaprakash Narayan
and Aruna Asaf Ali started consolidating underground
networks. The role of the underground movement was
seen as one keeping up popular morale by providing
a line of command and guidance to activists across
the country.
21. (c) Rabindra Nath Tagore had called Subhash
Chandra Bose as Desh Nayak.
22. (d) Vitthal Bhai Patel was elected President
(Speaker) of the Central Legislative Assembly in
1925.
23. (a) A Provisional Government of India with Raja
Mahendra Pratap as its President was established
during the first world war in Afghanistan.
24. (b) Mahatma Gandhi had told, Destruction is the
best method of dealing with the foreign clothes.
25. (a) When a raid was made by Congress Volunteers
on Dharsana salt depot Mahatma Gandhi was in
Yervada Jail. On May 21, 1930, Sarojini Naidu, Imam
Sahib and Manilal took up the task of leading a raid
on Dharsana salt works.
26. (d) J.L. Nehru had seconded the Quit India
Resolution of 1942.
27. (b) Surendra Nath Banerjee is remembered and
widely respected today as a pioneer leader of Indian
politics first treading the path of Indian political
empowerment. He published an important work. A
Nation in Making; which was widely acclaimed.
28. (d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khans educational and
social reform work among the Pathans had politicised
them. Gaffar Khan, also called Badshah Khan and
Frontier Gandhi had started the first Pushto political
monthly, Pukhtoon and had organised a volunteer
brigade Khudai Khidmatgars, popularly known as
the Red Shirts who were pledged to the freedom
struggle and non-violence.
29. (c) The suspension of the Non-cooperation
Movement led to a split within Congress in the Gaya
session of the Congress in December 1922. Leaders
like Motilal Nehru and Chittranjan Das formed a
separate group within the Congress known as the
Swaraj Party on 1 January 1923. The Swarajists
wanted to contest the council elections and wreck
the government from within.
30. (d) Chandrashekhar was the one to have escaped
being hanged in the Kakori Conspiracy case.
31. (b) Dr. Ambedkar attended all the three Round Table
Conferences in London and forcefully argued for the
welfare of the untouchables. Meanwhile, British
Government decided to hold provincial elections in
1937. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar set up the Independent
Labor Party in August 1936 to contest the elections
in the Bombay province. He and many candidates
of his party were elected to the Bombay Legislative
Assembly.
32. (d) Jai Prakash Narayan escaped from the prison
and organised underground activities during the Quit
India Movement.
33. (d) Jawahar Lal Nehru is associated with the
statement I am a socialist and a republican and am
no believer in Kings and Princes.
34. (a) C.R. Das had moved the Non-cooperation
resolution in the Nagpur session of the Indian
National Congress in 1920. In December 1920,
Congress met once again in the Nagpur. This time
the differences of C.R. Das had melted away. He
moved the main resolution of Non-cooperation.
A programme of surrender of titles, the boycott of
schools, courts and councils, the boycott of foreign
goods, the promotion of a Hindu-Muslim unity and
strict non-violence was adopted.
35. (c) Bina Das was the female revolutionary who fired
at the English Governor (Chancellor) while receiving
her degree at the convocation. With a fierce resolution
to gain freedom, Bina Das plunged into action by
joining Chhatri Sangha, a revolutionary group in
Calcutta. The first action of this revolutionary party
was to kill a ruthless and tyrant British Governor
during the convocation ceremony. Since Bina Das was
also going to get her graduation degree on that event,
she decided to take the initiative of assassinating the
ruthless Governor. The convocation ceremony was
filled with several young graduates and Bina Das
was one of them. When Stanley Jackson was about

to arrive at her side, Bina Das immediately fired five
bullets from her revolver. But the governor managed
to escape unscratched from the attack. Since Bina Das
had just started practising shooting, her grip on the
weapon was not strong. Bina Das was arrested and
was sentenced to 9 years of painful imprisonment.
Even though the mission was a failure, Bina Das
was glad that she had succeeded in striking a terror
in mind of British supremacy.
36. (b) The Lahore session of the Indian National
Congress was held in 1929 under the presidentship
of Jawaharlal Nehru. The Lahore session of the
Indian National Congress witnessed significant
developments in the Indian national movement. It
was in this session that the Congress for the first time
raised the demand for complete independence. Such
demand was not raised from the Congress platform
earlier.
37. (b) In Tripura, session 1939 of the Indian National
Congress, Subhash Chandra Bose had defeated
Pattabhi Sitaramayya in the election of the Congress
President.
38. (c) Many revolutionaries were tried in a series of
cases. In jail, these revolutionaries protested against
the horrible conditions through a fast, and demanded
honourable and decent treatment as political
prisoners. Jatin Das became the first martyr on the
64th day of his fast.
39. (c) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel was not amongst the
laywers to fight the case of Indian National Army in
1946 in the Delhi Red Fort trial.
40. (c) Ashfaque-ullah Khan the first recorded
Muslim revolutionary who was hanged for Indias
independence.
41. (d) Bhagat Singh was not associated with Kakori
conspiracy case. He was a part of Hindustan Socialist
Republican Association. Bhagat Singh, Azad and
Rajguru shot dead Saunders, the police official
responsible for the lathicarge in Lahore.
42. (d) The province where Indian National Congress
did not form ministry after the general election of
1937 was Bengal.
43. (a) In Ahmadnagar Fort Jail, the book Discovery
of India was written by Jawahar Lal Nahru. Written
over five months when Jawaharlal Nehru was
imprisoned in the Ahmadnagar Fort. The Discovery
of India has acquired the status of a classic since it
was first published in 1946. In this work of prodigious
History || A-159
scope and scholarship, one of the greatest figures of
Indian history unfolds the panorama of the countrys
rich and complex past, from prehistory to the last
years of British colonial rule.
44. (d) The person who on April 4, 1919 delivered a
speech on Hindu-Muslim unity from the pulpit of
Jama Masjid in Delhi was Swami Shradhanand.
45. (c) The person who returned his token of honour to
Government of India on May 30, 1919 was Rabindra
Nath Tagore. In 1915, the British Crown granted
Tagore a knighthood. He renounced it after the 1919
Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
46. (b) By Non-cooperation Movement, Gandhi meant
a peaceful rebellion. He appealed everybody to
adopt the policy of progressive, non-violent, non-
cooperation movement. The programme of Non-
cooperation Movement was multidimensional. It
included surrender of all titles and government posts.
The boycott programme had its tremendous impact
upon the people of India. Gandhi himself surrendered
the title of Kaiser-i-Hind. Chita Raman Das, Motilal
Nehru, Rajendra Prasad; Jawaharlal Nehru, etc. left
their legal practices. Students started to boycott the
government or government aided institutions.
47. (b) Cabinet Mission came to India after the Second
World War in 1946. After the end of the Second
World War, the British authorities in India released
all political prisoners who had participated in the Quit
India Movement. The Indian National Congress, the
largest Indian political party, which had long fought
for national independence, agreed to participate
in elections for a constituent assembly, as did the
Muslim League. The newly elected government of
Clement Attlee dispatched the 1946 Cabinet Mission
to India to formulate proposals for the formation of
a government that would lead to an independent
India.
48. (d) All the above given parties did not support Quite
India Movement.
49. (c) The Food and Agriculture Portfolio was held by
Rajendra Prasad in the interim government formed
in 1946.
50. (d) The Karachi session was presided over by
Sardar Patel. The Congress adopted a resolution
on Fundamental rights and economic policy which
represented the Partys social, economic and political
programmes.
A-160 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917-1947)
51. (c) Ram Manohar Lohia made regular broadcast
on Congress radio operated during Quit India
Movement. During the Quit India Movement of 1942,
Congress radio operated for about three months. It
was organized by Usha Mehta, a veteran freedom
fighter of India with the help of Ham radio operators.
Eminent personalities like Ram Manohar Lohia,
Achyutrao Patwardhan, and Purushottam Trikamdas
were also associated with the Congress Radio.
52. (c) Clement Attlee said Imperialism is dead as
dodo.
53. (b) The most important action of the HRA
(Hindustan Republican Association) was the
Kakori robbery in the year 1925. The men held
up the 8-Down train at Kakori, an obscure village
near Lucknow and looted its official railway cash.
Government crackdown after the kakori robbery
led to arrests of many of whom 17 were jailed, four
transported for life and four Bismil, Ashfaqullah,
Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lihiri were hanged.
Kakori proved to be a setback.
55. (d) Shortly afterwards he was elected President of
the Haripura Congress Session in 1938. During his
term as Congress President, he talked of planning
in concrete terms, and set up a National Planning
Committee in October that year. At the end of his first
term, the presidential election to the Tripura Congress
session took place early 1939. Subhas Chandra Bose
was re-elected, defeating Dr. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
who had been backed by Mahatma Gandhi and the
Congress Working Committee. Clouds of World War
II were on the horizon and he brought a resolution
to give the British six months to hand India over to
the Indians, failing which there would be a revolt.
There was much opposition to his rigid stand, and
he resigned from the post of president and formed a
progressive group known as the Forward Block.
56. (a) Gandhi was requested by Raj Kumar Shukla
to look into the problems of the indigo planters
of Champaran in Bihar. The European planters
had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on
3/20 of the total land called Tinkathia system.
57. (c) Lahore session of Muslim League (1940) was
presided over by Mohammad Ali Jinnah.
58. (d) When three captured Indian National Army
(INA) officers, Shahnawaz Khan, Prem Kumar
Sahgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were put on
trial for treason, the Congress formed a defence
committee composed of 17 advocates including
Bhulabhai Desai. The court-martial hearing began
in October 1945 at the Red Fort. Bhulabhai was the
leading counsel for the defence. Undeterred by poor
health, Bhulabhai made an emphatic and passionate
argument in defence of the charged soldiers.
59. (d) The Indian National Congress met at Haripura
during February 19 to 22, 1938, under the presidency
of Subhas Chandra Bose. During this tenure (1938),
he was elected as the President of the Haripura
Congress Session in 1938, i.e. Subhas Chandra Bose
remained the President of INC till next year (1939,
Tripura session).
60. (c) Asaf Ali was the in charge of the railways
and transport in the interim Government of India
from September 2, 1946 before serving as the first
ambassador from India to the USA from February
1947 to mid-April, 1948. He was appointed the
governor of Odisha, but he resigned from the post
in May 1952 on health grounds. His last assignment
was as Indias minister to Switzerland, Austria and
the Vatican; he died in office in Bern.
61. (a) The Congress met at Karachi in March 1931 to
endorse the Gandhi-Irwin or the Delhi Pact. It was
presided over by Sardar Patel. This session became
memorable for its resolution on the Fundamental
Rights and the National Economic Programmes.
In short, it set the parameters of the Swaraj was
reflecting the then dominant leftwing ting of the
national movements. It was drafted by the Pandit
Jawaharlal Nehru.
62. (b) Operation Zero Hour was started by the
British Government to arrest the leaders of Quit India
Movement.
63. (d) Bhudeva Mukherjee was the Bengali writer
to suggest the adoption of Hindi as Indias national
language.

64. (c) The statement, On bended knees I asked for
bread and received stone instead, is associated with
Dandi March.
65. (b) J.L. Nehru had drafted the Quit India Resolution.
The All India Congress Committee met at Bombay
on 8 August 1942 and passed the famous Quit India
Resolution. On the same day, Gandhi gave his call
of do or die.
66 (c) The party which observed the Black Day on
3 July, 1947 against partition of India was Hindu
Mahasabha. 3 June Plan or Mountbatten Plan
was the partition of British India on the basis of
religious demographics. This led to the creation of
the sovereign states of the Dominion of Pakistan.
67. (a) In the Lahore Session, 1915 of Muslim League,
Two-Nation Theory was propounded. Fazlul Haq,
the premier of Bengal, who along with Muslim
League had formed the government of Bengal
Province, moved a resolution, which was passed
by Muslim League. In this session, Jinnah in his
presidential address gave the famous Two-Nation
Theory as fellows: India cannot be assumed today
to be Unitarian and homogeneous nation, but on
the contrary, there are two nations in the main the
Hindus and Muslims. The term Pakistan was not
used in this session. Gandhiji rejected the Two-Nation
Theory.
68. (b) Sarat Chandra Bose had read the English version
of presidential address in Tripura session of Indian
National Congress, 1939.
69. (b) M.A. Jinnah was not a part of Non-cooperation
Movement.
70. (c) Subhash Chandra Bose hailed Gandhis call for
Quit India as an Epic Movement.
71. (b) J.B. Kriplani was the President of the Flag
Committee.
72. (b) Anand Math is associated with rise of National
Movement in India.
73. (d) Mohammad Iqbal was the man to propose a
separate state for the Muslims of India for the first
time.
History || A-161
74. (a) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel to become a follower
of Gandhiji inspired by the Kheda Movement.
75. (c) The naval revolt of 1946 was started on the fleet
I.N.S. Talwar.
76. (c) Mahatma Gandhi said about Subhash Chandra
Bose on 23 Jan, 1948, we should emulate him ...
Subhash was a great patriot. He laid down his life
for the country. He has no use for parochialism or
caste distinction.
77. (a) Bhagat Singh had written the article Why I am
an Atheist.
78. (b) Abul Kalam Azad was the President of Congress
when Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India
Movement in 1942.
79. (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President
of India National Congress after the resignation of
Subhas Chandra Bose.
80. (b) Ghanshyam Das Birla was the founder of
Harijan Sevak Sangh.
81. (d) Aurobindo Ghosh was not the member of
Motilal Nehru Committee.
82. (c) Mahatma Gandhi said, Cripps proposals were
a post-dated cheque of a crashing bank. The major
political parties of the country rejected the Cripps
proposals. Gandhi called Cripps proposals as a Post-
dated Cheque. They did not like the rights of the
Princely States either to send their representatives to
the Constituent Assembly or to stay out of the Indian
Union. The Muslim League was also dissatisfied as
its demand for Pakistan had not been conceded in the
proposal.
83. (c) Lord Emery was not a member of the Cabinet
Mission Plan. After the Second World War, Lord Atlee
became the Prime Minister of England. On 15 March,
1946 Lord Atlee made a historic announcement
in which the right to self-determination and the
framing of a Constitution for India were conceded.
Consequently, three members of the British Cabinet
Pathick Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A. V.
Alexander were sent to India. This is known as the
Cabinet Mission.
A-162 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917-1947)
84. (b) The idea of the Indian National Army (INA)
was first conceived in Malaya by Mohan Singh an
Indian officer of the British Indian Army. When he
decided not to join the retreating British Army and
instead turned to the Japanese for help.
85. (a) The Constituent Assembly met for the first
time in New Delhi on 9 December, 1946 in the
Constitution Hall which is now known as the Central
Hall of Parliament House. The Constituent Assembly
took almost three years (two years, eleven months
and seventeen days to be precise) to complete
its historic task of drafting the Constitution for
Independent India. During this period, it held eleven
sessions covering a total of 165 days. Of these, 114
days were spent on the consideration of the Draft
Constitution.
86. (b) Web Miller was the foreign journalist who
reported Satyagrah at Dharsana salt works. American
journalist Web Miller was an eye-witness to the
beating of Satyagrahis with steel-tipped Lathis.
Millers first attempts at telegraphing the story to his
publisher in England were censored by the British
telegraph operators in India. Only after threatening
to expose British censorship was his story allowed
to pass. The story appeared in 1,350 newspapers
throughout the world and was read into the official
record of the United States Senate by Senator John
J. Blaine.
87. (d) Albert Einstein said about Mahatma Gandhi,
Generations to come, it may be, will scarce believe
that such one as this ever in flesh and blood, walked
upon this earth.
88. (a) J.L. Nehru hailed S.C. Bose as the flaming
sword of Indian patriotism.
89. (c) The first session of All India Trade Union
Congress held in Bombay was presided over by Lala
Lajpat Rai. All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
was founded on 31 October 1920 in Bombay by N.
M. Joshi, Lala Lajpat Rai and a few others and, until
1945 when unions became organised on party lines,
it was the primary trade union organisation in India.
Since then it has been associated with the Communist
Party of India.
90. (d) In Karachi 1943 session, the Mulsim League
gave the slogan Divide and Quit.
91. (d) Subhash Chandra Bose authored the famous
book The Indian Struggle.
92. (a) Lala Lajpat Rai declared Every blow that is
hurled on my back will be a nail in the coffin of the
British Empire.
93. (a) Sir Stafford Cripps said There is going to be
a revolution here and we must get out quick.
94. (d) Baba Ram Chandra was an Indian trade unionist
who organised the farmers of Awadh to protest against
the landlords in 1920s and 1930s. Other prominent
leaders included Jhinguri Singh and Durgapal
Singh.
95. (b) Mahatma Gandhi gave the slogan Do or
Die during Quit India Movement. The failure of
the Cripps Mission and the fear of an impending
Japanese invasion of India led Mahatma Gandhi
to begin his campaign for the British to quit
India. Mahatma Gandhi believed that an interim
government could be formed only after the British
left India and the Hindu-Muslim problem sorted out.
The All India Congress Committee met at Bombay
on 8 August 1942 and passed the famous Quit India
Resolution. On the same day, Gandhi gave his call
of do or die.
96. (c) Subhash Chandra Bose established Rani Jhansi
Regiment. The Rani of Jhansi Regiment was the
Womens Regiment of the Indian National Army.
This armed force was formed by Indian nationalists in
1942 in Southeast Asia whose aim was to overthrow
the British Raj in colonial India with the help of
Japan.
97. (b) The provision for the establishment of All India
Federation was included in the Government of India
Act 1935.
98. (a) Abas Tyabji took the place of Gandhi when he
was arrested in salt Satyagrah. Gandhijis successor,
Mr. Abbas Tyabji, ex-Justice of Baroda, was getting
ready at Karadi for the march to the salt works at
Dharasana. On May 12, 1930, the volunteers fell into
line ready for the march, but Tyabji was arrested. Mrs.

Sarojini Naidu succeeded Abbas Tyabji. On May 21
over 2,000 volunteers led by her and Imam Saheb
raided Dharasana salt depot, about 150 miles north
of Bombay.
99. (d) Gandhi was requested by Raj Kumar Shukla
to look into the problems of the indigo planters
of Champaran in Bihar. The European planters
had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on
3/20 of the total land called Tinkathia system.
100. (b) Labour Party was in power in UK when India
got Independence. The post-war Labour government
in Britain was committed to independence for India.
A second mission was sent to India by Prime Minister
Attlee in 1946 for the preparation of independence.
On 16 May, this Cabinet Mission published a plan
for transferring power to a united India, but over
subsequent months it became clear that this plan
would fail. The British Government, therefore,
began to draw up alternative plans. It also appointed
a new Viceroy Lord Mountbatten to take over from
Lord Wavell who had failed to get the Indian parties
to agree on any plan. In June 1947, Mountbatten
announced that Independence would come at
Midnight on 14 August 1947.
101. (b) The Muslim League demanded separate Pakistan
for the first time in the year 1940. In 1937, elections
were held under the provisions of the Government
of India Act of 1935. Congress Ministries were
formed in seven states of India. On 1 September
1939, the Second World War broke out. The British
Government without consulting the people of India
involved the country in the war. The Congress
vehemently opposed it and as a mark of protest the
Congress ministries in the provinces resigned on
12 December 1939. The Muslim League celebrated
that day as the Deliverance Day. In March 1940, the
Muslim League demanded the creation of Pakistan.
102. (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak was given the epithet Lok-
Manya during the Home Rule Movement. He was
one of the popular leaders of the Indian Independence
Movement. The British colonial authorities called
History || A-163
him Father of the Indian unrest. He was also
conferred with the honorary title of Lokmanya,
which literally means Accepted by the people (as
their leader).
103. (a) During the Non-cooperation Movement,
Gandhiji gave the slogan of Swaraj in one year.
104. (d) Mahatma Gandhi advised that the Indian
National Congress should be disbanded as a political
party after the Independence of India.
105. (a) In Lahore 1929 session of the Indian National
Congress, Poorna Swaraj was declared the goal
of Congress. In the prevailing atmosphere of
restlessness, the annual session of the Congress was
held at Lahore in December 1929. During this session
presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru, the Congress
passed the Poorna Swaraj resolution. Moreover, as
the government failed to accept the Nehru Report, the
Congress gave a call to launch the Civil Disobedience
Movement.
106. (d) Mahatma Gandhi was at Bardoli when Chauri
Chaura eposide took place.
107. (d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah had denounced the
participation of Mahatma Gandhi in the Khilafat
Movement.
108. (c) Tagore had very close relationship with
Mahatma Gandhi. Gandhi called him Gurudev
while it was Tagore who referred Gandhi as Mahatma
as early as February 1915, when Gandhi had just
arrived from South Africa. They had an intellectual
debate over certain issues, but their friendship lasted
till Tagores death in 1941.
109. (c) Rabindra Nath Tagore took the burning of the
foreign clothes as the insensate waste during the
Non-cooperation Movement.
110. (d) The first Round Table conference was not attended
by the Congress delegation. The British Government
summoned Indian leaders and spokesmen in the First
Round Table conference (1930) to discuss the Simon
Commission report. But the Indian National Congress
boycotted the conference and this conference of
Indian affairs was held without the Congress.
A-164 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917-1947)
111. (a) The book Mountbatten and the Partition of
India was written by Larry Colling and Dominique
Lapierre.
112. (d) On July 18, 1947, the British Parliament ratified
the Moutbatten Plan as the Independence of India
Act - 1947. The act was implemented on August
15, 1947. The Act provided for the creation of two
independent dominions of India and Pakistan with
effect from August 15, 1947.
113. (a) Baba Ramchandra organised the farmers of
Awadh.
114. (a) Mahatma Gandhi founded Ahmedabad Textile
Labour Association.
115. (c) The Bardoli Taluqa in Surat district had
witnessed in tense politicisation after the coming of
Gandhi on the national political scene. In February
1926, Vallabh Bhai Patel was called to lead the
movement. The women of Bardoli gave him the
title of Sardar. Under Patel, the Bardoli peasants
resolved to refuse payments of the revised assessment
until the Government appointed an independent
tribunal or accepted the current amount as full
payment.
116. (b) The first All India Kisan Sabha was formed
in Lucknow. The Kisan Sabha movement started in
Bihar under the leadership of Swami Sahajanand
Saraswati who had formed in 1929 the Bihar
Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) in order to mobilise
peasant grievances against the Zamindari attacks
on their occupancy rights. Gradually, the peasant
movement intensified and spread across the rest of
India. All these radical developments on the peasant
front culminated in the formation of the All India
Kisan Sabha (AIKS) at the Lucknow session of the
Indian National Congress in April 1936 with Swami
Sahajanand Saraswati elected as its first President.
The other prominent members of this Sabha were
N.G. Ranga, Ram Manohar Lohia, Jayaprakash
Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev and Bankim
Mukherji.
117. (a) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati presided over the
first session of All India Kisan Sabha.
118. (d) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was
founded on 31 October 1920 in Bombay by N. M.
Joshi, Lala Lajpat Rai and a few others and, until
1945 when unions became organised on party lines,
it was the primary trade union organisation in India.
Since then it has been associated with the Communist
Party of India.
119. (d) The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
was founded on October 31, 1920. The Indian
National Congress president for the year, Lala Lajpat
Rai, was elected as the first president of AITUC and
Dewan Chaman Lal as the first general secretary.
120. (d) Due to the efforts of the Home Rule activists,
Kisan Sabhas were organised in UP. The UP Kisan
Sabha was set up in February 1918 by Gauri Shankar
Mishra and Indra Narayan Dwivedi. Madan Mohan
Malaviya supported their efforts. By June 1919, the
UP Kisan Sabha had 450 branches. Other prominent
leaders included Jhinguri Singh, Durgapal Singh and
Baba Ramchandra.
121. (b) Chittaranjan Das realized that Hindu-Muslim
unity was essential for the attainment of Swaraj. In
1924, he formulated his famous Communal Pact to
promote permanent peace between Indias two major
communities. He also wanted an assimilation of
Eastern spirit and Western technique. He envisioned
a pan-Asiatic federation of the oppressed nations
and advocated Indias participation in it. For his
devotion to the cause of self-rule, he gained the title
Deshabandhu (friend of the country).
122. (b) Bhagat Singh founded the Indian nationalist
youth organisation Naujawan Bharat Sabha (Youth
Society of India) in March 1926. He also joined
the Hindustan Republican Association, which had
prominent leaders, such as Ram Prasad Bismil,
Chandrashekhar Azad and Ashfaqulla Khan.
The name of the organisation was changed to
Hindustan Socialist Republican Association at
Singhs insistence.

123. (a) Mahatma Gandhi was the editor of Young India
and Harijan. Young India was a weekly newspaper
in English published by Mahatma Gandhi from 1919
to 1932. Gandhi wrote various quotations in this
journal that inspired many. Harijan was a newspaper
first published on 11 February 1933, brought out by
Gandhi from Yerwada Jail during the British rule in
India.
124. (a) Non-cooperation Movement was abruptly called
off on 11 February 1922 by Gandhi following the
Chauri Chaura incident in the Gorakhpur district of
UP. Earlier on 5th February, an angry mob set fire to
the police station at Chauri Chaura and twenty two
policemen were burnt to death. Many top leaders of
the country were stunned at this sudden suspension of
the Non-Cooperation Movement. Mahatma Gandhi
was arrested on 10 March 1922.
125. (d) The Sarabandi (no tax) campaign of 1922 was
led by Vallabhbhai Patel.
126. (c) Lord Linlithgrow was associated with the
August offer. August Offer was a fresh proposal
promising the expansion of the Executive Council
to include more Indians, the establishment of an
advisory war council, giving full weight to minority
opinion, and the recognition of Indians right to frame
their own constitution. In return, it was hoped that all
parties and communities in India would cooperate in
Britains war effort.
127. (b) Nehru report was the first major attempt by the
Indians to draft a constitutional framework for the
country. The committee included Tej Bahadur Sapru,
Subhash Bose, M.S. Aney, Mangal Singh, Ali Iman,
Shuab Qureshi and G.R. Pradhan as its members. The
report was finalised by August 1928.
128. (c) The Bardoli Taluqa in Surat district had
witnessed in tense politicisation after the coming of
Gandhi on the national political scene. In February
1926, Vallabh Bhai Patel was called to lead the
movement. The women of Bardoli gave him the
title of Sardar. Under Patel, the Bardoli peasants
resolved to refuse payments of the revised assessment
until the Government appointed an independent
History || A-165
tribunal or accepted the current amount as full
payment.
129. (a) Pattabhi Sitaramayya was nominated by
Mahatma Gandhi for the Presidentship of the
Congress in1939 against Subhash Chandra Bose. He
ran for the presidency of the Indian National Congress
as the candidate closest to Mohandas Gandhi, against
the more radical Netaji Subash Chandra Bose in
Tripura session of 1939.
130. (c) Subhash Chandra Bose, while delivering the
presidential address was advocated the introduction
of Roman script for Hindi language.
131. (a) Hunter Commission was appointed by British
Government to investigate into the massacre in
Jallianwala Bagh. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre
was followed by establishment of a non-official
enquiry committee by Congress. The British
Government did not initiate such inquiry till Congress
had set up such committee. Later, the Government
established a committee headed by Lord Hunter
a Senator of the College of Justice of Scotland.
This committee had 7 members, viz. 4 British and 3
Indians.
132. (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale was regarded as the
political guru of Gandhi. In 1905, he founded the
Servants of India Society to train Indians to dedicate
their lives to the cause of the country.
133. (c) Tej Bahadur Sapru played an important role
in Signing of Gandhi-Irwin Pact. Sapru mediated
between Gandhi and the Viceroy Lord Irwin, helping
to forge the Gandhi-Irwin Pact that ended the Salt
Satyagraha.
134. (b) During the tenure of Lord Irwin as the Viceroy
of India, the great martyrs Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and
Sukhdev were hanged.
135. (d) The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place
on 13 April 1919 and it remained a turning point
in the history of Indias freedom movement. In
Punjab, there was an unprecedented support to the
Rowlatt Satyagraha. Facing a violent situation, the
Government of Punjab handed over the administration
to the military authorities under General Dyer. He
A-166 || Indian Freedom Struggle-II (1917-1947)
banned all public meetings and detained the political
leaders. On 13th April, the Baisakhi day (harvest
festival), a public meeting was organized at the
Jallianwala Bagh (garden). Dyer marched in and
without any warning opened fire on the crowd. The
firing continued for about 10 to 15 minutes and it
stopped only after the ammunition exhausted.
136. (d) Government of India Act 1935 was described
by J.L. Nehru as new charter of slavery. The Dyarchy
had been total failure in the provinces, but now
there was an experiment coming up at the centre.
The safeguards and the special powers vested in the
Governor General was something like a Charter
of Slavery as mentioned by Jawahar Lal Nehru.
He compared it with a machine with all brakes, no
engine.
137. (a) Abdul Gaffar Khan was known as the Frontier
Gandhi (Simanta Gandhi). Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
was a Pashtun political and spiritual leader known for
his non-violent opposition to the British Raj in British
India, and a lifelong pacifist and devout Muslim. He
was a close friend of Mahatma Gandhi and has been
referred to as the Frontier Gandhi by the Indians.
In 1910, he opened a mosque school at his hometown
Utmanzai, and in 1911 joined the freedom movement
of Haji Sahib of Turangzai, however, in 1915, the
British authorities banned his mosque school.
138. (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was called the Iron
man of India. Sardar Patel was a man of principles. A
fierce nationalist, he never believed in compromising
with his core philosophy of nation first. Basically,
it was his success in integrating around 565 princely
states after independence that got him the sobriquet
of Iron Man.
139. (b) The Indian response against the commission was
immediate and nearly unanimous. What angered the
Indians most was the exclusion of Indians from the
commission and the basic notion behind the exclusion
that foreigners would discuss and decide upon Indias
fitness for self-government. This notion was seen as
a violation of the principle of self-determination and
a deliberate insult to the self-respect of Indians.
140. (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the
Constituent Assembly, and later became the first
President of India.
141. (d) Subhash Chandra Bose coined the slogan Jai
Hind. It has been immortalized by Subhas Chandra
Bose as the battle cry of the Indian National Army.
This slogan and battle cry most commonly used in
India in speeches and communications pertaining to
or referring to patriotism towards India (also known
as Hind).
142. (b) J.L. Nehru was invited by Lord Wavell to form
the interim Government in India in 1946. The interim
government of India, formed on 2 September 1946
from the newly elected Constituent Assembly of
India, had the task of assisting the transition of India
and Pakistan from British rule to independence. It
remained in place until 15 August 1947, the date of
the independence of the two new nations of India and
Pakistan.
 Section B : Geography
1 Astronomy
1. The colour of the star is an indication of its
(a) Distance from the earth
(b) Distance from the sun
(c) Temperature
(d) Luminosity
2. The planet nearest to the sun is
(a) Mercury (b) Earth
(c) Venus (d) Pluto
3. The group of stars arranged in a definite pattern is
called
(a) Milky way (b) Constellation
(c) Andromeda (d) Solar system
4. The Asteroid belt is found between which of the
following?
(a) Earth and Mars (b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Mars and Jupiter (d) Saturn and Uranus
5. Which one of the following is the largest satellite
in solar system?
(a) Ganymede (b) Titan
(c) Europa (d) Triton
6. Methane is present in the atmosphere of
(a) Moon (b) Sun
(c) Jupiter (d) Mars
7. Which planet takes the longest time to go around
the sun?
(a) Earth (b) Jupiter
(c) Uranus (d) Neptune
8. The principle of Black hole was enunciated by
(a) C.V. Raman
(b) H.J. Bhabha
(c) S. Chandrashekhar (c) Uranus (d) Mercury
(d) H. Khurana
9. The planet which is called twin sister of the
Earth is
(a) Mercury (b) Venus
(c) Mars (d) Uranus
10. The distance of Moon from the Earth is
(a) 364 thousand kms.
(b) 300 thousand kms.
(c) 350 thousand kms.
(d) 446 thousand kms.
11. Who discovered the solar system?
(a) Aryabhatta (b) Newton
(c) Copernicus (d) Kepler
12. Which planet was named after the Roman God
Zeus?
(a) Earth (b) Mars
(c) Venus (d) Jupiter
13. Which of the following planets is smaller in size
than the Earth?
(a) Venus (b) Uranus
(c) Saturn (d) Neptune
14. The largest planet in our solar system is
(a) Earth (b) Uranus
(c) Jupiter (d) Saturn
15. Which of the following planets has largest number
of satellites or moons?
(a) Jupiter (b) Neptune
(c) Earth (d) Saturn
16. Which of the following planets is called Blue
planet?
(a) Venus (b) Earth
17. The approximate diameter of Earth is
(a) 4200 km (b) 6400 km
(c) 3400 km (d) 12800 km
B-2 || Astronomy
18. The Earth becomes maximum distance from the
sun on
(a) January 30th (b) December 22nd
(c) September 22 (d) July 4th
nd
19. The Earth rotates around its axis from
(a) North to South (b) South to North
(c) East to West (d) West to East
20. Which one of the following is called terrestrial
planet?
(a) Mercury (b) Earth
(c) Mars (d) Saturn
21. What is the time taken by the Earth to complete
one rotation on its axis?
(a) 23 hr 52 min 4 sec
(b) 23 hr 56 min 4 sec
(c) 24 hr 34. Time taken by Moons light to reach Earth is
(d) 24 hr 12 min 6 sec
22. Which of the following is the nearest star of
Earth?
(a) Sirius (b) Sun
(c) Rigel (d) Vega
23. Which one of the following planets is the
brightest?
(a) Mars (b) Mercury
(c) Venus (d) Jupiter
24. The mean radius of the Earth is
(a) 3200 km (b) 6400 km
(c) 8400 km (d) 12800 km
25. Which one of the following planets rotates
clockwise?
(a) Earth (b) Mars
(c) Venus (d) Mercury
26. The nuclear fuel in the Sun is
(a) Helium (b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen (d) Uranium
27. The outermost layer of the sun is called
(a) Chromosphere (b) Photosphere
(c) Lithosphere (d) Corona
28. The surface temperature of sun is nearly
(a) 2000 K (b) 4000 K
(c) 6000 K (d) 8000 K
29. What is meant by the term Midnight Sun?
(a) Twilight
(b) Rising sun
(c) Very bright moon
(d) Sun shining in the polar circle for long time
30. Which of the following planets is known as Red
Planet?
(a) Earth (b) Mars
(c) Jupiter (d) Saturn
31. The planet whose period of rotation is longer
than the period of revolution around the sun is
(a) Mercury (b) Mars
(c) Venus (d) Neptune
32. The last stage in the life cycle of a star is
(a) Black Hole (b) Supernova
(c) Red Giant (d) White Dwarf
33. Time taken by Suns light to reach Earth is
(a) 8 min 18 sec (b) 9 min
(c) 9 min 18 sec (d) 6 min 18 sec
(a) 58 sec (b) 1.34 sec
(c) 1.58 sec (d) 2.32 sec
35. Space between Earth and Moon is known as
(a) Cislunar (b) Fulalunar
(c) Nebula (d) None of these
36. Our solar system is located in which Galaxy?
(a) Peroxima Centauri
(b) Alpha Centauri
(c) Milky Way
(d) Andromeda
37. Which of the following stars is also known as
Pulsar?
(a) Red Giant (b) White Dwarf
(c) Neutron Star (d) Massive Star
38. Which of the following stars is known as Fossil
star?
(a) Protostar (b) Dog Star
(c) Red Giant (d) White Dwarf
39. The energy of sun is produced by
(a) Nuclear fission (b) Ionisation
(c) Nuclear fusion (d) Oxidation
40. Which of the following does not belong to solar
system?
(a) Asteroids (b) Comets
(c) Planets (d) Nebulae
41. Which one of the following planets is nearest to
the earth?
(a) Mercury (b) Venus
(c) Mars (d) Uranus

42. Cycle of sun spots is
(a) 9 years (b) 10 years
(c) 11 years (d) 12 years
43. The group of small pieces of rocks revolving
round the sun between the orbits of Mars and
Jupiter are called
(a) Meteors (b) Comets
(c) Meteorites (d) Asteroids
44. Which one of the following conditions is most
relevant for the presence of life on mars?
(a) Atmospheric composition
(b) Thermal conditions
(c) Occurrence of ice cap and frozen water
(d) Occurrence of ozone
45. Among the following which planet takes
maximum time for one revolution around the
sun?
(a) Earth (b) Jupiter
(c) Mars (d) Venus
46. Which planet is called Evening star?
(a) Mars (b) Jupiter
(c) Venus (d) Saturn
47. The Earth becomes minimum distance from the
sun?
(a) 3rd January (b) 4th July
(c) 22nd March (d) 21st September
48. Which planet is surrounded by ring?
(a) Saturn (b) Mars
(c) Venus (d) Earth
49. Lunar eclipse occurs
(a) When moon lies between earth and sun
(b) When earth lies between sun and moon
(c) When sun lies between earth and moon
(d) None of these
50. By how much degree the earth is inclined on its
own Axis
(a) 231/2 (b) 661/2
(c) 24 1/2 (d) 691/2
51. The planet Pluto has been abandoned from the
group of conventional planet and kept in the
group of dwarf planet by a summit held in
(a) Paris (b) London
(c) Geneva (d) Prague
Geography || B-3
52. Which of the following elements occurs the most
abundantly in our universe?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen (d) Helium
53. Two planets which have no satellites
(a) Earth and Uranus
(b) Mercury and Venus
(c) Mercury and Mars
(d) Venus and Mars
54. The Astronaut looks the sky in the space
(a) Blue (b) Black
(c) Red (d) White
55. The black part of the moon is always calm and
dark which is called
(a) Sea of tranquility (b) Ocean of storms
(c) Area of storms (d) None of these
56. What is the most accurate description of the
shape of the earth ?
(a) A circle (b) A sphere
(c) A geoid (d) An oblate sphere
57. When the earth is at its maximum distance from
the sun it is said to be in
(a) aphelion (b) perihelion
(c) apogee (d) perigee
58. What is the primary cause of the day and night ?
(a) Earths annual motion
(b) Earths daily motion
(c) Inclination of the earths axis and its rotation
(d) Inclination of the earths axis and its revolution
59. What causes the change of seasons ?
(a) Earths rotation and revolution
(b) Earths revolution
(c) Earths revolution and inclination of its axis
(d) Earths rotation and inclination of its axis
60. How much time does earth take in completing
one rotation on its axis in relation to sun ?
(a) 24 hours
(b) 23 hours 56 minutes
(c) 24 hours 4 minutes
(d) 24 hours and 6 minutes
61. On which planet would one witness sunrise in the
west ?
(a) Jupiter (b) Venus
(c) Saturn (d) Mercury
B-4 || Astronomy
62. The latitude is the angular distance of a point on
the earths surface with respect to the
(a) equator (b) prime meridian
(c) pole star (d) Tropic of Cancer
63. The longitude of a place is its
(a) angular distance east or west of the prime
meridian (a) One gains a day
(b) angular distance north or south of the
equator
(c) angular distance east or west of International
Date Line (d) There is no change in time or day
(d) angular distance with respect to the pole star
64. On which date is the earth in perihelion ?
(a) June 21 (b) Dec 22
(c) January 3 (d) July 4
65. The earth is in aphelion on
(a) June 21 (b) Dec. 22
(c) Sept. 23 (d) July 4
66. The sun is veritical over the Tropic of Cancer on
(a) March 21 (b) June 21
(c) Sept. 23 (d) Dec. 22
67. What is most important about the Arctic and the
Antarctic circles ?
(a) Within these circle only can the days and
nights be longer than 24 hours
(b) The days and nights are never more than 24
hours long here
(c) Both areas frozen continents
(d) Both regions are uninhabited
68. What is true about the equinox ?
(a) Vertical sun over the Tropic of Cancer 78. How much time does the light from the nearest
(b) Vertical sun over the Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Vertical sun over the equator (a) 12 minutes (b) 4.3 minutes
(d) Continuous day in the polar regions
69. How much is the mass of the moon when
compared with that of the earth ?
(a) 1/49 (b) 1/81
(c) 1/51 (d) 1/8
70. How much of the total surface area of the moon
is never visible from the earth
(a) 41 per cent (b) 47 per cent
(c) 53 per cent (d) 59 per cent
71. The average distance between the moon and the
earths
(a) 384,000 km (b) 267,000 km
(c) 540,000 km (d) 576,000 km
72. The average distance between the sun and earth
is
(a) 145 million km (b) 150 million km
(c) 155 million km (d) 160 million km
73. What happens when one crosses 180 longitude
from east to west ?
(b) One looses a day
(c) One neither gains nor looses a day but the
time changes
74. The chronometer is used for
(a) Measuring distance
(b) Measuring rock-density
(c) Keeping correct time
(d) Measuring earthquakes
75. Greenwich mean time is IST.
(a) 5.5 hours ahead (b) 12 hours ahead
(c) 4.5 hours behind (d) 5.5 hours behind
76. What is the unit of measurement of distance
between celestial bodies ?
(a) Nautical mile (b) Statute mile
(c) Light year (d) Kilometre
77. On the surface of the moon
(a) the mass of an object is more but it weighs
lesser
(b) the mass and weight both remain unchanged
(c) the mass is the same but the weight is lesser
(d) the mass is more but the weight is lesser
star take in reaching the earth ?
(c) 4.3 hours (d) 4.3 years
79. How much is the approximate time gap between
two successive high tides ?
(a) 6 hours (b) 9 hours
(c) 11.5 hours (d) 12.5 hours
80. The shortest route between two places is along
the
(a) latitudes (b) longitudes
(c) rivers (d) direction of winds
81. To a space traveller on moon, the sky in day
appears
(a) white (b) black
(c) blue (d) red
 Geography || B-5

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (b) 31. (c) 41. (b) 51. (d) 61 (b) 71 (a) 81 (b)
2. (a) 12. (d) 22. (b) 32. (d) 42. (c) 52. (a) 62 (a) 72 (b)
3. (b) 13. (a) 23. (c) 33. (a) 43. (d) 53. (b) 63 (a) 73 (a)
4. (c) 14. (c) 24. (b) 34. (b) 44. (c) 54. (b) 64 (c) 74 (c)
5. (a) 15. (a) 25. (c) 35. (a) 45. (b) 55. (a) 65 (d) 75 (d)
6. (c) 16. (b) 26. (b) 36. (c) 46. (c) 56 (d) 66 (b) 76 (c)
7. (d) 17. (d) 27. (d) 37. (c) 47. (a) 57 (a) 67 (a) 77 (c)
8. (c) 18. (b) 28. (c) 38. (d) 48. (a) 58 (b) 68 (c) 78 (d)
9. (b) 19. (d) 29. (d) 39. (c) 49. (b) 59 (c) 69 (b) 79 (d)
10. (a) 20. (a) 30. (b) 40. (d) 50. (a) 60 (a) 70 (a) 80 (b)

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) The colour of the star is an indication of its
temperature. The glowing is caused by something
called Black-Body radiation, which has to do with
the heat energy trying to radiate away in more and
more energetic wavelengths. Red stars are relatively
cool at only a few thousand degrees Celsius, white
stars are hot at about ten thousand degrees, and blue
stars are the hottest.
2. (a) The planet nearest to the sun is mercury.
Mercury is the smallest and closest to the Sun of the
eight planets in the Solar System, with an orbital
period of about 88 Earth days.
3. (b) The group of stars arranged in a definite pattern
is called constellation. In modern astronomy, a
constellation is an internationally defined area of
the celestial sphere. These areas are grouped around
asterisms, which are patterns formed by prominent
stars within apparent proximity to one another on
Earths night sky.
4. (c) The Asteroid belt is found between Mars and
Jupiter. The large majority of known asteroids orbit
in the asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and
Jupiter, or are co-orbital with Jupiter.
5. (a) Ganymede is the largest satellite in solar
system. Ganymede is a satellite of Jupiter and the
largest moon in the Solar System. It is the seventh
moon and third Galilean satellite outward from
Jupiter. Completing an orbit in roughly seven days,
Ganymede participates in a 1:2:4 orbital resonance
with the moons Europa and Io, respectively. It has
a diameter of 5,268 km (3,273 mi), 8% larger than
that of the planet Mercury, but has only 45% of the
latters mass.
6. (c) Methane is present in the atmosphere of
Jupiter. The atmosphere of Jupiter is the largest
planetary atmosphere in the Solar System. It is
mostly made of molecular hydrogen and helium
in roughly solar proportions; other chemical
compounds are present only in small amounts and
include methane, ammonia, hydrogen sulphide and
water.
7. (d) Neptune takes the longest time to go around
the sun. Neptune orbits the Sun at an average
distance of 4.5 billion km. Like all the planets in
the Solar System, Neptune follows an elliptical path
around the Sun, varying its distance to the Sun at
different points along its orbit.
8. (c) The principle of Black hole was enunciated
by S. Chandrashekhar. A Black Hole is a region of
space-time from which gravity prevents anything,
including light, from escaping. The theory of
general relativity predicts that a sufficiently compact
mass will deform spacetime to form a black hole.
Around a black hole, there is a mathematically
defined surface called an event horizon that marks
B-6 || Astronomy
the point of no return. The hole is called black
because it absorbs all the light that hits the horizon,
reflecting nothing, just like a perfect black body in
thermodynamics.
9. (b) The planet which is called twin sister of
earth is Venus. Venus is known as the Earths twin
because of its similar size, chemical composition
and density. However, due to its toxic atmosphere,
Venus is not habitable.
10. (a) The distance of moon from the Earth is 364
thousands kms. The Moon is the only natural
satellite of the Earth and the fifth largest moon in
the Solar System. It is the largest natural satellite of
a planet in the Solar System relative to the size of
its primary, having 27% the diameter and 60% the
density of Earth, resulting in 181 its mass.
11. (c) Copernicus discovered the solar system.
Nicolaus Copernicus was a Renaissance
mathematician and astronomer who formulated a
heliocentric model of the universe which placed the
Sun, rather than the Earth, at the center.
12. (d) Jupiter was named on the Roman God Zeus.
Zeus is the Father of Gods and men who rules the
Olympians of Mount Olympus as a father rules the
family according to the ancient Greek religion. He
is the God of sky and thunder in Greek mythology.
Zeus is etymologically cognate with and, under
Hellenic influence, became particularly closely
identified with Roman Jupiter.
13. (a) Venus is smaller in size than the Earth.
Diameter of earth is12,742 km while that of Venus
is12,100 km
14. (c) The largest planet in our solar system is
Jupiter. Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and
the largest planet in the Solar System. It is a gas
giant with mass one-thousandth of that of the Sun
but is two and a half times the mass of all the other
planets in the Solar System combined.
15. (a) Jupiter has largest number of satellites or
moons. The planet Jupiter has 67 confirmed moons.
This gives it the largest retinue of moons with
reasonably secure orbits of any planet in the Solar
System.
16. (b) Earth is called the Blue Planet due to the
abundant water on its surface. This is because liquid
water covers most of the surface of the planet. The
Earth has the right mass, chemical composition, and
location can support liquid water.
17. (d) The approximately diameter of Earth is 12800
km. The rotation of the planet has slightly flattened
it out, so it has a larger diameter at the equator than
at the poles. The equatorial diameter of Earth is
12,756 km, its polar diameter is 12,713 km, and its
average diameter, which is referred to in common
usage, is 12,742 km or 7,926 miles.
18. (b) The Earth becomes maximum distance from
the sun on 22nd December. The aphelion is the point
in the orbit of a planet or comet where it is farthest
from the Sun. The Earth reaches its aphelion when
the Northern Hemisphere is experiencing summer.
19. (d) The Earth rotates around its axis from west to
east. Earths rotation is the rotation of the solid Earth
around its own axis. The Earth rotates from the west
towards the east. As viewed from the North Star or
polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise.
20. (a) Mercury is called terrestrial planet. There are
four terrestrial planets in our Solar System: Mercury,
Venus, Earth, and Mars.
21. (b) The time taken by the Earth to complete one
rotation on its axis is 23 hr-56 min 4 sec.
25. (c) The planet Venus rotates clock wise. On Venus,
the rotation is backwards, or clockwise, which is
called retrograde. Standing on the surface of Venus,
one would be able to see the sun rising from the
west.
26. (b) The nuclear fuel in the sun is Hydrogen.
Actually the sun isnt burning, but instead its heat
and light comes from its core where the element
hydrogen is continuously being converted into the
element helium. This known as nuclear fusion and
is basically the same thing a hydrogen bomb does.
27. (d) The outermost layer of the sun is called
corona. A corona is a type of plasma that surrounds
the Sun and other celestial bodies. The Suns corona
extends millions of kilometers into space and is
most easily seen during a total solar eclipse, but it is
also observable with a coronagraph.
30. (b) Mars is known as Red planet. Mars is the
fourth planet from the Sun and the second smallest
planet in the Solar System. Named after the Roman
God of war, it is often described as the Red Planet
because the iron oxide prevalent on its surface gives
it a reddish appearance. Mars is a terrestrial planet
with a thin atmosphere, having surface features

reminiscent both of the impact craters of the Moon
and the volcanoes, valleys, deserts, and polar ice
caps of Earth.
31. (c) Venus is the planet whose period of rotation
is longer than the period of revolution around the
sun. The period of rotation for Venus is 243 days. In
other words, Venus takes 243 days to turn once on
its axis so that the stars are in the same position in
the sky.
32. (d) The last stage in the life circle of a star is
white dwarf. Small stars, like the Sun, will undergo
a relatively peaceful and beautiful death that sees
them pass through a planetary nebula phase to
become a white dwarf.
35. (a) Space between Earth and Moon is known as
Cislunar. Pertaining to the space between the earth
and the orbit of the moon.
36. (c) Our solar system is located in Milky Way
Galaxy. The Milky Way is the galaxy that contains
our Solar System. Its name milky is derived
from its appearance as a dim glowing band arching
across the night sky in which the naked eye cannot
distinguish individual stars.
37. (c) Neutron star is also known as Pulsar. A neutron
star is a type of stellar remnant that can result from
the gravitational collapse of a massive star.
38. (d) White Dwarf is known as Fossil star. They
are supported by electron degeneracy pressure. It
amplifies the contrast with red giants. They are
both very hot and very small. They are the opposite
of black holes. They are the end-products of small,
low-mass stars.
43. (d) The group of small pieces of rocks revolving
round the sun between the orbits of mars and Jupiter
are called Asteroids.
45. (b) Jupiter takes maximum time for one revolution
around the sun. Jupiter revolves or orbits around the
Sun once every 11.86 Earth years, or once every
4,330.6 Earth days. Jupiter travels at an average
speed of 29,236 miles.
46. (c) Venus is called the Evening star. Because it
trails the Sun in the sky and brightens into view
immediately after the Sun sets and when the sky
is dark enough. When Venus is at its brightest, it
appears visible merely minutes after the Sun has set.
47. (a) The Earth shows minimum distance from the
Sun on 3rd January.
Geography || B-7
48. (a) Saturn is surrounded by ring. Saturn has a ring
around it because it is believed to be very big and
has lots of moons, meaning it has a strong pull of
gravity. Another major reason is that the asteroids
fling into its orbit and the rings are not solid.
51. (d) The planet Pluto has been declared as a dwarf
planet in the summit held in Prague. In August
2006 the International Astronomical Union (IAU)
downgraded the status of Pluto to that of dwarf
planet. This means that from now on only the
rocky worlds of the inner Solar System and the
gas giants of the outer system will be designated as
planets.
54. (b) The sky looks black from the space. In space,
sunlight or any kind of star light does not have
anything from which to bounce off.
55. (a) The black part of the moon is called sea of
tranquility. Sea of tranquility is not an actual sea but
rather the point at which Apollo 11 first landed on
when it reached the moon. It is a lunar mare which
mainly consists of basalt rock and is located on the
Tranquillitatis basin which is on the Moon. The
mare has a tint which is slightly blue in colour and
stands out from the rest of the moon.
59. (c) The revolution of the earth around the sun
alone is not enough for change of seasons. Had
the axis of the earth been vertical, the sun would
have been vertical at the same latitude throughout
the year. Therefore the revolution of the earth and
its inclination, both are necessary for the change of
seasons.
61. (b) The direction of the sunrise depends upon
the direction of the rotation of the earth on its axis.
Any planet rotation on its axis from west to east
will experience sunrise in the east and viceversa.
Venus rotates on its axis from east to west and thus
experiences sunrise in the west.
80. (b) The shortest ditance between two places on
the earth surface is along the Great Circles. The
property of a great circle is that a plane passed along
it passes through the centre of the earth and divides
it into two equal parts or hemispheres. Among the
latitudes only the equator is a great circle while
among longitudes all of them are great circles.
 2 Physical Geography
1. The Indian subcontinent was originally part of a
huge mass called
(a) Indian (b) Aryavarta
(c) Angaraland (d) Gondwana land
2. Which one of the following is not a metamorphic
rock?
(a) Geneiss (b) Conglomerate
(c) Quartzite (d) Schist
3. Which one of the following is the dominant
element of the earth crust?
(a) Aluminium (b) Iron
(c) Oxygen (d) Silicon
4. The mouth of a volcano is known as
(a) Glacier (b) Cone
(c) Crater (d) Pipe
5. The highest salinity is found in which of the
following lakes?
(a) Van Lake (b) Dead sea
(c) Balkash lake (d) Baikal lake
6. Which one of the following is a temperate desert?
(a) Arabian desert (b) Atacama desert
(c) Kalahari desert (d) Patagonian desert
7. The deepest lake of the world is
(a) Baikal (b) Crater
(c) Nyasa (d) Tanganyika
8. The terms longitude and latitude were first used by
(a) Herodotus (b) Eratosthenese
(c) Posidonius (d) Ptolemy
9. Which one of the following sea is the largest in
area?
(a) Sea of Okhotsk (b) Sea of Japan
(c) Sea of China (d) Bering Sea
10. Which one of the following is an example of a
block mountain?
(a) Aravalli (b) Andes
(c) Black Forest (d) Caucasus
11. The biggest island of the Indian Ocean is
(a) Maldives (b) Madagascar
(c) Lakshadweep (d) Sumatra
12. Which one of the following ocean currents is
different from others?
(a) Gulf stream
(b) Kuroshivo
(c) North Atlantic Drift
(d) Labrador
13. Gutenberg discontinuity separates
(a) Crust from the upper mantle
(b) Upper mantle from lower mantle
(c) Lower mantle from outer core
(d) Outer core from the inner core
14. The height of tropopause towards poles
(a) Increases (b) Remains constant
(c) Decreases (d) Varies at a point
15. In which of the following eras the earth was
nearly covered with snow and ice?
(a) Cretaceous Era (b) Pliocene Era
(c) Pleistocene Era (d) Tertiary Era
16. Earths Albedo is largely affected by
(a) Cloudiness
(b) Dust particles in atmosphere
(c) Atmospheric layer
(d) Nature of the earths surface
17. The largest volume and mass of the earth is found
in
(a) Crust (b) Mantle
(c) Outer core (d) Inner core
 Geography || B-9

18. Which of the following is not chemical 29. A hot local wind blowing in Sahara desert is
weathering? known as
(a) Oxidation (b) Hydrolysis (a) Haboob (b) Karaburan
(c) Freezing (d) Carbonization (c) Jooran (d) Harmattan
19. Ox-bow lake is a feature formed by 30. Break up of Gondwana land mass started during
(a) River erosion in youthful stage the period of
(b) Transportation action of the river (a) Permian (b) Jurassic
(c) River erosion in mature stage (c) Cretaceous (d) Triassic
(d) Deposition in old stage of a river 31. Tsunamis are mainly produced by
20. Fog is a phenomenon indicating (a) Subaerial earthquakes
(a) Low average temperature (b) Submarine earthquakes
(b) Normal lapse of temperature (c) Cyclones
(c) Inversion of temperature (d) Tides
(d) High average temperature 32. Bhabar is an example of
21. The clockwise movement of winds in the cyclones (a) Panplane (b) Piedmont plain
of southern hemisphere is mainly caused by (c) Till plain (d) Deltaic plain
(a) Centrifugal force (b) Deflective force 33. Which one of the following is not related to plate
(c) Frictional force (d) Pressure force Tectonic Theory?
22. Which one of the following currents has a (a) Continental drift
warming influence on the neighbouring coast? (b) Pole wandering
(a) Benguela (b) Agulhas (c) Transform fault
(c) Canaries (d) Oyasio (d) Sea floor spreading
23. Which one of the following local winds is 34. Telegraph plateau is a part of
different from the other three? (a) North Atlantic Ridge
(a) Khamsin (b) Foehn (b) South Atlantic Ridge
(c) Sirocco (d) Mistral (c) Indian Ocean Ridge
24. The hail is generally associated with which of the (d) South Pacific Ridge
following clouds? 35. Which one of the following is different from
(a) Cirrus (b) Cumulus others?
(c) Cumulo-nimbus (d) Stratus (a) Canary current
25. Which one is not a depositional land form
(b) Mozambique current
developed by the running water?
(c) Oyashio current
(a) River terraces (b) Alluvial
(d) Falkland current
(c) Natural levees (d) Delta
36. Which one of the following geological periods
26. Which one of the following is not a tropical
was frequented by increased volcanic activities?
desert?
(a) Cretaceous period (b) Ordovician period
(a) Atacama (b) Arabia
(c) Jurassic period (d) Miocene period
(c) Gobi (d) Kalahari
37. Which of the following pairs is most suitable for
27. Thunderstorms are associated with
ascertaining the origin of the rocks?
(a) Cumulus clouds
(a) Colour and shape
(b) Cumulonimbus clouds
(b) Size and weight
(c) Cirrus clouds
(c) Density and hardness
(d) Stratus clouds
(d) Structure and composition
28. Which one of the following seas is the shallowest?
38. The ratio between meridian and equator on globe is
(a) Baltic (b) Black
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
(c) Yellow (d) North
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 1
B-10 || Physical Geography
39. The continent through which both the tropic of 49. Which one of the following is a warm ocean
cancer and the Tropic of capricorn pass is current?
(a) North America (b) Asia (a) East Australian current
(c) Africa (d) Europe (b) West Australian current
40. Where is the Blind valley found? (c) Benguela current
(a) River valley region (d) Peru current
(b) Arid region 50. Radioactive dating is a technique which can be
(c) Karst region used to measure
(d) Glacier region (a) The age of rocks
41. During volcanic eruption deposition of lava in (b) Composition of rocks
anticlines and synclines of folded mountains
(c) Colour of rocks
accounts for formation of
(d) Weight of rocks
(a) Phacolith (b) Lopolith
51. Rift valley is formed by
(c) Batholith (d) Lacolith
42. When following fissures in the rocks, its both (a) Earthquake (b) Folding
parts slide in front and one part slides over the (c) Faulting (d) All of these
other, the resulting feature is 52. Which one among the following is a primary
(a) Lateral fault (b) Step fault rock?
(c) Reverse fault (d) Normal fault (a) Sedimentary rock
43. Atmospheric layer which reflects radio waves is (b) Igneous rock
called (c) Metamorphic rock
(a) Exosphere (b) Ionosphere (d) None of these
(c) Stratosphere (d) Troposphere 53. Granite and Basalt are the examples of which of
44. Which one of the following is related to the origin the following?
of folded mountains? (a) Sedimentary rock
(a) Accreting plate margin (b) Metamorphic rock
(b) Consuming plate margin (c) Igneous rock
(c) Conserving plate margin (d) Calcareous rock
(d) Intra plate zone 54. Epicentre is concerned with
45. The layer of the atmosphere which contains dust (a) Earthquake (b) Volcano
particles and water vapour is called
(c) Cyclone (d) Land sliding
(a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere
55. Gulf stream is
(c) Ionosphere (d) Mesosphere
(a) A river in the Gulf
46. Which of the following does not affect the
distribution of insolution? (b) An ocean current
(a) Altitude (c) A second name of jet stream
(b) Angle of suns rays (d) A local wind
(c) Length of the day 56. Who divided the interior of the earth in
(d) Ocean currents Lithosphere, Asthenosphere, Mesosphere and
47. Tropopause separates Centrosphere?
(a) Troposphere and ozonosphere (a) Suess (b) Kelvin
(b) Stratosphere and Troposphere (c) Daily (d) None of these
(c) Stratosphere and Ionosphere 57. U-shaped valley develops in
(d) Troposphere and Ionosphere (a) Karst region (b) Glacial region
48. Which one of the following ocean tides is caused (c) Desert region (d) All of these
by biological factors? 58. Which of the following is not igneous rock?
(a) Neap tide (b) Red tide (a) Granite (b) Conglomerate
(c) Apogean tide (d) Perigean tide (c) Basalt (d) Rhyolite
 Geography || B-11

59. Landscapes, developed due to Rejuvenation 70. Tropical cyclones in Australia are called
activity are called (a) Willy willy (b) Hurricanes
(a) Polycyclic landscapes (c) Easterly waves (d) Typhoons
(b) Monocyclic landscape 71. Which of the following rocks is not likely to
(c) Mixed landscape contain fossils?
(d) Compound landscape (a) Conglomerate (b) Granite
60. The concept of sea floor spreading was first (c) Shale (d) Sandstone
propounded by 72 What does the term sial refer to ?
(a) F.B. Taylor (b) Harry Hess (a) Earths surface layer
(c) Lowthian Green (d) A. Holmes (b) The core part of the earth
61. Which of the following land forms is not formed (c) Ocean bottom rocks
by wind action? (d) A rock which is rich in calcium
(a) Stone Latice 73. Nife refers to
(b) Mushroom or Gara (a) innermost layer of the earth
(c) Sand Bars (b) outermost layer of the earth
(d) Inselberg (c) intermediate layer of the earth
62. Coral reef extending along with eastern coast of (d) none of the above
Australia is 74. Limestome is an example of
(a) Fringing reef (b) Barrier reef (a) sedimentary rocks (b) metamorphic rocks
(c) Atoll (d) Coral island (c) igneous rocks (d) volcanic rocks
63. Volcanic eruptions do not occurs in the 75. Isoseismal lines join places
(a) Baltic sea (b) Black sea (a) experiencing no earthquake
(c) Caribbean sea (d) Caspian sea
(b) experiencing the same intensity of the
64. Quartzite is metamorphosed from
earthquake
(a) Limestone (b) Obsidian
(c) experiencing the earthquake for the same
(c) Sandstone (d) Shale
65. Among oceanic trenches the deepest trench is duration
(a) Kurile trench (b) Japan trench (d) experiencing an earthquake at the same time
(c) Mariana trench (d) Tonga trench 76. The groovings are formed
66. In which form is atmospheric humidity (a) through stream deposition
expressed? (b) through wind deposition
(a) Absolute humidity (c) through glacial erosion
(b) Specific humidity (d) through river erosion
(c) Relative humidity 77. Karst landforms are made by
(d) All of these (a) waves in coastal areas
67. The process of water vapour changing to the (b) wind in the semi-arid regions
liquid state (water) is called (c) water in limestone regions
(a) Sublimation (b) Transpiration (d) glaciers in the coasal regions
(c) Condensation (d) Dew 78. Hanging valleys are associated with
68. Black Forest mountain is an example of (a) winds action (b) glacial action
(a) Folded mountain (c) wave action (d) river action
(b) Block mountain 79. Bays and gulfs are usually made by the erosional
(c) Volcanic mountain work of
(d) Residual mountain (a) waves (b) large streams
69. Jet stream is (c) coastal glaciers (d) underground water
(a) Fast blowing westerlies in upper part of 80. The drip stones are found in
Troposphere. (b) Ocean current (a) glaciated regions (b) limestone caverns
(c) Monsoon winds (d) None of these (c) desert regions (d) wave eroded areas
B-12 || Physical Geography
81. A large body of air having fairly uniform
temperature and humidity etc. is called
(a) a cyclone (b) an anticyclone
(c) an air mass (d) an air parcel
82. What is the most important element of climate ?
(a) Rainfall (b) Temperature
(c) Pressure (d) Humidity
83. Ozone content is maximum in areas
(a) near equator (c) does not change
(b) polewards of 50 degree latitude
(c) near the tropics
(d) equatorward of 25 degree latitude
84. Which layer of atmosphere is vital for tele-
commnications?
(a) Troposphere (b) Thermosphere (c) high velocity upper tropospheric wind
(c) Stratosphere (d) Ionosphere
85. The coriollis effect is produced by
(a) pressure gradient
(b) earths revolution
(c) earths rotation
(d) earths rotation and revolution
86. The velocity of the winds is determined by
(a) pressure gradient
(b) pressure gradient and humidity
(c) coriollis effect
(d) pressure and earths rotation
87. Roaring forties are the
(a) High velocity trade winds
(b) High velocity westerly winds
(c) High velocity polar winds
(d) High mangitude tidal waves due to high
wind velocity
88. The mistral is experienced in
(a) Southern France (b) Iran and Iraq
(c) California
(d) Northern Adriatic coast
89. The sky looks blue because of
(a) Selective absorption of radiation by
atmosphere
(b) Selective scattering of radiation by
atmosphere
(c) Reflection of blue colour of the oceans
(d) Absorption of blue light in the atmosphere
90. A cyclone is an area of
(a) low pressure surrounded by high pressure 100. What is the most abundant component of salts in
(b) high pressure surrounded by low pressure
(c) air divergence
(d) air subsidence
91. In a cyclone in northern hemisphere winds blow
(a) anticlockwise
(b) clockwise
(c) straight centreward
(d) radially outward
92. When air temperature rises ralative humidity
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(d) may increase or decrease
93. Jet stream is a
(a) high velocity warm current in Atlantic
Ocean
(b) high velocity local surface wind
(d) high velocity current of water in a stream
94. Tropopause acts as a separator between
(a) earth and the troposphere
(b) troposphere and stratosphere
(c) mesosphere and exosphere
(d) stratosphere and ionosphere
95. The Great Barrier Reef is located at the
(a) East Australian coast
(b) Andaman and Nicobar coast
(c) West Australian coast
(d) Mouth of Gulf and Cambay
96. Humboldt Current flows
(a) southwards in western Pacific Ocean
(b) northwards in eastern Pacific Ocean
(c) southwards in eastern Pacific Ocean
(d) northwards in western Pacific Ocean
97. Canaries Current flows along
(a) Brazilian coast (b) Peruvian coast
(c) East African coast (d) West African coast
98. The Agulhas Current flows in
(a) Indian Ocean (b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Atlantic Ocean (d) Southern Ocean
99. The colour of Yellow Sea is the result of
(a) industrial pollution.
(b) peculiar types of phytoplankton growing
there.
(c) loess brought by Hwang-he river.
(d) high sulphur content in the bottom rocks.
sea ?
(a) Calcium (b) Sodium
(c) Chlorine (d) Potassium
 Geography || B-13

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 11. (b) 21. (b) 31. (b) 41. (a) 51. (c) 61. (c) 71. (b) 81. (c) 91. (a)
2. (b) 12. (d) 22. (b) 32. (b) 42. (c) 52. (b) 62. (b) 72. (a) 82. (b) 92. (b)
3. (c) 13. (c) 23. (d) 33. (b) 43. (b) 53. (c) 63. (a) 73. (a) 83. (b) 93. (c)
4. (c) 14. (c) 24. (c) 34. (a) 44. (b) 54. (a) 64. (c) 74. (a) 84. (d) 94. (b)
5. (a) 15. (c) 25. (a) 35. (b) 45. (b) 55. (b) 65. (c) 75. (b) 85. (c) 95. (a)
6. (d) 16. (a) 26. (c) 36. (a) 46. (d) 56. (c) 66. (d) 76. (d) 86. (a) 96. (b)
7. (a) 17. (b) 27. (b) 37. (d) 47. (b) 57. (b) 67. (c) 77. (c) 87. (b) 97. (d)
8. (b) 18. (c) 28. (c) 38. (d) 48. (b) 58. (b) 68. (b) 78. (b) 88. (a) 98. (a)
9. (a) 19. (c) 29. (d) 39. (c) 49. (a) 59. (a) 69. (a) 79. (a) 89. (b) 99. (c)
10. (c) 20. (c) 30. (c) 40. (c) 50. (a) 60. (b) 70. (a) 80. (b) 90. (a) 100. (c)

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) The Indian sub-continent was originally
part of a huge mass called Gondwana land.
In paleogeography, Gondwana, originally
Gondwanaland, is the name given to the more
southerly of two supercontinents which were part
of the Pangaea supercontinent that existed from
approximately 510 to 180 million years ago.
2. (b) Conglomerate is not a metamorphic rock.
Conglomerate is a rock consisting of individual
clasts within a finer-grained matrix that have
become cemented together. Conglomerates are
sedimentary rocks consisting of rounded fragments
and are thus differentiated from breccias, which
consist of angular clasts.
5. (a) The highest salinity is found in Lake Van. Lake
Van is the largest lake in Turkey, located in the far
east of the country in Van district. It is a saline soda
lake, receiving water from numerous small streams
that descend from the surrounding mountains.
6. (d) Patagonian desert is a temperature desert. The
Patagonian Desert, also known as the Patagonia
Desert or the Patagonian Steppe, is the largest
desert in Argentina and is the 7th largest desert
in the world by area, occupying 673,000 square
kilometers.
7. (a) The deepest lake of the world is Baikal. Lake
Baikal is a rift lake in the south of the Russian
region of Siberia, between the Irkutsk Oblast to the
northwest and the Buryat Republic to the southeast.
8. (b) The terms longitude and latitude were first
used by Eratosthenese. Eratosthenes of Cyrene
was a Greek mathematician, geographer, poet,
astronomer, and music theorist. He was a man of
learning, becoming the chief librarian at the Library
of Alexandria.
9. (a) Bering sea is the largest in area. The Bering Sea
is a marginal sea of the Pacific Ocean. It comprises a
deep water basin, which then rises through a narrow
slope into the shallower water above the continental
shelves.
10. (c) Black Forest is an example of a block mountain.
The Black Forest is a wooded mountain range in
Baden-Wurttemberg, southwestern Germany. It is
bordered by the Rhine valley to the west and south.
The highest peak is the Feldberg with an elevation
of 1,493 metres (4,898 ft). The region is almost
rectangular with a length of 160 km (99 mi) and
breadth of up to 60 km (37 mi).
11. (b) The biggest Island of the Indian ocean is
Madagascar. Madagascar, officially the Republic of
Madagascar and previously known as the Malagasy
Republic, is an island country in the Indian Ocean,
off the coast of Southeast Africa.
12. (d) Labrador is different from other ocean
currents. It is cold in nature. The Labrador Current
B-14 || Physical Geography
is a cold current in the North Atlantic Ocean which
flows from the Arctic Ocean south along the coast
of Labrador and passes around Newfoundland,
continuing south along the east coast of Nova
Scotia.
15. (c) The earth was nearly covered with snow and ice
in pleistocene Era. The Pleistocene is the geological
epoch which lasted from about 2,588,000 to 11,700
years ago, spanning the worlds recent period of
repeated glaciations.
19. (c) Ox-bow lake is a feature formed by River
erosion in mature stage. An ox-bow is a crescent-
shaped lake lying alongside a winding river. The
ox-bow lake is created over time as erosion and
deposits of soil change the rivers course.
22. (b) Agulhas currents has a warming influence on
the neighbouring coast. The Agulhas Current is the
western boundary current of the southwest Indian
Ocean. It flows down the east coast of Africa from
27S to 40S. It is narrow, swift and strong.
23. (d) Mistral the local wind is different from the
others. The mistral is a strong, cold and usually dry
regional wind in France, coming from the north
or northwest, which accelerates when it passes
through the valleys of the Rhone and the Durance
Rivers to the coast of the Mediterranean around the
Camargue region.
24. (c) The hail is generally associated with the
cumulo-nimbus clouds. Cumulonimbus, from the
Latin cumulus (heap) and nimbus (rainstorm,
storm cloud), is a dense towering vertical cloud
associated with thunderstorms and atmospheric
instability, forming from water vapour carried by
powerful upward air currents.
26. (c) Gobi is not a tropical desert. It is a temperate
desert partly located in northern China and partly in
Mongolia.
28. (c) Yellow sea is the shallowest about 44 meter.
29. (d) A hot local wind blowing in sahara desert is
known as Harmattan. The Harmattan is a dry and
dusty West African trade wind. This northeasterly
wind blows from the Sahara into the Gulf of Guinea
between the end of November and the middle of
March. The temperatures can be as low as 3 degrees
Celsius
30. (c) During the period of cretaceous era break up
of Gondwana land mass started.
31. (b) Tsunamis are mainly produced by submarine
earthquakes.
32. (b) Bhabar is an example of piedmont plain.
33. (b) Pole wandering is not related to plate tectonic
theory.
34. (a) Telegraph plateau is a part of North Atlantic
Ridge.
35. (b) Mozambique current is different from the
others. The Mozambique Current is an ocean current
in the Indian Ocean, usually defined as warm surface
waters flowing south along the African east coast in
the Mozambique Channel, between Mozambique
and the island of Madagascar.
40. (c) The Blind valley is found in the karst region.
Karst topography is a geological formation shaped
by the dissolution of a layer or layers of soluble
bedrock, usually carbonate rock such as limestone
or dolomite, but also in gypsum.
41. (a) During volcanic eruption deposition of lava
in anticlines and synclines of folded mountains
accounts for formation of phacolith. A phacolith is
a pluton parallel to the bedding plane or foliation
of folded country rock. More specifically, it is a
typically lens-shaped pluton that occupies either the
crest of an anticline or the trough of a syncline.
42. (c) When the following fissures in the rocks its
both parts slide in front and one part slides over the
other, the resulting feature is Reverse fault. Reverse
faults are exactly the opposite of normal faults. If
the hanging wall rises relative to the footwall, you
have a reverse fault.
43. (b) Atmospheric layer which reflects radio waves
is called Ionosphere. The ionosphere is a region
of the upper atmosphere, from about 85 km (53
mi) to 600 km (370 mi) altitude, and includes the
thermosphere and parts of the mesosphere and
exosphere. It is distinguished because it is ionized
by solar radiation. It plays an important part in
atmospheric electricity and forms the inner edge
of the magnetosphere. It has practical importance
because, among other functions, it influences radio
propagation to distant places on the Earth.
49. (a) East Australian current is a warm ocean current
that moves warm water from the tropical Coral Sea,
where it splits from the South Equatorial Current,
down the east coast of Australia.
51. (c) Rift valley is formed by faulting. A rift
valley is a linear-shaped lowland between several
highlands or mountain ranges created by the action
of a geologic rift or fault.

55. (b) Gulf stream is a warm ocean current originated
from the eastern coast of North America. The
Gulf Stream, together with its northern extension
towards Europe, the North Atlantic Drift, is a
powerful, warm, and swift Atlantic ocean current
that originates at the tip of Florida, and follows
the eastern coastlines of the United States and
Newfoundland before crossing the Atlantic Ocean.
57. (b) U-shaped valley develops in the Glacial
region. Ice causes friction on the sides of the valley.
60. (b) The concept of sea floor spreading was first
propounded by Harry Hess. Harry Hammond Hess
was a geologist and United States Navy officer in
World War II. Considered one of the founding
fathers of the unifying theory of plate tectonics,
Rear Admiral Harry Hammond Hess was born on
May 24, 1906 in New York City.
61. (c) Sand Bars is not formed by wind action.
A long mass or low ridge of submerged or partially
exposed sand built up in the water along a shore or
beach by the action of waves or currents.
62. (b) Coral reef, the Great Barrier Reef extending
along with eastern coast of Australia. The Great
Barrier Reef is the worlds largest coral reef system
composed of over 2,900 individual reefs and 900
islands stretching for over 2,600 kilometres over an
area of approximately 344,400 square kilometres.
Geography || B-15
65. (c) Mariana trench is the deepest trench located in
the pacific ocean near Japan. The Mariana Trench or
Marianas Trench is the deepest part (11 km) of the
worlds oceans. It is located in the western Pacific
Ocean, to the east of the Mariana Islands.
69. (a) Jet stream is fast blowing westerlies in upper
part of troposphere. Jet streams are fast flowing,
narrow air currents found in the atmospheres of
some planets, including Earth. The main jet streams
are located near the tropopause, the transition
between the troposphere (where temperature
decreases with altitude) and the stratosphere (where
temperature increases with altitude).
70. (a) Tropical cyclones in Australia are called Willy-
willy. Willy willy is a small windstorm that mostly
occurs in dry, outback areas. The term Willy Willy
is of Aboriginal origin. Willy willies are normally
tropical cyclones.
71. (b) Fossils are found only in the sedimentary
rocks or the metamorphic rocks made from the
sedimentaries. Granite is an igneous rock and hence
contains no fossils.
82. (b) Although temperature, pressure and humidity,
all are important elements of weather and climate,
the temperature is the basis of all these as all other
elements directily or indirectly depend upon it.
84. (d) The ionosphere makes the radio
communications possible by virtue to the fact this
layer reflects the radio singnals back to the earth.
 3 Economic Geography
1. More than one-third of the crude steel production
of the world comes from
(a) China (b) Japan
(c) Russia (d) U.S.A.
2. The largest proven oil reserve of the world lies in
(a) Venezuela (b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Iran (d) Iraq
3. Peanuts are the main crop of
(a) Georgia (b) Gambia
(c) Ghana (d) Guatemala
4. Which of the following countries is the largest
producer of diamond?
(a) Australia (b) Venezuela
(c) Russia (d) Botswana
5. The Ruhr basin is the famous industrial region of
(a) China (b) Japan
(c) Germany (d) United Kingdom
6. In an area with annual rainfall of more than 200
cm and sloping hills which crop will be ideal?
(a) Jute (b) Cotton
(c) Maize (d) Tea
7. Which soil needs little irrigation as it retains soil
moisture?
(a) Alluvial soil (b) Black soil
(c) Red soil (d) Laterite soil
8. Monoculture is a distinct characteristic of
(a) Commercial grain farming
(b) Shifting cultivation
(c) Subsistence farming
(d) Organic farming
9. The largest producer of wine in the world is
(a) France (b) Italy
(c) Spain (d) U.S.A.
10. The leading producer of both rice and wheat in
the world is
(a) China (b) India
(c) Russia (d) U.S.A.
11. Which one of the following countries is credited
with the establishment of uranium city?
(a) Australia (b) Russia
(c) Canada (d) U.S.A
12. Kimberley is famous for
(a) Gold Mining (b) Diamond mining
(c) Steel industry (d) Automobile industry
13. Donbas region is famous for
(a) Iron ore (b) Coal
(c) Copper ore (d) Gold
14. The country at the top in terms of percentage of
total coffee production in the world is
(a) Colombia (b) Brazil
(c) India (d) Ethiopia
15. Geothermal energy is basically
(a) Non-renewable (b) Renewable
(c) Biotic (d) Non-cyclic
16. Which one of the following is a fossil source of
energy?
(a) Wood (b) Solar radiation
(c) Tidal waves (d) Petroleum
17. Which one of the following is the second leading
exporter of petroleum after Saudi Arabia?
(a) Norway (b) U.A.E.
(c) Russia (d) Venezuela
18. The largest producer of copper in the world is
(a) Australia (b) Chile
(c) Peru (d) U.S.A.

19. Chena cultivation is found in
(a) Combodia (b) Indonesia
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Philippines
20. Which of the following industries should be
mainly located near the raw material areas?
(a) Iron steel (b) Cotton textile
(c) Ship building (d) Engineering
21. The largest producer of tungsten in the world is
(a) Australia (b) China
(c) Russia (d) U.S.A.
22. The largest importer of petroleum in the world is
(a) China (b) India
(c) Japan (d) U.S.A.
23. The Wheat Crescent lies in
(a) Australia (b) Argentina
(c) Canada (d) U.S.A.
24. The largest exporter of steel in the world is
(a) China (b) Japan
(c) Russia (d) Ukraine
25. The leading producer of gold in the world is
(a) Australia (b) China
(c) South Africa (d) U.S.A.
26. The leading producer of natural rubber in the
world is
(a) India (b) Indonesia
(c) Malaysia (d) Thailand
27. Which one of the following deserts is famous for
its nitrate deposits?
(a) Atacama (b) Gobi
(c) Kalahari (d) Sahara
28. In which of the following crops the international
trade is low in comparison to total produce?
(a) Coffee (b) Rice
(c) Rubber (d) Wheat
29. In the U.S.A. the cotton textile industry shifted
from North Eastern states to the south because of
(a) High labour cost (b) Low demand
(c) Hilly terrain (d) Lack of coal
30. The per capita CO2 emission is the highest in
(a) China (b) India
(c) Japan (d) U.S.A.
31. The iron and steel industry is largely concentrated
in the Kuzbas region because of the
(a) Availability of iron ore
(b) Availability of coal
Geography || B-17
(c) Local market facility
(d) Local supply of cheap labour
32. Which of the following countries is the highest
producer of Uranium in Asia?
(a) China (b) India
(c) Uzbekistan (d) Indonesia
33. The greatest producer of wheat in Europe is
(a) Ukraine (b) U.K.
(c) France (d) Germany
34. Which of the following countries is the greatest
producer of bauxite in the world?
(a) Argentina (b) Australia
(c) South Africa (d) Brazil
35. Which of the following is important for ship
building?
(a) Liverpool (b) Detroit
(c) Berlin (d) Beijing
36. Which country is the most important producer of
iron and steel in the southern hemisphere?
(a) Chili (b) Peru
(c) Brazil (d) Venezuela
37. The lines of equal transport cost in the industrial
location model of Alfred Weber are known as
(a) Isoline (b) Isobar
(c) Isodapen (d) Isotim
38. Great Lakes region of North America is famous
for the mining of
(a) Coal (b) Petroleum
(c) Iron-ore (d) Bauxite
39. Which of the following countries is the largest
producer of Argon oil?
(a) Greece (b) Mosocco
(c) Iran (d) Iraq
40. Krivoirog is known for
(a) Textile industry (b) Chemical industry
(c) Iron-ore mining (d) Bauxite mining
41. The largest iron-ore producing region in the
U.S.A. is
(a) North East Appalachian region
(b) Albama region
(c) Lake superior region
(d) Sierra Nevada region
42. The leading wool producing country in the world
is
(a) New Zealand (b) Canada
(c) Australia (d) Argentina
B-18 || Economic Geography
43. The major agricultural regions of the world were
first delineated by
(a) L.D. Stamp (b) H. Bobek
(c) D. Whittlesey (d) J.E. Spencer
44. Kanat system of irrigation is developed in
(a) Egypt (b) Iran
(c) Kazakhstan (d) New Zealand
45. Which one of the following countries has the
largest arable land?
(a) Australia (b) Brazil
(c) China (d) India
46. Plantation agriculture is practical mainly in the
(a) Arid region
(b) Mediterranean region
(c) Temperate region
(d) Tropical region
47. Which one of the following industries is a foot-
loose industry?
(a) Cement (b) Sugar
(c) Iron and steel (d) Hosiery
48. Which region is called the bread basket of the
world?
(a) Temperate grassland
(b) Savanna grassland
(c) Mediterranean region
(d) Mid latitude forest
49. The largest producer and supplier of sugar in the
world is
(a) Brazil (b) Cuba
(c) Indonesia (d) Thailand
50. The largest exporter of rice in the world is
(a) China (b) India
(c) Thailand (d) Vietnam
51. Which one of the following is not a type of
shifting cultivation?
(a) Chena (b) Fazenda
(c) Fang (d) Milpa
52. Worlds largest reserve of Uranium is found in
(a) Australia (b) Brazil
(c) Canada (d) South Africa
53. The largest producer of silver in the world is
(a) Canada (b) U.S.A.
(c) Mexico (d) Australia
54. The Broken Hill of Australia is famous for the
mining of
(a) Zinc (b) Silver
(c) Lead (d) All of these
55. Which one of the following countries is the
largest producer of Geo-thermal energy in the
world?
(a) Australia (b) New Zealand
(c) U.S.A. (d) U.K.
56. The largest exporter of fish in the world is
(a) Norway (b) U.K.
(c) Canada (d) Japan
57. Largest industrial gas reserves are found in
(a) Iran (b) Iraq
(c) Qatar (d) Russia
58. The largest reserves of coal in the world are found
in
(a) Russia (b) U.S.A.
(c) China (d) Australia
59. Which among the following has the worlds
largest reserves of Uranium?
(a) Australia (b) Canada
(c) Russia (d) U.S.A.
60. The largest producer of Milk in the world is
(a) China (b) U.S.A.
(c) India (d) Brazil
61. Katanga province of Zaire is famous for
(a) Copper (b) Coal
(c) Gold (d) Diamond
62. Saar basin is an important industrial region in
(a) France (b) Germany
(c) Japan (d) U.K.
63. Worlds largest producer of sugarcane
(a) Brazil (b) China
(c) India (d) Indonesia
64. The largest producer of coconut in the world is
(a) Brazil (b) India
(c) Indonesia (d) Philippines
65. The leading producer of Titanium in the world is
(a) India (b) Japan
(c) Russia (d) U.S.A.
66. Which of the following crops are grown mostly
under subsistence farming?
(a) Millets and Rice
(b) Cotton and Tobacco
(c) Tea and Coffee
(d) Vegetables and Fruits

67. Teak and Sal are products of
(a) Tropical dry deciduous Forest
(b) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(c) Tropical Thorn Forests
(d) Alpine Forests
68. The place of origin of red gram is
(a) America (b) India
(c) South Africa (d) Egypt
69. Two largest producers of sugarbeet in the world
are
(a) Belgium and China
(b) France and Russia
(c) Germany and U.S.A.
(d) Turkey and Ukrain
70. Dapog method of rice nursery was developed in
(a) China (b) Indonesia
(c) Japan (d) Philippines
71. Textiles are a type of good.
(a) capital (b) consumer
(c) durable (d) subsistence
72. Name the country with the largest cattle
population.
(a) USA (b) Argentina
(c) India (d) Australia
73. The leading producer of quality merino wool is
(a) Australia (b) Turkey
(c) New Zealand (d) South Africa
74. Which factor influences the plant growth most
profoundly?
(a) Temperature (b) Moisture
(c) Soil fertility (d) Soil depth
75. From which plant part is camphor (a distillate)
obtained?
(a) Roots (b) Stem
(c) Flowers (d) Leaves
76. Which country is the leading producer of oranges?
(a) France (b) Spain
(c) Italy (d) US
77. Sugarcane cultivation dominates the farming in
(a) India (b) Cuba
(c) Indonesia (d) Australia
78. Which country is the largest producer of raw jute ?
(a) India (b) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan (d) Myanmar
Geography || B-19
79. The natural rubber is obtained from the
(a) bark of trees (b) fruit of trees
(c) roots to trees (d) latex of trees
80. Which country is the most important exporter of
wood pulp and newsprint ?
(a) US (b) Canada
(c) Russia (d) Sweden
81. Sericulture means
(a) rearing of silkworms
(b) growing of small plants
(c) cultivation of spices
(d) cultivation of grapes
82. What is viticulture ?
(a) Cultivation of grapes
(b) Growing small plants
(c) Growing tobacco
(d) Cultivation of spices
83. Silviculture is concerned with
(a) Making vines
(b) Growing plants saplings
(c) Growing spices
(d) Market gardening
84. Which crop is afflicted by the disease called red
rot ?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat
(c) Bajra (d) Sugarcane
85. Horticulture is concerned with the
(a) growing of flowers and fruits
(b) rearing animals for meet and skins
(c) farming without crop rotaion
(d) cultivation of crops without any machinery
etc.
86. Blue revolution relates to
(a) Crop farming
(b) Industrial production
(c) Fishing
(d) Mining and metallurgy.
87. Uranium is the among the known metals.
(a) lightest (b) heaviest
(c) most porous (d) most crystalline
88. The most abundant source of energy is
(a) Oil (b) Biomass
(c) Coal (d) Sun
89. Which mineral is considered to be the hardest ?
(a) Tungsten (b) Diamond
(c) Platinum (d) Uranium
B-20 || Economic Geography
90. What is white coal ?
(a) Petroleum (a) US (b) Australia
(b) Producing fuel from Thermal power
(c) Producing fuel from Chopped wood
(d) Producing fuel from Nuclear power
91. The Detroit region in US is famous for
(a) Iron and steel (b) Ship building
(c) Automobile (d) Petro chemicals
92. Which country produces maximum steel in the
world ?
(a) Japan (b) UK
(c) USA (d) Australia
93. The first cotton mill of india was established at
(a) Mumbai (b) Ahmedabad
(c) Baroda (d) Kolkata
94. Nagoya is an important ship building centre of
(a) Norway (b) US
(c) Japan (d) Russia
95. India is one of the leading exporters of
(a) copper (b) manganese
(c) tin (d) silver
96. The famous Kimberley mines are situated in
(c) India (d) South Africa
97. Name one of the important tribal groups of Japan.
(a) Hottentot (b) Eskimo
(c) Fula (d) Ainu
98. The winter snow house of Eskimos are called
(a) Yurt (b) Igloo
(c) Kayak (d) Toupic
99. What is the most commonly used building
material in deserts ?
(a) Mud and clay (b) Wood
(c) Bricks (d) Thatch and reeds
100. Coking coal is a vital input in
(a) Steel making (b) Thermal power
(c) Copper smelting (d) Sponge iron making
101. The region having the worlds largest reserves of
petroleum is
(a) US
(b) Venezuela
(c) Southeast Asia
(d) Southwest Asia
 Geography || B-21

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 13. (b) 25. (c) 37. (c) 49. (a) 61. (a) 73. (a) 85. (a) 97. (d)
2. (b) 14. (b) 26. (d) 38. (c) 50. (c) 62. (a) 74. (a) 86. (c) 98. (b)
3. (b) 15. (b) 27. (a) 39. (b) 51. (b) 63. (a) 75. (d) 87. (b) 99. (a)
4. (c) 16. (d) 28. (b) 40. (c) 52. (a) 64. (c) 76. (d) 88. (d) 100. (a)
5. (c) 17. (c) 29. (a) 41. (c) 53. (c) 65. (c) 77. (b) 89. (b) 101. (d)
6. (d) 18. (b) 30. (a) 42. (c) 54. (d) 66. (a) 78. (b) 90. (c)
7. (b) 19. (c) 31. (b) 43. (c) 55. (c) 67. (a) 79. (d) 91. (c)
8. (a) 20. (a) 32. (c) 44. (b) 56. (a) 68. (b) 80. (b) 92. (c)
9. (b) 21. (b) 33. (a) 45. (d) 57. (d) 69. (b) 81. (a) 93. (d)
10. (a) 22. (d) 34. (d) 46. (d) 58. (b) 70. (d) 82. (a) 94. (c)
11. (c) 23. (b) 35. (a) 47. (d) 59. (b) 71. (b) 83. (b) 95. (b)
12. (b) 24. (a) 36. (c) 48. (a) 60. (c) 72. (c) 84. (d) 96. (d)

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) More than one-third of the crude steel
production of the world comes from China. Chinas
crude steel production rose by 4.2% from a year
ago.
2. (b) The largest proven oil reserve of the world
lies in Saudi Arabia. Proven oil reserves in Saudi
Arabia are the second largest claimed in the world,
estimated to be 267 billion barrels (42 109 m3)
(Gbbl hereafter) including 2.5 Gbbl in the Saudi-
Kuwaiti neutral zone. These reserves were the
largest in the world until Venezuela announced they
had increased their proven reserves to 297 Gbbl in
January 2011.
3. (b) Peanuts are the main crop of Gambia. The
Gambia has no important mineral or other natural
resources and has a limited agricultural base. About
75% of the population depends on crops and livestock
for its livelihood. Small-scale manufacturing activity
features the processing of peanuts, fish, and hides.
4. (c) Russia is the largest producer of diamond.
In September 2012, Russia officially stated there
are massive diamond reserves under the mines
containing trillions of carats (hundreds of
thousands of tons) and claimed there are enough
diamonds in the field to supply global requirements
for 3,000 years.
5. (c) The Ruhr basin is the famous Industrial region
of Germany. Formerly Germanys coal-mining
region, the Ruhrgebiet forms one of the largest
conurbations in Europe with 5 million residents and
is now known for its diverse and vibrant cultural
scene.
6. (d) In an area with annual rainfall of more than
200 cm and sloping hills will be the ideal for tea
plantation.
8. (a) Monoculture is a distinct characteristic of
commercial grain farming. Monoculture is the
agricultural practice of producing or growing a
single crop or plant species over a wide area and for
a large number of consecutive years.
9. (b) The largest producer of wine in the world is
Italy. Italy is home of the oldest wine producing
regions in the world and Italian wines are known
worldwide for their broad variety. Italy shares with
France the title of largest wine producer in the
world, its contribution (about 45-50 million hl per
year) representing about 1/3 of world production.
Italian wine is exported around the world and is also
extremely popular in Italy.
B-22 || Economic Geography
11. (c) Canada is credited with the establishment
of Uranium city. Uranium City is a settlement in
northern Saskatchewan, Canada. Located on the
northern shores of Lake Athabasca near the border
of the Northwest Territories it is 230 m (750 ft)
above sea level. The settlement is 760 km (470
mi) northwest of Prince Albert, 760 km (470 mi)
northeast of Edmonton and 48 km (30 mi) south of
the Northwest Territories-Saskatchewan boundary.
12. (b) Kimberley is famous for diamond mining.
The Big Hole, Open Mine or Kimberley Mine is an
open-pit and underground mine in Kimberley, South
Africa, and claimed to be the largest hole excavated
by hand.
14. (b) The country at the top in terms of percentage
of total coffee production in the world is Brazil.
Coffee production in Brazil is responsible for about
a third of all coffee produced in world making
Brazil the worlds largest producer, a position the
country has held for the last 150 years. Coffee
plantations, covering some 27,000 km2 (10,000 sq
mi), are mainly located in the southeastern states
of Minas Gerais, So Paulo and Paran where the
environment and climate provide ideal growing
conditions.
18. (b) The largest producer of copper in the world
is Chile. In 1991, copper exports represented 30
percent of the total value of exports, a substantial
decline with respect to the 1960s, when it represented
almost 80 percent of total exports. Mining exports
in general accounted for about 48 percent of total
exports in 1991.
19. (c) Chena cultivation is found in Sri Lanka. Chena
Cultivation seconds only to paddy cultivation in the
area. It provides the fresh vegetables for the people
in the area and transport the production to other
parts of the country too.
26. (d) The leading producer of natural rubber in the
world is Thailand. Thailand could produce only
167,000 tonnes of natural rubber in October 2010
as against 215,000 tonnes expected earlier and
288,000 tonnes produced during the same month in
2009.
27. (a) Atacama deserts is famous for its nitrate
deposits. The desert is littered with approximately
170 abandoned nitrate (or saltpetre) mining
towns, almost all of which were shut down decades
after the invention of synthetic nitrate in Germany
at the turn of the 20th century. The towns include
Chacabuco, Humberstone, Santa Laura, Pedro de
Valdivia, Puelma, Mara Elena, and Oficina Anita.
31. (b) The iron and steel industry is largely
concentrated in the Kuzbas region because of the
availability of coal. The Kuznetsk Basin (often
abbreviated as Kuzbass or Kuzbas,) in southwestern
Siberia, Russia, is one of the largest coal mining
areas in the world, covering an area of around
27,000 square miles (70,000 km2). It lies in
the Kuznetsk Depression between Tomsk and
Novokuznetsk in the basin of the Tom River.
32. (c) Uzbekistan is the highest producer of Uranium
in Asia. Uzbekistan has considerable mineral
deposits, including uranium. It is the worlds
seventh-ranking uranium supplier, and is expanding
production.
34. (d) Brazil is the greatest producer of bauxite in the
world. Para state dominates bauxite production in
Brazil accounting for 85% of overall output, while
Minas Gerais produces the countrys remainder.
35. (a) Liverpool is important for ship building.
Liverpool has been a shipbuilding centre for more
than 200 years, developing alongside its growth
from a small port to a major centre of commerce.
38. (c) Great Lakes region of North America is
famous for the mining of Iron ore. The Great
Lakes is a collection of freshwater lakes located in
northeastern North America, on the CanadaUnited
States border, which connect to the Atlantic Ocean
through the Saint Lawrence Seaway and the Great
Lakes Waterway.
39. (b) Argon oil is native to mosocco and is used in
high-end, personal care products and as a heart-
healthy gourmet product.
43. (c) The major agricultural region of the world
were first delineated by D. Whittlesey. One of
the most satisfactory classifications of agricul
tural regions in the world was proposed by D.
Whittlesey in 1936. Whittlesey employed five
criteria to classify agricultural regions in the world:
(a) crop and livestock combination; (b) intensity
of land use; (c) processing and marketing of farm
produce; (d) degree of mechanisation; and (e) types
and associations of buildings and other structures
associated with agriculture.

48. (a) Temperate grassland is called the bread basket
of the world. The roots of perennial grasses usually
penetrate far into the soil, and grassland soil tends
to be deep and fertile. In North America, the prairies
were once inhabited by huge herds of bison and
pronghorns, which were hunted by wolves, bears,
and other predators. These herds are almost gone
now, and most of the prairies have been converted
into the richest agricultural region on earth.
49. (a) The largest producer and supplier of sugar in
the world is Brazil. Brazil led the world in sugarcane
production in 2011 with a 734 000 TMT harvest.
53. (c) The largest producer of Silver in the world
is Mexico. Mexico was the worlds largest silver
producing country in 2012, followed by China,
Peru, Australia and Russia.
54. (d) The Broken Hill of Australia is famous for the
mining of zinc, lead and silver. Broken Hill is an
isolated mining city in the far west of outback New
South Wales, Australia. The worlds largest mining
company, BHP Billiton, has roots in the town.
55. (c) USA is the largest producer of Geo-thermal
energy in the world.
56. (a) The largest exporter of fish in the world is
Norway. The fishing industry is the second largest
export sector in Norway after oil and gas. The
industry includes the traditional fishing, as well as
fish farming and processing of all kinds of seafood
at onshore facilities.
58. (b) The largest reserve of coal in the world are
found in USA. The United States holds the worlds
largest estimated recoverable reserves of coal and is
a net exporter of coal.
60. (c) The largest producer of Milk in the world is
India. With total milk production in India in 2011-
12 reaching 127.9 million tonnes, India is the largest
milk producing country in the world.
61. (a) Katanga province of Zaire is famous for
copper. Copper mining is an important part of the
economy of Katanga province.
64. (c) The largest producer of coconut in the world is
Philippines. Coconut production plays an important
role in the national economy of the Philippines.
Geography || B-23
According to figures published in December 2009
by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the
United Nations, it is the worlds largest producer
of coconuts, producing 19,500,000 tonnes in
2009. Production in the Philippines is generally
concentrated in medium-sized farms.
66. (a) Millets and Rice are grown mostly under
subsistence farming. Subsistence agriculture is self-
sufficiency farming in which the farmers focus on
growing enough food to feed themselves and their
families. The typical subsistence farm has a range of
crops and animals needed by the family to feed and
clothe themselves during the year.
67. (a) Teak and Sal are products of tropical dry
deciduous forests. The tropical and subtropical dry
broad leaf forest biome, also known as tropical
dry forest, is located at tropical and subtropical
latitudes. Though these forests occur in climates
that are warm year-round, and may receive several
hundred centimeters of rain per year, they have long
dry seasons which last several months and vary with
geographic location. These seasonal droughts have
great impact on all living things in the forest.
70. (d) Dapog method of rice nursery was developed
in Philippines. The dapog method of raising
seedling originated in the Philippines and is now,
fairly common in South and Southeast. The dapog
nursery is constructed for the raising of seedlings
without any soil whatsoever. Rice seeds contain
sufficient food in the endosperm to permit the
young seedling to grow for up to 14 days without
receiving any outside nutrients except air, water,
and sunlight. Consequently, it is possible to nurse
seedlings without actually sowing them in soil.
74. (a) Temperature is the most critical factor
determining plant growth. The plants can not grow
in areas of very low temperature even though
moisture may be available aplenty. However, if
temperature is favourable, xerophytic plants may
grow even under conditions moisture deficiency.
93. (d) The first cotton textile mill of India was
established at Fort Gloster near Kolkata.
 4 World Geography
1. The worlds most active volcano is
(a) Cotapaxi (b) Fujiyama
(c) Kilauea (d) Vesuvius
2. Drakensberg is a mountain of
(a) Botswana (b) Namibia
(c) South Africa (d) Zambia
3. The equator passes through
(a) Cameroon (b) Costa Rica
(c) Kenya (d) Venezuela
4. The deepest lake of the world is
(a) Pushkar lake (b) Superior lake
(c) Victoria lake (d) Baikal lake
5. The deepest trenches of the ocean are found in
(a) Indian ocean (b) Pacific ocean
(c) Arctic ocean (d) Atlantic ocean
6. Mauna Loa is an active volcano of
(a) Alaska (b) Hawaii
(c) Italy (d) Japan
7. The international Acid Rain information centre
has been set up in
(a) Berlin (b) Oslo
(c) Osaka (d) Manchester
8. The most urbanized country of the world is
(a) Germany (b) Japan
(c) Singapore (d) U.S.A.
9. The Death Valley in South California, USA is an
example of
(a) Anticlinal valley (b) Synclinal valley
(c) Antecedent valley (d) Rift valley
10. Which of the following seas has the highest
salinity?
(a) Caspian sea (b) Mediterranean sea
(c) Red sea (d) Dead sea
11. Which one of the following islands of the East
Indies is divided into three countries?
(a) Borneo (b) Celebes
(c) New Guinea (d) Timor
12. 90 E Ridge lies in
(a) Atlantic ocean
(b) Indian ocean
(c) Pacific ocean
(d) Mediterranean ocean
13. The inter section point of the Prime Meridian and
the Equator lies in
(a) Atlantic ocean (b) Ghana
(c) Morocco (d) Pacific ocean
14. The clouds of the highest altitude are
(a) Altocumulus (b) Altostratus
(c) Cumulus (d) Cirrostratus
15. The Black Mountains are located in
(a) Canada (b) Norway
(c) Switzerland (d) U.S.A.
16. The driest area of the Earth is
(a) Arabian desert (b) Atacama desert
(c) Gobi desert (d) Thar desert
17. Which river of Africa crosses the Tropic of
Capricorn twice?
(a) Congo (b) Limpopo
(c) Niger (d) Zambezi

18. Which one of the following is the most populous
Islamic country of the world?
(a) Bangladesh (b) Egypt
(c) Indonesia (d) Pakistan
19. What are the date/dates on which day and night
are equal in both the hemispheres?
(a) June 21
(b) December 22
(c) March 21 and September 23
(d) June 21 and December 22
20. The Groups of people inhabiting Asiatic Tundra
is known as
(a) Vedda (b) Kirghiz
(c) Samoyed (d) Guacho
21. The temperature increase is more marked
in northern Pacific Ocean as an influence of
Kuroshivo current in
(a) Summer (b) Winter
(c) Autumn (d) Spring
22. Who of the following propounded the concept of
primate city?
(a) D.M. Smith (b) A.E. Smailes
(c) Griffith Taylor (d) Mark Jefferson
23. Which of the following countries meets its largest
electricity supply from atomic energy?
(a) Slovenia (b) Japan
(c) France (d) Sweden
24. Which of the following parts of Australia is
characterised by high rainfall?
(a) New south Wales (b) Tasmania
(c) South Australia (d) Western Australia
25. Which one of the following is located in South
Africa?
(a) Veld (b) Pampas
(c) Downs (d) Steppes
26. Which one of the following is not related to
production of precipitation?
(a) Diabatic process (b) Adiabatic process
(c) Ascent of Air (d) Convergence of air
27. The relatively moderate climate of the British
Isles is caused by
(a) Labrador current (b) Canary current
(c) Gulf stream (d) North Atlantic Drift
Geography || B-25
28. Who among the following is famous as father of
Modern Political Geography
(a) H. Mackinder (b) G. Taylor
(c) F. Ratzel (d) R. Hartshorne
29. The Sargasso sea is a part of the
(a) North Atlantic ocean
(b) South Atlantic ocean
(c) Indian ocean
(d) Arctic ocean
30. The demographic transition model was
propounded by
(a) J. Clarke (b) F.W. Notestien
(c) G.T. Trewartha (d) J.J. Spengler
31. In which of the following the west European type
of climate is found?
(a) British Columbia (b) California
(c) North Chile (d) Algeria
32. The Yellow stone National Park is located in
(a) Canada (b) Brazil
(c) U.S.A. (d) France
33. Which one of the following countries does not
share the island of Borneo
(a) Brunei (b) Indonesia
(c) Malaysia (d) Philippines
34. Which one of the following countries does not
border the Caspian Sea?
(a) Azerbaijan (b) Iran
(c) Iraq (d) Kazakhstan
35. Which type of soil is found in the coniferous
forests?
(a) Chestnut (b) Podsol
(c) Chernozem (d) Regur
36. Singapore Island is separated from the Malay
Peninsula by
(a) Malacca strait (b) Johore strait
(c) Sunda strait (d) Molucca strait
37. Which one of the following is the busiest ocean
route in the world?
(a) Mediterranean Suez Route
(b) South Atlantic Route
(c) North Atlantic Route
(d) Pacific Ocean Route
B-26 || World Geography
38. Which one of the following cities of the USA is
not located along the shores of the Great Lakes?
(a) Duluth (b) Pittsburg
(c) Chicago (d) Detroit
39. The continental shelf is marked by an isobath line
of
(a) 100 metres (b) 200 metres
(c) 300 metres (d) 350 metres
40. The continents with the highest and the lowest
density of population are respectively
(a) Europe and Africa
(b) Africa and Asia
(c) Asia and Oceania
(d) Europe and Oceania
41. Ebony and Mahogany trees are associated with
(a) Coniferrous forests
(b) Deciduous forests
(c) Tropical Monsoon forests
(d) Tropical Evergreen forests
42. The line drawn over a map joining points having
similar amounts of salinity is known as
(a) Isotherm (b) Isohyet
(c) Isohaline (d) Isogone
43. Isopleth depicting the same mean value of sun
shine is termed
(a) Isonephs (b) Isorums
(c) Isohels (d) Isohyets
44. The sea of Okhotsk is enclosed by the Kurille
Islands, Northern Japan and a long peninsula.
What is the name of this peninsula?
(a) Kamachatka (b) Sakhalin
(c) Hokaido (d) Korea
45. Which one of the following mountains is not built
during the Tertiary period?
(a) Rocky Mountain
(b) Atlas Mountain
(c) Andes Mountain
(d) Aravalli Mountain
46. Which of the following countries is occupied
entirely by migrant population?
(a) Malaysia (b) Australia
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Indonesia
47. Which of the following two gulfs are connected
by Hormuz Strait?
(a) Persian GulfGulf of Oman
(b) Persian GulfGulf of Aden
(c) Gulf of AdenGulf of Oman
(d) Persian GulfGulf of Aquaba
48. Alexandria is a port city of which of the following
countries?
(a) Greece (b) Egypt
(c) Italy (d) Turkey
49. Which one of the following is a Manchester town
of Brazil?
(a) Recife (b) Salvador
(c) Sao paulo (d) Rio Grande
50. Which is the longest river of Europe?
(a) Danube (b) Volga
(c) Dnieper (d) Rhine
51. In which sea the river Don flows in?
(a) Caspian sea (b) Black sea
(c) Sea of Azov (d) Baltic sea
52. Gaza strip lies along the coast of
(a) Dead sea (b) Mediterranean sea
(c) Persian sea (d) Red sea
53. The Kiel canal connects
(a) Caribbean sea and Pacific Ocean
(b) Bering sea and Chukchi sea
(c) Red sea and Mediterranean sea
(d) Baltic sea and North sea
54. The warm and dry wind Berg blows in
(a) Asian Deserts (b) South Africa
(c) Western Australia (d) Patagonia Deserts
55. Foehn is a local wind of
(a) China (b) Japan
(c) Korea (d) Switzerland
56. The most highly developed inland waterways are
found in
(a) Asia (b) Europe
(c) North America (d) South America

57. The percentage of forest cover is the highest in
(a) Africa (b) Asia
(c) North America (d) South America
58. Which of the following is the highest mountain
peak of the U.S.A.?
(a) Albert (b) Kilauea
(c) Mauna Lao (d) Mc Kinley
59. What is meant by the term Midnight Sun?
(a) Twilight
(b) Rising sun
(c) Very bright moon
(d) Sun shining in the polar circle for long time.
60. The water fall Victoria is associated with the
river.
(a) Amazon (b) Missouri
(c) St. Lawrence (d) Zambezi
61. The Great Barrier Reef is located on the coast of
(a) Central Australia
(b) West Australia
(c) East Australia
(d) South Australia
62. Which of the following two countries are
separated by the 49th parallel?
(a) France and Germany
(b) USA and Canada
(c) North Korea and South Korea
(d) Mexico and USA
63. Which one of the following volcanoes is called
the Light House of the Mediterranean?
(a) Etna (b) Vesuvius
(c) Kilimanjaro (d) Stromboli
64. International Date line is
(a) equator (c) Indonesia (d) Japan
(b) 0 longitude
(c) 90 east longitude (a) Atacama desert (b) Gobi desert
(d) 180 east-west longitude
65. What is the name of the strait where Adams
Bridge is situated?
(a) Bering strait (b) Cook strait
(c) Palk strait (d) Taiwan strait
66. Which one among the following is not a Baltic
nation?
Geography || B-27
(a) Lativia (b) Slovakia
(c) Lithuania (d) Estonia
67. Doldrum is characterized by
(a) Uniform high pressure
(b) Uniform low pressure
(c) High wind velocity
(d) High humidity
68. Mount Fujiyama, the highest point in Japan is in
(a) Hokkaido (b) Kyushu
(c) Shikoku (d) Honshu
69. Strait of hormuz lies between
(a) Black Sea and Marmara sea
(b) Persian sea and Gulf of Oman
(c) Arabian sea and Red sea
(d) Red sea and Mediterranean sea
70. Africas highest mountain peak Mt. Kilimanjaro
lies in
(a) Kenya (b) Malawi
(c) Tanzania (d) Zambia
71. The coldest place on the earth is
(a) Halifax (b) Chicago
(c) Siachin (d) Verkhoyansk
72. The strait which separates Asia from North
America is
(a) Berring strait (b) Palk strait
(c) Strait of Gibralter (d) Strait of Malacca
73. The wide treeless grassy plains in South America
are called
(a) Selvas (b) Pampas
(c) Prairies (d) Steppes
74. Which country has the highest percentage of its
geographical area under forests?
(a) China (b) India
75. Bushmen tribes are found in
(c) Patagonian desert (d) Kalahari desert
76. The general climate of the equatorial regions is
(a) hot and humid (b) warm and humid
(c) hot and dry (d) highly seasonal
77. To which racial group do the Pygmies belong ?
(a) Negro (b) Negrito
(c) Australoid (d) Bantoo
B-28 || World Geography
78. Tropical cyclones are known as hurricanes in
(a) Philippines (b) Australia
(c) Bay of Bengal (d) West Indies
79. Which among the following is leading commercial
crop of the tropical monsoon regions ?
(a) tea (b) rice
(c) wheat (d) root crops
80. The Santa Anna is local
(a) hot wind in southern California (b) Western Siberia
(b) cold wind in southern California
(c) hot wind in northern California
(d) cold wind in northern California
81. The Burans are the
(a) Cold local winds in mediterranean region
(b) Local hot winds in California
(c) Local cold winds of Siberia
(d) Local hot winds of western Australia
82. The downs are the
(a) River basins in North America
(b) Lowlands in equatorial regions
(c) Temperate grasslands in Australia
(d) Tropical grasslands in Australia
83. Gobi Desert is situated in
(a) Pakistan (b) Arabia
(c) China (d) South Africa
84. The alfalfa is a
(a) food grain (b) fibre crop
(c) fodder crop (d) beverage
85. Sierra Navada Mountains are situated in
(a) Alaska (b) California
(c) Texas (d) Manitoba
86. Name the product in which Canada is a world
leader ?
(a) Beef (b) Paper
(c) Dairy products (d) Wool and furs
87. Disco Island of Greenland has deposits of
(a) Cryolite (b) Silver
(c) Coal (d) Iron ore
88. The Yellowstone National Park is situated in
(a) US (b) Canada
(c) Mexico (d) Panama
89. What is true about Lake Superior ?
(a) It is a lake wholly within US
(b) It is a the largest lake of the world
(c) It is the deepest lake of the world
(d) This lake has been created through fluvial
erosion
90. Chicago is situated on the banks of
(a) Lake Superior (b) Lake Michigan
(c) Lake Ontario (d) Great Slave Lake
91. The Lake Baikal is situated in the region of
(a) European Russia
(c) North eastern part of Russia
(d) Eastern Russia to the north of Mongolia
92. The Sakhalin region is known for its
(a) Fertile land (b) Industrialization
(c) Oil drilling (d) Gold mining
93. In which of the following regions is tea grown ?
(a) Georgia (b) Turkmenia
(c) Kazakhstan (d) Kirgizia
94. What is referred to as the Sorrow of China ?
(a) Taklamakan Desert
(b) Tibetan region
(c) Hwang he rever (d) Nei Mongol
95. Which country is called the Great Britain of the
East ?
(a) India (b) Japan
(c) Korea (d) Russia
96. Which of the following used to be considered a
buffer state?
(a) West Germany (b) Belgium
(c) Switzerland (d) France
97. The Gibralter is a/an
(a) peninsula (b) strait
(c) isthmus (d) river
98. Which country has a highly developed dairy
industry ?
(a) France (b) Germany
(c) Denmark (d) Netherlands
99. Which is called the Emerald Island ?
(a) Britain (b) Ireland
(c) Gibralter (d) Sicily
100. Which region is called the roof of the world ?
(a) Tibet (b) Arctic region
(c) Siberia (d) Mount Everest
 Geography || B-29

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 13. (a) 25. (a) 37. (c) 49. (c) 61. (c) 73. (b) 85. (b) 97. (b)
2. (c) 14. (d) 26. (a) 38. (b) 50. (b) 62. (b) 74. (d) 86. (b) 98. (c)
3. (c) 15. (d) 27. (d) 39. (b) 51. (c) 63. (d) 75. (d) 87. (c) 99. (b)
4. (d) 16. (b) 28. (c) 40. (c) 52. (b) 64. (d) 76. (a) 88. (a) 100. (a)
5. (b) 17. (b) 29. (a) 41. (d) 53. (d) 65. (c) 77. (b) 89. (b)
6. (b) 18. (c) 30. (b) 42. (c) 54. (b) 66. (b) 78. (d) 90. (b)
7. (b) 19. (c) 31. (a) 43. (c) 55. (d) 67. (b) 79. (a) 91. (d)
8. (c) 20. (c) 32. (c) 44. (a) 56. (b) 68. (d) 80. (a) 92. (c)
9. (d) 21. (b) 33. (d) 45. (d) 57. (d) 69. (b) 81. (c) 93. (a)
10. (d) 22. (d) 34. (c) 46. (b) 58. (d) 70. (c) 82. (c) 94. (c)
11. (a) 23. (c) 35. (b) 47. (a) 59. (d) 71. (d) 83. (c) 95. (b)
12. (b) 24. (b) 36. (b) 48. (b) 60. (d) 72. (a) 84. (c) 96. (c)

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) The worlds most active volcano is Kilauea.
Increasing volcanic activity has been observed at
one of the worlds most active volcanoes, Kilauea
Volcano in Hawaii Island, after a new vent sent lava
shooting 65 feet in the air.
2. (c) Drakensberg is a mountain range of South
Africa. The Drakensberg is the highest mountain
range in Southern Africa, rising to 3,482 metres
(11,424 ft) in height. Its geological history lends it
a distinctive character amongst the mountain ranges
of the world.
3. (c) The Equator passes through Kenya.
4. (d) The deepest lake of the world is Baikal lake.
Lake Baikal is the most voluminous freshwater lake
in the world, containing roughly 20% of the worlds
unfrozen surface fresh water and at 1,642 m (5,387
ft), the deepest. It is also among the clearest of all
lakes, and thought to be the worlds oldest lake in 25
million years. It is the 7th largest lake in the world
by surface area.
6. (b) Mauna Loa is an active volcano of Hawaii.
Mauna Loa is one of five volcanoes that form the
Island of Hawaii in the U.S. state of Hawaii in the
Pacific Ocean.
8. (c) The most urbanized country of the world
is Singapore. Singapore, officially the Republic
of Singapore, is a sovereign city-state and island
country in Southeast Asia. It lies off the southern
tip of the Malay Peninsula and is 137 kilometres
north of the equator.
9. (d) The Death Valley in South California, USA is
an example of Rift valley. Death Valley is a desert
valley located in Eastern California. Situated within
the Mojave Desert, it is the lowest and driest area
in North America, and currently the hottest in the
world.
10. (d) Dead sea has the highest salinity. The Dead
Sea is 306 m (1,004 ft) deep, the deepest hypersaline
lake in the world. With 34.2% salinity (in 2011), it
is also one of the worlds saltiest bodies of water.
11. (a) Borneo island of the East Indies is divided
into three countries. Borneo is the third largest
island in the world and the largest island of Asia.
At the geographic centre of Maritime Southeast
Asia, in relation to major Indonesian islands, it is
located north of Java, west of Sulawesi, and east of
Sumatra.
B-30 || World Geography
12. (b) 90E Ridge lies in Indian Ocean. The Ninety
East Ridge (also rendered as Ninetyeast Ridge, 90E
Ridge or 90E Ridge) is a linear, age-progressive
seamount chain in the Indian Ocean and is named
for its near-parallel strike along the 90th meridian.
It is approximately 5,000 kilometres (3,100 mi) in
length and can be traced topographically from the
Bay of Bengal southward towards the Southeast
Indian Ridge (SEIR), though the feature continues
to the north where it is hidden beneath the sediments
of the Bengal Fan. The ridge extends between
latitudes 33S and 17N and has an average width
of 200 km.
14. (d) The clouds of the highest altitude are
Cirrostratus. Cirrostratus cloud is a high, thin,
generally uniform stratiform genus-type, composed
of ice-crystals. It is difficult to detect and is capable
of forming halos when the cloud takes the form of
thin cirrostratus nebulosus. The cloud has a fibrous
texture with no halos if it is thicker cirrostratus
fibratus.
15. (d) The Black Mountains are located in USA. The
Black Mountains are a mountain range in western
North Carolina, in the southeastern United States.
16. (b) The driest area of the earth is Atacama-desert.
The Atacama Desert is a plateau in South America,
covering a 1,000-kilometre strip of land on the
Pacific coast, west of the Andes mountains. It is the
driest hot desert in the world.
17. (b) Limpopo, River of Africa crosses the tropic of
Capricorn twice. The Limpopo River rises in central
southern Africa, and flows generally eastwards to
the Indian Ocean.
20. (c) The group of people inhabiting Asiatic Tundra
is known as Samoyed. The Samoyedic people are
those groups that speak Samoyedic languages,
which are part of the Uralic family. They are a
linguistic grouping, not an ethnic or cultural one.
21. (b) The temperature increase is more marked in
northern pacific ocean as an influence of Kuroshivo
current in winter.
22. (d) Mark Jefferson propounded the concept
of primate city. Mark Jefferson was the chief
cartographer of the American Delegation to the
Paris Peace Conference in 1919. He was also the
head of the geography department at Michigan State
Normal College, now Eastern Michigan University,
from 1901-1939.
25. (a) Veld is located in South Africa. Afrikaans
field name given to various types of open country
in Southern Africa that is used for pasturage and
farmland.
30. (b) The demographic transition model was
propounded by F.W. Notestion. Frank Wallace
Notestein (August 16, 1902 February 19, 1983)
was an American demographer who contributed
significantly to the development of the science.
He was the founding director of the Office of
Population Research at Princeton University, and
later president of the Population Council. He was
also the first director of the Population Division of
the United Nations, 19461948.
32. (c) The yellow stone National Park is located in
USA. Yellow Stone National Park is a national park
located primarily in the U.S. state of Wyoming,
although it also extends into Montana and Idaho.
It was established by the U.S. Congress and signed
into law by President Ulysses S. Grant on March 1,
1872.
35. (b) Podzol type of soil is found in the coniferous
forests. In soil science, podzols are the typical soils
of coniferous, or boreal forests. They are also the
typical soils of eucalypt forests and heathlands in
southern Australia, while in Western Europe podzols
develop on heathland, which is often a construct of
human interference through grazing and burning.
41. (d) Ebony and Mahogany trees are associated
with Tropical evergreen forests. Tropical evergreen
forests are usually found in areas receiving more
than 200 cm of rainfall and having a temperature of
15 C to 30 C. They occupy about seven per cent
of the Earths land surface and harbour more than
half of the planets terrestrial plants and animals.
Tropical evergreen forests are dense, multi-layered,
and harbour many types of plants and animals.

45. (d) Aravalli Mountain is not built during the tertiary
period. The Aravalli Range literally meaning line
of peaks, is a range of mountains in western India
running approximately 800 km in a northeastern
direction across Indian states of Gujarat, Rajasthan,
Haryana and Delhi.
48. (b) Alexandria is a port city of Egypt. Alexandria
is the second largest city and the second largest
metropolitan area in Egypt after Greater Cairo
by size and number of population of 4.1 million,
extending about 32 km (20 mi) along the coast of
the Mediterranean Sea in the north central part of
the country.
52. (b) Gaza strip lies along the coast of mediterranean
sea. The Gaza Strip is a self-governing entity on the
eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea that borders
Egypt on the southwest and Israel on the east and
north.
53. (d) The Kiel canal connects Baltic sea and North
sea. The Kiel Canal, known as the Kaiser-Wilhelm-
Kanal until 1948, is a 98-kilometre long canal in
the German state of Schleswig-Holstein. The canal
links the North Sea at Brunsbttel to the Baltic Sea
at Kiel-Holtenau
55. (d) Foehn is a local wind of Switzerland. A foehn
is a type of dry, warm, down-slope wind that occurs
in the lee (downwind side) of a mountain range. It is
a rain shadow wind that results from the subsequent
adiabatic warming of air that has dropped most of its
moisture on windward slopes (see orographic lift).
58. (d) Mc Kinley is the highest mountain peak of the
USA. Mount Mc Kinley or Denali is the highest
mountain peak in North America, with a summit
elevation of 20,237 feet above sea level. At some
18,000 feet, the base to peak rise is considered the
largest of any mountain situated entirely above sea
level.
Geography || B-31
61. (c) The Great Barrier Reef is located on the coast
of East Australia. The Great Barrier Reef is the
worlds largest coral reef system composed of over
2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching for
over 2,600 kilometres over an area of approximately
344,400 square kilometres.
63. (d) Stromboli is called the lighthouse of the
Mediterranean. Stromboli is a small island in
the Tyrrhenian Sea, off the north coast of Sicily,
containing one of the three active volcanoes in Italy.
70. (c) Africas highest mountain peak mt. Kilimanjaro
lies in Tanzania. Kilimanjaro, with its three volcanic
cones, Kibo, Mawenzi, and Shira, is a dormant
volcanic mountain in Kilimanjaro National Park,
Kilimanjaro Region, Tanzania.
71. (d) The coldest place on the earth is Verkhoyansk.
Verkhoyansk is a town in Verkhoyansky District of
the Sakha Republic, Russia, located on the Yana
River near the Arctic Circle, 675 kilometers from
Yakutsk.
73. (b) The wide treeless grassy plains in South
America are called Pampas. The Pampas are fertile
South American lowlands, covering more than
750,000 km2 (289,577 sq mi), that include the
Argentine provinces of Buenos Aires, La Pampa,
Santa Fe, Entre Ros and Crdoba, most of Uruguay,
and the southernmost Brazilian State, Rio Grande
do Sul.
75. (d) Bushmen tribes are found in Kalahari desert.
The Kalahari Desert is a large semi-arid sandy
savannah in southern Africa extending 900,000
square kilometres, covering much of Botswana and
parts of Namibia and South Africa.
95. (b) Japan is called the Great Britain of East due
to a high level of industrial development in this
country.
 5 Geography of India
1. The neighbouring country of India which has the
largest area is
(a) Bangladesh (b) China
(c) Pakistan (d) Nepal
2. Which one of the following countries has the
longest international boundary with India?
(a) China (b) Pakistan
(c) Bangladesh (d) Myanmar
3. Among the following Union Territories of India,
which one has the largest size?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar (a) Arunanchal Pradesh
(b) Puducherry
(c) Daman and Diu (c) Sikkim
(d) Chandigarh
4. Which foreign country is closest to Andaman
Island?
(a) Indonesia (b) Myanmar
(c) Thailand (d) Srilanka
5. Doddabetta Peak is located in the
(a) Anaimalai (b) Mahendragiri
(c) Nilgiris (d) Shevaroys
6. The Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet at
the
(a) Cardamom Hills (b) Anaimalai Hills
(c) Nilgiri Hills (d) Palani Hills
7. The Himalyas are approximately kilometer long
(a) 2000 (b) 2500
(c) 3000 (d) 1500
8. The coast that belongs to Tamilnadu is known as
(a) Konkan coast (b) Malabar coast
(c) Coromandel coast (d) Canara coast
9. Ten degree channel is between
(a) Little Andaman and Car Nicobar
(b) Middle Andaman and little Andaman
(c) Alaska and Russia
(d) North Korea and South Korea
10. Which of the following latitudes passes through
India?
(a) Arctic circle (b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Tropic of Cancer (d) Equator
11. Nathula Pass is in
(b) Nagaland
(d) Manipur
12. Red cliff line demarcates the boundary between
(a) India and China
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and Afghanistan
(d) India and Bangladesh
13. Which of the following rivers flows from south to
north?
(a) Son (b) Krishna
(c) Mahanadi (d) Ganga
14. Which one of the following rivers in India has
been declared as the National River?
(a) Ganga (b) Yamuna
(c) Krishna (d) Son
15. Which of the following rivers is not the tributary
of Yamuna?
(a) Chambal (b) Betwa
(c) Ken (d) Gandak

16. The largest delta of the world is
(a) Amazon basin (b) Congo basin
(c) Sundervan delta (d) Godavari basin
17. Which one of the following rivers of India does
not make a delta?
(a) Ganga (b) Narmada
(c) Mahanadi (d) Kaveri
18. The river also known as Tsangpo in Tibet is
(a) Brahmaputra (b) Indus
(c) Sutlej (d) Teesta
19. An important river of the Indian desert is?
(a) Luni (b) Narmada
(c) Tapi (d) Jhelum
20. The term Regur is used for
(a) Alluvial soil (b) Black soil
(c) Laterite soil (d) Yellow soil
21. In the soil pH 10, the soil is
(a) Alkali (b) Saline
(c) Acidic (d) Neutral
22. Which one of the following soils is suitable for
cotton production?
(a) Regur (b) Red
(c) Bhangar (d) Khadar
23. Where in India is the Jim Corbet National Park
located?
(a) Uttarakhand 36. The mineral oil was first discovered in India in
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Madhya Pradesh (c) Ankleshwar (d) Digboi
(d) Bihar
24. Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary is in the state of
(a) Assam (b) Tamilnadu
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Kerala
25. The only sanctuary where Kashmir stag is found
is
(a) Kanha (b) Dachigam
(c) Manas (d) Nanda devi
26. Kaziranga national park is famous for
(a) Rhinoceros (b) Tiger
(c) Lion (d) Crocodile
27. Tree cover is maximum in
(a) East Deccan (b) Northern Plains
(c) West Coast (d) East Coast
Geography || B-33
28. Project Tiger was launched in
(a) 1973 (b) 1980
(c) 1982 (d) 1984
29. Kal Baisakhi gives rainfall to
(a) Rajasthan (b) West Bengal
(c) Punjab (d) Goa
30. The retreating Monsoon gives rainfall to
(a) Gujarat (b) Goa
(c) Tamilnadu (d) Maharashtra
31. Which one of the following is the wettest place in
India?
(a) Udhagamandalam (b) Mahabaleshwar
(c) Cherrapunji (d) Mawsynram
32. South-West monsoon reaches Kerala in
(a) End of May (b) Mid-June
(c) Last June (d) First weak of July
33. South-West monsoon contributes to Indias total
rainfall up to the extent of
(a) 80-90% (b) 50-55%
(c) 100% (d) 75%
34. India is the largest world producer of
(a) Cotton (b) Milk
(c) Wheat (d) Rice
35. The ore of Aluminium is
(a) Bauxite (b) Chromium
(c) Mica (d) Manganese
(a) Naharkotiya (b) Mumbai
37. Which type of rocks in India produces
manganese?
(a) Gondwana (b) Dharwar
(c) Vindhya (d) Tertiary
38. Which one of the following is known as the Pearl
city?
(a) Kandla (b) Tuticorin
(c) Hyderabad (d) Kochi
39. What is Khetri in Rajasthan famous for?
(a) Copper (b) Mica
(c) Bauxite (d) Limestone
40. The alluvial soil found along the banks of the
rivers in the Ganga plain is called
(a) Khadar (b) Bhangar
(c) Bhur (d) Loess
B-34 || Geography of India
41. The state of India having almost monopoly in the
production of chromite is
(a) Bihar (b) Orissa
(c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra
42. Kalpsar project for the supply of sweet water is
located in
(a) Haryana (b) Karnataka
(c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat
43. The Ganga action plan was initiated in
(a) 1984 (b) 1985
(c) 1986 (d) 1990
44. In India more than half of the production of
soyabean comes from
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan
45. The Deccan trap was formed by the
(a) Dharwar Vulcanicity
(b) Mesozoic Vulcanicity
(c) Cretaceous Vulcanicity
(d) Paleozoic Vulcanicity
46. The biggest island of the Indian Ocean is
(a) Maldives (b) Madagascar
(c) Lakshadweep (d) Sumatra
47. The largest reserve of crude oil in India is found
in
(a) Assam (b) Gujarat
(c) Eastern offshore (d) Western offshore
48. The leading coffee producing state in India is
(a) Tamilnadu (b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh
49. The term operation flood refers to
(a) Flood control (c) Wells and Tubewells
(b) Milk production
(c) Population control 60. Bhakhara dam is situated on which river?
(d) Foodgrain production
50. Jhum is
(a) A tribe in the North-East of India
(b) The type of cultivation
(c) A Folk dance
(d) The name of a river
51. Yellow Revolution is associated with the
production of
(a) Poultry (b) Oil seeds
(c) Sunflower (d) Gold
52. Which of the following is a biodiesel plant?
(a) Jatropha (b) Maize
(c) Pongamia (d) Sunflower
53. With which crop has green revolution been
associated?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat
(c) Pulses (d) Sugarcane
54. Which one of the Indians state/union Territories
is having lowest sex ratio in 2011?
(a) Haryana
(b) Daman and Diu
(c) Punjab
(d) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
55. Which one of the following National Highway is
the longest in India?
(a) NH 2 (b) NH 6
(c) NH 7 (d) NH 8
56. Which one of the following is not an ancient city
of India?
(a) Varanasi (b) Ujjain
(c) Kanchipuram (d) Hyderabad
57. The highest coconut producing state in India is
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
58. Which one of the following states has higher
potentials for solar energy?
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Rajasthan (d) Odisha
59. Which one of the major source of irrigation in
India?
(a) Canals
(b) Tanks
(d) Other sources
(a) Ravi (b) Chenab
(c) Jhelum (d) Sutlej
61. Which state has per hectare highest consumption
of fertilizers in India?
(a) Punjab (b) Gujarat
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Goa
62. The cotton textile industry is located in western
India, what is the main reason for it?
(a) Cotton belt (b) Skilled labour
(c) Power (d) All of these

63. In which state Kandla Port is situated?
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Orissa (d) Gujarat
64. The dormant volcano of India is
(a) Sandwich (b) Keating point
(c) Barrendwip (d) Ellice
65. The second highest peak of the world located in
Himalayas is
(a) Nandadevi (b) Dhoulagiri
(c) Karnet (d) K2
66. Which state of India shares its boundaries with
six other states?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Jharkhand
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) Karnataka
67. The Kishenganj Power project is in
(a) Orissa 77. Tehri Dam Project is situated on the confluence
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat (a) Alaknanda Mandakini
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
68. As per 2011 census data, the child sex ratio has
come down from 927 to
(a) 904 (b) 919
(c) 922 (d) 925
69. As per 2011 census data, the sex ratio is
(a) 943 (b) 940
(c) 925 (d) 920
70. Which state of India tops in literacy?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Delhi
(d) Uttar Pradesh
71. Name the state where density of population is the
lowest
(a) Meghalaya (a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Mizoram
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Sikkim
72. What is the percentage of literacy in India, as per
2011 census data:
(a) 73% (b) 78%
(c) 70% (d) 68%
Geography || B-35
73. The Konkan-Railways connects
(a) Goa-Mangalore
(b) Roha-Mangalore
(c) Kanyakumari-Mangalore
(d) Kanyakumari-Mumbai
74. Which one of the following states of India is
surrounded by Bangladesh in three sides?
(a) Mizoram (b) Meghalaya
(c) Tripura (d) West Bengal
75. Which is not food crop from the following?
(a) Rice (b) Tea
(c) Maize (d) Barley
76. Indian Forest Research Institute is situated in
(a) Shimla (b) Nainital
(c) Jammu (d) Dehradun
of which of the two following rivers?
(b) Bhagirathi Bhilangha
(c) Yamuna Tons
(d) None of these
78. Which river is not in existence at present?
(a) Tons (b) Saraswati
(c) Ganga (d) Yamuna
79. Jadugoda is famous for which of the following?
(a) Iron-ore (b) Manganese
(c) Gold (d) Uranium
80. Which of the following is a part of Eastern coast?
(a) Coromandel coast
(b) Konkan coast
(c) Malabar coast
(d) None of these
81. Which state of India has the largest area ?
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
82. Which of the following cities has an astronomical
observatory ?
(a) Simla (b) Jaipur
(c) Amritsar (d) Hyderabad
B-36 || Geography of India
83. What is the other name of the highest range in the
Western Ghats ?
(a) Pir Panjal (b) Siwalik range
(c) Sahyadris (d) Namcha Barwa
84. The longest beach of India is situated at
(a) Mumbai (b) Chennai
(c) Mangalore (d) Tuticorin
85. What is the name given to the foothills zone of
Himalayas?
(a) Inner Himalayas
(b) Central Himalayas
(c) Middle Himalayas
(d) Siwalik
86. In which part of India is Dandakaranaya situated ?
(a) Northern (b) Eastern
(c) Central (d) Western
87. With which country does MacMahon Line form
Indias boundary ?
(a) Pakistan (b) Afganistan
(c) China (d) Bangladesh
88. In which state does most part of Vidarbha region
lie ?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
89. The highest range of the Himalayan system is the
(a) Central Himalayas (b) Outer Himalayas
(c) Middle Himalayas (d) Trans Himalayas
90. The Mt. Everest is situated in the region of
(a) Assam Himalayas (b) Kumaon Himalayas
(c) Nepal Himalayas (d) Punjab Himalayas
91. The southernmost point in Indian territory is
(a) Indira point (b) Gandhi Point
(c) Nehru Point (d) Mountbatom Point
92. Which of the major rivers of India does not form
a delta?
(a) Cauvery (b) Godavari
(c) Krishna (d) Narmada
93. The term khadar means
(a) New alluvial soils (b) Dry sandy soils
(c) Old alluvial soils (d) Semi black soils
94. The Raman Peak is situated in
(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Siwaliks
(d) Zaskar Range
95. The famous Sambhar Lake is situated in
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat
(c) West Bengal (d) Orissa
96. The highest peak of south India is
(a) Dodabeta (b) Annaimudi
(c) Mahendragiri (d) Yercaud
97. In which range is the Nathu La Pass situated ?
(a) Himalayas (b) Sahyadris
(c) Vindhyas (d) Karakoram
98. Lakhimpur is famous for
(a) Heavy rainfall (b) Petroleum reserves
(c) Monazite reserves (d) Project Tiger
99. The Badrinaths situated on the banks of river
(a) Ganga (b) Bhagirathi
(c) Alakananda (d) Gandak
100. Ganga is a result of the confluence of rivers .
(a) Bhagirathi and Alakananda at Dev Prayag
(b) Bhagirathi and Alakananda at Karan Prayag
(c) Bhagirathi and Alakananda at Gangotri
(d) Bhagirathi and Alakananda at Rudra Prayag
 Geography || B-37

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (c) 21. (a) 31. (d) 41. (b) 51. (b) 61. (a) 71. (c) 81. (d) 91. (a)
2. (c) 12. (b) 22. (a) 32. (a) 42. (d) 52. (a) 62. (d) 72. (a) 82. (b) 92. (d)
3. (a) 13. (a) 23. (a) 33. (a) 43. (c) 53. (b) 63. (d) 73. (a) 83. (c) 93. (a)
4. (a) 14. (a) 24. (a) 34. (b) 44. (b) 54. (b) 64. (c) 74. (c) 84. (b) 94. (b)
5. (c) 15. (d) 25. (b) 35. (a) 45. (c) 55. (c) 65. (d) 75. (b) 85. (d) 95. (a)
6. (c) 16. (c) 26. (a) 36. (d) 46. (b) 56. (d) 66. (c) 76. (b) 86. (b) 96. (b)
7. (b) 17. (b) 27. (c) 37. (b) 47. (d) 57. (d) 67. (d) 77. (b) 87. (c) 97. (a)
8. (c) 18. (a) 28. (a) 38. (b) 48. (c) 58. (c) 68. (b) 78. (b) 88. (d) 98. (b)
9. (a) 19. (a) 29. (b) 39. (a) 49. (b) 59. (c) 69. (a) 79. (d) 89. (a) 99. (c)
10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (c) 40. (a) 50. (b) 60. (d) 70. (a) 80. (a) 90. (c) 100. (a)

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Area: 9,706,961 km. With an area of about 9.6
million km, the Peoples Republic of China is the
3rd largest country in total area behind Russia and
Canada, and very similar to the United States.
2. (c) Bangladesh and India share a border of
2,429 miles. The Bangladeshi Divisions of Dhaka,
Khulna, Rajshahi, Rangpur, Sylhet and Chittagong,
along with the Indian states of West Bengal, Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are situated along
the border. A number of pillars mark the border
between the two states.
3. (a) The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a group
of islands at the juncture of the Bay of Bengal and
Andaman Sea, and are a Union Territory of India. It
has a total area of 8,073 km.
4. (a) Distance from Andaman and Nicobar Islands
to Indonesia is 1,696 miles.
5. (c) Nilgiri Hills are a range of mountains with
at least 24 peaks above 2,000 metres (6,600 ft), in
the Westernmost part of Tamil Nadu state at the
junction of Karnataka and Kerala states in Southern
India. They are part of the larger Western Ghats
mountain chain making up the southwestern edge
of the Deccan Plateau.
6. (c) The hills are separated from the Karnataka
plateau to the north by the Moyar River and from
the Anaimalai Hills and Palni Hills to the south
by the Palghat Gap. The Nilgiris District of Tamil
Nadu lies within these mountains. Its latitudinal
and longitudinal dimensions are 130 km (Latitude:
11 08 to 11 37 N) by 185 km (Longitude: 76
27 E to 77 4 E). Central location is: 112230N
764530E. It has an area of 2,479 square kilometres
(957 sq mi).
7. (b) The Himalayas are approximately 2400 km in
length with an average width of about 320 to 400
km. The Himalayas are the enormous mountain
system of Asia. They are the highest mountain range
found in the world.
8. (c) The Coromandel Coast is the southeastern
coast of the Indian Subcontinent between
Kanyakumari and False Divi Point. It may also
include the southeastern coast of the island of Sri
Lanka.
9. (a) The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that
separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar
Islands in the Bay of Bengal. The two sets of
islands together form the Indian Union Territory of
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
10. (c) The Tropic of Cancer, also referred to as the
Northern tropic, is the circle of latitude on the Earth
that marks the most northerly position at which the
Sun may appear directly overhead at its zenith.
B-38 || Geography of India
11. (c) Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas.
It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with Chinas
Tibet Autonomous Region. The pass, at 4,310 m
above mean sea level, forms a part of an offshoot of
the ancient Silk Road.
12. (b) The Radcliffe Line was published on 17 August
1947 as a boundary demarcation line between India
and Pakistan upon the partition of India.
13. (a) The Son originates near Amarkantak in
Madhya Pradesh, just east of the headwater of the
Narmada River, and flows north-northwest through
Madhya Pradesh state before turning sharply
eastward where it encounters the southwest-
northeast-running Kaimur Range. The Son river at
784 kilometres (487 mi) long, is one of the largest
rivers of India. Its chief tributaries are the Rihand
and the North Koel.
14. (a) The Ganges is a trans-boundary river of India
and Bangladesh. The 2,525 km (1,569 mi) river
rises in the western Himalayas in the Indian state
of Uttarakhand, and flows south and east through
the Gangetic Plain of North India into Bangladesh,
where it empties into the Bay of Bengal. It is the
third largest river in the World by discharge.
15. (d) The Kali Gandaki or Gandaki River is one of
the major rivers of Nepal and a left bank tributary
of the Ganges in India. It is also called Krishna
Gandaki in Nepal.
16. (c) The Sunderban forest lies in the vast delta on
the Bay of Bengal formed by the super confluence
of the Padma, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers
across southern Bangladesh. The seasonally flooded
Sundarbans freshwater swamp forests lie inland
from the mangrove forests on the coastal fringe. The
forest covers 10,000 km2. of which about 6,000 are
in Bangladesh. It became inscribed as a UNESCO
world heritage site in 1997.
17. (b) The Narmada, also called the Rewa, is a river
in central India and the fifth longest river in the
Indian subcontinent. It is the third longest river that
flows entirely within India, after the Godavari and
the Krishna.
18. (a) About 1,800 miles (2,900 km) long, the
Brahmaputra is an important river for irrigation and
transportation. The average depth of the river is 124
feet (38 m) and maximum depth is 380 feet (120 m).
The river is prone to catastrophic flooding in spring
when the Himalayan snows melt.
19. (a) The Luni is a river of western Rajasthan state,
India. It originates in the Pushkar valley of the
Aravalli Range, near Ajmer and ends in the marshy
lands of Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, after travelling a
distance of 495 km.
20. (b) Black soil is a rich soil that is good for crops
like cotton. It is found in various places around
the world. It is most abundantly found in western
central India.
21. (a) Alkali, or alkaline, soils are clay soils with high
pH (> 8.5), a poor soil structure and a low infiltration
capacity. Often they have a hard calcareous layer
at 0.5 to 1 metre depth. Alkali soils owe their
unfavorable physico-chemical properties mainly to
the dominating presence of sodium carbonate which
causes the soil to swell and difficult to clarify/settle.
22. (a) Among the in situ soils are the red-to-yellow
(including laterite) and black soils known locally as
regur. After these the alluvial soil is the third most
common type.
23. (a) Uttarakhand or formerly Uttaranchal, is a state
in the northern part of India. It is often referred to as
the Land of the Gods due to the many holy Hindu
temples and pilgrimage centres found throughout
the state.
24. (a) Assam is a northeastern state of India. Its
capital is Dispur, located within the municipal area
of Guwahati city. It has an area of 78550 km2.
25. (b) Dachigam National Park is located 22
kilometers from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. It
covers an area of 141 square kilometers.
26. (a) Rhinoceros often abbreviated as rhino, is a
group of five extant species of odd-toed ungulates
in the family Rhinocerotidae. Two of these species
are native to Africa and three to Southern Asia.
27. (c) The Western Ghats or the Sahyadri constitute
a mountain range along the western side of India. It
is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is one of the
eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity in the
world.

28. (a) Project Tiger was launched by Kailash
Sankhala in India in 1973. The project aims at
ensuring a viable population of Bengal Tigers in
their natural habitats and also to protect them from
extinction.
29. (b) During the hot weather period i.e from March
to May the eastern and North-eastern states of
the subcontinent like West Bengal, Bihar, Assam,
Odisha (parts) and Bangladesh experience dramatic
appearance of a special type of violent thunderstorm
known as Norwester. In Bengal it is known as Kal
Baisakhi or calamity of the month of Baisakh
(April,15-May,15). Apart from its destructive effects
like sudden rise in wind speed, lightning, thunder
and hail the rainfall associated with the storm
although small in amount, is extremely helpful for
the pre-Kharif crops like jute, Aus paddy, summer
till and a large number of vegetables and fruits and
the sudden drop in temperature gives relief after
unbearable mid-day heat.
30. (c) Around September, with the sun fast retreating
south, the northern land mass of the Indian
subcontinent begins to cool off rapidly. With this
air pressure begins to build over northern India,
the Indian Ocean and its surrounding atmosphere
still holds its heat. This causes cold wind to sweep
down from the Himalayas and Indo-Gangetic Plain
towards the vast spans of the Indian Ocean south
of the Deccan peninsula. This is known as the
Northeast Monsoon or Retreating Monsoon.
31. (d) Mawsynram is a village in the East Khasi Hills
district of Meghalaya state in north-eastern India, 65
kilometers from Shillong.
32. (a) The southwestern summer monsoons occur
from June through September. The Thar Desert and
adjoining areas of the northern and central Indian
subcontinent heats up considerably during the hot
summers. This causes a low pressure area over the
northern and central Indian subcontinent. To fill
this void, the moisture-laden winds from the Indian
Ocean rush in to the subcontinent. These winds, rich
in moisture, are drawn towards the Himalayas. The
Himalayas act like a high wall, blocking the winds
from passing into Central Asia, and forcing them to
rise. As the clouds rise their temperature drops and
Geography || B-39
precipitation occurs. Some areas of the subcontinent
receive up to 10,000 mm (390 in) of rain annually.
34. (b) With total milk production in India in 2011-12
reaching 127.9 million tonnes, India is the largest
milk producing country in the world.
35. (a) Bauxite, an aluminium ore, is the worlds
main source of aluminium. It consists mostly of the
minerals gibbsite Al(OH)3, boehmite -AlO(OH)
and diaspore.
36. (d) Digboi is a town and a town area committee in
Tinsukia district in the north-eastern part of the state
of Assam, India. Crude oil was discovered here in
late 19th century.
37. (b) The rocks of the Dharwar system are mainly
sedimentary in origin, and occur in narrow elongated
synclines resting on the gneisses found in Bellary
district, Mysore and the Aravalis of Rajputana.
These rocks are enriched in manganese and iron
ore which represents a significant resource of these
metals.
38. (b) Tuticorin is known as Pearl City due to
the pearl fishing carried out in the town. It is a
commercial seaport which serves the inland cities
of Southern India and is one of the sea gateways of
Tamil Nadu.
39. (a) Khetri Nagar is a town in Jhunjhunu district of
Rajasthan in India. It is part of Shekhawati region.
Khetri is actually two towns, the first Khetri Town
was founded by Raja Khet Singhji Nirwan.
40. (a) Khadir or Khadar plains are those that are
low-lying next to a river. Khadir areas are prone to
flooding and sometimes include portions of former
river beds that became available for agriculture
when a river changed course. Khadir soil consists of
new alluvial deposits and is often very fertile.
41. (b) The production of chrome ore and chrome
concentrate has been fairly consistent in the last
5 years. South Kaliapani is the main Chrome ore,
Bangur Chrome ore Mine is the first and only
underground mine of Odisha.
42. (d) The Kalpasar Project envisages building a
dam across the Gulf of Khambat for generating
tidal power and for establishing a huge reservoir for
fresh water for irrigation, drinking and industrial
purposes.
B-40 || Geography of India
43. (c) The Ganga action plan was, launched by Shri
Rajeev Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India on
14 Jan. 1986 with the main objective of pollution
abatement, to improve the water quality by
Interception, Diversion and treatment of domestic
sewage and present toxic and industrial chemical
wastes from identified grossly polluting units
entering in to the river.
44. (b) Madhya Pradesh contributes more than 70%
of the total soyabean production in the country.
During the last two years soyabean has been grown
in Madhya Pradesh in an area of about 4.4 million
hectare producing around 3.9 million tones.
45. (c) Deccan traps are formed by vast outpouring
of basic lava from many linear fissures developed
in the earths crust. This outpouring was of quiet
type and hence did not create any volcanic domes.
It just spread across the surface. This outpouring
was in many active stages followed by periods of
quiescence. This outpouring took place around 65
million years ago when India was near present placed
Madagascar and during its movement towards
north, it passed over Reunion Hotspot. Presently
this hotspot is dormant in nature. This outpouring
lasted for 5million years approx according to latest
study.
46. (b) Madagascar, officially the Republic of
Madagascar and previously known as the Malagasy
Republic, is an island country in the Indian Ocean,
off the coast of Southeast Africa. The nation
comprises the island of Madagascar (the fourth-
largest island in the world), as well as numerous
smaller peripheral islands.
47. (d) India had about 125 Million metric tonne of
proven oil reserves as April 2010 or 5.62 billion
barrels as per EIA estimate for 2009, which is the
second-largest amount in the Asia-Pacific region
behind China. Most of Indias crude oil reserves
are located in the western coast (Mumbai High) and
in the northeastern parts of the country, although
considerable undeveloped reserves are also located
in the offshore Bay of Bengal and in the state of
Rajasthan.
48. (c) Coffee production in India is dominated in the
hill tracts of South Indian states, with the state of
Karnataka accounting 53% followed by Kerala 28%
and Tamil Nadu 11% of production of 8,200 tonnes.
49. (b) Operation Flood in India, a project of the
National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) was
the worlds biggest dairy development program
which made India, a milk-deficient nation, the
largest milk producer in the world, surpassing the
USA in 1998, with about 17 percent of global output
in 201011, which in 30 years doubled the milk
available per person, and which made dairy farming
Indias largest self-sustainable rural employment
generator.
50. (b) Jhum or Jhoom cultivation is a local name
for slash and burn agriculture practised by the
tribal groups in the northeastern states of India
like Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram and
Nagaland and also in the districts of Bangladesh
like Khagrachari and Sylhet. This system involves
clearing a piece of land by setting fire or clear felling
and using the area for growing crops of agricultural
importance such as upland rice, vegetables or fruits.
51. (b) The growth, development and adoption of
new varieties of oil seeds and complementary
technologies nearly doubled oil seeds production
from 12.6 mt in 1987-88 to 24.4 mt in 1996-97,
catalyzed by the Technology Mission on Oil seeds,
brought about the Yellow Revolution.
52. (a) Jatropha is a genus of flowering plants in the
spurge family, Euphorbiaceae. The name is derived
from the Greek words meaning physician, and
nutrition, hence the common name physic nut.
53. (b) Green Revolution refers to a series of research,
development, and technology transfer initiatives,
occurring between the 1940s and the late 1960s,
which increased agriculture production worldwide,
particularly in the developing world, beginning
most markedly in the late 1960s.
54. (b) Total Population of Daman and Diu is 2.43
Lakhs as per census 2011. Literacy rate in Daman
and Diu is 87.10 percent while sex ratio is 618
females per 1000.

55. (c) National Highway 44 or NH 44 (Old NH
7), is major North-South National Highway in
India that runs through the states of Uttar Pradesh,
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. NH-44 was laid and
is maintained by Central Public Works Department
(CPWD). This highway starts from the area
Hyderabad Gate in Varanasi. The highway connects
several important Indian cities such as Varanasi,
Rewa, Jabalpur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Kurnool,
Anantapur, Chikkaballapur, Bangalore, Krishnagiri,
Dharmapuri, Salem, Namakkal, Velur, Karur,
Dindigul, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli.
A major part of NH 44 covers the North-South
Corridor of NHDP and it is officially listed as
running over 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi to
Kanyakumari. It is the longest national highway in
India. As per the recent rationalization of Highway
numbers this is renamed as NH 44.
56. (d) Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli
Qutab Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of
the Qutab Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before
the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, Mughal
viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and
created his own dynasty, also known as the Nizams
of Hyderabad. The Hyderabad State ultimately
became a princely state during British rule, and
remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as
its capital.
58. (c) Rajasthan is blessed with two critical resources
that are essential to solar power production: high
level of solar radiation per square inch and large
amounts of contiguous, relatively flat, undeveloped
land.
59. (c) Wells are the principal source of irrigation
in Tamilnadu. During the year under review, open
wells and tube-wells/bore-wells continued to be the
principal source of irrigation. The net area irrigated
by open wells and tube-wells / bore-wells together
accounted for 1593968 ha (about 55.7 % of the total
net area irrigated) in 09-10 as against 1614082 ha
in 08-09 showing a decrease of 20114 ha i.e. 1.2%.
The net area irrigated by wells during the year 09-10
was the highest in Villupuram district with 11.3%
Geography || B-41
of the total net area irrigated by the wells in the state
followed by 7.7% in Thiruvannamalai district and
6.4% in Salem district.
60. (d) The Sutlej River is the longest of the five rivers
that flow through the historic crossroad region of
Punjab in northern India and Pakistan
61. (a) Punjab, also spelt Panjab, is a state in the
northwest of forming part of the larger Punjab
region.
63. (d) Kandla, also Kandla Port or New Kandla is a
seaport in Kutch District of Gujarat state in western
India, near the city of Gandhidham. Located on the
Gulf of Kutch, it is one of major ports on west coast.
Kandla was constructed in the 1950s as the chief
seaport serving western India, after the partition
of India from Pakistan left the port of Karachi in
Pakistan.
64. (c) Barren Island is located in the Andaman Sea,
one of the most easterly of the Andaman Islands. It
is the only confirmed active volcano in South Asia.
65. (d) Mount Everest is the highest peak of the
Himalaya and is the worlds highest peak with an
elevation of 29,035 feet (8,850 meters). K2 is the
second highest peak of the Himalayan mountain
range and also the second highest peak on earth with
an elevation of 28,251 feet (8,611 meters). Other
famous peaks include Kailash, Kanchenjunga,
Nanga Parbat, Annapurna, and Manasklu. The
Himalayas includes more than 110 peaks rising to
elevations of 24,000 feet (7,300 meters) or more
above sea level.
66. (c) Chhattisgarh is the 10th largest state in India,
with an area of 135,190 km. With a population
of 25.5 million, Chhattisgarh is the 16th most-
populated state of the nation.
73. (a) The Konkan Railway (Railway Symbol:KR) is
a railway line which runs along the Konkan coast
of India. It was constructed and is operated by the
Konkan Railway Corporation. It runs from Thokur,
near Mangalore in Karnataka to Roha railway station
in Maharashtra through Goa for a total distance of
741 km, along the west coast of India and Western
Ghats.
B-42 || Geography of India
77. (b) The Tehri Dam is the highest dam in India
and one of the tallest in the world. It is a multi-
purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam on the
Bhagirathi River near Tehri in Uttarakhand, India.
78. (b) Saraswati River refers to a river, that was a
distributary of the Bhagirathi and is now no more
there but was active till around the 16th century
AD. The course and condition of the Saraswati has
played an important role in the development and
decline of river port towns in Bengal. Initially, the
major port town was Tamralipta, after the decline
of which Saptagram rose and declined, and finally
Kolkata came up.
79. (d) The Jaduguda Mine (also spelt as Jadugoda or
Jadugora) is a uranium mine in Jaduguda village in
the Purbi Singhbhum district of the Indian state of
Jharkhand.
80. (a) The Coromandel Coast, is the southeastern
coast of the Indian Subcontinent between
Kanyakumari and False Divi Point. It may also
include the southeastern coast of the island of Sri
Lanka.
86. (b) Dandakarnya is the region where a
rehabilitation plan for the people displaced from
Bangladesh (then East Pakistan) was drawn up after
the independence. The project, however, did not
attract many of the displaced persons. The region
lies in the tribal belt of Orissa and Chattisgarh.
94. (b) Raman Peak is the name given to a submarine
mountain peak situated in the Arabian Sea.
 Section C : Indian polity & governance

1 Indian Constitution

1. Which one of the following is not an essential (a) J.L. Nehru

element of a federal form of government? (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(a) Written Constitution (c) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Independent judiciary (d) K.M.Munshi
(c) Division of power 8. In the Constitution of India, the term federal
(d) Separation of powers appears in
2. 42nd amendment of the Constitution of India (a) The Preamble
was made during the period of which one of the (b) Part III of the Constitution
following prime ministers? (c) Article 368
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri (d) None of the above
(b) Morarji Desai 9. Which article of the Indian Constitution
(c) Indira Gandhi provides for the financial provisions?
(d) Ch. Charan Singh
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356
3. Which article of the Indian Constitution
(c) Article 360 (d) Article 361
provides for uniform civil code for the citizens?
10. According to the Constitution of India, the right to
(a) Article 42 (b) Article 44
equality does not include
(c) Article 46 (d) Article 48
4 Which one of the following amendments of the (a) equality before law
constitution clearly laid down that the residents (b) absolute equality
of India are bound to accept the advice given by (c) equality of opportunity
the council of ministers? (d) abolition of untouchability
(a) 25th (b) 38th 11. The form of oath of office for a minister for the
(c) 42 th
(d) 43rd union of India is enshrined in the
5. Which article of the Constitution of India deals (a) first schedule (b) second schedule
with the Right to Constitutional Remedies? (c) third schedule (d) fourth schedule
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 14 12. By which Constitution amendment article 31-C
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 32 was added to the Indian Constitution?
6. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with (a) 17th amendment (b) 20th amendment
centre-state financial relations? (c) 25th amendment (d) 26th amendment
(a) Part XV (b) Part XIV 13. In which schedule of the Indian Constitution
(c) Part XII (d) Part X powers of panchayats are stated?
7. Who was the chairman of the drafting committee (a) 8th schedule (b) 9th schedule
of the Constituent Assembly? (c) 10th schedule (d) 11th schedule
C-2 || Indian Constitution
14. The mention of the word justice in the Preamble
to the Constitution of India expresses
(a) social, political and religious justice
(b) social, economic and cultural justice
(c) social, economic and political justice
(d) economic and political justice
15. How many members of the constituent assembly
signed the Constitution of India?
(a) 284 (b) 294
(c) 274 (d) 244
16. In which year the 73rd constitutional amendment
act (1992) was assented by the president?
(a) 1990 (b) 1991
(c) 1993 (d) 1994
17. Which of the following articles of the Indian
constitution deals with citizenship in India?
(a) Article 333 to 337 (c) Kishana Nanda Bharti case
(b) Article 17 to 20
(c) Article 05 to 11
(d) Article 01 to 04
18. According to the Constitution of India, which one
of the following rights cannot be taken away during
emergency?
(a) Right to speak
(b) Right to freedom of movement
(c) Right to life
(d) Right to organize
19. Under which article the parliament provides
financial assistance to states?
(a) Article 273 (b) Article 274
(c) Article 275 (d) Article 276
20. Which of the following amendments had reduced
the age of the voters from 21years to 18 years?
(a) 52nd amendment (b) 60th amendment
(c) 61st amendment (d) 62nd amendment
21. Which constitutional amendment provides
constitutional status to panchayti raj system in
India?
(a) 42nd amendment (b) 73rd amendment
(c) 72nd amendment (d) 61st amendment
22. Which of the following schedules deals with the
division of powers between union and states?
(a) fourth schedule (b) sixth schedule
(c) seventh schedule (d) ninth schedule
23. Indian federal structure is inspired by which model
of the countries below?
(a) USA (b) Canada
(c) Switzerland (d) Russia
24. Concept of welfare state in Indian Constitution is
included in
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive principles of state policy
(c) Citizenship
(d) Provision of Election Commission
25. In which year fundamental duties were included
in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 1974 (b) 1975
(c) 1976 (d) 1977
26. In which case the supreme court evolved the
concept of Basic Structure of Constitution?
(a) Golak Nath case
(b) Shankari Prasad case
(d) Minerva Mills case
27. Under which article the president of India can be
removed by the process of impeachment
(a) Article 79 (b) Article 76
(c) Article 57 (d) Article 61
28. Under which of the constitutional provision, the
supreme court of India extends advice to the
president of India ?
(a) Article 141 (b) Article 142
(c) Article 143 (d) Article 144
29. Under which article the parliament of India can
legislate on any subject in the state list in national
interest?
(a) Article 229 (b) Article 230
(c) Article 247 (d) Article 249
30. What is the main difference between Fundamental
Rights and the Directive Principles of state policy?
(a) Constitutional Protection
(b) Political Protection
(c) Judicial Protection
(d) Moral Protection
31. Under which article the Parliament of India may
constitute Administrative Tribunal ?
(a) 323 A (b) 323B
(c) 324 (d) 325
32. Which of the following articles deals with the
impeachment process against the president of
India?
(a) Article 58 (b) Article 59
(c) Article 60 (d) Article 61

33. India has borrowed the concept of Fundamental
Rights from the Constitution of
(a) UK (b) USA
(c) Russia (d) Ireland
34. By which amendment of the constitution, the Word
Socialist was incorporated in the Preamble of the
Constitution?
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment
(c) 25th Amendment (d) 24th Amendment
35. The permanent president of Constituent Assembly
was
(a) Dr. Ambedkar Constitution ?
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) K.M. munshi (c) Article 197 (d) Article 153
(d) J.L. Nehru
36. Which one of the following rights has been
described by Dr. Ambedkar as The heart and soul
of the Constitution?
(a) Right of Equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right to property
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
37. By which Act, Federation was introduced in India?
(a) Indian Council Act, 1861
(b) Regulation Act, 1935
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(d) Cabinet Mission, 1946
38. Which of the following is not provided for by the
Constitution of India?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Finance Commissions
(c) Public Service Commission
(d) Planning Commission
39. Which Article of Indian Constitution is related with
the Protection of the interests of the minorities?
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 29
(c) Article 30 (d) Article 31
40. Which schedule of Indian Constitution is related
to Panchayti Raj ? in which one of the following states?
(a) II Schedule (b) VIII Schedule
(c) X Schedule (d) XI Schedule
41. The phrase equality before law used in Article 14
of Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the
Constitution of
(a) Britain (b) USA
(c) France (d) Canada
Indian Polity & Governance || C-3
42. Which term is not used in the Preamble of the
Indian Constitution ?
(a) Republic (b) Integrity
(c) Federal (d) Socialist
43 Which of the following schedules of Indian
Constitution is related with the allotment of seats
in Rajya Sabha ?
(a) Third Schedule (b) Fourth Schedule
(c) Fifth Schedule (d) Sixth Schedule
44. The provision for Constitution of Legislatures in
states is enshrined in which article of the Indian
(a) Article 168 (b) Article 174
45. Fundamental Duties enshrined in the Indian
Constitution do not have any
(a) Legal sanction (b) Political sanction
(c) Social Sanction (d) Moral sanction
46. The Idea of organization of panchayats as a duty
of state is mentioned in which part of Indian
Constitution?
(a) Chaper I (b) Chapter II
(c) Chapter III (d) Chapter IV
47. Under which Constitutional Amendment has
education for children aged 6 to 14 years become
Fundamental Right?
(a) 93rd Amendment (b) 86th Amendment
(c) 91st Amendment (d) 92nd Amendment
48. Which Article of the constitution allows the centre
to form new states ?
(a) Article 3 (b) Article 4
(c) Article 5 (d) Article 6
49. The source of the basic structure theory of the
Constitution of India is
(a) the Constitution
(b) opinion of jurists
(c) indicial interpretation
(d) parliamentary statutes
50. The provision of the sixth schedule shall not apply
(a) Meghalaya (b) Tripura
(c) Mizoram (d) Goa
51. The 73rd amendment was brought into force to
give effect to one of the Directive Principles of
State Policy mentioned in
(a) Article 45 (b) Article 46
(c) Article 47 (d) Article 40
C-4 || Indian Constitution
52. The first proclamation of Emergency under article
352 was made by the President in
(a) 1975 (b) 1971
(c) 1965 (d) 1961
53. 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution
was passed on the recommendation of which
committee?
(a) Balwant Rai (b) Ashok Mehta
(c) Kirit Parikh (d) Deepak Mehta
54. Who among the following was a non-congress
member of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) J.B. Kripalani (c) Radio and Television
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) K.M. Munshi 62. The 91st amendment of the Indian Constitution
(d) T.T. Krishnamachari
55. How many subjects are kept under the jurisdiction
of panchayats in the eleven schedule of the
Constitution?
(a) 27 (b) 28
(c) 29 (d) 30
56. Which one of the following committees
recommended the inclusion of fundamental duties
in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Barua Committee
(b) Ramaswamy Committee
(c) Sikri Committee
(d) Swarn Singh Committee
57. Which one of the following is not related to the
constitutional government ?
(a) Coalition government
(b) Presidential government
(c) Hierarchy government
(d) Federal government
58. Which one of the following is not related to the
fundamental rights of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Freedom of association
(b) Freedom of movement
(c) Freedom of assembly
(d) Freedom to be elected as a member of
parliament
59. Which article of Indian Constitution deals with
amendment procedure ?
(a) Article 268 (b) Article 352
(c) Article 356 (d) Article 368
60. Which one of the following fundamental rights
was described by Dr. Ambedkar as the heart and
soul of the Constitution ?
(a) Right to freedom against exploitation
(b) Right to freedom of religion
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to constitutional remedies
61. Which one of the following is a subject of the
concurrent list?
(a) Police
(b) Criminal matters
(d) Foreign Affairs.
deals with the
(a) Disqualification on grounds of defection
(b) Organisation of finance commission
(c) Formation of human rights commission
(d) None of these
63. Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian
Constitution ?
(a) Written constitution
(b) Federalism
(c) Sovereignty of Parliament
(d) Judicial Review
64. In which part of the Indian Constitution, legislative
relation between centre and state is given?
(a) X (b) XI
(c) XII (d) XIII
65. The Indian Constitution is divided into
(a) 16 chapters (b) 22 chapters
(c) 24 chapters (d) 25 chapters
66. According to the Indian Constitution, which one
is not included in the fundamental right to equality?
(a) Equality before law
(b) Social equality
(c) Equality of opportunity
(d) Economic equality
67. After which amendment the right to acquire, hold
and dispose off property is no longer a fundamental
right?
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment
(c) 43rd Amendment (d) 40th Amendment

68. According to which amendment no law giving
effect to the Directive principle article 36(b) and
(c) can be challenged as violative of fundamental
rights?
(a) 42nd (b) 27th
(c) 40 th (d) 25th
69. Indian Constitution is :
(a) Federal (b) Unitary
(c) Quasi-federal (d) Presidential
70. Which article provides that any law passed in
violation of fundamental rights is void to the extent
of such violation
(a) Article 12 (b) Article 14
(c) Article 13 (d) Article 18
71. In the Constitution of India the term federal :
(a) Figures in the preamble
(b) Figures in the part-III
(c) Figures in the Article 368
(d) Does not figure anywhere
72. Which one of the following is not a feature of the
Indian Constitution ?
(a) Federal Government (d) Preamble
(b) Independence of Judiciary
(c) Parliamentary Government
(d) Dual Citizenship
73. Which of the states of Indian federation has a
separate constitution ?
(a) Goa 82. Which of the following articles of Indian
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Jammu & Kashmir ordinances during recess of the state legislature?
(d) Himachal Pradesh
74. Constitutional government means
(a) Representative government
(b) Government according to the Constitution
(c) Government by the consent of the people
(d) limited government
75. Which one of the following is not a part of the
basic structure of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Rule of law
(b) Secularism
(c) Republican form of government
(d) Parliamentary form of government
76. Article 249 of the Indian Constitution is associated
with the functions of
(a) The concurrent list (b) The state list
(c) The president (d) The union list
Indian Polity & Governance || C-5
77. In how many articles of Indian Constitution,
Directive principles of the state policy are
mentioned ?
(a) From Article 36-51
(b) From Article 36-52
(c) From Article 36-53
(d) From Article 36-54
78. Which of the following articles of Indian
Constitution enunciates fundamental duties?
(a) Article 35 (b) Article 51(A)
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 14
79. The term state has been defined in which of the
following articles of Indian Constitution ?
(a) Article 1 (b) Article 8
(c) Article 10 (d) Article 12
80. The philosophical foundation of the Indian
constitution is
(a) Directive principle of state policy
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Federal structure
81. Under which article of Indian Constitution, a High
Court can issue writs to protect the fundamental
rights?
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 32
(c) Article 35 (d) Article 226
Constitution empowers the Governor to issue
(a) Article 210 (b) Article 211
(c) Article 213 (d) Article 214
83. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is
mentioned in which of the following articles of
Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 131 (b) Article 132
(c) Article 143 (d) Article 148
84. Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers
parliament to legislate on a subject of the state
list ?
(a) Article 115 (b) Article 116
(c) Article 226 (d) Article 249
85. When was the first amendment in the Indian
Constitution made?
(a) July 1950 (b) December 1950
(c) June 1951 (d) July 1951
C-6 || Indian Constitution
86. The Constitution of India vests the executive
powers of the Indian Union in which of the
following ?
(a) The prime minister
(b) The president
(c) The council of ministers
(d) The parliament
87. Which of the following articles of Indian
Constitution empowers the president to appoint
Comptroller and Auditor General of India ?
(a) Article 147 (b) Article 148
(c) Article 149 (d) Article 151
88. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty
under the Indian constitution ?
(a) To protect monuments of national importance
(b) To develop scientific temper
(c) To uphold the unity and integrity of the nation
(d) None of these
89. Which part of the Constitution of India refers to
the responsibility of the state towards international
peace and security ?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of state policy
(c) Emergency Provisions
(d) Preamble to the constitution
90. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with the
(a) Freedom of consciences
(b) Right to propagate religion
(c) Right of minorities to establish and manage
educational institution
(d) Cultural and educational rights of the majority
community
91. Which article of Indian Constitution declares
Devnagri Hindi as an official language of India?
(a) Article 343 (b) Article 348
(c) Article 154 (d) Article 156
92. How many members were assigned cabinet
mission in constitution assembly?
(a) 300 (b) 309
(c) 450 (d) 296
93. What was the duration in the making of Indian
Constitution ?
(a) 1 Year 10 Months and 12 Days
(b) 2 Years 10 Months and 5 Days
(c) 2 Years 11 Months and 18 Days
(d) 3 Years 6 Months and 7 Days
94. Which of the following fundamental rights has
been given to Indian citizen only
(a) Equality before law
(b) Freedom of speech
(c) Life and personal liberty
(d) Freedom of religion
95. Which of the following is not guaranteed by the
Constitution?
(a) Freedom of assembly
(b) Freedom of residence
(c) Freedom of strike
(d) Freedom of association
96. Money bill has been defined in
(a) Article 110 (b) Article 111
(c) Article 112 (d) Artcle 113
97. Which article of the Constitution laid down
that state shall take steps to organize village
panchayats?
(a) Article 36 (b) Article 73
(c) Article 24 (d) Article 40
98. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General
of India was created
(a) Through an act of the parliament
(b) By the Constitution
(c) Through a cabinet resolution
(d) None of the above
99. Which of the following is not a constitutional
authority?
(a) State Election Commission
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Zila Panchayat
(d) State Electoral Officer
100. MANREGA scheme has been launched as a part of
implementing which one of the following articles
of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Article 43 (b) Article 45
(b) Article 47 (d) Article 50
101. Which of the following gave the idea of Constituent
Assembly for India?
(a) Simon Commission
(b) Rajaji Formula
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) Wavell Plan

102. Under which article of Indian Constitution,
President of India enjoys powers to withhold his
asset on any Bill?
(a) Article 63 (b) Article 108
(c) Article 109 (d) Article 111
103. Under which article of the Indian Constitution
the adjudication of disputes relativity to water of
inter-state rivers-valleys is done ?
(a) Article 260 (b) Article 261
(c) Article 262 (d) Article 262
104. Which part of the Constitution envisages a three
tier system of panchayats ?
(a) Part IV (b) Part X
(c) Part XI (d) Part XII
105. Who amongst the following was not a member of
the drafting committee of the Constitution?
(a) Mohammod Sadullah state(s)?
(b) K.M. Munshi
(c) A.K. Ayyar
(d) J.L. Nehru
106. Indian Constitution is
(a) Rigid
(b) Flexible
(c) Neither rigid nor Flexible
(d) Partly rigid and partly flexible
107. Which one of the following articles of the Indian
Constitution provides for All India Services ?
(a) Article 310 (b) Article 311
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 314
108. The idea of concurrent list in the Indian Constitution
has been borrowed from
(a) USA (b) Switzerland
(c) Australia (d) U.S.S.R.
109. Which article of the Indian Constitution 118. The guardian of fundamental rights is
empowers the president to consult the Supreme
Court?
(a) Article 129 (b) Article 132
(c) Article 143 (d) Article 32
110. The Constitution of India was enacted on 26
November 1949 by the
(a) Constituent Assembly
(b) Parliament of India
(c) President of India
(d) British Parliament
Indian Polity & Governance || C-7
111 When did the Indian Constitution Assembly meet
for the first time?
(a) 26 Jan, 1950 (b) 15Aug, 1947
(c) 9 Dec, 1946 (d) 19 Nov, 1949
112. Which one of the following terms does not appear
in the Constitution of India?
(a) Annual financial statement
(b) Appropriation Bill
(c) Budget
(d) Consolidated Fund of India
113. The political parties got the Constitution recognition
for the first time in the year.
(a) 1975 (b) 1977
(c) 1985 (d) 1995
114. Article 371 B of the Constitution of India makes
special provision for which of the following
(a) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(b) Assam
(c) Nagaland
(d) Manipur
115. Which of the following articles of the Constitution
vests the executive power of the Union in the
president?
(a) Article 51 (b) Article 52
(c) Article 53 (c) Article 54
116. The Constitution of India provides for an Election
Commission under Article
(a) 321 (b) 322
(c) 323 (d) 324
117. The Constitution of India was completed by which
of the following dates :
(a) Jan 26, 1950 (b) Nov 26, 1949
(c) Feb 11, 1948 (d) None of above
(a) Judiciary (b) Executive
(c) Parliament (d) None of above
119. Which of the following articles of the Indian
Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity
to all citizens of India in matters relating to public
employment?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16(1) and 16(2)
(c) Article 16(3)
(d) Article 16(3), (4) and (5)
C-8 || Indian Constitution
120. Which article of the Constitution permits the
supreme court to review its own judgment or
order?
(a) Article 137 (b) Article 130
(c) Article 139 (c) Article 138
121. The first amendment to the Constitution carried
out in 1951 related to
(a) Security of the country
(b) Security of the Prime Minister
(c) Protection of Agrarian reforms in certain state
(d) Scheduled castes and scheduled tribes
122. The Constitution of India does not contain any
provision for the impeachment of
(a) The President
(b) The Governor of state
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Vice President of India
123. By which one of the following Constitutional
amendments, Delhi has become National Capital
Region?
(a) 61st Amendment (b) 69th Amendment
(c) 71st Amendment (d) 79th Amendment
124. How many types of emergencies have been
envisaged under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four d) One.
125. The proposal for framing of the Constitution of
India by an elected Constituent Assembly was
made by
(a) Simon Commissions
(b) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Cripps Mission
(d) British cabinet Delegation
126. The idea of the directive principles of state policy
in the Indian Constitution has been taken from the
Constitution of
(a) Ireland (b) Canada
(c) South Africa (d) Australia
127. Who of the following has stated that The
Constitution has not been set in a right mould of
Federalism?
(a) D.D. Basu (b) K.M. Munshi
(c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) A.K. Aiyer
128. Which of the following is concerned with the 61st
amendment of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Emergency powers of the President
(b) Powers of the president to extend presidents
rule
(c) Lowering the age of voters.
(d) Financial emergency.
129. The President can be impeached on the grounds
of violating the Constitution by
(a) The Chief Justice of India
(b) The Vice-President of India
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The two Houses of Parliament
130. Which one of the following liberties is not
embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of
India?
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Liberty of expression
(c) Liberty of belief
(d) Economic liberty
131. Who was the chairman of the provincial Constitution
committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
(b) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Sardar Patel
132. All the executive powers in Indian Constitution
are vested with
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) President
(d) Parliament
133. Procedure for creation of Legislative council in
states has been described in which article of the
Constitution?
(a) Article 368 (b) Article 69
(c) Article 269 (d) Article 169
134. Who of the following moved the Objective
Resolution in the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) P. J.L Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. C.D. Deshmukh
135. Which of the Constitution provisions lays down
that taxes can neither be carried nor collected
without the authority of law?
(a) Article 265 (b) Article 266
(c) Article 300 (d) Article 368

136. Which one of the following words was not included
in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution in
1975 ?
(a) Fraternity (b) Sovereign
(c) Equality (d) Integrity
137. The federal system of India was inspired by the
Constitution of the following?
(a) Canada (b) United Kingdom
(c) U.S.A. (d) Ireland
138. The fundamental duties are mentioned in the
following part of the Constitution of India
(a) Part III (b) Part IV
(c) Part IV A (d) Part VI
139. Which amendment to the Constitution inserted a
new Article 21A providing Right to education in
the Constitution?
(a) 84th Amendment (b) 87th Amendment
(c) 88th Amendment (d) 89th Amenement
140. Which one of the following is not included in the
state list in the Constitution of India?
(a) Criminal procedure code
(b) Police
(c) Law and order
(d) Prison
141. The number of members included in the
Constitution Drafting Committee was:
(a) Seven (b) Nine
(c) Eleven (d) Thirteen
142. The tenth schedule of Indian Constitution deals
with
(a) Anti-defection legislation
(b) Panchayti Raj
(c) Land reforms
(d) Distribution of powers between the union and
states
143. How many sessions of the Indian Constituent
Assembly were conducted for the formulation of
Indian Constitution?
(a) 7 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) 15
Indian Polity & Governance || C-9
144. The number of official languages recognized under
8th schedule of the Indian Constitution is
(a) Sixteen
(b) Seventeen
(c) Twenty
(d) Twenty Two
145. How many articles are there in the Indian
Constitution?
(a) 395 (b) 396
(c) 398 (d) 399
146. The article of Indian Constitution related to
abolition of untouchability is
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 18
147. By which name/names is our country mentioned
in the Constitution?
(a) India and Bharat
(b) India and Hindustan
(c) Bharat Only
(d) India, Bharat and Hindustan
148. Which provision relating to the fundamental rights
is directly related to the exploitation of children?
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 19
(c) Article 23 (d) Article 24
149. The first statute for the governance of India, under
the direct rule of the British Government, was the
(a) Government of India Act, 1858
(b) Government of India Act, 1861
(c) Government of India Act, 1892
(d) Government of India Act, 1915
150. Which article is related to Special Address by the
President?
(a) Article 84 (b) Article 85
(c) Article 86 (d) Article 87
151. As per the Constitution of India, what is the limit
prescribed for the number of members in the
Legislative Assembly of a State?
(a) 350 members (b) 400 members
(c) 450 members (d) 500 members
C-10 || Indian Constitution

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 20. (c) 39. (b) 58. (d) 77. (a) 96. (a) 115. (d) 134. (b)
2. (c) 21. (b) 40. (d) 59. (d) 78. (b) 97. (b) 116. (d) 135. (a)
3. (b) 22. (c) 41. (a) 60. (d) 79. (b) 98. (b) 117. (a) 136. (d)
4. (c) 23. (b) 42. (d) 61. (b) 80. (d) 99. (c) 118. (a) 137. (a)
5. (d) 24. (b) 43. (d) 62. (a) 81. (d) 100. (c) 119. (d) 138. (c)
6. (c) 25. (c) 44. (a) 63. (c) 82. (c) 101. (c) 120. (a) 139. (a)
7. (c) 26. (c) 45. (a) 64. (b) 83. (a) 102. (d) 121. (c) 140. (a)
8. (d) 27. (d) 46. (d) 65. (b) 84. (d) 103. (c) 122. (b) 141. (a)
9. (c) 28. (c) 47. (b) 66. (c) 85. (b) 104. (a) 123. (b) 142. (a)
10. (b) 29. (d) 48. (d) 67. (b) 86. (b) 105. (d) 124. (b) 143. (c)
11. (c) 30. (c) 49. (c) 68. (a) 87. (b) 106. (c) 125. (d) 144. (d)
12. (c) 31. (a) 50. (d) 69. (a) 88. (a) 107. (c) 126. (a) 145. (a)
13. (d) 32. (d) 51. (d) 70. (c) 89. (b) 108. (c) 127. (d) 146. (d)
14. (c) 33. (b) 52. (d) 71. (d) 90. (c) 109. (c) 128. (c) 147. (a)
15. (c) 34. (a) 53. (a) 72. (d) 91. (a) 110. (c) 129. (d) 148. (d)
16. (c) 35. (b) 54. (b) 73. (c) 92. (d) 111. (c) 130. (d) 149. (a)
17. (c) 36. (d) 55. (c) 74. (d) 93. (c) 112. (d) 131. (d) 150. (d)
18. (c) 37. (d) 56. (d) 75. (d) 94. (b) 113. (c) 132. (a) 151 (d)
19. (c) 38. (d) 57. (c) 76. (b) 95. (c) 114. (d) 133. (d)

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) In a federal form of government separation
of powers is not an essential element. A federal
state, is a political entity characterized by a union
of partially self-governing states or regions under
a central (federal) government. In a federation, the
self-governing status of the component states, as
well as the division of power between them and the
central government, are typically constitutionally
entrenched and may not be altered by a unilateral
decision of either party, the states or the federal
political body.
2. (c) T h e f o r t y - s e c o n d a m e n d m e n t o f t h e
Constitution of India, officially known as The
Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976,
was enacted during the Emergency (1975-1977)
by the Congress government headed by Indira
Gandhi. Most provisions of the amendment came
into effect on 3 January 1977, others were enforced
from 1 February and Section 27 came into force on
1 April 1977. The 42nd amendment is regarded as
the most controversial constitutional amendment in
Indian history. It attempted to reduce the power of
the Supreme Court and High Courts to pronounce
upon the constitutional validity of laws. It laid
down the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens to
the nation. This amendment brought about the most
widespread changes to the Constitution until then,
and is sometimes called a mini-Constitution or
the Constitution of Indira.

3. (b) Article 44 of the Indian Constitution provides
for uniform civil code for the citizens. Uniform civil
code of India is a term referring to the concept of an
overarching civil law code in India. A uniform civil
code administers the same set of secular civil laws
to govern all people irrespective of their religion,
caste and tribe. This supersedes the right of citizens
to be governed under different personal laws based
on their religion or caste or tribe. Such codes are
in place in most modern nations. The common
areas covered by a civil code include laws related
to acquisition and administration of property,
marriage, divorce and adoption. The Constitution
of India attempts to set a uniform civil code for
its citizens as a Directive Principle, or a goal to be
achieved.
4. (c) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution clearly
briefs down that the President of India is bound to
accept the advice given by the Council of Ministers.
5. (d) Article 32 of the Constitution of India deals
with the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by
this Part.
(a) The right to move the Supreme Court by
appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of
the rights conferred by this part is guaranteed.
(b) The Supreme Court shall have power to
issue directions or orders or writs, including
writs in the nature of habeas corpus,
mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and
certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for
the enforcement of any of the rights conferred
by this Part.
(c) Without prejudice to the powers conferred
on the Supreme Court by clause ( 1 ) and
(2), Parliament may by law empower any
other court to exercise within the local limits
of its jurisdiction all or any of the powers
exercisable by the Supreme Court under clause
( 2 ).
(d) The right guaranteed by this article shall
not be suspended except as otherwise provided
for by this Constitution.
6. (c) Part XII of the Indian Constitution deals with
centre-state financial relations.
7. (c) B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the
drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly
8. (d) In the Constitution of India, the term federal
appears in the part I of the Constitution.
Indian Polity & Governance || C-11
9. (c) Article 360 of the Indian Constitution provides
for provision as the financial emergency. If the
President is satisfied that a situation has arisen
whereby the financial stability or credit of India or
of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, he
may by a proclamation make a declaration to that
effect.
10. (b) According to the Constitution of India, the
right to equality does not include absolute equality.
11. (c) The form of oath of office for a minister for the
union of India is enshrined in the third schedule of
the Constitution.
12. (c) By the 25th Amendment of the Constitution,
Article 31C was added to the Indian Constitution.
The twenty-fifth Amendment of the Constitution
of India, officially known as the Constitution
(Twenty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1971, curtailed
the right to property, and permitted the acquisition
of private property by the government for public
use, on the payment of compensation which
would be determined by the Parliament and not
the courts. The amendment also exempted any law
giving effect to the Directive Principles of State
Policy from judicial review, even if it violated the
Fundamental Rights.
13. (d) The powers of panchayats are stated in the 11th
schedule of the Indian Constitution.
14. (c) The mention of the world justice in the
Preamble to the Constitution of India expresses
social, economic and political justice.
15. (c) There were 294 members of the Constituent
Assembly who signed the Constitution of India.
The Constitution was drafted by the Constituent
Assembly, which was elected by the elected
members of the provincial assemblies.
16. (c) In 1993, 73rd Constitution Amendment Act
(1992) was assented by the President of India.
17. (c) Article 05 to 11 of the Indian Constitution deals
with citizenship in India. The legislation related to
this matter is the Citizenship Act 1955, which has
been amended by the Citizenship (Amendment)
Act 1986, the Citizenship (Amendment) Act 1992,
the Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2003, and the
Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005. Article 9
of Indian Constitution says that a person who
voluntarily acquires citizenship of any other country
is no longer an Indian citizen. Also, according to the
Passports Act, a person has to surrender his Indian
passport, it is a punishable offense under the act if
he fails to surrender the passport.
C-12 || Indian Constitution
18. (c) According to the Constitution of India, right to
life cant be taken away during emergency.
19. (c) Under the Article 275 the Parliament provides
financial assistance to states. Such sums of grants
as Parliament may by law provide shall be charged
on the Consolidated Fund of India in each year
as grants in aid of the revenues of such States
as Parliament may determine to be in need of
assistance, and different sums may be fixed for
different States
20. (c) 61 st Amendment of the Constitution had
reduced the age of the voters from 21 years to 18
years. The 61st amendment of the Constitution of
India, officially known as the Constitution (Sixty-
first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age
of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative
Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.
This was done by amending Article 326 of the
Constitution, which related to elections to the Lok
Sabha and the Assemblies.
21. (b) 73rd Amendment provides constitutional status
to Panchayti Raj System in India.
22. (c) The seventh schedule of the Constitution deals
with the division of powers between union and states.
(Article 246)The union (central government),
state, and concurrent lists of responsibilities.
27. (d) Under Article 61, the President of India can
be removed by the process of impeachment. Under
Article 61 of the Constitution, the President of
India can be impeached for the violation of the
Constitution, which is solely to be decided by the
Parliament.
28. (c) Under article 143 of the constitutional
provision, the Supreme Court of India extends
advice to the President of India. Concerning Power
of President to consult Supreme Court, if at any
time it appears to the President that a question of
law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is
of such a nature and of such public importance that
it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme
Court upon it, he may refer the question to that
Court for consideration and the Court may, after
such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President
its opinion thereon.
29. (d) Under the Article 249, the Parliament of
India can legislate on any subject in the state list in
national interest. Notwithstanding anything in the
foregoing provisions of this Chapter, if the Council
of States has declared by resolution supported by
not less than two thirds of the members present and
voting that it is necessary or expedient in national
interest that Parliament should make laws with
respect to any matter enumerated in the State List
specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for
Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part
of the territory of India with respect to that matter
while the resolution remains in force.
35. (b) The permanent president of Constituent
Assembly was Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Dr B.R.
ambedkar, Sanjay Phakey, Jawaharlal Nehru,
C. Rajagopalachari, Rajendra Prasad, Sardar
Vallabhbhai Patel, Kanaiyalal Munshi, Purushottam
Mavalankar, Sandip Kumar Patel, Maulana Abul
Kalam Azad, Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, Nalini
Ranjan Ghosh, and Balwant Rai Mehta were some
important figures in the Assembly.
39. (b) Article 29 of the Indian Constitution is related
to the protection of the interests of the minorities.
(1) Any section of the citizens residing in the
territory of India or any part thereof having a
distinct language, script or culture of its own
shall have the right to conserve the same.
(2) No citizen shall be denied admission into
any educational institution maintained by the
State or receiving aid out of State funds on
grounds only of religion, race, caste, language
or any of them.
44. (a) The provision for Constitution of Legislatures
in states is enshrined in Article 168 of the Indian
Constitution. Constitution of Legislatures in States
(1) For every State there shall be a Legislature
which shall consist of the Governor, and
(a) in the States of Bihar, Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka and
Uttar Pradesh, two houses:
(b) in other States, one House
(2) Where there are two Houses of the
Legislature of a State, one shall be known as
the Legislative Council and the other as the
Legislative Assembly, and where there is only
one House, it shall be known as the Legislative
Assembly.

45. (a) Fundamental duties enshrined in the Indian
Constitution do not have any legal sanction. The
Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the
Constitution by the 42 nd Amendment in 1976,
upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh
Committee that was constituted by the government
earlier that year.
48. (d) Article 3 of the Constitution allows the centre
to form new states. Regarding formation of new
States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names
of existing States, Parliament may by law
(a) form a new State by separation of territory
from any State or by uniting two or more
States or parts of States or by uniting any
territory to a part of any State;
(b) increase the area of any State;
(c) diminish the area of any State;
(d) alter the boundaries of any State;
51. (d) The 73rd Amendment was brought into force
to give effect to one of the Directive Principle of
State Policy is mentioned in Article 40 under the
provision of the amendent .The State shall take
steps to organize village panchayats and endow
them with such powers and authority as may be
necessary to enable them to function as units of self
government.
56. (d) Swarn Singh Committee redounded the
inclusion of fundamental duties in the Indian
Constitution. The Fundamental Duties of citizens
were added to the Constitution by the 42nd
Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of
the Swaran Singh Committee that was constituted
by the government earlier that year.
59. (d) Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals
with amendment procedure. Article 368 of the
Constitution of India grants constituent power to
make formal amendments and empowers Parliament
to amend the Constitution by way of addition,
variation or repeal of any provision according to the
procedure laid down therein, which is different from
the procedure for ordinary legislation. Article 368
has been amended by the 24th and 42nd Amendments
in 1971 and 1976 respectively.
61. (b) Criminal matters is a subject of the concurrent
list. Criminal law, including all matters included in
the Indian Penal Code at the commencement of this
Constitution but excluding offences against laws
Indian Polity & Governance || C-13
with respect to any of the matters specified in List I
or List II and excluding the use of naval, military or
air forces or any other armed forces of the Union in
aid of the civil power.
62. (a) The 91st Amendment of the Indian Constitution
deals with the disqualification on grounds of
defection. Amend articles 75 and 164 on 1 January
2004 in order to restrict the size of council of
ministers to 15% of legislative members and to
strengthen Anti-Defection laws.
70. (c) Article 13 provides that any law passed in
violation of fundamental rights is void to the extent
of such violation. All laws in force in the territory
of India immediately before the commencement of
this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent
with the provisions of this Part, shall, to the extent
of such inconsistency, be void. The State shall not
make any law which takes away or abridges the
rights conferred by this part and any law made in
contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of
the contravention, be void.
73. (c) The state of Jammu & Kashmir of Indian
Federation has a separate constitution. Article 370
of the Indian Constitution, which is of a temporary
nature, grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir.
Under Part XXI of the Constitution of India, which
deals with Temporary, Transitional and Special
provisions, the State of Jammu and Kashmir has
been accorded special status under Article 370.
76. (b) Article 249 of the Indian Constitution is
associated with the functions of the state list.
Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing
provisions of this Chapter, if the Council of States
has declared by resolution supported by not less
than two thirds of the members present and voting
that it is necessary or expedient in national interest
that Parliament should make laws with respect to
any matter enumerated in the State List specified
in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament
to make laws for the whole or any part of the
territory of India with respect to that matter while
the resolution remains in force.
81. (d) Under Article 226 of Indian Constitution
a High Court can issue writes to protect the
fundamental rights. Notwithstanding anything in
Article 32 every High Court shall have powers,
throughout the territories in relation to which it
C-14 || Indian Constitution
exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or
authority, including in appropriate cases, any
Government, within those territories directions,
orders or writs, including writs in the nature of
habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibitions, quo
warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the
enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part
III and for any other purpose.
82. (c) Article 213 of Indian Constitution empowers
the governor to issue ordinances during recess
of the state legislature. Concerning power of
Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess
of Legislature, If at any time, except when the
Legislative Assembly of a State is in session, or
where there is a Legislative Council in a State, except
when both Houses of the Legislature are in session,
the Governor is satisfied that circumstances exist
which render it necessary for him to take immediate
action, he may promulgate such Ordinance as the
circumstances appear to him.
83. (a) Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is
mentioned in Article 131 of the Indian Constitution.
The Supreme Court shall, to the exclusion of any
other court, have original jurisdiction in any dispute
(a) between the Government of India and one
or more States; or
(b) between the Government of India and any
State or States on one side and one or more
other States on the other; or
(c) between two or more States,
92. (d) There were 296 members assigned by cabinet
mission in Constitution Assembly. The mission
consisted of Lord Patrick-Lawrence, the Secretary
of State for India, Sir Stafford Cripps, President of
the Board of Trade, and A. V. Alexander, the First
Lord of the Admiralty.
93. (c) The Indian Constitution is the worlds longest
Constitution. At the time of commencement, the
Constitution had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8
schedules. It consists of almost 80,000 words and
took 2 years 11 months and 18 days to make.
100. (c) MGNREGA Scheme has been launched as
a part of implementing of the Article 47 of the
Indian Constitution. The Mahatma Gandhi National
Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
is an Indian law that aims to guarantee the right to
work and ensure livelihood security in rural areas
by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage
employment in a financial year to every household
whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled
manual work.
101. (c) Cabinet mission plan gave the idea of
Constituent Assembly for India. In 1946, British
Prime Minister Clement Attlee formulated a cabinet
mission to India to discuss and finalize plans
for the transfer of power from the British Raj
to Indian leadership as well as provide India
with independence under Dominion status in the
Commonwealth of Nations. The Mission discussed
the framework of the constitution and laid down
in some detail the procedure to be followed by the
Constitution drafting body.
103. (c) Under Article 262 of the Indian Constitution
the adjudication of disputes relating to water of
inter-state rivers or river valleys is done. Parliament
may by law provide for the adjudication of any
dispute or complaint with respect to the use,
distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any
inter State river or river valley.
107. (c) Article 312 of the Indian Constitution provides
for All India Services. The services known at the
commencement of this Constitution as the Indian
Administrative Service and the Indian Police
Service shall be deemed to be services created by
Parliament under this article.
119. (d) Article 16(B), (4) and (5) of the Indian
Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity to
all citizens of India in matters relating to public
employment.
120. (a) Article 137 of the Constitution permits the
Supreme Court to review its own judgement
or order. Review of judgments or orders by the
Supreme Court subject to the provisions of any law
made by Parliament or any rules made under Article
145, the Supreme Court shall have power to review
any judgment pronounced or order made by it.
124. (b) There are three types of emergencies
which have been envisaged under the Indian
constitution. The President can declare three types
of emergencies:
National emergency under Article 352
State emergency under Article 356
Financial emergency under Article 360

135. (a) Article 265 of the constitutional provisions
lays down that taxes can neither be levied nor
collected without the authority of law. Taxes are not
to be imposed by authority of law. No tax shall be
levied or collected except by authority of law.
141. (a) The number of members included in the
Constitution Drafting Committee was seven.
On 29 August 1947, the Drafting Committee
was appointed, with Dr B. R. Ambedkar as the
Chairman along with six other members assisted by
a constitutional advisor. These members were Pandit
Govind Ballabh Pant Kanaiyalal Maneklal Munshi
(K M Munshi, Ex- Home Minister, Bombay),
Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer (Ex- Advocate General,
Madras State), N Gopalaswami Ayengar (Ex-Prime
Minister, J&K and later member of Nehru Cabinet),
B L Mitter (Ex-Advocate General, India), Md.
Saadullah (Ex- Chief Minister of Assam, Muslim
League member) and D P Khaitan (Scion of Khaitan
Business family and a renowned lawyer).
142. (a) The tenth schedule of Indian Constitution
deals with anti-defection legislation. Tenth Schedule
(Articles 102(2) and 191(2))Anti-defection
provisions for Members of Parliament and Members
of the State Legislatures.
143. (c) There were twelve sessions of the Indian
Constituent Assembly which were conducted for
the formulation of Indian Constitution.
148. (d) Article 24 relating to the fundamental rights
is directly related to the exploitation of children.
Indian Polity & Governance || C-15
No child below the age of fourteen years shall be
employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged
in any other hazardous employment provided
that nothing in this sub clause shall authorize the
detention of any person beyond the maximum
period prescribed by any law made by Parliament
under sub clause (b) of clause (7); or such person is
detained in accordance with the provisions of any
law made by Parliament under sub clauses (a) and
(b) of clause (7 ).
149. (a) The Government of India Act 1858 was an
Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom (21
& 22 Vict. c. 106) passed on August 2, 1858. Its
provisions called for the liquidation of the British
East India Company (which had up to this point
been ruling British India under the auspices of
Parliament) and the transference of its functions to
the British Crown.
150. (d) Article 84 - Qualification for membership of
Parliament.
Article 85 - Sessions of Parliament, prorogation and
dissolution.
Article 86 - Right of President to address and send
messages to Houses.
151. (d) The Legislative Assembly (the Vidhan Sabha)
is the popular House of the State Legislative and its
member are chosen by direct election on the basis of
adult suffrage from territorial constituencies (Article
170).The number of members ranges between
60 and 500.
 2 Political System
1. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance bill sent for its
consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum
period of
(a) One month (b) One Year
(c) Seven days (d) Fourteen days
2. Which one of the following is not a department in
the Ministry of Human Resource Development?
(a) Department of Elementary Education and
Literacy
(b) Department of Secondary Education and
Higher Education
(c) Department of Technical Education
(d) Department of women and child development
3. Who decides the office of profit?
(a) President and Governor
(b) Union Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Union Public Service Commission
4. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed
by the President. He can be removed
(a) by the President
(b) on an address from both Houses of Parliament
(c) on the recommendation of the President by
the Supreme Court
(d) by CJI
5. To be officially recognized by the speaker of Lok
Sabha as an opposition group, a party or coalition
of parties must have at least
(a) 50 members must be filled up within
(b) 60 members
(c) 80 members
(d) 1/3 of total members of the Lok Sabha
6. How many times has Financial Emergency been
declared in India so far?
(a) 5 times (b) 4 times
(c) once (d) Never
7. Which one of the following is the time limit for the
ratification of an emergency period by parliament?
(a) 14 days (b) 1 month
(c) 3 months (d) 6 months
8. Which one of the following motions can the
Council of Ministers in India can move?
(a) No confidence motion
(b) Adjournment motion
(c) Confidence motion
(d) None of the above
9. Which one of the following expenditure is not
charged on the consolidated fund of India?
(a) Salary and allowances of the President of
India
(b) Salary and allowances of the Vice President
of India
(c) Salary and allowances of the Justice of the
Supreme Court of India
(d) Salary and allowances of the speaker of the
Lok Sabha
10. Who among the following is Constitution empowered
to declare a geographic area as a scheduled area?
(a) Governor (b) Chief Minister
(c) Prime Minister (d) President
11. The vacancy of the office of the President of India
(a) 90 days (b) 6 months
(c) One year
(d) within the period decided by the Parliament

12. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the
Supreme Court of India, on any question of law?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Any of the high courts
(d) All of the above
13. Which one of the following taxes is levied and
collected by the Union but distributed between
union and states?
(a) Corporation tax
(b) Tax on income other than on agricultural
income
(c) Tax on railway fares and freights
(d) Customs
14. Which of the following states can nominate two
women members to the legislative assembly?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Uttar Pradesh
15. The electoral college for Presidential election
consists of:
(a) All members of Union Parliament
(b) All members of Union Parliament and state
legislative assemblies.
(c) All members of Union Parliament and all
elected members of state legislative councils
(d) All elected members of Union Parliament and
state legislative assemblies.
16. Recommendations to the President of India on the
specific Union state fiscal relation are made by the
(a) Finance Minister Parliament
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Planning Commission (a) is dissolved once in two years.
(c) Finance Commission
17. In which of the following houses the chairperson
is not the member of that house?
(a) Lok Sabha 26. As a non-member who can participate in the
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly (a) Vice President
(d) Legislative council
18. Who amongst the following is not entitled to take
part in the activities of Lok Sabha?
(a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(b) The Attorney General of India
(c) The Solicitor General
(d) The Secretary to President of India
Indian Polity & Governance || C-17
19. By which of the following can the President of
India be impeached?
(a) The Lok Sabha
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Prime Minister
20. Which of the following subjects lies in the
concurrent list?
(a) Agriculture (b) Education
(c) Police (d) Defence
21. The state wise allocation of seats in Lok Sabha is
based on the 1971 census. Up to which year does
this remain intact?
(a) 2031 (b) 2026
(c) 2021 (d) 2011
22. How many members are nominated by the
president in the Rajya Sabha
(a) 2 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 15
23. The Prime Minister of India is the head of the
(a) State government
(b) Central government
(c) Both the state and Central government
(d) None of them
24. A bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act after
(a) It is passed by both the Houses.
(b) The president has given his assent
(c) The Prime Minister has signed it
(d) The Supreme Court has declared it to
be within the competence of the Union
25. According to our Constitution, the Rajya Sabha
(b) is dissolved every five years.
(c) is dissolved every six years.
(d) is not subject of dissolution
proceedings of either House of Parliament
(b) Chief Justice
(c) Attorney General
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
27. In which house is the presiding officer not a
member of that house?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Vidhan-Sabha (d) Vidhan parishad
C-18 || Political System
28. If the position of President and Vice-President are 35. Money bill is introduced in
vacant, who officiates as the President of India? (a) Lok Sabha
(a) The Prime Minister (b) Rajya Sabha
(b) The Chief Justice of India (c) Joint sitting of both the Houses
(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) None of the above
(d) None of these 36. Who of the following Presidents of India was
29. Which one of the following statements about the associated with trade union movement?
Parliament of India is not correct? (a) V.V. Giri
(a) The Constitution provides for a parliamentary (b) N. Sanjiva Reddy
form of government (c) K.R. Narayanan
(b) The foremost function of the parliament is to (d) Zakir Hussain
provide a cabinet 37. State Governor is appointed by
(c) The membership of the cabinet is restricted (a) Central Cabinet
to the lower house (b) Chief justice of Supreme Court
(d) The cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
the majority in the popular chamber (d) President of India
30. Voting right by the youth at the age of 18 years was 38. The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the
exercised for the first time in the general election state list
of (a) by the wish of the president
(a) 1987 (b) 1988 (b) if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
(c) 1989 (d) 1990 (c) under any circumstances
31. Sarkaria Commission was set up to review (d) by asking the legislature of the concerned
(a) the relation between the President and the state
Prime Minister 39. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible
(b) the relation between the legislative and the to which of the following?
executive (a) Prime Minister
(c) the relations between the executive and the (b) President
judiciary (c) Rajya Sabha
(d) the relations between the Union and the State. (d) Lok Sabha
32. The Contingency Fund of the state is operated 40. The Council of Ministers has to resign if
by no-confidence motion is passed by a majority of
(a) The Governor of the state members of
(b) The Chief Minister of the state (a) Lok Sabha
(c) The State Finance Minister (b) Rajya Sabha
(d) None of the above (c) Both the Houses separately
33. The first speaker against whom a motion of non- (d) Both the Houses in joint sitting
confidence was moved in the Lok Sabha was 41 What is the tenure of the Chief Election
(a) Balram Jakhar (b) G.V. Mavalankar Commissioner of India?
(c) Hukum Singh (d) K.S. Hegde (a) Five years
34. Indian Parliament consists of (b) During the pleasure of the President
(a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (c) Six years or till the age of 65 years whichever
(b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister is earlier
(c) Speaker and Lok Sabha (d) Five years or till the age of 65 years whichever
(d) President and both the Houses is earlier
 Indian Polity & Governance || C-19

42. In which of the following committees there is no (c) election to all party officers
representation of Rajya Sabha? (d) an overhaul of the congress working
(a) Public Account Committee committee
(b) Committee on public undertaking 50. What is the maximum time interval permissible
(c) Estimate Committee between two successive sessions of the parliament?
(d) Committee on Government Assurances (a) 4 months (b) 5 months
43. The function of the pro-tem in the absence of (c) 6 months (d) 3 months
Speaker is to 51. In India partyless democracy was first advocated
(a) conduct the proceedings of the House in the by
absence of speakers. (a) Jai Prakash Narayan
(b) officiate as speaker when the speaker is (b) M.N. Ray
unlikely to be elected (c) Vinoba Bhave
(c) only check if the election certificates of the
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
members are in order
52. The system of proportion of Representation as an
(d) None of the above
electoral mechanism ensures
44. Which of the following statements is not correct
in relation to Dr. Manmohan Singh? (a) Representation of minorities
(a) Former Finance Minister (b) Rule of majority
(b) Former Governor of RBI (c) Stability in government
(c) Former Representative of India in International (d) Common political thinking
Monetary Fund 53. Right to vote is a
(d) Member of Rajya Sabha (a) Social right
45. In which regime change not happened during Arab (b) Personal right
Spring (2010-2012)? (c) Political right
(a) Egypt (b) Tunisia (d) Legal right
(c) Libya (d) Bahrain 54. Which one of the following is the basis of federal
46. The office of the President does not characterize government?
the combination of governmental systems of (a) Supremacy of the parliament
(a) Parliamentary and Federal (b) Supremacy of Judiciary
(b) Republican and Parliamentary (c) Division of powers between federal and state
(c) Presidential and Republican government
(d) Democratic and Republican (d) single citizenship
47. Which of the following is the most appropriate tool 55. Government is classified as parliamentary and
to raise the issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok presidential on the basis of which of the following?
Sabha? (a) Relations between legislature and executive
(a) Calling attention motion (b) Relations between politician and civil
(b) Discussion under Rule 377
servants
(c) Censure motion
(c) Written or unwritten Constitutions
(d) Short duration discussion
(d) Rigid or Flexible Constitutions
48. Parliamentary Supremacy is the definite feature of
56. The presidential system operates on the principle
the political system in
(a) UK (b) India of
(c) Canada (d) Australia (a) Division of powers
49. The Kamraj Plan proposed (b) Separation of powers
(a) priority to agriculture over industry (c) Fusion of powers
(b) inducting senior leaders to party work (d) Balance of powers
C-20 || Political System
57. The cabinet in the Parliamentary system is 66. The chairman of the Lok Sabha is designated as
accountable to (a) Chairman (b) Speaker
(a) The President (c) Vice President (d) President
(b) The Prime Minister 67. Who decides whether a Bill is a money Bill or not?
(c) The Council of Ministers (a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Legislature (b) The President
58. The President of India enjoys emergency powers (c) The Prime Minister
of (d) The Parliamentary Select Committee
(a) Two types (b) Three types 68. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinizes
(c) Four types (d) Five types the report of the CAG of India is
59. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? (a) Estimates Committee
(a) The President (b) Select Committee
(b) The Vice-President (c) Public Accounts Committee
(c) The Prime Minister (d) None of these
(d) The Speaker 69. How many times can the President of India seek
60. Which party provided two Prime Ministers in two re-election to his post?
years time? (a) Once (b) 2 times
(a) B.J.P. (c) 3 times (d) Any numbers of time
(b) Janata Party 70. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India
(c) Janata Dal for two consecutive terms?
(d) Samajwadi Janata Party (a) Dr. Radhakrishnan
61. The Council of Ministers does not include (b) Mr. R. Venkataraman
(a) Cabinet Minister (c) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(b) Minister of state (d) Mr. V.V. Giri
(c) Minister without portfolio 71. In India, the Prime Minister remains in office so
(d) Cabinet Secretary long as he enjoys the
62. Who is the highest civil servant of the Union (a) Support of armed forces
Government? (b) Confidence of Rajya Sabha
(a) Attorney General (c) Confidence of Lok Sabha
(b) Cabinet Secretary (d) Support of the people
(c) Home Secretary 72. The Council of Ministers of Indian Union is
(d) Principal Secretary of the P.M. collectively responsible to the
63. How is legislative excess of Parliament and State (a) President (b) Prime Minister
Assemblies checked? (c) Rajya Sabha (d) Lok Sabha
(a) Intervention from President/Governor 73. What is the period of appointment of the Comptroller
(b) No- confidence motions and Auditor General of India?
(c) Judicial review (a) 6 years
(d) General elections (b) upto 65 years of age
64. Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha? (c) 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever earlier
(a) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha (d) upto 64 years of age
(b) The President 74. In order to be recognised as an official opposition
(c) The joint session of Parliament group in the Parliament
(d) None of these (a) 1/3rd of the total strength
65. The speakers vote in the Lok Sabha is called (b) 1/4th of the total strength
(a) Casting vote (b) Sound vote (c) 1/6th of the total strength
(c) Direct vote (d) Indirect vote (d) 1/10th of the total strength
 Indian Polity & Governance || C-21

75. Rajya Sabha enjoys more power than the Lok 83. Which one of the following motions can the
Sabha in the case of Council of Ministers of India move?
(a) Money bills (a) No confidence motion
(b) Non-money bills (b) Censure motion
(c) Setting up of new All India Services (c) Adjournment motion
(d) Amendment of the Constitution (d) Confidence motion
76. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be 84. Who advises the Government of India on legal
nominated by the president to the Lok Sabha is
matters?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(a) Attorney General
(c) 4 (d) 5
77. The speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office (b) Chief justice of Supreme Court
by addressing his resignation to (c) Chairman, Law Commission
(a) The President (d) None of these
(b) The Prime Minister 85. The most important feature of the Indian Parliament
(c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is that
(d) The Chief Justice of India (a) It is the Union Legislature in India
78. The bill of which of the following categories can (b) It also comprises of the President
be initiated only in Lok Sabha? (c) It is bicameral in nature
(a) Ordinary Bill (d) The Upper House of the Parliament is never
(b) Private members Bill dissolved
(c) Money Bill 86. The allocation of seats in the present Lok Sabha
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill is based on which one of the following census?
79. Who among the following forms the advisory (a) 1971
committee of the parliament?
(b) 1981
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) 1991
(b) President of India
(c) Vice-President of India (d) 2001
(d) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs 87. Who among the following was not elected for two
80. Which of the following appointments is not made terms as the Speaker of Lok Sabha?
by the President of India? (a) G.M.C. Balayogi
(a) Speakers of the Lok Sabha (b) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(b) Chief Justice of India (c) Balram Jakhar
(c) Chief of Air Staff (d) Baliram Bhagat
(d) Chief of Army 88. By which bill the Government proposes the
81. The proposal relating to dismissal of the Vice- collection of revenues for a year?
President can be presented in (a) Economic Bill
(a) any House of the Parliament (b) Finance Bill
(b) the Rajya Sabha (c) Supplementary Bill
(c) The Lok Sabha (d) None of these
(d) None of these
89. The Committee of Parliament on official language
82. Who among the following is the Chairman of the
comprises the members
National Integration Council?
(a) The President (a) 20 from Lok Sabha, 10 from Rajya Sabha
(b) The Vice-President (b) 10 from Lok Sabha, 20 from Rajya Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister (c) 10 from Lok Sabha, 10 from Rajya Sabha
(d) The Chief Justice of India (d) 20 from Lok Sabha, 20 from Rajya Sabha
C-22 || Political System
90. In case the President wishes to resign, to whom is
he to address his resignation letter?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Secretary of Lok Sabha
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister
91. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers
resigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in
the Lok Sabha?
(a) Chandra Shekhar
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(d) V.P. Singh
92. Survey of India is under the Ministry of
(a) Defence
(b) Environment and Forests
(c) Home Affairs
(d) Science and Technology
93. Who is called the Guardian of public purse?
(a) President
(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(c) Parliament
(d) Council of Ministers
94. A proclamation of emergency must be placed
before the Parliament for its approval
(a) Within 1 month (b) Within 2 months
(c) Within 6 months (d) Within 1 year
95. Zero Hour in political jargon refers to
(a) Suspended motion
(b) Question hour
(c) Adjourned time
(d) Question-answer session
96. Which one of the following is the largest committee
of the Parliament?
(a) The Public Accounts Committee
(b) The Estimates Committee
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petition
97. Which of the following types of authorities are
attributed to the President of India?
(a) Real and Popular
(b) Titular and de jure
(c) Constitutional and Nominal
(d) Both (b) and (c)
98. On what ideologies does the Indian National Congress
rest?
(a) Communalism (b) Socialism
(c) Federalism (d) Secularism
99. Who is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party
(BSP)?
(a) Jyotiba Phule (b) Kanshi Ram
(c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) Sahu Maharaj
100. Which party has advocated the coming together
of all Left parties?
(a) CPI (b) CPI (M)
(c) NCP (d) INC
101. What is the term of a Member of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Three years (b) Four years
(c) Five years (d) Six years
102. The Union Executive of India consists of:
(a) The President; Vice-President, Lok Sabha
Speaker and the Council of Ministers
(b) The President, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha, Lok Sabha Speaker and the Prime
Minister
(c) The President and the Council of Ministers
only
(d) The President, Vice-President and the Council
of Ministers only
103. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office
by addressing his resignation to
(a) the President
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) the Chief Justice of India
104. Freedom of the press in India is
(a) available to the people under the law of the
Parliament
(b) specifically provided in the Constitution
(c) implied in the right of freedom of expression
(d) available to the people of India under
executive order
105. The Legislative Council in a State in India can be
created or abolished by the
(a) Parliament on the recommendation of a
Governor of the state.
(b) Parliament alone
(c) Parliament after the state assembly passes the
resolution of that effect.
(d) Governor of the state on the recommendation
of the Council of Ministers.

106. The Government Bill means a bill introduced by a
(a) Member of the Treasury bench in the Lok
Sabha
(b) Member of the Parliament who is not a
Minister
(c) Minister in the Lok Sabha
(d) Minister in any House of the Parliament.
107. Right to Information in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Legal Right
(c) Both Fundamental and Legal Rights
(d) Neither Fundamental nor Legal Right
108. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting
of both the Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to
be passed by a
(a) simple majority of the total number of
members of both the Houses present and
voting
(b) two-third majority of the total number of
members of both the Houses
(c) simple majority of the total number of
members of both the Houses
(d) two-third majority of the total number of
members of both the Houses present and
voting
109. Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral
college consisting of
(a) members of both Houses of Parliament
(b) members of Rajya Sabha only
(c) elected members of both Houses of Parliament
(d) elected members of Lok Sabha only
110. Which one among the following statements is
correct ?
The press in democracy must
(a) be free and impartial
(b) be committed to the policies of the government
Indian Polity & Governance || C-23
(c) highlight the achievement of the government
without criticizing its policies
(d) criticize the policies of the government
111. Joint Parliamentary Sessions in India are chaired
by the
(a) President of India
(b) Vice-President of India who is the Chairman
of the Rajya Sabha
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister of India
Directions (Qs. 112-113) : The following items consist
of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are
to examine these two statements carefully and select
the answers to these items using the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement
I.
(b) Both the statements are individually true but
Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
112. Statement I : The Constitution of India is a liberal
Constitution.
Statement II : It provides Fundamental Rights to
individuals.
113 . Statement-I : Sarkaria Commission recommended
that Governor of a state should be a non-political
person appointed after consultation with the Chief
Minister of the state.
Statement-II : This could be achieved through
amending Article 165 of the Constitution of India.
C-24 || Political System

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 14. (c) 27. (b) 40. (a) 53. (c) 66. (b) 79. (a) 92. (d) 105. (c)
2. (d) 15. (d) 28. (b) 41. (c) 54. (c) 67. (a) 80. (a) 93. (b) 106. (d)
3. (a) 16. (d) 29. (c) 42. (c) 55. (a) 68. (c) 81. (b) 94. (a) 107. (b)
4. (b) 17. (b) 30. (c) 43. (b) 56. (b) 69. (d) 82. (c) 95. (d) 108. (a)
5. (b) 18. (d) 31. (d) 44. (c) 57. (d) 70. (a) 83. (d) 96. (b) 109. (a)
6. (d) 19. (b) 32. (a) 45. (d) 58. (b) 71. (c) 84. (a) 97. (d) 110. (a)
7. (b) 20. (b) 33. (b) 46. (c) 59. (b) 72. (d) 85. (c) 98. (d) 111. (d)
8. (d) 21. (b) 34. (d) 47. (a) 60. (c) 73. (c) 86. (a) 99. (b) 112. (d)
9. (d) 22. (c) 35. (a) 48. (a) 61. (d) 74. (d) 87. (d) 100. (a) 113. (c)
10. (d) 23. (b) 36. (a) 49. (b) 62. (b) 75. (c) 88. (b) 101. (d)
11. (b) 24. (b) 37. (d) 50. (c) 63. (b) 76. (a) 89. (a) 102. (c)
12. (b) 25. (d) 38. (b) 51. (a) 64. (d) 77. (c) 90. (c) 103. (c)
13. (b) 26. (c) 39. (d) 52. (a) 65. (a) 78. (c) 91. (c) 104. (c)

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for
its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum
period of fourteen days.
2. (d) Department of women and child development is
not a department under Ministry of Human Resource
Development. Human Resources Development
(HRD) as a theory is a framework for the expansion
of human capital within an organization through
the development of both the organization and the
individual to achieve performance improvement.
4. (b) The Comptroller and Auditor General can
be removed on an address from both Houses of
Parliament. The Comptroller and Auditor General
(CAG) of India is an authority, established by the
Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits
all receipts and expenditure of the Government of
India and the state governments, including those
bodies and authorities substantially financed by the
government. The CAG is also the external auditor
of government-owned companies.
5. (b) To be officially recognised by the speaker
of Lok Sabha as an opposition Group, a party or
coalition of parties must have at least 60 members.
7. (b) The time limit for the ratification of an
emergency period by Parliament is 1 month. A
state of emergency in India refers to a period of
governance under an altered constitutional setup
that can be proclaimed by the President of India,
when he/she perceives grave threats to the nation
from internal and external sources or from financial
situations of crisis. Under the advice of the cabinet
of ministers and using the powers vested in him/her
largely by Part XVIII of the Constitution of India,
the President can overrule many provisions of the
Constitution, which guarantee fundamental rights to
the citizens of India and acts governing devolution
of powers to the states which form the federation.
9. (d) Salary and allowances of the speakers of the
Lok Sabha is not charged on the consolidated fund
of India. Consolidated fund or the consolidated
revenue fund is the term used for the main bank
account of the government in many of the countries
in the Commonwealth of Nations. All tax revenue is
paid into the fund unless Parliament has specifically
provided otherwise by law. Any money received
by the government which is not taxation, and is
not to be retained by the receiving department (for
example, fines), is classed as a Consolidated Fund
Extra Receipt (CFER). These are to be paid into the
Consolidated Fund as soon as they are received.

10. (d) The term `Scheduled Areas has been defined
in the Indian Constitution as such areas as the
President may by order declare to be Scheduled
Areas.
11. (b) The vacancy of the office of the President
of India must be filled up within 6 months. The
President is indirectly elected by the people through
elected members of the Parliament of India (Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha) as well as of the state
legislatures (Vidhan Sabhas and Vidhan Parishads)
and serves for a term of five years.
14. (c) The state of Jammu and Kashmir can nominate
two women members to the Legislative Assembly.
The two women may be nominated as members by
the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir if he or she
is of the opinion that women are not adequately
represented.
15. (d) The electoral college for Presidential elections
consists of all elected members of Union Parliament
and State Legislative Assemblies. The election is
held in accordance to the system of Proportional
representation by means of Single transferable vote
method. The Voting takes place by secret ballot
system. The manner of election of President is
provided by Article 55 of the Constitution.
19. (b) By the Parliament the President of India can
be impeached. The President may be removed
before the expiry of the term through impeachment.
A President can be removed for violation of the
Constitution of India. The process may start in
either of the two Houses of the Parliament. The
house initiates the process by levelling the charges
against the President. The charges are contained in a
notice that has to be signed by at least one quarter of
the total members of that house. The notice is sent
up to the President and 14 days later, it is taken up
for consideration.
20. (b) Education lies in the concurrent list. Education,
includes technical education, medical education and
universities, subject to the provisions of Entries 63,
64, 65 and 66 of List I.
22. (c) There are 12 members nominated by the
president in the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha
(RS) or Council of States is the upper house of
the Parliament of India. Membership is limited
to 250 members, 12 of whom are nominated by
the President of India for their contributions to
Indian Polity & Governance || C-25
art, literature, science, and social services. The
remainder of the body is elected by the state and
territorial legislatures. Members are elected for six-
year term, with one third of the members retiring
every two years.
26. (c) As a non-member, Attorney General can
participate in the proceedings of either House of
Parliament. The Attorney General of India is the
Indian governments chief legal advisor, and its
primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
He is appointed by the President of India under
Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office
during the pleasure of the President. He must be a
person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the
Supreme Court. The Attorney General has the right
of audience in all courts in India as well as the right
to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament,
though not to vote.
31. (d) Sarkaria Commission was set up to review the
relations between the Union and the States. Sarkaria
Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central
government of India. The Sarkaria Commissions
charter was to examine the relationship and
balance of power between state and central
governments in the country and suggests changes
within the framework of Constitution of India. The
Commission was so named as it was headed by
Justice Rajinder Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of
the Supreme Court of India. The other two members
of the committee were Shri B Sivaraman and Dr S R
Sen.
32. (a) Contingency Fund of each State Government is
established under Article 267(2) of the Constitution
this is in the nature of an imprest placed at the
disposal of the Governor to enable him/her to make
advances to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure,
pending authorization by the State Legislature.
33. (b) The first speaker against whom a motion of
non-confidence was moved in the Lok Sabha was
G.V. Mavalankar. Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar (27
November 1888 27 February 1956) popularly
known as Dadasaheb was an independence
activist, the President (from 1946 to 1947) of the
Central Legislative Assembly, then Speaker of the
Constituent Assembly of India, and later the first
Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the
Parliament of India.
C-26 || Political System
35. (a) Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok
Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are
sent to the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha may not
amend money bills but can recommend amendments.
To make sure that Rajya Sabha doesnt amend the
bill by adding some non-money matters (known as
Financial Bill), the Lok Sabha Speaker certifies the
bill as a money bill before sending it to the upper
house, and the decision of the Speaker is binding on
both the Houses.
36. (a) V.V. Giri, the President of India was associated
with trade Union movement. Varahagiri Venkata
Giri, commonly known as V. V. Giri, was the fourth
President of the Republic of India from 24 August
1969 to 23 August 1974. He served as Acting
President of India from 3 May 1969 to 20 July 1969,
before getting elected.
37. (d) The Governor of the States of India is
appointed by the President of India for a period of
five years. A Governor is appointed on the advice of
the Union Council of Ministers, or in reality on the
advice of the Prime Minister.
40. (a) The Council of Ministers has to resign if a
no-confidence motion is passed by a majority of
members of Lok Sabha. A motion of no confidence
is primarily a statement or vote which states that
a person in a superior position - be it government,
managerial, etc. - is no longer deemed fit to hold
that position. This may be based on said person
falling short in some respect, failing to carry out
obligations, or making choices that other members
feel are detrimental.
41. (c) The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner
of India is six years or till the age of 65 year whichever
is earlier. The Chief Election Commissioner
heads the Election Commission of India, a body
constitutionally empowered to conduct free and fair
elections to the national and state legislatures. He
is usually a member of the Indian Civil Service and
mostly from the Indian Administrative Service.
42. (c) In Estimate Committee there is no
representation of Rajya Sabha. The Estimates
Committee, constituted for the first time in 1950,
is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30
Members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha
from amongst its Members. The Chairman of
the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from
amongst its members.
48. (a) Parliamentary Supremacy is the definite
feature of the political system in U.K. Sir Ivor
Jennings illustrates this traditional view by
suggesting that Parliament can legislate for all
people and places there are no limits on the
territorial extent of an Act of Parliament. If a British
citizen commits an offence under British law he or
she can be prosecuted even if the act is not unlawful
in the country where the offence was committed.
49. (b) The Kamraj Plan proposed inducting senior
leaders to party work. Kamaraj remained Chief
Minister for three consecutive terms, winning
elections in 1957 and 1962. Kamaraj noticed that
the Congress party was slowly losing its vigour. He
came up with a plan which was called the Kamaraj
Plan. On 2 October 1963, he resigned from the
post of Tamil Nadu Chief Minister. He proposed
that all senior Congress leaders should resign from
their posts and devote all their energy to the re-
vitalization of the party.
50. (c) 6 months is the maximum time interval
permissible between the two successive session of
the parliament.
51. (a) In India partyless democracy was first
advocated by Jai Prakash Narayan. Jayaprakash
Narayan (11 October 1902 8 October 1979),
widely known as JP Narayan, Jayaprakash, or
Lok Nayak (Hindi for The Peoples Hero), was an
Indian independence activist and political leader,
remembered especially for leading the opposition to
Indira Gandhi in the 1970s and for giving a call for
peaceful total revolution.
56. (b) The presidential system operates on the
principle of separation of powers. India follows a
parliamentary system of government, which offers
a clear separation of powers. The judiciary branch
is fairly independent of the other two branches.
Executive powers are vested with the President and
Prime Minister, who are assisted by the Cabinet
Secretary and other Secretaries. All three branches
have checks and balances over each other to
maintain the balance.
58. (b) The President can declare three types of
emergencies:- national, state, financial under
articles 352, 356 & 360 in addition to promulgating
ordinances under article 123.

59. (b) The Vice President of India is the ex-officio
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, who presides over its
sessions.
62. (b) Cabinet Secretary is the highest civil servant
of the Union Government. The Cabinet Secretary is
the senior-most civil servant in the Government of
India. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head
of the Civil Services Board. The Cabinet Secretary
is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister.
Though there is no fixed tenure, the average tenure
of the Cabinet Secretary has been less than 3 years.
His or her tenure however, can be extended.
65. (a) The speakers vote in the Lok Sabha is called
casting vote. A casting vote is a vote given to the
presiding officer of a council or legislative body to
resolve a deadlock and which can be exercised only
when such a deadlock exists.
68. (c) The Parliamentary Committee which
scrutinizes the report of the CAG is public
accounts committee. The Comptroller and Auditor
General (CAG) is an authority, established by the
Constitution of India under Chapter V, which audits
all receipts and expenditure of the Government
and the state governments, including those bodies
and authorities substantially financed by the
government.
70. (a) Dr. Radhakrishnan held the office of the
Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms.
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was an Indian philosopher
and statesman who was the first Vice President of
India and the second President of India from 1962
to 1967.
75. (c) Rajya Sabha enjoys more power than the Lok
Sabha in the case of setting up of new All India
Services. The All India Services are the three all
India Civil Services of India, namely the Indian
Administrative Service (IAS), the Indian Forest
Service (IFS) and the Indian Police Service (IPS).
79. (a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha forms the advisory
committee of the Parliament. The task of the National
Advisory Council (NAC) is to provide inputs in the
formulation of policy by the government and to
provide support to the government in its legislative
business.
82. (c) The Prime Minister is the chairman of
the National Integration Council. The National
Integration Council originated in a conference
convened by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru
Indian Polity & Governance || C-27
in SeptemberOctober 1961. The purpose was to
find ways to counter problems that were dividing
the country including attachment to specific
communities, castes, regions and languages.
85. (c) Bicameralism has been one of the most
important features of Indias parliamentary
democracy. Ever since the coming into force of
the Constitution, both the Chambers of Indian
Parliament have been complementing each other in
more ways than one.
87. (d) Baliram Bhagat was not elected for two terms
as the speaker of Lok Sabha. Baliram Bhagat, an
Indian politician, he was born in Patna, Bihar. He
served as the Speaker of Lok Sabha from 1976
to 1977, during the turbulent final year of Indira
Gandhis first reign as Prime Minister.
90. (c) Article 56 of the Indian Constitution says that
the President shall hold office for a term of five
years from the date he takes up his post. He may
resign from his office by writing his resignation to
the Vice-President of India. But, he will continue to
hold his office, in spite of tendering his resignation,
until his successor takes up his office. And, before
his office gets vacated, an election should be held
for the same.
91. (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh was the Prime
Minister who resigned before facing a vote of no-
confidence in the Lok Sabha. Chaudhuri Charan
Singh was the sixth Prime Minister, serving from 28
July 1979 until 14 January 1980.
92. (d) Survey of India is under the Ministry of Science
and Technology. The Survey of India is Indias
central engineering agency in charge of mapping
and surveying. Set up in 1767 to help consolidate
the territories of the British East India Company, it
is one of the oldest Engineering Departments of the
Government of India.
93. (b) The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides
for an independent office of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India (CAG). CAG is the head
of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and
the guardian of public purse. He controls the entire
financial system of the country at the Centre and the
State.
95. (d) Zero Hour in Political jargon refers to
question answer session. Zero Hour in Parliament
starts at 12 noon during which members raise
matters of importance, especially those that cannot
be delayed.
C-28 || Political System
96. (b) The Estimates Committee, constituted for
the first time in 1950, is the largest Parliamentary
Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every
year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members.
98. (d) Indian National Congress (INC) or generally
known as the Congress Party is prominent political
player in India. INC came into existence in 1885
in Bombay. W.C. Bonnarjee was the first President
of the Indian National Congress. The congress is
ideologically committed to socialism, secularism
and democracy.
99. (b) BSP was founded in 1983 by Kanshi Ram.
Due to his deteriorating health in the 1990s, former
school teacher Mayawati became the partys leader.
101. (d) The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house, not
subject to disolution, one third of its members
retiring after every two years. Thus every member
enjoys a 6-year tenure.
102. (c) The Union Executive of India, as in
parliamentary type of government, consist of
president and the council of ministers. constitution is a mixture of both because laws/ acts
103. (c) The speaker of the Lok sabha can resign from
his office by addressing his resignation to the deputy
speaker of the Lok Sabha.
104. (c) Freedom of the press in India is implied in the
right of Freedom of Expression.
108. (a) Joint session is presided over by the speaker of
Lok Sabha or in his absence by the Deputy Speaker.
109. (a) members of both houses of parliament.
110. (a) A press in democracy must be free and
impartial.
111. (d) Joint Parliamentary sessions in India are
chaired by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. In India, if a
bill has been rejected by any house of the parliament
and more than six months have lapsed, the President
may summon a joint session for passing the bill.
The bill is passed by simple majority of a joint
sitting. Since the lower house (Lok Sabha) has
more than twice the members in upper house, group
commanding majority in lower house i.e. Govt of
India can get such a bill passed although it was
rejected by the upper house. Until now, only three
bills namely the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, the
Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill, 1978 and
the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 have been
passed at joint sessions.
112. (d) A constitution may be rigid or flexible, but
rigid constitution cannt be amended easily. Indian
are made and amended by adopting the legislative
procedures.
113. (c) Article 165 is related to the Advocate General
for the state. The Governor of each state shall
appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed
a Judge of a High court to be Advocate General for
the state.
 3 Local Government and
Public Policy

1. A committee appointed in 1977 to review working 8. Which one of the following states started the
of the Panchayti Raj was chaired by Panchayati Raj institution soon after the 73rd
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Constitutional Amendment Act was passed?
(b) Ashok Mehta (a) Karnataka (b) Bihar
(c) K.N. Katju (c) West Bengal (d) Orissa
(d) Jagjivan Ram 9. The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater emphasis
2. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides on
for the institution of Panchayti Raj? (a) Gram Sabha
(a) Article 36 (b) Article 39 (b) Mandal Sabha
(c) Article 40 (d) Article 48 (c) Taluka Panchayat Samiti
3. Which one of the following is not a Panchayati (d) Zila Parishad
Raj institution? 10. Panchayati Raj in India represents:
(a) Gram Sabha (a) Decentralization of powers
(b) Gram Panchayat (b) Participation of the people
(c) Nyaya Panchayat (c) Community development
(d) Gram Co-operative Society (d) All of these
4. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced 11. Panchayati Raj in India is laid down under:
in India? (a) Fundamental Rights
(a) 1945 (b) 1950 (b) Directive Principle of State Policy
(c) 1959 (d) 1962 (c) Fundamental Duties
5. Which of the following is a source of income of (d) Election Commission Act Policy
the Gram Panchayats? 12. Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj consists of
(a) Income Tax (b) Sales Tax (a) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Block
(c) Professional Tax (d) Duties Samiti
6. The Constitution of India mandates that the (b) Gram Panchayat, Block Samiti, Zila Parishad
elections of the Panchayati Raj should be held (c) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila
regularly after a gap of: Parishad
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years (d) Gram Panchayat, Zila Parishad, Block Samiti
(c) 4 years (d) 5 years 13. Who was the president of the committee on
7. The 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution whose recommendation was the Panchayati Raj
deals with established in India?
(a) Panchayati Raj (a) Balwant Rai Mehta
(b) Compulsory primary education (b) Ashok Mehta
(c) Nagar Palikas (c) Dr. Iqbal Narayan
(d) Minimum age of marriage (d) Jeevraj Mehta
C-30 || Local Government and Public Policy
14. The Panchayati Raj system was first started in India
in the states of Rajasthan and...
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Gujrat (d) Haryana
15. The decision to conduct Panchayat Elections is
taken by which of the following?
(a) The Central Government 24. The constitutional status has been given to
(b) The State Government
(c) The District Judge
(d) The Election Commission
16. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level is
(a) An advisory body
(b) An administrative authority
(c) A consultant committee
(d) A supervisory authority
17. The main purpose of Panchayati Raj is
(a) To create employment
(b) To increase agricultural production
(c) To make people politically conscious
(d) To make people participate in development
administration
18. Nyaya Panchayats in Panchayti Raj system have
no powers of awarding imprisonment except in
the state of
(a) West Bengal (a) One month (b) Three months
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Bihar
19. Which of the following Indian states has no
Panchayati Raj institution?
(a) Assam (b) Tripura
(c) Kerala (d) Nagaland
20. Functions to be assigned to panchayats by 73rd
amendment of the Constitution are mentioned in
(a) Tenth schedule (b) Eleventh schedule
(c) Twelfth schedule (d) Thirteenth schedule
21. Provision regarding panchayats and municipalities
was made in the Indian Constitution in which year?
(a) 1991 (b) 1992
(c) 1995 (d) 2000
22. When and where Panchayati Raj system in India
was introduced?
(a) July5, 1957; Firozabad (U.P)
(b) October 2, 1959; Nagor (Rajasthan)
(c) Nov 14, 1959; Ahmedabad (Gujrat)
(d) December 3, 1960; Bhopal (M.P)
23. Which committee had first of all recommended
three-tier Panchayati Raj in India in 1957?
(a) Balwant Rai Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Setalwad Committee
(d) Hanumantayaa Committee
Panchayats under Article.
(a) 219 (b) 226
(c) 239 (d) 243
25. Panchayati Raj is organised at the
(a) block level
(b) village, block, district and state level
(c) village, block and district level
(d) village and block level
26. The Panchayati Raj institution at the block level
is known as:
(a) Gram Panchayat (b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Zila Parishad (d) None of these
27. What is the middle unit in the three tier Panchayati
Raj System?
(a) Gram Panchayat (b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Zila Parishad (d) Union Board
28. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held
within:
(c) Six months (d) One year
29. Which act provides for the reservation seats for
women, scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in
the municipality?
(a) 65th Constitutional Amendment Act
(b) 68th Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act
30. The Municipal Commissioner is appointed by
(a) Member of Legislative Assembly
(b) Zila Parishad
(c) State Government
(d) District Magistrate
31. The Panchayati Raj is included in the
(a) Union list (b) State list
(c) Concurrent list (d) Residuary list
32. Which one of the following Articles provides for
the reservation of seats for the scheduled caste and
scheduled tribes in the Panchayat?
(a) Article 243(A) (b) Article 243(B)
(c) Article 243(C) (d) Article 243(D)

33. Panchayati Raj is based on the principles of
(a) decentralisation
(b) deconcentration
(c) decmocratic centralization
(d) democratic decentralisation
34. Which of the following committees is not concerned
with Panchayati Raj?
(a) Santhnam Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(d) V.K.R.V. Rao Committee
35. Which one of the following models was suggested
by the Ashok Mehta Committee for the Panchayati
Raj in India?
(a) Three-tier model
(b) Mandal Panchayat model
(c) Two-tier model
(d) Gram Panchayat model
36. Which one of the following Directive principles
is nearer to Gandhis philosophy?
(a) Equal pay for equal work
(b) Separation of executive from judiciary
(c) Strengthening of Gram Panchayats
(d) Equal justice and free legal aid
37. Which of the following committees recommended
that the elections to Panchayati Raj bodies should
be held on party lines?
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta committee
(b) Ashok committee
(c) Dhar Committee
(d) VKRV Rao committee
38. Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India
are conducted by
(a) State Election Commissioner
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) State Government
(d) Central Government
39. Which one of the following is not the concern of
local government?
(a) Public health (a) Engineering and technical education
(b) Sanitation
(c) Public utility service
(d) Maintenance of public order
Indian Polity & Governance || C-31
40. Under 74th Amendment of the Constitution, the
local body for a transitional area is known as
(a) Nyaya Panchayat
(b) Municipal Panchayat
(c) Nagar Panchayat
(d) Gram Panchayat
41. The idea of organization of Panchayats as a duty
of state is mentioned in which part of the Indian
Constitution?
(a) Chapter I (b) Chapter II
(c) Chapter III (d) Chapter IV
42. In which year, the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Act (1972) was assented by the President?
(a) 1990 (b) 1991
(c) 1993 (d) 1994
43. In which year, Ashok Mehta Committee was
appointed to review the working of Panchayati
Raj institution?
(a) 1977 (b) 1978
(c) 1979 (d) 1980
44. Which article of the constitution lays down that
state shall take steps to organise village Panchayats?
(a) Article 36 (b) Article 73
(c) Article 24 (d) Article 40
45. After elections, vote of no-confidence against the
sarpanch can be proposed only after
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months
(c) 1 year (d) 2 years
46. In India, the community development programme
was started on:
(a) October 2, 1952 (b) October 2, 1957
(c) October 2, 1959 (d) October 2, 1961
47. Mid-day meal is a scheme to provide nutritious
food to
(a) those taking treatment in hospital
(b) school-going children
(c) daily wage employees/labours
(d) girls who are residing in girls/youth hostels
48. Sarva Siksha Abhiyan is aimed at the education
of which of the following?
(b) Education of girls upto graduation level
(c) College education
(d) Education of children between 6-14 years
C-32 || Local Government and Public Policy
49. STEP is the abbreviated name of the welfare 59. The programme announced by the Prime Minister
programme to help: for the minorities in India is called.
(a) Children (b) Women (a) Antodaya Programme
(c) Farmers (d) Senior Citizens (b) 20 Point Programme
50. Which one is not the component of the Pradhan (c) 15 Point Programme
Mantri Gramodaya Yojna? (d) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojna
(a) Elementary education 60. When was the concept of the HDI introduced by
(b) Primary health the United Nations Development Programme?
(c) Rural road (a) 1990 (b) 1991
(d) Nutrition (c) 1993 (d) 1995
51. Which is NOT included in social infrastructure?
61. On which of the following basis has the Planning
(a) Education
Commission defined poverty line in rural areas
(b) Telecommunication
(c) Housing in India?
(d) Health (a) 1800 k cal (b) 2400 k cal.
52. Swaranajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna came (c) 2500 k cal. (d) 2600 k cal.
into being in: 62. Indian development report does NOT give which
(a) April, 1995 (b) April, 1997 of the following for each sample village ?
(b) April, 1999 (d) July, 2001 (a) Infrastructure and Amenities Index
53. Who amongst the following developed the concept (b) Educational Related Index
of Human Development Index ? (c) Health Related Index
(a) Amartya Sen (b) A.S. Kabir (d) Unemployment Related index
(c) Alva Myrdal (d) Mehboob-ul-Haq 63. What is the name of the scheme which provides
54. The National Rural Employment Scheme was training and skills to women in traditional and
launched throughout the country from non-traditional trades?
(a) 01-04-2007 (b) 02-10-2007 (a) Kishori Shakti Yojna
(c) 14-11-2007 (d) 01-04-2008 (b) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
55. Mid-day meal scheme was launched in 1995 to (c) Swayamsiddha
promote: (d) Swawlamban
(a) Adult literacy 64. Which of the following articles in the shape of the
(b) Secondary education
directive principles mentions the organisation of
(c) Universalization of primary education
the village panchayats?
(d) None of these
(a) Article 40 (b) Article 43
56. National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
was launched initially in: (c) Article 44 (d) Article 47
(a) 100 districts (b) 200 districts 65. A 2-tier system is prescribed by the 73rd
(c) 330 districts (d) All the districts Amendment Act, 1992 for states with population
57. National Rural Health Mission(NRHM) was less than
launched in the year (a) 10 lakhs (b) 5 lakhs
(a) 2003 (b) 2004 (c) 20 lakhs (d) none of these
(c) 2005 (d) 2006 66. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect
58. Which of the following is not included in Human of Local Government in India?
development index(HDI)? (a) According to the Indian Constitution, local
(a) Life expectancy government is not an independent tier in the
(b) Real per capital income federal system.
(c) Social inequality (b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved
(d) Adult literacy for women

(c) Local government finances are to be provided
by a Commission
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined
by a Commission
67. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set
up in which one among the following?
(a) Calcutta (b) Madras
(c) Bombay (d) Delhi
68. In 1986, the Rajiv Gandhi Government appointed
a committee on Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj
Institutions for Democracy and Development
under the chairmanship of:
(a) L.M.Singhvi (b) G.V.K Rao
(c) V.N.Gadgil (d) Asok Mehta
69. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993,
there are several fresh provisions deviating from
the past. Which one of the following is not one
such provisions?
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area
of agriculture rural development, primary
education and social forestry among other
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts
at the time they are due
(c) A statutory representation for women in the
panchayats, up to a third of the strength
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat
members, so as to ensure their punctuality
and accountability
70. Swaraj Trophy is associated with which of the
following
(a) Best district (b) Best Zila Parishad
(c) Best metropolitan (d) Best Panchayat
71. Who is responsible to make changes in names and
boundaries of the states?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Parliament
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Governor
72. Which is the first state in South India to introduce
Panchayati Raj?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnatka
Indian Polity & Governance || C-33
73. Under which Prime Minister were the 73rd and
74th amendment implemented?
(a) Narasimha Rao
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
74. Which of the following articles states that State
shall take necessary steps to organize village
panchayat?
(a) Article 40 (b) Article 30
(c) Article 29 (d) Article 101
75. Which of the following is not a feature of the
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) Scheme?
(a) Provision of 100 days of guaranteed wage
employment for all registered households of
the Village Panchayat.
(b) Adult members of rural households may
register themselves with the Village
Panchayat.
(c) No contractors or machineries are allowed.
(d) There is inequality in the wages of men and
women.
76. Prime minister Narendra Modi launched twin
programmes of Beti bachao, beti padhao and
Sukanya Samriddhi account in a bid to
(a) encourage birth and education of girls
(b) discourage child marriage
(c) promote social harmony
(d) develop the infrastructure of educational
institutions
77. In India, according to the UN report, the current
sex ratio is
(a) 918 girls to 1000 boys
(b) 1000 girls to 918 boys
(c) 988 girls to 1000 boys
(d) 845 girls to 1000 boys
78. To work towards the vision of Gandhijis Clean
India, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched
the Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan on
(a) October 2, 2014
(b) January 30, 2015
(c) January 1, 2015
(d) November 30, 2014
C-34 || Local Government and Public Policy
79. Under the Prime Minister Narendra Modis
Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana, the responsibility
of developing of how many villages will be taken
by each MP by 2019?
(a) One (b) Three
(c) Two (d) Four
80. The Prime Minister launched on August 21, 2014,
the Digital India campaign whose idea is to
(a) change India into an electronically empowered
economy
(b) connect India digitally with other worlds
economies
(c) link all railways digitally
(d) display the government data and statistics by
means of displayed digits
81. Which of the following is not a component of
Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
(a) Interest on deposit and no minimum balance
required
(b) Accidental insurance cover of Rs.1.00 lakh
and life insurance cover of Rs.30,000/-
(c) Easy Transfer of money across India and
access to Pension, insurance products
(d) No overdraft facility
82. Come, Make in India- Prime Minister Modis
push to revive an ailing manufacturing sector has
aimed at facilitating
(a) Single-window clearances
(b) minimal procedures
(c) cutting out of any red-tapism
(d) all the above
83. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has Launched
Sukanya Samridhi Yojna (girl child prosperity
scheme) which would fetch yearly interest rate of
(a) 10 per cent (b) 9.1 per cent
(c) 12 per cent (d) 8 per cent
84. Which among the following in India have been
referred to as Glorified Municipalities by critics?
(a) Nagar Nighams (b) Union Territories
(c) Panchayats (d) States
85. Which one of the following Amendments of
the Constitution of India deals with the issue of
strengthening of the Panchayati Raj?
(a) 42nd (b) 44th
(c) 73rd (d) 86th
86. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution
of India makes a specific mention of village
panchayats?
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 21
(c) Article 40 (d) Article 246
87. The entry Public health and Sanitation is
included in the Constitution of India in
(a) Union List (b) State List
(c) Concurrent List (d) None of these
88. Point out the difference between the local
government in India before and after the
Constitutional Amendments in 1992:
1. It has become mandatory to hold regular
elections to the local government bodies.
2. 1/3rd positions are reserved forwomen.
3. Elected officials exercise supreme power in
the government.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
 Indian Polity & Governance || C-35

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 10. (d) 19. (d) 28. (c) 37. (b) 46. (a) 55. (c) 64. (a) 73. (a) 82. (d)
2. (c) 11. (b) 20. (b) 29. (d) 38. (a) 47. (b) 56. (b) 65. (c) 74. (a) 83. (b)
3. (d) 12. (c) 21. (b) 30. (c) 39. (d) 48. (d) 57. (c) 66. (b) 75. (d) 84. (d)
4. (c) 13. (a) 22. (b) 31. (b) 40. (c) 49. (b) 58. (c) 67. (a) 76. (a) 85. (c)
5. (d) 14. (a) 23. (a) 32. (d) 41. (d) 50. (d) 59. (c) 68. (a) 77. (a) 86. (c)
6. (d) 15. (b) 24. (d) 33. (d) 42. (c) 51. (b) 60. (a) 69. (d) 78. (a) 87. (b)
7. (a) 16. (d) 25. (c) 34. (a) 43. (a) 52. (c) 61. (b) 70. (d) 79. (b) 88. (b)
8. (a) 17. (c) 26. (b) 35. (c) 44. (d) 53. (d) 62. (d) 71. (b) 80. (a)
9. (b) 18. (b) 27. (b) 36. (c) 45. (d) 54. (d) 63. (d) 72. (a) 81. (d)

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) The Committee appointed in 1977 to review
working of the Panchayati Raj was chaired by
Ashok Mehta. The committee submitted its report
in August 1978 and made 132 recommendations to
revive and strengthen the declining Panchayati Raj
system in the country. As a result of this report, the
Indian states of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and
West Bengal passed new legislations.
2. (c) Article 40, of the Indian Constitution provides
for the institution of Panchayati Raj. The State shall
take steps to organize village panchayats and endow
them with such powers and authority as may be
necessary to enable them to function as units of self
government.
3. (d) Panchayati Raj Institutions include Gram Sabha,
Gram Panchayat, Nyaya Panchayat, Panchayat
Samiti and Zila Parishad. Gram Co-operative
society is not a PRI.
4. (c) In 1959 the Panchayati Raj system was
introduced in India. The Balwant Rai Mehta
Committee was appointed by the Government of
India in January 1957 to examine the working of
the Community Development Programme (1952)
and the National Extension Service (1953) and
to suggest measures for their better working. The
recommendations of the committee were approved
by NDC in January 1958 and this set the stage for the
launching of Panchayati Raj Institutions throughout
the country. The committee recommended the
establishment of the scheme of democratic
decentralisation which finally came to be known as
Panchayati Raj.
5. (d) Levy duties is a source of income of the Gram
Panchayats. The panchayats receive funds from
three sources:
Local body grants, as recommended by the Central
Finance Commission.
Funds for implementation of centrally sponsored
schemes.
Funds released by the state governments on the
recommendations of the State Finance Commissions.
7. (a) The 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution
deals with Panchayati Raj. The Amendment Act of
1992 contains provision for devolution of powers
and responsibilities to the panchayats both for the
preparation of economic development plans and
social justice, as well as for implementation in
relation to 29 subjects listed in the eleventh schedule
of the Constitution.
12. (c) Panchayati Raj is a system of governance in
which are the basic unit of administrations . It has
3 levels: Gram panchayat (village level), Mandal
Parishad or block samiti or panchayat samiti (block
level) and Zila parishad (district level).
C-36 || Local Government and Public Policy
13. (a) The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, headed
by MP Balwantrai Mehta, was a committee
appointed by the Government of India in January
1957 to examine the working of the Community
Development Programme (1952) and the National
Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures
for their better working. The recommendations of
the committee were approved by NDC in January
1958 and this set the stage for the launching of
Panchayati Raj Institutions throughout the country.
The committee recommended the establishment of
the scheme of democratic decentralisation which
finally came to be known as Panchayati Raj.
14. (a) The panchayat raj system was first adopted by
the state of Rajsthan in Nagor district on 2nd Oct
1959. The second state was Andhra Pradesh, while
Maharashtra was the Ninth state.
15. (b) : The State Election Commissions constituted
under the Constitution (Seventy-third and Seventy-
fourth) Amendments Act, 1992 for each State / Union
Territory are vested with the powers of conduct of
elections to the Corporations, Muncipalities, Zilla
Parishads, District Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis,
Gram Panchayats and other local bodies. They are
independent of the Election Commission of India.
16. (d). The principal function of the Panchayat Samiti
is to coordinate the activities of the various
Panchayats within its jurisdiction. The Panchayat
Samiti supervises the work of the Panchayats and
scrutinises their budgets. It also reserves the right
to suggest measures for improving the functioning
of the Panchayats. The Samiti is charged with the
responsibility of preparing and colon implementing
plans for the development of agriculture, animal to
SU (husbandry, fisheries, small scale and cottage
industries, rural health tropic etc.
17. (c) The main aim of Panchayat raj system is to settle
the local problems locally and to make the people
politically conscious.
18. (b) Nyaya Panchayat extends to the whole of India
except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
19. (d) Nagaland has no Panchayat Raj institution.
Currently, the Panchayati Raj system exists in all the
states except Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram,
and in all Union Territories except Delhi.
21. (b) The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992
relating to Panchayats containing articles 243 to
243-O and the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act,
1992 relating to Municipalities (articles 243P to
243ZG) imparted some basic features of certainty,
continuity and strength to Panchayat Raj institutions
all over the country.
22. (b) The panchayat raj system was first adopted by
the state of Rajsthan in Nagor district on 2nd Oct
1959.
23. (a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee had first of all
recommended three-tier Panchayati Raj in India in
1957. The Act aims to provide a 3-tier system of
Panchayati Raj for all States having a population of
over 2 million, to hold Panchayat elections regularly
every 5 years, to provide seats reservations for
scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and women;
to appoint a State Finance Commission to make
recommendations as regards to the financial powers
of the Panchayats and to constitute a District
Planning Committee to prepare a development plan
draft for the district.
24. (d) Article 243 gives constitutional status to the
Panchayats.
25. (c) Panchayati Raj is organised at the village, block
and district level. The 3-tier system of Panchayati
Raj consists of Village-level Panchayats, Block-
level Panchayats, District-level Panchayats.
26. (b) Panchayati Raj institution at the block level is
called the Panchayat Samiti. It is the second tier of
the Panchayati Raj system and acts as a link between
village panchayat and district panchayat.
27. (b) Panchayat Samiti is the middle unit in the
three-tier Panchayati Raj system. A block panchayat
(panchayat samiti) is a local government body at the
tehsil or taluka level in India. This body works for
the villages of the tehsil or taluka that together are
called a Development Block. The panchayat samiti
is the link between the gram panchayat and the
district administration.
28. (c) An election to constitute a Panchayat shall be
completed before the expiration of a period of six
months from the date of its dissolution.
30. (c) A municipal commissioner is appointed by the
state government from the Indian Administrative
Service and mostly from Provincial Civil Service
to head the administrative staff of the Municipal
Corporation, implement the decisions of the
Corporation and prepare its annual budget.
31. (b) Panchayati Raj is included in the State List of
the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.

32. (d) According to Article 243 (D) seats should be
reserved for SC and ST in every Panchayat and the
number of seats of reserved shall bear, as nearly as
may be, the same proportion to the total number of
seats to be filled by direct election in that Panchayat
as the population of the Scheduled Castes in that
Panchayat area or of the Scheduled Tribes in that
Panchayat area bears to the total population of
that area such seats may be allotted by rotation to
different constituencies in a Panchayat.
33. (d) The principle of democratic decentralisation is
very important and forms the basis of Panchayati
Raj.
34. (a) THE SANTHANAM Committee Report 1964
defines corruption as a complex problem having
roots and ramifications in society as a whole.
35. (c) Two-tier model was suggested by the Ashok
Mehta committee for the Panchayati Raj in India.
The 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj should be
replaced by the 2-tier system: Zilla Parishad at the
district level, and below it, the Mandal Panchayat
consisting of a group of villages covering a
population of 15000 to 20000.
37. (b) According to Ashok Mehta Committee, there
should be an official participation of political parties
at all levels of Panchayat elections.
38. (a) The superintendence, direction and control of
the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct
of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in
a State Election Commission consisting of a State
Election Commissioner to be appointed by the
Governor.
39. (d) The local government of India are vested with
a long list of functions delegated to them by the
state governments under the municipal legislation.
These functions broadly relate topublic health,
welfare, regulatory functions, public safety, public
infrastructure works, and development activities.
40. (c) Under 74th Amendment of the Constitution
the local body for a transitional area is known as
Nagar Panchayat. This article provides that there be
a Nagar Panchayat for transitional areas i.e. an area
in transition from rural to urban, a municipality for
a smaller urban area and a municipal corporation for
a larger urban area.
43. (a) In December 1977, the Janata Government
appointed a committee on Panchayati Raj
institutions under the chairmanship of Ashoka
Indian Polity & Governance || C-37
Mehta. The committee submitted its report in
August 1978 and made 132 recommendations to
revive and strengthen the declining Panchayati Raj
system in the country.
44. (d) Article 40 of the Constitution which enshrines
one of the Directive Principles of State Policy lays
down that the state shall take steps to organise
village panchayats and endow them with such
powers and authority as may be necessary to enable
them to function as units of self-government.
45. (d) Provided that if the no-confidence motion is
lost another such motion shall not be moved against
that Sarpanch before the expiry of two years from
the date of its having been lost.
46. (a) The community development programme was
launched on a pilot basis in 1952 to provide for a
substantial increase in the countrys agricultural
programme, and for improvements in systems of
communication, in rural health and hygiene, and
in rural education and also to initiate and direct
a process of integrated culture change aimed
at transforming the social and economic life of
villagers.
47. (b) The Midday Meal Scheme is a school meal
programme of the Government of India designed to
improve the nutritional status of school-age children
nationwide.
48. (d) Sarva Siksha Abhiyanis aimed at the education
of children between 6-14 years Sarva Shiksha
Abhiyan is a Indian Government programme aimed
at the universalisation of elementary education in
a time bound manner, as mandated by the 86th
amendment to the Constitution of India making free
and compulsory education to children of ages 614
(estimated to be 205 million in number in 2001) a
fundamental right. The programme was pioneered
by Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
49. (b) STEP is Support to Training and Employment
Programme for Women.
50. (d) Nutrition is not the component of the Pradhan
Mantri Gramodaya Yojna. Pradhan Mantri
Gramodaya Yojana aims at -
1. meeting rural needs like primary education,
health care, drinking water, housing, rural
roads
2. alleviating employment in rural areas
3. generating employment in rural areas
4. strengthening Panchayati Raj system in rural
areas
C-38 || Local Government and Public Policy
51. (b) Social Infrastructure is a subset of the
infrastructure sector and typically includes assets
that accommodate social services. It includes health,
education, housing, civic utilities, transportation
and justice.
52. (c) Swaranajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna came
into being in April, 1999. Swarnajayanti Gram
Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) is an initiative launched
by the Government of India to provide sustainable
income to poor people living in rural areas of the
country. The scheme was launched on April 1, 1999.
The SGSY aims at providing self-employment to
villagers through the establishment of Self-help
groups.
53. (d) Mehbub-ul-Haq developed the concept of
Human Development Index. Mahbub-ul-Haq,
was a game theorist, economist, and professor of
Microeconomics at the University of Karachi. He
was involved in the human development theory, and
the founder of the Human Development Report.
54. (d) The National Rural Employment Scheme was
lauched throughout the country from 01-04-2008.
55. (c) National Programme of Nutritional Support
to Primary Education, popularly known as the
Mid-Day Meal Scheme (MDM) was started in
1995 in an attempt to enhance enrolment, retention
and attendance while simultaneously improving
nutritional levels among children in school.
56. (b) National Rural Employment Guarantee
scheme was launched initially in 200 districts.
57. (c) National Rural Health Mission(NRHM) was
launched in the year 2005. National Rural Health
Mission (NRHM) was launched by the Honble
Prime Minister on 13th April 2005, to provide
accessible, affordable and quality healthcare to the
rural population, especially the vulnerable groups.
Under the NRHM, the Empowered Action Group
(EAG) states as well as North Eastern States,
Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh have
been given special focus.
58. (c) Human development index includes three
dimensions: Life Expectancy Index; education
index and income index.
59. (c) 15 point Programme for minorities is a
controversial programme approved by Indian
government in 2006 for welfare of religious
minorities. It ran into controversies with the then
principal opposition party Bharatiya Janata Party
charging the UPA government of communal
budgeting, minority appeasement, religious
discrimination and vote bank politics. The Central
government had allocated 15% of plan outlays for
implementation of the 15 points.
60. (a) HDI was created by Indian economist
Amartya Sen and Pakistani economist Mahbub
ul Haq in 1990, and was published by the United
Nations Development Programme.
63. (d) Swavlamban is the name of the scheme which
provides training and skills to women in traditional
and non-traditional trades. Swawlamban(NORAD)
Scheme is being implemented by the Department
of Women and Child Development with partial
assistance from Norway since 1982.
64. (a) Article 40 states thatthe State shall take steps to
organise village panchayats and endow them with
such powers and authority as may be necessary to
enable them to function as units of self-government.
65. (c) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 provides for 3-tier
system of Panchayati Raj for all the states having
population of over 20 Lakhs.
66. (b) According to 73rd amendment act 1993, under
article 243D, not less than 1/3rd i.e. 33% seats
should be reserved for women.
67. (a) Calcutta Municipal Corporation was set up in
the year 1876.
68. (a) In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi Government appointed
a committee on the Revitalisation of the Panchayati
Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development
under the chairmanship of L. M. Singhvi.
69. (d) Provision given in option (d) is not included
under 73rd amendment act 1993.
77. (a) Sex ratio is a term used to define number of
females per 1000 males. Sex ratio in India varies
from region to region. There was increase in sex
ratio unfortunately in some regions there was a
sudden decline in the ratio. According to the UN
report, the ratio has dipped from 976 girls to 1000
boys in 1961, to 927 girls in 2001; and to 918 girls
in 2011.
79. (b) According to Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana, each
MP will take the responsibility of developing three
villages by 2019. The idea is to make Indias villages
to be fully developed with physical and institutional
infrastructure. There are certain guidelines for
this scheme, which have been formulated by the
Department of Rural Development.

80. (a) According to digital India, the Government
of India wants all Government departments and
the people of India to connect with each other
digitally or electronically, so that there is effective
governance. It also aims at reducing paperwork by
making all the Government services available to
the people electronically. There is also a plan to
connect all villages and rural areas through internet
networks.
81. (d) After satisfactory operation of the account for
6 months, an overdraft facility of upto Rs.5000/-
is available in only one account per household,
preferably lady of the household.
82. (d) Come, Make in India- PM Modis aggressive
push to revive an ailing manufacturing sector, has
found resonance with India Inc. Single-window
clearances, minimal procedures and cutting out of
any red-tapism. PM Modi also sees Make in India
as a vital impetus for employment and growth.
Indian Polity & Governance || C-39
84. (d) The critics slammed the Centre for making
attempts to weaken the States with too much
interference, reducing them to the status of glorified
municipal corporations. According to them the
Union government was continuously proving that
it is completely out of sync with ground realities.
85. (c) The 73rd Amendment (1992) of Indian
constitution provided for constitution of
municipalities, reservation of seats in every
municipality for the SC and ST women and
backward classes.
87. (b) The entry public health and sanitation is
included in the state list of the constitution of India.
88. (b) Not less than one-third (including the number
of seats reserved for women belonging to the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) of the
total number of seats to be filled by direct election in
every Municipality shall be reserved for women
and such seats may be allotted by rotation to
different constituencies in a Municipality.
 4 Judiciary

1. What does the Judicial Review function of the (a) Violation of constitution
Supreme Court mean? (b) Proved misbehaviours
(a) Review its own judgment (c) Incapacity to act as a judge
(b) Review the functioning of judiciary in the country (d) (b) & (c) both
(c) Examine the constitutional validity of the 8. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with
constitution (a) judicial review
(d) Examine the judicial amendments (b) judicial activism
2. The disputes regarding the election of the President (c) judicial intervention
and Vice-President of India are decided by the- (d) judicial sanctity
(a) Parliament 9. Who held the power to increase the number of
(b) Election Commission judges in the Supreme Court?
(c) Supreme Court (a) Prime Minister (b) President
(d) High Court (c) Parliament (d) Ministry of Law
3. How many types of writs can be issued by the 10. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President
Supreme Court? and the Vice-President at the same time, the office
(a) 2 (b) 3 is held temporarily by
(c) 5 (d) 6 (a) The Prime Minister
4. The Supreme Court of India enjoys (b) The Chief Justice of India
(a) Original jurisdiction (c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Advisory jurisdiction (d) None of these
(c) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions 11. Acting Chief Justice of the Supreme Court in India
(d) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions. is appointed by the
5. What makes the judiciary the guardian of the (a) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
constitution? (b) Prime Minister
(a) Independence (b) Service conditions (c) President
(c) Salary (d) Judicial Review (d) Law Minister
6. In the Supreme Court of India the number of judges 12. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the
including the Chief Justice is now Supreme Court of India, on any question of law?
(a) 20 (b) 21 (a) Prime Minister
(c) 25 (d) 31 (b) President
7. On which of the following grounds can a judge of (c) Any judge of the High Court
the Supreme Court be impeached? (d) All of the above

13. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide
disputes between the Centre and the State falls
under its _________
(a) Advisory Jurisdiction
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction
(c) Constitutional Jurisdiction
(d) Original Jurisdiction
14. Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted by:
(a) Powers of the President of India
(b) Judicial Review
(c) Powers of the Prime Minister of India
(d) Leader of the opposition
15. Who of the following Chief Justice of India acted
as the President of India also?
(a) Justice M. Hidayatullah
(b) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(c) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan
(d) Justice B.K. Mukherjee
16. The Indian Constitution provides for the appointment
of Ad hoc judges in:
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) District and Session Court
(d) All of these
17. Salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court are
determined by:
(a) Pay Commission appointed by the President
(b) Law Commission (d) The Law Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) Council of Ministers
18. Which of the following courts in India is/are known
as the court(s) of Records?
(a) The High Court only (d) President on the advice of Governor of the
(b) The Supreme Court only
(c) The High Court and Supreme Court
(d) The District Court
19. The system of Judicial Review exists in
(a) India only (b) U.K. only
(c) U.S.A. only (d) India and U.S.A.
20. Which article of the Constitution permits the
Supreme Court to review its own judgement or
order?
(a) Article 137 (b) Article 138
(c) Article 139 (d) Article 140
Indian Polity & Governance || C-41
21. Who is the custodian of Indian Constitution?
(a) President (b) Parliament
(c) Council Court (d) Supreme Court
22. Who has the right to transfer any case anywhere
in India?
(a) President (b) Supreme Court
(c) High Court (d) None of these
23. Who is the final authority to interpret the
Constitution?
(a) The President (b) The Parliament
(c) The Lok Sabha (d) The Supreme Court
24. The Supreme Court of India was set up by the
(a) Regulating Act, 1773
(b) Pitts India Act, 1984
(c) Charter Act, 1813
(d) Charter Act, 1833
25. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public
Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the
Indian judicial system?
(a) M. Hidayatullah (b) A.M. Ahmadi
(c) P.N. Bhagwati (d) A.S. Anand
26. Who is authorized to transfer the judges of one
High Court to another High Court?
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) A collegium of judges of the Supreme Court.
27. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Justice of India
state concerned and the Chief Justice of India
28. Which of the following state/Union territories have
a common High Court?
(a) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(b) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
(c) Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Assam and Bengal
29. In which year was the High Court in Madras
established?
(a) 1862 (b) 1871
(c) 1881 (d) 1891
C-42 || Judiciary
30. The mobile court in India is brainchild of:
(a) Justice Bhagwati over more than one state (Union territories not
(b) Mr. Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(d) Mrs. Pratibha Patil
31. A high court judge addresses his letter of resignation
to:
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Chief Justice of High Court
(d) The Governor of the state
32. Which one of the following states does not have
its High Court?
(a) Orissa (b) Sikkim
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Goa
33. Which of the following High Courts has the largest
number of Benches?
(a) Kolkata High Court (a) Article 13 (b) Article 32
(b) Madhya Pradesh High Court
(c) Bombay High Court
(d) Guwahati High Court
34. Which one of the following is NOT the main
jurisdiction of the High Court of a state?
(a) Advisory Jurisdiction (c) Article 143 (d) Article 148
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Supervisory Jurisdiction
(d) Appellate Jurisdiction
35. The first High/Supreme Court judge, who
voluntarily made his assets public is
(a) Justice D.V.S. Kumar
(b) Justice K. Chandra
(c) Justice K. Kannan
(d) Justice V.C. Srivastava
36. Which one of the following High Courts has the
territorial jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar
Islands?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta
(b) Madras (d) Orissa
37. On which one of the following funds are salary
and allowances of the judges of High Court of the
state charged?
(a) Consolidated fund of India
(b) Consolidated fund of the State
(c) Contingency fund of India
(d) Contingency fund of the state
38. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction
included)?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
39. In the verdict of which case, Supreme Court has
nullified Parliament, effort to establish preference
of all the Directive Principles of state policy over
fundamental rights?
(a) Keshvanand Bharti Vs State of Kerala Case
(b) Francis Coralie Mullin Vs Union Territory of
Delhi
(c) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India case
(d) Indira Sawhani
40. Judicial Reviews Doctrine of Partial Annulment
is related to which article of the Constitution?
(c) Article 141 (d) Article 246
41. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is mentioned
in which of the following articles of Indian
Constitution?
(a) Article 131 (b) Article 132
42. Which of the following writs literally means we
command?
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition (d) Quo-Warranto
43. Which article of Indian Constitution provides an
advisory jurisdiction to the Supreme Court?
(a) Article 129 (b) Article 132
(c) Article 143 (d) Article 32
44. In which of the following cases Supreme Court of
India enunciated the doctrine of basic structure?
(a) Keshwanand Bharti case
(b) Golaknath case
(c) Minerva Mills case
(d) Gopalan case
45. The power to declare the election of an elected
member of the parliament invalid is vested in
(a) The Election Commission
(b) Supreme Court
(c) The President
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

46. Reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) can be
imposed on the ground of
(a) Defection (c) Two-third majority of the Parliament and the
(b) Contempt of court
(c) Death of the PM (d) None of the above
(d) Signing of a trade treaty with a country
47. Which writ is issued by the High court to the lower
courts to stop legal action?
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Prohibition
(c) Quo Warranto (d) Certiorari
48. In Indian Constitution the power to issue a writ of
Habeas corpus is vested only in-
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The High Court
(c) The Supreme Court and the High Court
(d) Lower Courts
49. The Due Process of Law is the characteristics of
the judicial system of
(a) India (b) France
(c) U.K. (d) U.S.A
50. The Federal court of India was established in
(a) 1947 (b) 1946
(c) 1935 (d) 1937
51. Judicial Review signifies that the Supreme Court
(a) has final authority in overall cases
(b) can declare a state law as unconstitutional
(c) can review cases whose decisions have been
given by High Court
(d) None of the above
52. Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is based
on which of the following ?
(a) Rule of law 59. Assertion (A): A Habeas Corpus writ petition
(b) Due process of Law
(c) Procedure established by law
(d) Conventions
53. The jurisdiction of state high court can be extended
by
(a) Parliament
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Governor of the state
(d) The President of India.
54. The Provisions concerning the powers of the Union
judiciary in the constitution can be amended by
Indian Polity & Governance || C-43
(a) Simple majority of the Parliament
(b) Two-third majority of the Parliament
majority of states
55. Justice is essentially a
(a) Moral concept
(b) Social concept
(c) Legal concept
(d) Complex concept combining all the above
concepts
56. The Supreme Court of India declares by issuing a
writ that respondent was not entitled to an office
he was holding or a privilege he was exercising.
Which writ is that?
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Quo Warranto
(c) Prohibition (d) Certiorari
57. What is the objective advocated for appointment
of the National Judicial Commission?
(a) Training of the judges
(b) Reforms in legal system
(c) Bringing about transparency and impartiality
in the appointment of judges of the highest
level.
(d) To examine the working period of the judges.
58. How can the number of judges in the Supreme
Court in India be increased ?
(a) Representation from the Supreme Court
(b) By amendment of the Constitution
(c) By a Parliamentary Act
(d) By Presidential notification
dismissed by the Supreme Court can be admitted by
the High Court under article 226 of the Constitution.
Reason (R): In exercising writ jurisdiction, the
powers of the Supreme Court and High Court are
concurrent.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
C-44 || Judiciary
60. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India,
who is entitled to be consulted by the President
of India in the matter of the appointments of the
Judges of the High Court?
(a) The Union Minister of Law and Justice
(b) The Advocate General of the State
(c) The Attorney-General of India
(d) The Governor
61. Who has the authority to appoint a judge of a High
Court?
(a) The Chief Justice of India
(b) The president of India
(c) The governor of the concerned state
(d) The Legislative Assembly
62. To be eligible to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme
Court of India,how long a person should have
practised in a High Court?
[A] 10 Years [B] 15 Years
[C] 12 Years [D] 5 Years
63. The number of judges can be modifiedin the
Supreme Court by
[A] Presidential Order
[B] Supreme Court by Notification
[C] Parliament by Law
[D] Central Government by notification
64. In which year Supreme Court of India came into
being?
(a) 1937 January 28
(b) 1947 January 28
(c) 1950 January 28
(d) 1949 January 28
65. India signed the UN Convention Against Corruption
in which year?
(a) 2004 (b) 2007
(c) 2006 (d) 2005
66. Consider the following statements:
(a) A tenant can be evicted for abuse or threat to
landlord or landlady.
(b) A father neglected by his son is legally entitled
to execute a will bequeathing his property in
favour of his relatives.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
67. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Article 164 - Appointed of Chief Minister in
the State Legislature
2. Article 222- Transfer of High Court Judges
3. Article 11- Power of the Parliament to make
laws with regard to citizenship
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
68. Which of the following is not correct with regard
to RTI Act, 2005?
(a) An officer as public officer shall be designated
to provide information to citizens by every
public authority
(b) The aids provide for the penalty of upto Rs
25,000 on the public information officers is
to be fails to divulge the information fought
by the citizen
(c) The Act provides for setting up of central
information and state information commission
(d) The information sought shall be made available
within 90 days
69. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
schedule VI of our Constitution?
(a) The areas are administered as Autonomous
districts over which the executive authority
of the states extends
(b) The Government has the power to create new
autonomous districts
(c) The autonomous districts are provided with
elected bodies known as district councils
(d) It deals with the administration of the tribal
areas of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and
Nagaland
70. The Supreme Courts of India enjoys
(a) Original jurisdiction
(b) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction
(c) Advisory jurisdiction
(d) Appellate and advisory jurisdiction
71. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide
disputes between the Centre and the States falls
under its
(a) Advisory Jurisdiction
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction
(c) constitutional Jurisdiction
(d) Original Jurisdiction

72. Who of the following Chief Justices of India acted
as the President of India as well?
(a) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(b) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan
(c) Justice B.K. Mukherjee
(d) Justice M. Hidayatullah
73. Which one of the following is correct about the
Supreme Court regarding its judgement?
(a) It cannot change the judgement
(b) Only the Chief Justice of India can change
the judgement
(c) It can change the judgement
(d) Only the Ministry of Law can change the
judgement.
74. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are
determined by
(a) Parliament
(b) Pay Commission appointed by the President
(c) Law Commission
(d) Council of Ministers
75. Which one of the following subjects comes under
the common jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and
the High Court?
(a) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(b) Mutual disputes among the states
(c) Disputes between Centre and States
(d) Protection from the violation of the Constitution
76. The functions of which of the following bodies in
India are limited to advisory nature only?
(a) Legislative Council
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Legislative Assembly
77. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every
High Court will be in:
(a) Hindi (c) Kolkata (d) Chandigarh
(b) English
(c) Hindi and English
(d) Hindi or English
78. The minimum number of judges to sit on the
Constitutional Bench or on Bench which gives its
advisory opinion on the reference by the President
must be:
Indian Polity & Governance || C-45
(a) One half of the total strength of the Supreme
Court
(b) Seven
(c) Three
(d) One-third of the total strength of the court
79. Which is not a correct statement? The Supreme
Court:
(a) is a watch-dog of citizens liberty
(b) settles electoral disputes of the President and
Vice-President of India
(c) interprets the Constitution
(d) protects the Directive Principles of State Policy
80. The main sources of law in India are:
I. The Constitution
II. Statutes
III. Customary law
IV. Judicial decisions of superior courts
Choose the answer from the code:
(a) I and II (b) I, II and IV
(c) II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
81. The Constitution allows preventive detention but
stipulates:
(a) that no one should be detained beyond three
months unless an Advisory Board authorises
detention beyond that period
(b) that the grounds for detention should be
conveyed to the detenu before arresting him
(c) that the detenu must be produced before the
nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours
of his arrest
(d) All of the above
82. Which High Court has jurisdiction over the State
of Arunachal Pradesh?
(a) Guwahati (b) Mumbai
83. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public
interest litigation (P1L) was introduced to the
Indian Judicial System?
(a) M. Hidayatullah
(b) M. Ahmadi
(c) A.S. Anand
(d) P.M. Bhagwati
C-46 || Judiciary
84. Which among the following Union Territory has 87. What is the number of Judges (including Chief
a Judicial Commissioner? Justice) in the Supreme Court of India as provided
(a) Pondicherry in the Constitution of India?
(b) Andaman & Nicobar Islands (a) 20 (b) 24
(c) Daman & Diu (c) 26 (d) 28
(d) Lakshadweep 88. On which of the following grounds can a Judge of
(e) Chandigarh the Supreme Court or a High Court be impeached?
85. Which of the following articles makes the Supreme 1. Violation of the Constitution
2. Proved misbehaviour
Court a Court of Record?
3. Incapacity
(a) 127 (b) 128
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) 129 (d) 130
below:
(e) 131 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
86. The number of judges can be altered in the Supreme (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Court by: 89. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with
(a) Presidential Order (a) judicial review
(b) Parliament by Law (b) judicial activism
(c) Supreme Court by Notification (c) judicial intervention
(d) Central Government by notification (d) judicial sanctity
 Indian Polity & Governance || C-47

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (a) 41. (a) 51. (b) 61. (b) 71. (d) 81. (a)
2. (c) 12. (b) 22. (b) 32. (d) 42. (b) 52. (c) 62. (c) 72. (d) 82. (a)
3. (c) 13. (d) 23. (d) 33. (d) 43. (c) 53. (a) 63. (c) 73. (c) 83. (d)
4. (d) 14. (b) 24. (a) 34. (a) 44. (a) 54. (c) 64. (c) 74. (a) 84. (c)
5. (d) 15. (a) 25. (c) 35. (c) 45. (c) 55. (d) 65. (d) 75. (a) 85. (c)
6. (d) 16. (a) 26. (a) 36. (b) 46. (b) 56. (b) 66. (c) 76. (a) 86. (b)
7. (d) 17. (c) 27. (d) 37. (b) 47. (b) 57. (c) 67. (d) 77. (b) 87. (c)
8. (b) 18. (c) 28. (b) 38. (b) 48. (c) 58. (b) 68. (d) 78. (a) 88. (d)
9. (c) 19. (d) 29. (a) 39. (c) 49. (d) 59. (d) 69. (d) 79. (d) 89. (b)
10. (b) 20. (a) 30. (c) 40. (a) 50. (d) 60. (d) 70. (b) 80. (d)

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) The judicial review function of the Supreme
Court means to examine the constitutional validity
of laws. Judicial review is the doctrine under which
legislative and executive actions are subject to
review (and possible invalidation) by the judiciary.
A specific court with judicial review power may
annul the acts of the state when it finds them
incompatible with a higher authority (such as the
terms of a written constitution). Judicial review
is an example of check and balances in a modern
governmental system (where the judiciary checks
the other branches of government).
2. (c) According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all
doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection
with the election of a President or Vice-President
shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme
Court.
3. (c) There are 5 types of writs which can be
issued by the Supreme Court. They are Habeas
Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, & Quo
Warranto.
4. (d) The jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme
Court are quite wide. The Supreme Court has a
threefold jurisdiction. The Supreme Court has
originally jurisdiction i.e. cases which can originate
with the Supreme Court alone over disputes between
(a) the Government of India and one or more states
(b) the Government of India and any state and states
on one side and one or more state on the other (c)
two or more states.
5. (d) Because the Supreme Court is given the power
to protect, safeguard and uphold the Constitution
and empowered to declare a law null and void if
it is found to be inconsistent with the Constitution.
Therefore, Supreme Court is said to be the guardian
of Indian Constitution.
6. (d) The Supreme Court of India comprises the
Chief Justice of India and 30 other judges appointed
by the President of India. Supreme Court judges
retire upon the age of 65 years.
7. (d) A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed
under the Constitution only on grounds of proven
misconduct or incapacity and by an order of the
President of India, after a notice signed by at least
100 members of the Lok Sabha (House of the
People) or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha (Council
of the States) is passed by a two-third majority in
each House of the Parliament.
8. (b) Public Interest litigation (PIL) may be linked
with judicial activism. India has a recent history of
judicial activism, originating after the emergency
in India which saw attempts by the Government to
C-48 || Judiciary
control the judiciary. The Public Interest Litigation
was an instrument devised by the courts to reach out
directly to the public, and take cognizance though
the litigant may not be the victim.suo motu
cognizance allows the courts to take up such cases
on their own.
9. (c) (Article 124 of the Constitution provides that
the Supreme Court shall consist of a Chief Justice
and not more than seven judges. The Parliament is
empowered to increase the number of judges by law.
Due to the increase in the workload, the strength of
Supreme Court judges has been raised from time to
time.
10. (b) When there is a vacancy in the office of the
President and the Vice-President at the same time,
the office is held temporarily by the Chief Justice
of India.
11. (c) The President of India appoints the Chief
Justice of Supreme court as per the following
procedure.
1.The Government of India proposes the name
of the most senior Judge of the Supreme Court of
India, for the Post of Chief Justice of India, to the
President of India.
2.The President of India gives approval to this
name, after consultation with the other Judges of the
Supreme Court and the Judges of State High Courts,
as the President may think necessary.
12. (b) In India, the President of India can request
the Supreme Court of India to provide its advice
on certain matters. This procedure is called
Presidential Reference. According to Article
143 of the Constitution of India, the President of
India may refer to the Supreme Court of India, a
question of law or fact which, he thinks, is of public
importance. However, it is not binding on the
Supreme Court to answer questions raised in the
reference.
13. (d) The power of the Supreme Court of India to
decide disputes between the centre and the states
falls under its original jurisdiction. The original
jurisdiction of a court is the power to hear a case for
the first time, as opposed to appellate jurisdiction,
when a court has the power to review a lower courts
decision. In India, the Supreme Court has exclusive
original jurisdiction on all cases between the
government and the states or between government
and states on side and one or more states on other
side or cases between different states. In addition,
Article 32 of the Constitution of India grants
original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court on all
cases involving the enforcement of fundamental
rights of citizens.
14. (b) Sovereignty of Indian parliament is restricted
by judicial review. Parliamentary sovereignty (also
called parliamentary supremacy or legislative
supremacy) is a concept in the constitutional law
of some parliamentary democracies. It holds that
the legislative body has absolute sovereignty, and
is supreme over all other government institutions,
including executive or judicial bodies. The concept
also holds that the legislative body may change
or repeal any previous legislation, and so that it
is not bound by written law (in some cases, even
a constitution) or by precedent. Parliamentary
sovereignty may be contrasted with the doctrines of
separation of powers, which limits the legislatures
scope often to general law-making, and judicial
review, where laws passed by the legislature may be
declared invalid in certain circumstances.
15. (a) When President Zakir Hussain died in office,
the Vice President VV Giri, acted as the President.
Later, Mr. Giri resigned as the Vice President. The
CJI, Justice Hidayatullah then became the acting
President of India. The senior-most judge of the
Supreme Court became the acting Chief Justice of
India. When the newly elected President took office
a month later, Justice Hidayatullah reverted as the
Chief Justice of India.
16. (a) The Indian Constitution provides for the
appointment of ad hoc judge in supreme court. If at
any time there should not be a quorum of the Judges
of the Supreme Court available to hold or continue
any session of the Court, the Chief Justice of India
may, with the previous consent of the President and
after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High
Court concerned, request in writing the attendance
at the sittings of the Court, as an ad hoc Judge, for
such period as may be necessary, of a Judge of a
High Court duly qualified for appointment as a
Judge of the Supreme Court to be designated by the
Chief Justice of India.
17. (c) Article 125 of the Indian Constitution leaves
it to the Indian Parliament to determine the salary,
other allowances, leave of absence, pension, etc. of
the Supreme Court judges. However, the Parliament
cannot alter any of these privileges and rights to the
judges disadvantage after his appointment.

18. (c) A court of record is a court whose acts and
proceedings are enrolled for perpetual memory
and testimony. These records are used with a high
authority and their truth cannot be questioned. In
Indian constitution article 129 makes the Supreme
Court the court of record. Article 129 says: The
Supreme Court shall be a court of record and shall
have all the powers of such a court including the
power to punish for contempt of itself. Article 215
empowers the High Courts of the states to be courts
of record.
19. (d) The system of judicial review exists in India
and U.S.A. Judicial review is the power of a court
to review the constitutionality of a statute or treaty,
or to review an administrative regulation for
consistency with either a statute, a treaty, or the
Constitution itself. The United States Constitution
does not explicitly establish the power of judicial
review. Rather, the power of judicial review in the
United States has been inferred from the structure,
provisions, and history of the Constitution.
20. (a) Article 137 of the constitution permits the
supreme court to review its own judgment or order.
Article 137 of the Constitution provides that subject
to provisions of any law and rule made under Article
145 the Supreme Court of India has the power to
review any judgement pronounced (or order made)
by it. Under Supreme Court Rules, 1966 such a
petition needs to be filed within 30 days from the
date of judgement or order. It is also recommended
that the petition should be circulated without oral
arguments to the same bench of judges that delivered
the judgement (or order) sought to be reviewed.
21. (d) The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the
guardian of the Constitution. It is the Supreme or final
interpreter of the Constitution. The interpretation of
the Constitution given by the Supreme Court is to be
respected.
22. (b) Supreme Court has the power to transfer any
Case, appeal or other proceedings from High Court
or other court in one State to a High Court or other
civil court in any other State. This power may be
exercised by the Supreme Court if it is satisfied
that an order under this Section is expedient for the
ends of justice. Hence wide powers are given to the
Supreme Court to order a transfer if it feels that the
ends of justice so require.
Indian Polity & Governance || C-49
23. (d) The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the
guardian of the Constitution. It is the Supreme or final
interpreter of the Constitution. The interpretation of
the Constitution given by the Supreme Court is to be
respected.
24. (a) The Regulating Act, 1773 established Indias
first Supreme Court, Fort William, Calcutta. This
Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and
three other regular judges or Puisne judges. The
Supreme Court was the supreme judiciary over all
British subjects including the provinces of Bengal,
Bihar and Orissa. Sir Elijah Imphey was the first
Chief Justice.
25. (c) P.N. Bhagwati was the chief justice of India
when public interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced
to the Indian judicial system. The concept of
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is in consonance
with the principles enshrined in Article 39A of the
Constitution of India to protect and deliver prompt
social justice with the help of law. Before the 1980s,
only the aggrieved party could approach the courts
for justice. After the emergency era the high court
reached out to the people, devising means for any
person of the public (or an NGO) to approach the
court seeking legal remedy in cases where the
public interest is at stake. Justice P. N. Bhagwati
and Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer were among the first
judges to admit PILs in court.
26. (a) The President may, after consultation with the
Chief Justice of India, transfer a judge from one
high court to any other high court. When a judge has
been or is transferred, he shall, during the period he
serves, after the commencement of the Constitution
(Fifteenth Amendment) Act, 1963, as a Judge of the
other High Court, be entitled to receive in addition
to his salary such compensatory allowance as may
be determined by Parliament by law and, until so
determined, such compensatory allowance as the
President may by order fix.
27. (d) Judges in High Court are appointed by the
President of India in consultation with the Chief
Justice of India and the governor of the state. High
Courts are headed by a Chief Justice.
28. (b) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh share a high
court under the High Court (Punjab) Order, 1947.
C-50 || Judiciary
30. (c) Said to be a brainchild of former President
A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the concept of mobile court is
based on the pressing need to take the administration
of civil and criminal justice closer to the people so
that those living in remote areas are able to benefit
without incurring the expenses of travelling to
courts at distant places.
31. (a) High court judge is removed only by the order
of the President. The high court judge addresses his
letter of resignation to the President.
32. (d) oa comes under the jurisdiction of Bombay
High Court.
33. (d) Guwahati High Court has the largest number
of Benches.
The principal seat of the Gauhati High Court is
at Guwahati in Assam. The court has 3 outlying
benches. These are:
The Kohima bench for Nagaland state.
The Aizawl bench for Mizoram state. an authority to do something against statutory
The Itanagar bench for Arunachal Pradesh state. provision.
Former benches, now full fledged high courts:
The Imphal bench (established on 21 January 1972)
(Converted to a High Court in March 2013)
The Agartala bench established on 24 January 1972)
(Converted to a High Court in March 2013)
The Shillong bench established on 4 September
1974)(Converted to a High Court in March 2013)
34. (a) the high court of India does not have
advisory jurisdiction. It has original, appellate and
supervisory jurisdiction only.
35. (c) High court judge Justice K Kannanwas the
first judge to have voluntarily made his assets
public. These include bank deposit (Rs 1.03 lakh),
investments (Rs 3.87 lakh) and his wifes bank
deposit (Rs 10.59 lakh).
36. (b) Calcutta High court has the territorial
jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
The Calcutta High Court is the oldest High Court
in India. It was established as the High Court of
Judicature at Fort William on 1 July 1862 under the
High Courts Act, 1861.
37 (b) Salary is charged on Consolidated Fund of
State. But the pension of the High Court judge is
given from the Consolidated Fund of India.
38. (b) Bombay High Court has jurisdiction over
two states- Mumbai and Goa; Guwahti High Court
has jurisdiction over Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
Mizoram and Nagaland; Punjab and Haryana High
Court has jurisdiction over Punjab and Haryana.
39. (c) In the verdict of Minerva Mills Vs. Union of
India case, supreme court has nullified parliaments
effort to establish preference of all the directive
principles of state policy over Fundamental Rights.
40. (a) Article 13 of the Indian Constitution deals
with the Judicial review.
41. (a) Article 131 of the Constitution of India deals
with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
of India.
42. (b) The writ Mandamus literally means we
command. Mandamus is a judicial remedy in
the form of an order from a superior court, to any
government subordinate court, corporation, or
public authorityto do (or forbear from doing)
some specific act which that body is obliged under
law to do (or refrain from doing)and which is in
the nature of public duty, and in certain cases one
of a statutory duty. It cannot be issued to compel
43. (c) Article 143 of Indian Constitution provides an
advisory jurisdiction to the Supreme Court.
44. (a) In Keshvanand Bharti case the Supreme Court
of India enunciated the doctrine of basic structure.
The case originated in February 1970 when Swami
HH Sri Kesavananda Bharati, Senior Pontiff and
head of Edneer Mutt - a Hindu Mutt situated in
Edneer, a village in Kasaragod District of Kerala,
challenged the Kerala governments attempts, under
two state land reform acts, to impose restrictions
on the management of its property. Although the
state invoked its authority under Article 31, a noted
Indian jurist, Nanabhoy Palkhivala, convinced the
Swami into fighting his petition under Article 26
(not Article 29), concerning the right to manage
religiously owned property without government
interference. Even though the hearings consumed
five months, the outcome would profoundly affect
Indias democratic processes.
46. (b) According to Article 19(2), Nothing in sub
clause (a) of clause ( 1 ) shall affect the operation of
any existing law, or prevent the State from making
any law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable
restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by
the said sub clause in the interests of the sovereignty
and integrity of India, the security of the State,
friendly relations with foreign States, public order,
decency or morality or in relation to contempt of
court, defamation or incitement to an offence.

47. (b) Prohibition writ is issued by the high court
to the lower courts to stop legal action. A writ of
prohibition is a writ directing a subordinate to stop
doing something the law prohibits. In practice, the
court directs the clerk to issue the writ, and directs
the Sheriff to serve it on the subordinate, and the
clerk prepares the writ and gives it to the Sheriff,
who serves it. This writ is normally issued by a
superior court to the lower court asking it not to
proceed with a case which does not fall under its
jurisdiction.
48. (c) In Indian constitution, the power to issue a writ
of Habeas Corpus is vested only in the Supreme
Court and the High Court. A writ of habeas corpus
is a writ (court order) that requires a person under
arrest to be brought before a judge or into court. The
principle of habeas corpus ensures that a prisoner
can be released from unlawful detentionthat is,
detention lacking sufficient cause or evidence. The
remedy can be sought by the prisoner or by another
person coming to the prisoners aid. This right
originated in the English legal system, and is now
available in many nations. It has historically been an
important legal instrument safeguarding individual
freedom against arbitrary state action.
49. (d) The Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments to
the United States Constitution each contains a
Due Process Clause. Due process deals with the
administration of justice and thus the Due Process
Clause acts as a safeguard from arbitrary denial of
life, liberty, or property by the Government outside
the sanction of law. The Supreme Court of the
United States interprets the Clauses as providing
four protections: procedural due process (in civil
and criminal proceedings), substantive due process,
a prohibition against vague laws, and as the vehicle
for the incorporation of the Bill of Rights.
50. (d) The Federal Court of India was a judicial body,
established in India in 1937 under the provisions of
the Government of India Act 1935, with original,
appellate and advisory jurisdiction. It functioned
until 1950, when the Supreme Court of India was
established. The seat of the Federal Court was at
Delhi. There was a right of appeal to the Judicial
Committee of the Privy Council in London from the
Federal Court of India. The Federal Court came into
being on 1 October 1937.
Indian Polity & Governance || C-51
51. (b) Judicial review signifies that the supreme court
can declare a state law as unconstitutional. In the
Indian constitution, Judicial review is dealt with
under Article 13. Judicial Review refers that the
Constitution is the supreme power of the nation and
all laws are under its supremacy. Article 13 states
that:
All pre-constitutional laws, if in part or
completely in conflict with the Constitution, shall
have all conflicting provisions deemed ineffective
until an amendment to the Constitution ends the
conflict. In such situation the provision of that
law will again come into force, if it is compatible
with the constitution as amended. This is called the
Doctrine of Eclipse.
In a similar manner, laws made after adoption of
the Constitution by the Constituent Assembly must
be compatible with the constitution, otherwise the
laws and amendments will be deemed to be void ab
initio.
In such situations, the Supreme Court or High Court
interprets the laws to decide if they are in conformity
with the Constitution. If such an interpretation is
not possible because of inconsistency, and where
a separation is possible, the provision that is
inconsistent with constitution is considered to be
void. In addition to article 13, articles 32, 226 and
227 provide a constitutional basis to judicial review
in India.
53. (a) The Parliament may make a provision for
a common High Court for two or more States or
extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to one or
more Union Territories.
56. (b) The given provision came under a writ Quo
Warranto issued by the Supreme Court of India. Quo
warranto (Medieval Latin for by what warrant?)
is a prerogative writ requiring the person to whom
it is directed to show what authority they have for
exercising some right or power (or franchise) they
claim to hold.
57. (c) The main objective advocated for appointment
of the National Judicial Commission is bringing
about transparency and impartiality in the
appointment of judges of the highest level.
59. (d) A is false but R is true
60. (d) Clause (1) of Article 217 says that every judge
of a High Court shall be appointed by the President
by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation
with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the
C-52 || Judiciary
State, and, in the case of appointment of a Judge
other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the
High Court and shall hold office, in the case of an
additional or acting judge, as provided in Article
224, and in any other case, until he attains the age of
sixty-two years.
61. (b) Every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed
by the President by warrant under his hand and
seal after consultation with the Chief Justice of
India, the Governor of the State, and, in the case of
appointment of a Judge other than the chief Justice,
the chief Justice of the High court, and shall hold
office, in the case of an additional or acting Judge,
as provided in Article 224, and in any other case,
until he attains the age of sixty two years Provided
various provisions.
62. (c) Originally, Constitution of India envisaged
a Supreme Court with a Chief Justice and seven
Judges; leaving it to Parliament to increase this
number. In formative years, the Supreme Court met
from 10 to 12 in the morning and then 2 to 4 in the
afternoon for 28 days in a year. As the work of the
Court increased and cases began to accumulate,
Parliament increased the number of judges from the
original 8 in 1950 to 11 in 1956, 14 in 1960, 18 in
1978, 26 in 1986 and 31 in 2008 current strength.
64. (c) On the 28th of January, 1950, two days after
India became a Sovereign Democratic Republic, the
Supreme Court came into being. The inauguration
took place in the Chamber of Princes in the
Parliament building which also housed Indias
Parliament, consisting of the Council of States and
the House of the People.
65. (d) The United Nations Convention against
Corruption (UNCAC), which entered into force
in December 2005, is the ever-first binding global
anti-corruption instrument. It obliges the States to
prevent and criminalize different corrupt practices,
promote international cooperation, cooperate for
the recovery of stolen assets and enhance technical
assistance and information exchange.
68. (d) First Appeal: First appeal to the officer senior in
rank to the PIO in the concerned Public Authority
within 30 days from the expiry of the prescribed
time limit or from the receipt of the decision (delay
may be condoned by the Appellate Authority if
sufficient cause is shown).
Second Appeal: Second appeal to the Central
Information Commission or the State Information
Commission as the case may be, within 90 days of
the date on which the decision was given or should
have been made by the First Appellate Authority
(delay may be condoned by the Commission if
sufficient cause is shown).
69. (d) schedule VI of our Constitutiondoes not
deal with the administration of the tribal areas of
Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland.
71. (d) The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may
be categorised as original, appellate and advisory.
Under the Original Jurisdiction, the Supreme Court
can settle disputes (a) between the Centre and one or
more States; (b) between the Centre and any State or
States on the one side and one or more other States
on the other; or (c) between two or more States.
72. (d) Mohammad Hidayatullah was the eleventh
Chief Justice of India serving from February 25,
1968 to December 16, 1970. He was the sixth Vice-
President of India, serving from 31 August 1979 to
30 August 1984. As the Chief Justice of India, he
had also served as the Acting President of India from
July 20, 1969 to August 24, 1969. He is regarded as
an eminent jurist, scholar,educationist, author and
linguist.
73. (c) Supreme Court can only change its position in
a case decided earlier by it where it considers for
good and substantial reasons to overrule itself on an
application if the need arises.
74. (a) he Constitution of India gives the power of
deciding remuneration as well as other conditions
of service of the Chief Justice to the Parliament of
India. Accordingly, such provisions have been laid
down in The Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and
Conditions of Service) Act, 1958.
76. (a) The Provincial Legislative Councils established
were mere advisory bodies by means of which
Government obtained advice and assistance. The
Provincial Legislative Council could not interfere
with the laws passed by the Central Legislature.
77. (b) The constitution provides that all proceedings
in the Supreme Court of India, the countrys highest
court and the High Courts, shall be in English.
Parliament has the power to alter this by law, but
has not done so.

78. (a) Courts advisory jurisdiction may be sought by
the President under Article 143 of the Constitution.
This procedure is termed as Presidential Reference
and is recognised as the Advisory jurisdiction of
the Court. Under this scheme, President may refer
any question of law or fact of public importance.
However, it is not binding on the Supreme Court to
answer questions raised in the reference. In the last
more than sixty years, only a handful of references
have been made. The Supreme Court can refuse to
provide its advisory opinion if it is satisfied that the
questions are either socioeconomic or political in
nature. The minimum number of judges to sit on the
Constitutional Bench or on Bench which gives its
advisory opinion on the reference by the President
must be One half of the total strength of the Supreme
Court.
79. (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are
guidelines/principles given to the central and state
governments of India, to be kept in mind while
framing laws and policies. These provisions,
contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India,
are not enforceable by any court, but the principles
laid down therein are considered fundamental in the
governance of the country, making it the duty of the
State to apply these principles in making laws to
establish a just society in the country.
80. (d) The fountain source of law in India is the
Constitution which, in turn, gives due recognition
to statutes, case law and customary law consistent
with its dispensations. Statutes are enacted by
Parliament, State Legislatures and Union Territory
Legislatures. There is also a vast body of laws
known as subordinate legislation in the form of
rules, regulations as well as by-laws made by
Central and State Governments and local authorities
like Municipal Corporations, Municipalities, Gram
Panchayats and other local bodies. This subordinate
legislation is made under the authority conferred or
delegated either by Parliament or State or Union
Territory Legislature concerned. The decisions of
the Supreme Court are binding on all Courts within
the territory of India. As India is a land of diversities,
local customs and conventions which are not against
statute, morality, etc. are to a limited extent also
recognised and taken into account by Courts while
administering justice in certain spheres.
Indian Polity & Governance || C-53
81. (a) Article 22 (4) provides that no law providing
for preventive detention shall authorise the detention
of a person for a longer period than 3 months unless
an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or
have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges
of a High Court, has reported before the expiration
of the said period of 3 months that there is in its
opinion sufficient cause for such detention.
82. (a) The Gauhati High Court was established on
1 March, 1948 after the Government of India Act
1935 was passed. It was originally known as the
High Court of Assam and Nagaland, but renamed
as Gauhati High Court in 1971 by the North East
Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.It has largest
jurisdiction in terms of states, with its area covering
thestates of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland,
and Mizoram.
83. (d) The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
is in consonance with the principles enshrined in
Article 39A of theConstitution of India to protect
and deliver prompt social justice with the help of
law. Before the 1980s, only the aggrieved party
could approach the courts for justice. After the
emergency era the high court reached out to the
people, devising a means for any person of the
public (or an NGO) to approach the court seeking
legal remedy in cases where the public interest is
at stake. Justice P. N. Bhagwati and Justice V. R.
Krishna Iyer were among the first judges to admit
PILs in court. Filing a PIL is not as cumbersome as
a usual legal case; there have been instances when
letters and telegrams addressed to the court have
been taken up as PILs and heard.
84. (c) There had been a persistent demand for the
extension of the jurisdiction of a High Court to
the Union territory of Goa, Daman and Diu and
for the establishment of a permanent bench of
that High Court in lieu of the existing Court of
the Judicial Commissioner. Although the Judicial
Commissioners Court functioning at those times in
Union territory was given certain powers of a High
Court under the provisions of the Goa, Daman and
Diu (judicial Commissioners Court) Regulation,
1963, it was not a full-fledged High Court. The
Judicial Commissioner also did not enjoy those
constitutional safeguards which protect the
C-54 || Judiciary
independence of a High Court Judge. It was further
felt that the extension of jurisdiction of a High
court to the Union Territory including Goa would
improve the tone of judicial administration in these
Union territories and would inspire greater public
confidence. Under those circumstance, jurisdiction
of High Court of Judicature at Bombay was extended
to the State of Goa and Union territories of Daman
and Diu and Court of the Judicial Commissioner was
abolished and a permanent bench of High Court of
Judicature at Bombay is established at Panaji (Goa)
on 30th October, 1982 as per the provisions of The
High Court at Bombay (Extension of Jurisdiction to
Goa, Daman and Diu ) Act, 1981.
85. (c) According to Article 129 of the Constitution
Supreme Court to be a court of record. The Supreme
Court shall be a court of record and shall have all
the powers of such a court including the power to
punish for contempt of itself.
86. (b) The Union cabinet had approved a proposal
for introduction of the Bill in Parliament by making
an amendment of the Supreme Court (Number
of Judges) Act, 1956 for increase in the number
of judges in the Supreme Court to augment the
strength of the Supreme Court Judges, excluding the
Chief Justice of Indian, from 25 to 30.The increase
in the number of judges will allow Supreme Court
to function more efficiently and effectively towards
attaining the ultimate goal of rendering speedy
justice to the litigant public.
87. (c) The Supreme Court originally consisted of
a Chief-Justice and seven other judges. In 1985,
the strength was increased. It comprises the chief
justice and not more than 25 other judge.
88. (d) The Judge of the Supreme Court or a High
Court can be impeached on the basis of proved
misbehaviour and incapacity.
89. (b) Public Interest litigation (PIL) may be linked
with judicial activism in India.
 Section D : economics

1 Indian Economy

1. The term mixed economy denoted existence of both (c) Capitalist system
(a) rural and urban sector (d) Mixed economy system
(b) private and public sector 8. Economic liberalisation in India started with
(c) heavy and small industry (a) substantial changes in industrial licensing
(d) developed and under developed sector policy
2. In an economy, the sectors are classified into public (b) the convertibility of Indian rupee
and private on the basis of (c) doing away with procedural formalities for
(a) employment condition
foreign direct investment
(b) nature of economic activities
(d) significant reduction in tax rates
(c) ownership of enterprises
(d) use of raw materials 9. A firm sells shares worth `1000 direct to individuals.
3. Which sector of Indian economy has shown This transaction will cause
remarkable expansion during the last decade? (a) GNP to rise by `1000
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (b) GDP to rise by `1000
(c) Tertiary sector (d) Mining sector (c) National income to rise by `1000
4. When development in economy takes place, the (d) No impact on Gross National Product
share of tertiary sector in national income 10. Which is not included in the private income arising
(a) first falls and then rises in a country?
(b) first rises and then falls (a) Factor income from net domestic product
(c) keeps on increasing (b) Net factor income from abroad
(d) remains constant (c) Current transfers from government
5. It will be true to classify India as (d) Current payments on foreign loans
(a) a food-deficit economy 11. In India, agriculture income is calculated by
(b) a labour-surplus economy
(a) output method
(c) a trade-surplus economy
(b) input method
(d) a capital-surplus economy
6. The Indian economy is characterised by (c) expenditure method
(a) pre-dominance of agriculture (d) commodity flow method
(b) low per capita income 12. Who coined the term Hindu rate of growth for
(c) massive unemployment Indian economy?
(d) all of the above (a) A.K. Sen
7. In India, planned economy is based on (b) Kirit S. Parich
(a) Gandhian system (c) Raj Krishna
(b) Socialist system (d) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
D-2 || Indian Economy
13. GDP at factor cost is
(a) GDP minus indirect taxes plus subsidies
(b) GNP minus depreciation allowances
(c) NNP plus depreciation allowances
(d) GDP minus subsidies plus indirect taxes
14. Per capita income is obtained by dividing national
income by
(a) total population of the country
(b) total working population
(c) area of the country
(d) volume of the capital used
15. Which one of the following is a development
expenditure?
(a) Irrigation expenditure
(b) Administration
(c) Debt services
(d) Grant-in-aid
16. GDP is defined as the value of all
(a) goods produced in an economy in a year
(b) goods and services in an economy in a year
(c) final goods produced in an economy in a year
(d) final goods and services produced in an
economy in a year.
17. Depreciation is equal to
(a) GNP NNP
(b) NNP GNP
(c) GNP Personal Income (d) NNP at factor cost
(d) Personal Income Personal Taxes
18. Which one of the following is not a method of
measurement of National income?
(a) Value Added Method (c) Tertiary sector (d) Public sector
(b) Income Method
(c) Expenditure Method
(d) Investment Method
19. Net National Product (NNP) of a country is
(a) GDP minus depreciation allowances
(b) GDP plus net income from abroad
(c) GNP minus net income from abroad
(d) GNP minus depreciation allowances
20. National income is based on the
(a) total revenue of the state
(b) production of goods and services
(c) net profit earned and expenditure made by the
state.
(d) the sum of all factors of income
21. Which of the following is definitely a major
indication of the state of the economy of a country?
(a) Rate of GDP growth
(b) Rate of inflation
(c) Number of banks in a country
(d) None of these
22. Which of the following can be called as a part of
the service sector?
(a) Textile mills (b) Banking
(c) Coal mines (d) Agricultural
23. In terms of economics, the total value of the
output (goods and services) produced and income
received in a year by a domestic resident of a
country put together is called
(a) Net National Product
(b) Gross National Product
(c) Gross National Income
(d) National income
24. Which of the following is equivalent to National
income?
(a) GDP at market price
(b) NDP at factor cost
(c) NNP at market price
25. Which sector of the Indian economy contributes
largest to the GNP?
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector
26. National Income estimates in India are prepared
by
(a) Planning Commission
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Central Statistical Organisation
(d) Indian Statistical Institute
27. Per capita Income of a country is derived from
(a) National Income
(b) Population
(c) National Income and population both
(d) None of these

28. The main source of National income in India is
(a) service sector (b) agriculture
(c) industrial sector (d) trade sector
29. Which of the following is not an example of
economic overheads?
(a) Schools 38. Devaluation usually causes the internal price to
(b) Sanitary facilities
(c) Roads and Railways
(d) Coal mines
30. Who estimated national income in India first?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) R.C. Dutt
(c) V.K. R.V. Rao (d) D.R. Gadgil
31. Who wrote a book describing the theory of
economic drain of India during British rule?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) J.L. Nehru (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
32. As the economy develops, the share of the tertiary
sector in the GDP:
(a) Decreases (b) Downpull inflation
(b) Decreases then increases
(c) Increases
(d) Remains constant
33. The National Income of a country is
(a) the annual revenue of the government
(b) sum total of factor incomes
(c) surplus of PSUS
(d) export minus import
34. The most appropriate measure of a countrys
economic growth is its
(a) Gross Domestic Product
(b) Net Domestic Product
(c) Net National Product
(d) Per capita real income
35. Which one among the following countries has the
lowest GDP per capita?
(a) China (b) India
(c) Indonesia (d) Sri Lanka
36. The major aim of devaluation is to
(a) Encourage exports
(b) Encourage imports
(c) Encourage both exports and imports
(d) Discourage both exports and imports
Economics || D-3
37. Inflation is caused by
(a) Increase in supply of goods
(b) Increase in cash with the government
(c) Decrease in money supply
(d) Increase in money supply
(a) Fall
(b) Rise
(c) Remain unchanged
(d) None of these
39. In India, one-rupee coins and notes and subsidiary
coins are issued by
(a) The Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Central Government
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Unit Trust of India
40. The process of curing inflation by reducing money
supply is called
(a) Cost-push inflation
(c) Disinflation
(d) Reflation
41. Devaluation of currency leads to
(a) expansion of export trade
(b) contraction of import trade
(c) expansion of import substituting
(d) all of the above
42. The term stagflation refers to a situation where
(a) growth has no relation with the change in
price
(b) rate of growth and prices both are decreasing
(c) rate of growth is faster than the rate of price
increase
(d) rate of growth is slower than the rate of price
increase
43. During period of inflation, rates should
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
(c) Remain constant (d) Fluctuate
44. The existence of a parallel economy or black
money
(a) makes the economy more competitive
(b) makes the monetary policies less effective
(c) ensure a better distribution of income and
wealth
(d) ensure increasing productive investment
D-4 || Indian Economy
45. In the paralance of economy / commerce, what is
Gild-edged market?
(a) Gold and Silver market
(b) Industrial securities market
(c) Market of safe securities
(d) Market of software technology products
46. At present Indian Rupee is
(a) partially convertible on current account
(b) fully convertible on current account
(c) partially convertible on capital account
(d) fully convertible on capital account
47. Which of the following terms is not a financial
term?
(a) Investment 56. Economic growth is usually coupled with
(b) Core banking solution
(c) RTGS (c) Hyper inflation (d) Stagflation
(d) All the above
48. Money laundering normally involves
(a) placement of funds (a) Special Economic Zone
(b) layering of funds
(c) integration of funds (c) Effect of Oil-prices on the Indian economy
(d) all the above
49. Inflation in India is measured on which of the
following indexes / indicators?
(a) Cost of Living Index (CLI)
(b) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(c) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
(d) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
50. When the prices of commodities, goods and services
start declining consistently, the phenomenon is
known as
(a) Discount field (b) Deflation
(c) Negative growth (d) Market capitalism
51. In which of the following years India switched
over to decimal currencies?
(a) 1955 (b) 1956
(c) 1957 (d) 1960
52. In which year the Indian rupee was devalued two
times within a month?
(a) 1990 (b) 1991
(c) 1994 (d) 1999
53. During which Five Year Plan, the price level in
Indian economy showed a decline?
(a) Plan I (b) Plan II
(c) Plan IV (d) Annual plans
54. The one rupee note bears the signature of the
(a) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(b) Governor, RBI
(c) Finance Minister
(d) None of these
55. The basis of determining dearness allowance
(D.A.) to government employees in India is
(a) National income
(b) Consumer Price Index
(c) Standard of living
(d) Per capita income
(a) Deflation (b) Inflation
57. Tarapore committee was associated with which
one of the following?
(b) Fully Capital Account Convertibility
(d) Foreign Exchange Reserve
58. Which of the following is not true when the interest
rate in the economy goes up?
(a) Saving increases
(b) Lending decreases
(c) Cost of production increases
(d) Return on capital increases
59. High rates of interest in a low inflation region
(a) attract people to make an investment
(b) discourage people to make an investment
(c) create atmosphere for capital formation
(d) are not favourable for credit expansion
60. Development expenditure of the Central
government does not include
(a) defence expenditure
(b) expenditure on economic services
(c) expenditure on social and community services
(d) grant to states
61. The slack season in the Indian economy is
(a) Feb-April
(b) Mar-April
(c) Jan-June
(d) Sept-Dec

62. In the list of Top 50 Most Valued Global Banks
(in terms of market capitalisation) released by
Bloomberg on 17 January 2015, which bank got
first rank?
(a) HDFC (b) SBI
(c) ICBC (d) Yes Bank
63. The philosophy of Laissez-Faire is associated
with
(a) Gandhian state (b) Industrial state
(c) Socialist state (d) Welfare state
64. In free economy, inequalities in income is due to
(a) free competition
(b) private property and inheritance
(c) differences in the marginal productivity of
labour
(d) private property only
65. Personal disposable income means?
(a) Personal income- indirect taxes
(b) Personal income- direct taxes + fees+ fines
(c) Personal income- direct taxes + fees+ fines+
social security contribution by employers
(d) None of these
66. Which bank launched the Digital Village Project
in Akodara village in Gujarat?
(a) Yes Bank (b) HDFC Bank
(c) ICICI Bank (d) SBI
67. Due to decrease in oil process and demand for gold,
the trade deficit in December 2014 narrowed down
to
(a) 7.25 billion US dollars
(b) 11.20 billion US dollars
(c) 7.5 billion US dollars
(d) 9.43 billion US dollars
68. As per 13th Finance Commission Recommendations
during 2010-15, transfers to the states from the
central tax pool are expected to be
(a) ` 44000 crore
(b) ` 164832 crore
(c) ` 318581 crore
(d) ` 107552 crore
69. As per CRISIL index on Financial inclusion which
part of India is top in the financial inclusion?
(a) South India (b) East India
(c) West India (d) North India
Economics || D-5
70. In which of the following years, was the trade
balance favourable to India?
(a) 1970-71 and 1974-75
(b) 1972-73 and 1976-77
(c) 1972-73 and 1975-76
(d) 1971-72 and 1976-77
71. Among Indian economists, who had done
pioneering work on National Income?
(a) P. N Dhar (b) Prof. Shenoi
(c) V. K. R. V Rao (d) Jagdish Bhagwati
72. Hawala in India is prohibited under the provision
of which of the following Acts
(a) Financial Action Task Force Act
(b) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
Act
(c) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(d) Banking Regulation Act
73. The theory of economic drain of India during
British period was propounded by
(a) M. K. Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) R. C. Dutta
74. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio
between their cash in hand and total assets. This
is called
(a) Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR)
(b) Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR)
(c) Central Bank Reserve (CBR)
(d) Central Liquid Reserve (CLR)
75. One of the problems in calculating the national
income in India correctly is
(a) under-employment
(b) inflation
(c) non-monetised consumption
(d) low savings
76. As per the statistics on foreign debt at the end of
March 2014, the ratio of long term debt and short
term debt stands at
(a) About 80 : 20 (b) About 81.5 : 18.5
(c) About 70 : 30 (d) About 61.5 : 29.5
77. Paper currency first started in India in
(a) 1862 (b) 1542
(c) 1601 (d) 1880
78. Which Indian got Nobel Prize for Economics?
(a) Khorana (b) C.V. Raman
(c) Teressa (d) Amartya Sen
D-6 || Indian Economy
79. Which of following statement is true about the
Primary deficit?
(a) It is difference between Revenue Receipts
and Revenue Expenditure
(b) It is difference between Capital Receipts and
Interest Payment
(c) It is difference between the Fiscal Deficit and
Interest Payment
(d) It is addition of Fiscal Deficit and Interest
Payment
80. Why is demographic dividend likely to be
manifested in India in future?
(a) Population in the age group between 8-15
years is likely to increase.
(b) Population of children below 7 years is likely
to increase
(c) Population in the age group of 15-64 years is
likely to increase
(d) opulation in the age group above 65 years is
likely to increase
81. Who among the following has suggested migration
to accrual accounting system from cash based
accounting system in India?
(a) I.V. Reddy (b) D.N. Ghosh
(c) R.H. Patil (d) C. Rangarajan
82. Note issuing department of RBI should always
possess the minimum gold stock of worth
(a) ` 85 crore (b) ` 115 crore
(c) ` 200 crore (d) None of these
83. Which of the following does not grant any tax
rebate?
(a) National Saving Certificate
(b) Indira Vikas Patra
(c) National Saving Scheme
(d) Public Provident Fund
84. What is the approximate share of SSIs in gross
industrial value added in the Indian economy?
(a) 25% (b) 30%
(c) 5% (d) 40%
85. Consider the following statements:
1. The Fifth Economic Census was conducted
by CSO in the year 2007.
2. Intelligent Character Recognition (ICR)
technology is being used for detailed
processing of the data collected in the Fifth
Economic Census.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
86. Which of the following governmental steps has
proved relatively effective in controlling the
double digit rate of inflation in the Indian economy
during recent years?
(a) Containing budgetary deficits and unproductive
expenditure
(b) Streamlined public distribution system
(c) Enhanced rate of production of all consumer
goods
(d) Pursuing an export-oriented strategy
87. Which one of the following is not a feature of
Indias economic planning?
(a) imperative planning
(b) limited centralisation
(c) democratic socialism
(d) indicative planning
 Economics || D-7

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (a) 21. (a) 31. (d) 41. (d) 51. (c) 61. (c) 71. (c) 81. (b)
2. (c) 12. (c) 22. (b) 32. (c) 42. (d) 52. (b) 62. (c) 72. (c) 82. (b)
3. (c) 13. (a) 23. (b) 33. (b) 43. (a) 53. (a) 63. (b) 73. (c) 83. (b)
4. (c) 14. (a) 24. (d) 34. (d) 44. (b) 54. (a) 64. (b) 74. (b) 84. (d)
5. (b) 15. (a) 25. (c) 35. (b) 45. (c) 55. (b) 65. (c) 75. (c) 85. (b)
6. (d) 16. (d) 26. (c) 36. (a) 46. (b) 56. (b) 66. (c) 76. (b) 86. (a)
7. (b) 17. (a) 27. (c) 37. (d) 47. (d) 57. (b) 67. (d) 77. (b) 87. (a)
8. (a) 18. (d) 28. (a) 38. (c) 48. (d) 58. (d) 68. (c) 78. (d)
9. (d) 19. (d) 29. (d) 39. (b) 49. (d) 59. (a) 69. (a) 79. (c)
10. (d) 20. (b) 30. (a) 40. (c) 50. (b) 60. (d) 70. (b) 80. (c)

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) The concept of mixed economy evolved
from the ideas of Keynes. The concept of mixed
economy means that both private enterprises and
public enterprises coexist. However, the condition
attached is that the private enterprises must work
for serving the society rather than having only self
interest. Further the private enterprises may not be
allowed in every sector of the economy like area of
national importance.
2. (c) In an economy, the sectors are classified
into private and public on the basis of ownership.
Private sector is owned and managed by proprietors
and partnerships while the public sector is wholly
owned and managed by government.
3. (c) During last decade, tertiary sector has shown
remarkable expansion. The economy is divided
into three sector on the basis of activitiesprimary,
secondary and tertiary. Primary sector is involved
into agriculture, secondary sector is involved
into manufacturing, mining, construction while
tertiary sector is involved into trade, transport,
communication, banking & other services. In
the last decade India has expanded maximum in
providing services like IT, Telecommunication,
Healthcare, Tourism which is contributing around
60% to GDP.
4. (c) When development in economy takes place,
the share of tertiary sector in national income
keeps on increasing because tertiary sector is
involved into services within and outside the
country. With development the disposable income
of individuals income results in growth of banking,
trading, communication etc., both domestically and
internationally.
5. (b) India is a labour-surplus economy because in
India there is disguised unemployment along with
under-employment which means that qualified,
skilled workforce willing to work is available but
there are not enough employment opportunities.
6. (d) The Indian Economy is characterised by pre-
dominance of agriculture, low per capita income
and massive unemployment. In India contribution
of agriculture to GDP is around 13.7%. Per capita
income, a gauge for measuring living standard, is
estimated at ` 5,729 per month in 201213 which
is low as compared to other developing nations
like China having per capita income to be $6091.
In India the rate of unemployment is around 9.9 %
which is higher than other developing nations like
China which has unemployment rate of 4.1.
7. (b) In India, planned economy is based on socialist
system in which all have equal opportunities to
education, healthcare, non exploitation, equality of
wealth etc. The concept was borrowed from Russia
and is based on achieving directive principles
mentioned in our constitution.
D-8 || Indian Economy
8. (a) Economic liberalisation in India started with
substantial changes in industrial licensing policy.
The LPG Model (Liberalisation, Privatisation &
Globalisation) was introduced by Dr Manmohan
Singh in 1991 as India was facing problems
of depleting reserves. Under liberalization the
industrial licensing policy was changed and under
the new licensing policy the private players can set
up their industrial units without obtaining license
from government and thus private investment in
India increased drastically.
9. (d) A firm sells shares worth ` 1000 direct to
individuals. This transaction will cause no impact
on Gross National Product as GNP measures the
output generated by a countrys enterprises (whether
physically located domestically or abroad) but here
no output is generated.
10. (d) Private income arising in a country does not
include current payments on foreign loans. Private
income includes any type of income received by a
private individual or household, often derived from
occupational activities, or income of an individual
that is not in the form of a salary (e.g. income from
investments). Thus private income includes factor
income from net domestic product, net factor income
from abroad & current transfers from government.
11. (a) For calculating national income, the Indian
economy is divided into 14 broad sectors, which are
then grouped into three main categories A, B and C.
In India, agriculture, forestry and logging, fishing,
mining and quarrying, registered manufacturing and
construction units are included in category A. The
output method is applied to category A. The value
added by this category is found by subtracting the
value of raw materials and other inputs from the
aggregate of commodity-wise output.
12. (c) The term was coined by Indian economist Raj
Krishna. The Hindu rate of growth is a derogatory
term referring to the low annual growth rate of
the socialist economy of India before 1991, which
stagnated around 3.5% from 1950s to 1980s. The
word Hindu implies that the Hindu outlook of
fatalism and contentedness was responsible for the
slow growth.
13. (a) GDP at factor cost is GDP at market price
minus indirect taxes plus subsidies. GDP at factor
cost measure the value of output in terms of what
it really cost to produce. However, adjustments
have to be made for government subsidies to firms
that make up market prices purchasers pay so price
plus subsidy represent the true income to factor
of production. We can, therefore, value domestic
output at prices received by producers after indirect
taxes and subsidies have been taken into account.
14. (a) Per capita income is obtained by dividing
national income by total population of the country
per capita income, also known as income per
person, is the mean income of the people in a
country. It is calculated by taking a measure of all
sources of income in the aggregate (such as GDP or
Gross national income) and dividing it by the total
population.
15. (a) The important heads of developmental
expenditure within the revenue account are (i) social
and community services, (ii) economic services and
(iii) grants- in-aid to states and union territories.
The largest component in this group is economic
services. Economic services include general
economic services, agriculture and allied services,
industry; and minerals, water and power and
power development, transport and communication,
railways, post and telegraphs etc.
16. (d) GDP is defined as the value of all final goods
and services produced in an economy in a year. The
total quantity of goods produced in an economy
during year are multiplied by their current prices to
get the GDP.
17. (a) Depreciation is equal to GNPNNP (Gross
national productsNet national products)
Depreciation is also known as consumption of
fixed capital. It is the wear and tear to the physical
assets. It measures the amount of GNP that must be
spent on new capital goods to maintain the existing
physical capital stock.
18. (d) Investment method is not a method of
measurement of National income. There are three
methods of measurement: income method, product
or value added method and the expenditure method.
In the initial phase, production of goods and services
takes place. During the course of production
payment is made to all factors of production like
wages to labour etc. Once the production completes
the output is distributed for different uses like
consumption etc.

19. (d) Net National Product (NNP) of a country is
GNP minus depreciation allowances. NNP is the
actual addition to years wealth. While calculating
GNP, we ignore depreciation of assets but in reality
the process of production uses up the fixed assets
or there is some wear and tear or fixed assets by
process of depreciation. In order to arrive at NNP
we deduct depreciation from GNP.
20. (b) National Income is based on the production
of goods and services. A variety of measures of
national income and output are used in economics
to estimate total economic activity in a country or
region, including gross domestic product (GDP),
gross national product (GNP), net national income
(NNI), and adjusted national income (NNI* adjusted
for natural resource depletion). All are specially
concerned with counting the total amount of goods
and services produced within some boundary.
21. (a) Rate of GDP growth is a major indication of
the state of the economy of a country. Economic
growth is the increase in the market value of the
goods and services produced by an economy over
time. It is conventionally measured as the percent
rate of increase in gross domestic product. Gross
domestic product (GDP) is the market value of
all officially recognized final goods and services
produced within a country in a year, or other given
period of time.
22. (b) The tertiary sector of the economy (also
known as the service sector) is one of the three
economic sectors. The service sector consists
of activities where people offer their knowledge
and time to improve productivity. Examples of
tertiary industries may include the following:
telecommunication, hospitality industry/tourism,
mass media, healthcare/hospitals, information
technology, banking, insurance, investment
management, accountancy, legal services,
consulting, retail sales, real estate, education.
23. (b) GNP is the total value of all final goods and
services produced within a country in a particular
year, plus income earned by its citizens (including
income of those located abroad), minus income of
non-residents located in that country. GNP measures
the value of goods and services that the countrys
citizens produced regardless of their location.
24. (d) NNP at factor cost is equivalent to national
income. Net National Product at factor cost is
Economics || D-9
the aggregate payments made to the factors of
production. NNP at FC is the total incomes earned
by all the factors of production in the form of wages,
profits, rent, interest etc. plus net factor income
from abroad. Similarly National income is the sum
total of wages, rent, interest, and profit earned by
the factors of production of a country in a year.
Thus it is the aggregate values of goods and services
rendered during a given period counted without
duplication.
25. (c) Tertiary sector of the Indian economy
contributes largest to the GNP. During last decade
tertiary sector has shown remarkable expansion.
The economy is divided into three sectors on
the basis of activities-primary, secondary and
tertiary. Primary sector is involved into agriculture,
secondary sector is involved into manufacturing,
mining, construction while tertiary sector is
involved into trade, transport, communication,
banking & other services. In the last decade, India
has expanded maximum in providing services like
IT, telecommunication, healthcare, tourism which is
contributing around 60% to GDP.
26. (c) Central Statistical Organisation (CSO), prepares
the estimates of national income in India. The first
official estimates of the national income, prepared
by the CSO at constant prices with base year 1948-
49, as well as at current prices, were brought out in
1956.
27. (c) Per capita income of a country is derived from
National income and population both. Per capita
income is obtained by dividing national income by
total population of the country. Per capita income,
also known as income per person, is the mean
income of the people in a country . It is calculated
by taking a measure of all sources of income in the
aggregate (such as GDP or Gross national income)
and dividing it by the total population.
28. (a) Service sector is one of the three economic
sectors. it includes : telecommunication, hospitality
industry/tourism, mass media, healthcare/
hospitals, information technology, banking,
insurance, investment management, accountancy,
legal services, consulting, retail sales, real estate,
education. Maximum contribution to national
income comes from service sector which contributes
around 60% .
D-10 || Indian Economy
29. (d) Coal mines is not an example of economic
overheads. Economic overhead is capital investment
into the infrastructure which should encourage new
industrial growth and social well being. The other
three School, sanitary facilities and roads and
railways are economic overheads.
30. (a) Dadabhai Naoroji had estimated national
income in India first. National income estimate
before independence was prepared by Dada Bhai
Naoroji in 1876. He estimated national income by
estimating the value of agricultural production and
then adding some percentage of nonagricultural
production. This method was nonscientific.
31. (d) Dadabhai, known as the Grand old man, wrote
the book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India
describing the theory of economic drain of India
during British rule.
32. (c) As the economy develops, the share of the
tertiary sector in the GDP increases. The tertiary
sector of the economy consists of activities where
people offer their knowledge and time to improve
productivity like telecommunication, hospitality
industry/tourism, mass media, healthcare/
hospitals, information technology, banking,
insurance, investment management, accountancy,
legal services, consulting, retail sales, real estate,
education. As economy develops people develop
more skills and knowledge which they offer as
services.
33. (b) National income is the sum total of wages,
rent, interest, and profit earned by the factors of
production of a country in a year. Thus it is the
aggregate values of goods and services rendered
during a given period counted without duplication.
34. (d) The most appropriate measure of a countrys
economic growth is its per capita real income. Per
capita income is average income, a measure of the
wealth of the population of a nation. It is used to
measure a countrys standard of living thus a better
indicator of economic growth.
35. (b) India, among the countries has the lowest
GDP per capita. GDP per capita is as follows-India
1509 USD,China 6959 USD, Sri Lanka 3204 USD,
Indonesia 3510 USD.
36. (a) The major aim of devaluation is to encourage
exports. Devaluation is a deliberate downward
adjustment to the value of a countrys currency,
relative to another currency, group of currencies.
One reason a country may devaluate its currency is
to combat trade imbalances. Devaluation causes a
countrys exports to become less expensive, making
them more competitive on the global market. This
in turn means that imports are more expensive,
making domestic consumers less likely to purchase
them.
37. (d) Inflation is increase in the prices of
commodities. It is caused due to decrease in supply
and increase in demand of commodities. So when
money supply in the economy increases it means
people have more purchasing capacity and thus
demand increases which results in inflation .
38. (c) Devaluation is a deliberate downward
adjustment to the value of a countrys currency,
relative to another currency, group of currencies.
Since it is relative to other currency so internal price
remains unchanged. It causes a countrys exports to
become less expensive and imports more expensive.
39. (b) The responsibility for coinage lies with central
government on the basis of the Coinage Act, 1906.
The designing and minting of coins in various
denominations is decided by Central government.
40. (c) The process of curing inflation by reducing
money supply is called disinflation. Disinflation
is a decrease in the rate of inflation a slowdown
in the rate of increase of the price level of goods
and services in GDP. Disinflation occurs when the
increase in the consumer price level slows down
from the previous period when the prices were
rising.
41. (d) Devaluation of currency leads to the all of
the above given aspects. Devaluation leads to
a countrys exports to become less expensive
as the currency is deliberately adjusted down to
other currencies, making imports more expensive,
making domestic consumers less likely to purchase
them thus the domestic companies are encouraged
to substitute imports.
42. (d) Stagflation is a condition of slow economic
growth and relatively high unemployment. It
is accompanied by a rise in prices, or inflation.
Stagflation occurs when the economy isnt growing
but prices are increasing, which is not a good
situation for a country to be in.

43. (a) During inflation interest rates should increase
so that the investor invests more in lieu of higher
interest earning thus money supply reduce which
can reduce inflation. Similarly higher interest rates
means credit becomes costly so that again supply of
money reduces which helps in curbing inflation.
44. (b) The existence of a parallel economy or black
money makes the monetary policies less effective.
Parallel economy, based on the black money or
unaccounted money, causes high circulation of
money in the market and thus causes inflation etc.
45. (c) In the parlance of economy, Gild-edged
market is called market of safe securities. Gild-
edged denotes high-grade securities, consequently
carrying low yields.
46. (b) At present Indian Rupee is fully convertible
on current account. Current account convertibility
means that any company that wants to conduct
business with outside companies (like TCS, Infy
etc.) can convert the dollar payment into Rupee
payment or pay in terms of dollar itself. This is fully
allowed in India provided that initial permission is
taken from RBI.
47. (d) All the above given terms are not a financial
term. RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) is fund
transfer system, core banking solutions like treasury
and investment are all processes not financial term.
48. (d) Money laundering occurs in three steps: the
first step involves introducing cash into the financial
system by some means called as placement; the
second involves carrying out complex financial
transactions to camouflage the illegal source called
layering; and the final step entails acquiring wealth
generated from the transactions of the illicit funds
called as integration.
49. (d) Inflation in India is measured on the Wholesale
Price Index (WPI). The wholesale price index (WPI)
is based on the wholesale price of a few relevant
commodities of over commodities available.
The base year used for comparing is 200405
and uses 676 items. The indicator tracks the price
movement of each commodity individually. Based
on this individual movement, the WPI is determined
through the averaging principle.
50. (b) When the prices of commodities, goods and
services start declining consistently, the phenomenon
is known as deflation. Deflation is because of fall in
the aggregate level of demand. That is, there is a fall
Economics || D-11
in how much the whole economy is willing to buy
and the price for goods. Because the price of goods
is falling, consumers have an incentive to delay
purchases and consumption until prices fall further,
which in turn reduces overall economic activity.
Since this idles the productive capacity, investment
also falls, leading to further reductions in aggregate
demand.
51. (c) India switched over to decimal currency in
1957 with the amendment of the Indian Coinage
Act. The rupee remained unchanged in value and
nomenclature. It, however, was now divided into
100 Paisa instead of 16 Annas.
52. (b) In 1991, India faced a serious balance of
payment crisis and was forced to sharply devalue
its currency. The country was in the grip of high
inflation, low growth and the foreign reserves were
not even worth to meet three weeks of imports.
Under these situations, the currency was devalued
to 17.90 against a dollar.
53. (a) During first Five Year Plan ( 195156) the price
level in Indian economy showed a decline because
of rapid agricultural development and measures to
control inflation as there was disequilibrium due to
second world war and partition of economy.
54. (a) The one rupee note is issued by Ministry of
Finance and it bears the signature of Finance
Secretary, while other notes bear the signature
of Governor RBI. However, only RBI is the only
source of legal tender money because distribution of
one rupee notes and coins and small coins all over
the country is undertaken by the Reserve Bank as
agent of the Government.
55. (b) The basis of determining dearness allowance
(D.A.) to government employees in India is
consumer price index. Dearness Allowance (DA)
is an allowance paid to employees to compensate
them for erosion of real income / wage due to
inflation. The increase in the cost of living and the
consequent erosion of income is measured in terms
of a consumer price index number and, DA to be
sanctioned to employees is determined on the basis
of the percentage increase in that index.
56. (b) With increase in GDP, aggregate demand
increases, because more production means people
have more disposable income, which means more
consumer spending. As a result, prices rise in
response, and in conclusion because aggregate
D-12 || Indian Economy
demand grows faster than long-term aggregate
supply, economic growth will be coupled with
inflation.
57. (b) Current account convertibility was first coined
as a theory by the Reserve Bank of India in 1997
by the Tarapore Committee. Full capital account
convertibility allows local currency to be exchanged
for foreign currency without any restriction on the
amount.
58. (d) The rise in interest rates results in increasing
cost of borrowing so lending decreases because
businesses do not borrow at high cost. Moreover
it results in increase in cost of production as the
cost for all suppliers of raw material increases due
to increase in their borrowing cost. For individuals
the savings increase as they start saving in lieu for
higher return as interest. Higher rates of interest
result in decrease in return on capital as cost of
investment in capital increases.
59. (a) Inflation reflects a situation where the demand
for goods and services exceeds their supply in the
economy. Higher interest rates in low inflation
means higher real returns not just on money, but
on all other assets too. These higher real returns
increases the allocation of investment.
60. (d) All expenditures that promote economic
growth and development are termed as development
expenditure. Expenditure on infrastructure
development, public enterprises or development
of agriculture increase productive capacity in the
economy and bring income to the government.
Expenditures in the nature of consumption such
as Defence, interest payments, expenditure on law
and order, public administration, do not create
any productive asset which can bring income or
returns to the government are non-development
expenditure.
61. (c) The slack season in the Indian economy is Jan-
June.
62. (c) Industrial and Commercial Bank of China
(ICBC) tops the list of global banks, with a market
capitalisation of $285 billion, over seven times that
of HDFC Bank.
63. (b) The philosophy of Laissez-Faire is associated
with industrial state.
64. (b) In free economy, inequalities in income is due
to private property and inheritance.
65. (c) Personal income- direct taxes + fees+ fines+
social security contribution by employers. The
amount of money that households have available
for spending and saving after income taxes have
been accounted for. Disposable personal income is
often monitored as one of the many key economic
indicators used to gauge the overall state of the
economy.Disposable income is total personal
income minus personal current taxes.
66. (c) ICICI Bank has adopted Akodara village of
Sabarkantha district under its Digital Village pilot
project to boost Centres Digital India drive.
67. (d) Due to decrease in oil process and demand for
gold, the trade deficit in December 2014 narrowed
down to 9.43 billion US dollar.
71. (c) The first person to adopt a scientific procedure
in estimating the national income was Dr. VKRV
Rao in 1931.
72. (c) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
(FEMA) is an Act of the Parliament of India to
consolidate and amend the law relating to foreign
exchange with the objective of facilitating external
trade and payments and for promoting the orderly
development and maintenance of foreign exchange
market in India. It was passed in the winter session
of Parliament in 1999, replacing the Foreign
Exchange Regulation Act (FERA).
73. (c) Dadabhai Naroji propounded the drain theory.
The drain, he declared, was the basic cause of Indias
poverty and a fundamental evil of British rule in
India. Thus, he argued in 1880 that it is not pitiless
operations of economic laws but it is the thoughtless
hand, pitiless actions of the British policy.
83. (b) Indira Vikas Patra was a small scale deposit
scheme operated by the post offices all over the
country to encourage the idea of investment in the
minds of the lower-middle class people.
84. (d) The small-scale industries sector plays a vital
role in the growth of the country. It contributes
almost 40% of the gross industrial value added in
the Indian economy.
87. (a) Imperative planning is not a feature of
economic planning of India. In case of imperative
planning economic activities belong to public
sector.
 2 Planning and Economic
Development
1. The slogan of poverty abolition was given in
which Five Year Plan?
(a) Second plan (b) Fourth plan
(c) Fifth plan (d) Sixth plan
2. PAN card issued by the Income Tax Department
cant be used for which of the following purpose?
(a) proof of address
(b) proof of identity
(c) proof of registered tax payer
(d) proof of date of birth
3. In India, planned economy is based on?
(a) Gandhian system
(b) Socialist system
(c) Capitalist system
(d) Mixed economy system
4. Golden Quadrangle project is associated with the
development of
(a) Highways (b) Ports
(c) Power Grids (d) Tourism Network
5. Which one of the following states was having the
highest Human Development Index in the year
2012?
(a) Assam (b) Kerala
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
6. Bharat Nirman Scheme of the UPA Government
does not include?
(a) Rural Water Supply Project
(b) Irrigation Benefit Programme
(c) Rural Electrification
(d) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
7. Sustainable development is a case of inter-
generational sensibility in respect of use of
(a) natural resources (a) Indira Gandhi Government
(b) material resources
(c) industrial resources (c) The Janta Party Government
(d) social resources
8. Indian economy has witnessed highest growth
rate in GDP in the year
(a) 2003 04 (b) 2004 05
(c) 2005 06 (d) 2006 07
9. Who was the author of the book Planned
Economy for India?
(a) Vishveswaraiyya (b) J.L. Nehru
(c) P.C. Mahalnobis (d) None of these
10. In which year Bombay plan was launched by
some industrialists?
(a) 1942 (b) 1943
(c) 1944 (d) 1945
11. The Economic Planning Committee was
established in the chairmanship of
(a) J.L. Nehru
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Ramkrishna Mudaliyar
(d) K.C. Niyogi
12. Who among the following has written the book
named Indian Economy: Gandhian Blue print?
(a) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Jai Prakash Narayan
(d) Charan Singh
13. The government introduced an agricultural
strategy which gave rise to green revolution in
India under the plan
(a) Third Five Year Plan
(b) Fourth Five Year Plan
(c) Fifth Five Year Plan
(d) Sixth Five Year Plan
14. The Rolling plan concept in National planning
was introduced by
(b) The National Front Government
(d) Rajiv Gandhi Government
D-14 ||Planning and Economic Development
15. The major emphasis on the first five year plan of
India was
(a) agriculture (b) employment
(c) industry (d) export promotion
16. Which one of the following plans is also known
as Gadgil Yojana?
(a) Third Five Year Plan
(b) Fourth Five Year Plan
(c) Fifth Five Year Plan
(d) Sixth Five Year Plan
17. Which one of the following was the first Chairman
of Planning Commission of India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Rural Water Supply
(d) J.B. Kriplani
18. Which one of the following economists proposed
the LPG model of economic development in
India?
(a) Y.B. Reddy (b) K.V. Kamath
(c) Manmohan Singh (d) None of these
19. In which of the following five year plans, the
high yielding varieties programme (HYVP) was
started in India?
(a) Third plan (b) Fourth plan
(c) Fifth plan (d) Sixth plan
20. The Rolling plan of the Indian Economy was
started in which year?
(a) 1966 69 (b) 1978 83
(c) 1980 85 (d) 2002 2007
21. Economic planning is in
(a) Union list (d) Regional Rural Bank
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list to develop basic infrastructure in the country?
(d) Not any specified list
22. The period of plan holiday in India was
(a) 1962 65 (b) 1966 69
(c) 1970 73 (d) 1973 76
23. The Rolling Plan for backward countries was
suggested by
(a) Gunnar Myrdal (b) W.A. Lewis
(c) R. Nurkse (d) A. Samuelson
24. National horticulture mission was launched in
which of the following five year planning
(a) Ninth Five Year Plan
(b) Tenth Five Year Plan
(c) Eleventh Five Year Plan
(d) None of these
25. Which of the following experienced the fastest
expansion during the plan in India?
(a) Agriculture (b) Industry
(c) Services (d) None of these
26. The provision behind the establishment of
Planning Commission in 1950 was
(a) A constitutional amendment
(b) A supreme court order
(c) An executive order
(d) A decision by the parliament
27. Which of the following is not covered under
Bharat Nirman?
(a) Rural Housing
(b) Rural Hospitals
(d) Rural Electrification
28. Bharat Nirman plan is associated with
development of
(a) Urban infrastructure
(b) Rural infrastructure
(c) Information technology
(d) Bridges and roads
29. The concept of sustainable development relates to
(a) Consumption levels
(b) Exhaustible resources
(c) Intergenerational equity
(d) Social Equity
30. The Rural infrastructure fund set up in 1995 96,
is maintained by the
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) NABARD
31. Which of the following programmes is launched
(a) Bharat Nirman Programme
(b) Technical Mission
(c) Special Economic Zones
(d) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
32. Who presides over National Development
Council?
(a) Home Minister (b) Prime Minister
(c) Vice-President (d) Governor
33. Mahalanobis Committee was appointed on to
deal with
(a) Poverty eradication
(b) Standard of living
(c) National income
(d) Industrial sickness
 Economics|| D-15

34. Planning Commission has been replaced by
which of the given institutions?
(a) Finance Commission of India
(b) Investment Commission of India
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) None of these
35. The concept of Economic Planning in India is
derived from which country?
(a) USA (b) UK
(c) Russia (d) France
36. When economic development takes place
(a) Specialisation increases
(b) Commercialisation decreases
(c) Market imperfections increase
(d) None of the above
37. In which year was the 20 point economic
programme was announced for the very first
time?
(a) 1975 (b) 2006
(c) 1986 (d) 1982
38. How many Ex-officio members can be selected
from the Union Council of Ministers to be
nominated by the Prime Minister in Niti Aayog?
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 8
39. Who among the following is not made a special
invitee to the Niti Aayog?
(a) Arun Jaitley Aayog?
(b) Nitin Gadkari
(c) Smriti Irani
(d) Thawar Chand Gehlot
40. How many part-time members are there in Niti
Aayog?
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 2
41. The prominent economist Bibek Debroy and V K
Saraswat were appointed as full time members of
NITI Aayog. Who is V K Saraswat?
(a) Former DRDO chief
(b) Former ISRO chief
(c) Former Finance Secretary
(d) Former Defence Minister
42. Niti Aayog comes into effect from
(a) 1 April 2015
(b) 1 April 2014
(c) 1 January 2015
(d) 1 January 2014
43. Who amongst the following has been appointed
as the Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog?
(a) Pravin Krishna
(b) Jagdish Bhagwati
(c) rvind Panagariya
(d) T.N. Srinivasan
44. Who is the current CEO of Niti Aayog?
(a) Arvind Mayaram
(b) Rajiv Meharshi.
(c) Sindhushree Khullar
(d) Sudha Pillai
45. Who can become a part-time member of the Niti
(a) A serving IES officer
(b) A serving IAS officer
(c) A Union Minister
(d) An expert from research institutes.
D-16 ||Planning and Economic Development

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 10. (c) 19. (a) 28. (b) 37. (a)
2. (a) 11. (a) 20. (b) 29. (c) 38. (a)
3. (d) 12. (d) 21. (c) 30. (c) 39. (a)
4. (a) 13. (a) 22. (b) 31. (a) 40. (d)
5. (b) 14. (c) 23. (a) 32. (b) 41. (a)
6. (d) 15. (a) 24. (b) 33. (c) 42. (c)
7. (a) 16. (a) 25. (c) 34. (c) 43. (c)
8. (d) 17. (b) 26. (c) 35. (c) 44. (c)
9. (a) 18. (c) 27. (b) 36. (a) 45. (d)

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) The slogan of poverty abolition was given
by Indira Gandhi in 1971 and it was implemented
during the Fifth Five Year Plan 197479. Gandhi
promised to reduce poverty by targeting the
consumption levels of the poor and enact wide
ranging social and economic reforms.
2. (a) Permanent Account Number (PAN)card is
unique alphanumeric combination. It is issued by
the Indian Income Tax Department. It serves as an
important ID proof, date of birth proof and proof of
tax payer. However it cant be used for the purpose
of address proof.
3. (d) The planned economy is based on mixed
economy system. The concept of mixed economy
evolved from the ideas of Keynes. The concept of
Mixed Economy means that both private enterprises
and public enterprise coexist. However the condition
attached is that the private enterprises must work
for serving the society rather than having only self
interest. Further the private enterprises may not be
allowed in every sector of the economy like area of
national importance.
4. (a) Golden Quadrangle project is associated
with the development of Highways. The Golden
Quadrilateral is a highway network connecting
many of the major industrial, agricultural and
cultural centres of India. A quadrilateral of sorts is
formed by connecting Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and
Chennai, and hence its name.
5. (b) The Human Development Index (HDI) is a
composite statistic of life expectancy, education,
and income used to rank states. Among the given
states Kerala was having the highest Human
Development Index around 0.92 in the year 2012
for achieving highest literacy rate, quality health
services and consumption expenditure of people.
6. (d) Bharat Nirman is a business plan for creating
basic rural infrastructure. It comprises projects
on irrigation, roads (Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak
Yojana), housing (Indira Awaas Yojana), water
supply (National Rural Drinking Water Programme),
electrification (Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran
Yojana) and telecommunication connectivity. It
does not include Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
7. (a) Sustainable development is that development
that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to
meet their own needs. Sustainable development is
a case of inter-generational sensibility in respect of
use of natural resources.
8. (d) In the year 2006 07, the Indian economy has
witnessed highest growth rate in GDP. The economy
grew by 7.7 %.
9. (a) M. Vishveswaraiyya wrote the book Planned
Economy for India. Sir Mokshagundam
Vishveshwariah was a notable Indian engineer,
scholar, statesman and the Diwan of Mysore during
1912 to 1918. He was a recipient of the Indian
Republics highest honour, the Bharat Ratna, in
1955.

10. (c) The Bombay Plan is the name commonly given
to a set of proposals for the development of the
post-independence economy of India. The plan was
published in 1944 by eight leading industrialists
Jehangir Ratanji Dadabhoy Tata, Ghanshyam Das
Birla, Ardeshir Dalal, Sri Ram, Kasturbhai Lalbhai,
Ardeshir Darabshaw Shroff, Sir Purshottamdas
Thakurdas and John Mathai. It proposed state
intervention in the economic development of the
nation after independence.
11. (a) After India gained independence, a formal
model of planning was adopted, and the Planning
Commission, was established on 15 March 1950,
with Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as the
chairman.
12. (d) Charan Singh wrote the book named, Indian
Economy: Gandhian Blue Print. He was the fifth
Prime Minister of India, serving from 1979 until
1980.
13. (a) Under the Third Five Year Plan, the
government introduce an agricultural strategy
which gave rise to green revolution in India. Under
the Third Plan the goal was to establish self reliance
and self generating economy. But the earlier plans
had shown that the agricultural production was the
limiting factor so agriculture was given top priority.
14. (c) The Rolling plan concept in National planning
was introduced by the Janata Party government.
Fifth FYP was launched and planned for period
197479 but Janata government came in power in
1978 and ended the plan prematurely in 1978. The
Janata government launched sixth FYP for period
19781983. Congress government when came
in power in 1980 abandoned the sixth FYP and
launched a new sixth FYP for period 19801985.
The plan for period, 197880, is called the rolling
plan.
15. (a) The major emphasis on the First Five Year
plan was the agriculture sector. At the time of first
plan (195156), India faced severe food shortage
and inflation. Accordingly the first plan emphasized
on rapid agricultural development so as to achieve
food self sufficiency and control inflation.
16. (a) The Third Five-Year Plan is also called Gadgil
Yojana. The aim of this plan was to make the
economy independent and to reach self active take
off position. It was named after the then deputy
chairman of the Planning Commission Dr. D R
Gadgil.
Economics|| D-17
17. (b) After India gained independence, a formal
model of planning was adopted, and accordingly the
Planning Commission was established on 15 March
1950, with Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as the
Chairman.
18. (c) The economy of India had undergone
significant policy shifts in the beginning of the
1990s. This new model of economic reforms is
commonly known as the LPG or Liberalization,
Privatization and Globalization model. LPG model
of economic development in India was proposed
by Dr. Manmohan Singh, economist and finance
minister at that time.
19. (a) The main objective of the third Five Year
Plan was to make economy self-dependent. The
third Five-Year Plan stressed on agriculture and
improvement in the production of wheat so as to
be self sufficient. Thus during the planned period
the high yielding varieties programme (HYVP) was
started in India to increase the yield of crops.
20. (b) The Rolling plan concept in National planning
was introduced by the Janata Party government.
Fifth FYP was launched and planned for period
197479 but Janata government came in power in
1978 and ended the plan prematurely in 1978. The
Janata government launched sixth FYP for period
19781983. Congress government when came
in power in 1980 abandoned the sixth FYP and
launched a new sixth FYP for period 19801985.
The plan for period, 197880, is called the rolling
plan.
21. (c) The Concurrent List or List-III is a list of
47 items given in Part XI of the Constitution of
India, concerned with relations between the Union
and States. Economic planning is specified in
Concurrent list.
22. (b) Despite big investments during the first three
Plans, the living standards of the poor could not be
raised and poverty and inequity in distribution of
state resources remained stark. Consequently, the
period between 1966 and 1969 marked the shift from
a growth approach to a distribution from growth
approach. Looking at the failures and pitfalls the
planners suspended the impending Fourth Plan,
which was due in 1966, until 1969 for a revision
of objectives and targets. This came to be called as
the Plan Holiday extending from 1 April 1966 to
31 March 1969.
D-18 ||Planning and Economic Development
23. (a) The Rolling Plan for backward countries was
suggested by Gunnar Myrdal. He was a Swedish
Nobel Laureate, economist, sociologist, and
politician.
24. (b) National Horticulture Mission (NHM) is
an Indian horticulture scheme promoted by
Government of India. It was launched under the 10th
Five-Year Plan in the year 200506. The NHMs
key objective is to develop horticulture to the
maximum potential and to augment production of
all horticultural products (fruits, vegetables, flowers,
plantation crops, spices, medicinal aromatic plants).
25. (c) The service sector experienced the fastest
expansion during the plan in India which was
predominantly an agricultural economy at the time
of independence. It includes: telecommunication,
hospitality industry/tourism, mass media,
healthcare/hospitals, information technology,
banking, insurance, investment management,
accountancy, legal services, consulting, retail
sales, real estate, education. currently maximum
contribution to national income comes from
service sector which contributes around 60%.
26. (c) The provision behind the establishment of
Planning Commission in 1950 was an executive
order.
27. (b) Rural hospitals are not covered under the
Bharat Nirman. Bharat Nirman is an Indian
business plan for creating basic rural infrastructure.
It comprises projects on irrigation, roads (Pradhan
Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana), housing (Indira
Awaas Yojana), water supply (National Rural
Drinking Water Programme), electrification
(Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana) and
telecommunication connectivity.
28. (b) Bharat Nirman plan is associated with the
development of rural infrastructure like roads,
irrigation, housing, water supply, telecommunication
and electrification.
29. (c) Sustainable development is the development
that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to
meet their own needs. Sustainable development is a
case of intergenerational equity in respect of use of
natural resources.
30. (c) The rural infrastructure fund was set up by the
Government in 199596 for financing ongoing rural
Infrastructure projects. The Fund is maintained
by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development (NABARD). Domestic commercial
banks contribute to the fund to the extent of their
shortfall in stipulated priority sector lending to
agriculture.
31. (a) Bharat Nirman programme is launched to
develop basic infrastructure in the country.
32. (b) The National Development Council (NDC) or
the Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body for
decision making and deliberations on development
matters in India, presided over by the Prime Minister.
It was set up on 6 August 1952 to strengthen and
mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in
support of the Plan, to promote common economic
policies in all vital spheres, and to ensure the
balanced and rapid development of all parts of the
country. The Council comprises the Prime Minister,
the Union Cabinet Ministers,Chief Ministers of all
States or their substitutes, representatives of the
Union Territories and the members of the Planning
Commission.
33. (c) Mahalanobis committee is known as
Distribution of Income and Levels of Living and it
was set up in 1960 to find an answer to the question
that who was benefitted by the first and second five
year plans, as there was no substantial increase in
the per capita income of the people.
34. (c) Planning Commission has been replaced by an
Institution named NITI Aayog. In 2014, the Central
Government led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi
decided to wind down up the Planning Commission.
It was proposed to replace it with a more dynamic
organisation that is more popular and connected to
the times.
35. (c) Joseph Stalin implemented the first FYP in the
Soviet Union in the late 1920s. Most communist
states and several capitalist countries like India
subsequently have adopted them.
36. (a) When economic development takes place,
specialisation increases. Economic development
typically involves improvements in a variety of
indicators such as literacy rates, life expectancy,
and poverty rates. GDP does not take into account
other aspects such as leisure time, environmental
quality, freedom, or social justice; alternative
measures of economic well-being have been
proposed. Essentially, a countrys economic
development is related to its human development,

which encompasses, among other things, health
and education. These factors are, however, closely
related to economic growth so that development and
growth often go together.
37. (a) The Twenty Point Programme was initially
launched by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1975
and was subsequently restructured in 1982 and again
on 1986. With the introduction of new policies and
programmes it has been finally restructured in 2006
and it has been in operation at present. The basic
objective of the 20-Point Programme is to eradicate
poverty and to improve the quality of life of the poor
and the under privileged population of the country.
38. (a) Maximum of four members of the Union
Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime
Minister to the Niti Aayog.
39. (a) Roads and National Highway Minister Nitin
Gadkari, Human Resource Development Minister
Smriti Irani and Social Justice and Empowerment
Minister Thawar Chand Gehlot were made special
invitees to the Niti Aayog.
40. (d) Maximum of two from leading universities
research organizations and other relevant institutions
in an ex-officio capacity. Part-time members will be
on a rotational basis.
Economics|| D-19
41. (a) Vijay Kumar Saraswat is an Indian scientist
who formerly served as the Director General of the
Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO) and the Chief Scientific Advisor to the
Indian Minister of Defence.[2] He retired on 31
May 2013. Saraswat is the key scientist in the
development of the Prithvi missile and its induction
in the Indian armed forces. He is a recipient of the
Padma Shri from the Government of India.
42. (c) Union Government of India had announced
formation of NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015.
43. (c) Arvind Panagariya is an eminent free market
economist and has been an Economics professor
at Columbia University in New York. He, as vice
chairman, would have a pivotal role in coordinating
economic strategy and hold cabinet rank.
44. (c) CEO is appointed by the Prime Minister
for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to
the Government of India. Sindhushree Khullar
appointed as the Chief Executive Officer.
45. (d) Tech experts from research institutes are
entitled to become part time member of the Niti
Aayog. Currently none is declared. It is a rotational
post.
 3 Agriculture in
Indian Economy
1. First Agricultural University in India was
established in
(a) Jabalpur (a) Inter State council
(b) Kanpur
(c) Kumarganj, Faizabad (c) Agriculture Finance Corporation
(d) Pant Nagar
2. Which one of the following agencies is not
included in the operation of the Kisan Credit
Cards?
(a) Co-operative Banks
(b) Regional Rural Banks
(c) Scheduled Commercial Banks
(d) NABARD
3. Green Revolution in India started from
(a) Kanpur (b) Delhi
(c) Bengaluru (d) Punjab
4. Which one of the following is the objective of
the National Watershed Development project for
rainfed areas of India?
(a) Sustainable farming systems
(b) Integrated Watershed Management
(c) Reclamation of Forest Area
(d) Both (a) and (b)
5. Which one among the following Agricultural
sectors is covered under the Market Intervention
scheme (MIS) of the Indian Government?
(a) Forestry (b) Irrigation
(c) Horticulture (d) Animal Husbandry
6. The price at which the Government purchase
foodgrains for maintaining the public distribution
system and for building up buffer stocks are
known as
(a) Minimum support prices
(b) Procurement prices
(c) Issue prices
(d) Coiling prices
7. Which one of the following agencies assigns the
Agricultural Income Tax to states in India?
(b) National Development Council
(d) Finance commission
8. Which one of the following agencies of Indian
Government implements the price support
scheme (PSS)?
(a) FCI
(b) NAFED
(c) Agriculture pricing agency of India
(d) None of the above
9. Who is known as the father of White Revolution
in India?
(a) M.S Swaminathan
(b) B.P Pal
(c) K.N Bhal
(d) V. Kurien
10. Which one of the following is not included in
the Agriculture and Allied Services of Indian
Economy?
(a) Fishing (b) Forestry
(c) Logging (d) Food Processing
11. In which five year plan in Indian Economy, the
targets for the crop function were not fixed for the
first time-
(a) Seventh five year plan
(b) Eighth five year plan
(c) Ninth five year plan
(d) Tenth five year plan
12. The percentage of the agricultural land is very
high in all the following except
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Punjab
(c) Haryana (d) Sikkim
 Economics || D-21

13. The Green Revolution in India has contributed to
(a) inter-regional inequality
(b) inter-class inequality
(c) inter-crop inequality
(d) all of the above
14. The importance of agriculture in Indian Economy
is indicated by its contribution to which of the
following?
(a) National income and employment
(b) Industrial development and international
trade
(c) Supply of foodgrains
(d) All of the above
15. When was the Kisan Credit Card schemes for the
farmers started in India?
(a) 19951996 (b) 19981999
(c) 20052006 (d) 20072008
16. Which one of the following apex co-operative
organisation is at the national level of India?
(a) TRIFED (b) NAFED
(c) FCS (d) RRBs
17. Which one of the following Co-Operative
societies is responsible for the production of
fertilizers?
(a) NAFED (b) IFFCO
(c) NCDC (d) TRI FED
18. Where is the Central Rice Research Institute
located?
(a) Kanpur (b) Bengaluru
(c) Coimbatore (d) Cuttack
19. Which one of the following states is the first state
to impose Agriculture Income Tax in India?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) West Bengal (d) Bihar
20. The impact of the Green Revolution was felt
most in the production of
(a) rice (b) pulses
(c) oilseeds (d) wheat
21. Which one of the following five year plans has
the highest GDP growth rate in Agriculture sector
in India ?
(a) Sixth Five Year Plan 29. In which of the following years was the Food
(b) Seventh Five Year Plan
(c) Eighth Five Year Plan (a) 1955 (b) 1960
(d) Ninth Five Year Plan
22. National Seed Policy, 2002 is based on the
recommendation of
(a) Kelkar Committee
(b) M.V Rao Committee
(c) Y.V Reddy Committee
(d) Abhijit Sen Committee
23. Swaroop committee is associated with
(a) financial products marketing
(b) Sugar marketing
(c) Banking
(d) Capital marketing
24. When was the National Food Security Mission
(NFSM) launched in India?
(a) Rabi Season (19992000)
(b) Kharif Season (19992000)
(c) Rabi Season (20072008)
(d) Kharif Season (20072008)
25. The Blue Revolution is related with
(a) Fish production
(b) Food grain production
(c) Oilseed production
(d) Milk production
26. Which of the following has not been a component
of the agriculture strategy that brought about the
Green Revolution ?
(a) Greater intensity of cropping
(b) Guaranteed maximum prices
(c) New agricultural technology
(d) Package of inputs
27. The term Green Revolution has been used to
indicate higher production through
(a) Creation of grasslands
(b) Planting more trees
(c) Creation of gardens in urban areas
(d) Enhanced agricultural productivity per
hectare
28. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act was
legislated in
(a) 1974 (b) 1976
(c) 1977 (d) 1978
Corporation of India (FCI) set up ?
(c) 1965 (d) 1970
D-22 || Agriculture in Indian Economy
30. National Agriculture Insurance Scheme replacing
comprehensive crop Insurance scheme was
introduced in the year
(a) 1997 (b) 1998
(c) 1999 (d) 2000
31. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojna was launched in the
year?
(a) 2003 (b) 2004
(c) 2006 (d) 2007
32. Everything else can wait, but not agriculture.
The statement is attributed to
(a) Jagjivan Ram (b) J.L. Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Sardar Patel
33. Where is the Indian Institute of Sugarcane
Research Institute situated?
(a) New Delhi (b) Varanasi
(c) Kanpur (d) Lucknow
34. Where is the Central Food Technological
Research Institute (CFTRI) situated ?
(a) Bangaluru (b) Karnal
(c) Mysore (d) Lucknow
35. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan has distinguished himself
in which of the following fields?
(a) Nuclear Physics (b) Agriculture
(c) Astrophysics (d) Medicine
36. The head office of the National Bank for
Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
located in
(a) Lucknow (b) Hyderabad
(c) New Delhi (d) Mumbai
37. Which is not a source of agriculture finance in
India?
(a) Co-operative societies 45. The Swiss Formula of World Trade Organisation
(b) Commercial Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) None of these
38. Agriculture sector directly employs one of the
following percentages of labour force in India
(a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) 40% (d) 52%
39. Which one of the following methods of soil
conservation is most effective in arid areas?
(a) Mulching
(b) Shelter belt
(c) Gully plugging
(d) Terracing
40. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as
(a) land surplus, labour scare economy
(b) land surplus, labour surplus economy
(c) land scare, labour surplus economy
(d) land scare, labour scare economy
41. NABARD was established in the
(a) Fourth Five Year Plan
(b) Fifth Five Year Plan
(c) Sixth Five Year Plan
(d) Eighth Five Year Plan
42. In India, which of the following has the highest
share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture
and allied activities?
(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Co-operative Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Microfinance Institutions
43. Which of the following is the chief characteristic
of mixed farming ?
(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food
crops
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same
field
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation together
(d) None of the above
44. An objective of the National Food Security
Mission is to increase the production of certain
crops which are
(a) Rice and wheat only
(b) Rice, wheat and pulses only
(c) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only
(d) Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and vegetables
is related with?
(a) Patent of drugs
(b) Agricultural subsidy
(c) Trans-boundary services
(d) Non-agricultural tariff
46. The minimum support priceand procurement
prices for agriculture products are fixed by the
government on the recommendations of
(a) Competition Commission of India
(b) National Development Council
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Commission for Agricultural Costs and
Prices (CACP)

47. Disguised unemployment in India exists in
(a) Transport sector (b) Agricultural sector
(c) Banking (d) Service sector
48. Intensive Agriculture District Programme (IADP)
was started in
(a) 1959-60 (b) 1960-61
(c) 1961-62 (d) 1962-63
49. In which five year plan was NABARD was
established?
(a) First (b) Fifth
(c) Sixth (d) Eighth
50. Yellow Revolution refers to the production of
(a) wool (b) fish
(c) shrimp (d) Oil seeds
51. During which of the following years, average
growth/rate (at constant prices) of agriculture and
allied sectors negative?
(a) 2002-03 (b) 2003-04
(c) 2005-06 (d) 2006-07
52. Which sector is the backbone of Indian economy?
(a) Service Sector (b) Financial Sector
(c) Tourism Sector (d) Agriculture Sector
53. When was NFSM launched?
(a) Mid of 9th Five-Year Plan
(b) End of 10th Five-Year Plan
(c) Mid of 11th Five-Year Plan
(d) End of 11th Five-Year Plan
54. Among the items of export of agricultural and
allied products from India during the year 2005-
06, which one of the following was the highest in
the value?
(a) Tea (b) Coffee
(c) Rice (d) Marine products
55. Who announced the introduction of National
Food Security Act?
(a) Pranab Mukherjee (d) Command Area Development and Water
(b) Manmohan Singh
(c) P. Chidambaram
(d) Arun Jaitley
56. Green Revolution in India has been most
successful in case of
(a) Wheat and Rice
(b) Wheat and Potatoes
(c) Mustard and Oilseeds
(d) Tea and Coffee
Economics || D-23
57. Pink revolution is related to
(a) Shrimp (b) Oil seeds
(c) Milk (d) Wool
58. Gray Revolution belongs to
(a) Fish (b) Milk
(c) Oil seeds (d) Wool
59. The National Mission for Saffron has been
launched as a sub scheme of which among the
following programmes?
(a) National Food Security Mission
(b) National Horticulture Mission
(c) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
(d) National Cash Crop Programme
60. Which of the following state is in first place in
producing the food grains?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) West Bengal
61. The minimum support price for the common
variety of paddy announced by the government
of India for the year 2012-2013 is
(a) ` 1030 (b) ` 1000
(c) ` 1250 (d) ` 950
62. National Horticulture Mission started in
(a) 2003-04 (b) 2005-06
(c) 2006-07 (d) 2008-09
63. To address the problem of sustainable and
holistic development of rainfed areas, including
appropriate farming and livelihood system
approaches, the government of India has set up
the
(a) National Rainfed Area Authority
(b) National Watershed Development Project
for Rainfed Areas
(c) National Mission on Rainfed Areas
Management Authority
64. Which is not a Kharif Crop ?
(a) Jowar (b) Maize
(c) Groundnut (d) Wheat
65. Which of the following state is/are included
under the Oil Palm Development Programme
under ISOPOM ?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Gujarat
(c) Tripura (d) All of the above
D-24 || Agriculture in Indian Economy
66. Which of the following is an area of focus under (c) Commission for Agricultural Costs and
RKVY? Prices
(a) Agriculture mechanization (d) NABARD
(b) Support to state seed farms 69. When were Kisan Call Centres established?
(c) Encouraging non-farm activities (a) July 2000
(d) All the above (b) March 2002
67. Who announced the launch of Rashtriya Krishi (c) March 2004
Vikas Yojana? (d) January 2004
(a) Narendra Modi 70. Which of the following is the largest fertiliser
(b) Dr. Manmohan Singh producer in India?
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (a) Coromande International Ltd.
(d) I.K.Gujral (b) Indian Farmers Fertiliser Corporation
68. Who recommends the MSP and issue prices? Limited
(a) Ministry of agriculture (c) Gujarat State Fertilizers & Chemicals Ltd.
(b) Planning commission (d) Rashtriya Chemicals & Fertilizers Ltd.
 Economics || D-25

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 11. (d) 21. (c) 31. (d) 41. (c) 51. (a) 61. (c)
2. (d) 12. (d) 22. (b) 32. (b) 42. (a) 52. (d) 62. (b)
3. (d) 13. (d) 23. (a) 33. (d) 43. (c) 53. (d) 63. (a)
4. (d) 14. (d) 24. (c) 34. (c) 44. (b) 54. (c) 64. (d)
5. (c) 15. (b) 25. (a) 35. (b) 45. (a) 55. (a) 65. (d)
6. (b) 16. (b) 26. (b) 36. (d) 46. (d) 56. (a) 66. (d)
7. (d) 17. (b) 27. (d) 37. (d) 47. (b) 57. (a) 67. (b)
8. (b) 18. (d) 28. (b) 38. (d) 48. (b) 58. (d) 68. (c)
9. (d) 19. (d) 29. (c) 39. (b) 49. (c) 59. (c) 69. (d)
10. (d) 20. (d) 30. (c) 40. (c) 50. (d) 60. (a) 70. (b)

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) G. B. Pant University of Agriculture and
Technology (GBPUA&T, Pant Nagar,Uttara Khand)
is the first agricultural university of India. It was
inaugurated by Jawahar Lal Nehru on 17 November
1960.
2. (d) A Kisan Credit Card is a credit card to provide
affordable credit for farmers. It was started by
the Government of India, Reserve Bank of India
(RBI), and National Bank for Agricultural and
Rural Development (NABARD) in 199899 to
help farmers access timely and adequate credit.
The credit is available to farmers in most of the
banks like commercial banks cooperative banks
and regional rural banks. However in day to day
operations NABARD is not included.
3. (d) Indias program of Green Revolution was led
by Dr. Dilbagh S. Athwal at Punjab Agriculture
University. The introduction of high-yielding
varieties of seeds and the increased use of chemical
fertilizers and irrigation led to the increase in
production needed to make India self-sufficient in
food grains, thus improving agriculture in India.
The methods adopted included the use of high
yielding varieties (HYV) of seeds along with the
use of modern farming methods.
4. (d) Sustainable farming system and Integrated
watershed systems are the objective of the National
Watershed Development project for rainfed areas
of India. The scheme of National Watershed
Development Project for Rainfed Areas(NWDPRA)
was launched in 199091 in 25 States and 2
Union Territories based on twin concepts of
integrated watershed management and sustainable
farming systems. Its objective are conservation,
development and sustainable management of natural
resources, enhancement of agricultural production
in a sustainable manner, restoration of ecological
balance and creation of sustained employment
opportunities for the rural community.
5. (c) The Market Intervention Scheme (MIS)is an
adhoc scheme under which horticultural
commodities and other agricultural commodities
falls which are perishable in nature and are not
covered under the minimum price support scheme.
6. (b) The price at which the Government purchases
foodgrains for maintaining the public distribution
system and for building up buffer stocks are known
as procurement prices.
7. (d) Agricultural income tax to states in India is
assigned by the Constitution of India. The agency
responsible for it is Finance Commission whose
function is distribution of net proceeds of taxes
between Centre and the States, to be divided as per
their respective contributions to the taxes.
D-26 || Agriculture in Indian Economy
8. (b) In Order to help the farmers in getting
remunerative prices for their produce with a view to
encourage higher investment and as also to increase
production and productivity of a commodity, the
government declares Minimum Support Price
(MSPs) for 25 notified agricultural commodities
for each Kharif & Rabi crop season. National
Agricultural cooperative Marketing Federation of
India Ltd (NAFED) is one of the Central Nodal
Agencies which implements PSS.
9. (d) Dr. V. Kurien is known as the father of White
Revolution in India. Verghese Kurien was a
renowned Indian social entrepreneur and is best
known as the Father of the White Revolution,
for his billion-litre idea (Operation Flood)
the worlds biggest agricultural development
programme. The operation took India from being a
milk-deficient nation, to the largest milk producer in
the world.He was also the founder of AMUL.
10. (d) Agriculture (crops) and allied sectors are like
forestry, logging and fishing. Food processing is not
included in the Agriculture and allied services of
Indian Economy.
12. (d) The percentage of the agricultural land is
very high in all the given states except Sikkim.
Approximately it is Haryana 4402000 (hectare),
Punjab (5033000 Hectares) UP (29767000 Hectares)
and Sikkim 710000 Hectares
13. (d) The Green Revolution in India has contributed
to inter-regional, inter-class and inter-crop inequality
as certain regions like UP and Punjab which used
HYVs much better than others have become more
advanced than others. Similarly certain classes
which were rich like big landlords could purchase
HYV and thus have grown more rich. Similarly
certain crops like wheat have done better than others
creating inequality.
14. (d) The importance of agriculture in Indian
Economy is indicated by its contribution to national
income, industrial development and supply of
foodgrains. It contributes around 13.7% to GDP,
supplies raw material for development of industries
along with supplying food grains for livelihood.
15. (b) A Kisan Credit Card is a credit card to provide
affordable credit for farmers. It was started by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and National Bank for
Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) in
199899 to help farmers access timely and adequate
credit.
16. (b) The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development
Federation of India Limited (TRIFED) started
functioning in 1988 under the Administrative
control of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Govt. of
India. FCS is food and supplies department. RRB
is regional rural bank . All the above three are not
apex bodies at national level. However National
Agricultural cooperative Marketing Federation of
India Ltd. (NAFED) is one of the Central Nodal
Agencies which implements PSS.
17. (b) Indian Farmer Fertilizer cooperative Ltd
(IFFCO) is the co-operative society responsible
for the production of fertilizers. Indian Farmers
Fertiliser Co-operative Limited (IFFCO) was
registered on November 3, 1967 as a Multi-unit
Co-operative Society.
18. (d) The Central Rice Research Institute (CRRI)
was set up on 23 April, 1946 at Bidhyadharpur,
Cuttack, Odisha to research on all aspect of rice
crop. CRRI was set up as a result of Great Bengal
Famine of 1943 and devastating epiphytotic brown
spot disease of rice in 1942 which resulted in
shortage of rice.
19. (d) Bihar is the first state to impose agricultural
income tax in India. Agricultural income tax is
levied on the income from Agriculture. At present
agriculture is subjected to two direct taxes and they
are Agricultural Income tax and Land Tax. They are
levied by the state governments. Bihar was the first
state in India to levy a tax on agricultural income in
1938.
20. (d) The introduction of high-yielding varieties of
seeds and the increased use of chemical fertilizers
and irrigation are known collectively as the Green
Revolution. The impact of the Green Revolution
was felt most in the production of wheat. India saw
annual wheat production rise from 10 million tons
in the 1960s to 73 million in 2006.
21. (c) The growth performance of the agriculture
sector has been fluctuating across the plan periods .
It witnessed a growth rate of 4.8 per cent during the
Eighth plan period (199297).

22. (b) National seed policy is based on the
recommendation of M.V. Rao committee in 2002.
The Policy is meant to strengthen the seed industry
in view of the liberalisation in the farm sector under
the World Trade Organisation. The policy seeks to
provide intellectual property protection to stimulate
investment in research and development of new
plant varieties.
23. (a) The Committee on Investor Awareness and
Protection chaired by Shri D Swaroop, Chairman,
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development
Authority is associated with the financial products
marketing.
24. (c) The National Development Council (NDC)
on 29th May, 2007 adopted a resolution to launch
a Food Security Mission comprising rice, wheat
and pulses to increase the production of rice by 10
million tons, wheat by 8 million tons and pulses
by 2 million tons by the end of the Eleventh Plan
(201112). Accordingly, a centrally sponsored
Scheme, National Food Security Mission, had
been launched from the rabi season 200708 to
operationalize the above mentioned resolution.
25. (a) The Blue Revolution is similar to the green
revolution as it deals with aquaculture, fish and
water preservation for human use.
26. (b) Guranteed maximum prices have not been a
component of the agriculture strategy that brought
about the Green Revolution. The strategy aimed
at increasing the yield of crops using fertilizer,
pesticides and high yielding varities in agriculture.
27. (d) The term Green Revolution has been used
to indicate higher production through enhanced
agricultural productivity per hectare.
28. (b) The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act,
1976 was enacted to provide for the abolition
of bonded labour system with a view to prevent
the economic and physical exploitation of the
weaker sections of the society. It freed all the
bonded labourers from bondage with simultaneous
liquidation of their debts. It made the practice of
bondage a cognisable offence punishable by law.
The Act is being administered and implemented by
the Ministry of Labour and the State governments
concerned.
29. (c) The Food corporation of India (FCI) was set
up in 1965. Its objectives are effective price support
operations for safeguarding the interests of the
Economics || D-27
farmers. Distribution of food grains throughout
the country for public distribution system and
maintaining satisfactory level of operational and
buffer stocks of foodgrains to ensure National Food
Security.
30. (c) In the year 1999, the National Agriculture
Insurance Scheme was introduced by replacing
comprehensive crop Insurance Scheme. NAIS
covers all food crops (cereals and pulses), oilseeds,
horticultural and commercial crops. It covers all
farmers, both loanees and non-loanees, under the
scheme.
31. (d) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched in
August 2007 as a part of the 11th Five Year Plan by
the Government of India. Launched under the aegis
of the National Development Council, it seeks to
achieve 4% annual growth in agriculture through
development of Agriculture and its allied sectors
during the period under the 11th Five Year Plan
(200711).
32. (b) The statement, Everything else can wait, but
not agriculture is attributed to J.L. Nehru. Nehru
mentioned these words after independence . He said
this in the context of the Bengal Famine of 194243
and the acute food scarcity prevailing in the country
in 1947.
33. (d) The Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research
(acronym IISR) is an autonomous institute of higher
learning, established under the umbrella of Indian
Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) by the
Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India for
advanced research in sugar cane agriculture. The
institute is located on Raibareli Road, Dilkusha in
Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India.
34. (c) The Central Food Technological Research
Institute (CFTRI) is situated in Mysore. It is a
constituent laboratory of Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research, New Delhi and came into
existence during 1950.
35. (b) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan has distinguished
himself in agriculture field. M.S. Swaminathan is
known as the Father of the Green Revolution in
India. The methods adopted included the use of
high yielding varieties (HYV) of seeds.
36. (d) The head office of the National Bank for
Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is
located in Mumbai. It helps farmers access timely
and adequate credit.
D-28 || Agriculture in Indian Economy
37. (d) Co-operative societies, Commercial Bank
sand Regional Rural Bank are source of agriculture
finance in India. They provide finance under
various schemes run by central government and
state governments to purchase seeds, implements,
fertilizer, pesticides etc.
38. (d) Agriculture, diary, horticulture and related
occupations alone employ 52 percent of labour in
India.
39. (b) The shelter belt method of soil conservation is
most effective in arid areas. A shelterbelt is a barrier
of trees or shrubs. The term field shelterbelt is
used to distinguish between rows of trees or shrubs
on agricultural fields from those planted in other
ways: around farmyards or livestock facilities
(farmstead shelterbelts). It controls soil erosion and
traps the moisture which is necessary to grow crop
in such regions.
40. (c) Indian agriculture is typically characterised as
land scare, labour surplus economy. India has high
man/land ratio. There is a large number of unskilled
labour but there is absence of land or capital.
41. (c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development (NABARD) is an apex development
bank in India having headquarters based in Mumbai.
It was established on 12 July, 1982 in sixth five year
plan by a special act by the parliament and its main
focus was to uplift rural India by increasing the
credit flow for elevation of agriculture & rural non
farm sector.
42. (a) In India, commercial banks have the highest
share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture
and allied activities. The commercial banks disburse
around 60% credit followed by cooperative banks
around 30% and RRB and others.
43. (c) Rearing of animals and cultivation together is
the chief characteristic of mixed farming.
44. (b) National Food Security Mission, had been
launched from the rabi season 200708 to increase
the production of rice by 10 million tons, wheat by
8 million tons pulse by 2 million tons decided by
National Development Council.
45. (a) In the on-going multilateral trade negotiations
at the World Trade Organisation (WTO), it has been
decided by all 149 participating countries to use
the Swiss formula for reducing import tariffs on
industrial goods.
46. (d) The Commission for Agricultural Costs &
Prices (CACP) came into existence in January 1965.
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market
intervention by the Government of India to insure
agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm
prices. The minimum support prices are announced
by the Government of India at the beginning of
the sowing season for certain crops on the basis
of the recommendations of the Commission for
Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
47. (b) Disguised unemployment in India exists in
agricultural sector.
48. (b) The Intensive Agriculture District Programme
(IADP) was launched as the first major experiment
in intensive agriculture development in the year
1960. Intensive Agriculture Development program
(IADP) was the first major experiment of Indian
government in the field of agriculture and it was also
known as a package programme as it was based
upon the package approach. The core philosophy
was to provide loan for seeds and fertilizers to
farmers.
49. (c) NABARD was established in Sixth Five Year
Plan.
50. (d) Yellow revolution refers to the production of
oil seeds.
52. (d) Agriculture is the pillar of the Indian economy
because of its high share in employment and
livelihood creation.
53. (d) The Ministry of Agriculture has launched
NFSM by the end of 11th Five-Year Plan (2007-08-
2011-12) with an allocation of Rs. 4882.5 crore to
increase the production of rice, wheat and pulses by
10, 8 and 2 million tonnes, respectively.
55. (a) On July 6, 2009, Finance Minister Mr. Pranab
Mukherjee announced the introduction of National
Food Security Act under which BPL families in
rural and urban areas will be entitled by law to 25
kg. of wheat or rice per month at ` 3 per kg.
59. (c) Three new sub-schemes have been introduced
under RKVY from 2010-11, first on extending
green revolution to Eastern Region of the country
covering States of Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand,
Orissa, Eastern UP and West Bengal. Second sub-
scheme is special initiative for Pulses and Oilseeds

in Dryland Areas during 2010- 11, with an allocation
of ` 300 crore in current year. Third sub-scheme is
National Mission for Saffron-Economic Revival of
J&K Saffron Sector with allocation of ` 39.43 crore
for current year.
62. (b) A National Horticulture Mission was launched
in 2005-06 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to
promote holistic growth of the horticulture sector
through an area based regionally differentiated
strategies. The scheme has been subsumed as a
part of Mission for Integration Development of
Horticulture (MIDH) during 2014-15.
65. (d) It is implemented in other states like Karnataka,
Goa, Kerala, Assam and Mizoram.
66. (d) The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was
launched in 2007-08.
67. (b) The former Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan
Singh announced the launch of Rashtriya Krishi
Economics || D-29
Vikas Yojana at the 53rd meeting of NDC with a
Central allocation of ` 25,000 crore to increase the
share of investment in agriculture in their state plans
so as to hike agriculture and allied sectors growth
from the existing 2% to 4%. 7,810.87 crore was the
allocation under RKVY for the year 2011-12.
68. (c) CACP was set up in 1985 and recommends for
MSP, issue prices as well as procurement prices.
69. (d) On January 21, 2004 the Department of
Agriculture & Cooperation (DAC), Ministry of
Agriculture, Govt. of India established Kisan Call
Centers across the country to deliver extension
services to the farming community. The aim is to
respond in the local language to the problems faced
by farmers.
70. (b) Indian Farmers Fertiliser Co-operative Limited
(IFFCO) was registered on November 3, 1967 as a
Multi-unit Co-operative Society.
 4 Indian Industry
1. FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act)
was finally implemented in the year
(a) 1991 (b) 1997
(c) 2002 (d) 2007
2. Which of the following regulatory bodies
completed 25 years of its establishment in 2013?
(a) TRAI (b) SEBI
(c) IRDA (d) FMC
3. Who among the following is in function as a
Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(a) Vinod Rai (a) labour supplying agency
(b) Raghuram G. Rajan
(c) Shashikant Sharma (c) Organisation to assist industrial units in
(d) Ashok Lahiri
4. Government of India decided to celebrate the
year 2013 as
(a) Environment conservation year
(b) Water conservation year
(c) Energy conservation year
(d) Wildlife conservation year
5. Indian origin Indira Nooyi associated with the
company
(a) Coca Cola (b) Pepsi co.
(c) Microsoft (d) Infosys
6. SDR called as paper gold is associated with
(a) IMF (b) World Bank
(c) WTO (d) UNCTAD
7. World Investment Report is the annual report
published by the International institution
(a) World Bank (b) IMF
(c) WTO (d) UNCTAD
8. In India Report on Currency and Finance is the
annual publication of
(a) SEBI (c) Communication
(b) RBI
(c) Finance Commission
(d) Finance Ministry
9. Which of the following is not a part of World
Bank?
(a) IMF (b) IBRD
(c) MIGA (d) IDA
10. Where is the headquarter of World Bank located?
(a) Geneva (b) Rome
(c) New York (d) Washington D.C.
11. Udyog Bandhu is a/an ?
(b) sick industry rehabilitation agency
solving time bound establishment and
related problems
(d) agency for financing industrial development
12. In which city the meeting of World Economic
Forum (WEF) India 2013 in Nov. 2013 was
held?
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Bengaluru (d) Kochi
13. In June 2013 the CRR of Bank in the country was
(a) 4% (b) 8%
(c) 12% (d) 16%
14. In which city the third film festival of SAARC
countries was held in May 2013?
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Islamabad (d) Colombo
15. Which of the following is related to the EPCG
scheme of central government ?
(a) Foreign Investment
(b) Foreign Trade
(d) Banking

16. Who among the following is elected as a
chairman of IBA consecutively for second term
in June 2013?
(a) K.R. Kamath (b) G. Srinivasan
(c) Alok Mishra (d) R.M. Mallya
17. Anna International Airport is situated in which
city?
(a) Coimbatore (b) Kochi
(c) Chennai (d) Thiruvananthapuram
18. How many seats of deputy governor are there in
Reserve Bank of India?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 4 only
19. Who is the chairman of 14th Finance Commission
of India?
(a) Vijay Kelkar (b) Y.V. Reddy
(c) C. Rangarajan (d) Kaushik Basu
20. The Government of India earns maximum
revenue from
(a) Income tax (b) Union excise duty
(c) Customs duty (d) Corporation tax
21. Recently foundation stone of a new Rail Coach
Factory has been laid at
(a) Saharsa (b) Amritsar
(c) Rai Bareli (d) Chennai
22. The present trade policy (200914) of the
Government of India aims to achieve annual
export growth rate of
(a) 14% (b) 15%
(c) 16% (d) 13%
23. Which of the following commissions / companies
of Indian origin signed a pact for obtaining oil-
blocks in Libya?
(a) Reliance petroleum country?
(b) Oil India Ltd.
(c) ONGC
(d) BPCL
24. The policy of Special Economic Zone (SEZ) in
India was implemented with effect from
(a) Nov. 1998 (b) Dec. 1999
(c) Nov. 2000 (d) Feb. 2002
25. The BPL formula was suggested for the evaluation
of poverty in the chairmanship of
(a) Suresh Tendulkar (b) Govind Acharya
(c) Rangarajan (d) Kaushik
Economics || D-31
26. The Planning Commission fixed the baseline of
poverty per capita per month in city areas to
(a) ` 550 (b) ` 780
(c) ` 830 (d) ` 1000
27. In which state of India is the maximum poverty
ratio calculated by the Planning Commission?
(a) Bihar (b) Odisha
(c) Jharkhand (d) Chhattisgarh
28. According to the data studied by Planning
commission in 201112, how much the
population of India falls under the poverty line?
(a) 14.2% (b) 21.9%
(c) 31.2% (d) 34.2%
29. What is CRISIL ?
(a) Bank
(b) Insurance Company
(c) Depository
(d) Credit Rating Agency
30. Who is the newly elected chairman of Life
Insurance Corporation of India?
(a) S.K. Roy (b) D.K. Malhotra
(c) Thomas Matthew (d) Shashikant Sharma
31. On which date is the establishment of State Bank
of India celebrated?
(a) 1st January (b) 19th June
(c) 1st July (d) 15th October
32. Where is the headquarter of WTO located?
(a) Rome (b) Geneva
(c) Washington (d) New York
33. The ministry level conference of World Trade
Organisation in Dec. 2013 was held in which
(a) Indonesia (b) Canada
(c) S. Africa (d) Singapore
34. In which city the government has planned the
establishment of a Central Aviation University?
(a) New Delhi (b) Bengaluru
(c) Gurgaon (d) Rai Bareli
35. Which country became a member of European
Union on 1st July 2013?
(a) Bulgaria (b) Romania
(c) Croatia (d) Serbia
D-32 || Indian Industry
36. According to the evaluation of Asian
Development Bank the economic growth of India
in 2013 is expected ?
(a) 4.8% (b) 5.2%
(c) 6.0% (d) 6.2%
37. According to the data of Finance Ministry the
foreign debt of India in March 2013 was
(a) 190 Billion Dollar (b) 290 Billion Dollar
(c) 390 Billion Dollar (d) 490 Billion Dollar
38. How much percentage of the Debt Service Ratio
of India during 201213?
(a) 2% (b) 6%
(c) 12% (d) 18%
39. POSCO, the steel company is associated with the
country?
(a) South Korea (b) Japan
(c) France (d) Germany
40. In which of the following field is the Ramnath
Goenka Award given?
(a) Industry (b) Services
(c) Cinema (d) Journalism
41. Who among of the following is appointed as
the chairman of ASSOCHAM in the session
201314?
(a) Rajkumar Dhoot (b) Chanda Kochhar
(c) Rana Kapoor (d) Sunil Kanoria
42. Which company, adopted the Taj Mahal through
the Clean India Campaign of tourism ministry?
(a) Indian oil (b) BPCL
(c) HPCL (d) ONGC
43. In which state the arrival of foreign tourists
was maximum according to the data of tourism
ministry in 2012?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(c) Punjab (d) Jammu and Kashmir
44. Which of the following cities is known as the
Financial Capital of India?
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai (d) Kolkata
45. NASSCOM is the organisation of companies of
which sector?
(a) Media
(b) Mobile phone service
(c) Information technology (a) Tata Steels (b) SAIL
(d) Automobiles
46. Which Indian Company has been included for the
first time in U.S. As index NASDAQ-100?
(a) Infosys
(b) Tata Motors
(c) ICICI Bank
(d) Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited
47. Indias first port-based Special Economic Zone
named International Container Trans-shipment
Terminal (ICTI) is being set-up at?
(a) Kandla (b) Kochi
(c) Goa (d) Tuticorin
48. When was the Package for Promotion of Micro
and Small Enterprises announced?
(a) August 2005 (b) February 2007
(c) March 2009 (d) November 2010
49. What is the major contribution of the Electronics
industry to the country?
(a) Maximised wealth formation
(b) Reduced poverty
(c) Improved standard of living
(d) Encouraged employment
50. The number of women entrepreneurs in small
scale industrial region is highest in the state of?
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu
51. Which one of the following is a raw material
oriented industry?
(a) Sugar industry
(b) Ship Industry
(c) Petroleum industry
(d) Light engineering industry
52. The apex organisation of industrial finance in
India is
(a) IDBI (b) RBI
(c) ICICI (d) IFCI
53. Why is there a need to always import cotton?
(a) Obsolete machinery
(b) Increasing demand
(c) Shortage in the home market
(d) Poor quality in the domestic market
54. Novelis has been acquired and merged with
(c) HINDALCO (d) Jindal Steels

55. The base year of present Consumer Price Index
(CPI) for Urban Non-Manual Employees (CPI
UNME) is
(a) 1980-81 (b) 1981-82
(c) 1983-84 (d) 1984-85
56. OTCEI is
(a) Atomic Submarine of China
(b) Economic Policy of USA
(c) An Indian Share Market
(d) A defence research organisation
57. RBIs first census of Indias foreign Assets
& Liability as on 30 June 1948 revealed total
foreign business investments of ` 302 cr, out of it
what was the % of British investments in India?
(a) 51 % (b) 60 %
(c) 72 % (d) 91 %
58. Which of the following is/are cause(s) of
slow growth of private enterprises in Indias
industrialization (1850-1957)?
(a) Unimaginative private enterprise, short-
sighted Indian industrialists.
(b) complete absence of financial institutions
to help transfer of savings to industrial
investment.
(c) Banking was not highly developed & was
more concerned with commerce rather than
industry.
(d) All of these
59. Which is the most important company in machine
tools?
(a) HMT Machine Tools
(b) PMT Machine Tools
(c) Guindy Machine Tools
(d) Praga Tools
60. The largest source of revenue for Britishers in
India was from ______?
(a) Textile and Jute Industry
(b) Gems and Stone Industry
(c) Temple Tax
(d) Land revenue
61. When was the first modern paper mill of the
country set up?
(a) 1827 (b) 1832
(c) 1846 (d) 1854
Economics || D-33
62. The base of Consumer Price Index for Industrial
Workers is being shifted from 1982 to
(a) 1995 (b) 998
(c) 2000 (d) 2001
63. CAPART is related with
(a) Assisting and evaluating rural welfare
programmes
(b) omputer hardware
(c) onsultant service of export promotion
(d) ontrolling pollution in big industries
64. urgapur steel plant was set up in assistance of
(a) UK (b) USA
(c) rance (d) Germany
65. Who among the following announced the
industrial policy of 1956?
(a) J B Kriplani (b) Balwant Rai Mehta
(c) Sardar Patel (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
66. Which unit of the Hindustan Copper Lt(d) is the
first copper smelting unit in India?
(a) Malanjkhand Copper Project (MP)
(b) Khetri Copper Complex (Rajasthan)
(c) Indian Copper Complex (Jharkhand)
(d) Tajola Copper Project (Maharashtra)
67. When was the Policy Package for Setting
up Credit to Small and Medium Enterprises
announced?
(a) August 2005 (b) February 2007
(c) March 2009 (d) November 2010
68. When was the Package for Promotion of Micro
and Small Enterprises announced?
(a) August 2005 (b) February 2007
(c) March 2009 (d) November 2010
69. GCILan American company of chemical sector
has been acquired by
(a) Reliance group (b) Shriram group
(c) Birla group (d) Tata group
70. Kuwaits biggest Mobile Telecommunication
Company known as Zain has been bought by
(a) Bharti Airtel
(b) Reliance Communication
(c) Vodafone
(d) Aircel
D-34 || Indian Industry

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (c) 31. (c) 41. (c) 51. (c) 61. (b)
2. (b) 12. (d) 22. (b) 32. (b) 42. (d) 52. (a) 62. (d)
3. (c) 13. (a) 23. (b) 33. (a) 43. (b) 53. (a) 63. (a)
4. (b) 14. (d) 24. (c) 34. (d) 44. (b) 54. (c) 64. (a)
5. (b) 15. (b) 25. (a) 35. (c) 45. (c) 55. (d) 65. (d)
6. (a) 16. (a) 26. (d) 36. (c) 46. (a) 56. (c) 66. (a)
7. (d) 17. (c) 27. (d) 37. (c) 47. (b) 57. (c) 67. (a)
8. (b) 18. (d) 28. (b) 38. (b) 48. (b) 58. (d) 68. (b)
9. (a) 19. (b) 29. (d) 39. (a) 49. (d) 59. (a) 69. (d)
10. (d) 20. (b) 30. (a) 40. (d) 50. (d) 60. (d) 70. (a)

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act)
was finally implemented in the year 2002 to
consolidate and amend the law relating to foreign
exchange with the objective of facilitating external
trade and payments and for promoting the orderly
development and maintenance of foreign exchange
market in India. It replaced Foreign Exchange
Regulation Act (FERA)
2. (b) SEBI, the regulatory body completed 25 years
of its establishment in 2013. It was formed in the
year 1988 to protect the interests of investors in
securities and to promote the development and
regulate the securities market.
3. (c) Shashikant Sharma is in function as a
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India
since 23 May 2013. He is 12th CAG of India .The
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India
is an authority, established by the Constitution of
India which audits all receipts and expenditure of
the Government of India and the state governments,
including those bodies and authorities substantially
financed by the government.
4. (b) Government of India decided to celeberate
the year 2013 as the water conservation year
with emphasis on sensitizing the masses on water
related issues, encourage them to conserve and use
it judiciously. Water Conservation is also the key
objective of the National Water Mission which is
one of the eight National Missions.
5. (b) Indira Krishnamurthy Nooyi is an Indian-
American business executive and the current
Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of
PepsiCo, the second largest food and beverage
business in the world. In 2013, she has been ranked
10th in the list of Forbes Worlds 100 most powerful
women.
6. (a) SDR (Special Drawing Rights) is international
financing instrument created in 1970 by the
International Monetary Fund (IMF).It is also called
paper gold, an SDR is neither paper nor gold but an
accounting entry. It is not backed by any currency or
precious metal, and is used only among governments
and IMF for balance of payments settlements.
7. (d) World Investment Report is the annual report
published by the UNCTAD. Each year the report
covers the latest trends in foreign direct investment
around the world and analyses in depth one selected
topic related to foreign direct investment and
development.
8. (b) In India, Report on Currency and Finance is
the annual publication of Reserve Bank of India.
The report highlights the evaluation or devaluation
of rupee as a currency along with it other aspects
and projects the financial condition of the economy.

9. (a) International Monetary Fund is not a part of
World Bank. The International Monetary Fund
(IMF) along with World Bank were created in
1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference . They are
known as Bretton Woods Twins. The IMF promotes
international monetary cooperation and exchange
rate stability, facilitates the balanced growth of
international trade.
10. (d) The World Bank was created at the 1944
Bretton Woods Conference, along with three other
institutions, including the International Monetary
Fund (IMF). World Bank provides loans to
developing countries for capital programs. The
headquarter of World Bank is located in Washington
D.C.
11. (c) Udyog Bandhu is an organization of the
State Government of Uttar Pradesh. It assists
industrial units in solving time bound establishment
and related problems relating to existing and
up-coming industries as well.
12. (d) The meeting of World Economic Forum (WEF)
India-2013 in Nov. 2013 was held in Kochi. World
Economic Forum is an independent international
organization committed to improving the state of
the world by engaging business, political, academic
and other leaders of society to shape global, regional
and industry agendas.
13. (a) The CRR of Bank in the country in June 2013
was 4%. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a specified
minimum fraction of the total deposits of customers,
which commercial banks have to hold as reserves
either in cash or as deposits with the central bank.
14. (d) The third film festival of SAARC countries
was held in May 2013 in Colombo. India bagged
three top awards including best feature film, Best
Director and Special Jury Certificate of Recognition
at the event.
15. (b) The Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG)
scheme was one of the several export-promotion
initiatives launched by the government in the early
90s. The basic purpose of the scheme was to allow
exporters to import machinery and equipment at
affordable prices so that they can produce quality
products for the export market.
16. (a) Indian Banks Association (IBA), formed on
26 September 1946 as a representative body of
management of banking in India. K.R. Kamath was
elected as a chairman of IBA consecutively for the
Economics || D-35
second term in June 2013. He has been working
since 1/10/2012 after chairman Alok K Misra, CMD
of Bank of India. Other notable chairmen include
M. D. Mallya of Bank of Baroda, V. P. Shetty, M. V.
Nair, Rashid Jilani and O P Bhatt.
17. (c) Anna International Airport is located in
Chennai of Tamil Nadu. First international airport
to get ISO-9001-2000 certification.
18. (d) The general superintendence and direction of
the RBI is entrusted with the 21-member- Central
Board of Directorsthe Governor (currently
Raghuram Rajan), four Deputy Governors, two
Finance Ministry representative, ten government-
nominated directors to represent important
elements from Indias economy, and four directors
to represent local boards headquartered at Mumbai,
Kolkata, Chennai and New Delhi.
19. (b) Y.V. Reddy is the chairman of 14th Finance
Commission of India. The Finance Commission of
India came into existence in 1951. It was established
under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by
the President of India. It was formed to define the
financial relations between the centre and the state
Dr. Yaga Venugopal Reddy is an Indian Administrative
Service (IAS) officer of the 1964 batch who served as
Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
20. (b) The Government of India earns maximum
revenue from Union Excise Duty which is indirect
tax levied and collected on the goods manufactured
in India and consumed within the country.
21. (c) Recently, the foundation stone of a new
Rail Coach Factory has been laid at Rai Bareli.
The factory will present the eco-friendly side of
Indian Railways sporting smokeless chimneys and
neutralising effluents from the plant. As many as 14
types of coaches, including AC double decker day
cars would roll out from the factory.
22. (b) The present Trade Policy (200914) of the
government of India aims to achieve an annual
export growth rate of 15%. Mr. Anand Sharma
announced the Foreign Trade Policy 2009 2014
on 27th August, 2009 covering various meaures that
will be taken to boost foreign trade.
23. (b) Oil sector majors, ONGC Videsh (OVL) and
the Oil India-IndianOil (OIL-IOC) combine have
bagged an oil block each in Libya. This will enhance
exploration possibilities for the Indian companies in
northern Africa.
D-36 || Indian Industry
24. (c) In Nov. 2000, the policy of Special Economic
Zone (SEZ) in India was implemented with a view to
overcome the shortcomings experienced on account
of the multiplicity of controls and clearances;
absence of world-class infrastructure, and with a
view to attract larger foreign investment in India.
25. (a) Prof. Tendulkars pioneering contribution
was his extensive work on poverty and estimation
of people below poverty line (BPL). A committee
was formed by government of India in 2009, with
Tendulkar as Chairman to report on methodology
of estimation of poverty. In 2009, this committee
came out with a new method to calculate poverty.
26. (d) The Planning Commission fixed the baseline of
poverty per capita for rural areas using the Tendulkar
methodology at ` 816 per capita per month and
` 1,000 per capita per month in urban areas.
27. (d) The poverty ratio was highest in Chhattisgarh
at 39.93 per cent followed by Jharkhand (36.96 per
cent), Manipur (36.89 per cent), Arunachal Pradesh
(34.67 per cent) and Bihar (33.47 per cent).
28. (b) According to the data studied by Planning
Commission in 201112, 21.9% of the population
of India falls under the poverty line.
29. (d) CRISIL is the Credit Rating Agency of India.
CRISILs majority shareholder is Standard and
Poors (S&P).
30. (a) S.K. Roy is the newly elected chairman of
Life Insurance Corporation of India. Roy has
succeed D.K. Mehrotra. LIC is the largest Indian
life insurance company with new business premium
collections of ` 76,246 crore in 201213.
31. (c) 1st July is celebrated as the establishment date
of State Bank of India. On 1 July 1955, the Imperial
Bank of India became the State Bank of India. SBI
is a multinational banking and financial services
company based in India. It is a government-owned
corporation with its headquarters in Mumbai. It
has assets of US$388 billion and 16,000 branches,
including 190 foreign offices, making it the largest
banking and financial services company in India by
assets.
32. (b) The World Trade Organization (WTO) is
an organization that supervises and liberalizes
international trade. It officially commenced on 1
January 1995 under the Marrakech Agreement,
replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and
Trade (GATT) The headquarter of World Trade
Organization (WTO) is located in Geneva.
33. (a) The topmost decision-making body of the
WTO is the Ministerial Conference, which usually
meets every two years. It brings together all
members of the WTO. The Ministerial Conference
can take decisions on all matters under any of the
multilateral trade agreements. The minister level
conference of World Trade Organization in Dec.
2013 was held in Indonesia.
34. (d) The first-ever national aviation university in
the country named after Rajiv Gandhi to train pilots,
cabin crew and aircraft engineers would come up at
Rai Bareli in Uttar Pradesh.
35. (c) Croatia applied for EU membership in 2003
and was in negotiations from 2005 until 2011.On
9 December 2011 leaders from the EU and Croatia
signed the accession treaty. The country became the
28th EU member country on 1 July 2013.
36. (c) ADBs flagship annual economic publication,
Asian Development Outlook 2013 evaluated the
economic growth of India in 2013 to 6.0 % and
6.5 % in 2014.
37. (c) Indias external debt, as at end-March 2013, was
placed at US$ 390.0 billion showing an increase
of US$ 44.6 billion or 12.9 per cent over the level
at end-March 2012. The increase in total external
debt during financial year 2012-13 was primarily
on account of rise in short-term trade credit. There
has been sizeable rise in external commercial
borrowings (ECBs) and rupee denominated Non-
resident Indian deposits as well.
39. (a) POSCO is a multinational steel making
company headquartered in Pohang, South Korea. It
is the worlds fourth largest steelmaker.
40. (d) Ramnath Goenka Awards is given for
Excellence in Journalism. It show eases the
values that stand for good journalism: excellence
and enterprise, courage and fairness. The awards
cover the entire gamut of Indian media, Print and
Broadcast, in English and Indian languages.
41. (c) Rana Kapoor is appointed as the chairman
of ASSOCHAM in the session 201314. Dr. Rana
Kapoor is the founder, managing director and chief
executive officer of Yes Bank.
42. (d) With an aim to attract more visitors to the
country by improving cleanliness and hygiene at
tourist destinations, Tourism Minitry launched the
Clean India campaign at world heritage site Taj
Mahal which has been adopted by ONGC. It is the
second site to be covered under this project. The
first one was Qutub Minar.

43. (b) In Maharashtra, the arrival of foreign tourists
was maximum according to the data of Tourism
Ministry in 2012. Maharashtra received the highest
number of foreign tourists in the country with nearly
4.8 million tourist arrivals in 2011. Maharashtra
was followed by Tamil Nadu and New Delhi, which
welcomed 3.4 million and 2.2 million foreigners
respectively in the same period.
44. (b) Mumbai is the financial capital of India. It
is one of the worlds top ten centres of commerce
in terms of global financial flow generating 5% of
Indias GDP and accounting for 25% of industrial
output, 70% of maritime trade in India and 70% of
capital transactions to Indias economy.
45. (c) NASSCOM is the organisation of companies
of Information technology.
46. (a) Software major Infosys Technologies is included
in the coveted Nasdaq-100 Index. This is the first
time that an Indian company has found a place in a
stock index outside the country.
47. (b) The Kochi International Container Transhipment
Terminal (ICTT), locally known as the Vallarpadam
Terminal, is a container trans-shipment facility
which is part of the Cochin Port in Kochi, India.
48. (b) In February 2007, a Package for Promotion
of Micro and Small Enterprises was announced.
This includes measures addressing concerns of
credit, fiscal support, cluster-based development,
infrastructure, technology, and marketing. Capacity
building of MSME Associations and support to
women entrepreneurs are the other important
attributes of this package.
49. (d) the Electronic industry is responsible for
generation of employment. Bangalore is the hub
of electronic industry in the country and is called
the electronic city. There are approximately 200 IT/
ITES companies located in Electronics City which
have employed many unemployed in various fields.
50. (d) Tamil Nadu has the highest number of women
entrepreneurs with 2930 women equalling to 30.36 %.
51. (c) Crude oil is the basic raw material upon which
all refinery processes are founded.
52. (a) IDBI Bank is an Indian government-owned
financial service company, formerly known
as Industrial Development Bank of India,
headquartered in Mumbai, India. It was established
in 1964 by an Act of Parliament to provide credit
and other financial facilities for the development
of the fledgling Indian industry. IDBI is one of the
leading government bank in India.
Economics || D-37
54. (c) In 2007, Novelis was acquired by Hindalco
Industries Limited, another veteran of the aluminium
business. Hindalco is the flagship company of the
Aditya Birla Group of companies, a multinational
conglomerate headquartered in Mumbai. Following
the merger, Novelis became a wholly owned
subsidiary of Aditya Birla Group. With the addition
of Novelis, Hindalco became the worlds largest
aluminium rolling company and one of the biggest
producers of primary aluminium in Asia.
56. (c) OTCEI was incorporated in 1990 as a Section
25 company under the Companies Act 1956 and is
recognized as a stock exchange under Section 4 of
the Securities Contracts Regulation Act, 1956. The
Exchange was set up to aid enterprising promoters
in raising finance for new projects in a cost-effective
manner and to provide investors with a transparent
& efficient mode of trading.
59. (a) HMT was founded in 1953.
61. (b) Paper and Paper Board is a forest-based industry.
In 1832 the first modern paper mill of the country
was set up at Serampore in West Bengal.
64. (a) Durgapur Steel Plant, SAIL, was set up with the
British collaboration in the late fifties with an initial
capacity of one million tonnes of crude steel per
annum.
66. (a) Malanjkhand Copper Project was established in
1982. Initial project has been set up by Hindustan
Copper Ltd to exploit the copper ore through an
open pit mine.
67. (a) On August 10, 2005, a Policy Package for
Setting up Credit to Small and Medium Enterprises
was announced with the objective to double the
credit flow to the sector within a period of five years.
68. (b) In February 2007, a Package for Promotion
of Micro and Small Enterprises was announced.
This includes measures addressing concerns of
credit, fiscal support, cluster-based development,
infrastructure, technology, and marketing. Capacity
building of MSME Associations and support to
women entrepreneurs are the other important
attributes of this package.
69. (d) GCILan American company of chemical
sector has been acquired by Tata Group.
70. (a) Bharti Airtel has acquired Zain Telecoms
African assets in a $10.7 billion deal. The acquisition
of Zain assets will give the Indian mobile market
leader a footprint in 15 African countries.
 5 World Economy
1. In which one of the following places was the
Asias first Export Processing Zone (EPZ)
set-up?
(a) Santa Cruz (b) Kandla
(c) Cochin (d) Surat
2. Which country started privatisation of state-
owned enterprises as a major state policy?
(a) UK under Margaret Thatcher
(b) Russia in CIS
(c) Mexico, Argentina and Brazil
(d) Italy, France and Malaysia
3. Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of
public sector units occurs when the government
sells
(a) 5% of shares (b) 10% of shares
(c) 49% of shares (d) 51% of shares
4. The International Development Association, a
lending agency is administered by the
(a) IBRD (b) IFAD
(c) UNDP (d) UNIDO
5. WTO came into existence at the conclusion of
which round of GATT ?
(a) Singapore (b) Uruguay
(c) Tokyo (d) Marrakesh
6. World Investment Report is published by which
of the following ?
(a) WEF (b) WTO
(c) GATT (d) UNCTAD
7. Which of the following group of countries
has formed the NAMA - 11 of World Trade
Organization ?
(a) developed countries
(b) least developing countries
(c) developing countries
(d) None of the above
8. Which of the following agencies is not the rating
agency of an economy ?
(a) Fitch Group
(b) CRISIL
(c) Moodys Investor Service
(d) Samuels Investor Group
9. Which one of the following organisations is
related with Doha Development Agenda ?
(a) IMF (b) WTO
(c) World Bank (d) UNO
10. Which of the following credit rating agencies
is the Big Three Credit rating agencies of the
world ?
(a) Fitch Group
(b) Moodys Corporation
(c) Standard and Poors
(d) All of the above
11. Which one of the following International
institutions has offered the concessional loans
and grants to the worlds poorest developing
countries ?
(a) IFC (b) IDA
(c) IMF (d) WB
12. Which one of the following major markets has
the highest share of composition of exports of
ores and minerals in the world ?
(a) United States (b) India
(c) Brazil (d) China
13. The capital of IMF is generated by contribution
of the
(a) Credit (b) Deficit financing
(c) Member nations (d) Borrowings

14. Which one of the following countries is the first
borrower of fund from the International Monetary
Fund ?
(a) United States (b) France
(c) Spain (d) India
15. Which one of the following institutions is related
with the Green / Blue Box subsidies ?
(a) United Nations
(b) World Bank
(c) World Tourism Organization
(d) World Trade Organization
16. Which one of the following is the final session
of the General Agreement on Tariff- and Trade
(GATT) ?
(a) Singapore session
(b) Geneva session
(c) Washington session
(d) Uruguay session
17. Which one of the following countries has the
highest share in the world export among the
Asian countries ?
(a) South Korea (b) Singapore
(c) India (d) China
18. Which one of the following countries is the top
user of the anti-dumping measures in the world
in the decade ?
(a) India (b) United States
(c) Japan (d) China
19. Which one of the following countries of the world
has signed the first Comprehensive Economic
Partnership Agreement with India ?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Malaysia
(c) Mauritius (d) Singapore
20. Global Competitiveness Report is released by
which of the following organisations ?
(a) WTO (b) EU
(c) World Bank (d) WEF
21. TRIPS (Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual
Property Rights) agreement is administered by
(a) UNCTD (b) UNO
(c) WTO (d) World Bank
22. Which one of the following institutions publishes
the report of World Economic Outlook ?
(a) IMF (b) World Bank
(c) RBI (d) UNCTAD
Economics || D-39
23. Which one of the following factors is taken into
account to calculate the Balance of Payment
(BOP) of a country ?
(a) Current Account
(b) Changes in the Foreign Exchange Reserves
(c) Errors and Omissions
(d) All of the above
24. What does S & P 500 relate to ?
(a) Super computer
(b) A new technique in e-business
(c) A new technique in bridge building
(d) An index of stocks of large companies
25. Which one of the following is the proposed currency
of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) ?
(a) Khaleeji (b) Sucre
(c) Minar (d) None of these
26. Which one among the following is the total
amount of money available in an economy at a
specific time ?
(a) Near money (b) Narrow money
(c) Money volume (d) Money stock
27. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of the countries having Foreign
Exchange Reserve from high to low ?
(a) China Russia India France
(b) China France India Russia
(c) France China Russia India
(d) France China India Russia
28. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Kospi Index: South Korea
(b) TSEC Weighted Index: Thailand
(c) SET Index: China
(d) All of the above
29. Which one of the following is the recognised
lender of the External Commercial Borrowings
in the international Capital Market ?
(a) Export Credit Agencies
(b) Asian Development Bank
(c) IFC
(d) All of the above
30. In which one of the following Five Year Plans,
was the EXIM bank establish in India ?
(a) Second Five Year Plan
(b) Third Five Year Plan
(c) Sixth Five Year Plan
(d) Seventh Five Year Plan
D-40 || World Economy
31. Which one of the following causes the condition
in which prices increase rapidly as a currency
loses its value ?
(a) Stagflation (b) Conflation
(c) Stealth inflation (d) Hyper inflation
32. The representation of the relationship between
possible rates of taxation and the resulting levels
of government revenue is called
(a) Laffer Curve (b) Griffin curve
(c) Philips curve (d) Ginis curve
33. Which one of the following areas is the main aim
of ASIDE scheme started by Indian Government ?
(a) To facilitate the import in the country
(b) To encourage the export
(c) To facilitate the movement of expatriates
(d) None of the above
34. India is not a member of which of the following?
(a) CIS (b) SAARC
(c) SAFTA (d) WTO
35. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) is available at
(a) IBRD (b) IMF
(c) IDA (d) OECD
36. Which one of the following is the act of stimulating
the economy by increasing the money supply or
by reducing taxes ?
(a) Disinflation (b) Reflation
(c) Inertial inflation (d) Inflation hedge
37. The standard of living in a country is represented
by its
(a) Poverty ratio
(b) Per capita income
(c) National income
(d) Unemployment rate
38. Which one of the following laws / curves stated
that the lower the unemployment in an economy,
the higher the rate of Inflation ?
(a) Ginis curve (b) Verdoorns law
(c) Gibrats law (d) Philips curve
39. Which one of the following is related with the
Atkinsons index of an economy ?
(a) A method to determine the income inequality
(b) An effect of supply demand mismatch
(c) A method to determine the unemployment
(d) None of the above
40. Which one of the following curves is a graphical
representation of the relationship between
unemployment and the job vacancy rate ?
(a) Philips curve (b) Laffers curve
(c) Beveridge curve (d) Friedmans curve
41. Which of the following sectors of the Indian
Economy is prohibited from Foreign Direct
Investments (FDIs) ?
(a) Retail Trading
(b) Lottery Business
(c) Gambling and Betting
(d) All of the above
42. Which one of the following countries has the
highest percentage of the services sector in the
GDP of the country ?
(a) United States (b) France
(c) United Kingdom (d) Spain
43. Which one of the following cities is identified as
the hottest outsourcing destination in the world ?
(a) Dublin, Ireland
(b) Bengaluru, India
(c) Makati city, the Philippines
(d) Tokyo, Japan
44. Which one of the following items has gained the
highest growth rate in the import composition of
the Indian Economy in the last decade ?
(a) pearls, precious and semiprecious stones
(b) gold and silver
(c) oil-cake and other solid residues
(d) none of the above
45. Which sister organisation of the World Bank
provides long term loans at zero interest to
poorest developing countries?
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) IMF
(c) International Development Association
(d) International Finance Corporation
46. Which sister organisation of the World Bank
helps private activity in developing countries by
financing projects with long-term capital in the
form of equity and loans?
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) IMF
(c) International Finance Corporation
(d) International Development Association

47. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick
migration is called
(a) Hot currency (b) Soft currency
(c) Gold currency (d) Scarce currency
48. As regards the use of international food safety
standards as reference point for the dispute
settlements, which one of the following does
WTO collaborate with?
(a) International Organization for Standardization.
(b) International Federation of Standards Users.
(c) Codex Alimentarius Commission.
(d) World Standards Cooperation.
49. Gilt-edged market means
(a) Market of government securities
(b) Bullion market
(c) Market dealing with metals
(d) Market dealing with exports
50. The value of gold is determined in
(a) London (b) Dubai
(c) Rome (d) Teheran
51. The largest tax collected at the federal government
level is the:
(a) income tax (b) sales tax
(c) property tax (d) Social security tax
52. Which of the following is included in M-1?
(a) gold (b) checkable deposits
(c) stock (d) credit cards
53. Which of the following would cause the aggregate
demand curve to shift to the right?
(a) an increase in purchases by the federal
government
(b) an increase in real interest rates
(c) an appreciation of the American dollar
(d) a decrease in the money supply
54. Which of the following would cause consumption
to rise?
(a) the GDP Deflator rises
(b) a greater proportion of the population is
between age 20 and 30
(c) transitory income increases
(d) income is taken from poor people and given
to rich people
55. Which of the following is an example of portfolio
investment?
(a) An American places funds in a savings
account in Canada
Economics || D-41
(b) Tokyo Bank of Japan buys Union Bank of
the United States
(c) Saturn Corp. (owned by General Motors)
builds a new factory in Tennessee
(d) An American puts $10,000 into a money
market fund
56. In which one of these countries do less than 10%
say national economic conditions are good?
(a) Malaysia (b) Greece
(c) Bolivia (d) Australia
57. If the actual unemployment rate is below the
natural rate of unemployment, it would be
expected that:
(a) the rate of inflation would increase
(b) the Phillips curve would shift to the left
(c) wages would fall
(d) the natural rate of unemployment would fall
58. In which one of these countries do more than
80% say national economic conditions are good?
(a) Argentina (b) China
(c) Kenya (d) Philippines
59. According to the monetarists, in the long-run, the
Phillips Curve is:
(a) vertical (b) horizontal
(c) downward sloping (d) upward sloping
60. What is happening with the import of Chinese
toys in India?
(a) Indian toys are selling more
(b) Indian consumers are buying less
(c) Indian consumers are getting more choice at
cheaper rates
(d) Chinese consumers are falling short of
choice
61. Which of the following statements is true about
supply-side economics?
(a) The main change made by the tax laws of
1981 and 1986 was to increase marginal tax
rates in order to balance the budget
(b) The Laffer Curve says that, if marginal tax
rates fall, tax revenues will rise, and the
budget deficit will decrease
(c) If the tax laws of 1981 and 1986 had had
their intended effect, consumption would
have risen, causing an increase in both real
GDP and in the price level
(d) All of these
D-42 || World Economy
62. Special drawing rights are not
(a) a credit line allocated by the IMF to member
countries according to each countrys
quot(a)
(b) backed by US dollars.
(c) the IMFs unit of account.
(d) a basket of four currencies.
63. MILA is a stock exchange not involving which of
the following countries stock exchanges?
(a) Chile (b) Peru
(c) Columbia (d) Cuba
64. In which of the following countries was a National
Exchange Control Administration (CADIVI)
set up to approve all legal purchases of foreign
currency?
(a) Brazil (b) Spain
(c) Venezuela (d) Mexico
65. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(MIGA) is a part of the
(a) United Nations
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) World Trade Organisation
(d) World Bank
66. The functions of the International Monetary Fund
include all of the following except
(a) to provide emergency loans to countries
facing balance of payments problems.
(b) to monitor macroeconomic developments
continuously in member countries.
(c) to serve as the world central bank.
(d) to provide a line of credit for each member
country.
67. What percentage of currency devaluation
was allowed by the IMF in the Bretton Woods
Agreement?
(a) 10 % (b) 7 %
(c) 20 % (d) 15 %
68. The reason in difference between GNP and GDP
is
(a) Gross Foreign Investment
(b) Net Foreign Investment
(c) Net Exports
(d) Net Factor Income from abroad
69. In which year was the new currency Euro
introduced?
(a) 1983 (b) 2001
(c) 1999 (d) 1995
70. Which of the following is not seen as an advantage
of the gold standard?
(a) For a given stock of gold, a rise in real
money supply can only occur if the price
level declines.
(b) Inflation is unlikely to emerge as a significant
problem.
(c) No country needs to serve at the centre of
this fixed exchange rate system.
(d) The monetary mechanism has credibility.
 Economics || D-43

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (b) 21. (c) 31. (d) 41. (d) 51. (a) 61. (b)
2. (a) 12. (d) 22. (a) 32. (a) 42. (a) 52. (b) 62. (b)
3. (a) 13. (c) 23. (d) 33. (b) 43. (b) 53. (a) 63. (d)
4. (a) 14. (b) 24. (d) 34. (a) 44. (b) 54. (b) 64. (c)
5. (d) 15. (d) 25. (a) 35. (b) 45. (c) 55. (a) 65. (d)
6. (d) 16. (d) 26. (d) 36. (b) 46. (c) 56. (b) 66. (c)
7. (c) 17. (d) 27. (a) 37. (b) 47. (a) 57. (a) 67. (a)
8. (d) 18. (a) 28. (a) 38. (d) 48. (c) 58. (b) 68. (d)
9. (b) 19. (a) 29. (d) 39. (a) 49. (a) 59. (a) 69. (c)
10. (d) 20. (d) 30. (c) 40. (c) 50. (a) 60. (c) 70. (a)

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) India was one of the first countries in Asia to
recognize the effectiveness of the Export Processing
Zone (EPZ) model in promoting exports, with Asias
first EPZ set up in Kandla in 1965. This was done
to overcome the shortcomings of the multiplicity
of controls and clearances; absence of world-class
infrastructure, and an unstable fiscal regime and
with a view to attract larger foreign investments in
India.
2. (a) The United Kingdom, under Margaret Thatcher
started privatisation of state-owned enterprises as a
major state policy. The Ridley report devised for the
Thatcher shadow cabinet, recommended a policy
of breaking up the public sector and dismembering
unions.
3. (a) Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of
public sector units occurs when the government
sells 5% to 10 % of its shares.The government
disinvests to meet the deficit in the budget.
4. (a) The International Development Association
(IDA) is an international financial institution
which offers concessional loans and grants to the
worlds poorest developing countries. The IDA
is a member of the World Bank Group and is
headquartered in Washington DC. It is administered
by the International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD).
5. (d) The World Trade Organization (WTO) is
an organization that supervises and liberalizes
international trade. It commenced on 1 January
1995 under the Marrakech Agreement replacing the
General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
6. (d) World Investment Report is published by
UNCTAD. It has been published annually since 1991.
Each years report covers the latest trends in foreign
direct investment around the World and analysis in
depth one selected topic related to foreign direct
investment and development.
7. (c) The Non-Agricultural Market Access (NAMA)
negotiations of the World Trade Organization are
based on the Doha Declaration of 2001 that calls
for a reduction or elimination in tariffs, particularly
on exportable goods of interest to developing
countries. Developing countries have formed the
NAMA-11 of World Trade Organization. Member
countries are Argentina, Bolivarian Republic
of Venezuela, Brazil, Egypt, India, Indonesia,
Namibia, Philippines, South Africa and Tunisia.
8. (d) Samuels Investor Group is not the rating
agency of an economy. It is Canada based company
enganged in financial planning.
9. (b) The Doha Round also called Doha
Development Agenda is the latest round of trade
negotiations among the WTO membership. Its
fundamental objective is to improve the trading
D-44 || World Economy
prospects of developing countries. The Round was
officially launched at the WTOs Fourth Ministerial
Conference in Doha, Qatar, in Nov, 2001.
10. (d) The Big Three credit rating agencies are
Standard & Poors (S&P), Moodys, and Fitch
Group. S&P and Moodys are based in the US,
while Fitch is dual-headquartered in New York City
and London, and is controlled by the France-based
FIMALAC. As of 2013 they hold a collective global
market share of roughly 95 percent with Moodys
and Standard & Poors having approximately 40%
each, and Fitch around 15%.
11. (b) International Development Association
has offered the concessional loans and grants to
the worlds poorest developing countries. The
IDA is a member of the World Bank Group and
is administered by the International Bank for
Reconstruction and Development( IBRD).
13. (c) The capital of IMF is generated by contribution
of the member nations. Each member of the IMF is
assigned a quota, based broadly on its relative size in
the world economy, which determines its maximum
contribution to the IMFs financial resources. On
joining the IMF, a country normally pays up to
one-quarter of its quota in the form of widely
accepted foreign currencies (such as the U.S. dollar,
euro, yen, or pound sterling) or Special Drawing
Rights (SDRs). The remaining three-quarters are
paid in the countrys own currency.
14. (b) France is the first borrower of fund from the
International Monetary Fund. It borrowed funds
from IMF on 8th May 1947.
15. (d) In order to qualify for the green box, a
subsidy must not distort trade, or at most cause
minimal distortion. These subsidies have to be
government-funded (not by charging consumers
higher prices) and must not involve price support.
The blue box is an exemption from the general
rule that all subsidies linked to production must
be reduced or kept within defined minimal (de
minimis) levels. It covers payments directly linked
to acreage or animal numbers, but under schemes
which also limit production by imposing production
quotas or requiring farmers to set aside part of their
land.
16. (d) Uruguay session is the final session of the
General Agreement on Tariff and Trade (GATT).
The Uruguay Round lasted from 198694. It
was the most ambitious round to date, hoping to
expand the competence of the GATT to important
new areas such as services, capital, intellectual
property, textiles, and agriculture. One of the most
significant changes in the Uruguay round was the
creation of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
The 75 existing GATT members and the European
Communities became the founding members of the
WTO on 1 January 1995.
17. (d) China has the highest share in the world export
among the Asian countries.It exports 27% of GDP
as goods and services. However, India exports 24%
of its GDP .
18. (a) If a company exports a product at a price lower
than the price it normally charges on its own home
market, it is said to be dumping the product .India
is the top user of the anti-dumping measures in the
world in the last decade.
19. (a) Sri Lanka is the first country to sign CEPA
with India. India and Sri Lanka signed the bilateral
Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
(CEPA) on August 1, 2008 on the sidelines of the
SAARC Summit. This would mark the end of the
over three years of discussions to boost trade and
investment between the two countries with focus on
developing Sri Lankas economy.
20. (d) The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is
a yearly report published by the World Economic
Forum. Since 2004, the Global Competitiveness
Report has ranked countries based on the Global
Competitiveness Index.
21. (c) The Agreement on Trade Related Aspects
of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) is an
international agreement administered by the World
Trade Organization (WTO). It sets down minimum
standards for many forms of intellectual property
(IP) . It was negotiated at the end of the Uruguay
Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and
Trade (GATT) in 1994.
22. (a) World Economic Outlook is basically a survey
conducted and published by the International
Monetary Fund. It is published twice and partly
updated 3 times a year.
23. (d) The balance of payments (BOP) is the method
countries use to monitor all international monetary
transactions at a specific period of time. Current
account, changes in the foreign exchange reserves
and errors and omissions are the factors that are
taken into account to calculate the balance of
payment (BOP) of a country.
24. (d) The S&P 500, or the Standard & Poors
500, is a stock market index based on the market
capitalizations of 500 large companies having
common stock listed on the NYSE or NASDAQ.

25. (a) Gulf Cooperation Council, GCC is a political
and economic union of Arab states bordering the
Persian Gulf, namely Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman,
Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.
Khaleeji is the proposed currency of the Gulf
Co-operation Council (GCC).
26. (d) The money supply or money stock, is the total
amount of monetary assets available in an economy
at a specific time. It includes currency in circulation
and demand deposits.
27. (a) (ChinaRussiaIndiaFrance) is the correct
sequence of the countries having Foreign Exchange
Reserve from high to low.
China has 3,945,932 million USD.
Russia has 3,60,221 million USD.
India has 3,38,079 million USD.
France has 1,43,456 million USD.
28. (a) The Korea Composite Stock Price Index
or KOSPI is the stock Exchange of South Korea.
KOSPI was introduced in 1983 with the base value
of 100.
29. (d) An External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) is
an instrument used in India to facilitate the access
to foreign money by Indian corporations and
PSUs (public sector undertakings). ECBs include
commercial bank loans, buyers credit, suppliers
credit, securitised instruments such as floating
rate notes and fixed rate bonds etc., Export Credit
Agencies, ADB and IFC are the recognised lender
of the External Commercial Borrowings in the
international capital market.
30. (c) During the Sixth Five Year Plan the EXIM
bank was established in India. Export-Import Bank
of India is the premier export finance institution of
the country, established in 1982 under the Export-
Import Bank of India Act 1981.
31. (d) Hyper inflation occurs when a country
experiences very high and usually accelerating
rates of monetary and price inflation, causing the
population to minimize their holdings of money.
Under such conditions, the general price level
within an economy increases rapidly as the official
currency quickly loses real value.
32. (a) Laffer curve is a representation of the
relationship between possible rates of taxation
and the resulting levels of government revenue. It
illustrates the concept of taxable income elasticity
i.e., taxable income will change in response to
changes in the rate of taxation.
Economics || D-45
33. (b) Assistance to States for Development of
Export Infrastructure and Allied Activities (ASIDE)
Scheme was launched on March 2002. To involve
the States in the growth of export by providing
incentive-linked assistance to the state governments
and to create appropriate infrastructure for the
development and growth of exports.
34. (a) India is not a member of the Commonwealth
of Independent States (CIS). The Commonwealth of
Independent States is a regional organization whose
participating countries are former Soviet Republics.
35. (b) Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are
supplementary foreign exchange reserve assets
defined and maintained by the International
Monetary Fund (IMF).
36. (b) Reflation is the act of stimulating the economy
by increasing the money supply or by reducing taxes,
seeking to bring the economy (specifically price
level) back up to the long-term trend, following a
dip in the business cycle.
37. (b) Per capita income, also known as income
per person, is the mean income of the people in an
economic unit such as a country. Per capita income
is often used to measure a countrys standard of living.
38. (d) Phillips curve is a historical inverse relationship
between the rate of unemployment and the rate of
inflation in an economy. Philips curve stated that
the lower the unemployment in an economy, the
higher the rate of inflation.
39. (a) The Atkinson index is a measure of income
inequality developed by British economist
Anthony Barnes Atkinson. The measure is useful
in determining which end of the distribution
contributed most to the observed inequality.
40. (c) A Beveridge curve, or UV-curve, is a graphical
representation of the relationship between
unemployment and the job vacancy rate (the
number of unfilled jobs expressed as a proportion of
the labour force). It typically has vacancies on the
vertical axis and unemployment on the horizontal.
The curve is named after William Beveridge and it
is hyperbolic shaped.
41. (d) Retail trading, lottery business and gambling
and betting are the sectors of the Indian economy
are prohibited from Foreign Direct Investment
(FDIs).
42. (a) The economy of the United States is the worlds
largest single national economy. The United States
nominal GDP was estimated to be $16.6 trillion
in June 2013. It has the highest percentage of the
services sector in the GDP equivalent to 79.7%.
D-46 || World Economy
43. (b) Bengaluru or Bangalore is identified as
the hottest outsourcing destination in the world.
Bangalore continues to rule as Indias software
hub, with its availability of skilled resources. The
pleasant climate of Bangalore has also been a factor
in Bangalores popularity.
44. (b) The items gold and silver have gained the
highest growth rate in the import composition of the
Indian economy in the last decade.
45. (c) The International Development Association
(IDA) is an international financial institution
which offers concessional loans andgrants to the
worlds poorest developing countries. The IDA
is a member of the World Bank Group and is
headquartered inWashington, D.C., United States.
It was established in 1960 to complement the
existing International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development by lending to developing countries
which suffer from the lowest gross national income,
from troubled creditworthiness, or from the lowest
per capita income.
46. (c) The International Finance Corporation (IFC)
is an international financial institution that offers
investment, advisory, and asset management
services to encourage private sector development
in developing countries. The IFC is a member of
the World Bank Group and is headquartered in
Washington, D.C., United States. It was established
in 1956 as the private sector arm of the World
Bank Group to advance economic development
by investing in strictly for-profit and commercial
projects that purport to reduce poverty and promote
development.
47. (a) Foreign currency which has a tendency of
quick migration is called hot currency.
48. (c) Collaboration between WTO and the Codex
Alimentarius concerns the use of international
food safety standards in the context of the SPS
Agreement.
49. (a) The gilt-edged market refers to the market
for Government and semi-government securities,
backed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Government securities are tradeable debt instruments
issued by the Government for meeting its financial
requirements. The term gilt-edged means of the best
quality. This is because the Government securities
do not suffer from risk of default and are highly
liquid (as they can be easily sold in the market at
their current price). The open market operations of
the RBI are also conducted in such securities.
50. (a) London Bullion Market is sometimes confused
with the London Metal Exchange which is quite
different. Only gold is traded at the London Bullion
Market while other metals, other than gold, are
traded at the London Metal Exchange. So gold is
considered as a metal by itself in these terms. The
price of gold is actually determined twice a day in
London.
52. (b) M1 measures the most liquid components of
the money supply, as it contains cash and assets that
can quickly be converted to currency.
54. (b) A greater proportion of the population is
between age 20 and 30.
55. (a) Portfolio investments are passive investments,
as they do not entail active management or control
of the issuing company.
60. (c) Indian consumers are getting more choice at
cheaper rates.
61. (b) The Laffer Curve says that, if marginal tax
rates fall, tax revenues will rise, and the budget
deficit will decrease.
63. (d) The Mercado Integrado Latinoamericano,
more commonly known as MILA, is a program
that integrates the stock exchangemarkets of Chile,
Colombia, Mexico, and Peru.
64. (c) CADIVI (Comisin de Administracin de
Divisas - Commission for the Administration of
Currency Exchange) is the Venezuelangovernment
body which administers legal currency exchange in
Venezuela.
65. (d) MIGA is a member of the World Bank Group.
Its mission is to promote foreign direct investment
(FDI) into developing countries to help support
economic growth, reduce poverty, and improve
peoples lives.
67. (a) Officially established on 27 December 1945,
when the 29 participating countries at the conference
of Bretton Woods signed its Articles of Agreement,
the IMF was to be the keeper of the rules and the main
instrument of public international management.
The Fund commenced its financial operations on
1 March 1947. IMF approval was necessary for
any change in exchange rates in excess of 10%. It
advised countries on policies affecting the monetary
system and lent reserve currencies to nations that
had incurred balance of payment debts.
69. (c) The euro was introduced to world financial
markets as an accounting currency on 1 January
1999, replacing the former European Currency Unit
(ECU) at a ratio of 1:1 (US$1.1743).
70. (a) For a given stock of gold, a rise in real money
supply can only occur if the price level declines.
 Section E : General science
1 Physics
1. The time period of a pendulum depends on
(a) the mass (b) the length
(c) the time (d) both (a) and (b)
2. Scent sprayer is based on
(a) Charless law
(b) Boyles law
(c) Archimedes principle
(d) Bernoullis principle
3. White light is made up of seven colours. What is
the method of separating the colours ?
(a) By passing it through a prism
(b) By filteration
(c) Cant be separated
(d) Both (a) and (b)
4. Cooling is not done by
(a) flow of water
(b) release of compressed gas
(c) burning cooking gas
(d) melting the solid
5. At which temperature the centigrade and
Fahrenheit scales are equal?
(a) 40 (b) 40
(c) 37 (d) 94.6
6. The magnetic needle always points in _______
direction.
(a) East West (b) West South
(c) North South (d) North East
7. Who was the inventor of Radar ?
(a) Robert Watson (b) Fleming
(c) Bush Wall (d) Austin
8. Which of the following instruments measures
blood pressure?
(a) Spherometer (c) equal to 1000 Hz
(b) Stethoscope
(c) Sphygmomanometer
(d) Ammeter
9. Retina of the eye is comparable to which of the
following parts of a traditional camera ?
(a) Film (b) Lens
(c) Shutter (d) Cover
10. Refrigeration helps in food preservation by
(a) killing the germs
(b) reducing the rate of biochemical reactions
(c) destroying enzyme action
(d) sealing the food with a layer of ice
11. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
(a) copper (b) aluminium
(c) lead (d) tungsten
12. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in the
vehicles ?
(a) Plane (b) Convex
(c) Concave (d) Plano concave
13. The reason of mirage is
(a) interference of light
(b) diffraction of light
(c) polarisation of light
(d) total internal reflection of light
14. The colour of light is determined by its
(a) amplitude (b) wavelength
(c) intensity (d) velocity
15. Ultrasonics are sound waves of frequency
(a) greater than 20,000 Hz
(b) less than 10,000 Hz
(d) None of these
E-2 || Physics
16. Laser is a device for producing
(a) spontaneous radiation
(b) dispersed radiation
(c) scattered radiation
(d) stimulated radiation
17. MRI stands for ?
(a) Magnetic Record of Intestines
(b) Magnetic Recording of Investigations
(c) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(d) Magnetic Resonance in Intestines
18. When ice melts, then the
(a) volume increases (b) volume decreases
(c) mass increases (d) mass decreases
19. What type of electromagnetic radiation is used in
the remote control of a television ?
(a) Infrared (b) Ultraviolet
(c) Visible (d) None of these
20. A 100 watt bulb is kept switched ON for four
hours. The units of electrical energy consumed is
(a) 400 unit (b) 25 unit
(c) 4 unit (d) 0.4 unit
21. Tube light is filled with
(a) sodium vapour
(b) argon gas at low pressure
(c) mercury vapour at low pressure
(d) mercuric oxide and argon gas
22. Which of the following is the smallest unit of
length?
(a) Micrometre (b) Nanometre
(c) Angstrom (d) Fermimetre
23. Wilhelm Rontgen invented
(a) radio (b) X-ray machine
(c) electric bulb (d) electric motor
24. The colour of the star is an indication of its
(a) distance from earth
(b) temperature
(c) luminosity
(d) distance from the sun
25. Which one of the following liquids is very good
conductor of heat ?
(a) Mercury (b) Water
(c) Ether (d) Benzene
26. What is the source of electrical energy in an
artificial satellite?
(a) Solar cell
(b) Mini nuclear reactor
(c) Dynamo
(d) Thermopile
27. The weight of any body is
(a) same at every place on earths surface
(b) maximum at poles
(c) more on equator
(d) more on mountains than in planes
28. Transformer is used
(a) for converting AC into DC
(b) for coverting DC into AC
(c) to step up DC voltages
(d) to step up or step down AC voltages
29. When a body is taken from the earth to the moon
(a) its weight increases
(b) its weight decreases
(c) its weight remains unchanged
(d) it becomes completely weightless
30. An iron ball weighing 10 kg on the earth will
weigh in space
(a) less than 10 kg (b) more than 10 kg
(c) exactly 10 kg (d) zero
31. Air is filled in vehicle tyres because
(a) it is non-conducting
(b) it is cheap
(c) it has low density
(d) it is highly compressible
32. Sound travels in the form of
(a) transverse waves
(b) longitudinal waves
(c) stationary waves
(d) none of the above
33. The mirror used by a dentist to examine the teeth
of patients is
(a) Concave (b) Convex
(c) Plane (d) Cylindrical
34. Sound above what level (in decibel) is considered
hazardous noise pollution ?
(a) 30 dB (b) 40 dB
(c) 60 dB (d) 80 dB

35. If the doors of a refrigerator are left open for a
few hours, the room temperature will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain the same
(d) decrease only in the area in the vicinity of
the refrigerator
36. The safest temperature for keeping food fresh in
a refrigerator is
(a) 4C (b) 8C
(c) 0C (d) 10C
37. Thermostat is a device which
(a) measures heat
(b) measures temperature
(c) automatically regulates the temperature of a
system
(d) automatically regulates pressure of a system.
38. The image of the object that we see forms on the
retina of our eyes is
(a) always erect
(b) always inverted
(c) erect or inverted depends upon the intensity
of light (c) phase modulation
(d) erect or inverted depends upon the age of the
person
39. In automatic wrist watches energy is provided by
(a) manual binding
(b) battery
(c) liquid crystal
(d) different movements of our hand
40. Sodium vapour lamp is usually used in street
light, because
(a) it is cheap
(b) light from this is monochromatic and will
not split through water droplets
(c) it is pleasing to the eyes
(d) it is brightly illuminating
41. During the change of state of matter the
temperature of the substance
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) may increase or decrease
General Science || E-3
42. In a three pin plug, the longest pin should be
connected to
(a) ground terminal (b) live terminal
(c) neutral terminal (d) any terminal
43. Dynamo is a machine which is used for conversion
of
(a) high voltage to low voltage
(b) low voltage to high voltage
(c) electrical energy to mechanical energy
(d) mechanical energy to electrical energy
44. A 100 watt electric bulb is used for 10 hours.
What will be the cost of electricity consumed, if
the consumption cost is ` 5 per unit ?
(a) ` 5 (b) ` 10
(c) ` 25 (d) ` 50
45. Which of the following is the best conductor of
electricity?
(a) Aluminium (b) Copper
(c) Silver (d) Gold
46. In television broadcast, the picture signals are
transmitted by
(a) amplitude modulation
(b) frequency modulation
(d) angle modulation
47. The cooling by a desert cooler is based on
(a) hot air replacement
(b) air dehydration
(c) evaporative cooling
(d) air rehydration
48. We cannot hear on the surface of the moon
because
(a) its surface absorbs sound
(b) it has no atmosphere
(c) it has very low gravitational force
(d) None of these
49. Optical fibre works on the principle of
(a) total internal reflection
(b) refraction
(c) scattering
(d) interference
50. The least distance of distinct vision for human
eye is
(a) 25 cm (b) 5 cm
(c) 75 cm (d) 100 cm
E-4 || Physics
51. Red light is used as danger signal because it 59. CT scan is done by using
(a) is scattered least (a) Infra-red rays (b) Ultrasonic waves
(b) is comfortable for eyes (c) Visible lights (d) X-rays
(c) produces least chemical reactions 60. One micron represents a length of
(d) absorbs least in air (a) 106 m (b) 104 m
52. A myopic eye can be corrected by using a (c) 10 m 3 (d) 1 m
(a) convex lens (b) concave lens 61. When light passes from one medium to another
(c) cylindrical lens (d) plano convex lens medium, which one of the following does not
53. When water is heated from 0C to 4C, its volume change?
(a) increases (a) Intensity (b) Velocity
(b) decreases (c) Wavelength (d) Frequency
62. Radioactivity was discovered by
(c) first increases then decreases
(a) Rutherford (b) Henry Becquerel
(d) remains the same
(c) Bohr (d) Madame Curie
54. A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he 63. Photoelectric effect was discovered by
walks towards the shore, the boat will (a) Hertz (b) Einstein
(a) move towards the shore (c) Plank (d) Bohr
(b) move away from the shore 64. A nanometre is equal to
(c) remain stationary (a) 104 cm (b) 107 cm
(d) sink (c) 10 cm 8 (d) 109 cm
55. Richter scale is used for measuring 65. Pyrometer is used to measure
(a) velocity of sound (a) air pressure
(b) intensity of light (b) humidity
(c) amplitude of seismic waves (c) high temperature
(d) intensity of earthquake
(d) intensity of sound
66. The apparatus used to measure the intensity of
56. Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation
light is known as
therapy to treat (a) Anemometer (b) Calorimeter
(a) enlarged prostate gland (c) Lux meter (d) Altimeter
(b) gall bladder stones 67. Night vision cameras do not use
(c) certain types of cancer (a) amplified light
(d) kidney stones (b) infrared sensors
57. A dynamo which is said to generate electricity (c) heat radiation from objects
actually acts as a (d) X-ray radiation from objects
(a) Source of ions 68. Among the following radiations, which has the
(b) Source of electric charge highest energy ?
(c) Converter of energy (a) Visible (b) X-ray
(c) Ultraviolet (d) Infrared
(d) Source of electrons
69. Wavelength range of visible light is
58. Which of the following is not an electromagnetic
(a) 200 900 nm (b) 600 780 nm
wave ? (c) 300 800 nm (d) 390 780 nm
(a) -rays 70. Heat detectors in human skin are sensitive to
(b) cosmic rays wavelengths
(c) Microwave (a) > 780 nm (b) 600 780 nm
(d) Radio wave (c) 400 600 nm (d) < 400 nm

71. Recently developed technique for monitoring
foetal growth is
(a) Microwave technique (c) density of brine is greater than that of
(b) Ultrasonic
(c) Ultra-violet rays
(d) X-rays
72. Light from the sun reaches earth in about
(a) 2 minutes (b) 4 minutes
(c) 8 minutes (d) 16 minutes
73. Sound travels fastest in
(a) vacuum (b) liquid
(c) air (d) metal
74. Astronauts in space cant stand at one place,
because
(a) there is no gravity
(b) viscous forces of the atmosphere are very
strong
(c) solar wind exert an upward force
(d) atmospheric pressure is very low
75. To hear a clear echo, the minimum distance
should be
(a) 165 feet (b) 165 meter
(c) 16.5 feet (d) 16.5 meter
76. A cut diamond sparkles because of its
(a) hardness (d) gets deformed
(b) high refractive index
(c) emission of light by the diamond volume
(d) absorption of light by the diamond
77. Finger prints on a piece of paper may be detected
by sprinkling fluorescent powder on the paper
and then looking it into
(a) mercury light (b) sunlight
(c) infrared light (d) ultraviolet light
78. Kerosene oil rises up in a wick of a lantern
because of
(a) diffusion of the oil through the wick (c) radiation
(b) capillary action
(c) buoyant force of air 85. Ventilators are provided at the top of room
(d) the gravitational pull of the wick
79. An egg when placed in ordinary water sinks but
floats when placed in brine. This is because
(a) density of brine is less than that of ordinary
water
General Science || E-5
(b) density of brine is equal to that of ordinary
water
ordinary water
(d) None of these
80. A man is sitting in a boat which is floating in
pond. If the man drinks some water from the
pond, the level of water in the pond will
(a) rise a little
(b) fall a little
(c) remain stationary
(d) None of these
81. Food in the pressure cooker is cooked faster, as
(a) the boiling point increases due to an increase
in pressure
(b) the boiling point decreases due to an increase
in pressure
(c) more steam is available at 100C
(d) more pressure is available at 100C
82. A metal sheet with a circular hole is heated. The
hole
(a) gets larger
(b) gets smaller
(c) remains of the same size
83. When water is heated from 0C to 10C, its
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
(d) first decreases and then increases
84. If a liquid is heated in space under no gravity, the
transfer of heat will take place by process of
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(d) can not be heated in the absence of gravity
(a) to bring oxygen for breathing
(b) so that sunlight may enter the room
(c) to maintain conventional currents to keep
the air fresh in the room
(d) to provide an outlet for carbon dioxide
E-6 || Physics
86. A vibrating body
(a) will always produce sound
(b) may or may not produce sound if the
amplitude of vibration is low
(c) will produce sound which depends upon
frequency
(d) None of these
87. A body travelling with a speed of more than the
velocity of sound in air is said to travel with
(a) supersonic speed (b) hypersonic speed
(c) ultrasonic speed (d) infrasonic speed
88. The special technique used in ships to calculate
the depth of ocean beds is
(a) LASER (b) SONAR
(c) sonic boom (d) reverberation
89. When the distance between the object and the
plane mirror increases
(a) the image remains same (a) poles of the magnet
(b) the size of the image will become less than
the size of the object
(c) the distance between the image and the plane
mirror increases
(d) the distance between the image and the plane
mirror decreases
90. Butter paper is an example of ............. object.
(a) a transparent (b) a translucent
(c) an opaque (d) a luminous
91. The sun is seen before the actual sun rise because
of ..... .
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) scattering of light
(d) rectilinear propagation of light
92. What should be the characteristic of fuse wire?
(a) High melting point, high specific resistance
(b) Low melting point, low specific resistance
(c) High melting point, low specific resistance
(d) Low melting point, high specific resistance
93. The heating element of an electric heater should
be made with a material, which should have
(a) high specific resistance and high melting
point
(b) high specific resistance and low melting
point
(c) low specific resistance and low melting
point
(d) low specific resistance and high melting
point
94. Of the two bulbs in a house, one glows brighter
than the other. Which of the two has a large
resistance?
(a) The bright bulb
(b) The dim bulb
(c) Both have the same resistance
(d) The brightness does not depend upon the
resistance
95. The magnet is strongest near the
(b) ends of the magnet
(c) centre of magnet
(d)  on equator point from the poles of the
magnet
96. L.P.G. is mostly liquified
(a) hydrogen (b) oxygen
(c) butane (d) methane
97. Solar energy is produced by the following
reaction
(a) Fission reaction (b) Fusion reaction
(c) Chemical reaction (d) None of these
98. Einstein got noble prize for
(a) Photoelectric effect
(b) Compton effect
(c) Theory of relativity
(d) None of these
99. Light year is
(a) Light emitted by the sun in one year
(b) Time taken by light to travel from sun to
earth
(c) The distance travelled by light in free space
in one year
(d) Time taken by earth to go once around the
sun
 General Science || E-7
100. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin. If the 106. When a ship floats on water
coin falls behind him, the train must be moving (a) it displaces no water
with (b) the mass of water displaced is equal to the
(a) an acceleration (b) a deceleration mass of the ship
(c) a uniform speed (d) any of the above (c) the mass of water displaced is lesser than the
mass of the ship
101. China wares are wraped in straw of paper before
(d) the mass of water displaced is greater than
packing. This is the application of concept of
the mass of the ship
(a) impulse (b) momentum 107. A long jumper runs before jumping because he
(c) acceleration (d) force (a) covers a greater distance
102. When a body is stationary, then (b) maintains momentum conservation
(a) there is no force acting on it (c) gains energy by running
(b) the body is in vacuum (d) gains momentum
(c) the force acting on it is not in contact with it 108. A book is kept on the surface of a table. If the
(d) the net forces acting on it balances each other gravitational pull of the earth on the book is
103. What happens when a heavy object and a light the force of action, then the force of reaction is
object are allowed to fall from the certain height exerted by
in the absence of air (a) the book on the table
(a) heavy object reaches the ground later than (b) the book on the earth
the lighter object (c) the table on the book
(d) the table on the earth
(b) lighter object reaches the ground later than
109. A body is thrown vertically upwards and then
the heavier object
falls back on the ground. Its potential energy is
(c)  both heavy and light objects reach the
maximum
ground simultaneously (a) on the ground
(d) None of these (b) at the maximum height
104. An artificial satellite orbiting the earth does not (c) during the return journey
fall down because the earths attraction (d) both on the ground and at the maximum
(a) is balanced by the attraction of the moon height
(b) vanishes at such distances 110. A jet engine works on the principle of conservation
(c) is balanced by the viscous drag produced by of
the atmosphere (a) linear momentum (b) angular momentum
(d) produces the necessary acceleration of its (c) energy (d) mass
motion in a curved path 111. One feels heavier in a lift when the lift
105. A block of ice is floating in a beaker containing (a) is going down steadily
(b) just begins to go up
liquid of specific gravity greater than one. When
(c) is moving up steadily
ice melts completely what happens to the level of
(d) descends freely
liquid in the beaker?
112. The spread in colours in a rainbow on sky is
(a) It will remain the same as before primarily due to
(b) It will go down (a) dispersion of sunlight
(c) It will rise up (b) reflection of sunlight
(d) It may or may not change depending upon (c) refraction of sunlight
size of beaker (d) total internal reflection of sunlight
E-8 || Physics
113. Which zone of a candle flame is the hottest ?
(a) Dark innermost zone (a) small frequency of radiation
(b) Outermost zone
(c) Middle luminous zone (c) large frequency as well as wavelength of
(d) Central zone
114. Why do two ice blocks join to form one block
when pressed together?
(a) Melting point of ice is lowered with increase
in pressure
(b) Melting point of ice increases with increase
in pressure
(c) Melting point of ice remains unchanged with
increase in pressure (c) supersonic waves from the bat
(d) Melting point of ice is 0C
115. Evening Sun is not as hot as the mid day sun.
What is the reason?
(a) In the evening, radiation travel slowly 220 V ?
(b) In the evening, the temperature of the sun
decreases (b) The resistance of human body is very high
(c) Ozone in atmosphere absorbs more light in
the evening
(d) In the evening, radiations travels larger
distance through atmosphere
116. A fan produces a feeling of comfort during hot
weather, because
(a) our body radiates more heat in air
(b) fan supplies cool air
(c) conductivity of air increases
(d) our perspiration evaporates rapidly
117. A man with a dark skin, in comparison with a
man with a white skin, will experience
(a) less heat and less cold
(b) less heat and more cold
(c) more heat and less cold
(d) more heat and more cold
118. A bucket full of water is kept in a room and it
cools from 75C to 70C in time T1 minutes,
from 70C to 65C in timeT2 minutes, and from
65C to 60C in time T3 minutes, then
(a) T1= T2 = T3 (b) T1 < T2 < T3
(c) T1 > T2 > T3 (d) T1 < T3 < T2
119. The audible frequency range of a human ear is
(a) 20 Hz to 200 Hz
(b) 2 Hz to 20 Hz
(c) 200 Hz to 2000 Hz
(d) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
120. Microwave oven consumes less power due to
(b) short wavelength of radiation
radiation
(d) small frequency as well as wavelength of
radiation
121. Bats can ascertain distance, directions, nature and
size of the obstacles at night. This is possible by
reflection of the emitted
(a) ultrasonic waves from the bat
(b) ultrasonic waves from the distant objects
(d) supersonic waves from the distant objects
122. Why does one experience a strong shock when
one accidentally touches a live wire of, say,
(a) The resistance of human body is very low
(c) The human body is sensitive to even feeble
currents
(d) The human body is sensitive to large currents
only
123. Which one of the following is correct?
Lightning is formed, when
(a) similar charges of electricity rush towards
each other and then get repelled
(b) clouds strike against impurities in air and hte
friction burns up these impurities
(c) strong opposite charges in different clouds
break down the resistance offered by
intervening air
(d) water vapour produces electricity in the
clouds
124. Which one among the following is the correct
order of power consumption for light of equal
intensity ?
(a) CFL tube < Fluorescent tube < Incandescent
bulb < Light emitting diode
(b) Light emitting diode < CFL tube <
Fluorescent tube < Incandescent bulb
(c) CFL tube < Fluorescent tube < Light
emitting diode < Incandescent bulb
(d) Incandescent bulb < Light emitting diode <
Fluorescent tube < CFL tube

125. When an electrical safety fuse is rated (marked)
as 16 A, it means it their low
(a) will not work if current is less than 16 A
(b) has a resistance of 16 W
(c) will work if the temperature is more than
16C
(d) will be blown (break) if current exceeds 16 A
126. The lift of an air plane is based on
(a) Torricellis theorem
(b) Bernoullis theorem
(c) Law of gravitation
(d) Conservation of linear momentum
127. The working principle of a washing machine is
(a) centrifugation (b) dialysis
(c) reverse osmosis (d) diffusion
128. For which one of the following is capillarity not
the reason?
(a) Blotting of ink
(b) Rising of underground water
(c) Spread a water drop on a cotton cloth
(d) Rising of water from the roots of a plant to
its foliage
129. Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 (d1 >
d2) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated,
d2
d1
(a) both d1 and d2 will decrease (a) 30 c/s (b) 50 c/s
(b) both d1 and d2 will increase (c) 60 c/s (d) 120 c/s
(c) d1 will increase, d2 will decrease 139. Electric iron uses wires of alloy as
(d) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase
130. The sprinkling of water slightly reduces the
temperature of a closed room because
(a) temperature of water is less than that of the
room
(b) specific heat of water is high
(c) water has large latent heat of vaporisation
(d) water is a bad conductor of heat
131. The instrument used to measure the temperature
of the source from its thermal radiation is
(a) hydrometer (b) barometer
(c) thermopile (d) pyrometer
General Science || E-9
132. The clouds float in the atmosphere because of
(a) temperature (b) velocity
(c) pressure (d) density
133. If you are at open-air concert and someones head
gets between you and the orchestra, you can still
hear the orchestra because
(a) sound waves pass easily through a head
(b) a head is not very large compared with the
wavelength of the sound
(c) the sound is reflected from the head
(d) the wavelength of the sound is much smaller
than the head
134. Sound cannot travel though
(a) solids (b) liquids
(c) gases (d) vacuum
135. Noise and music differ in their
(a) quality (b) tone
(c) note (d) pitch
136. If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight
(a) remains precisely constant
(b) increases slightly
(c) decreases slightly
(d) may increase slightly or may decrease slightly
137. At the time of short circuit, the current in the
circuit
(a) vary continuously
(b) increases heavily
(c) decreases substantially
(d) does not change
138. The frequency of A.C. mains in India is
(a) they do not oxidise at high temperatures
(b) they do not burn at high temperatures
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
140. Parameters of electricity supply in India are
(a) Potential Difference of 220 V, Frequency of 50
hertz and Current Rating of 5A/15A
(b) Potential Difference of 150 V, Frequency of 40
hertz and Current Rating of 10 A
(c) Potential Difference of 220 V, Frequency of 60
hertz and Current Rating of 15A
(d) Potential Difference of 220 V, Frequency of 40
hertz and Current Rating of 5 A
E-10 || Physics
141. The earths magnetic field always has a vertical
component except at the
(a) magnetic equator
(b) magnetic poles
(c) geographic north pole
(d) latitude 45
142. Domestic electrical wiring is basically a (c) presbyopia (d) astigmatism
(a) series connection
(b) parallel connection
(c) combination of series and parallel connections
(d) series connection within each room and parallel
connection elsewhere
143. What is the order of magnitude of electric
resistance of the human body (dry) ?
(a) 102 ohm (b) 104 ohm
(c) 106 ohm (d) 108 ohm
144. Soap bubble looks coloured due to
(a) dispersion (b) reflection
(c) interference (d) Any one of these
145. Compared to burn due to air at 100C, a burn due
to steam at 100C is
(a) less dangerous (b) more dangerous
(c) equally dangerous (d) None of these
146. Rainbow is formed due to
(a) refraction, reflection and dispersion of light
through a water droplet
(b) reflection and dispersion of light through a water
droplet
(c) only refraction of light
(d) only dispersion of light
147. A student finds the writing on the black board as
blurred and unclear when sitting on the last desk
in a classroom. However, he sees it clearly when
sitting on the front desk. Student suffers from a
vision defect known as
(a) hypermetropia (b) myopia
148. A swimming pool looks shallower than it really
is, when seen by a person standing outside near
it, because of the phenomenon of
(a) refraction of light
(b) reflection of light
(c) dispersion of light
(d) None of these
149. When a CD (compact disc used in audio and
video systems) is seen in sunlight, rainbow like
colours are seen. This can be explained on the
basis of the phenomenon of
(a) reflection and diffraction
(b) reflection and transmission
(c) diffraction and transmission
(d) refraction, diffraction and transmission
150. A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She
finds the image of her head bigger, the middle
portion of her body of the same size and that of
the legs smaller. The following is the order of
combinations for the magic mirror from the top.
(a) Plane, convex and concave
(b) Convex, concave and plane
(c) Concave, plane and convex
(d) Convex, plane and concave
 General Science || E-11

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 21. (d) 41. (c) 61. (b) 81. (a) 101. (a) 121. (a) 141. (a)
2. (d) 22. (d) 42. (a) 62. (b) 82. (a) 102. (d) 122. (b) 142. (b)
3. (a) 23. (b) 43. (d) 63. (b) 83. (d) 103. (c) 123. (c) 143. (b)
4. (c) 24. (b) 44. (a) 64. (b) 84. (c) 104. (d) 124. (b) 144. (c)
5. (b) 25. (a) 45. (c) 65. (c) 85. (c) 105. (c) 125. (d) 145. (b)
6. (c) 26. (a) 46. (b) 66. (c) 86. (c) 106. (b) 126. (b) 146. (a)
7. (a) 27. (b) 47. (a) 67. (d) 87. (a) 107. (b) 127. (a) 147. (b)
8. (c) 28. (d) 48. (b) 68. (b) 88. (b) 108. (c) 128. (b) 148. (a)
9. (a) 29. (b) 49. (a) 69. (d) 89. (c) 109. (b) 129. (b) 149. (d)
10. (b) 30. (d) 50. (a) 70. (d) 90. (b) 110. (a) 130. (c) 150. (c)
11. (d) 31. (d) 51. (a) 71. (b) 91. (b) 111. (b) 131. (c)
12. (b) 32. (b) 52. (b) 72. (c) 92. (d) 112. (a) 132. (d)
13. (d) 33. (a) 53. (b) 73. (d) 93. (a) 113. (c) 133. (b)
14. (b) 34. (d) 54. (b) 74. (a) 94. (b) 114. (a) 134. (d)
15. (a) 35. (b) 55. (c) 75. (d) 95. (b) 115. (d) 135. (c)
16. (d) 36. (a) 56. (c) 76. (b) 96. (c) 116. (d) 136. (d)
17. (c) 37. (c) 57. (c) 77. (d) 97. (b) 117. (c) 137. (b)
18. (b) 38. (b) 58. (b) 78. (b) 98. (a) 118. (b) 138. (b)
19. (a) 39. (d) 59. (d) 79. (c) 99. (c) 119. (d) 139. (c)
20. (d) 40. (b) 60. (a) 80. (c) 100. (a) 120. (b) 140. (a)

Hints & Solutions

C F 32
1. (b) Time period T = 2 . The time period of a 5. (b) As =
5 9
g
if C = F = X then
pendulum depends on its length l and acceleration
X X 32
due to gravity g. =
5 9
2. (d) Scent sprayer is based on Bernoullis principle.
9X = 5X 32 5
3. (a) When a white ray of light passes through a 4X = 32 5
prism it breaks into 7 colours VIBGYOR. 32 5
4. (c) While compressed gas is released by X = = 40
4
absorbing surroundings heat or temperature lowers 6. (c) The magnetic needle always points
the temperature of surrounding. Hence, causes North-South direction. Magnetic north towards
cooling. geographic south and magnetic south pole towards
geographic north pole.
E-12 || Physics
7. (a) Robert Watson was the inventor of Radar.
8. (c) The instrument Sphygmomanometer measures
the blood pressure.
9. (a) Retina of the eye is comparable to the film of
a traditional camera. Retina is a film of nerve fibres.
Image of the object is formed at retina just like
camera film is used to see the images.
10. (b) Refrigeration lowers the temperature which
helps in food preservation by reducing the rate of
bio-chemical reactions.
11. (d) Electric bulb filament is made of tungsten.
12. (b) Convex mirror is a diverging mirror used as
a rear view mirror in the vehicles as it covers wide
range of vehicles coming behind.
13. (d) Mirage is an optical illusion. The reason of
mirage is total internal reflection of light. In summer
air near the ground is hotter and hence rarer than
the air above which is responsible for TIR, hence,
mirage.
14. (b) The colour of light is determined by its
wavelength. Among seven constituent colours
VIBGYOR wavelength of red light is maximum
and of violet light is minimum.
15. (a) Ultrasonics are sound waves of frequency
greater than 20,000Hz. The frequency range 20Hz
to 20,000Hz is human audible range of frequency.
16. (d) Laser is a device for producing stimulated
radiation. LASER stands for light amplification by
stimulated emission of (electromagnetic) radiation.
17. (c) MRI stands for magnetic resonance imaging.
18. (b) When ice melts, density increases so volume
decreases.
Mass = volume density
19. (a) Infrared is used in the remote control of a
television.
20. (d) One unit of electrical energy
= 1 kwh.
= 1 kilo watt hour
100
= kilo watt 4 hour
1000
= 0.4 unit
21. (d) Tube light is filled with mercuric oxide and
argon gas.
22. (d) 1 micron = 106 m
1 nanometer = 109 m
1 angstrom = 1010 m
1 fermi = 1015 m
23. (b) Wilhelm Rontgen invented X-ray machine.
24. (b) The colour of the star is an indication of its
temperature according to Weins displacement law
l T = b
where l = Wavelength
T = Temperature and
b = Constant whose value is
2892 106 mk
25. (a) Mercury is very good conductor of heat. Hence
mercury is used in thermometer.
26. (a) Solar cell is the source of electrical energy in
an artificial satellite.
27. (b) The weight of any body is maximum at poles.
Weight = mass acceleration due to
gravity(g)
gmaximum at poles and
gminimum at equator hence weight is
maximum at poles and minimum at equator.
28. (d) Transformer is used to step up or step down
AC voltage.
29. (b) When a body is taken from the earth to the
moon its weight decreases as the value of gravity on
the surface of the moon is 1/6th as that of the earths
surface.
30. (d) An iron ball weighing 10 kg on the earth will
weigh in space zero in space body experiences
weightlessness as g = 0.
31. (d) Air is filled in vehicle tyres because it is highly
compressible.
32. (b) Sound travels in the form of longitudinal waves.
These waves travel in the form of compressions and
rarefactions.
33. (a) The mirror used by a dentist to examine the
teeth of patients is concave as concave mirror gives
magnified image of the object.
34. (d) Sound above 80dB is considered hazardous
noise pollution.
35. (b) If the doors of a refrigerator are left open for a
few hours, the room temperature will increase. It is
because system releases heat to the surroundings.
36. (a) The safest temperature for keeping food fresh
in a refrigerator is 4C. At this temperature density
of water is maximum.

37. (c) Thermostat is a device which automatically
regulates the temperature of a system. As the word
suggests.
Thermostat = Thermo + stat i.e., keeping temperature
(Thermo) Constant (static)
38. (b) There is always an inverted image of the object
on the retina.
39. (d) In automatic wrist watches energy is provided
by different movements of our hand.
40. (b) Because the light from this is monochromatic
i.e., single colour light and will not split through
water droplets.
41. (c) Heat given/taken by the substance is equal
to the latent heat of fusion or vaporization of the
substance. That is why the temperature of the
substance remains the same during the change of
state.
42. (a) In a three pin plug longest pin should be
connected to ground terminal. Ground pin is the
largest to supply the additional voltage that can give
electric shock. And being the longest it can touch
before live and neutral terminal.
43. (d) Dynamo is a machine which is used for
conversion of mechanical energy to electrical
energy.
44. (a) The cost of electricity will be ` 5.
1 unit of electricity
= 1 kwh (1 kilowatt hour)
100
= kilowatt 10 hour
1000
= 1 unit hence electricity bill
=15=`5
45. (c) Silver is the best conductor of electricity.
46. (b) In television broadcast, the picture signals are
transmitted by frequency modulation.
47. (a) The cooling by a desert cooler is based on hot
air replacement.
48. (b) Sound waves require material medium to
travel. Moon has no such material mediums.
49. (a) Optical fibre works on the principle of total
internal reflection. Each fibre consists of core and
cladding. Refractive index of core is greater than
cladding.
50. (a) The least distance of distinct vision is of
25 cm. It is the minimum distance that eye can
accommodate to see the object.
General Science || E-13
51. (a) Red light is used as danger signal because it is
scattered least.
1
Scattering
4
And among three primary colours red, green and
blue red has maximum wavelength.
52. (b) A myopic eye can be corrected by using a
concave lens.
53. (b) When water is heated from 0C to 4C, its
Mass
volume decreases. Density =
Volume
And density of water is maximum at 4C.
54. (b) The boat will move away from the shore.
According to Newtons 3rd law of motion, to every
action there is an equal but opposite reaction.
55. (c) Richter scale is used for measuring amplitude
of seismic waves or intensity of earthquake.
56. (c) Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation
therapy to treat certain types of cancer.
57. (c) A dynamo which is said to generate electricity
actually acts as a converter of energy. It converts
mechanical energy into electrical energy.
58. (b) Cosmic ray is not an electromagnetic wave.
59. (d) CT scan is done by using X-rays.
60. (a) One micron represents a length of 106 m.
61. (b) When light passes from one medium to another
medium frequency does not change.
62. (b) Radioactivity was discovered by Henry
Bacquerel.
63. (b) Photoelectric effect was discovered by
Einstein.
64. (b) A nanometre is equal to 107 cm.
65. (c) Pyrometer is used to measure high temperature.
66. (c) The apparatus used to measure the intensity of
light is known as Lux meter.
67. (d) Night vision cameras do not use X-ray
radiation from objects.
68. (b) X-ray has the highest energy. Among the given
four radiations X-ray has the highest frequency. And
Energy E = hv.
Where h = Planks constant and
v = frequency.
69. (d) Wavelength range of visible light is
390 800 nm.
E-14 || Physics
70. (d) Heat detectors in human skin are sensitive to
wavelengths < 400 nm.
71. (b) Ultrasonic is recently developed technique for
monitoring foetal growth.
72. (c) In about 8 minutes light from the sun reaches
the earth.
Distance
Time =
Speed
Speed of light in air/vacuum = 3 108 ms1
Distance of the earth from the sun = 1.44 1011 m
73. (d) Sound travels fastest in metal. Increasing order
of speed of sound in different mediums.
Vgas < Vliquid < Vsolid
Sound waves cannot travel through vacuum.
74. (a) Astronauts in space cant stand at one place,
because there is no gravity.
75. (d) To hear a clear echo, the minimum distance
should be 16.5 metre.
1
To hear an echo, time = s 115. (d) In evening, the radiations from the sun travel
10
Velocity of sound (in air) = 330 ms1
2d
Time =
Velocity of sound in air
1 2d
= light object is more than that of dark object.
10 330
\ d = 16.5 metre
79. (c) Brine due to its high density exerts an upthrust
which can balance the weight of the egg.
99. (c) 1 light year = speed of light in vacuum no.
of seconds in one year = (3 108) (365 24
60 60) = 9.467 1015 m.
105. (c) The specific gravity of liquid is greater than
one and as the specific gravity of water is 1 hence
the level of liquid in the beaker will rise up.
106. (b) According to Archimedes principle when
a body is immersed fully or partially in a liquid,
it experiences an upward force that is equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by it therefore the mass
of water displaced is equal to the mass of the ship.
107. (b) A long jumper runs before jumping because
to maintain momentum conservation or to increase
initial speed.
108. (c) If the gravitational pull of the earth on the
book is the force of action, then the force of reaction
is exerted by the table on the book.
109. (b) We know that
Potential energy = mgh
Hence potential energy is maximum at the
maximum height.
111. (b) One feels heavier in a lift when the lift just
begins to go up because our body gains inertia from
the position of rest and pushes up against the gravity
so here the weight becomes zero and our mass
makes us feel heavier.
112. (a) Rainbow (a band of seven colours
VIBGYOR) is a natural spectrum. It is caused by
dispersion (i.e. splitting of white light into seven
constituent colours VIBGYOR) of sunlight by tiny
droplete of water present in the atmosphere.
113. (c) Middle luminous zone of a candle flame is the
hottest.
114. (a) Melting point of ice decreases with increase in
pressure.
larger distance through atmosphere thats why
evening sun is not as hot as the mid day sun.
116. (d) A fan produces a feeling of comfort during
hot weather because our perspiration evaporates
rapidly.
117. (c) We know that reflected amount of radiation in
119. (d) The audible frequency range of a human ear is
20 Hz to 20000Hz.
120. (b) Microwave oven consumes less power due to
short wavelength of radiation.
121. (a) Bat emitted ultrasonic sounds specifically to
produce echoes. By comparing the outgoing pulse
with the returining echoes the brain and auditory
nervous system can produce detail image of
surrounding.
124. (b) Light emitting diode < CFL tube < fluorescent
tube < incandescent bulb.
126. (b) Apply Bernoullis theorem
127. (a) Washing machine works on the principle of
centrifugation. Centrifugation is a process that
involves the use of the centrifugal force for the
separation of mixtures with a centrifuge, used in
industry and in laboratory settings. More-dense
components of the mixture migrate away from the
axis of the centrifuge, while less-dense components
of the mixture migrate towards the axis.

128. (b) Capillary action, or capillarity, is a
phenomenon where liquid spontaneously rises in
a narrow space such as a thin tube, or in porous
materials such as paper or in some non-porous
materials such as liquefied carbon fibre. This effect
can cause liquids to flow against the force of gravity
or the magnetic field induction. In blotting of ink,
spread of water drop on a cotton cloth and the rising
of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage.
129. (c) When a body is heated, the distance between
any two points on it increases. The increase is in the
same ratio for any set at two points.
130. (c) Water has a large latent heat of vaporisation.
When it is sprinked over a large area, its evaporation
occurs which, in turn, causes cooling.
131. (c) Thermopile is a combination of thermocouple
which generates electrical energy when one end is
kept at higher temperature with respect to the other
end. It is helpful in measuring the temperature of a
hot and radiating body.
132. (d) Because of density. The density of the clouds
is less than that of the air.
138. (b) In India the frequency of A.C. current is 50 Hz.
140. (a) Parameters of electricity supply are different
in different countries. In India they are:
Potential Difference of 220 V, Frequency of 50 hertz
and Current Rating of 5A/15A.
141. (a) At magnetic equator, R = H; V = 0.
142. (b) In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each of
the components is the same, and the total current is
the sum of the currents through each component. The
wiring for most homes is parallel .In parallel circuit
each branch receives equal current. If one branch in
the circuit is broken, electric current will still flow
in other branches.
General Science || E-15
143. (b) Human body has different resistances, when
dry, resistance is 100,000 ohms. When wet because
of sweat or water, resistance is only 1,000 ohms.
144. (c) Interference at thin films causes colouring of
soap bubble.
145. (b) It is due to the additional heat equal to latent
heat possesed by steam.
147. (b) Myopic eye can see near objects clearly but
cannot see far objects clearly.
149. (d) The reason CDs reflect rainbow colors is
because they have a clear plastic coating on top of
a mirrorized surface. Light refracts (bends) when it
moves from one medium (such as air) to another with
a different optical density (such as the clear plastic
surface of a CD). Different wavelengths of light
(every color has a different wavelength) travel at
different speeds, so that full spectrum appears when
white light passes from the air through the plastic
surface of a CD, separated light rays which are then
reflected back to us by the mirrorized center surface
of a CD. Here the diffraction and transmission also
takes place because diffraction of light rays occur
when it strikes the surface of CD and transmission
is obvious when light enters from one medium to
another. The thickness of the different optical media,
angle of source light, and brightness of source light
all affect which rainbow patterns are visible on a CD.
150. (c) The size of the image formed by plane mirror is
equal to the size of the object. Convex mirror forms
diminished image whereas concave mirror always
form magnified image of the object.
 2 Chemistry
1. Which one of the following chemicals helps in
fruit ripening?
(a) Ethephon (b) Atrazine
(c) Isoproturan (d) Malathion
2. Solder is an alloy of
(a) tin and lead (a) Dye laser (b) Semiconductor laser
(b) tin and copper
(c) tin, copper and zinc 11. Which one of the following is used as a moderator
(d) tin, lead and zinc
3. CNG used in automobiles to check pollution,
mainly consists of
(a) CH4 (b) CO2
(c) N2 (d) H2
4. Pyrethrin used in mosquito coil is obtained from
(a) a seed plant (b) an insect
(c) a bacterium (d) a fungus
5. Bio-gas mainly consists of
(a) carbon dioxide and hydrogen
(b) hydrogen and methane
(c) carbon dioxide and methane
(d) hydrogen and oxygen
6. Acid rain is caused due to air-pollution by
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) methane
(d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
7. Which of the following is the most common
element in the universe?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon
8. A pungent smell often present near the urinals is
due to
(a) sulphur-di-oxide (b) chlorine
(c) ammonia (d) urea
9. Vinegar is an aqueous solution of
(a) oxalic acid (b) citric acid
(c) hydrochloric acid (d) acetic acid
10. Which of the following laser types is used in a
laser printer?
(c) Excimer laser (d) Gas laser
in the nuclear reactor ?
(a) Thorium (b) Graphite
(c) Radium (d) Ordinary water
12. Indane gas is a mixture of
(a) butane and hydrogen
(b) butane and oxygen
(c) butane and propane
(d) methane and oxygen
13. The important metal used with iron to produce
stainless steel is
(a) carbon (b) tin
(c) chromium (d) aluminium
14. The gas which emits from rice field is
(a) ethane (b) methane
(c) nitrogen (d) All of the above
15. The nuclear fuel in the sun is
(a) helium (b) hydrogen
(c) uranium (d) alpha particles
16. Which one of the following elements is used in
the manufacture of safety matches?
(a) Graphite (b) Phosphorus
(c) Silicon (d) Sodium
17. Minerals are
(a) liquids (b) inorganic solid
(c) gases (d) all of the above
18. The halogen being used as analgesic is
(a) chlorine (b) bromine
(c) iodine (d) fluorine

19. The first metal used by man was
(a) gold (b) silver
(c) copper (d) iron
20. The end product of alcoholic fermentation is
(a) pyruvic acid (b) acetaldehyde
(c) ethyl alcohol (d) formic acid
21. Milk is a
(a) mixture (b) element
(c) metal (d) None of these
22. Which one is not metal?
(a) Sulphur (b) Sugar
(c) Nitrogen (d) All of these
23. Protons and neutrons are bound in a nucleus by
the
(a) short range weak interaction (a) high energy electrons
(b) short range strong interaction (b) low energy electrons
(c) long range electromagnetic interaction (c) high energy electromagnetic
(d) long range gravitational interaction
24. A detergent is a
(a) cleansing agent (b) drug
(c) catalyst (d) soap
25. Discovery of the nucleus of an atom was due to
the experiment carried out by
(a) Bohr (b) Rutherford
(c) Moseley (d) Thomson
26. The atomic orbital is
(a) the circular path of the electron
(b) elliptical shaped orbit
(c) three dimensional field around nucleus
(d) the region in which there is maximum
probability of finding electron
27. Meson was discovered by
(a) Powell (b) Seaburg
(c) Anderson (d) Yukawa
28. Which of the following has highest frequency?
(a) Cosmic rays (b) X-rays
(c) Radio waves (d) Micro waves
29. Which of the following electromagnetic wave
has the longest wavelength ?
(a) Infra red rays (b) Gamma rays
(c) Light rays (d) Ultra-violet rays
30. In isotopes the number of neutrons are
(a) same (b) different
(c) both (d) None of these
31. Species containing same number of electrons are
called
(a) isotopes (b) isobars
(c) isoelectronic (d) isotones
General Science || E-17
32. Natural radioactivity was discovered by
(a) Rutherford (b) Becquerel
(c) Curie (d) Schmidt
33. A radioactive substance emits
(a) alpha particle (b) beta particle
(c) gamma particle (d) all of the three
34. Yellow Cake an item of smuggling across
border is
(a) a crude form of heroin
(b) a crude form of cocaine
(c) uranium oxide
(d) unreformed gold
35. Gamma rays are
(d) high energy positrons waves
36. A device used for the measurement of radioactivity
is
(a) Mass spectrometer
(b) Cyclotron
(c) Nuclear reactor
(d) G.M. counter
37. A radioactive substance has a half life of four
months. Three-fourth of the substance would
decay in
(a) 3 months (b) 4 months
(c) 8 months (d) 12 months
38. When iron is rusted, it is
(a) Oxidised (b) Reduced
(c) Evaporated (d) Decomposed
39. Uric acid is present in
(a) Soda water
(b) Rancid butter
(c) Sour milk
(d) Urine of mammals
40. In which one of the following situations a
chemical reaction does not occur?
(a) Common salt is exposed to air
(b) Coal is burnt in air
(c) Sodium is placed in water
(d) Iron is kept in moist air
41. Source of Vitamin C is
(a) Nitric acid (b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Oxalic acid (d) Maleic acid
E-18 || Chemistry
42. An ideal gas is one which obeys
(a) Gas laws (b) Boyles laws
(c) Charles law (d) Avogadros law
43. The enzymes are killed
(a) at a very high temperature
(b) during chemical reaction
(c) at low temperature
(d) under atmospheric pressure
44. Which has maximum calorific value?
(a) Fat (b) Protein
(c) Carbohydrate (d) Amino acid
45. In which type of coal percentage of carbon is the
highest?
(a) Peat (b) Lignite
(c) Bituminous (d) Anthracite
46. Blood cells do not shrink in blood because blood
is
(a) hypertonic (b) isotonic
(c) equimolar (d) hypotonic
47. At 30C, which 3 metals are all liquids ?
(a) Hg, Fe, Zn (b) Hg, Sn,Pb
(c) Zn, Pb, Sn (d) Hg,Ga, Cs
48. Alum purifies muddy water by
(a) Absorption (b) Dialysis
(c) Emulsification (d) Coagulation
49. Scattering of light takes place in
(a) electroplating
(b) electrolysis
(c) solution of electrolyte
(d) colloidal solution
50. Which is used in storage batteries?
(a) Copper (b) Lead
(c) Tin (d) Zinc
51. Stainless steel contains
(a) Fe + Cr + Ni (b) Fe + Ni + Cu
(c) Fe + Cr + Cu (d) Fe + C + Ni
52. The gas is commonly used in anaesthesia
(a) methane (b) nitrous oxide
(c) nitrogen (d) hydrogen peroxide
53. The inert gas abundantly found in atmosphere is
(a) Xe (b) Kr
(c) He (d) Ar
54. Which gas is used in filling electric bulbs?
(a) Neon (b) Argon
(c) Radon (d) Krypton
55. Which one of the following is responsible for
blue baby syndrome?
(a) Fluoride (b) Nitrate
(c) Arsenic (d) Lead
56. Oils are purified by
(a) Fractional distillation
(b) Steam distillation
(c) Crystallisation
(d) Vacuum distillation
57. Kerosene is a mixture of
(a) aromatic hydrocarbons
(b) aliphatic hydrocarbons
(c) saturated hydrocarbons
(d) alicyclic hydrocarbons
58. Candles contains a mixture of
(a) Bees wax and paraffin wax
(b) Bees wax and stearic acid
(c) Paraffin wax and stearic acid
(d) Higher fatty acid
59. Which one of the following elements is a
metalloid ?
(a) P (b) Al
(c) As (d) Po
60. Which one of the following noble gases is not
found in the atmosphere?
(a) Argon (b) Krypton
(c) Radon (d) Xenon
61. Which one of the following metals occurs in
nature in free state?
(a) Gold (b) Sodium
(c) Aluminium (d) Copper
62. Which is the rarest naturally occurring element of
earth?
(a) Gold (b) Antimony
(c) Germanium (d) Astatine
63. The deficiency of which one of the following
leads to dental caries?
(a) Iron (b) Copper
(c) Fluorine (d) Zinc
64. Which one among the following equations is
correctly balanced ?
(a) NaOH + Al + H2O 2H2 + NaAlO2
(b) 2NaOH + 2Al + 2H2O 3H2 + 2NaAlO2
(c) 2NaOH + 2Al + 3H2O 4H2 + 2NaAlO2
(d) 2NaOH + 2Al + H2O H2 + 2NaAlO2
 General Science || E-19
65. Which gas is responsible for the swelling of bread? 77. Which one of the following is used as a fertilizer?
(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon monoxide (a) NH4OH (b) NH4Cl
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Ammonia (c) NH4NO3 (d) (NH4)2SO4
66. Which one amongthe following is not a mixture? 78. Which one of the following acids is used for
(a) Graphite (b) Glass etching glass?
(c) Brass (d) Steel (a) H2SO4 (b) HNO3
67. Which of the following is not a nitrogenous (c) HF (d) HCl
fertilizer? 79. Mildness of shaving cream is enriched by which
(a) Ca(CN)2 (b) CaCN2 one of the following?
(c) NH4NO3 (d) Urea (a) Sodium silicate
68. The metal compound commonly found in (b) Free fatty acid
Sindhoor or Kumkum is based on (c) Potassium carbonate
(a) Tin (b) Lead (d) Sodium chloride
(c) Copper (d) Zinc 80. What is iodised table salt?
69. Which among the following elements (metals) (a) An element
pollutes the air of a city having large number of (b) A compound
automobiles? (c) A heterogeneous mixture
(a) Cadmium (b) Lead (d) A homogeneous mixture
(c) Chromium (d) Nickel 81. Which one of the following is not present in
70. In chemical terms, what are alums used for cement?
purifying water for drinking purposes ? (a) Clay (b) Alumina
(a) Hydrated chlorides (c) Alum (d) Gypsum
(b) Double nitrate 82. Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the
(c) Double sulphates plant?
(d) Nitrates of aluminium (a) Super phosphate (b) Nitrolim
71. Which one among the following is used as a (c) Muriate of Potash (d) Humus
moderator in nuclear reactors? 83. Which of the following chemicals is used in foam
(a) Ozone (b) Heavy hydrogen fire extinguishers?
(c) Heavy water (d) Hydrogen peroxide (a) Aluminium sulphate
72. Which among the following is an element? (b) Copper sulphate
(a) Alumina (b) Brass (c) Cobalt sulphate
(c) Graphite (d) Silica (d) Nickel sulphate
73. Which one of the following elements exists in 84. What is the composition of nitrolim a chemical
liquid state at room temperature? fertilizer?
(a) Mercury (b) Lead (a) Nitrogen and limestone
(c) Sodium (d) Calcium (b) Calcium carbide and nitrogen
74. The metal constituent of chlorophyll is (c) Calcium carbide and carbon
(a) Iron (b) Potassium (d) None of these
(c) Manganese (d) Magnesium 85. Which one of the following glasses is used in
75. Which one among the following does not have an bullet proof screens?
allotrope? (a) Soda glass (b) Pyrex glass
(a) Oxygen (b) Sulphur (c) Jena glass (d) Reinforced glass
(c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon 86. Which substance is used to retard the setting
76. The acid in gastricjuice is action of cement?
(a) acetic acid (b) nitric acid (a) CaO (b) Al2O3
(c) hydrochloric acid (d) sulphuric acid (c) CaSO4, 2H2O (d) Na2O + K2O
E-20 || Chemistry
87. What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered
charcoal and sulphur called?
(a) Glass (b) Cement
(c) Paint (d) Gun powder
88. Alum is used as
(a) an analgesic (b) a fertilizer
(c) a disinfectant (d) a purifier for water
89. In surgery, metal pins are used for joining
together broken bones. These metal pins remain
uncorroded in the body. What is the material of
these pins?
(a) Copper (b) Iron
(c) Aluminium (d) Titanium
90. Human stomach produces acid X which helps in
digestion of food. Acid X is
(a) acetic acid (b) methanoic acid
(c) hydrochloric acid (d) citric acid
91. Sometimes, indigestion is caused by the
secretion of too much hydrochloric acid in the
stomach. To ease the pain caused, a tablet can
be taken that reacts to reduce the amount of acid
present. Which one among the following would
be inappropriate for a manufacturer to include as
a major reactant in the tablet?
(a) CaCO3 (b) MgCO3
(c) NaOH (d) Mg(OH)2
92. Tc99m-DTPA (diethylenetriaminepenta-acetic
acid) is used for
(a) brain imaging
(b) pancreatric analysis
(c) total water content in the body
(d) detecting disfunctioning of liver
93. Commonly used antiseptic Dettol is a mixture of
(a) o-chlorophenoxylenol + terepineol
(b) o-cresol + terepineol
(c) phenol + terepineol
(d) chloroxylenol + terepineol
94. Which of the following is used as a preservative
to protect processed food?
(a) Sodium sulphate
(b) Saccharin
(c) BHT (c) Butane
(d) Sodium metabisulphite
95. When a nutrient like fertilizer is present in large
quantities in a water bodies, plants grow and
decay in large numbers because of suffocating of
pond that does not leave enough oxygen needed
to support life. This type of pollution is called
(a) Smog (b) Eutrophication
(c) Green house effect (d) None of these
96. Cobalt (60) isotope is used in the treatment of
(a) heart diseases (b) skin diseases
(c) diabetes (d) cancer
97. Which of the following is an antidiabatic drug?
(a) Insulin (b) Penicillin
(c) Chloroquine (d) Aspirin
98. Which one is a sublime substance?
(a) Table salt (b) Sugar
(c) Iodine (d) Potassium Iodide
99. Carborundum is a compound of
(a) Ca (b) Ge
(c) Si (d) S
100. C11 - L - methyl-methionine is used for
(a) brain tumor and parathyroid imaging
(b) stomach analysis
(c) bone imaging
(d) live imaging
101. The number of protons in a negatively charged
atom (anion) is
(a) more than the atomic number of the element
(b) less than the atomic number of the element
(c) more than the number of elecrons in the
atom
(d) less than the number of electrons in the atom
102. pH of human body varies within the range of
(a) 6.0 to 6.5 (b) 5.5 to 5.8
(c) 7.0 to 7.8 (d) 7.0 to 11.0
103. To protect tooth decay we are advised to brush
our teeth regularly. The nature of the tooth paste
commonly used is
(a) acidic (b) neutral
(c) basic (d) corrosive
104. Petroleum gas is a mixture of ethane, propane and
butane. What is its major constituents?
(a) Ethane
(b) Propane
(d) All three are present in equal propertions
105. LPG is a mixture of
(a) C6H12 + C6H6 (b) C4H10 + C3H8
(c) C2H2 + C2H4 (d) CH4 + C2H4
 General Science || E-21
106. Which of the following could act as a propellant 114. Consider the following statements:
for rockets ? 1. Maximum covalency of carbon is 4, whereas
(a) Liquid oxygen + Liquid argon maximum covalency of silicon is 6.
(b) Liquid hydrogen + Liquid oxygen 2. The maximum covalency of an element is
(c) Liquid nitrogen + Liquid oxygen limited to 6.
(d) Liquid hydrogen + Liquid nitrogen Which of the statements given above is/are
107. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc correct ?
because (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) zinc is costlier than tin (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin 115. The nucleus of a singly ionized carbon atom
(c) zinc is more reactive than tin contains
(d) zinc is less reactive than tin (a) 6 protons and 6 neutrons
108. Silicon is used in (b) 5 protons and 6 neutrons
(a) solar energy devices (c) 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons
(b) semiconductors (d) 12 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons
(c) transistors 116. Which one among the following is the equivalent
(d) All of these weight of sulphuric acid ?
109. In which one of the following is the valence
(Atomic weight : H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)
electronic configuration, ns2np3 found ?
(a) 98 (b) 60
(a) Carbon (b) Oxygen
(c) 100 (d) 49
(c) Nitrogen (d) Argon
117. Which one of the following is the correct
110. Cinnabar is an ore of
statement ? The force binding the nucleons inside
(a) Hg (b) Cu
(c) Pb (d) Zn the nucleus is :
111. The new strain of bacteria produced by biotechnology (a) charge dependent
in alcohol industry is (b) strong and highly repulsive
(a) Escherichia coli (c) a central force
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (d) charge independent
(c) Bacillus subtilis 118. Soap helps in cleaning clothes, because
(d) Pseudomonas putida (a) chemical of soap change
112. Calcium carbonate is naturally available as (b) it increases the surface tension of the
limestone and can also be synthesized from solution
quick lime. It is seen that the compositions of the (c) it absorbs the dirt
elements in both the natural and synthetic calcium (d) it lowers the surface tension of the solution
carbonate are same. The validity of which one 119. Which one of the following mixtures is
among the following laws is confirmed by this homogeneous?
observation? (a) Starch and sugar
(a) Law of conservation of mass (b) Methanol and water
(b) Law of definite proportion (c) Graphite and charcoal
(c) Law of multiple proportion (d) Calcium carbonate and calcium bicarbonate
(d) Avogadro's law 120. What is the term used to denote the critical
113. Which one of the following is the correct temperature at which the air becomes saturated
sequence of the given elements in the increasing with vapour and below which the condensation is
order of their reactivity ? likely to begin ?
(a) Iodine-Bromine-Chlorine-Fluorine (a) Condensation point
(b) Bromine-Iodine-Chlorine-Fluorine (b) Evaporation point
(c) Bromine-Iodine-Fluorine-Chlorine (c) Dew point
(d) Iodine-Bromine-Fluorine-Chlorine (d) Point of critical temperature
E-22 || Chemistry

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 16. (b) 31. (c) 46. (b) 61. (a) 76. (c) 91. (c) 106. (b)
2. (a) 17. (b) 32. (b) 47. (d) 62. (d) 77. (d) 92. (a) 107. (c)
3. (a) 18. (b) 33. (d) 48. (d) 63. (c) 78. (c) 93. (d) 108. (d)
4. (a) 19. (c) 34. (c) 49. (d) 64. (b) 79. (c) 94. (d) 109. (c)
5. (c) 20. (c) 35. (c) 50. (b) 65. (c) 80. (d) 95. (b) 110. (a)
6. (d) 21. (a) 36. (d) 51. (a) 66. (a) 81. (c) 96. (d) 111. (d)
7. (a) 22. (d) 37. (c) 52. (b) 67. (a) 82. (c) 97. (a) 112. (b)
8. (c) 23. (b) 38. (a) 53. (d) 68. (b) 83. (a) 98. (c) 113. (a)
9. (d) 24. (a) 39. (d) 54. (b) 69. (b) 84. (d) 99. (c) 114. (a)
10. (d) 25. (b) 40. (a) 55. (b) 70. (c) 85. (d) 100. (a) 115. (a)
11. (b) 26. (d) 41. (b) 56. (b) 71. (c) 86. (c) 101. (d) 116. (d)
12. (c) 27. (d) 42. (a) 57. (b) 72. (c) 87. (d) 102. (c) 117. (d)
13. (c) 28. (a) 43. (a) 58. (c) 73. (a) 88. (d) 103. (c) 118. (d)
14. (b) 29. (a) 44. (a) 59. (c) 74. (d) 89. (d) 104. (c) 119. (b)
15. (a) 30. (b) 45. (d) 60. (c) 75. (c) 90. (c) 105. (b) 120. (c)

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Ethephon is used to promote pre-harvest
ripening of fruits e.g., tomatoes, sugar beet, fodder
beet, coffee and many other products.
2. (a) Solders are typically made from tin or lead
or a combination of both in the ratio of 63:377
respectively.
3. (a) Natural gas is 95 percent Methane (CH4)Plus
four other hydrocarbons:
Ethane (C2H6) 2.5%, Propane (C3H8) 0.2%, Butane
(C4H10) 0.06%, Pentanes Plus (C5H12 + C10H22)
0.02%.It also contains small amounts of: Nitrogen
(N2) 1.6%, Carbon Dioxide (CO2) 0.7%, Hydrogen
Sulphide (H2S) trace, Water (H2O) trace
4. (a) Pyrethrin is a natural plant derived
substance that comes from the chrysanthemum
cinerariaefolium.
5. (c) Bio gas is primarily a mixture of methane
(CH4) and inert carbon dioxide gas (CO2). However
the name biogas gathers a large variety of gases
resulting from specific treatment processes, starting
from various organic waste - industries, animal or
domestic origin waste, etc.
6. (d) Acid rain is caused by emissions of sulphur
dioxide and nitrogen oxide, which react with the
water molecules in the atmosphere to produce acids.
7. (a) The most abundant element in the universe is
hydrogen, which makes up about 3/4 of all matter!
Helium makes up most of the remaining 25%.
Oxygen is the third most abundant element in the
universe. All of the other elements are relatively
rare.
8. (c) A pungent smell often present near the urinals
is due to ammonia.
9. (d) Vinegar is a liquid consisting mainly of acetic
acid (CH3COOH) and water.
10. (d) Gas laser is used in a laser printer.
11. (b) Graphite, a form of carbon slows down
neutrons hence its name a moderator.
12. (c) Indane gas is a mixture of butane and propane.
13. (c) Stainless steel contain sufficient chromium
to form a passive film of chromium oxide, which
prevents further surface corrosion by blocking
oxygen diffusion to the steel surface and blocks
corrosion from spreading into the metals internal
structure.

14. (b) Rice agriculture is a big source of atmospheric
methane, possibly the biggest of man-made methane
sources.
15. (a) Helium is the nuclear fuel in the sun.
16. (b) The coated end of a match, known as the match
head, contains either phosphorus or phosphorus
sesquisulfide as the active ingredient and gelatin as
a binder.
17. (b) Minerals are inorganic solid.
18. (b) Compounds of bromine have been used as
sedatives, hypnotics, and analgesics.
19. (c) Probably copper which can be found as a
naturally occurring native metal which is sometimes
found in large lumps on the ground. People learned
to make this into copper tools and other things,
although, for a metal, it is quite soft. When it was
melted over fire, people learned how to make an
alloy called bronze, which is much harder and
stronger than copper.
20. (c) Alcoholic fermentation, is a biological
process in which sugars such as glucose, fructose,
and sucrose are converted into cellular energy and
thereby produce ethanol and carbon dioxide as
metabolic waste products.
21. (a) Milk is a mixture composed of water, along
with fat and sugar.
22. (d) Sulphur, sugar, nitrogen are non-metal.
23. (b) The force between protons and neutrons in the
nucleus is short range strong interaction.
24. (a) A detergent is a cleansing agent.
25. (b) In one of their most well-known experiments,
which took place while Rutherford was a professor
at the University of Manchester, the physicists
beamed alpha particles at a thin sheet of gold foil.
During the experiment, most of the particles passed
through the gold foil onto the screen behind it, but
some were deflected. Rutherford determined that
the particles that made up the gold foil must consist
mostly of empty space since most of the alpha
particles passed through. However, some regions
of the gold must have been too dense to allow the
alpha particles through, and this heavy part of the
atom was what Rutherford called the nucleus. He
concluded that it was the nucleus that held most of
the atoms mass.
26. (d) An orbital is the area around an atom where
the electron (or electrons) are most likely to be. (90-
95% likely)
General Science || E-23
27. (d) Meson was discovered by Yukawa.
28. (a) The correct frequency order is radio waves
< microwaves < x-rays < cosmic rays
29. (a) Infra red radiation has the longest wavelength
out of these choices, and hence the lowest frequency.
Gamma radiation has the shortest wavelength and
the highest frequency.
30. (b) Isotopes have same atomic number (A) but
different atomic mass (Z). Hence the value of
neutrons (Z-A) will be different.
31. (c) Species containing same number of electrons
are called Isoelectronics.
32. (b) Natural Radio activity was discovered by
Becquerel.
33. (d) A radioactive substance emits alpha, beta and
gamma particles.
34. (c) Yellow cake is a solid form of mixed uranium
oxide, which is produced from uranium ore in the
uranium recovery (milling) process.
35. (c) Gamma radiation, also known as gamma rays,
are electromagnetic radiation of extremely high
frequency.
36. (d) G.M. counter is a device used for the
measurement of radioactivity.
37. (c) Given half life (t1/2) = 4 months
Hence the amount of a radioactive substance
remains half after 4 months. Hence, 3/4th of a
substance would decay in two half lives i.e., 8
months.
38. (a) Rusting is a chemical process that results in
corrosion or oxidation when oxygen metal comes in
contact with a metal.
39. (d) Uric acid is present in the urine of mammals.
40. (a) Exposure of common salt to air is a physical
change.
41. (b) Ascorbic acid is the source of Vitamin-C.
42. (a) A gas that, when kept at a constant temperature,
would obey the gas laws exactly.
43. (a) At a very high temperature they become
denatured i.e. they can no longer perform the action
that they were created to do.
44. (a) Fat has maximum calorific value.
45. (d) Anthracite coal has the highest percentage of
carbon among the different types of coal.
46. (b) When the osmotic pressure outside the red
blood cells is the same as the pressure inside the
cells, the solution is isotonic with respect to the
cytoplasm. This is the usual condition of red blood
cells in plasma. Hence the cells do not shrink.
E-24 || Chemistry
47. (d) At room temperature (30C), Hg, Ga, Cs
metals are liquids.
48. (d) Aluminium Sulphate, also known as Alum,
when added to water reacts with the bicarbonate
alkalinities present in water and forms a gelatinous
precipitate. This floc attracts other fine particles and
suspended material in water, and settles down at the
bottom of the container.
49. (d) Scattering of light takes place in colloidal
solution.
50. (b) Lead is used in storage batteries.
51. (a) Chemically, stainless steels are 75 90% iron.
They are alloyed with varying amounts of chromium,
nickel, and/or molybdenum.
52. (b) Nitrous oxide is commonly used in anaesthesia.
53. (d) Argon (Ar) makes up 0.9 percent of the
atmosphere.
54. (b) Electric bulbs are filled with argon gas because
this gas is able to burn very intensely and produce
bright light.
55. (b) Blue Baby Syndrome is an illness that begins
when large amounts of nitrates in water are ingested
by an infant and converted to nitrite by the digestive
system. The nitrite then reacts with oxyhemoglobin
to form methemoglobin, which cannot carry oxygen.
If a large enough amount of methemoglobin is
formed in the blood, body tissues may be deprived
of oxygen, causing the infant to develop a blue
coloration of their mucous membranes and possibly
digestive and respiratory problems. This condition
is also known as methemoglobinemia.
56. (b) Oils are purified by steam distillation.
57. (b) Kerosene is a mixture of Aliphatic-
hydrocarbons.
58. (c) Candles contain a mixture of paraffin wax and
stearic acid.
59. (c) As (Arsenic) is a metalloid. In this group both
As and Sb are metalloids.
60. (c) Radon (Rn) is not found in the atmosphere.
61. (a) Gold is a stable noble metal and resists the
action of the atmosphere and occurs in free state.
62. (d) It is a radioactive element.
64. (b) Sodium hydroxide, aluminium and water reacts
to form sodium aluminium oxide and hydrogen gas.
65. (c) Carbon dioxide is responsible for swelling of
bread.
66. (a) Graphite is an allotrope of carbon. Hence this
is an element not mixture.
67. (a) Except Ca(CN)2 all are nitrogenous fertilizers.
68. (b) Pb3O4 commonly known as red lead is used as
sindhoor.
69. (b) Tetra ethyl lead (C2H5)4Pb is used as an
antiknock compound. It is mixed with petrol to
improve its quality. Therefore automobile exhausts
lead, which pollutes city.
70. (c) Alum is double sulphates having the
composition M2SO4. M2(SO4)3. 24H2O.
Where M stands for monovalent basic radicals.
Alums have Germicide properties and thus used in
purification of water.
71. (c) In nuclear reactor heavy water (D2O) used
to slow down the speed of neutron i.e., act as
moderator.
72. (c) Graphite is an allotrope of carbon. Alumina
(Al2O3) and silica (SiO2) are oxides and Brass is an
alloy of Cu and Zn.
73. (a) Mercury exists in liquid state at room
temperature.
74. (d) Chlorophyll is a chlorine pigment in which at
the centre of the chlorine ring is a magnesium ion.
Chlorine ring also bears a long phytol chain.
75. (c) Unstable allotropes of nitrogen consisting
of more than two nitrogen atoms have been
produced in the laboratory, like N3 and N4[1].
Under extremely high pressures (1.1 million atm)
and high temperatures (2000 K), as produced under
diamond anvil conditions, nitrogen polymerizes
into the single bonded diamond crystal structure, an
allotrope nicknamed nitrogen diamond.
77. (d) (NH4)2 SO4 is known as Sindri fertilizer. It
is colourless and highly soluble in water. NH4NO3
is also used as a fertilizer by mixing with other
substances like nitro chalk NH4NO3 + CaCO3,
Luena saltpetre NH4NO3 + (NH4)2SO4
78. (c) Hydrofluoric acid (HF) is used in the etching
of glass.
79. (c) Mildness of shaving cream is enriched by
potassium carbonate.
80. (d) Iodised table salt is homogeneous mixture.
81. (c) Gypsum is added in calculated quantity in
order to adjust the rate of setting of cement. Alum is
NOT present in cement.
82. (c) Muriate of potash is assimilated directly by the
plant.

83. (a) Aluminium sulphate is used in foam fire
extinguishers, which contains radium bicarbonate
and aluminium sulphate in separate receptacles on
being mixed they form the foam of bubbles of CO2.
84. (d) Calcium cyanamide (CaCN2) mixed with
carbon (C) is called nitrolim.
CaC2 + N 2 CaCN 2 + C
110. (a) Cinnabar is HgS.
Cal.Carbide
Nitro lim
85. (d) Reinforced glass is used in bullet proof covers.
86. (c) CaSO4. 2H2O (Gypsum) is added to cement
clinker to retard setting action of cement.
87. (d) Gun powder is a powdered explosive
containing potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal
and sulphur.
88. (d) Alum is used to purify water, as it has the
property to coagulate mud particles. It is also
antiseptic in nature.
89. (d) Ti metal is important for its strength,
low density and corrosion resistance. It has
bitter corrosion resistance and less reactivity
than aluminium. Hence, Titanium pins remains
uncorroded in the body.
90. (c) Hydrochloric acid secreted by oxyntic cell
activates proenzyme pepsinogen to pepsin and also
provides the acidic pH optimal for pepsins.
91. (c) Calcium carbonate, magnesium carbonate and
magnesium hydroxide are important chemicals used
in the making of antacids to reduce indigestion.
93. (d) The mixture of chloroxylenol and terepineol
are dettol which is used as antiseptic.
96. (d) Cobalt (60) isotope is used in the treatment of
cancer.
97. (a) Insulin is an antidiabatic drug.
98. (c) Iodine is a sublimate.
99. (c) Carborundum is silicon carbide.
101. (d) In case of a neutral atom
Number of protons = Number of electrons
Anion is formed by gain of electron (s) by a neutral
atom. Thus in case of anion.
Number of electrons > Number of protons
104. (c) Its main constituent is butane which burns
giving off a lot of heat. Butane is easily liquefied
under high pressure.
105. (b) LPG is a mixture of C4H10 (Butane), C3H8
(propane) and C2H6 (ethane). Main constituent is
butane (C4H10).
General Science || E-25
106. (b) Liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen are used as
excellent fuel for rockets. H2(l) has low mass and
high enthalpy of combustion whereas oxygen is a
strong supporter of combustion.
109. (c) Nitrogen (Z = 7) has the electronic configuration
1s2 2s2 2px1 2py1 2pz1 (i.e. ns2 np3)
112. (b) According to law of definite proportion, a
chemical compound is always found to be made up
of the same element combined together in the same
fixed proportion by mass.
113. (a) Reactivity of halogens decreases as we move
down the group. i.e. fluorine is most reactive and
iodine is least reactive, since there is successive
increase in size, decrease in electronegativity and
decrease in dissociation energy of X-X bonds.
114. (a) Carbon and Silicon both is belongs to IVth
group and carbon have maximum valency of 4.
C : 2, 4
Si : 2, 8, 4
But Si have vacant d-orbitals and can be used to
accomodate more electrons. Thus, the maximum
covalency of Si can be 6.
115. (a) The charged carbon atom in a carbocation is
a "sextet", i.e. it has only six electrons in its outer
valence shell instead of the eight valence electrons
that ensures maximum stability (octet rule).
Therefore carbocations are often reactive, seeking
to fill the octet of valence electrons as well as regain
a neutral charge.
116. (d) H2 SO4 1 + 32 + 16 = 49
117. (d) Nuclear forces between protons and protons
between neutrons and neutrons and between
protons and neutrons are all essentially the same in
magnitude. Thus, we can say that nuclear forces are
charge independent.
118. (d) Soap helps to lower the surface tension of
solution, thus soap get stick to the dust particles and
grease and these are removed by action of water.
119. (b) A mixture of methanol (a liquid) and water
(a liquid) is homogeneous.
120. (c) The critical temperature at which air becomes
saturated with vapour and below which the
condensation is likely to begin is called a dew point.
 3 Biology
Botany
1. Who of the following is known as the Father of
Biology?
(a) Darwin (b) Lamarck
(c) Aristotle (d) Theophrastus
2. Who of the following is known as the Father of
Botany?
(a) Darwin (b) Lamarck
(c) Carolus Linnaeus (d) Theophrastus
3. Which of the following is known as the Father of
Indian Botany?
(a) Birbal Shahni (b) K.C. Mehta
(c) William Roxburgh
(d) T. Sadashivam
4. Who is called the Father of Taxonomy?
(a) Aristotle (b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Theophrastus (d) Lamarck
5. The Indian Botanical Garden is located at :
(a) Lucknow (b) Kolkata
(c) Delhi (d) Allahabad
6. The study of Annual Rings is called
(a) Dendrology (b) Dendrochronology
(c) Morphology (d) Horticulture
7. The study of the internal structure of the plants is
called
(a) Taxonomy (b) Agronomy
(c) Anatomy (d) Morphology
8. The branch of botany under which fungi is studied :
(a) Phycology (b) Mycology
(c) Ethology (d) Microbiology
9. lichens are indicators of
(a) Air pollution (b) Water pollution
(c) Soil pollution (d) Radiation pollution
10. The biofertilizer used for the paddy crops is
(a) Blue-green algae
(b) Rhizobium species
(c) Fungal root fungal
(d) Azetobactor species
11. The unicellular alga used to supply and regulate
the oxygen in space programmes is
(a) Spyrogyra (b) Chlorella
(c) Ulothrix (d) Odogonium
12. In which of the following chlorophyll does not
exist?
(a) Algae (b) Fungi
(c) Bryophytes (d) Pteridophytes
13. The red colour of the red sea is due to the presence
of :
(a) Moss (b) Bacteria
(c) Algae (d) Fungi
14. Lichen is a composite combination of two
organisms.
(a) Fungi and Bryophyta
(b) Fungi and Fern
(c) Algae and Bryophyta
(d) Algae and Fungi
15. The litmus paper utilized in the chemical
laboratories is made of :
(a) Fern (b) Algae
(c) Lichen (d) Fungi

16. Commercial agar agar is obtained from
(a) Chlorella (b) Gracilaria
(c) Porphyro (d) Volvox
17. Azolla is a
(a) Algae (b) Fungi
(c) Bryophyta (d) Aqueous fern
18. Which of the following is used as an ornamental
plant?
(a) Psilotum (b) Lycopodium
(c) Selaginella (d) Pteris
19. Which of the following bears naked seeds?
(a) Angiosperms (b) Gymnosperms
(c) Bryophytes (d) Pteridophytes
20. Which of the following is a living fossil?
(a) Cycas (b) Pinus
(c) Sellaginella (d) Cidrus
21. Chilgoza is obtained from
(a) Cycas (b) Pinus
(c) Sellaginella (d) Ginkgo
22. Sago is obtained from
(a) Cycas (b) Pinus
(c) Cedrus (d) Juniperus
23. The age of trees is estimated by
(a) their heights
(b) their weights
(c) their elongation of roots
(d) counting the number of annual rings
24. Which of the following gas is necessary for the
process of photosynthesis?
(a) O2 (b) CO
(c) N2 (d) CO2
25. Which of the following metals is found in the
chlorophyll?
(a) Iron (b) Magnesium
(c) Zinc (d) Cobalt
26. The gas released during the photosynthesis by the
green plants is
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Water vapour (d) Carbon dioxide
General Science || E-27
27. The photosynthesis occurs in the
(a) Day (b) Night
(c) Day and Night (d) None of these
28. The device to measure transpiration in plants is
(a) Hygrometer (b) Crescometer
(c) Potometer (d) Clinometer
29. The process of evaporation occurs from
(a) Root (b) Stem
(c) Leaf (d) Entire plants surface
30. At which region of the electromagnetic spectrum
do the plants photosynthesise?
(a) Red and Blue (b) Green and Yellow
(c) Blue and Orange (d) Violet and Orange
31. Which of the following is the cellular respiratory
centre?
(a) Nucleus (b) Mitochondria
(c) Ribosome (d) Golgi body
32. Which of the following is a plant hormone?
(a) Adreneline (b) Insuline
(c) Oxytocin (d) Auxin
33. The water and mineral salts are transported to the
various organs by which of the following?
(a) Xylem (b) Phloem
(c) Cortex (d) Cambium
34. The food material prepared in the plants is
transported to the various organs by which of the
following?
(a) Xylem (b) Phloem
(c) Cortex (d) Cambium
35. The device to measure the rate of stem growth is
(a) Hydrometer (b) Hygrometer
(c) Auxanometer (d) Potometer
36. The suitable conditions in which the rate of
evaporation occurs more fastly are
(a) Low speed of wind
(b) High humidity
(c) Low humidity and high temperature
(d) Excess amount of water in the soil
E-28 || Biology
37. Turpentine oil is extracted from
(a) Nettle (b) Cycas
(c) Teak (d) Pine
38. Coffee is extracted from the
(a) Flowers (b) Seeds
(c) Leaves (d) Fruits
39. Process by which plants prepare their food is
(a) Carbohydrolysis (b) Metabolic synthesis
(c) Photosynthesis (d) Photorespiration
40. In photosynthesis
(a) Light energy is converted into chemical
energy
(b) Chemical energy is converted into light
energy
(c) Chemical energy is converted into electrical
energy
(d) Light energy is converted into mechanical
energy
41. Which of the following organelles of a cell is
involved in photosynthesis?
(a) Chloroplast (b) Mitochondria
(c) Golgi bodies 53. Gregor Johann Mendel worked on
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
42. The ultimate cause of water movement in a plant
stem against gravity is
(a) Osmosis (b) Photosynthesis
(c) Transpiration (d) Diffusion
43. A seed is ripened :
(a) Ovary (b) Flower
(c) Gynoecium (d) Ovule
44. Which among the following is not a true fruit?
(a) Apple (b) Date
(c) Grape (d) Plum
45. Which part of the pear is edible?
(a) Fleshy thalamus (b) Spores
(c) Endosperm (d) Mesocarp
46. Which of the following plants produce only seeds
but no fruit?
(a) Sugarcane (b) Peanut
(c) Cycas (d) Almond
47. Epiphytes are plants which depend on other
plants for
(a) Food (b) Mechanical support
(c) Shade (d) Water
48. Plants which grow in saline soil are
(a) Xerophytes (b) Hydrophytes
(c) Halophytes (d) Lithophytes
49. Plants which grow on rocks are known as
(a) Mesophytes (b) Lithophytes
(c) Sclerophytes (d) Oxylophytes
50. Which of the following is a good source of
protein?
(a) Pea (b) Pigeon Pea
(c) Black Gram (d) Soyabean
51. Bamboo is classified as
(a) Tree (b) Grass
(c) Shrub (d) Herb
52. Tallest terrestrial tree on the earth is :
(a) Deodar (b) Eucalyptus
(c) Sequoia (d) Pine
(a) Edible pea (b) Wild pea
(c) Garden pea (d) Pigeon pea
54. Cloves, used as a spice are derived from which of
the following plant parts?
(a) Seeds (b) Fruits
(c) Flower buds (d) Leaves
55. Quinine is obtained from which part of the plant?
(a) Roots (b) Stem
(c) Leaves (d) Bark
56. Which plants leaves are used to make outer wrap
of beedi?
(a) Cinchona (b) Tendu
(c) Opium (d) Areca
57. Saffron is obtained from which part of plants?
(a) Roots (b) Stem
(c) Leaves (d) Stigma and Style

58. Photosynthesis using the invisible part of the
sunlight is done by
(a) Trees (b) Algae
(c) Fungi (d) Bacteria
59. Apart from quinine, which one of the following
herbal drug is used to cure malaria?
(a) Arteether (b) Glace
(c) Lutivit (d) Cineraria
60. Which one of the following is a rich source of
iron?
(a) Carrot (b) Pea
(c) Rice (d) Spinach
61. The chief constituent of cotton is
(a) Protein (b) Fatty acid
(c) Cellulose (d) Glycerine
62. Golden rice has the highest quantity of
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K
63. Which of the following leguminous plant is also
a petro plant?
(a) Pigeon pea (b) Pea
(c) Gram (d) Pongamia
64. Pneumatophores are present in
(a) Mangrove plants responsible for fruit ripening?
(b) Epiphytic plants
(c) Hydrophytic plants (c) Ethylene (d) None of these
(d) Insectivores plants
65. Xylem tissue is mainly concerned with the
(a) Photosynthesis of plants
(b) Transport of water and mineral nutrients in
plants
(c) Storage of prepared foods in plants
(d) Transport of enzymes in plants
66. Which one of the following is a useful functional
association between fungi and the roots of higher
plants?
(a) Biofertilizer (b) Coralloid root
(c) Lichen (d) Mycorrhiza
General Science || E-29
67. Which one of the following is not an essential
micronutrient for plants?
(a) Boron (b) Zinc
(c) Sodium (d) Copper
68. Which one of the following is an active
component of oil of clove?
(a) Menthol (b) Eugenol
(c) Menthanol (d) Benzaldehyde
69. Noscapine is obtained from
(a) Poppy (b) Basil
(c) Eucalyptus (d) Ephedra
70. The hotness or pungency of chili pepper is due to
(a) Cucumin (b) Sorbitol
(c) Argenol (d) Capsaicin
71. Which one of the following is not a carnivorous
plant?
(a) Heliamphora sp. (b) Drosera sp.
(c) Nepenthes sp. (d) Thymus sp.
72. Censor mechanism of dispersal of seeds is found
in
(a) Pea (b) Poppy
(c) Cotton (d) Maize
73. Kuttu flour is obtained from
(a) Tapioca (b) Fagopyrum
(c) Plantago (d) Eleusine
74. Which of the following plant hormone is mainly
(a) Cytokinin (b) Abscissic acid
75. Which one of the following is the longest flower
in the world?
(a) Lotus (b) Sunflower
(c) Rafflesia (d) Glory Lily
76. The common wheat is
(a) Triticum aestivum
(b) Oryza sativa
(c) Pennisetum setaceum
(d) Hordeum vulgare
77. Coconut water, is teachnically
(a) pericarp (b) endosperm
(c) Siutellum (d) soft drink
E-30 || Biology
78. A characteristic odour of garlic is due to
(a) a chloro compound (a) an arthropod (b) an echionoderm
(b) a fluarine compound
(c) a sulphur compound
(d) acetic acid
79. Mushrooms is a
(a) fungus (b) alga
(c) fern (d) moss
Zoology
80. The normal temperature of human body on the
Kelvin scale is
(a) 280K (b) 290K
(c) 300K (d) 310K
81. The only snake that builds a nest is
(a) Chain viper (b) King cobra
(c) Krait (d) Saw-scaled viper
82. Which of the following harmones contains Iodine ?
(a) Thyroxine (b) Testosterone
(c) Insulin (d) Adrenaline
83. Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called
(a) Carotid arteries (b) Hepatic arteries
(c) Coronary arteries (d) Pulmonary arteries
84. Antigen is a substance which
(a) lowers body temperature
(b) destroys harmful bacteria
(c) triggers the immune system
(d) is used as an antidote to poison
85. Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus
contains DNA ?
(a) Centriole (b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Lysosome (d) Mitrochondrion
86. When one gene controls two or more different
characters simultaneously, the phenomenon is
called
(a) Apomixis (b) Pleiotropy
(c) Polyploidy (d) Polyteny
87. Which one of the following is monogamous ?
(a) Wolf (b) Walrus
(c) Seal (d) Deer
88. Octopus is
(c) a hemichordate (d) a molluscs
89. The hormone insulin is a
(a) glycolipid (b) fatty acid
(c) peptide (d) sterol
90. In which organ of the human body are the
lymphocytes formed ?
(a) Liver (b) Bone marrow
(c) Pancreas (d) Spleen
91. In human body, which one of the following
harmones regulates blood calcium and phosphate ?
(a) Glucagon
(b) Growth harmone
(c) Parathyroid harmone
(d) Thyroxine
92. In the human beings, normally in which one of
the following parts, does the sperm fertilize the
ovum ?
(a) Cervix
(b) Fallopian tube
(c) Lower part of uterus
(d) Upper part of uterus
93. Which one of the following parts of human
brain is the regulating centre for swallowing and
vomiting ?
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Cortex
94. Production of which one of the following is
associated with the function of the liver ?
(a) Lipase (b) Urea
(c) Mucus (d) Hydrochloric acid
95. Which one of the following is not a digestive
enzyme in the human system ?
(a) Trypsin (b) Gastrin
(c) Ptyalin (d) Pepsin
96. In the human body, the appendix is attached to
(a) the large intestine
(b) the small intestine
(c) the gall bladder
(d) the stomach

97. Which of the following does not have a gall
bladder ?
(a) Camel (b) Giraffe
(c) Rat (d) Fish
98. Which one of the following does not have sex-
chromosome?
(a) Monkey (b) Tiger
(c) Butterfly (d) Lizard
99. Neelgai belongs to the following family
(a) Cow (b) Goat
(c) Sheep (d) Deer
100. Who described of a non-bacterial pathogen or
virus for the first time?
(a) Stockman (b) Ivonowasky
(c) Stanley (d) Smith
101. Which of the following does not have any
enzymes in its cells ?
(a) Algae (b) Virus
(c) Lichen (d) Bacteria
102. The virus is
(a) protein and lipid
(b) nucleic acid and protein
(c) lipid and carbohydrate (a) Orology (b) Osteology
(d) carbohydrate
103. Which of the following has the largest number of
chromosomes ?
(a) Human beings (b) Pteridophytes
(c) Elephants (d) Bryophytes
104. The pollination by snail is called
(a) Zoophily (b) Entomophily
(c) Chiropteriphily (d) Malacophily
105. Which of the following vitamins acts like
hormone ?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
106. The theory of mutation was propounded by
(a) De-vries (b) Malpighi
(c) Robert Hooke (d) Pasteur
107. The word gene was firstly used by
(a) Waldare (b) Watson
(c) Crick (d) Johannsen
General Science || E-31
108. Who discovered genetic material ?
(a) Crick and Watson
(b) Avery Mclood
(c) Friedrich Miescher
(d) Federik Meischer
109. The phenomenon of genetic mutation can not
occur in
(a) DNA (b) RNA
(c) chromosome (d) ribosome
110. The main function of the Golgi body is
(a) respiration
(b) to begin cell division
(c) to produce gastric juice
(d) secretion
111. When we consume the goat or sheep beef then we
are
(a) primary consumer
(b) secondary consumer
(c) tertiary consumer
(d) None of the above
112. The study of bones is done under the branch of
science called
(c) Seromology (d) Geology
113. The study related to the fishes is called
(a) Cryptology (b) Sicrotology
(c) Ichthyology (d) Lepidopterology
114. Who propounded the theory of Jumping-gene ?
(a) G.J. Mendel (b) Thomas Hunt
(c) Mc Clintock (d) Heneric Hertz
115. The scientist who firstly explained about the
blood circulation
(a) A. Leeuwenhoek (b) William Harvey
(c) J.G. Mendel (d) Ronald Ros
116. The first heart transplantation was performed by
(a) Dr. W. Harbe (b) Sir F.G. Hafkin
(c) Dr. Louis Pasteur (d) Dr. C. Barnard
117. The structure of double helix of DNA was
described by
(a) Dr. M. Soha (b) Dr. S. Hawking
(c) Watson and Crick (d) Dr. A. Fleming
E-32 || Biology
118. In human the thickest skin is present in
(a) palm (b) sole
(c) neck (d) head
119. The 1968 Nobel prize for Physiology or Medicine
was shared by Holley, Khorana and Nirenberg,
for
(a) discovery of tRNA (a) 212 (b) 206
(b) genetic code
(c) genetic structure 130. The bone of the which organ is the longest in the
(d) meiosis
120. Which of the following is not the vestigial human
organ ?
(a) Tailbone (b) Eardrum muscles
(c) Frontal teeth (d) Appendix
121. Which of the following does not have blood but
undergoes respiration ?
(a) Cockroach (b) Snail
(c) Hydra (d) Kangaroo
122. Which of the following is also called Jelly-Fish ?
(a) Hydra (b) Physelia
(c) Aurelia (d) Matrideam
123. The Devil fish belongs to the genus of
(a) Pyla (b) Cipia
(c) Teridi (d) Mobula
124. The sea horse belongs to the class of
(a) fishes (b) mammals
(c) reptiles (d) mollusc
125. Which of the following is cold blooded ?
(a) Fish (b) Frog
(c) Lizard (d) All of these
126. Which one among the following is not a living
fossil ?
(a) Elephant Shrew (b) Ginkgo
(c) Stromatolite (d) Diplodocus
127. Which one among the following is the fastest
growing plant in the world ?
(a) Populus tremuleides
(b) Armillaria ostoyae
(c) Macrocystis pyrifera
(d) Macropanesthia rhinoceros
128. The number of chambers found in mammals
heart is :
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
129. The total number of bones found in newly born
human body?
(c) 202 (d) 300
human body?
(a) Spinal cord (b) Thigh
(c) Rib cage (d) Ankle-bone
131. The hormone which stimulates the stomach for
the production of digestive juice is
(a) Gastrin (b) Trysin
(c) Secretin (d) Pepsin
132. The site of RBC formation in human body is
(a) heart (b) spleen
(c) liver (d) bone marrow
133. Who was the discoverer of human blood groups?
(a) Landsteiner (b) Livine
(c) Vinear (d) Leeuwenhoek
134. Which of the following blood group is called
universal donor ?
(a) A+ (b) B+
+
(c) O (d) AB+
135. Which part of the human brain regulates sleep ?
(a) Medulla oblongata
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Pineal gland
(d) Pituitary gland
136. The leading probiotic drink yakult contains which
of the following bacterium ?
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Lactobacillus casei
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(d) Lactobacillus plantarum
137. The organ of the human body which stores the
carbohydrates in the form of glycogen is
(a) intestine (b) stomach
(c) pancreas (d) liver

Diseases
138. The organ of the human body directly affected by
the disease of hepatitis is
(a) Liver (b) Lungs
(c) Heart (d) Brain
139. Which one of the following disease is not caused
by virus ?
(a) Polio (b) Rabies
(c) Small pox (d) Diphtheria
140. Of the following, ELISA test is performed to test
(a) Diabetes (b) Tuberculosis
(c) AIDS (d) Syphilis
141. The radio-isotope used to detect blood-clots in
the circulatory system is
(a) Arsenic-74 (b) Cobalt-60
(c) I-131 (d) Sodium-24
142. Keeping pigs away from human settlements helps
in the eradication of
(a) Malaria 152. What is MRI?
(b) Japanese encephalitis
(c) Elephantiasis (b) Magnetic Recording of Investigations
(d) Polio
143. Which one of the following human organs is less
susceptible to harmful radiations ?
(a) Eyes (b) Heart
(c) Brain (d) Lungs
144. Artemisinin, a drug to cure malaria is obtained
from a
(a) Seed plant (b) Fungus
(c) Bacterium (d) Moss
145. The Minamata disease of Japan in 1953 was
caused by eating fish contaminated with
(a) Nickel (b) Lead
(c) Mercury (d) Cadmium
146. The disease caused by swelling of the membrane
over spinal cord and brain is
(a) Leukaemia (b) Paralysis
(c) Sclerosis (d) Meningitis
General Science || E-33
147. Emphysema is a disease caused by environmental
pollution in which the affected organ of the body is
(a) Liver (b) Kidney
(c) Lungs (d) Brain
148. The mad cow disease is caused by
(a) Bacteria (b) Viruses
(c) Fungus (d) Prions
149. The National institute for the visually handicapped
is situated at
(a) Kolkata (b) Dehradun
(c) Mumbai (d) Hyderabad
150. The year 2011 has been marked for the livestock
disease named
(a) Foot mouth disease
(b) Rinderpest
(c) Rabies
(d) Cowpox
151. Which of the following decrease in number in the
human body due to Dengue fever ?
(a) Platelets (b) Haemoglobin
(c) Sugar (d) Water
(a) Magnetic Record of Intestines
(c) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(d) Magnetic Resonance in Intestines
153. Which of the following disease is caused by
Vitamin B3?
(a) Berry - berry (b) Night blindness
(c) Rickets (d) Pellagra
154. Salks vaccine is connected with which one of the
following diseases?
(a) Small pox (b) Tetanus
(c) T.B. (d) Polio
155. Which of the following is a substance available
in small quantity in the sea and administered in a
certain deficiency disease ?
(a) Iron (b) Vitamin A
(c) Fluorine (d) Iodine
156. In countries where polished rice is the main
cereal in their diet, people suffer from
(a) Pellagra (b) Beri-beri
(c) Scurvy (d) Osteomalacia
E-34 || Biology
157. Accumulation of which one of the following in
the muscles leads to fatigue?
(a) Lactic acid (b) Benzoic acid
(c) Pyruvic acid (d) Uric acid
158. Anosmia is
(a) Loss of the sense of taste
(b) Loss of the sense of smell
(c) Loss of the sense of touch
(d) Loss of the sense of heat
159. AIDS is caused by
(a) bacteria (b) fungus
(c) helminth (d) virus
160. BMD testing is done to diagnose
(a) Dengue (b) Malaria
(c) Osteoporosis (d) AIDS
161. The mirror used by a dentist to examine the teeth
of patients is
(a) Concave (b) Convex
(c) Plane (d) Cylindrical
162. Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work
mainly in
(a) Tanneries (b) Coal mines
(c) Distilleries (d) Glass industry
163. Foot and Mouth disease in animals, a current
epidemic in some parts of the world, is caused by
(a) Bacterium (b) Fungus
(c) Protozoan (d) Virus
164. Athletes Foot is a disease caused by 172. Itai-Itai disease is caused by chronic poisoning of
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungus
(c) Protozoan (d) Nematode
165. Which one of the following genetic diseases is
sex linked ?
(a) Haemophilia (a) Appendicitis (b) Viral hepatitis
(b) Tay-sachs disease
(c) Cystic fibrosis 174. Which of the following parasites is responsible
(d) Hypertension
166. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to
(a) Decrease in haemoglobin level
(b) Rheumatic heart disease
(c) Decrease in WBC
(d) Non-clotting of blood
167. Of the four land marks in medical history given
below, which one was the first to take place ?
(a) Organ transplant
(b) Bypass surgery
(c) Test tube baby
(d) Plastic surgery
168. According to the World Health Organisation,
the disease which caused the death of the largest
number of people in 2011, was
(a) AIDS
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Malaria
(d) Ischaenic heart diseases
169. Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs
is suitable for treatment of both tuberculosis and
leprosy ?
(a) Isoniazid
(b) P-amino salicylic acid
(c) Streptomycin
(d) Rifampicin
170. Which of the following disease is caused by
Protozoa ?
(a) Malaria (b) Cholera
(c) Jaundice (d) None of these
171. Which of the following vitamin is effective in
blood clotting ?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K
(a) Mercury (b) Nickel
(c) Cadmium (d) Lead
173. Which of the following disease is caused by the
excessive consumption of alcoholic beverage ?
(c) Gall stones (d) Liver cirrhosis
for 65% of the cases of Malaria in India ?
(a) P. malariae (b) P. vivax
(c) P. falciparum (d) P. ovale
175. Rabies is caused by
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungus
(c) Virus (d) Protozoan

176. Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation
therapy to treat
(a) enlarged prostate gland
(b) gall bladder stones
(c) certain type of cancer
(d) kidney stones
177. In which part of the eye, blind spot and yellow
spot are found ?
(a) Cornea (b) Lens
(c) Iris (d) Retina
178. The disease in which high levels of uric acid in
the blood is detected
(a) Meningitis (b) Gout
(c) Rheumatism (d) Rheumatic heart
179. During dehydration, the substance that is usually
lost by the body is
(a) Sugar (c) HIV 1C (d) HIV 1D
(b) Calcium phosphate
(c) Sodium chloride (a) N5H1 (b) NH5
(d) Potassium chloride
180. Which of the following disease is caused by
bacteria ?
(a) Athletes foot (b) Tuberculosis
(c) Ringworm (d) Thrush
181. Death by diarrhoea in children is caused mainly
by
(a) bacteria (b) protozoa
(c) amoeba (d) fungus
182. Diseases of which of the following pairs are
caused by virus?
(a) Malaria and Polio
(b) Polio and Bird Flu
(c) Polio and Tuberculosis controlled by vaccination ?
(d) Tuberculosis and Influenza
183. The liver disease Hepatitis-B is caused by
(a) DNA virus (b) RNA virus
(c) Bacterium (d) Platyhelminth
184. The radio isotope used to control blood cancer
(leukaemia) is
(a) Iodine-131 (b) Sodium-24
(c) Phosphorus-32 (d) Cobalt-60
General Science || E-35
185. The radio isotope used to detect tumours is
(a) Iodine-131 (b) Cobalt-60
(c) Arsenic-74 (d) Sodium-24
186. The blue baby pollution disease is due to the
excessive presence of which of the following in
drinking water ?
(a) Fluoride (b) Chloride
(c) Nitrate (d) Arsenic
187. Which of the following is not included in AYUSH
Department under the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare of the Govt. of India?
(a) Allopathy (b) Ayurveda
(c) Unani (d) Sidhi
188. Which of the following strains of H.I.V. is
dominant in India?
(a) HIV 1A (b) HIV 1B
189. Which of the following is a bird flu virus?
(c) HN5 (d) H5N1
190. Which of the following drugs has been recently
reported to be responsible for the decline of the
population of Vultures?
(a) Aspirin (b) Chloroquine
(c) Diclofenac sodium (d) Penicillin
191. AIDS is the short form of which of the following
diseases ?
(a) Acquired Immune Deformity Syndrome
(b) Anticipated Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(c) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(d) Abnormal Immune Deficiency Syndrome
192. Which one of the following diseases can not be
(a) Diabetes
(b) Polio
(c) Whooping cough
(d) Small pox
193. Where the High Security Animal Disease
Laboratory is located in India ?
(a) Hyderabad (b) Bangalore
(c) Bhopal (d) Mumbai
E-36 || Biology
194. Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B1
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin E
195. Iodine is administered to patients suffering from
(a) Rheumatism (b) Night blindness
(c) Rickets (d) Goitre
196. Sleeping sickness happens due to
(a) Deficiency of vitamin A
(b) Deficiency of calcium in body
(c) Rising of Blood pressure
(d) Trypanosoma
General Biology
197. In plants, which one of the following tissues is
dead ?
(a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma
(c) Sclerenchyma (d) Phloem
198. Which one of the following is considered as a cell
within a cell ?
(a) Ribosome (b) Chloroplast
(c) Lysosome (d) Golgi complex
199. Which one of the following scientists first time
saw bacteria through a microscope made by
himself ?
(a) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek 208. The main function of the inner bark of a woody
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Robert Virchow
200. Which of the following contain enzymes for
cellular respiration?
(a) Dictyosomes
(b) Endoplasmic reticula
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Mitochondria
201. Which one of the following completes the given
statement correctly ?
A seed is a ripened
(a) ovary (b) flower
(c) gynoecium (d) ovule
202. Who of the following invented the cotton gin that
separates the seeds from cotton three hundred
times faster than by hand?
(a) Eli Whitney (b) George Stephenson
(c) McAdam (d) James Watt
203. Which one of the following diseases is caused by
bacteria?
(a) Chicken Pox (b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Influenza (d) Tuberculosis
204. The natural dye present in turmeric is known as
(a) Cinnamin (b) Phenolphthalein
(c) Methyl orange (d) Curcumin
205. Which one of the following processes takes place
in lakes during eutrophication?
(a) Rapid destruction of algal growth
(b) Execessive availability of dissolved oxygen
(c) Loss of dissolved nutrients from water
(d) Excessive entry of nutrient into water
206. Which one among the following Indian scientists
proposed a theory for long distance transport of
water in plants?
(a) J.C. Bose (b) Birbal Sahni
(c) P. Maheshwari (d) N.S. Parihar
207. Sandalwood tree is considered a
(a) total root parasite (b) total stem parasite
(c) stem parasite (d) partial root parasite
plant is to
(a) transport minerals and water from the roots
to the leaves
(b) act as a membrane impermeable to water
and gas
(c) transport food from the leaves to the other
parts of the plant
(d) protect the plant from herbivorous animals
209. Which one among the following cell organelles is
semi-permeable?
(a) Cell membrane (b) Plasma membrane
(c) Cell wall (d) Nucleus
210. Which one among the following nutrients is a
structural component of the cell wall of plants?
(a) Manganese (b) Potassium
(c) Phosphorus (d) Calcium

211. Certain parts of a plant can be bent easily without
breaking. This flexibility in certain parts, like leaf
and stem, can be attributed to the abundance of
(a) parenchyma (b) collenchyma
(c) sclerenchyma (d) xylem and phloem
212. Which one of the following is the largest phylum
in the animal kingdom ?
(a) Annelida (b) Arthopoda
(c) Chordata (d) Protozoa
213. Which one of the following completes the given
statement correctly ?
The enzyme present in the saliva of human beings
breaks
(a) starch into maltose
(b) proteins into peptides
(c) peptides into amino acids
(d) fats into fatty acids
214. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(a) Loop of Henle : Kidney
(b) Fallopian tube : Female reproductive (a) Colour blindness (b) Downs syndrome
system
(c) Epididymis : Male reproductive
system
(d) Cowpers gland : Intestine
215. Which one of the following is a hereditary disease ?
(a) Cataract (b) Haemophilia
(c) Pellagra (d) Osteoporosis
216. Which one of the following completes the given
statement correctly ?
Cretinism is a human disorder which is due to the
under secretion of
(a) Adrenalin hormone (c) Brain injury (d) Vision impairment
(b) Cortisone hormone
(c) Glucagon hormone takes place?
(d) Thyroxin hormone
217. A surge of which hormone stimulates ovulation
in human females?
(a) Luteinizing hormone
(b) Estrogen
(c) Follicle stimulating hormone
(d) Progesterone
General Science || E-37
218. Which one of the following carries out the
function in human beings similar to the one which
Malpighian tubules perform in cockroaches and
other insects?
(a) Lungs (b) Kidneys
(c) Heart (d) Reproductive organs
219. Lobsters belong to which one of the following
classes of organisms?
(a) Arachnids (b) Crustaceans
(c) Insects (d) Myriopods
220. Contaminated water can cause the following
diseases except which one of the following?
(a) Hepatitis A (b) Typhoid
(c) Measles (d) Cholera
221. Which one of the following diseases is caused
by bacteria and spreads through faecal matter by
houseflies?
(a) Pertussis (b) Typhoid
(c) Diphtheria (d) Chickenpox
222. Which one of the following is not a genetic
disorder?
(c) Haemophilia (d) Xerophthalmia
223. Which one of the following is an enzyme?
(a) Gastrin (b) Keratin
(c) Trypsin (d) Vasopressin
224. Which one of the following insects spreads Kala-
azar?
(a) Fruit fly (b) Tsetse fly
(c) Sand fly (d) Mosquito
225. Stem Cell Therapy (SCT) is not useful for the
treatment of which one of the following ailments?
(a) Kidney failure (b) Cancer
226. In which one of the following antibody formations
(a) RBCs
(b) Blood Platelets
(c) Blood Plasma cells
(d) Donnans membrane
227. All enzymes are
(a) Alkaloids (b) Proteins
(c) Carbohydrates (d) Lipids
E-38 || Biology
228. A typical human ribcage consists of how many
ribs? fat to produce cholesterol?
(a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 16 (d) 24
229. Among the given nutrients, milk is a poor source
of
(a) Calcium (b) Protein
(c) Carbohydrate (d) Vitamin C
230. Crocodiles store fats in
(a) head (b) stomach
(c) tail (d) arteries
231. Jaundice in human beings is the result of
(a) incomplete metabolism of biliverdin
(b) complete metabolism of biliverdin
(c) incomplete metabolism of bilirubin
(d) complete metabolism of bilirubin
232. Which part of brain controls fine movement,
maintains balance and equilibrium of the body
and muscle tone in a human being?
(a) Cerebrum (b) Thalamus
(c) Cerebellum (d) Hypothalamus
233. Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar,
multiplies asexually by
(a) budding (b) binary fission
(c) multiple fission (d) sporogony
234. Administering a vaccine provides protection
by inducing synthesis of antibodies (proteins)
specific of the vaccine. The cell in the body
responsible for the production of antibodies is
(a) granulocyte
(b) lymphocyte
(c) erythrocyte (red blood cell)
(d) platelet
235. Biological catalysts in living organisms are
known as
(a) hormones (b) vitamins
(c) steroids (d) enzymes
236. Among the following elements, which one is
essential for the transmission of impulses in the
nerve fibre?
(a) Calcium (b) Iron
(c) Sodium (d) Zinc
237. Which one of the following organs breaks down
(a) Intestine (b) Liver
(c) Lungs (d) Kidneys
238. An individual whose blood type is B may in
an emergency, donate blood to a person whose
blood type is
(a) B or A (b) AB or A
(c) A or O (d) AB or B
239. Which one among the following is the largest
monkey?
(a) Spider monkey (b) Baboon
(c) Gorilla (d) Howler monkey
240. Which one among the following statements is
correct?
(a) All arteries carry oxygenated blood
(b) All veins carry oxygenated blood
(c) Except the pulmonary artery, all other
arteries carry oxygenated blood
(d) Except the pulmonary vein, all other veins
carry oxygenated blood
241. Sickle-cell anemia is a disease caused due to the
abnormality in
(a) white blood cells
(b) red blood cells
(c) thrombocytes
(d) blood plasma composition
242. Carbohydrates are stored in plants and animals in
the form of
(a) cellulose and glucose respectively
(b) starch and glycogen respectively
(c) starch and glucose respectively
(d) cellulose and glycogen respectively
243. Which one among the following water-borne
diseases is not caused by a bacteria?
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Bacillary dysentery
(d) Hepatitis A
244. After entering the human body through mosquito
bite, the malarial parasite (PLASMODIUM)
shows initial multiplication in
(a) Spinal chord (b) Blood
(c) Liver (d) Spleen

245. Which one among the following is the hardest
part of our body?
(a) Skull bones of head (c) muscles (d) cartilage
(b) Thumb nails
(c) Enamel of teeth parenchyma?
(d) Spinal vertebra
246. Which of the following groups is present in
animal cells?
(a) Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall,
Cytoplasm
(b) Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
(c) Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria,
Cytoplasm
(d) Vacuole, Cell membrane, Nucleus,
Mitochondria
247. Which one among the following completes the
given statement correctly ?
In digestive system of living organisms
(a) glucose is broken down into glycerol
(b) glucose is converted into glycogen
(c) glucose is broken down into carbon dioxide
and water
(d) proteins are broken down into amino acids
248. The main thinking part of the brain is
(a) midbrain (b) hypothalamus
(c) forebrain (d) hindbrain
249. Which one among the following hormones
stimulates the plant cells to grow in a manner
such that the plant appears to be bent towards
light?
(a) Cytokinin (b) Auxin
(c) Gibberellin (d) Abscisic acid
250. The sex of a newborn baby is determined by the
chromosome inherited from
(a) the mother (b) the father
(c) mothers mother (d) fathers father
251. Average life span of human R.B.C is
(a) 100 days (b) 90 days
(c) 120 days (d) None of these
252. Cells which takes part in secondary growth are
named as
(a) phloem (b) xylem
(c) cambium (d) medullary ray
General Science || E-39
253. Contractile proteins are found in
(a) bones (b) blood
254. Which one of the following is modification of
(a) Fibres found in phloem
(b) Tracheids
(c) Vessel
(d) Chlorenchyma
255. Bone matrix is rich in
(a) fluoride and calcium
(b) calcium and phosphorus
(c) calcium and potassium
(d) phosphorus and potassium
256. Blood and lymph are types of
(a) muscular tissue (b) epithelial tissue
(c) connective tissue (d) permanent tissue
257. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell
membrane?
(a) Cholesterol (b) Glycolipids
(c) Proline (d) Phospholipids
258. The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a
eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the
cell cycle, the DNA replicates in
(a) S-phase (b) G1-phase
(c) G2-phase (d) M-phase
259. During which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis
usually occur in animals?
(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase (d) Telophase
260. Which of the following substances if introduce in the
blood stream would cause coagulation at the site
of its introduction?
(a) Fibrinogen (b) Prothrombin
(c) Heparin (d) Thromboplastin
261. Lysosome arises from
(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) nucleus
(d) mitochondria
E-40 || Biology
262. pH of human blood is (b) division of chromosome without nuclear
(a) 7.4 (b) 6.2
(c) 9.0 (d) 7.5 - 8.0
263. The double helix model of Watson and Crick is
known as
(a) C-DNA (b) B-DNA
(c) Z-DNA (d) D-DNA
264. The correct sequence of cell cycle is (c) adipose tissue (d) muscular tissue.
(a) S, Gl, G2, M (b) S, M, Gl, G2
(c) Gl, S, G2, M (d) M, Gl, G2, S
265. Biological membranes are composed of
(a) 40% proteins and 60% lipids
(b) 50% proteins and 50% lipids
(c) 70% proteins and 30% lipids
(d) 60% proteins and 40% lipids
266. F1 particles / oxysome / elementary particles are
present in
(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) chloroplast
(c) mitochondria
(d) golgi complex
267. Which of the following is related to glycosylation
of protein?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Peroxisome
(c) Lysosome (a) hypertonic (b) isotonic
(d) Mitochondria
268. The function of nucleolus is the synthesis of
(a) DNA (b) m-RNA
(c) r-RNA (d) t-RNA
269. The shape of chromosome is clearly visible at
(a) prophase (b) anaphase
(c) metaphase (d) telophase
270. Chromosome start separating at which stage of
mitosis
(a) early metaphase (b) late metaphase
(c) early anaphase (d) early telophase
271. Endomitosis refers to
(a) division of nucleus without chromosomal
division
division
(c) division of cytoplasm
(d) None of the above
272. The camels hump is composed of a tissue which
provides water when oxidized. It is
(a) skeletal tissue (b) areolar tissue
273. Peroxisomes are involved in the synthesis of
(a) glucose (b) fatty acids
(c) glycine and serine (d) nucleotides
274. The major constituent of connective tissue is
(a) lipid (b) carbohydrate
(c) cholesterol (d) collagen
275. Bone forming cells are
(a) osteoclasts (b) osteoblasts
(c) chondroblast (d) chondroclasts
276. Which of the following acts as an insulator against
heat, cold and as a shock-absorber in the body?
(a) Dermis
(b) Epidermis
(c) Subcutaneous fat layer
(d) None of the above
277. When the concentration of water and solutes
on either side of the cell membrane is same, the
solution is said to be
(c) hypotonic (d) None of these
278. Smooth muscles are likely to be found in
(a) muscles of legs (b) muscles of arms
(c) stomach (d) heart
279. Bacteria are (were) considered more as plants than
animals because of the presence of
(a) small nucleus (b) plasma membrane
(c) cell wall (d) spore formation
280. Silver fern is
(a) Adiantum (b) Cheilanthes
(c) Selaginella (d) Equisetum
281. The largest invertebrate is
(a) octopus (b) squid
(c) coral (d) jelly fish

282. Ginger is a stem and not a root because
(a) it stores food organisms that are
(b) it lacks chlorophyll
(c) it has nodes and internodes
(d) None of the above
283. Which one of the following is not a chordate?
(a) Starfish (b) Dolphin
(c) Shark (d) Snake
284. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic
engineering experiments are (d) All of these
(a) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
(b) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
(c) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
(d) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
285. Red snow causing alga is
(a) Chlamydomonas nivalis
(b) Chlamydomonas reinhardtii
(c) Chlamydomonas debaryanum
(d) Chalmydomonas media
286. Which place in India is called The Golden Mine of
Liverworts?
(a) Eastern Himalayas (b) Western Himalayas
(c) Western Ghats (d) Eastern Ghats
287. Eutrophication is the result of
(a) bryophyte 297. Karyotaxonomy is the modern branch of
(b) algae and aquatic plants
(c) gymnosperm (d) pteridophyte
288. Which of the following is a fresh water sponge?
(a) Sycon (b) Euspongia
(c) Spongilla (d) Pleurobrachia
289. Book lungs occur in
(a) earthworms (b) insects
(c) arachnids (d) mammals
290. Marsupial Kangaroo is (c) plasma membrane infolded for respiration
(a) viviparous (b) oviparous
(c) ovoviviparous (d) a distinct category
291. The deadliest mushroom is
(a) Agaricus (b) Amanita
(c) Pleurotus (d) Volvariella
General Science || E-41
292. The kingdom Protista is primarily made up of
(a) eukaryotic and multicellular
(b) prokaryotic and multicellular
(c) prokaryotic and single-celled
(d) eukaryotic and single-celled
293. Which of the following are absent in
gymnosperms?
(a) Xylem vessels (b) Xylem fibres
(c) Tracheids and fibres
294. The group of animals belonging to phylum
protozoa is
(a) Paramecium and Leucosolenia
(b) Hydra and Amoeba
(c) Euglena and Ascaris
(d) Paramecium and Plasmodium
295. A species inhabiting different geographical areas
is known as
(a) allopatric species (b) sympatric species
(c) bio species (d) sibling species
296. ICBN stands for
(a) International Council for Botanical Nature
(b) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(c) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(d) None of the above
classification which is based on
(a) number of chromosomes
(b) bands found on chromosomes
(c) organic evolution
(d) trinomial nomenclature
298. Mesosome in a bacterial cell is
(a) plasmid
(b) connection between two cells
(d) None of these
299. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is
(a) Methophilic bacteria
(b) Clostridium butyrium
(c) Helicobactor pylori
(d) Streptococcus lactin
E-42 || Biology
300. The aquatic fern which is an excellent biofertilizer
is
(a) Azolla (b) Salvinia
(c) Marsilia (d) Pteridium
301. Largest flower Rafflesia is
(a) total stem parasite (b) total root parasite
(c) partial stem parasite (d) partial root parasite
302. Animals/organisms floating on the surface of water
are
(a) plankton (b) pelagic
(c) benthon (d) neritic
303. Collar cells occur in
(a) sponges (b) hydra
(c) sandworm (d) starfish
304. In which phylum nerve cells are found but nerves are
absent?
(a) Porifera (b) Coelenterata
(c) Platyhelminthes (d) Nemathelminthes
305. Lung Fluke is
(a) Hymenolepis nana
(b) Paragonimus westermani
(c) Schistosoma haematobium
(d) Echinococcus granulosus
306. Which of the following is not an insect?
(a) Cockroach (b) Bed bug
(c) Mosquito (d) Spider
307. Frog is
(a) aminotelic (b) ammonotelic
(c) ureotelic (d) uricotelic
308. Snakes receive sound vibrations by
(a) tympanum (b) body
(c) internal ear (d) earth
309. Which of the following systems in man is affected
by the bite of cobra?
(a) Digestive (b) Nervous
(c) Excretory (d) Circulatory
310. Which one is a link between chordates and
nonchordates?
(a) Sphenodon (b) Balanoglossus
(c) Crocodilia (d) None of these
311. Ephedrine obtained from the stem of Ephedra is
given to cure
(a) asthma
(b) respiratory disorder
(c) cold and cough
(d) All of these
312. Pond silk is the common name of
(a) Spongilla (b) Chlorella
(c) Selaginella (d) Spirogyra
313. Which of the following is a non-poisonous snake?
(a) Python (b) Cobra
(c) Dryophis (d) All of these
 General Science || E-43

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 33. (a) 65. (c) 97. (c) 129. (d) 161. (b) 193. (c) 225. (d)
2. (d) 34. (b) 66. (d) 98. (c) 130. (b) 162. (d) 194. (a) 226. (c)
3. (c) 35. (c) 67. (c) 99. (a) 131. (a) 163. (d) 195. (d) 227. (b)
4. (b) 36. (c) 68. (b) 100. (b) 132. (d) 164. (b) 196. (d) 228. (a)
5. (b) 37. (d) 69. (a) 101. (b) 133. (a) 165. (a) 197. (c) 229. (d)
6. (b) 38. (b) 70. (d) 102. (b) 134. (c) 166. (d) 198. (b) 230. (c)
7. (c) 39. (c) 71. (d) 103. (b) 135. (c) 167. (d) 199. (a) 231. (c)
8. (b) 40. (a) 72. (b) 104. (d) 136. (b) 168. (d) 200. (d) 232. (c)
9. (a) 41. (a) 73. (b) 105. (d) 137. (d) 169. (d) 201. (d) 233. (b)
10. (a) 42. (c) 74. (c) 106. (a) 138. (a) 170. (a) 202. (d) 234. (b)
11. (b) 43. (d) 75. (c) 107. (d) 139. (d) 171. (d) 203. (a) 235. (d)
12. (b) 44. (a) 76. (a) 108. (c) 140. (c) 172. (c) 204. (d) 236. (c)
13. (c) 45. (a) 77. (b) 109. (d) 141. (d) 173. (d) 205. (d) 237. (b)
14. (d) 46. (c) 78. (c) 110. (d) 142. (b) 174. (b) 206. (d) 238. (b)
15. (c) 47. (b) 79. (a) 111. (b) 143. (d) 175. (c) 207. (d) 239. (b)
16. (b) 48. (c) 80. (d) 112. (b) 144. (a) 176. (c) 208. (d) 240. (c)
17. (d) 49. (b) 81. (b) 113. (c) 145. (c) 177. (d) 209. (c) 241. (b)
18. (c) 50. (d) 82. (a) 114. (c) 146. (d) 178. (b) 210. (d) 242. (b)
19. (b) 51. (b) 83. (c) 115. (b) 147. (c) 179. (c) 211. (d) 243. (d)
20. (a) 52. (c) 84. (c) 116. (d) 148. (d) 180. (b) 212. (b) 244. (c)
21. (b) 53. (c) 85. (d) 117. (c) 149. (b) 181. (a) 213. (b) 245. (c)
22. (a) 54. (c) 86. (b) 118. (b) 150. (b) 182. (b) 214. (a) 246. (c)
23. (d) 55. (d) 87. (a) 119. (b) 151. (a) 183. (a) 215. (d) 247. (d)
24. (d) 56. (b) 88. (d) 120. (c) 152. (c) 184. (d) 216. (b) 248. (c)
25. (b) 57. (d) 89. (c) 121. (c) 153. (d) 185. (c) 217. (d) 249. (b)
26. (a) 58. (d) 90. (b) 122. (c) 154. (d) 186. (c) 218. (b) 250. (b)
27. (a) 59. (a) 91. (c) 123. (d) 155. (d) 187. (a) 219. (b) 251. (c)
28. (c) 60. (d) 92. (b) 124. (a) 156. (b) 188. (c) 220. (c) 252. (c)
29. (c) 61. (c) 93. (c) 125. (d) 157. (a) 189. (d) 221. (b) 253. (c)
30. (a) 62. (a) 94. (b) 126. (d) 158. (b) 190. (c) 222. (d) 254. (d)
31. (b) 63. (d) 95. (b) 127. (c) 159. (d) 191. (c) 223. (c) 255. (b)
32. (d) 64. (a) 96. (a) 128. (c) 160. (c) 192. (a) 224. (c) 256. (c)
E-44 || Biology

ANSWER KEY
257. (c) 265. (d) 273. (c) 281. (b) 289. (c) 297. (b) 305. (b) 313. (a)
258. (a) 266. (c) 274. (d) 282. (c) 290. (a) 298. (c) 306. (d)
259. (d) 267. (a) 275. (b) 283. (a) 291. (b) 299. (b) 307. (c)
260. (d) 268. (c) 276. (c) 284. (a) 292. (d) 300. (a) 308. (b)
261. (b) 269. (c) 277. (c) 285. (a) 293. (a) 301. (b) 309. (b)
262. (a) 270. (c) 278. (c) 286. (b) 294. (d) 302. (a) 310. (b)
263. (b) 271. (b) 279. (c) 287. (b) 295. (a) 303. (a) 311. (d)
264. (c) 272. (c) 280. (b) 288. (c) 296. (b) 304. (b) 312. (d)

Hints & Solutions
Botany
1. (c) Aristotle who lived sometime around 384 BC
to 322 BC is considered to be the father of Biology.
He was the student of Plato. Theophrastus and
Alexander the great were the students of Aristotle.
According to the Encyclopedia Britannica,
Aristotle was the first genuine scientist in history
due to his writings in wide scientific fields.
2. (d) Theophrastus is considered to be the father of
Botany. He was the student of Aristotle. He created
Historia Plantarum that means History of Plants
which was a treatise on plants.
3. (c) William Roxburgh, a Scottish botanist is
considered to be the founding father of Indian
Botany. For the period 1776-1793 he worked
at Coromandel Coast. He was instrumental in
introducing many plant and species to India.
4. (b) Carl Linnaeus or Carolus Linnaeus (in Latin)
was a Swedish botanist, physician, as well as
zoologist. He laid the foundations of binomial
nomenclature for the modern biological naming
scheme. He is known as the father of modern
taxonomy, and is also considered one of the fathers
of modern ecology.
5. (b) Indian Botanical Garden was established
in 1787 by Lieutenant Colonel Robert Kyd. This
garden is situated on the west bank of the river
Hooghly, Kolkata. The garden was known as East
India Companys Garden or the Company Bagan
or Calcutta Garden and later as the Royal Botanical
Garden. After independence, it was renamed as the
INDIAN BOTANICAL GARDEN in 1950. It is
now under Botanical Survey of India.
6. (b) The annual rings or growth rings in the tree
trunk are a measure to date the age of the trees. This
study which includes the counting and seeing the
patterns of the tree trunks, comes under a branch of
science called Dendrochronology. The annual rings
are seen as concentric rings in the cross section of
the tree trunk.
7. (c) The study of internal organs and tissues of not
only plants but any organism comes under Anatomy.
While Morphology is the study of external features
of plants and animals.
General Science || E-45
8. (b) The branch of biology under which
morphological, anatomical, pathological and
genetic studies of fungi are done, comes under the
field of Mycology. While Phycology, Ethology,
Microbiology deal with Algae, Animal behavior and
microbes respectively.
9. (a) Lichens are generally the indicator of air
pollution especially sulphur-dioxide. The change
in habit of particular lichens indicates the level of
pollution, e.g., bushy lichens can only grow well
when air is absolutely clean. Lichens grow as crusty
forms when there is high level of air pollution.
While leafy lichens grow at moderate levels of air
pollution.
10. (a) Blue Green Algae (BGA) is used as
biofertilizer in paddy fields. Important species
are Cyanobacteria, Anabaena, Nostoc and
Tolypothrix. Anabaena associated with Azolla is
being manufactured in IARI as an algal biofertilizer
whose nitrogen fixation capacity is about 15 kg/ha
over a season.
11. (b) It is estimated that 2.3 kilograms of alga
Chlorella pyrenoidosa produce enough oxygen to
supply one man in space.
12. (b) Algae, Bryophytes and Pteridophytes are true
plants and contain chlorophyll. While fungi have
characteristics that put this kingdom more close
to animals, one of the features is that all fungi are
heterotrophs and contain no chlorophyll.
13. (c) The Red Sea is a seawater inlet of the Indian
Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. An alga,
of phylum Cyanobacteria called Trichodesmium
erythraeum is present in this sea. It contains
abundant quantities of pigments, phycobilin,
phycoerythrin and phycocyanin, due to which the
sea appears red or pinkish.
14. (d) Lichen is a composite symbiotic association
of a fungal member (mycobiont) and an algal
or cyanobacterial member (phycobiont). The
phycobiont is photosynthetic and synthesses
carbohydrates, which is consumed by the mycobiont.
The mycobiont provides mechanical support to the
alga and also helps absorbing the minerals from the
substrata.
E-46 || Biology
15. (c) Litmus paper is used to measure pH of any
substance. It can be made from a mixture of
cellulose, lichen and some adjunct compound.
Lichen which is used commonly in litmus paper is
Rochella tinctoria and Lecanora tartaria.
16. (b) Gracilaria and Gigartina, members of
Rhodophyta (Red algae) are the commercial source
of agar- agar.
17. (d) Azolla is an aqueous fern. A blue-green alga
called Anabaena sp. lives symbiotically in its leafy
thallus. It is a potential commercial biofertilizer for
paddy fields due to the nitrogen fixing capability of
the alga.
18. (c) Selaginella the spikemosses is a genus of the
family Selaginellaceae. It is stored by dipping its
roots in water.
19. (b) Naked seeds production is a characteristic
feature of gymnosperms.
20. (a) Living fossil is an organism which appears
very close to the fossil record of the same organism
although it has no close living relative. Cycas is
considered to be the living fossil among the options.
21. (b) Chilgoza is obtained from Pinus gerardiana.
It is an edible pine nut rich in carbohydrates and
proteins. These seeds or nuts are locally called and
marketed as Chilgoza or Neja.
22. (a) Cycas revoluta is one of the sources of sago,
which is nothing but edible starch. Sago is also
extracted from the spongy centre, or pith, of various
tropical palm stems, especially Metroxylon sagu.
23. (d) Counting the annual rings in horizontal cross
section of a tree is a measure of its age. This study
comes under dendrochronology.
24. (d) CO2 is one of the essential raw materials
in process of photosynthesis. CO2 is fixed and
converted into sugar via green plants.
25. (b) Magnesium is present in the heart of the
porphyrin ring of the chlorophyll molecule.
26. (a) Oxygen is released as a by-product in the
process of photosynthesis by green plants.
27. (a) Photosynthesis can only happen in the presence
of sunlight, as excitation of chlorophyll molecules
need photons. Sunlight can be replaced by artificial
white light.
28. (c) Potometer also called as transpirometer, is
a device used to measure the rate of water uptake
of a leafy shoot. The rate of transpiration and
photosynthesis is measured by it.
29. (c) Leaves having stomata are the site at which
gaseous exchange occur. Water is also transpired
and evaporated in the form of water vapor from the
leaf surface.
30. (a) In the visible spectrum of light the most of the
light energy which is absorbed by green plants for
carrying out photosynthesis, are from red and blue
regions. Green light is mostly reflected back.
31. (b) The site of cellular respiration is the
mitochondrion.
32. (d) Auxin is phyto- or plant- hormone. It is mainly
responsible for cell division and growth.
33. (a) Xylem is the main conducting tissue for the
unidirectional (roots to shoot and leaves) transport
of water and mineral salts.
34. (b) The products of photosynthesis in green
plants are made in leaves (mesophyll cells). Sugar
molecules are synthesized, which are generally
called as photosynthates. Phloem tissue carries
these photosynthates to distant plant organs. Unlike
conduction in xylem, the transport through phloem
is multidirectional.
35. (c) Auxanometer is the instrumental apparatus to
measure the rate of growth of plants.
36. (c) Low atmospheric humidity and high
temperature encourage greater rate of transpiration
from green leaves.
37. (d) Turpentine is a volatile essential oil which is
extracted from the resinous compound obtained
from Pine trees needles, twigs. Turpentine oil has
antibacterial properties, used in chemical industries,
in paints and varnishes.
38. (b) Coffee tree bears berries as fruits which
contain seeds. These seeds are roasted in the process
of producing coffee. The seeds are generally called
coffee beans. Coffea canephora and C. arabica are
two economic coffee plants.
39. (c) Photosynthesis is the process by which plants
take up water from soil, CO2 from atmosphere, and
absorbs photons from sunlight to synthesize sugars.
40. (a) In the process of photosynthesis the light
energy or the solar energy is directly converted
into chemical energy in the form of sugars or
carbohydrates.

41. (a) The actual site where photosynthesis occurs is
the grana or thylakoid membranes of the chloroplast
as the machinery for the process are embedded in
the grana.
42. (c) It is the force called transpirational pull
which maintains the continuous upward movement
of water though xylem against the gravity.
43. (d) Botanically a fruit is a swollen and ripened
ovary and the seeds are actually the fertilized ovules,
inside which of the small embryos are nestled in.
44. (a) Technically, apple is not a true fruit. A fruit is
a ripened ovary. Inside the apple fruit, the structure
holding the seeds is actually the fruit while the edible
fleshy part is actually the swollen wall material of
ovary.
45. (a) The fleshy edible part of the pear fruit is
actually the swollen thalamus.
46. (c) The production of naked seeds or ovules
without fruits is one of the main characteristic
features of Gymnosperms. Cycas sp. is a
gymnosperm among the options.
47. (b) Epiphytes are the plants which grow
non-parasitically on other plants generally for
mechanical support and sometimes for moisture
and nutrients absorption. Common epiphytes are
mosses, bromeliads, orchids, etc.
48. (c) Halophytes are those plants which grow
successfully in soils or water with high concentration
of salts or in either at saline semi-deserts, mangrove
swamps, marshes and sloughs, and seashores.
Spartina alterniflora or codgrass is a halophyte. Sea
water typically contains 40g/l of salts. Most crops as
chickpea and paddy can tolerate only 1-3g/l of salts
but a halophyte, Salicornia bigelovii can grow well
at 70g/l of salt conditions.
49. (b) Plants that grow on rocks are called
Lithophytes. They are also known as epipetric or
epilithic plants. Examples include Paphiopedilum
orchids, ferns, some algae and liverworts. They use
rainwater, and absorb organic nutrients from the
dead and decaying tissue of other plants or their
own dead tissue.
50. (d) The protein content per 100g of pulse is
estimated to be 5g for pea (Pisum sativum), 22g
for pigeon pea (Cajanus cajan), 25g for black gram
(Vigna mungo) and 36g and highest for soyabean
(Glycine max) . The protein content of egg is around
13g/100g.
General Science || E-47
51. (b) Bomboo or Bambusa sp. is a member of grass
family- Poaceae. More than 10 genera and 1,450
species are known, which are flowering perennial
monocot plants.
52. (c) The tallest trees in the world are redwoods
Sequoia sempervirens with height of around 115.72
m (379.65 ft). These trees are growing in Hyperion,
Redwood National Park, California, United States.
53. (c) The experimental plant of Gregor Mendel
was garden pea or Pisum sativum. As it has easily
distinguishable features, short life cycle and it is
also a self pollinating crop, made it a suitable choice
for genetic studies by Mendel.
54. (c) Cloves are the aromatic unopened flower buds
of a tree called Syzygium aromaticum of the family
Myrtaceae.
55. (d) Quinine is a natural white crystalline
alkaloid obtained from the bark of Cinchona sp.
of family Rubiaceae. It has antimalarial, analgesic
(painkilling), and anti-inflammatory and antipyretic
(fever-reducing) properties.
56. (b) Leaves of Tendu (Diospyros melanoxylon) are
used to make wrappers of beedi or poor mans
cigarette.
57. (d) Saffron is derived from the plant called Crocus
sativus of family Iridaceae. Saffron is used as spice
or condiment especially in sweet dishes and some
meat preparations. The part which is used is style
and stigma of the flower.
58. (d) Photosynthetically Active Region for green
plants is 400nm to 700nm. While some green
bacteria, purple bacteria and Heliobacteria, can
exploit solar light by absorbing its near-infrared
component for photosynthesis.
59. (a) Arteether is an antimalarial drug apart from
quinine.
60. (d) Spinach or Spinacea oleracia of family
Amaranthaceae is one of the good sources of iron.
The United States Department of Agriculture states
that a 180-g serving of boiled spinach contains
6.43 mg of iron.
61. (c) The chief constituent of cotton is fibre, made
up of majorly cellulose and some hemicelluloses.
62. (a) The golden rice is a genetically modified
rice to synthesize beta-carotene, a precursor of
vitamin-A. It has been developed with the aim to
provide a fortified food to people consuming fewer
vitamins-A containing food.
E-48 || Biology
63. (d) Pongamia pinnata is believed to be a potential
source of petrochemicals.
64. (a) Pneumatophores are the aerial root system of
mangroves. These are the special adaptations to
breathe and exchange gases and water with the salty
medium in which these plants grow. Some plants
having pneumatophores are Avicennia germinans
and Laguncularia raecemosa.
65. (c) Xylem tissue is the specialized conducting
system of the plants. It is the main conducting
system for water and some mineral nutrients from
roots to the shoot.
66. (d) Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic association
between roots of vascular plants and some ecto-
parasitic fungus. The fungal hyphae make a mesh
around the roots which increase the surface area for
absorption of water and mineral nutrients by the
roots. The fungus in turn takes up carbohydrates and
sugars from the roots.
67. (c) Sodium is not a micronutrient for plants.
68. (b) Clove oil contains eugenol, which is an
antiseptic, analgesic, and used in dentistry for relief
from tooth ache and bad breath.
69. (a) Noscapine is a benzylisoquinoline alkaloid
obtained from plants of the Papaveraceae
family. Although it has no painkilling properties
but is primarily used for its antitussive (cough-
suppressing) effects.
70. (d) The active chemical ingredient in chili peppers
which is responsible for hotness, is chemically
known as 8-methyl-N-vanillyl-6-nonenamide,
commonly called as Capsaicin.
71. (d) Heliamphora sp., Drosera sp., Nepenthes sp.
are all carnivorous plants. Thymus sp. is a common
thyme plant which is not a carnivore.
72. (b) Censor mechanism of seed dispersal is a type
of dispersal by wind, which generally occur in
poppy. Its seeds bear hairy fibers outside and are
very light in weight, which aid in easy dispersal by
wind.
73. (b) Kuttus flour is flour made from buckwheat,
botanically known as Fagopyrum esculentum. Its
grain like seeds is used to obtain flour.
74. (c) Ethylene is the chemical compound which
works as a phytohormone causing fruit-ripening.
75. (c) Rafflesia arnoldii produces the largest flower
on the earth. It is also known as corpse flower due
to its peculiar strong odour as that of rotten and
decaying flesh.
76. (a) Triticum aestivum is the common wheat used
to make bread. Pennisetum sp. is pearl millet, Oryza
sativa is rice, Hordeum vulgare is barley.
77. (b) The coconut is actually a drupe not a nut and
technically, the sweet water inside the coconut is the
cellular endosperm, which accumulates during the
later phases of seed development.
78. (c) Garlic contains sulphuric compound called
allyl methyl sulphide that renders it the typical
pungent smell.
79. (a) Mushroom is actually the fruiting body of
the fungus, which is produced to bear millions of
germinative spores. Most mushrooms belong to the
Basidiomycota and Agaricomycetes.
Zoology
80. (d) The normal body temperature of a human
being is 37C. Thus, in kelvin it is 273 + 37 = 310 K.
81. (b) The female snake, about 13 feet long, builds
a nest to lay its eggs. In fact, the King Cobra is the
only snake in the world that builds a nest.The King
Cobra reproduces by laying eggs in nests made of
rotting vegetation.
82. (a) Thyroxine hormone is released from the thyroid
gland. It is the iodine containing hormone.
83. (c) The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart.
Two major coronary arteries branch off from the
aorta near the meeting point ofaorta and the left
ventricle. These arteries and their branches supply
all parts of the heart muscle with blood.
84. (c) Foreign particles possessing the antigens can
elicit immune response in the body.
85. (d) Apart from the nuclear DNA, the cells
mitochondria contain their own DNA. Mitochondria
are thought to be the parasites in the eukaryotic cells
got inside the later as a result of the endo-symbiotic
event that took place earlier in the evolution.
86. (b) When multiple traits are controlled by one
particular gene, that gene is called a pleiotropic
gene and this kind of effect is known as pleiotropic
effect.
87. (a) Wolves are the monogamous animals i.e., they
mate with only one partner throughout their lives.
88. (d) The octopus is a mollusc of the order
Octopoda and family Cephalopoda, with bilaterally
symmetrical bodies.

89. (c) Insulin is a kind of peptide hormone. It is
secreted from the beta cells of the pancreas. It is the
main hormone that regulates the glucose metabolism
in humans.
90. (b) The formation of lymphocytes is known as
lymphopoiesis. It occurs at bone marrow.Bone
marrow is the flexible tissue in the interior of
bones. Lymphocytes are the key components of the
lymphatic system involved in immunity.
91. (c) Parathyroid hormone is a small protein that
controls the calcium and phosphate homeostasis, as
well as bone physiology. Parathyroid hormone has
effects antagonistic to those of calcitonin.
92. (b) The ampullary- isthmus junction of fallopian
tube is the particular place where actually
fertilization occurs. Fallopian tube is a part of the
female reproductive system.
93. (c) Eating and swallowing are complex
neuromuscular activities, co-ordinated by the
swallowing centre in the medulla oblongata and
pons. Vomiting is also regulated by medulla
oblongata.
94. (b) Urea is produced as a metabolite in the liver. It
is produced as a breakdown product of amino acids.
Ammonium ions are also formed in the breakdown
of amino acids. Some of which are utilised in
the biosynthesis of nitrogen compounds. Excess
ammonium ions are converted to urea.
95. (b) Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates
secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells
of the stomach and aids in gastric motility. Trypsin,
Ptyalin and Pepsin are digestive enzymes. Trypsin
and pepsin are proteolytic enzymes, Ptyalin or
amylase is a starch degrading enzyme.
96. (a) In humans, the vermiform appendix is a small,
finger-sized structure, found at the end of our small
caecum and located near the beginning of the
large intestine or at the junction of large and small
intestine.
97. (c) The gall bladder is a small sac and is the
storage depot for bile. Bile is only concentrated in
the gall bladder.
98. (c) In butterflies the sex determination is based on
ZW system as they lack the sex chromosomes.
99. (a) The nilgai (Boselaphus tragocamelus), is the
largest Asian antelope. It belongs to the family
Bovidae, to which cow (Bos sp.) also belonged.
100. (b) In 1892 Dmitri Ivanovsky in his article
described of a non-bacterial pathogen infecting
General Science || E-49
tobacco plants. Later the tobacco mosaic virus got
discovered (first virus to be discovered) by Martinus
Beijerinck in 1898. Since then about 5,000 viruses
have been described in detail.
101. (b) Virus is not a cell; it remains just in the form
of a genetic material or encapsulated on outside
with a protein capsid. It generally injects its genetic
material into host cells wherein the viral proteins
get synthesised.
102. (b) The viral particles are made up of only nucleic
acid as its genetic material and some also have
capsid made up of proteins. It is not cellular.
103. (b) Ferns, a group under pteridophytes have
large number of chromosomes e.g., Ophioglossum
reticulatumhas 2n=1260, highest known in all life
forms.
104. (d) Pollination by snails or slugs is known as
Malacophily, which is rare phenomenon. There are
reports of it in Volvulopsis nummularium of family
Convolvulaceae.
105. (d) Vitamin D is a steroid hormone, a group of fat-
soluble secosteroids that plays a vital role in calcium
and phosphate absorption. Vitamin D also enhances
intestinal absorption of calcium, iron, magnesium,
phosphate and zinc in human beings.
106. (a) The theory of mutation Mutation theory was
propounded by a Dutch scientist; De-Vries in 1901.
He had observed an unusual occurrence in a plant
called evening primrose.
107. (d) Wilhelm Johannsen was a Danish botanist, plant
physiologist, and geneticist. In his book Elemente
der exakten Erblichkeitslehre he introduced the
term gene. This term was coined in opposition to the
then common pangene that stemmed from Darwins
theory of pangenesis. This book had become one of
the founding texts of genetics.
108. (c) Johannes Friedrich Miescher, a Swiss
physician and biologist was the first researcher to
isolate and identify nucleic acid. He isolated various
phosphate-rich chemicals, which he called nuclein
then, from the nuclei of white blood cells in 1869.
It is the first report of the discovery and isolation of
the genetic material.
109. (d) The ribosomes are the protein-synthesizing
factories. DNA, RNA and Chromosomes are all
genetic materials made of nucleotides, which are
the sites of genetic mutations e.g., transversion and
transition, point mutations, etc.
E-50 || Biology
110. (d) The Golgi complex and rough ER work
closely. When a protein is made in the ER, then
transition vesicles are synthesized. These vesicles
float through the cytoplasm to the Golgi apparatus
and are absorbed. After the Golgi does its work
on the molecules inside the sac or the vesicle a
secretory vesicle is created and released into the
cytoplasm. So the main function of the Golgi bodies
is secretion.
111. (b) Goats, sheep and other herbivores are the
primary consumers or heterotrophs. Any animal
that eats primary consumers are the secondary
consumers or heterotrophs.
112. (b) The word Osteology originates from the
neo-Latin word Ostiologia, meaning something
related to skeleton and bones. The study of bones
and skeleton is therefore known as Osteology in the
medical world.
113. (c) Ichthyology is the branch of zoological sciences
which is devoted to the study of fishes. Cryptology
is the study of mathematical, linguistic, and other
coding patterns and histories. Lepidopterology is the
study of butterflies and moths. The term sicrotology
does not exist.
114. (c) During the 1940s and 1950s, McClintock
discovered a phenomenon in maize known as
transposition and used it to demonstrate that genes
are responsible for turning physical characteristics
on and off. Earlier she named such genes as jumping
genes. She had won the 1983s Nobel in Physiology
or Medicine for her work on genetic structure of
maize.
115. (b) William Harvey was the first scientist who
described the systemic circulation of blood by
experimenting on small animals and fishes. He
also found out that it is the heart which pumps
blood throughout the whole body. He published
his observations and interpretations in Exercitatio
Anatomica de Motu Cordis et Sanguinis in
Animalibus (1628), often abbreviated De Motu
Cordis.
116. (d) Christiaan Neethling Barnard was a South
African cardiac surgeon performed the worlds first
successful human-to-human heart transplant on 3
December 1967. He is also credited with the first
successful kidney transplantation in 1953, in the
United States.
117. (c) The knowledge that the structure of DNA is
double helical was described by Francis Crick
and James Watson in 1953. Their description was
based on a single X-ray diffraction image taken by
Rosalind Franklin and Raymond Gosling in May
1952, as well as the knowledge given by Erwin
Chargaff about the specific rules of nucleotides
pairing.
118. (b) The thickest skin is present in the sole of the
foot being around 4mm thick. The heel portion of
the foot being the thickest portion. The skin under
the eye and the area around the eyelids is around
0.5mm thick and it is the thinnest skin in the body.
119. (b) The genetic code is the set of rules by which
information encoded within genetic material (DNA
or mRNA sequences) is translated into proteins
by living cells. The 1968 Nobel for Physiology
and Medicine was shared by Robert W. Holley, H.
Gobind Khorana and Marshall W. Nirenberg.
120. (c) Tailbone, muscles of eardrum and tailbone are
all vestigial organs in humans. The frontal teeth or
incisors are functional and not vestigial. They take
part in tearing of food materials.
121. (c) Cockroach has blood known as homocoel,
snails and kangaroos also have blood in their bodies.
But hydra does not contain any blood but still it
respires. It does not have any respiratory organs but
it respires and thus exchanges gases throughout its
body.
122. (c) Jelly fish belongs to the genus Aurelia of
phylum Cnideria.
123. (d) The devil fish or giant devil ray is a species
of eagle ray, of family Myliobatidae and genus
Mobula.
124. (a) The title, Seahorse has been given to 54 species
of marine fish in the genus Hippocampus.
125. (d) Cold blooded animals do not use internally
generated energy to regulate their body temperature.
On the other hand Warm blooded animals such
as human beings have internal mechanisms that
maintain their body temperature within a certain
range, regardless of the ambient temperature of
surroundings. Fish, frog and lizard are all cold
blooded organisms.
126. (d) Diplodocus is a fossil of a dinosaur species
unearthed in late 18th and early 19th century and it
is not a living fossil. While the other three are living
fossils. Elephant shrews are small insectivorous

mammals native to Africa, they resemble the
extinct Leptictidium of Eocene Europe, Ginkgo
is a gymnosperm, and Stromatolites are a layered
structure created as sediment trapped by shallow-
water, oxygen-creating, blue-green bacteria. They
provide the most ancient records of life on Earth by
fossil remains which date from more than 3.5 billion
years ago.
127. (c) Macrocystis pyrifera is a giant kelp and the
largest of all algae and plants. It is the fastest-
growing organism. They can grow at a rate of
two feet a day to reach over 50 metres long in one
growing season. Populus tremuloides is the largest
tree, Armillaria ostoyae is the largest among the
fungi, Macropanesthia rhinoceros is the Australian
giant burrowing cockroach.
128. (c) Mammals have 4 chambers in their hearts.
Fishes have 2, and reptiles have 3 chambers in their
hearts. 5 chambers in a heart is an anomaly.
129. (d) A child has approximately 300 (270-300)
bones in total in its body, as the child grows many
bones especially in the head fuse together leading to
decrease in the total number of bones to 206. Thus
adults have 206 bones.
130. (b) The thigh-bone or femur is the longest,
heaviest and by most measures the strongest bone
in the human body. Its length is 26% of the persons
height.
131. (a) Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates
secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of
the stomach and aids in gastric motility. Secretin is
a hormone that both controls the environment in the
duodenum by regulating secretions of the stomach
and pancreas, and regulates water homeostasis
throughout the body. Trypsin and Pepsin are
proteolytic enzymes.
132. (d) The bone marrow (flexible tissue inside of
the bones) is the site where red blood cells and
other blood cells are formed in the process called
haematopoieses.
133. (a) Karl Landsteiner is credited for the discovery
of human blood groups. He also won the 1930 Nobel
Prize for Physiology or Medicine for the same.
134. (c) A person containing O+ blood group does not
possess any antigen to elicit any antibody reaction in
the receiver. Thus, a person with O+ is the universal
donor. AB+ on the other hand is a universal acceptor.
General Science || E-51
135. (c) The Pineal gland regulates the sleep patterns in
humans by secreting melatonin and serotonin. It is
a small endocrine gland resting in the middle of the
brain.
136. (b) Lactobacillus casei strain Shirota is the
bacterium used in the probiotic drink Yakult,
which is a fermented mixture of skimmed milk and
the bacteria. Yakult has been created by Japanese
scientist Minoru Shirota.
137. (d) Liver is the site of storage of extra carbohydrate
or glucose by converting it into glycogen. When
there is energy deficit, the stored glycogen is again
broken down to glucose. The deprivation of the
hormone insulin imbalances this carbohydrate
homeostasis in the body.
Diseases
138. (a) The organ which is affected by hepatitis is
the liver. There is inflammation of the liver and
the disease is characterized by the presence of
inflammatory cells in the tissue of the liver.
139. (d) Diphtheria is caused by a bacterium
Corynebacterium diphtheria, Polio is a fatal viral
disease, small pox is also a viral disease. Rabies is
also viral disease.
140. (c) The primary diagnostic test to detect AIDS is
ELISA, if antibodies are detected in it, then Western
blotting is done for final confirmation of HIV.
141. (d) Na-24 is used as a radionuclide which is
injected into the human bloodstream to detect any
clots. The half-life of Na-24 is 15.6 hrs.
142. (b) Japanese encephalitis is a viral disease caused
by viruses of family Flaviviridae. Domestic pigs and
herons are the potential reservoirs of these viruses.
143. (d) Lungs are supposed to be least damaged by
harmful radiations.
144. (a) Artemisinin is an antimalarial drug of Chinese-
Vietnamese origin, which is derived from the plant
Artemisia annua which is a seed plant.
145. (c) Minamata disease which is a neurological
disease was first discovered in Minamata city in
Kumamoto prefecture, Japan, in 1956. It was caused
in humans by eating fish contaminated with methyl-
mercury.
146. (d) Meningitis is an acute inflammation of the
protective membranes covering the brain and spinal
cord. The inflammation can be caused by bacteria,
virus or any other pathogen.
E-52 || Biology
147. (c) Emphysema is chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease in which the air sacs (alveoli) in the lungs
are damaged. Due to which most of the body parts
do not get oxygen.
148. (d) Mad cow disease is the common name of
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE). It is a
fatal neurodegenerative disease (encephalopathy)
in cattle that causes a spongy degeneration in the
brain and spinal cord. The probable cause of BSE is
believed to be prions.
149. (b) National Institute of Visually Handicapped
(NIVH) is an autonomous body under the Ministry
of Social Justice and Empowerment, Govt. of India
located on Mussoorie-Dehradun Highway. NIVH
is engaged in training the visually challenged
persons and is also engaged in production of
Braille literature, Aids and Appliances for visually
handicapped.
150. (b) Rinderpest, also known as cattle plague or
steppe murrain was an infectious viral disease of
cattle. In June of 2011, the United Nations FAO
confirmed that the disease was eradicated.
151. (a) The normal platelet count in human being is
150,000 to 250,000 per microletre. In Dengue fever
the viral attack is primarily on platelets. Their count
is reduced to a significant number in the fever. It can
reach below 50,000 per microletre which can prove
to be fatal.
152. (c) MRI stands for Magnetic Resonance Imaging.
It is the medical imaging technique. It is used as
a radiological technique to study the anatomy and
function of the diseased and healthy tissues of the
body. This is a safe medical technique as no ionizing
rays are used in it.
153. (d) Pellagra is the disease caused by the deficiency
of vitamin B3 or niacin in the diet. Skin develops
many anomalies in this disease.
154. (d) Salks vaccine is known as Polio vaccine. Two
vaccines are used to combat Poliomyelitis. The first
being developed by Jonas Salk and first tested in
1952.
155. (d) Iodine is given as a supplement in the common
salt used in cooking to combat Iodine deficiency
syndromes in humans as iodine as such is present in
small quantity in the sea water.
156. (b) Berry-berry is a disease caused by the
deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamin). East-Asian
countries in which people eat predominately
polished rice Berry-berry is a prolonged problem.
157. (a) When there is oxygen deficit in the muscles,
the later starts converting the pyruvate into lactic
acid due to which some side-effects occur like
acidification of muscles and their fatigue.
158. (b) In Anosmia the olfactory sensation is affected
where ability to smell and recognize a particular odor
is malfunctioned. A related term, hyposmia, refers
to a decreased ability to smell, while hyperosmia
refers to an increased ability to smell.
159. (d) The causal organism in AIDS is Human
Immune Deficiency virus. Its a kind of lentivirus of
retrovirus family.
160. (c) BMD stands for Bone Mineral Density
Test which measures the quantity of calcium and
minerals in the bones. Osteoporosis is also checked
via this test.
161. (a) Mirror used for dentistry purposes is generally
a concave mirror due to its ability to converge light.
162. (b) Pneumoconiosis is an occupational lung
disease caused by the inhalation of dust. The
workers of mines often get this disease.
163. (d) Foot and mouth disease in cattle is caused
mainly by virus. In 2010-2011 Japan, Korea and
Bulgaria had got their cattle with this disease.
164. (b) Athletes foot is most commonly caused by
the fungi Trichophyton rubrum or Trichophyton
mentagrophytes.
165. (a) Haemophilia is a recessive sex-linked, X
chromosome disorder. Therefore, it is more likely to
occur in males than females.
166. (d) Haemophilia lowers blood plasma clotting
factor levels of the coagulation factors needed for a
normal process of blood clotting. If bleeding occurs
in normal injuries it does not stop itself.
167. (d) The evidences of the treatments by plastic
surgery of a broken nose are found in the Edwin
Smith Papyrus, a transcription of an Ancient
Egyptian medical text, the oldest known surgical
treatise, dated to the Old Kingdom from 3000 to
2500 BC.
168. (d) According to the data updated in 2013 World
Health Organization has shown that Ischaemic heart
disease, stroke, lower respiratory infections, chronic
obstructive lung disease, diarrhoea and HIV/AIDS
are the top major killers during the past decade. TB
is no longer among the top ten but it is still top 15 of
the diseases causing maximum deaths.

169. (d) Rifampicin is used as an antibiotic drug against
mycobacterium sp. causing TB and Leprosy.
170. (a) Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease
of humans and other animals. It is caused by
parasitic protozoan of the genus Plasmodium.
171. (d) Vitamin K takes part in the blood clotting
in humans. Out of the three forms of Vitamin K,
Vitamin K1, or phylloquinone is responsible to
maintain healthy blood clotting. The natural source
of it is in green vegetables.
172. (c) Itai-Itai is a disease caused by cadmium
poisoning. The bones are softened and kidney
failure are some of the symptoms of this disease.
173. (d) The long term effect of alcoholism may
lead to Liver cirrhosis which is characterized
by replacement of liver tissue by fibrosis and
regenerative nodules.
174. (b) P. vivax is one of the six species of malaria
parasites that commonly infect humans. It is
responsible for the 65% of malarial cases in Asia.
175. (c) Rabies is an acute central nervous system
infection. It is caused by virus Neurotropic
lyssavirus, a member of the Rhabdovirus family.
176. (c) Electron beam radiation therapy is used to treat
certain types of cancers, especially skin lymphomas.
177. (d) Blind spot is present in the posterior region
of the eyeball where optic nerve leaves the eyeball
at the retina. Rods and cons are totally absent in
this region. Yellow spot is the small elevation of
the retina present near the blind spot called macula
lutea.
178. (b) Gout is a painful medical condition in which
needle-like uric acid crystals precipitate in the
joints, skin, capillaries and other tissues. This is
caused when the quantity of uric acid is excessive
in the blood plasma.
179. (c) During dehydration the body loses much of
the fluids, sodium chloride and other minerals. Thus
electrolytes solution is given to such a patient to
replenish the lost minerals and salts.
180. (b) Mycobacterium is a genus of Actinobacteria,
known to cause tuberculosis and leprosy in humans.
181. (a) Diarrhoea is a medical condition caused by
bacteria or virus, in which the body loses most of
the fluid and mineral nutrients. According to the
World Health Organization (WHO) approximately
General Science || E-53
3.5 million deaths each year are attributable to
diarrhoea. 80% of those deaths occur in children
under the age of 5 years.
182. (b) Polio is caused by a enterovirus which is a
member of the family of Picornaviridae. Bird flu is
caused by virus H1N1 or H5N1.
183. (a) The genome of Hepatitis-B virus is made of
circular DNA, but it is unusual because the DNA is
not fully double-stranded.
184. (d) Cobalt-60 is used as a radioisotope in treatment
of leukemia.
185. (c) Arsenic-74 is used in the diagnosis of certain
tumours.
186. (c) It is believed that blue baby syndrome is
caused by consumption of water contaminated by
high levels of nitrate. It results in decreased oxygen
carrying capacity of haemoglobin in babies leading
to death.
187. (a) AYUSH is Department of Ayurveda, Yoga &
Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy.
Allopathy is not included in this department.
188. (c) HIV of Group M and subtype C is the dominant
form of HIV in Southern Africa, Eastern Africa,
India, Nepal, and parts of China.
189. (d) H5N1 is the virus causing bird flu. H
stands for Hemagglutinin 5 for Type 5 and N for
Neuraminidase Type 1 (Avian Influenza A). It has
also been called Asian lineage HPAI A(H5N1).
190. (c) The Critically Endangered White-rumped
Vulture Gyps bengalensis and two other Indian
species Gyps indicus and Gyps tenuirostris have
suffered a population decline of more than 99.9%
in just 15 years. According to IUCN, these declines
have been directly attributed to the veterinary use of
the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug diclofenac,
ingested by vultures that ate carcasses of cattle.
191. (c) AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency
Syndrome caused by Human Immuno- deficiency
Virus.
192. (a) Whooping cough is caused by a bacterium
called Bordetella pertussis. Polio is caused by virus;
Small pox is also caused by virus. All the three can
be prevented by vaccination. Diabetes is a disease
associated with insulin imbalance which cannot be
prevented by vaccination.
E-54 || Biology
193. (c) The High Security Animal Disease Laboratory
(HSADL) is Indias premier facility which works
under Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI)
of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
It has been established for handling exotic and
emerging pathogens of animals by virtue of its bio-
safety level-IV containment laboratory and animal
experimentation facility. It is allocated in Bhopal.
194. (a) Night blindness is medically known as
Nyctalopia in which the rod cells in the retina
gradually lose their ability to respond to the light.
Vitamin-A deficiency in the diet of humans is one of
the causes of night blindness.
195. (d) Goitre is a medical condition in which neck or
larynx swells due to enlargement of thyroid gland
(thyromegaly). Goitre is treated depending on the
severity. If it is caused by iodine deficiency, small
doses of iodide in the form of Lugols Iodine or KI
solution are given to the patients.
196. (d) Sleeping sickness is also called Human
African Trypanosomiasis, caused by parasitic
protozoa of the species Trypanosoma brucei and
transmitted by the vector as well as host called tsetse
fly. The trypanosomal parasite secretes a chemical
inside the human body known as Trytophol which
induces sleep all the time in them.
General Biology
197. (c) Sclerenchyma tissues are found in hard parts
of plant body, in cortex, pith, hypodermis, in the
pulp of fruits. Young cells are living and they
have protoplasm. But matured cells becomes dead
due to deposition of secondary walls. They give
mechanical support, strength and rigidity to the
plant body.
198. (b) Chloroplast is considered as cell within a
cell because it contains its own DNA. Hence,
it is a semiautonomous organelle. It helps in
photosynthesis.
199. (a) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek for the first time saw
bacteria through a microscope made by himself.
He took samples of plaque from his own teeth and
mixed them with water. When he looked at the
mixture through his microscope he saw what he
called many very little living animalcules. These
were some of the first recorded observations of what
today we would call bacteria. Leeuwenhoek found
that these were killed when he drank hot coffee.
200. (d) Mitochondria contain enzymes for cellular
respiration. Mitochondria are known as the
powerhouses of the cell. They are organelles that act
like a digestive system which takes nutrients, breaks
them down, and creates energy for the cell. The
process of creating cell energy is known as cellular
respiration. Most of the chemical reactions involved
in cellular respiration happen in the mitochondria. A
mitochondrion is shaped perfectly to maximize its
efforts.
201. (d) A seed is a ripened ovule. The typically
enlarged, bottom part of the pistil where ovules are
produced is the ovary.
202. (a) Eli Whitney invented the cotton gin that
separates the seeds from cotton three hundred times
faster than by hand. American inventor, pioneer,
mechanical engineer, and manufacturer Eli Whitney
is best remembered as the inventor of the cotton gin.
Whitney saw that a machine to clean the seed from
cotton could make the South America prosperous
and make its inventor rich.
203. (d) Tuberculosis (TB) is an infection caused by
two species of Mycobacteria - Mycobacterium
tuberculosis and Mycobacterium Bovis. Though, it
can cause disease involving every organ system in
the body, it commonly affects the lungs. The disease
was in existence even in the Neolithic period and till
the early 20th century, the only treatment was rest
in the open air in specialised sanitoria. Currently,
around 1.7 billion people world-wide, a third of the
worlds population, are infected by Mycobacterium
tuberculosis and 3 million deaths a year are
attributable to tuberculosis.
204. (d) Turmeric, the most popular spices of India,
belongs to genus Curcuma due to the presence of
a yellow pigment Curcumin which imparts yellow
colour to it. The chemical structure of curcumin is
O OH
H 3CO OCH3
HO OH
205. (d) Eutrophication is the natural ageing of a lake
due to excessive entry of nutrients into water. The
streams draining into the lake introduce nutrients
such as nitrogen and phosphorus that encourages
the growth of algae at the surface of water or pond.

The excessive acummulation of algae at the surface
of pond is called algae bloom. Later due to death
of these algae, their organic matter get decomposed
due to which oxygen gets depleted and thereby
aquatic animals die. If these activities keeps on
occuring for a long time, then the pond may have
more organic matter and less water.
207. (d) Sandalwood tree is a partial root parasite
because roots develop haustoria that make contact
with roots of Dalbergia, Eucalyptus etc.
208. (c) Inner bark of a woody plant is phloem &
function of phloem is to transport food from the
leaves to the other parts of the plant. Xylem is
another transporting duct of plant that transport
minerals & water from the roots to the leaves.
209. (d) Among the given example only nucleus is
a cell organelle and rest are not cell organelle
therefore nucleus is the correct answer.
210. (d) Calcium activates enzymes, is a structural
component of cell walls, influences water
movement in cells and is necessary for cell growth
and division. Some plants must have calcium to take
up nitrogen and other minerals. Calcium is easily
leached. Calcium, once deposited in plant tissue,
is immobile (non-translocatable) so there must be
a constant supply for growth. Deficiency causes
stunting of new growth in stems, flowers and roots.
Symptoms range from distorted new growth to
black spots on leaves and fruit. Yellow leaf margins
may also appear.
211. (b) Collenchymas provides malleability and
flexibility to certain parts of the plants.
212. (b) Arthropoda is the largest phylum in the animal
kingdom in terms of both number of taxa and
biomass.
213. (a) The saliva of human contains water, mucous
and digestive enzyme-salivary a-amylase (ptyalin)
and maltase. Ptyalin splits starch and other complex
carbohydrates into maltose which is broken down
by maltase into glucose.
214. (d) Cowpers gland are accessory sex glands in
males and are located on the floor of the pelvic cavity.
Their secretions contain mucus for lubrication of
reproductive tract.
215. (b) Haemophilia is gentic disorder disease in
which blood clotting not easily takes place because
of recessive X linked chromosome.
General Science || E-55
216. (d) Thyroxine deficiency in childhood or infancy
results in a condition called cretinism. Its symptoms
are :
(i) Lack of skeletal development resulting in
deformed bones and stunted body growth.
(ii) Mental deficiency, retardation of development
of sex organs and Low BMR along with slow
pulse and respiration rate.
217. (a) In women luteinizing hormone stimulates the
last stage of oogenesis, ovulation, development of
corpus luteum and secretion of progesterone by
the corpus luteum. Ovulation is controlled by the
increased level of LH in the blood.
218. (b) Excretion are the removal of waste products
of metabolism from body. The excretory organs in
cockroach and other insects are Malpighian tubules.
Likwise in man, kidney is a part of excretory system.
Excretory system consists of a pair of kidney, a pair
of ureter, a urinary bladder and a urethra.
219. (b) Lobsters belong to class Crustacea of phylum
Arthropoda. Phylum Arthropoda is the largest
phylum.
220. (c) Measles is caused by virus.
222. (d) Xerophthalmia is not a genetic disorder.
Xerophthalmia is a severe drying of the eye surface
caused by a malfunction of the tear glands. Also
found in people with immune disorders, it occurs
most commonly because of decreased intake or
absorption of vitamin A. symptoms include night
blindness and eye irritation. In addition to the eyes
being very dry, there is a loss of lustre on their
surface. At later stages, the corneas become soft,
with increased opacity.
223. (c) Trypsin is an enzyme. The pancreas adds a
collection of protein-cutting enzymes, with trypsin
playing the central role, that chop the protein chains
into pieces just a few amino acids long. Then,
enzymes on the surfaces of intestinal cells and
inside the cells chop them into amino acids, ready
for use throughout the body. Trypsin uses a special
serine amino acid in its protein-cutting reaction, and
is consequently known as a serine protease.
224. (c) Sand fly insects spread Kala-azar. Kala-azar
is a chronic and potentially fatal parasitic disease
of the viscera (the internal organs, particularly
the liver, spleen, bone marrow and lymph nodes)
due to infection by the parasite called Leishmania
donovani. Leishmania donovani, the agent of kala-
azar, is transmitted by sandfly bites.
E-56 || Biology
226. (c) Blood plasma cells form 55 60% by volume
of blood. Antibodies and some other substances
such as lysozyme and properdin always occur in the
plasma. They serve to destroy bacteria, viruses and
toxic substances that may enter into the blood from
outside or from body tissues.
227. (b) Enzymes are proteinaceous substances which
are capable of catalysing chemical reactions of
biological origins without themselves undergoing
any change. The term enzyme was used by Willy
Kuhne in 1878.
228. (a) Human ribcage consists of 12 pairs of ribs.
The upper seven pairs of ribs are attached infront
directly to the sternum by hyaline cartilage. These
are called true ribs. The next three pairs of ribs
attach indirectly to sternum. They are termed false
ribs. The ribs protect the heart, large blood vessels
and lungs. They bear respiratory muscle.
229. (d) Milk is a poor source of vitamin C. Citrus,
amla, etc are rich source of vitamin C.
230. (c) Crocodiles store fats in their tail, because of
which they can survive for a long time without food.
231. (c) Jaundice in human beings is the result of
incomplete metabolism of bilirubin. Bilirubin is
a bile pigment that is metabolised and excreted
out as sterco-bilinogen in faeces. However when
a pathological process interferes with its normal
functioning, it leads to jaundice. The symptoms
of jaundice is yellowing of skin and eyes due to
deposition of bile pigments.
232. (c) Cerebellum, a part of hindbrain, controls fine
movement, maintains balance and equilibrium of
the body and muscle tone in human beings.
233. (b) Leishmania reproduces asexually by binary
fission. It is a causative agent of kala-azar.
234. (b) Lymphocyte is a type of white blood cell
(WBC). They produce a protein called antibodies in
the presence of foreign molecules called antigens.
235. (d) Enzymes are biological catalysts that increases
the rate of reaction without altering its structure.
236. (c) Sodium, chloride and potassium ions are
essential for the transmission of nerve impulses.
237. (b) Liver cells secrete bile, biles help in
emulsification of fat i.e. breaking down of fats into
small micelles.
238. (b) As AB is the universal recipient & B is the
same blood group therefore can donate blood to
these two groups of people.
239. (b) Baboon is the largest monkey, it is 47 inch
long & weight around 90 pounds.
240. (c) The pulmonary arteries transport deoxygenated
blood to the left and right lungs. And interesting fact
is that the pulmonary arteries are the only arteries
that carry deoxygenated blood. All other arteries
deliver blood, enriched with oxygen and other
nutrients to our bodys tissues. Conversely, the
pulmonary veins transport oxygenated blood from
the left and right lungs to the heart, while all other
veins carry deoxygenated blood and waste products.
Pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from
heart to lungs.
241. (b) Sickle cell anemia is an inherited blood
disorder that causes chronic anemia, periodic
episodes of pain, and other complications. In sickle
cell anemia, the red blood cells become rigid and
shaped like crescents, or sickles, rather than being
flexible and round. This change in shape prevents
red blood cells from getting into small blood
vessels. As a result, the tissues do not get enough
oxygen. Lack of oxygen can cause pain and damage
in the arms, legs, and organs (e.g., spleen, kidney,
brain).
242. (b) The most important carbohydrate is glucose, a
simple sugar (monosaccharide) that is metabolized
by nearly all known organisms. Glucose and
other carbohydrates are part of a wide variety
of metabolic pathways across species: plants
synthesize carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and
water by photosynthesis storing the absorbed energy
internally, often in the form of starch or lipids.
243. (d) Hepatitis A is caused by infection with the
hepatitis A virus. The hepatitis virus is usually
spread when a person ingests tiny amounts of
contaminated faecal matter. The hepatitis A virus
infects the liver cells and causes inflammation. The
inflammation can impair liver function and cause
other signs and symptoms of hepatitis A.
244. (c) Plasmodium shows initial multiplication in
lever.
245. (c) Enamel of teeth is the hardest part of our body.
246. (c) Nucleus, cell membrane, mitochondria and
cytoplasm are present in animal cell.
247. (d) In digestive system of living organisms
proteins are broken down into amino acids.
248. (c) Cerebrum (a major part of forebrain) is the
main thinking part of brain. It has sensory, motor
and association areas.

249. (b) Darwin (1881) found that bending movement
of coleoptile of canary grass (Phalaris canariensis)
was due to exposure of tip to unilateral light.
Boysen-Jensen (1910, 1911) found that the tip
produces a chemical which was later named Auxin.
250. (b) In case the ovum (female) fertilises with a
sperm (male) carrying X-chromosome the zygote
develops into a female (XX) and the fertilisation of
ovum with Y-chromosome carrying sperm results
into a male offspring (XY). Thus, it is evident that
it is the genetic makeup of the sperm (male/father)
that determines the sex of the child.
252. (c) Mostly dicotyledonous plants exhibit an
increase in girth called the secondary growth. The
tissues involved in secondary growth are the two
lateral meristems : vascular cambium and cork
cambium.
254. (d) Chlorenchyma (parenchymatous cells having
chloroplasts) participates in photosynthesis.
It is present in mesophyll cells of leaves and
differentiated into palisade parenchyma and spongy
parenchyma.
255. (b) The matrix comprises the major constituents
of bone. It has inorganic and organic parts. The
inorganic is mainly crystalline mineral salts
and calcium, which is present in the form of
hydroxyapatite. The matrix is initially laid down
as unmineralized osteoid mineralisation involves
osteoblasts secreting vesicles containing alkaline
phosphatase. This cleaves the phosphate groups
and acts as the foci for calcium and phosphate
deposition.
256. (c) Connective tissues are named so because of
their special functions of linking and supporting
other tissues/organs of the body. They range from
soft connective tissues to specialised types, which
include cartilage, bone, adipose, blood and lymph.
257. (c) Proline is an a-amino acid, one of the
twenty DNAencoded amino acids LProline is
an osmoprotectant and therefore is used in many
pharmaceutical, biotechnological applications.
260. (d) Thromboplastin is a plasma protein aiding
blood coagulation through conversion of
prothrombin to thrombin.
261. (b) Lysosomal membrane is formed in ER, later
it is modified and transferred to the cis face of
Golgi apparatus where further processing release
lysosome.
General Science || E-57
263. (b) One of the secondary structures exhibited
by DNA is the famous WatsonCrick model. This
model says that DNA exists as a double helix. The
two strands of polynucleotides are antiparallel i.e.,
run in the opposite direction.
264. (c) During G1 phase the cell is metabolically
active and continuously grow. S or synthesis phase
marks the period during which DNA synthesis or
replication takes place. In G2 phase, proteins are
synthesised. M phase represents the phase when the
actual cell division or mitosis occurs.
266. (c) Oxysomes (Elementary particles or inner
membranes sub-units or F1 particles); these are
responsible for respiratory chain phosphorylation.
267. (a) Almost all the proteins synthesized by ER
bounded ribosomes are converted into glycoproteins
and this glycosylation occurs in the rough ER.
273. (c) Peroxisomes are involved in synthesis of
glycine and serine in the process of photorespiration.
278. (c) The smooth muscle fibres taper at both ends
(fusiform) and do not show striations. Cell junctions
hold them together and they are bundled together
in a connective tissue sheath. The wall of internal
organs such as the blood vessels, stomach and
intestine contain this type of muscle tissue.
283. (a) Starfish are echinoderms belonging to the class
Asteroidea. All are marine with organ-system level
of organization.
287. (b) Eutrophication is the enrichment of bodies of
fresh water by inorganic plant nutrients (e.g., nitrate,
phosphate). These typically promote excessive
growth of algae. As the algae die and decompose,
high levels of organic matter and the decomposing
organisms deplete the water of available oxygen,
causing the death of other organisms, such as fish.
291. (b) The most poisonous mushroom is the death
cap toadstool (Amantia phalloides). It is commonly
found where beech and oak trees grow.
292. (d) All single celled eukaryotes are placed under
Protista. This kingdom forms a link with others
dealing with plants, animals and fungi.
293. (a) A vessel element is one of the cell types
found in xylem, the water conducting tissue of
plants. Vessel elements are typically found in the
angiosperms but absent from most gymnosperms
such as the conifers.
E-58 || Biology
294. (d) Paramecium is a ciliated protozoan because
of the presence of thousands of cilia. Plasmodium
(malarial parasite) is a sporozoan, causing malaria
which has staggering effect on human population.
297. (b) Karyotaxonomy is based up on nucleus and
band on chromosomes.
298. (c) In many bacteria (specially gram +ve) the
plasma membrane gives rise to infoldings called
mesosome. They have respiratory enzymes like
succinic dehydrogenase, cytochrome oxidase for
respiration.
299. (b) In this process bacteria decompose the pectin
of the plant to liberate fibres. The process of fibre
preparation is known as retting. This process is
carried out by Clostridium butyrium.
301. (b) The tip of the root of Rafflesia makes haustorial
contact with the root of host and absorbs food from
the host.
303. (a) Collar cells occurs in sponges and located at
the anterior end of each choanocyte.
305. (b) Human lung fluke, Paragonimus westermani,
infects 22 million people in Africa, Asia and South
and central America. Humans get infected by eating
raw crabs or fishes that are carrying the parasite.
Lung flukes cause pain and severe coughing.
306. (d) Spider belongs to class arachnida.
307. (c) Frog is ureotelic because nitrogenous excretory
product is usually urea.
308. (b) A snake has no middle ear. It perceives sound
through skin from earth.
309. (b) Poison of cobra is most virulent. It is a
neurotoxin attacking nerve centres and causing
paralysis of muscles, especially those of respiratory
muscles.
312. (d) Spirogyra is a freshwater alga found freely
floating on the surface of the stagnant pools, ponds
and ditches, etc. It is commonly known as water silk
or pond silk.
 4 Environment and Ecology
1. The Ramsar convention is associated with the
conservation of
(a) bio fuels (b) forests
(c) wet lands (d) dry lands
2. World Environment Day is observed on
(a) November 19 (b) November 14
(c) October 2 (d) June 5
3. Which of the following is not a water pollutant ?
(a) Zinc (b) Copper
(c) Nickel (d) Sulphur dioxide
4. The concept of greenhouse gases was postulated by
(a) C.C. Park (b) J.N.N. Jaffers
(c) Joseph Fourier (d) L. Zobler
5. Which one of the following naturally occurring
greenhouse gases cause the highest percentage of
greenhouse effect?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane
(c) Ozone (d) Water vapour
6. Eco-Mark is given to the Indian products that are
(a) Pure and unadulterated
(b) Rich in proteins
(c) Environment-friendly
(d) Economically viable
7. Which one of the following is the best source of
generating electricity in India from the viewpoint
of sustainable development ?
(a) Coal (b) Mineral oil and gas
(c) Hydro electricity (d) Atomic energy
8. Sustainable development is a case of
intergenerational sensibility in respect of use of
(a) natural resources (a) carbon dioxide
(b) material resources
(c) industrial resources (c) methane
(d) social resources
9. Chipko movement was basically against
(a) Water pollution (b) Noise pollution
(c) Deforestation (d) Cultural pollution
10. The United Nations Convention on climate
change ratified by more than 50 countries became
effective on
(a) March 21, 1994 (b) May 21, 1995
(c) June 21, 1996 (d) June 21, 1999
11. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Nitrogen
12. As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for which
of the following ?
(a) For nutrient recovery and recycling
(b) For releasing heavy metals through
absorption by plants.
(c) In reducing siltation of rivers by retaining
sediments
(d) All the above
13. The non-biotic pollutant of underground water is
(a) bacteria (b) algae
(c) arsenic (d) viruses
14. The cycling of elements in an ecosystem is called
(a) chemical cycles
(b) biogeochemical cycles
(c) geological cycles
(d) geochemical cycles
15. The transitional zone between two distinct
communities is known as
(a) Ecotype (b) Ecade
(c) Ecosphere (d) Ecotone
16. Acid rain is caused due to air pollution by
(b) carbon monoxide
(d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
E-60 || Environment and Ecology
17. Which one of the following is the most stable (c) Destruction of habitat
ecosystem ? (d) Controlling pests
(a) Desert (b) Mountain 27. Which of the following Megacities of India
(c) Ocean (d) Forest generates the largest solid waste per capita
18. The greenhouse effect is mostly caused by annually ?
(a) Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere (a) Bangalore (b) Chennai
(b) Infra-red radiation (c) Delhi (d) Mumbai
(c) Moisture in the atmosphere 28. The author of Green Development is
(d) Ozone layer (a) M.J. Bradshaw (b) M. Nicolson
19. The orderly sequence of change in the vegetation
(c) R.H. Whittaker (d) W.M. Adams
of an area over time is described as
29. Which one of the following is important strategy
(a) biomes (b) succession
for the conservation of biodiversity ?
(c) trophic level (d) climax
20. The minimum area of the land required to (a) Biosphere Reserves
completely sustain the life of one person is called (b) Botanical Gardens
his (c) National Parks
(a) Biota (d) Wild Life Sanctuaries
(b) Biome 30. Endangered species are listed in
(c) Ecological foot print (a) Dead Stock Book (b) Red Data Book
(d) Niche (c) Live Stock Book (d) None of these
21. The maximum biodiversity is found in 31. Among the biotic components of the ecosystem
(a) tropical rain forests the producer system is
(b) temperate forests (a) Cow (b) Peacock
(c) coniferous forests (c) Tiger (d) Green plants
(d) arctic forests 32. To meet Euro II emission standards, what should
22. Which one of the following trees is considered to be the sulphur content in the ultra low sulphur
be an environmental hazard ? diesel ?
(a) Babool (b) Amaltas (a) 0.05 percent or less
(c) Neem (d) Eucalyptus (b) 0.10 percent
23. The highest chemical pollution is caused by the (c) 0.15 percent
industrial effluents of
(d) 0.20 percent
(a) leather industry (b) paper industry
33. Climate change is caused by
(c) rayon industry (d) taxtile industry
(a) greenhouse gases
24. Biosphere reserves are areas to preserve
(a) Grassland (b) depletion of ozone layer
(b) Agricultural produce (c) pollution
(c) Atmospheric balance (d) all the above
(d) Genetic diversity 34. The Ozone layer restricts
25. Solar radiation plays the most important role in (a) visible light
the (b) infrared radiation
(a) Carbon cycle (b) Oxygen cycle (c) X-rays and Gamma rays
(c) Water cycle (d) Nitrogen cycle (d) ultraviolet radiation
26. Which one of the following is the most important 35. The concept of ecological niche was first
factor responsible for decline of biodiversity? introduced by
(a) Genetic assimilation (a) C.C. Park (b) E.P. Odum
(b) Controlling predators (c) J. Grinnell (d) G.E. Hutchinson

36. Which one of the following ecosystems is known
as the Land of Big Games ?
(a) Selvas (b) Savannah
(c) Prairie (d) Taiga
37. Biotic component of the environment does not
include
(a) soil system
(b) animal system
(c) micro-organism system
(d) plant system
38. Mangrove forests in Asia are largely concentrated
in
(a) India (b) Malaysia
(c) Indonesia (d) Philippines
39. Higher order biotic level includes
(a) populations (b) cells
(c) genes (d) tissues
40. Which one of the following is a part of Geological
cycle ?
(a) Carbon cycle
(b) Hydrogen cycle
(c) Hydrological cycle
(d) Nitrogen cycle
41. Which one of the following is related to ozone
formation ?
(a) Photosynthesis process
(b) Photochemical process
(c) Chemosynthesis process
(d) Hydrolysis process
42. Which one of the following is not related to water
pollution ?
(a) Eutrophication
(b) Nitrification
(c) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
(d) Oil slicks
43. Which one of the following is designated as the
lungs of the world ?
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Mid-latitude mixed forests
(c) Taiga forests
(d) Equatorial evergreen forests
44. An artificial ecosystem is represented by
(a) Agriculture land (b) Pisciculture tank
(c) Zoo (d) Aquarium
General Science || E-61
45. All components and individuals in an ecosystem
are
(a) individualistic (b) independent
(c) interdependent (d) dispensable
46. The amount of energy as it passes on from one
trophic level to other in an ecosystem
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) none of these
47. What term denotes the organisms getting their
food from others ?
(a) Heterotrophs (b) Autotrophs
(c) Producers (d) Synthesizers
48. Supersonic jet causes pollution by thinning of
(a) O3 layer (b) C2 layer
(c) SO2 layer (d) O2 layer
49. The word Ecology was coined in 1866 by
(a) Charles Darwin (b) Robert Whittaker
(c) Arthur Tansley (d) Ernst Haeckel
50. The concept of carbon credit originated from
which one of the following ?
(a) Kyoto protocol (b) Earth summit
(c) Doha round (d) Montreal Protocol
51. Earth summit was held in
(a) Chicago (b) Copenhagen
(c) Rio de Jneiro (d) London
52. Which of the following environmentalists first
gave the concept of Biodiversity Hotspots ?
(a) Julia Hill (b) John Muir
(c) Norman Myers (d) Gaylord Nelson
53. In a food chain, the solar energy utilized by plants
is only
(a) 10% (b) 0.01%
(c) 0.1% (d) 1.0%
54. The loss of biodiversity is due to
(a) the destruction of natural habitats of
organism
(b) environmental pollution
(c) destruction of forests
(d) all the above
55. Global-500 Award is given for achievement in
the field of
(a) environmental protection
(b) movement against narcotics
(c) movement against terrorism
(d) population control
E-62 || Environment and Ecology
56. Global Warming is caused due to the emission of (c) deserts and Savanna
(a) Nitrogen (d) equatorial forests
(b) Carbon dioxide 65. The use of fossil fuels is responsible for the
(c) Carbon Monooxide increase in the amount of which gas in the
(d) Hydrocarbon atmosphere ?
57. Which one of the following energy is most (a) Nitrogen (b) Carbondioxide
utilized in biomass ? (c) Ozone (d) Argon
(a) Atomic energy 66. Which of the following components of ecosystem
(b) Solar energy acts as intermediatory between biotic and abiotic
(c) Geothermal energy components?
(d) Tidal energy (a) Producer (b) Consumer
58. Urbanisation and Industrialisation are detri- (c) Decomposer (d) Habitat
mental to 67. Which one among the following is not an
(a) Sustainable development endangered bird of India?
(b) Environment and Ecology (a) White-bellied Heron
(c) Preservation of biodiversity (b) Great Indian Bustard
(d) All of the above (c) Forest Owlet
59. The National Environmental Research Institute is (d) Mallard
located at
68. Which one of the following is not helpful in
(a) Dehradun (b) Jaipur
maintaining ecological stability?
(c) Nagpur (d) New Delhi
(a) Ecosystem complexity
60. Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is given for
(b) Ecosystem diversity
outstanding contribution to
(c) Ecosystem uniformity
(a) Afforestation and conservation of wastelands
(d) Homeostatic mechanism
(b) Clean technology and development
(c) Wild life conservation 69. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is
(d) Hindi books on environment sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food
61. Which one of the following adopted Agenda crop Rat Snake Hawk. In this food chain,
21 ? the highest concentration of the pesticide would
(a) First Earth Summit accumulate in which one of the following ?
(b) Summit on Sustainable Development (a) Food crop (b) Rat
(c) Montreal Protocol (c) Snake (d) Hawk
(d) Kyoto Protocol 70. Consider the following statements
62. The term ecosystem was enunciated by 1. In ecology, an ecosystem is a naturally
(a) C.C. Park (b) G. Mendal occurring assemblage of organism (plant,
(c) A.G. Tansley (d) E.P. Odum animal and other living organism - also
63. Which one of the following is not included under referred to as a biotic community or
the basic component of the environment ? biocoenosis) living together with their
(a) Abiotic component environment (or biotope), function as a unit
(b) Biotic component of sorts.
(c) Energy component 2. The term ecosystem first coined by Arthur
(d) Spatial component Tansely.
64. The greatest diversity of animal and plant species Which of the statements given above is/are
occurs in correct?
(a) tropical moist forests (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) temperate deciduous forests (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

71. Under optional conditions, the fruit fly
(Drosphilia) is capable of producing a new
generation every two weeks.
This ability is referred to as the ............ of the
species.
(a) carrying capacity
(b) niche
(c) biotic potential
(d) optimal yeild
72. Nitrosomonas bacteria in the root modules of
leguminous plants converts nitrogen gas from air
into inorganic nitrogen compounds which enrich
the soil and can be readily used by plants. Multiple
cropping with legumes can thus significantly
reduce the need for
(a) pesticides (b) fertilizers
(c) irrigation (d) All of these
73. What is the primary source of food for marine
life?
(a) Phytoplankton (b) Zooplankton
(c) Sea weed (d) Grass
74. The use of microorganism metabolism to remove
pollutants such as oil spills in the water bodies is
known as
(a) biomagnification (b) bioremediation
(c) biomethanation (d) bioreduction
75. In Nitrogen Cycle, soil nitrates are transformed
into free nitrogen by
(a) nitrifying bacteria
(b) denitrifying bacteria
(c) ammonifying bacteria
(d) Both (a) and (c)
76. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) All the abiotic resources are non-renewable
and all the biotic resources are renewable
(b) All the abiotic resources are non-renewable
but some of the biotic resources are non-
renewable
(c) Some of the abiotic resources are renewable
but the biotic resources are renewable
(d) Some of the abiotic resources are renewable
and some of the biotic resources are non-
renewable
General Science || E-63
77. Which crop utilizes solar energy most efficiently ?
(a) Potato (b) Sugarcane
(c) Wheat (d) Rice
78. In dry regions, the leaf size of a tree becomes
smaller. It is so to
(a) reduce metabolism
(b) reduce transpiration
(c) maintain natural growth
(d) protect plant from animals
79. Which one of the following is a major constituent
of biogas?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane
(c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen dioxide
80. The major combustible component of gobar (cow
dung) gas is
(a) methane (b) carbon dioxide
(c) hydrogen (d) propane
81. The driving force of an ecosystem is
(a) biomass
(b) producer
(c) carbohydrate in producers
(d) solar energy
82. As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for which
of the following?
(a) For nutrient recovery and cycling
(b) For releasing heavy metals through
absorption by plants
(c) In reducing saltation of rivers by retaining
sediments
(d) All of the above
83. Vermicompost is a/an
(a) inorganic fertilizer
(b) toxic substance
(c) organic biofertilizer
(d) synthesis fertilizer
84. Environmental Kuznets curve
(a) a semi-circle curve suggesting increase in
per-capita income increases the pollution
(b) a U-shaped curve suggesting the level of
development and carbon emission
(c) suggest a U-shaped relationship between the
carbon emission and Ozone layer depletion
(d) suggest a bell-shaped relationship between
the concentration of certain pollution
emission and per-capita real GDP
E-64 || Environment and Ecology
85. Consider the following statements
1. The Forest Survey of India was established
in 1981.
2. The Forest Survey of India was a successor
to Pre-Investment Survey of Forest
Resources (PISFR), a project initiated in
1965 by Government of India and sponsored
by FAO and UNDP.
3. The Forest Survey of India prepare
vegetation maps after every five years
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 1 (d) Only 3
86. Consider the following
1. Carbon dioxide 2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions
from coal combustion at thermal power plants?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
87. REDD Plus Programme is concerned with which
of the following ?
(a) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
(b) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
(c) Millennium Development Goals (MDG)
(d) Earth Summit
88. Consider the following statements about Montreal
Protocol
1. The Vienna Convention on the ozone layer
and the subsequent Montreal Protocol on
substance that depleted the ozone layer,
adopted in 1987.
2. The protocol provided for a multilateral
fund to assist developing countries cover
their incremental costs in eliminating CFCs
or ODS.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
89. Consider the following statements
1. According to IPCC, Methane is more than
20 times as effective as CO2 at trapping heat
in the atmosphere
2. Methane is more than 50 times as effective
as CO2 in depletion of Ozone layer
3. Methane is derived from sources such as
rice paddies, bovine flatulence, bacteria in
bogs and fossil fuel production
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
90. Earlier, leaded petrol used to be the most
widespread, though easily preventable, source
of urban air pollution in the world. According
to WHO (World Health Organisation). 15-18
million children in the developing countries are
already suffering from permanent brain damage
due to lead poisoning. Why is tetra-ethyl lead
added to petrol?
(a) It prevents engine knocking
(b) Reduces vehicular emissions
(c) Increases life of motor tyres
(d) None of the above
91. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Viena : protection
convention : of ozone layer
2. Stockholm : Hazardous wastes
convention and their disposal
3. Rotterdam : Hazardous
convention chemicals
4. Basel : persistent organic
convention pollutants
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
92. Rally for Valley programme in India was
organised to highlight the problem of
(a) environmental degradation
(b) biodiversity
(c) resettlement of displaced people
(d) loss of agricultural land
93. Buddha Nullah has been the main source of
pollution of which among the following rivers?
(a) Chambal (b) Sutlej
(c) Yamuna (d) Gandak
94. The hockey stick graph indicates
(a) increase in population
(b) increase in urban areas
(c) increase in sea level
(d) increase in global temperature

95. Which among the following statement about
biofertilizers are correct?
1. Azotobacter is one of the nitrogen fixing
bacteria used as a biofertilizer.
2. They have to be applied to the leaves of the
plant only.
3. They alter the chemical composition of the
soil.
4. They can be used along with organic
fertilizers.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
96. Which one of the following plants is used for
green manuring in India ?
(a) Wheat (b) Sunnhemp
(c) Cotton (d) Rice
97. Which among the following are the major reasons
behind preferring eucalyptus tree in the planned
forestation process?
1. Plantation grows very fast.
2. Plantation makes the soil more fertile.
3. Wood from eucalyptus tree is easily
converted into the pulp for paper industry.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
98. In a forest, animals like voles and woodlice feed
on plant roots and barks respectively. Among
the other carnivores, foxes, shrews and owls are
present in that forest. Following predictions are
made by a group of observers who have visited
the forest.
1. If the roots of the tree develop a disease,
then voles and foxes will starve and not the
owls.
2. Population of voles is dependent on wood
lice population through food web.
3. If owl population declines, it will indirectly
affect wood lice population.
General Science || E-65
4. If barks of tree are affected due to a disease,
then reduction of wood lice will affect the
shrew population forcing owls to eat more
voles.
Which of the above predictions is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 2
99. Polar bears are carnivores and prey on many
arctic birds and fishes. However, under natural
conditions, no one found polar bears predating
any penguin. This is because
(a) penguins have chemical substance in their
muscles which is toxic to polar bears
(b) penguins are gregarious and always move
in groups. Therefore, a polar bear cannot
approach them
(c) polar bears and penguins never coexist
under natural conditions. The former lives
in the North Pole while the latter lives in the
South Pole
(d) polar bears and penguins display symbiotic
relationships and they help each other for
their existence in the ice-cold ecosystem
100. Which of the following gases is released from
rice fields in the most prominent quantities?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane
(c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide
101. Consider the following statement about
bioremediation.
1. It may be defined as any process that uses
microorganisms or their enzymes to return
the environment altered by contaminants to
its original condition.
2. Bioremediation may be employed in order
to attack specific contaminants, such as
chlorinated pesticides that are degraded by
bacterial.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
E-66 || Environment and Ecology

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 12. (d) 23. (a) 34. (d) 45. (c) 56. (b) 67. (d) 78. (b) 89. (b) 100. (b)
2. (d) 13. (c) 24. (d) 35. (c) 46. (b) 57. (b) 68. (c) 79. (b) 90. (a) 101. (c)
3. (b) 14. (b) 25. (c) 36. (b) 47. (a) 58. (d) 69. (d) 80. (a) 91. (b)
4. (c) 15. (d) 26. (c) 37. (a) 48. (a) 59. (c) 70. (c) 81. (d) 92. (a)
5. (a) 16. (d) 27. (c) 38. (c) 49. (d) 60. (b) 71. (c) 82. (c) 93. (b)
6. (c) 17. (c) 28. (d) 39. (a) 50. (a) 61. (a) 72. (b) 83. (c) 94. (d)
7. (c) 18. (a) 29. (a) 40. (c) 51. (c) 62. (c) 73. (a) 84. (d) 95. (a)
8. (a) 19. (b) 30. (b) 41. (b) 52. (c) 63. (d) 74. (b) 85. (b) 96. (b)
9. (c) 20. (c) 31. (d) 42. (b) 53. (d) 64. (d) 75. (b) 86. (d) 97. (b)
10. (a) 21. (a) 32. (a) 43. (d) 54. (d) 65. (b) 76. (d) 87. (b) 98. (d)
11. (d) 22. (d) 33. (d) 44. (d) 55. (a) 66. (a) 77. (b) 88. (c) 99. (c)

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) On 2nd February 1971 the Convention on
Wetlands near Ramsar coast of Iran was held (Since
then 2nd Feb was celebrated as World Wetland Day).
A transition zone between dry land and water bodies
wetlands helps in nourishing high biodiversity and
purifying the drainage system of rivers before
entering into oceans, so they are also known as
Kidneys of Ecosystem. There are 26 Ramsar Sites
in India.
2. (d) Since 1972, 5th June is celebrated as World
Environment Day by UNEP (United Nations
Environment Program)to raise global awareness for
positive environmental actions. It is also known as
Ecoday/Environment Day and WED.
3. (b) Copper is a metal element that is essential to
human health. Too little is unhealthy and too much
can lead to copper poisoning.Copper is not a water
pollutant in small quantity but in large quantity it
acts as a water pollutant and cause various diseases
of digestive system.
4. (c) The concept of Greenhouse gases (GHGs)
was postulated by Joseph Fourier. It indicates the
group of gases through which Green House Effect
(GHE) is caused. All greenhouse gases together
form a layer which helps in trapping of outgoing
insolation solar radiations and keep the earth warm
and habitable.
5. (a) Carbon dioxide causes the highest percentage
(i.e., about 60%) of greenhouse effect, the enhanced
greenhouse effect is known as Global warming.
Global warming is progressive heating of earths
atmosphere because of enhanced trapping of solar
radiation.
6. (c) Eco-Mark is given to the Indian products that
are environment-friendly. Eco-Mark is an eco-
labelling scheme which was constituted by the
Government of India in 1991 for easy identification
of environment-friendly products. Eco-Mark is
unique when compared to other eco-labels in one
aspect; it also necessitated meeting the quality
requirements of BIS (Bureau of Indian Standards).
7. (c) Hydroelectricity is the most sustainable method
of generating electricity. It is one of the renewable
source of energy in which the kinetic energy of
flowing streams can be used to run the turbines to
generate electricity through dams or other natural
waterfalls. Presently all the given statements are
responsible, but hydro electricity projects would be
economical and sustainable in India.
8. (a) Sustainable development is a case of
intergenerational sensibility in respect of use of
natural resources. It is the development of present
generation without depleting the resource share of
future generation. It includes the Concept of Needs
and Idea of Limitations.

9. (c) Chipko movement was basically against
Deforestration. The movement started by noted
environmental activist Sunder Lal Bahuguna in the
year 1970 to safeguard the rich flora of Western
Himalayan region. During this movement, activists
hugged around trees to protest against their cutting
down.
10. (a) The United Nations convention on climate
change ratified by more than 50 countries became
effective on March 21, 1994. To cooperatively
consider what they could do to limit the increase
in the global temperature and the resulting climate
change, and to cope with whatever impacts were,
inevitable then in 1992. Countries joined an
international treaty, the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change.
11. (d) Nitrogen is not a greenhouse gas and is present
as largest proportion of atmosphere (about 78%). As
this is not present in upper layer of troposphere, it
does not act as greenhouse gas.
12. (d) As wetland is a transition zone between the
riverine drainage and oceanic reservoir, it plays
a big role in maintaining high biodiversity and in
retaining sediments from the rivers before entering
into large water bodies.
13. (c) Bacteria, algae and virus are all biotic. The
non-biotic pollutant of underground water is
arsenic. It may be found in water which has flowed
through arsenic-rich rocks. Immediate symptoms
on an acute poisoning typically include vomiting,
oesophageal and abdominal pain, and bloody
rice water diarrhoea. Chelation therapy may be
effective in acute poisoning but should not be used
against long-term poisoning.
14. (b) The cycling of elements in an ecosystem
are called Biogeochemical cycles. They have two
components; 1-Biotic and 2- Reservoir. On the basis
of location of reservoir, Biogeochemical cycle are
of three types-(A) Gaseous cycle e.g., C,H and O
cycle, (B) Sedimentary cycles e.g., P and S cycles
(C) Hydrological cycle (H2O cycle).
15. (d) The transitional zone between two distinct
communities is known as Ecotone. It has the
features of both these communities. It often has
higher number of species and organisms than both
the communities. The influence of the two bordering
communities on each other is known as the Edge
Effect. Meeting points of two water bodies like
Estuaries and Lagoons are examples of Ecotone.
General Science || E-67
16. (d) The term acid rain means any form of
precipitation like rain, fog, snow, or hail that
contains harmful substances such as nitrogen
and sulphur oxides. Acid rain is caused due to air
pollution by nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide.
17. (c) Ocean is the most stable ecosystem as it is
highly productive.
18. (a) The greenhouse effect is mostly caused by
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. As the biggest
contributor, carbon di oxide causes about 60% of
the greenhouse effect in environment, in which
returning insolation of higher wavelength gets
trapped by layer of greenhouse gases.
19. (b) The orderly sequence of change in the
vegetation of an area over time is described as
succession. During succession, the sequence
of PIONEER COMMUNITY SERAL
COMMUNITY CLIMAX COMMUNITY are
progressively grown on the vegetationless regions.
The succession in water and desert are known as
Hydrosere and Xerosere respectively.
20. (c) The minimum area of the land required to
completely sustain the life of one person is called
his ecological foot print. From any ecological foot
print, an organism uptakes its important resource
materials for its living.
21. (a) The maximum biodiversity is found in tropical
rainforests. Tropical belt extends between Tropic of
cancer and Tropic of Capricorn. This is the region of
highest photoactivity as sun shines for more or less
whole year which means high photosynthesis and
productivity ultimately led to the high biomass.
22. (d) Eucalyptus is considered to be an
environmental hazard as it depletes ground water
table. Eucalyptus species consume more water
than others, less productive species. Growing
eucalyptus in low rainfall areas may cause adverse
environmental impacts due to competition for water
with other species and an increased incidence of
allelopathy which means killing of other plants.
23. (a) The highest chemical pollution is caused by
the industrial effluents of leather industry. As the
effluents contain heavy metals and tannins which
kill the biodiversity of water bodies and increase
its Biochemical oxygen Demand (BOD) which later
results in Eutrophication.
E-68 || Environment and Ecology
24. (d) Biosphere reserves (BRs) are areas to
preserve Genetic diversity. These are organism
specific Protected Areas (PAs) which are funded
and managed by Central Government. There are
18 Biosphere reserves presently in India. The
notification for BRs are released by MoEF.
25. (c) Solar radiation plays the most important role
in the Water cycle (Hydrological Cycle) as Sun
plays an important role in evaporation from earth
surface, Water bodies and Biological organisms.
Even the melting of ice from icecaps/glaciers is due
to heat of sunrays.
26. (c) Destruction of habitat is the most important
factor responsible for decline in biodiversity.
The disbalance in biodiversity taking place is just
because of habitat fragmentation which results in
loss of endangered animal and plant species.
27. (c) Delhi generates the largest solid waste per
capita annually.
28. (d) The author of Green development is W.M.
Adams. This book provides a clear and coherent
analysis of sustainable development in both theory
and practice.
29. (a) Biosphere Reserve is an important strategy
for the conservation of biodiversity. Biosphere
Reserves in India roughly correspond to category
5 protected areas. There are 18 biosphere reserves
present in India, which are managed and funded by
central government.
30. (b) Endangered species are listed in Red Data
book. The Red data book is published annually by
International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN). Species are classified by the IUCN Red
list into nine groups, set through criteria such as
rate of decline, population size, area of geographic
distribution etc.
31. (d) Among the biotic components of the ecosystem
the producers system is Green plants. The green
plants are known as producer as they produce food
by the process of photosynthesis in which they store
the light energy and produce the Carbohydrates.
Green plants are only source of energy and biomass
for living system as all animals depend directly or
indirectly on green plants.
32. (a) To meet the standards of Euro II emission
the sulphur content in the ultra-low sulphur diesel
should be 0.05 percent or less. Similar to Euro II in
European countries India has Bharat Stage standards
to regulate pollution by automobiles exhaust.
33. (d) All the above factors are responsible for climate
change. Both Greenhouse gases and Depletion of
ozone layers ultimately lead to Global warming,
which is the most important factor of climate
change. The pollution also plays big role in climatic
change as the source of acid rain, biodiversity loss
and other climatic disturbances.
34. (d) The ozone layer (Present in Stratosphere)
restricts the harmful ultraviolet radiations from
penetrating into earth atmosphere. There are 3 types
of UV radiation: UV-A, UV-B and UV-C in which
except UV-A, others are dangerous for human
health. They cause skin tumours. The ozone layers
restricts the entry of UV-C and UV-B into earth
atmosphere.
35. (c) The concept of ecological niche was first
introduced by Joseph Grinnell in 1917. A plants or
animals niche, or more correctly, ecological niche,
is a way of life that is unique to that species. Niche
and habitat are not the same. While many species
may share a habitat, this is not true for a niche.
Each plant and animal species is a member of a
community. The niche describes the species role or
function within this community.
36. (b) Savannah ecosystem is known as the Land
of Big Games. It is the region where Grasslands
have scattered trees of moderate height. In these
ecosystems the productivity of soil is very less and
the grasses are soft and trees are spiny and has less
leaves.
37. (a) Biotic component of the environment does
not include soil system. Biotic component includes
animal and plants, while sunlight, soil, temperature,
water and air are all abiotic components of
ecosystem.
38. (c) Mangrove forests in Asia are largely
concentrated in Indonesia. Mangroves are salt-
tolerant plants of tropical and subtropical intertidal
regions of the world. The specific regions where
these plants occur are termed as mangrove
ecosystem. These are highly productive but
extremely sensitive and fragile. Besides mangroves,
the ecosystem also harbours other plant and animal
species, unique to that habitat.
39. (a) Higher order biotic level includes populations.
A population is a summation of all the organisms
of the same group or species, who live in the
same geographical area, and have the capability

of interbreeding. Population is defined as the area
where inter-breeding is potentially possible between
any pair within the area.
40. (c) Hydrological cycle is a part of Geological
cycle. The example of hydrological cycle is water
cycle in which sun plays an important role. This
cycle is the only source of water for living organism
present on earth surface.
41. (b) Photochemical process is related to ozone
formation. Ozone is formed as ultraviolet radiation
from the sun breaks down oxygen in the atmosphere,
O2, into atomic oxygen with a single atom.
O2 + sunlight O + O
The excited free oxygen atom can bond with O2 to
form ozone.
O + O2 O 3
42. (b) Nitrification is not related to water pollution.
It is a process through which atmospheric nitrogen
(N2) fixed in the form of nitrite and nitrate, it is one
of the steps in nitrogen cycle which is induced by
nitrifying bacteria present in soil and root nodules
of leguminous plants.
43. (d) Equatorial evergreen forests are designated as
the lungs of the world.These forests, are among the
worlds largest and most efficient living storehouses
of carbon monoxide, the greenhouse gas most
responsible for the earths temperature rises and
changes in the planets climate .
44. (d) An artificial ecosystem is represented by an
aquarium in which all the factors are regulated
according to choice. These factors are number of
species/ organisms, amount of food, time of sunlight
and temperature, etc. when all these factors are
naturally controlled then the ecosystem is known as
Natural ecosystem.
45. (c) All components and individuals in an
ecosystem are interdependent on each other for
food, shelter and other activities. This statement is
supported by the concept of Food Chain, Food Web
and Ecological Pyramids. The relationship between
organisms like Commensalism, Amensalism,
Parasitism and Predation also indicate the
relationship between these organisms.
46. (b) The amount of energy as it passes on from one
trophic level to another in an ecosystem decreases.
According to 10% law of energy transfer given
by Raymond Lindenan, the total energy which
is transferred from one to another trophic level is
10% of the total energy, rest 90% gets consumed in
metabolic activities. (of that trophic level itself).
General Science || E-69
47. (a) The organism getting their food from other
organisms are called as Heterotrophs.There are two
classes of organisms on the basis of their source
of food. 1-Autotrophs/Producers/Synthesizers e.g.,
plants and 2-Heterotrophs/Consumers e.g., Animals.
All animals are dependent on plants for their food
and other requirements so they are heterotrophs.
48. (a) Supersonic jet causes pollution by thinning of
O3 layer. The simple chlorine-chlorine monoxide
cycle can only occur at high altitudes where there
are enough free oxygen atoms to allow the second
step in the chain to run. A number of evidences
have accumulated to show that these reactions are
indeed destroying small amounts of ozone at about
40 km above Earth. Other families of radicals also
participate in catalytic cycles that destroy ozone
nitrogen oxides released by supersonic jets.
49. (d) The word ecology was coined in1866 by
the German scientist Ernst Haeckel (18341919).
Ecology is not synonymous with environment,
environmentalism, natural history, or environmental
science is closely related to evolutionary biology,
genetics and ethology.
50. (a) The concept of carbon credit was originated
from the Kyoto Protocol of 1997. The Kyoto
Protocol separates countries into two groups. Annex
I includes developed nations, while Non-Annex I
includes developing countries. Emission limitations
are only placed on Annex I countries. Non-Annex
I nations participate by investing in projects that
lower emissions in their own countries. For these
projects, they earn carbon credits.
51. (c) The United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED), also
known as the Rio Summit or Rio Conference
or Earth Summit was a major United Nations
conference held in Rio de Janeiro from 3 June to 14
June 1992.
52. (c) The concept of biodiversity hotspots was
originated by Norman Myers. To qualify as a
biodiversity hotspot on Myers 2000 edition of the
hotspot-map, a region must meet two strict criteria:
it must contain at least 0.5% or 1,500 species of
vascular plants as endemics, and it has to have lost
atleast 70% of its primary vegetation.
53. (d) On an average, about 1% of the total Suns
energy reaching the earth is used up by plants in the
process of photosynthesis and stored as chemical
energy of food.
E-70 || Environment and Ecology
54. (d) Many factors contribute to the loss of
biodiversity across the globe. The major reasons
include human activities like massive destruction
of forest lands for commercial build-ups so causing
the destruction of natural habitat of biodiversity.
Various kinds of pollution cause disappearance of
sensitive species.
55. (a) The United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP) established the Global 500 Roll of Honour in
1987 to recognize the environmental achievements
of individuals and organizations around the world.
56. (b) According to the report IPCC, 2013, the
largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide
(CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion,
cement production, and land use changes such as
deforestation.
57. (b) The solar energy is converted into chemical
energy by photosynthetic autotrophs. The biomass
of the organisms is indirectly derived from the solar
energy.
58. (d) Rapid urbanisation and unregulated industriali-
sation occur at much faster rate than the forests
could replenish themselves. So, the environment
and ecology of any region get severed. Preservation
of biodiversity is given less priority in urbanised
and industrial areas. Sustainable development is
much more difficult to be implemented in the fast
paced economy.
59. (c) The National Environmental Research
Institute(NEERI) is a pioneer laboratory in the
area of environmental science and engineering, is
located in Nagpur.
60. (b) The Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is
given to industrial units that make a significant
contribution towards the development of new, or the
innovative modification of existing, technologies or
adoption and use of clean technologies and practices
that substantially reduce or prevent environmental
pollution.
61. (a) Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily
implemented action plan of the United Nations
with regard to sustainable development also known
as the first Earth summit. It is a product of the UN
Conference on Environment and Development
(UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.
62. (c) Sir Arthur George Tansley, a British botanist
and ecologist, was the first person to use the term
ecosystem in a published work. Tansley devised
the concept to draw attention to the importance of
transfers of materials between organisms and their
environment.
63. (d) The Environment is the interaction between
biotic, abiotic factors depending on energy. Spatial
component is not counted in the environmental
interactions.
64. (d) Equatorial forests or tropical rainforests are
thought to be the oldest biome on Earth; it is not
surprising that they contain the most species, and
hence greatest biodiversity.
65. (b) A 2013 report of IPCC, has mentioned that the
largest driver of global warming is carbon dioxide
(CO2) emissions from fossil fuel combustion,
cement production, and land use changes such as
deforestation.
66. (a) Producers or autotrophs are the connectors or
intermediary organisms linking the other organisms
with the abiotic components of the environment.
67. (d) White-bellied Heron (Ardeainsignis), Great
Indian Bustard (Ardeotisnigriceps) and Forest
Owlet (Atheneblewitti) are some, among the
list of endangered birds of India. Mallard
(Anasplatyrhynchos) is a dabbling bird, which is not
an endangered bird.
68. (c) Uniformity or homogeneity of species or
organisms in an ecosystem creates a highly unstable
environment. The stability of ecosystem depends
on the heterogeneity and variety of organisms
inhabiting it, so an equilibrium is maintained.
95. (a) Azotobactor and Rhizobium are nitrogen
fixing bacteria which are used as biofertilisers.
The biofertilisers can be used along with organic
fertilizers.
96. (b) Sunnhemp (crotoloria juncea) is the plant
which is used for green manuring in India. Its is
extensiely cultivated for green manure and its leaves
are fod as high protion supplement to other poorer
feeds.
97. (b) Eucalyptus grows very fast and the stem is
used for pulp and paper industry.
98. (d) If owl population declines, it will indirectly
affect wood lice population because if owl
population will decline the population of wood lice
increases because owl is not available to eat the
wood lice population.
99. (c) Polar bear lives in the North Pole while the
penguins live in Antarctica, i.e., in the Southern
Hemisphere.
100. (b) Methane is released in rice fields in the most
prominent quantities. Because when organic matter
decays without oxygen in the water logged rice
paddies, bacteria in the water generate methane.
 5 Science and Technology
1. Cryogenic engines are used in
(a) rockets and spacecrafts
(b) atomic reactors
(c) defrost refrigerators
(d) doing research connected with superconduc-
tivity.
2. What is the source of electrical energy in an
artificial satellite ?
(a) Solar cells
(b) Mini nuclear reactor
(c) Dynamo
(d) Thermopile
3. The fastest super computer of the world is
(a) Param Yuva II (b) Tianhe-2
(c) IBM Road runner (d) Titan
4. Which one of the following organisations is not
related to science and technology ?
(a) DST (b) CSIR
(c) ICSSR (d) DAE
5. The name of the ICBM developed by India with
a strike range of more than 2000 km is
(a) Prithvi (b) Trishul 13. The first computer was made by
(c) Akash (d) Agni-II
6. Satish Dhawan Space Centre is located in
(a) Vishakhapatnam (b) Goa
(c) Sriharikota (d) Chennai
7. HAL is related to manufacturing of
(a) Telecommunication equipments
(b) Aircrafts
(c) Space missiles
(d) War missiles
8. Which one of the following countries is credited
with the establishment of Uranium City ?
(a) Australia (b) Canada
(c) Russia (d) U.S.A.
9. The committees set up by GOI have identified 5
new sites for Nuclear parks. Of these five, which
site has been alloted to AREVA of France ?
(a) Kowadi (b) Mithi virdi
(c) Jaitapur (d) Haripur
10. Computer virus is a
(a) Fungus
(b) Bacterium
(c) IC 7344
(d) Software programme
11. If an apple is released from an orbiting spaceship,
it will
(a) fall towards the earth
(b) move of a lower speed
(c) move along with the spaceship at the same
speed
(d) move at a higher speed
12. IC chips for computers are usually made of
(a) Lead (b) Chromium
(c) Silicon (d) Gold
(a) Bill Gates (b) Bill Clinton
(c) Charles Babbage (d) Marconi
14. Miniaturization of earlier computers to present
day computers has been possible due to the use
of
(a) Transistors
(b) Integrated circuit chips
(c) Nano-materials
(d) Super conductors
15. Which one of the following is used as a moderator
in the nuclear reactor ?
(a) Thorium (b) Graphite
(c) Radium (d) Ordinary water
E-72 || Science and Technology
16. Which one of the following is a part of Infotech
Terminology ?
(a) Protocol (b) Login
(c) Archie (d) All of the above
17. Inventor and founder of www is
(a) Tim Burners Lee (b) N. Russel
(c) Lee N. Fiyong (d) Bill Gates
18. Missile Astra is a
(a) land to land missile
(b) land to air missile
(c) air to air missile 28. Networks that use different technologies can be
(d) water to land missile
19. Russian space craft established a new record by
reaching the International Space Station (ISS) in
only 6 hours, while earlier the space crafts used
to take two or three days to reach the ISS. Which
is this space craft ?
(a) Sputnik - II (b) Soyuz
(c) Zond (d) Venera
20. When did India make first nuclear weapon
explosion ?
(a) 15th May, 1964 (b) 18th May, 1974
(c) 11th May, 1989 (d) 13th May, 1998
21. The computer system which links and stores
information among different countries in the
world through a satellite is known as
(a) Apollo (b) INSAT 2D
(c) Internet (d) Nicnet
22. Which one of the following subjects is not related
to Robot ?
(a) Kinematics (b) Cybernatics
(c) Hydraulics (d) Mechanics
23. Which one of the following is not a space
satellite?
(a) SLV-3 (b) RS-D1
(c) IRS-1D (d) INSAT-2D
24. Cosmos 2406 is
(a) a super computer (a) Hard disk (b) Floppy disk
(b) a military satellite
(c) a pilotless plane
(d) Mars project of Russia
25. Modem is a device used for
(a) computing
(b) converting analog signals to digital signals
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
26. Modern communication systems use
(a) analog circuits
(b) digital circuits
(c) combination of analog and digital circuits
(d) none of these
27. For television broadcasting the frequency
employed is
(a) 30 300 MHz (b) 30 300 GHz
(c) 30 300 KHz (d) 30 300 Hz
connected by using
(a) packets (b) switches
(c) bridges (d) routers
29. The main aim of software engineering is to
produce
(a) program
(b) software
(c) within budget
(d) software within budget in the given schedule
30. Mobile IP provides two basic functions
(a) route discovery and registration
(b) agent discovery and registration
(c) IP binding and registration
(d) none of the above
31. Reliability of software is directly dependent on
(a) quality of the design
(b) number of errors present
(c) software engineers experience
(d) user requirement
32. A complete microcomputer system consists of
(a) microprocessor
(b) memory
(c) peripheral equipment
(d) all of the above
33. Where does a computer add and compare data?
(c) CPU chip (d) Memory chip
34. Which of the following is not an E-commerce
application ?
(a) House Banking
(b) Buying stocks
(c) Conducting an auction
(d) Evaluating an employee

35. Which is a satellite based tracking system that
enables the determination of a persons position?
(a) Bluetooth
(b) WAP
(c) Short message service
(d) Global positioning system
36. Which of the following waves are used for
telecommunication ?
(a) Infra red rays (b) Ultra violet rays
(c) Micro waves (d) X-rays
37. The first operational remote sensing satellite
from India was
(a) IRS-P6 (b) P4
(c) IRS 1A (d) CARTOSAT 1
38. GPS can be applied in
(a) Archeology
(b) Glaciology
(c) Forestry and agricultural science
(d) All of these
39. Junk e-mail is also called
(a) spam
(b) spoof
(c) sporel
(d) None of these
40. Which of the following groups have only input
devices ?
(a) mouse, keyboard, monitor
(b) mouse, keyboard, printer
(c) mouse, keyboard, plotter
(d) mouse, keyboard, scanner
41. Computer language used on the internet is
(a) Basic (b) Cobol
(c) Java (d) Pascal
42. Which of the following is the largest unit of
storage ?
(a) GB (b) KB
(c) MB (d) TB
43. What is a modem connected to ?
(a) processor (b) mother board
(c) printer (d) phone line
44. Which of the following is not the computer
language
(a) BASIC (b) C
(c) FAST (d) FORTRAN
General Science || E-73
45. The smallest unit of the computer data is
(a) byte (b) bit
(c) record (d) file
46. Who is the inventor of computer language JAVA?
(a) IBM (b) Microsoft
(c) Sun microsystems (d) Infosystem
47. When is the computer literacy day celebrated ?
(a) 1st December (b) 2nd December
(c) 19th December (d) 22nd December
48. The fastest computer developed by the NASA is
(a) Columbia (b) Pleiades
(c) Blue Gene (d) Param
49. India has launched which satellite recently ?
(a) INSAT-3D (b) PSLU-C22
(c) GSAT-14 (d) GSAT-10
50. Pranav Mistry is a name associated with
(a) Driverless car
(b) Cancer diagnostic kit
(c) Sixth-sense device
(d) Social media app.
51. Which planet was discovered in 2013 having
earth like size?
(a) Kepler-62F (b) Kepler-23b
(c) Kepler-b (d) Kepler-60
52. Which new family of legless amphibians was
discovered in 2012?
(a) Ascaphidae (b) Chikilidae
(c) Bufonidae (d) Ranidae
53. Govt. of India stated subsidy on fertilizers with
effect from
(a) Nov. 1, 1966 (b) Nov. 1,1969
(c) Nov. 1, 1977 (d) Oct. 2, 1988
54. Dwarf wheat (mexican) is introduced in India by
(a) Dr. N. E. Borlang
(b) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
(c) Dr. Subramanian
(d) Dr. B. P. Pal
55. Which of the following crops has the highest
cultivated area in the world?
(a) Rice (b) Barley
(c) Wheat (d) Bajra
56. The instrument used for measuring depth of water
table is known as
(a) Lysimeter (b) Odometer
(c) Piezometer (d) Evaporimeter
E-74 || Science and Technology
57. Stevenson Screen is related to
(a) Virology
(b) Remote Sensing
(c) Agrometeorology
(d) Biotechnology
58. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
Crop Sowing times
(a) Cotton August September
(Southern India)
(b) Sugarcane July August
(Adsali crop)
(c) Lentil July August
(Northern India)
(d) Soyabean June July
(Northern India)
59. The origin place of potato is
(a) China (b) South America
(c) Tropical America (d) Africa
60. Relay Cropping means
(a) Growing of more than one crop on the same
land in a year. (c) Bougainvillea (d) Calotropis
(b) Growing of three crops on the same land in
a year.
(c) Growing of four crops on the same land in
a your in such a manner that the following
crop is sown before the harvest of preceding
crop. (a) The greenness of the tree gives the cool
(d) None of these
61. Genus of goat is
(a) Ovis (b) Copra
(c) Bos (d) Bubalus
62. Splenic fever is another name for
(a) FMD (b) Anthrax
(c) Cow pox (d) Mastitis
63. Pashmina wool is obtained from
(a) Yak (b) Cattle
(c) Sheep (d) Goat
64. Rickets is due to deficiency of
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin B12
65. Ranikhet is a ___________ disease.
(a) Viral (b) Mematode
(c) Bacterial (d) Fungal
66. Toggenburg (goat) is a native of
(a) Europe (b) Switzerland
(c) Africa (d) USA
67. Agar-agar was developed for growing micro-
organisms by
(a) Joseph Lister (b) Koch
(c) Hesse (d) Pasteur
68. Resolving power of electron microscope is
_________ times of light microscope.
(a) 10 (b) 102
(c) 10 3 (d) 104
69. A milkman puts banana leaf in milk jar, because
banana leaf
(a) gives a fresh flavour to milk
(b) makes the milk acidic and resistant to yeast
(c) makes the milk basic and resistant to yeast
(d) increases the whiteness of milk
70. Which one of the following plants is popularly
grown along the road for absorbing vehicular
pollutants?
(a) Nerium (b) Neem
71. Itching due to insect bite is caused by
(a) formic acid (b) acetic acid
(c) lactic acid (d) maleic acid
72. Why do you feel cool under a tree but not so
under a tin shed on a sunny day?
feeling.
(b) Photosynthesis absorbs heat
(c) The leaves convert water vapours into water
which is a heat-absorbing process
(d) The leaves give out water which vapourises
absorbing some heat as latent heat.
73. Bats can fly in dark because they
(a) have strong wings
(b) have sharp eyes
(c) produce ultrasonic waves
(d) are nocturnal
74. The crew and passengers of a flying aircraft suffer
generally from chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease due to the effect of
(a) solar radiation (b) ozone concentration
(c) nitrogen oxide (d) particulate pollutant

75. Endosulfan, which has been in news these days,
is
(a) a pesticide (b) a fertiliser
(c) a sulpha drug (d) an antibiotic
76. Cutting and peeling of onions brings tears to the
eyes because of the presence of
(a) sulphur in the cell 79. The plant dye Henna imparts orange-red colour
(b) carbon in the cell
(c) fat in the cell
(d) amino acid in the cell
77. Assertion (A) : The safety air bags fitted in some
cars inflate during head-on impact of the car.
Reason (R) : The inflation is due to pumping of
air into the balloon during the impact.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, But R is not the
correct explanation of A
General Science || E-75
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
78. Which one of the following is responsible for the
stimulating effect of tea?
(a) Tannin (b) Steroid
(c) Alkaloid (d) Flavonoid
to skin and hairs due to its reaction with which of
the following ?
(a) Proteins and amino acids
(b) Lipids
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Nucleic acids
80. Which colour of heat radiation represents the
highest temperature?
(a) Blood red (b) Dark cherry
(c) Salmon (d) White
E-76 || Science and Technology

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 11. (c) 21. (c) 31. (b) 41. (c) 51. (a) 61. (b) 71. (a)
2. (a) 12. (c) 22. (c) 32. (d) 42. (d) 52. (b) 62. (b) 72. (d)
3. (b) 13. (c) 23. (a) 33. (c) 43. (d) 53. (c) 63. (d) 73. (c)
4. (c) 14. (b) 24. (b) 34. (d) 44. (c) 54. (a) 64. (b) 74. (c)
5. (d) 15. (b) 25. (b) 35. (d) 45. (a) 55. (c) 65. (a) 75. (a)
6. (c) 16. (d) 26. (b) 36. (c) 46. (c) 56. (c) 66. (b) 76. (d)
7. (b) 17. (a) 27. (a) 37. (c) 47. (a) 57. (c) 67. (c) 77. (b)
8. (b) 18. (c) 28. (d) 38. (d) 48. (b) 58. (c) 68. (d) 78. (c)
9. (c) 19. (b) 29. (d) 39. (a) 49. (c) 59. (b) 69. (c) 79. (a)
10. (d) 20. (b) 30. (b) 40. (d) 50. (c) 60. (c) 70. (b) 80. (d)

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Cryogenic engines are specially designed
to carry out combination of cryogenic fuels.
Cryogenic fuels are cooled and liquified gaseous
fuels. Cryogenic engines are used in rockets, so
they are also known as Cryogenic rocket engines.
Generally, liquified and cooled hydrogen and
oxygen in combination are used as Cryogenic
propellant in rockets. Now-a-days propelled rocket
engines are having a great demand in the field of
space exploration as they provide high specific
impulse during the ignition spacecrafts engine.
2. (a) Artificial satellites possess large photoelectric
panels or Solar panels around them to capture
the sunlight available directly in the space to be
converted into electricity from sunlight. The energy
captured can be stored in batteries to be used if the
satellite comes under the shadow of the Earth. So,
solar cells are largely used for generating electricity
in artifical satellites.
3. (b) Every six months, the Top 500 organization
reveals a list of the worlds fastest supercomputers.
In June 2013, Chinas Tianhe2 built by the
National University of Defense Technology, ranked
at no. 1 or the fastest supercomputer of the world.
It is capable of performing 33.86 petaflops (1000
trillion calculation) per second on a benchmarking
test. It has stuck to the number one position for the
last 18 months.
4. (c) ICSSR Indian Council of Social Science
Research, established in the year 1969 by the
Government of India to promote research in social
sciences in the country. DST Department of
Science and Technoloy was established in May 1971,
for promoting new areas of science and technology
and to play the role of a nodal department for
organising, co-ordinating and promoting S & T
activities in the country.
CSIR Council of Scientific and Industrial
Research, established in 1942, is Indias largest
Scientific research and development organisation.
DAE Department of Atomic Energy was
established in 1954, and has been engaged in
the development of nuclear power technology,
application of radiation technologies in the fields of
agriculture, medicine, industry and basic research.
5. (d) Intercontinental ballistic missles (ICBMs) are
typically designed for nuclear weapons delivery.
Agni II has a range of 2,000 3,000 km while
AgniV has the highest operational range among
the Indian ICBMs i.e., 5,000 km.
Prithvi III is a tactical surface to surface short
range ballistic missile (SRBM) having a range of
over 750 km. Akash is a medium-range mobile
surfacetoair missile having a flight ceiling of 18
km. Trishul is a short range, surface to air messile
developed by India. It has a range of 9 km.

6. (c) The Satish Dhawan space centre is the launch
centre for the Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO), located in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh,
80 km north of Chennai. It was originally called
Sriharikota High Altitude Range (SHAR) and
then Sriharikota launching Range, the centre was
renamed in 2002 after the death of ISROs former
chairman Satish Dhawan.
Sriharikota is a spindleshaped island and was
chosen in 1969 for a satellite launching station.
7. (b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) is
based in Bangalore, India. This company is managed
by Indian Ministry of Defence and is mainly
involved in aerospace industry, which includes
manufacturing and assembling aircraft, navigation
and related communication equipment, as well as
operating airports.
8. (b) Uranium city is a settlement in northern
Saskatchewan, Canada. It is located on the northern
shores of Lake Athabasca. Uranium ore was first
discovered in northern Saskatchewan in the late
1930s.
9. (c) French nuclear engineering firm Areva
and Nuclear Power Corporation of India signed
a multi-billion valued agreement of about $9.3
billion. The proposed Jaitapur Nuclear Power
Project is located at the west coast at village of
Ratnagiri district in Maharashtra. The proposal
is to construct 6 European Pressurized Reactors
designed and developed by Areva of France, each
of 1650 megawatts. After completion, it would be
the largest nuclear power generating station in the
world.
10. (d) Computer virus is a malware software program
or piece of code designed to spread from one
computer to another. It, when executed replicates
by inserting copies of itself into other computer
programs, data files, or the boot sector of the hard
drive. When this replication succeeds, the affected
areas are then said to be infected.
11. (c) Move along with the spaceship at the same
speed. An orbiting vehicle has sufficient speed
to remain in orbit. If an apple is put outside the
vehicle, it will continue in orbit with that vehicle.
It will just float there. The apple and everything in
the space vehicle will be moving at the same speed,
and, because the vehicle is in orbit, everything will
have sufficient speed to remain in orbit.
General Science || E-77
12. (c) IC chip is an integrated circuit or monolithic
integrated circuit also called an IC, a chip or a
microchip. It is a set of electronic circuits on one
small plate of semiconductor material normally
silicon. Jack kilby is credited for the development
of first integrated circuit (1958) for which he
received the Nobel Prize in Physics in the year
2000.
13. (c) A computer is a general purpose device,
programmed to carry out a set of arithmetic or
logical operations. Modern computers are based
on integrated circuits and therefore, are millions
to billions of times more capable than primitive
ones. Charles Babbage, an English mechanical
engineer and polymath, originated the concept of
a programmable computer, conceptualised and
invented the first mechanical computer in the early
19th century.
14. (b) Until 1958 when Jack Kilby came up with the
solution to the cumbersome and bulky circuits in the
computers. His idea was to make all the components
and the chip out of the same block (monolith) of
semiconductor material or integrated circuit chip,
which largely contributed to the miniaturization of
earlier computer devices.
15. (b) In nuclear reactors, a neutron moderator is
a medium that regulates or reduces the speed of
fast neutrons, turning them into thermal neutrons.
Graphite is used as a carbon based neutron
moderator in many nuclear reactors.
16. (d) In information technology, a protocol
is the special set of rules that endpoints in a
telecommunication connection use, when they
communicate e.g. Internet protocols. Login or
logon refers to the credentials required to obtain
access to a computer system.
Archie is a program that enables you to search for
files anywhere on the internet by filename.
17. (a) www is the abbreviation of World Wide
Web. Sir Timothy John Tim Berners Lee, also
known as Tim BL is a British computer scientist
who invented the World Wide Web. He made
proposal for an information management system in
March 1989, and implemented the first successfull
communication between a Hypertext Transfer
Protocol client and a server via internet around mid
November.
E-78 || Science and Technology
18. (c) Astra is an active radar homing beyondvisual
range airtoair missile (BVRAAM) developed by
the DRDO, India. As of July 2013, it is undergoing
developmental trials.
19. (b) Chris Cassidy of the US and Russians Pavel
Vinogradov and Alexander Misurkin travelled
six hours in Soyuz capsule before linking up with
space stations Russian Rassvet research module.
It was the first time a space crew has taken such a
direct route to the orbiting lab.
20. (b) Indias first nuclear weapon explosions
assigned code name was PokhranI or Smiling
Buddha. It took place on 18th May 1974. According
to Indian Ministry of External Affairs (MoEA) this
test is for peaceful nuclear purposes.
21. (c) The internet is a global network connecting
millions of computers. More than 100 countries are
linked into exchange of data, news and opinions.
According to internet world states, globally, among
the world population (7.1 billion, 2013) 39% use
internet in which Europe uses the most as per 2013.
22. (c) Kinenatics, Cybernatics and Mechanics are all
applied in Robotics but Hydraulics deals with the
mechanical properties of liquids.
23. (a) RSD1, IRS1D and INSAT2D are
all satellite RSD1 is a Rohini satellite, IRS1D is
an Indian Remote Sensing satellite. INSAT2D is
an Indian communications satellite, while SLV3
is a Satellite launching vehicle and not a satellite
itself.
24. (b) Cosmos 2406 is a Russian military satellite that
was launched from Baikonur by a Zenit 2 rocket on
10 June 2004.
25. (b) A modem or modulatordemodulator is a
device that modulates an analog carrier signal to
encode digital information and also demodulates
such a carrier signal to decode the transmitted
information.
27. (a) The channels themselves occupy several
megahertz of bandwidth. So, the answer is 30300
MHz.
28. (d) Packets are the units of exchanging
information in network. A bridge connects two or
more networks, or segments of the same network.
Switch are basically bridges but they have multiple
ports. Routers forward data packets from one place
to another. They forward data depending on the
network not the hardware address.
29. (d) The aim of software engineering is to solve
the software crisis where software is delivered late,
with faults, and over budget. Software engineering
aims to deliver, faultfree software, on time and
within budget.
30. (b) Mobile IP is the basis behind how wireless
device offers IP connectivity. Agent discovery and
registration are two basic functions involved.
31. (b) One of the closest answer to this option could
be option A i.e., quality of the design, but it
should be understood that if a software product
has a large number of defects it is unreliable. That
means if the reliability of any software improves,
it signifies that the number of defects has also been
reduced.
32. (d) A microcomputer system is a microprocessor
based computer, consisting of an MPU, internal
semiconductor memory, input and output sections,
and a system bus, all on one. It can also consist of
several monolithic IC chips inserted into one or
several PC boards.
33. (c) Central Processing Unit (CPU) chip is a small
computer chip, this is where the computer does all of
its mathematical operations, Adding and comparing
data are also performed here.
34. (d) E-commerce is a business industry which
takes account buying, selling, ba-line banting,
house banking, buying stocks as well as conducting
an auction. Evaluation of an employee is not a part
of e-commorce.
35. (d) Use Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
to determine the location of a vehicle, person, pet or
freight, and to record the position at regular intervals
in order to create a log of movements. Some systems
allow the location to be viewed in redtime on the
Internet with a web-browser.
36. (c) Microwave radiation is used to transmit
signals in mobile phones. Microwave transmitters
and receivers on buildings and masts communicate
with the mobile telephone in their range.
37. (c) IRS 1A was the first operational remote sensing
mission undertaken by ISRO to provide imagery for
various land - based applications. It was launched
on 17 March 1988 in launch vehicle, Vostok, USSR.
IRS-P6 and CARTOSAT 1 had been made later
while P4 is a natural satellite of pluto.

38. (d) Global Positioning System can be applied
to many fields like Geoinformation technology,
Surveying mineral deposits, Geodesy as well as
Archeology, Glaciology and Forestryagricultural
sciences.
39. (a) Junk email or unsolicited bulk email is also
called Email spam. It is a subset of electronic
spam involving nearly identical messages sent to
numerous recipients by email. Anyone clicks on
links in spam email may send users to phising web
sites or sites that are hosting malware.
40. (d) Monitor, Printer and Plotter (a type of printer)
are output devices. While mouse, keyboard and
scanner are input devices only.
41. (c) Basic, Cobol and Pascal are old languages.
Java is being used these days.
42. (d) Gigabyte (GB) is 109 bytes
Kilobyte (KB) is 103 bytes.
Megabyte (MB) is 106 bytes
Terrabyte (TB) is 1012 bytes, so it is largest of all.
43. (d) The modem transfers the data across phone
lines to a modem at the provider which again
transfers the data through a serial port of the
computer.
44. (c) BASIC, C and FORTRAN are all the languages
of computer while FAST is not a computer language.
45. (a) A byte is usually the smallest addressable
unit in a computer while the smallest unit of memory
is the bit. Most computers dont work with bits
individually, but instead group eight bits together
to form a byte. The term byte was coined by
Werner Buchholz in 1956.
46. (c) James Gosling, Mike Sheridan, and Patrick
Naughton initiated the Java language project in June
1991. Java was initially called Oak, then went by
names Green and Java coffee Sun Microsystems
released the first public implementation as Java 1.0
in 1995.
47. (a) 1st December is marked as World AIDS Day
19th December and 22nd December are not as
significant as concerned with some particular event.
2nd December is marked with Computer Literacy
Day, launched in 2001.
48. (b) Columbia a supercomputer was named in
honor of the crew who died in the space shuttle
Columbia disaster. It was decommissioned in March
2013.
General Science || E-79
Blue Gene was developed by IBM, while Param by
India.
Pleiades is a petascale supercomputer developed
by NASA. It is one of the worlds most powerful
supercomputer.
49. (c) GSLV - D5 successfully launched GSAT14
on 5th January 2014 from Sriharikota. GSAT14
is the twenty third geostationary communication
satellite built by ISRO.
50. (c) Sixthsense device is a gestural interface
device, neckworn projector that augments the
physical world around us. Sixthsense HMD
prototype has been developed by Pranav Mistry, an
associate with MIT.
51. (a) Kepler 62f is an Earth size planet in the
habitable zone of a star about 1,200 light years from
Earth. The size of Kepler 62f is known but its
mass and composition are not. It orbits its host star
every 267 days and is roughly 40% larger than the
Earth.
52. (b) Chikilidae is a family of Indian caecilians,
the most primitive of three amphibian groups
that also include frogs and salamander. A team of
biologists led by University of Delhis herpetologist
Sathyabhnama Das Biju discovered a new
family of legless amphibians called Chikilidae in
September 2012 in NorthEast India.
53. (c) The subsidy or The Retention Price Scheme
(RPS) for fertilizer Industry introduced from
1.11.1977 and remained in force till 31.3.2003.
54. (a) The dwarf wheat variety was introduced
in India by Dr. Norman Borlaugh in 1970s as a
major revolution in the food security called Green
Revolution.
55. (c) Wheat is the crop with highest cultivated
area in the world with annual production of around
689,945,712 tons.
56. (c) A piezometer is a device which measures the
pressure of groundwater at a specific point so as to
measure the water table in ground-water.
57. (c) A Stevenson screen or instrument shelter
is a kind of protective enclosure used to shield
meteorological instruments against precipitation
and direct heat radiation from outer sources. Its
purpose is to provide a standardised environment
in which to measure temperature, humidity, dew-
point and atmospheric pressure by their respective
instruments.
E-80 || Science and Technology
58. (c) Lentils are sown in mid October to early
December in central India.
59. (b) Potato was first cultivated in the modern day
Peru, its place of origin is Southern America.
60. (c) Relay cropping is growing four crops on
the same land in a year in such a manner that
the following crop is sown before the harvest of
preceding crop.
61. (b) The domestic goat is Capra aegagrus hircus.
The goat is a member of the family Bovidae and is
closely related to the sheep as both are in the goat-
antelope subfamily Caprinae. The genus of Sheep is
Ovis.
62. (b) Splenic fever is another name of Anthrax
which is an acute disease caused by the bacterium
Bacillus anthracis. Most forms of the disease are
lethal, and it affects both humans and animals.
63. (d) Pashmina refers to the fine wool and textile
made from the wool obtained from the changthangi
or Pashmina goat, which is a special breed of goat
indigenous to high altitudes of the Himalayas in
Nepal, Pakistan and Northern India.
64. (b) Rickets is a disease of bones, in which they
bend due to softening. This can be seen as bowing
of leg bones in an X-ray report. The cause for the
Rickets is either deficiency of vitamin-D or its
incomplete metabolism or both.
65. (a) The Ranikhet disease is also called as New
Castle Disease or Doyles disease. It is an acute,
infectious & highly contagious disease of fowls.
It is caused by viruses in the serotype avian
paramyxovirus type 1 (APMV-1). These viruses
are members of the genus Avulavirus in the family
Paramyxoviridae.
66. (b) The Toggenburg is a breed of goat, named
after the region in Switzerland where the breed
originated, the Toggenburg valley. It is also the
oldest registered breed.
67. (c) Walther Hesse is credited for his work in
microbiology, specifically his work in developing
Agar as a medium for culturing microorganisms.
68. (d) The resolving power of a microscope is its
ability to distinguish between two points clearly.
For Electron microscope, it is 10,000 times more
than that of compound light microscope.
69. (c) A milkman puts banana leaf in milkjar because
leaf can make the milk basic and avoid yeast
formation. Banana leaf contain tryptophan which
impacts this basicity.
70. (b) Bougainvillea is popularly grown along the
road for absorbing vehicular pollutants.
71. (a) Insect bite releases formic acid (masthanoic
acid) and lactic acid which can cause itching.
72. (d) The transpiration occurs from the leaves, all
the time. The water released from leaves absorbs
heat from the surrounding atmosphere to vapourise
so the area becomes cool.
73. (c) Bats can fly in dark because they produce
ultrasonic waves. The bats possess very poor vision.
It cannot see in dark. It produces ultrasonic waves
which strike with the obstacles present on its way.
The bat receives its echo and changes its path to
protect itself from collision.
74. (c) Due to lower atmospheric pressure, nitrogen
gets mixed with oxygen to form such oxide which is
inhaled by the passengers.
75. (a) Endosulfan is an organochlorine pesticide
and acaricide which is used on plants and insects.
Endosulfan became a highly controversial
agrichemical due to its acute toxicity and potential
for bioaccumulation.
76. (d) Cutting and peeling of onions bring tears to the
eyes because of the presence of amino acid in the
cell. Onions are the part of genus Allium, along with
garlic, chives, leeks and about 400 other cousins.
These vegetables absorbs sulphur from earth, which
in turn form a class of volatile organic molecules
called amino acid sulphoxides.
78. (c) The stimulating effect of tea is due to alkaloid
caffeine present in tea. Caffeine is a bitter, white
crystalline xanthine alkaloid.
79. (a) Henna (Lawsonia inermis) is a flowering plant
used to dye skin, hair, fingernails, leather and wood.
Colouring property of henna is because of lawsone,
an organic compound that has affinity for proteins
and amino acids in animals.
80. (d) Colour temperature is a scale relating the
colour of the light radiated by an object to its
temperature. No matter whatever the temperature
is, the hottest would only corresponds to blue-white
light radiation.
 Section F : general awareness

1 Art and Culture

1. Which of the following are wind instruments ? 9. Kathakali dance style belongs to
(a) Dhol and Tabla (a) Karnataka (b) Kerala
(b) Piano and Sitar (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Flute and Saxophone 10. Pt. Ravi Shankar belongs to which musical
(d) Ghungru and Jaltarang instrument?
2. All India Music Academy established in which (a) Tabla (b) Sitar
year? (c) Violin (d) Guitar
(a) 1919 (b) 1977 11. Which music instrument belongs to Hari Prasad
(c) 1953 (d) 1926 Chaurasia?
3. Who is known as Raffale of East? (a) Shehnai (b) Violin
(a) Raja Ravi Verma (c) Flute (d) Sarod
(b) Raja Martanda 12. Ustad Amjad Ali Khan belongs to
(c) Raja Keshav Varma (a) Sarod (b) Shehnai
(d) Raja Uday Rao (c) Sarangi (d) Guitar
4. Who is known as the Piccaso of India? 13. The panchatantra was written during the
(a) Amrita Shergil (b) M.F. Hussain (a) Later Vedic period
(c) Sudhir Vyas (d) Shafqat Hussain (b) Mughal period
5. Sangeet Natak Academy was established in? (c) Maurya period
(a) 1952 (b) 1953 (d) Post Gupta period
(c) 1954 (d) 1955 14. The chenchus tribes found in the state
6. Which of the painting is mixture of Rajasthani (a) Jharkhand (b) Andhra Pradesh
and Mughal? (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Karnataka
(a) Kangra painting 15. Which of the following is a dance drama?
(b) Pahari painting (a) Kathak (b) Kathakali
(c) Madhubani painting (c) Odissi (d) Manipuri
(d) Basohli painting 16. Bindadin Maharaj is a maestro of which of the
7. Bharatnatyam dance style belongs to following classical dance forms?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh (a) Kathak (b) Kathakali
(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka (c) Manipuri (d) Odissi
8. Kuchipudi dance style belongs to 17. Katputli, the string puppetry belongs to
(a) Odisha (b) Andhra Pradesh (a) Rajasthan (b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttrakhand
F-2 || Art and Culture
18. The three faiths of Hinduism, Buddhism and
Jainism were carved in
(a) Ellora caves (b) Elephanta caves
(c) Ajanta caves (d) Barabar hills
19. Which of the following is known as Seven
Pagodas?
(a) Mahabalipuram temple (d) Lakshmana temple at Sirpur
(b) Karle caves
(c) Chaityas following Classical dance forms?
(d) Elephanta caves
20. The image of Nataraja (the lord of dance) is a
superb masterpiece of the period of
(a) Chola (b) Pandya
(c) Hoyasala (d) Chalukyas
21. The yoga philosophy belongs to
(a) Gautam (b) Kannada
(c) Patanjali (d) Jaimini
22. Syadvad and Anchkantvad belongs to
(a) Jainism (b) Buddhism
(c) Sikhism (d) Hinduism
23. Which of the dance forms enlisted in UNESCO?
(a) Mudiyeltu (b) Bidesia
(c) Maach (d) Yakshagan
24. In which year SPIC MACAY was established?
(a) 1977 (b) 1919
(c) 1954 (d) 1955
25. Which is known as Tamil Bible
(a) Thirukuaral (b) Tholkapiyam
(c) Pathittupath (d) Silapatigaram
26. Madhubani, a style of folk paintings, is popular
in which of the following states in India?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan (d) Madhya Pradesh
27. Bharatham was a Tamil Version of Mahabharata
Sung by __________________________
(a) Perundevanar (b) Tholkapiyam
(c) Ilango Adikal (d) None of these
28. Gandhara School of art came into existence
(a) Hinayana sect
(b) Mahayana sect
(c) Jainism (c) Jainism (d) Islam
(d) Independence Ajivikas
29. Hanukkah, the festival of light is associated with
which one of the following religions?
(a) Jewish (b) Hindu
(c) Jain (d) Christians
30. Propagate Indian culture Which among the
following is known as the earliest example of
Panchayatana style of temple?
(a) Dashavatara temple at Deogarh
(b) Temple at Pathari
(c) Shatrughneshwara temple at Bhubaneshwar
31. Guru Birju Maharaj is a maestro of which of the
(a) Kathak
(b) Manipuri
(c) Mohiniattam
(d) Kathakali
32. Who among the following is a famous santoor
player?
(a) Shiv Kumar Sharma
(b) Hari Prasad Chaurasia
(c) Ravi Shankar
(d) Zakir Hussain
33. Who amongst the following has directed the film
Little Buddha?
(a) Bernardo Bertolucci
(b) Mani Kaul
(c) Richard Attenburrough
(d) Durosowa
34. The annual Royal Kathima Ceremony is
associated with which of the following religions?
(a) Jainism (b) Buddhism
(c) Parsi (d) Sikhism
35. Thillana is a format of
(a) Kuchipudi (b) Odissi
(c) Baharatanatyam (d) Kathak
36. The head quarters of Sahitya Akademi is at
(a) Mumbai (b) Chennai
(c) New Delhi (d) Kolkata
37. Kalchakra ceremony is associated with which of
the following ceremonies?
(a) Hinduism (b) Buddhism
38. The Flamingo Festival is celebrated in_______?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Jammu & Kashmir

39. Sangai Festival is celebrated in which state of
India?
(a) Assam (b) Manipur
(c) Bihar (d) Karnataka
40. The festival Baisakhi or Vaisakhi is
commemorates which important event of Sikh
History?
(a) Establishment of Akal Takht
(b) Establishment of Khalasa Panth
(c) Establishment of Guru Granth Sahib as
permanent guru of Sikhs
(d) Foundation of Harmandir Sahib (Golden
Temple) in Amritsar
41. What contribution has been made by Ernest
Binfield Havell (E.B. Havell) in the Indian art
and culture?
(a) E.B. Havell was a official of East India
company, whose efforts led to establishment
of Asiatic Society
(b) E.B. Havell made efforts in establishing the
Bengal school of art
(c) E.B. Havell was a famous indologist who
translated several Sanskrit dramas in English
(d) E.B. Havell was a teacher at Pune who
established the National Archives of India
General Awareness || F-3
42. The leaning temple of Huma is dedicated to
which Hindu God?
(a) Shiva (b) Rama
(c) Krishna (d) Hanuman
43. Where is the Tagore Centre for the Study of
Culture and Civilization?
(a) Shimla (b) Kolkata
(c) Chennai (d) Dehradun
44. Hornbill Festival is celebrated in which among
the following states of India?
(a) Manipur (b) Nagaland
(c) Mizoram (d) Meghalaya
45. Chakan Gaan-Ngai, a post-harvest festival is
celebrated in ___________.
(a) Manipur
(b) Sikkim
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
46. Thumri Singer Girija Devi belongs to which
among the following Gharanas?
(a) Banaras Gharana
(b) Agra Gharana
(c) Kirana Gharana
(d) Lucknow Gharana
47. Santhara is a religious ritual related to _______?
(a) Jain (b) Saiva
(c) Sakta (d) Vaishnava
F-4 || Art and Culture

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 7. (a) 13. (c) 19. (a) 25. (a) 31. (a) 37. (b) 43. (a)
2. (a) 8. (b) 14. (b) 20. (a) 26. (b) 32. (a) 38. (a) 44. (b)
3. (a) 9. (b) 15. (b) 21. (c) 27. (a) 33. (a) 39. (b) 45. (a)
4. (b) 10. (b) 16. (a) 22. (a) 28. (b) 34. (b) 40. (b) 46. (a)
5. (b) 11. (c) 17. (a) 23. (a) 29. (a) 35 (c) 41. (b) 47. (a)
6. (a) 12. (a) 18. (a) 24. (a) 30. (a) 36. (c) 42. (a)

Hints & Solutions

3. (a) Raja Ravi Verma was known as Raffale of
East. His paintings are considered to be among the
best examples of the fusion of Indian traditions with
the techniques of European academic art.
4. (b) Maqbool Fida Hussain, described as the
Picasso of India, was one of the subcontinents best
known painters. His influence on contemporary
South Asian art was enormous. In 1955 he was
awarded the prestigious Padma Shri by the Indian
government and in the 1980s was nominated to the
upper house of the Indian parliament, while in 1971
he was invited, with Pablo Picasso, to the Sao Paulo
Biennial in Brazil.
5. (b) The Sangeet Natak Akademi was set up in
1953 for the promotion of performing arts. Setting
up of Sangeet Natak Akademi is one of the main
recommendations of the National conference on
Dance, Drama, and Music, held in New Delhi
in 1951. The Sangeet Natak Akademi is an
Autonomous Body under the Ministry of Culture.
6. (a) Kangra painting is a mixture of Rajasthan and
Mughal. The pictorial art of Kangra is one of the
finest gifts of India to the art world. It originated in
a small hill state Guler in lower Himalayas in 18th
century when a family of Kashmiri painters trained
in Mughal Style of painting sought shelter at the
court of Raja Dalip Singh of Guler.
7. (a) Bharatnatyam is an artistic yoga that involves
the movement of the body parts in a very artistic
and elegant manner. It is the most widely practised
of Indian classical dances in south India, and has its
origin in Tamil Nadu. The term Bharatnatyam was
introduced in the mid thirties by S. Krishna Iyer and
later spread by Rukminidevi Arundale. It comprises
of Bhava, Raga, Tala, and Natya put together as
Bharatanatyam.
8. (b) Kuchipudi is the classical dance form from the
state of Andhra Pradesh. It derives its name from
the village of Kuchelapuram, a small village about
65 kms from Vijaywada. It is known for its graceful
movements and its strong narrative/dramatic
character.
9. (b) Kathakali is the most well known dance drama
from the south Indian state of Kerala. The word
Kathakali literally means Story-Play. It is known
for its large, elaborate makeup and costumes. The
elaborate costumes of Kathakali have become the
most recognised icon for Kerala.
10. (b) Pt. Ravi Shankar was a famous sitar player.
Shankar won the Silver Bear Extraordinary Prize
of the Jury at the 1957 Berlin International Film
Festival for composing the music for the movie
Kabuliwala. He was awarded the Sangeet Natak
Akademi Award for 1962, and was named a Fellow
of the academy for 1975. Shankar was awarded the
three highest national civil honours of India: Padma
Bhushan, in 1967, Padma Vibhushan, in 1981, and
Bharat Ratna, in 1999. He received the music award

of the UNESCO International Music Council in
1975, three Grammy Awards, and was nominated
for an Academy Award.
11. (c) Hari Prasad Chaurasia is an eminent flute
player in India. He was awarded Padma Bhushan in
1992 and Padma Vibhushan in 2000.
12. (a) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan is a renowned sarod
player. He is the recipient of many awards and
honours. These include: Padmashree (1975),
Sangeet Natak Academy Award (1989), the Tansen
Award (1989) the Padma Bhushan (1991) and the
International Music Forum Award, UNESCO in
1970.
13. (c) The panchatantra was written during the
Maurya period. The original Sanskrit work, which
some scholars believe was composed in the 3rd
century BCE, is attributed to Vishnu Sharma. It is
based on older oral traditions, including animal
fables that are as old as we are able to imagine. It
is certainly the most frequently translated literary
product of India, and these stories are among the
most widely known in the world.
14. (b) Chenchus are Hindu Aboriginal tribes residing
in the central hill stations of Andhra Pradesh. They
inhabit the Nallmalla hills which have been a part of
Nagarjuna Sagar, the Tiger Sanctuary for centuries
in Andhra Pradesh. They are mainly found in the
districts of Mahboobnagar, Nalgonda, Prakasam,
Guntur and Kurnool. The Origin of Chenchu is
connected to Lord Malikarjuna of the Srisailim
temple.
15. (b) Kathakali is the most well known dance drama
from the south.
Indian state of Kerala. The word Kathakali literally
means Story-Play. It is known for its large,
elaborate makeup and costumes. The elaborate
costumes of Kathakali have become the most
recognised icon for Kerala.
16. (a) Binda din Maharaj was born in 1830. He was
the originator of his Gharana, popularly and widely
known as Lucknow Gharana. He together with his
General Awareness || F-5
brother Kalika Prasad, brought a renaissance in
Kathak and raised it to a high level.
17. (a) Katputli, the string puppetry belongs to
Rajasthan. The string puppet is perhaps the most
common form of puppetry in India, in common
with the rest of the world. Even now, many people
understand the puppetry in India as manipulation
of string puppets or Katputli and think of those
gorgeous puppets of Rajasthan.
18. (a) The three faiths of Hinduism, Buddhism and
Jainism were carved in Ellora caves. Ellora caves
are the most popular shrines that are a real attraction
for tourists and vacationers from all over the world.
These two groups of caves were created with hand
cut.
20. (a) The image of Nataraja (the lord of dance) is a
superb masterpiece of the period of Chola empire.
The period of the imperial Cholas (c. 850 CE - 1250
CE) was an age of continuous improvement and
refinement of the Dravidian art and architecture.
They utilised their prodigious wealth earned through
their extensive conquests in building long-lasting
stone temples and exquisite bronze sculptures.
21. (c) The yoga philosophy belongs to Patanjali.
The term yoga can be derived from either of two
roots, yujir yoga (to yoke) or yuj samadhi (to
concentrate). The Yoga Sutra of Patajali defines
yoga as the stilling of the changing states of the
mind. Yoga has also been popularly defined as
union with the divine in other contexts.
22. (a) Syadvad and Anchkantvad belongs to
Jainism. Anchkantvad refers to the principles of
pluralism and multiplicity of viewpoints, the notion
that truth and reality are perceived differently from
diverse points of view, and that no single point of
view is the complete truth. Syadvad is the theory
of conditioned predication, which provides an
expression to Anchkantvad.
23. (a) Mudiyettu dance forms enlisted in UNESCO.
Mudiyettu is a ritualistic dance-drama presented in
Bhadrakaali temples in South and Central Kerala.
F-6 || Art and Culture
In the South, this is presented by a community
called Marans. It is based on the Puranic story of
Darikavadham, the killing of the demon Darika.
24. (a) The Society for the Promotion of Indian Classical
Music and Culture Amongst Youth (SPIC MACAY)
is a voluntary youth movement which promotes
intangible aspects of Indian cultural heritage by
promoting Indian classical music, classical dance,
folk music, yoga, meditation, crafts and other
aspects of Indian culture. It was established by Dr.
Kiran Seth in 1977 at IIT Delhi.
26. (b) Madhubani painting or Mithila painting is a
style of Indian painting, practiced in the Mithila
region of Bihar state, India and the adjoining parts of
Terai in Nepal. Painting is done with fingers, twigs,
brushes, nib-pens, and matchsticks, using natural
dyes and pigments, and is characterized by eye-
catching geometrical patterns. There are paintings
for each occasion and festival such as birth,
marriage, holi, surya shasti, kali puja, Upanayanam
(sacred thread ceremony), and durga puja.
29. (a) Hanukkah, also known as the Festival of
Lights, Feast of Dedication, is an eight-day Jewish
holiday commemorating the rededication of the
Holy Temple (the Second Temple) in Jerusalem
at the time of the Maccabean Revolt against the
Seleucid Empire of the 2nd century BCE. Hanukkah
is observed for eight nights and days, starting on the
25th day of Kislev according to the Hebrew calendar,
which may occur at any time from late November to
late December in the Gregorian calendar.
30. (a) The Dashavatara Temple or Vishnu Temple
also called Gupta temple at Deogarh. It was
built in the Gupta Period (320 to c. 600 AD ).
Archaeologists have inferred that it is the earliest
known Panchayatana temple in North India. A
hindu temple is a Panchayatana one when the main
shrine is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines.
34. (b) The Royal Kathima Ceremony is observed
every year by Buddhist. It is observed in only one
Buddhist temple outside Thailand and this year the
Namphake Buddhist temple of Assam was selected.
Kathina offering is an ancient Buddhist Tradition
of offering special robe and other necessities to
monks who maintain strict discipline of retreat
during the rainy season. The main purpose of the
ceremony is not merely for religious belief but also
to strengthen the relationship between Thailand and
other countries.
38. (a) The annual Flamingo Festival began at
Sullurpeta near the Pulicat lake bird sanctuary in
Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh. The festival was
being held every year to bring together the people
and various departments in the task of preserving
the Pulicat Lake and surroundings. Every year
approximately 15,000 Greater Flamingos are
reported to visit the lake along with pelicans,
kingfishers, herons, painted storks, spoonbills and
ducks.
39. (b) The Manipur Sangai Festival is an annual
calendar mega-event of the Government of Manipur
spearheaded by the Tourism Department that seeks
to showcase and promote the finest of Manipurs arts
& culture, adventure sports, indigenous cuisines,
handloom & handicrafts, fine arts, indigenous
games & music and various other niche products to
a regional, national and global audience.
41. (b) EB Havell and Bengal School of Art Ernest
Binfield Havell or E.B. Havell, was principal of the
Government School of Art, Calcutta from 1896 to
1905, where, along with Abanindranath Tagore, he
developed a style of art and art education based on
Indian rather than Western models, which led to the
foundation of the Bengal school of art. eventually
it led to the development of the modern Indian
painting.
42. (a) The leaning temple is the only leaning temple
in the world and the only one of its kind in India.
It is located in Huma village in Odisha and it is
dedicated to the lord Shiva.
43. (a) To pay a befitting tribute to the man of letters,
Nobel Laureate, Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore,
on his 150th birth anniversary, the Government of
India has set up a Tagore Centre for the Study of
Culture and Civilization (TCSCC) at the Indian
Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS), Shimla. The
objectives of the Centre include: to encourage the
study of Tagores work; support translations of

Tagores work into other Indian languages; promote
comparative study of his work with poets, artists
and writers in other parts of India and the world;
study the elements of his Humanist philosophy
and his cosmopolitanism; and explore his concerns
regarding the relationship between science and
society.
44. (b) Hornbill Festival is a weeklong annual event
of Nagaland. The popularity and importance of
Hornbill festival is not just a national phenomenon
but has gained popularity around the world.
Organized by the State Tourism and art and Culture
Department, Hornbill Festival dubbed as the
Festival of Festivals in Nagaland, encourages inter-
tribal interaction, showcasing the entire array of
General Awareness || F-7
Naga life and culture. Unlike other years, with more
activities added to the event, the Department is
expecting the biggest participation of both domestic
and international tourists.
45. (a) Celebration of the biggest post-harvest festival
of the Zeliangrong community, Chakan Gaan-
Ngai, also popularly known as Gaan-Ngai was
kick-started in Manipur recently with different
organizations celebrating the festival in their own
manner with traditional gaiety and religious fervour.
46. (a) Girija Devi belongs to Banaras gharana. She
performs classical and light classical music and has
helped elevate the profile of thumri.
47. (a) Santhara: is the Jain religious ritual of
voluntary death by fasting.
 2 National and
International Awards
National 8. Vishwakarma Rashtriya Puraskar is given by
which ministry?
1. Jnanpith Award is given for which field?
(a) Journalism (b) Music (a) Ministry of Culture
(c) Science (d) Literature (b) Ministry of Labour
2. Kabir Puraskar is related to which field? (c) Ministry of Minority
(a) Sculpture (d) Ministry of Rural Development
(b) Cultural development 9. Which state gives the Nandi Award?
(c) Promotion of communal harmony (a) Kerala (b) Tamilnadu
(d) Hindi literature (c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh
3. Highest award given to civilian in India is 10. The Sastra Ramanujan prize is related to
(a) Bharat Ratna (b) Padma Vibhushan
(a) Young Physicians
(c) Sharam Award (d) Padma Bhushan
(b) Young Mathematician
4. Sports coaches receive which of the following
(c) Poets
awards?
(a) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (d) Scientists
(b) Dronacharya Award 11. Saraswati Samman is given to which field?
(c) Arjuna Award (a) Sanskrit Literature
(d) None of these (b) Science
5. In which year National Film Awards were (c) Literature
initiated? (d) Social Harmony
(a) 1952 (b) 1953 12. Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan and Padma
(c) 1954 (d) 1955 Shree are given on the eve of
6. Which of the following is different from the
(a) Republic Day
others?
(b) Independence Day
(a) Kirti Chakra (b) Ashok Chakra
(c) Gandhi Jayanti
(c) Vir Chakra (d) Shaurya Chakra
7. Vyas Samman is awarded annually by (d) Pravasi Bhartiya Divas
(a) Azim Premji Foundation 13. The award is given for extraordinary act of
(b) Times Group bravery in the field of Naval, Air and Army is
(c) KK Birla Foundation (a) Arjuna Award (b) Paramvir Chakra
(d) Ministry of Culture (c) Kalinga Award (d) Ashok Chakra
 General Awareness || F-9

14. The second highest Gallantry award is 24. Chameli Devi Jain puraskar conferred to the
(a) Mahavir Chakra (b) Vir Chakra professionals :
(c) Arjuna Award (d) Ashok Chakra (a) Scientist (b) Journalist
15. The award is given in the field of agriculture (c) Novelist (d) Musician
(a) Bhatnagar Award 25. Tansen Samman is conferred in the field of :
(b) Bourlog Award (a) Music (b) Literature
(c) Dhanwantari Award (c) Science (d) Journalism
(d) Kaling Award 26. Which of the following states conferred the
16. The highest peace time gallantry award is Kalidas Samman?
(a) Ashok Chakra (b) Param Vir Chakra (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Kirti Chakra (d) Vir Chakra (c) Rajasthan (d) Uttrakhand
17. The award is conferred to journalists aims to 27. Dhyanchand Puraskar conferred in the field of
providing financial assistance : (a) Music (b) Sports
(a) Appan Menon Memorial Award (c) Science (d) Literature
(b) Jnanpith Award 28. Which of the following states conferred the Lata
(c) Bhatnagar Award Mangeshkar Puraskar?
(d) Kalinga Award (a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh
18. Vachaspati Samman is given in the field of (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
(a) Sanskrit Literature 29. Who among the following is not a recipient of the
(b) Medical Science Bharatiya Jnanpith Award?
(c) Indian Philosophy (a) M. F. Hussain
(d) Hindi Literature (b) Ashaparna Devi
19. Dhanwantari award is conferred in the field of : (c) Raghupathi Sahai
(a) Medical Science (b) Sports (d) V. K. Gokak
(c) Indian Philosophy (d) Agriculture 30. Ashoka Chakra is awarded for
20. Which of the Gallantry award is exactly like (a) the most conspicuous bravery or self
Ashok Chakra? sacrifice on land, air or sea but not in the
(a) Mahavir Chakra (b) Kirti Chakra presence of the enemy
(c) Vir Chakra (d) Shaurya Chakra (b) acts of gallantry in the presence of enemy
21. The Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award (c) gallantry by children
conferred in the field of (d) outstanding contribution to literature
(a) Communal harmony and peace 31. The first recipient of Rajiv Gandhis Khel Ratna
(b) Literature award is
(c) Medical Science (a) Vishwanathan Anand
(d) Sports (b) Leander Peas
(c) Kapil Dev
22. Which of the following states conferred the
(d) Limba Ram
Bihari Puraskar?
32. The first Indira Gandhi Award for International
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar
Justice and Harmony has been given to
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
(a) Yasser Arafat
23. The National bravery award is also known as : (b) Larry Pressler
(a) Bharat Puraskar (b) Hind Puraskar (c) Amnesty International
(c) Bharati Puraskar (d) Rashtriya Puraskar (d) Hussain Ibrahim Zaki
F-10 || National and International Awards
33. Indians Ricky Kej (Musician) and activist 39. Who was the first foreigner to win the Bharat
Neela Vaswani recently won which International Ratna?
Award? (a) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(a) Grammy Awards (b) Winston Churchill
(b) BAFTA Awards (c) Nelson Madela
(c) Oscar Awards (d) None of these
40. The journalist who refused to accept Padma
(d) Golden Globe Awards
Bhushan was?
34. Which of the following famous financial journals
(a) Shekaran Nair
of international repute confers Finance minister
(b) Khushwant Singh
of the year Award? (c) Ratan Thiyam
(a) Dalal Street (d) Arun Shourie
(b) Euromoney 41. Who among the following is a winner of the
(c) Business Standard Indira Gandhi Award for National integration?
(d) Money Matters (a) Aruna Asaf Ali
35. Shanthi Swaroop Bhatnagar awards are given for (b) Ashok Kumar
(a) exploring new dimensions in creative (c) Sundarlal Bahuguna
writing in Indian languages (d) M. G. K. Menon
(b) outstanding contribution to science 42. Who among the following has become the first
(c) creating mass awareness on environmental winner of Charleston-EFG John Maynard Keynes
issues Prize?
(a) Amartya Sen (b) A.P.J. Kalam
(d) excellence in film direction
(c) L.K. Advani (d) Manmohan Singh
36. Manav Seva Award has been instituted in the
43. Who among the following is the recipient of the
memory of
first Dayawati Modi Award for art, culture and
(a) Rajiv Gandhi education?
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (a) Dharmavir Bharti
(c) Indira Gandhi (b) Amitabh Bachchaan
(d) Acharya (c) B. V. Karanth
37. The prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award was (d) Ashok Vajpeyi
conferred upon Mr.Arvind Kejriwal in which of 44. Which among the following states has won the
the following category? 10th National Award for Excellence work in
(a) Emergent Leadership Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
(b) Literature Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)?
(c) Community Welfare (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Karnataka
(d) Government Service (c) West Bengal (d) Haryana
45. Which of the following awards was conferred
38. Who among the following has received both
upon Smt. Aruna Asaf Ali for her role in the
Bharat Ratna and Nishan -e -Pakistan?
welfare of adult and women?
(a) Ayub Khan
(a) Tagore Literacy Award
(b) Moraji Desai
(b) UNSECO Literacy Award
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Moorti Devi Award
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (d) Kalinga Prize

46. B. C. Roy Award is given in the field of
(a) Medicine (b) Music (a) France (b) USA
(c) Journalism (d) Environment
47. The Pampa Prashasti is the highest literacy award
given by which of the following states?
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
International
1. The Nobel prize was instituted by which country?
(a) USA (b) UK
(c) Russia (d) Sweden
2. Orange prize is given in the field of
(a) Sports (b) Literature
(c) Medicine (d) Film
3. Laurets Award is associated to the field of
(a) Sports (b) Polities
(c) Medicine (d) Journalism
4. Sabin Award is given for the conservation of
(a) Reptiles (b) Birds
(c) Corals (d) Amphibians
5. When did the Nobel prize in the Economics
Sciences launched?
(a) 1901 (b) 1942
(c) 1967 (d) 1975
6. The Academy award is also known as
(a) Oscar Award (b) BAFTA Award
(c) Matthews Award (d) Palm dore
7. Confucius peace prize is given by
(a) Sri Lanka (b) India
(c) China (d) S. Korea
8. Pulitzer prize was established in
(a) 1917 (b) 1918
(c) 1922 (d) 1928
9. Nobel prizes are distributed annually at
(a) Manila (b) New York
(c) Stockholm (d) Geneva
10. BAFTA prize is distributed by
(a) UK (b) Russia
(c) India (d) USA
11. Golden Globe award is given by
(a) UK (b) France
(c) USA (d) China
General Awareness || F-11
12. Palme dor prize is given by
(c) UK (d) Indonesia
13. Which of the following is an award instituted by
UNESCO?
(a) Kalinga Award (b) Pulitzer prize
(c) Stirling prize (d) Pritzker prize
14. The International Linguapax award is given on
(a) Mother Language Day
(b) Human Rights Day
(c) Non-violence Day
(d) Computer Literacy Day
15. The Stirling prize is a British prize for excellence
in
(a) Medicine (b) Science
(c) Architecture (d) Literature
16. International Gandhi Peace prize is instituted in
(a) 1995 (b) 1996
(c) 1997 (d) 1998
17. The Nobel prizes except Economics were first
awarded in
(a) 1901 (b) 1902
(c) 1903 (d) 1904
18. Jawaharlal Nehru award for International
understanding was founded in
(a) 1964 (b) 1965
(c) 1966 (d) 1967
19. The India Human Development award in
association with UNDP instituted in
(a) 2010 (b) 2011
(c) 2012 (d) 2013
20. The Sultan Qaboos prize is given in the field of
(a) Environmental preservation
(b) Literature
(c) Science
(d) Architecture
21. The Guillermo Cano prize is given in the field of
(a) World Press Freedom
(b) Prevention of Non-violence
(c) Popularisation of Science
(d) Literary work
F-12 || National and International Awards
22. Which of the following award is given by World
Economic Forum?
(a) Crystal Award
(b) Kalinga prize
(c) Pulitzer Award
(d) Abel prize
23. Right Livelihood award is instituted in
(a) 1980 (b) 1982
(c) 1984 (d) 1985
24. Which of the following prizes is also known as
the Alternative Nobel prize?
(a) Pulitzer prize
(b) Magsaysay award
(c) Booker prize
(d) Right Livelihood award
25. Magsaysay award is given by
(a) USA (b) UK
(c) Malaysia (d) Philippines
26. The Nobel prize for Economics was instituted in
(a) 1965 (b) 1966
(c) 1967 (d) 1968
27. Global 500' awards are given for the outstanding
achievement in which of the following fields?
(a) Campaign against AIDS
(b) Population control
(c) Protection of environment
(d) Elimination of illiteracy
28. The Cannes Award is given for excellence in
which field?
(a) Films (b) Journalism
(c) Literature (d) Environment
29. Pulitzer prize is awarded for outstanding work in
the field of
(a) Science and Technology
(b) Environmental Studies
(c) Literature and Journalism
(d) International Understanding
30. Booker prize is given to the field of :
(a) Fiction (b) Poetry
(c) Drama (d) Essay
31. FiFi awards are given in_____industry:
(a) Film
(b) Home Appliances
(c) Perfumes
(d) Automobiles
32. The UNSECOs Prix Jules Verne prize has
been given to which of the following serials of
Doordarshan?
(a) Turning Point
(b) The World This Week
(c) Surabhi
(d) Eye Witness
33. Carole King Became the First Woman to Receive
Gershwin Prize, she is..
(a) Director (b) Singer
(c) Poet (d) Writer
 General Awareness || F-13

ANSWER KEY
National
1. (d) 7. (c) 13. (b) 19. (a) 25. (a) 31. (a) 37. (a) 43. (b)
2. (c) 8. (b) 14. (a) 20. (d) 26. (b) 32. (a) 38. (b) 44. (a)
3. (a) 9. (d) 15. (b) 21. (a) 27. (b) 33. (a) 39. (a) 45. (c)
4. (b) 10. (b) 16. (a) 22. (d) 28. (a) 34. (b) 40. (b) 46. (a)
5. (c) 11. (c) 17. (a) 23. (a) 29. (a) 35 (b) 41. (a) 47. (a)
6. (c) 12. (a) 18. (a) 24. (b) 30. (a) 36. (a) 42. (a)
International
1. (d) 6. (a) 11. (c) 16. (a) 21. (a) 26. (b) 31. (c)
2. (b) 7. (c) 12. (a) 17. (a) 22. (a) 27. (c) 32. (a)
3. (a) 8. (a) 13. (a) 18. (b) 23. (a) 28. (a) 33. (b)
4. (d) 9. (c) 14. (a) 19. (c) 24. (d) 29. (c)
5. (c) 10. (a) 15. (c) 20. (a) 25. (d) 30. (a)

Hints & Solutions

National
1. (d) The Jnanpith award is a literary award which
along with the Sahitya Akademi Fellowship is
one of the two most prestigious literary honours
in the country. The award was instituted in 1961.
Any Indian citizen who writes in any of the official
languages of India is eligible for the honour.
2. (c) Kabir puraskar is given for promotion of
communal harmony. Instituted in 1990, Kabir
Puraskar is given in 3 categories of grades with
` 2 lakh for first grade, ` 1 lakh for second grade
and ` 50,000 for third grade along with certificates
and citations.
3. (a) Bharat Ratna is Indias highest civilian award.
The official criteria for awarding the Bharat Ratna
stipulated it is to be conferred for the highest
degrees of national service which includes artistic,
literary, and scientific achievements, as well as
recognition of public service of the highest order.
The last recipient of the award is the cricketer
Sachin Tendulkar for the year 2014.
4. (b) Dronacharya award is an award presented by
the government of India for excellence in sports
coaching. The award comprises bronze statue
of Dronacharya, a scroll of honour and a cash
component of ` 500,000. The award was instituted
in 1985. The last recipient of the award is Raj Singh
for wrestling in the year 2014.
5. (c) The National Film awards, one of the most
prominent film awards in India, were established
in 1954. Every year, a national panel appointed by
the government selects the winning entry, and the
award ceremony is held in New Delhi where the
President of India presents the awards.
6. (c) Vir Chakra is an Indian gallantry award
presented for acts of bravery in the battlefield while
the Ashok Chakra, Kirti Chakra and Shaurya Chakra
in addition for separate acts of gallantry are awarded
for valour, courageous action or self-sacrifice away
from the battlefield.
7. (c) The Vyas Samman is a literary award which
was first awarded in 1991. It is awarded annually
by the K.K. Birla Foundation and includes a cash of
` 250,000 (as of 2005). To be eligible for the award,
the literary work must be in the Hindi language and
has been published in the past 10 years.
F-14 || National and International Awards
8. (b) The Vishvakarma Rashtriya puraskar and
National Safety awards scheme was launched in
1965 by ministry of labour to motivate the brilliant
workers and industrial units who deliver their
best to curb mishaps and increase in the industrial
(occupational) safety measures and work for the
promotion of the interests of both the management
and labour.
9. (d) The Nandi award is the highest award for
excellence in Telugu cinema, Telugu Theatre,
Telugu Television, and Life time achievements in
Indian cinema, presented annually by Government
of Andhra Pradesh.
10. (b) The SASTRA Ramanujan prize, founded by
Shanmugha Arts, Science, Technology & Research
Academy (SASTRA) University in Kumbakonam,
India, Srinivasa Ramanujans hometown, is awarded
every year to a young mathematician judged to
have done outstanding work in Ramanujans fields
of interest. The age limit for the prize has been set
at 32 (the age at which Ramanujan died), and the
current award is $10,000.
11. (c) The Saraswati Samman is an annual award for
outstanding prose or poetry literary works in any
Indian language. It was instituted in 1991 by the K.
K. Birla Foundation. The award contains ` 10 lakh,
a citation and a plaque. Candidates are selected
from literary works published in the previous ten
years by a panel that includes scholars and former
award winners.
13. (b) The Param Vir Chakra is Indias highest
military decoration awarded for the highest degree of
valour or self-sacrifice in the presence of the enemy.
It can be awarded to officers or enlisted personnel
from all branches of the Indian military and can be,
and often has been, awarded posthumously.
14. (a) The Maha Vir Chakra is the second military
decoration in India and is awarded for acts of
conspicuous gallantry in the presence of the enemy,
whether on land, at sea or in the air. The medal may
be awarded posthumously.
15. (b) In order to recognize a scientist, who provides
a breakthrough for agriculture through a new insight
that has created high potential value for the future,
the Norman Borlaug Award has been constituted.
The nominations for the awards are for a scientist(s)
of any discipline of agricultural and allied sciences.
The award would be of ` 10 lakh in cash.
16. (a) The Ashok Chakra is an Indian military
decoration awarded for valour, courageous action
or self-sacrifice away from the battlefield. It is the
peace time equivalent of the Param Vir Chakra, and
is awarded for the most conspicuous bravery or
some daring or pre-eminent valour or self-sacrifice
other than in the face of the enemy.
17. (a) The Appan Menon Memorial Award
consisting of a grant of ` 1 lakh is given each year
to a professional journalist working in the area of
world affairs or development news with an Indian
perspective.
19. (a) The prestigious Dhanwantari award, which
recognizes contribution in medical science is
awarded annually since 1972. The recipients include
M.K. Mani, pioneer in nephrology in the country
and Chief Nephrologist at Apollo Hospital, Chennai
who has been honoured with the 40th Dhanvantari
Award.
20. (d) The Shaurya Chakra is an Indian military
decoration after the Ashoka Chakra and the Kirti
Chakra and awarded for valour, courageous action or
self-sacrifice while not engaged in direct action with
the enemy. It may be awarded to civilians as well as
military personnel, sometimes posthumously. It is
the peacetime equivalent of the Vir Chakra.
21. (a) Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award
is given for outstanding contribution towards
promotion of communal harmony, national
integration and peace. The award was instituted by
All India Congress Committee of the Indian National
Congress Party (INC), in 1992 to commemorate
the lasting contribution made by the former Prime
Minister Rajiv Gandhi, carries a citation and a cash
award of ` 5 lakhs.
22. (d) Bihari Puraskar conferred by Rajasthan is a
literary award instituted by K. K. Birla Foundation.
The award is named after the famous Hindi poet
Bihari and is awarded to an outstanding work
published in Hindi or Rajasthani by a Rajasthani
writer. It carries a citation, a plaque and prize money
of ` 1 lakh.
23. (a) National Bravery award also known as Bharat
Puraskar for Indian Children is given each year by
Government of India and Indian Council for Child
Welfare (ICCW) to Indian children for meritorious
acts of bravery against all odds. The award is given
to around 24 children below the age of 16.

24. (b) Chameli Devi Jain puraskar is conferred to
the journalists. The award, instituted by the Media
Foundation has been conferred to Tusha Mittal of
Tehelkas Kolkata News Bureau in 2012.
25. (a) Tansen Samman is conferred in the field of
music which carries a cash prize of ` 2 lakh and a
citation.
26. (b) The Kalidas Samman is a prestigious arts
award presented annually by the government
of Madhya Pradesh. The award is named after
Klidsa, a renowned Classical Sanskrit writer. The
Kalidas Samman was first awarded in 1980 and was
initially conferred in alternate years in the fields
of Classical Music, Classical Dance, Theatre and
Plastic Arts.
27. (b) Dhyan Chand award is Indias highest award
for lifetime achievement in sports and games. The
award is named after the legendary Indian hockey
player Dhyan Chand and was initiated in 2002. The
award carries a cash prize of ` 5 lakh, a plaque and
a scroll of honour.
28. (a) Lata Mangeshkar puraskar, instituted in 1992
by the Maharashtra government carries a cash prize
of ` 5,00,000 and a citation. Renowned music
director Anandji Shah, of the Kalyanji-Anandji
duo, was the last recipient of the Lata Mangeshkar
Award.
35. (b) The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar award for
Science and Technology (SSB) is an award in India
given annually by the CSIR. It is named after the
founder Director of the CSIR and carries an award
money of ` 5 lakh each.
37. (a) In 2006, Kejriwal was awarded the Ramon
Magsaysay Award for Emergent Leadership
recognising his involvement in a grassroots
movement Parivartan using right-to-information
legislation in a campaign against corruption. The
same year, after resigning from the IRS, he donated
his Magsaysay award money as a corpus fund to
found the Public Cause Research Foundation, a
non-governmental organisation (NGO).
40. (b) Khushwant Singh (Journalist) : Returned his
Padma Bhushan in protest against Operation Blue
Star (1984); awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2007.
42. (a) Eminent Indian Economist and Nobel
laureate Amartya Sen has won the newly instituted
Charleston-EFG John Maynard Keynes Prize. He
was awarded in recognition of his work on welfare
economics.
General Awareness || F-15
44. (a) Madhya Pradesh has been awarded 10th
National Award for Excellence work in Mahatma
Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(MGNREGA). The award was given to Madhya
Pradesh for convergence of MGNREGA and other
schemes for construction of permanent assets and
for excellent work in providing opportunities for
earning permanent income.
46. (a) Bidhan Chandra Roy Award was instituted in
1976 in memory of B. C. Roy by Medical Council of
India. The Award is given annually in the categories
of Statesmanship of the Highest Order in India,
Medical man-cum-Statesman, Eminent Medical
Person, Eminent person in Philosophy and Eminent
person in Arts. It is presented by President of India
in New Delhi on July 1, the National Doctors Day.
47. (a) Pampa Prashasti is the highest literary
honour conferred by the Karnataka government
on a litterateur for his/her lifetime contribution
to Kannada literature. The award is named after
Adikavi Pampa of 10th Century. The award carries
award money of ` 3 lakh and a citation.
International
1. (d) The Nobel prize is a set of an international
awards bestowed in a number of categories which
is given annually to the winners by Swedish and
Norwegian Committees in recognition of cultural
and/or scientific advances. It was the will of the
Swedish inventor Alfred Nobel that established the
Nobel prizes in 1895 in Sweden.
2. (b) Orange prize is now known as Womens prize
for Fiction which is given to those women writers
who have written full novel in English. The Orange
Prize was established in 1996 by Orange PLC, a UK
telecommunications corporation.
3. (a) The Laureus World Sports Awards are annual
awards given to those sportspersons who have been
outstanding in the previous year. These awards
were established in 1999 by Founding Patrons
Daimler and Richemont. The first gala was held on
May 25, 2000 in Monte Carlo. The 2014 Laureus
World Sports Awards is to be held in Kuala Lumpur,
Malaysia, on Wednesday, March 26.
4. (d) Sabin award is given to the Amphibian
conservationists. In 2008 the IUCN recognized
Satyabhama Das Biju of Department of
F-16 || National and International Awards
Environmental biology, University of Delhi for
his dedication for his research and conservation of
Frogs and had awarded the Sabin award.
5. (c) The Nobel prize in Economics or Economic
sciences was established in 1968 and endowed by
Swedens central bank, the Sveriges Riksbank, on
the occasion of the banks 300th anniversary. While
the Nobel Prize in particular was established in
1895.
6. (a) The Academy award is also known as the Oscar
award which is presented for various categories in
the Film industry. It was first given in 1929.
7. (c) The Confucius Peace prize is a prize established
in 2010 in the Peoples Republic of China (PRC).
The Confucius Peace Prizes first winner was
former Vice President of the Republic of China
and Kuomintang Chairman Lien Chan, for his
contribution to developing positive ties between
Taiwan and mainland China.
8. (a) The Pulitzer Prize is a U.S. award for
achievements in newspaper and online journalism,
literature, and musical composition. It was
established in 1917 and administered by Columbia
University in New York City by provisions in the
will of American publisher Joseph Pulitzer.
9. (c) The Nobel awards in literature, medicine,
physics, chemistry, peace, and economics are given
in Stockholm, Sweden. The Peace prize is awarded
in Oslo, Norway.
10. (a) The British Academy Film awards are presented
in an annual award show hosted by the British
Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA). It
is given by UK and is considered to be the counter
awards for Oscars.
11. (c) Golden Globe award is given in the field of
film and television by Hollywood Foreign Press
Association in United States of America.
12. (a) The Palme dOr is the highest prize awarded
at the Cannes Film Festival and is presented to
the director of the best feature film of the official
competition. It is presented by Festival International
du film de, France.
13. (a) The Kalinga Prize for popularization of
Science is an international distinction instituted by
UNESCO. It was started in 1951 by donation from
Mr Bijoyanand Patnaik, founder and president of
the Kalinga Foundation Trust in India.
14. (a) The International Linguapax award is awarded
annually on International Mother Language Day
(21 February) by Linguapax (Linguapax Institute),
which recognises and awards the actions carried out
in different areas for the preservation of linguistic
diversity, revitalization and reactivation of linguistic
communities and the promotion of multilingualism.
15. (c) The Royal Institute of British Architects Stirling
Prize is a British prize for excellence in architecture.
It is organised and awarded annually by the Royal
Institute of British Architects (RIBA).It is named
after the architect James Stirling.
16. (a) International Gandhi Peace prize is given
annually by Government of India to those
individuals and organizations which contribute
towards changes in the political, social or economic
reforms via non-violence. It was instituted in 1995.
17. (a) Nobel prize was first given in 1901. From 1901
to 2012 the Nobel prizes and the Prize in Economic
Sciences were awarded 555 times to 856 people and
organizations. With some receiving the Nobel prize
more than once, this makes a total of 835 individuals
and 21 organizations.
18. (b) The Jawaharlal Nehru award for International
Understanding is an international award presented
by the Government of India. It was established
in 1965, administered by the Indian Council for
Cultural Relations (ICCR). It is given to the people
for their outstanding contribution to the promotion
of international understanding, goodwill and
friendship among people of the world.
19. (c) The Manav Vikas India Human Development
awards, instituted by the Planning Commission and
UNDP was first given out in 2012.
20. (a) The Sultan Qaboos prize is a biennial award
sponsored by the United Nations Educational,
Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
which is given for environmental preservation.
21. (a) The UNESCO/Guillermo Cano World Press
Freedom Prize honours a person, organization or
institution that has made an outstanding contribution
to the defence and/or promotion of press freedom
anywhere in the world, especially when this has
been achieved in the face of danger. It was instituted
in 1997.

22. (a) The World Economic Forum gives Crystal award
to those artists who have improved the state of the
world through their art.
23. (a) The prize was established in 1980 by German-
Swedish philanthropist Jakob von Uexkull. This
ispresented annually in early December.
24. (d) Right Livelihood prize is considered to be the
alternative to Nobel prize. This is also an annual
prize which is given to individuals who have done
something exemplary to solve some of the most
pressing issues in the world.
25. (d) Ramon Magsaysay award is given annually
to those Asian people who have contributed
extraordinary service in their respective fields.
General Awareness || F-17
This award is given by Philippine in the memoir
of Philippine President Ramon Magsaysay. He
is considered to be one of the great examples of
integrity, courage, and idealistic democrat.
26. (b) Merlin award is given to the Magicians who
contribute significantly in the stage magic shows
and creation of magic in the world. This award
was created by Tony Hassini and his International
Magicians Society.
33. (b) US singer-songwriter Carole King became
the first woman to receive the Library of Congress
Gershwin Prize for Popular Song. The award was
given away at the White House in Washington.
 3 Books and Authors
1. Which of the following books is written by
Pt. Vishnu Sharma?
(a) Panchatantra (b) Buddha Charitam
(c) Malti Madhav (d) Geet Govind
2. The book Mudrarakshas is written by
(a) Pt. Vishnu Sharma
(b) Kalidasa
(c) Vishakhadatta Kautilya?
(d) Raskhan
3. Which of the following books is written by
Panini?
(a) Mudrarakshas (b) Ashtadhyayi
(c) Prem Vatika (d) Bijak
4. Mrichhakatikam is written by
(a) Shudrak (b) Kalidasa
(c) Kautilya (d) Vishakhadatta
5. Which of the following books is written by
Kalidasa?
(a) Raghuvansham (b) Mitakshara
(c) Rajtarangini (d) Arthashastra
6. The book Meghdootam is written by
(a) Panini (b) Shudrak
(c) Kalidasa (d) Vishkhadatta
7. Which of the following books is written by
Vatsyayana?
(a) Kama sutra (c) Kabir Das (d) Bhavabhuti
(b) Ashtadhyayi
(c) Kumarsambhavam
(d) Mitakshara
8. The book Mitakshara is written by
(a) Vatsyayana (b) Jeemaatwahan
(c) Vigyaneshwar (d) Shudrak
9. Which of the following books is written by
Kalhana?
(a) Mudra Rakshas (b) Prem Vatika
(c) Rajtarangini (d) Kadambari
10. The book Natural History is written by
(a) Kalhara (b) Kautilya
(c) Pliny (d) Dandi
11. Which of the following books is written by
(a) Daybhag (b) Rajtarangini
(c) Arthashastra (d) Mitakshara
12. The book Avanti Sundari is written by
(a) Kautilya (b) Dandi
(c) Ved Vyas (d) Ashwaghosh
13. The book Buddha Charitam is written by
(a) Shudrak (b) Panini
(c) Kautilya (d) Ashwaghosh
14. Which of the following books is written by
Jayadev?
(a) Geet Govind (b) Daybhag
(c) Mitakshara (d) Kamasutra
15. The book Kadambari is written by
(a) Jayadev (b) Bana Bhatt
(c) Bhavabhuti (d) Ashwaghosh
16. The book Sahityalahari and Sursagar is written
by
(a) Surdas (b) Kalidasa
17. The books, Niti Shatak, Shringaar Shatak and
Vairagya Shatak are written by
(a) Bhartrihari (b) Bana Bhatt
(c) Kabir Das (d) Bhavabhuti
18. The Immortals is written by
(a) Aravind Adiga (b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Amit Chaudhuri (d) None of these
 General Awareness || F-19

19. Golden Threshold and Broken Wings are 30. The book Jhansi Ki Rani was written by
written by : (a) Devkinandan Khatri
(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Indira Priyadarshani (b) Sharat Chand Chaudhary
(c) Kalpana Datta (d) Lakshmi Sehgal (c) Vrindavanlal Verma
20. Who is the author of A River Sutra? (d) Mahadevi Verma
(a) V.S. Naipaul (b) Nirad C Choudhari 31. The book Gaban and Godan were written by
(c) Gita Mehta (d) Vikram Seth (a) Prem Chand (b) Jai Shankar Prasad
21. The Hungry Tide is written by (c) Amrit Lal Nagar (d) Vrindavanlal Verma
(a) Amitav Ghosh (b) Arundhati Roy 32. Who is the author of the book Glimpses of World
(c) Shashi Tharoor (d) Ved Mehta History?
22. Who is the author of the book Imaging India : (a) Jwaharlal Nehru (b) Abul Kalam Azad
Ideas for the New Century? (c) S. Gopalan (d) S. Radhakrishnan
(a) Arvind Adiga (b) MJ Akbar 33. The autobiography Living History has been
(c) Nandan Nilakani (d) Shashi Tharoor authored by?
23. Who is the author of one night at the call centre? (a) Margaret Atwood (b) Benazir Bhutoo
(a) Vikram Seth (b) Chetan Bhagat (c) Hillary Clinton (d) Monica Lewinsky
(c) Anurag Mathur (d) Robin Sharma 34. Who is called the Father of English Poetry?
24. Who is the author of the book Conquest of Self? (a) Charles Dickens (b) Milton
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh (c) Chaucer (d) Wordsworth
(b) Rabindra Nath Tagore 35. Who is the author of INDIA : The Future is
(c) Mahatma Gandhi Now.
(d) S. Radhakrishnan (a) Robin Sharma (b) Amartya Sen
25. A Passage to England was written by (c) Shashi Tharoor (d) Arundhati Roy
(a) Nirad C. Chaudhary 36. Freedom from Fear is a book written by?
(b) R.K. Narayan (a) Benzir Bhutto
(c) Khushwant Singh (b) Aung san suu Kyi
(d) Nayantara Sehgal (c) Corazon Aquino
26. Playing to Win is written by (d) Nayantara Seghal
(a) Salman Rushdie (b) Saina Nehwal 37. A Voice for Freedom is a book written by
(c) Nadeem Aslam (d) Harsh Mander (a) Corazon Aquino
27. The Freethinkers prayer book was written by (b) Nayantara Sahgal
(a) Khushwant Singh (b) Tavleen Singh (c) Aung San Suu Kyi
(c) Salman Rushdie (d) Nadeem Aslam (d) Benazir Bhutto
28. The Last War was written by 38. Post Office is written by?
(a) Sandipan Deb (a) R.K. Narayan
(b) Madhumita Mukherjee (b) Mulk Raj Anand
(c) Vinod Mehta (c) R.K Laxman
(d) Harsh Mander (d) Rabindra Nath Tagore
29. The books Chitrangada, Gitanjali and Gora were 39. What of the following book is released by Salman
written by Rushdie ?
(a) Rabindra Nath Tagore (a) Midnights Children
(b) Kuldip Nayyar (b) The Ground Beneath Her Feet
(c) Amrita Pritam (c) The Satanic Verses
(d) Khushwant Singh (d) Haroun and other Stories
F-20 || Books and Authors
40. Which one of the following works has recently
been made into a full lenght featured film?
(a) R.K Narayans Malgudi Days
(b) Salman Rushdies Midnights Children
(c) Vikram Seths A Suitable Boy
(d) Upamanyu Chatterjees English August
41. Who wrote Jungle Book?
(a) Mohd. Salim
(b) Rudyard Kipling
(c) Sibhu
(d) R.K. Narayan
42. Who wrote, Towards Total Revolution?
(a) Lenin
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) A.K. Goplan
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan
43. Who wrote the famous book - We the people?
(a) T.N.Kaul (b) Nani Palkhivala
(c) J.R.D. Tata (d) Khushwant Singh
44. Which of the following is not written by Munshi
Premchand?
(a) Gaban (b) Guide
(c) Godan (d) Manasorovar
45. Lala Lajpat Rai is the author of the book
(a) India Divided (b) Unhappy India
(c) Mother India (d) Hind Swaraj
46. Who wrote the book The Prince?
(a) Bernard Shaw (b) Niccolo Machiaveli
(c) V.S. Sharma (d) Emile Zola
47. The famous book The Daughter of the East is
written by
(a) Taslima Nasreen
(b) Benazir Bhutto
(c) Aunsan Suu Kyi
(d) Bandaranaike Sirimavo
48. Which of the following books is written by
Rabindranath Tagore?
(a) Rakta Karabi (b) Chidambara
(c) Anand Math (d) Durgesh Nandini
49. The original name of Mahabharata is
(a) Katha Saritsagar (b) Jai Samhita
(c) Vrahat Katha (d) Rajatarangini
50. Who is the author of Ashtadhyayi?
(a) Sumitranandan (b) Raj Anand
(c) Panini (d) Gitta Piramal
51. Who is the author of famous book The
Judgement?
(a) Anthony Mascarenhasa
(b) R. Vankataraman
(c) Kuldip Nayar
(d) Janardhan Turkur
52. Who is the author of book We Indians?
(a) Nirad C. Choudry
(b) Subramaniya Swamy
(c) Khushwant Singh
(d) Muluk Raj Anand
53. India of our Dreams is a book written by
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. C. Subramanian
(c) M.V. Kamath
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
54. The Naked Face, a very popular book is written
by
(a) Dominique Lapierre
(b) Larry Collins
(c) Sidney Sheldon
(d) Juan Benet
55. The Gathering Storm is written by
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) George Washington
(c) Voltaire
(d) Romain Rolland
56. Who wrote War and Peace?
(a) Leo Tolstoy (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Charles Dickens (d) Kipling
57. The book The White Tiger is authored by
(a) Arundhati Roy (b) Aravind Adiga
(c) Kiran Desai (d) VS Naipaul
58. The book The Audacity of Hope is written by
(a) Nayantara Sehgal (b) Aravind Adiga
(c) Vikram Seth (d) Barrack Obama
59. The book Long walk to Freedom is written by
(a) Sonia Gandhi (b) Nelson Mandela
(c) Benazir Bhutto (d) Nawaz Sharif
60. The book A Bend in the River is written by
(a) VS Naipaul (b) Chetan Bhagat
(c) Vikram Seth (d) Arundhati Roy
 General Awareness || F-21

61. The book Freedom at Midnight is written by 64. The Rights of Man is written by
(a) Dominique Lapierre (a) Thomas Hardy (b) Thomas Claire
(b) Isabelle Mornique (c) Thomas Moore (d) Thomas Paine
(c) Bethoven Aspartus 65. India Remembered is written by
(d) Nicholas Sarkory (a) JK Rowling
62. An Inconvenient Truth is written by (b) Robert Dallek
(a) Barrak Obama (b) George Bush (c) Pamela Mountbatten
(c) Al Gore (d) Bill Clinton (d) Stephen Hawking
63. A passage to England was written by 66. The book Mother India is authored by
(a) Nirad C Chaudhury (a) Annie Besant (b) Katherine Frank
(b) RK Narayan (c) Katherine Mayo (d) Sister Nivedita
(c) Khushwant Singh
(d) Nayantra Sehgal
F-22 || Books and Authors

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 8. (c) 15. (b) 22. (c) 29. (a) 36. (b) 43. (b) 50. (c) 57. (b) 64. (d)
2. (c) 9. (c) 16. (a) 23. (b) 30. (c) 37. (b) 44. (b) 51. (c) 58. (d) 65. (c)
3. (b) 10. (c) 17. (a) 24. (c) 31. (a) 38. (d) 45. (b) 52. (c) 59. (b) 66. (c)
4. (a) 11. (c) 18. (c) 25. (a) 32. (a) 39. (b) 46. (b) 53. (c) 60. (a)
5. (a) 12. (b) 19. (a) 26. (b) 33. (c) 40. (d) 47. (b) 54. (c) 61. (a)
6. (c) 13. (d) 20. (c) 27. (a) 34. (c) 41. (b) 48. (a) 55. (a) 62. (c)
7. (a) 14. (a) 21. (a) 28. (a) 35. (c) 42. (d) 49. (b) 56. (a) 63. (a)

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Panchatantra is written by Vishnu Sharma.
The tales of Panchatantra, perhaps, are the oldest
stories known in the literature of India. The dates of
the Panchatantra are not known and these tales are
usually attributed to Vishnu Sharma. Some believe
that the fables of panchatantra are as old as Rigveda.
2. (c) Mudrarkashas is written by Vishakhadatta.
Mudrarakshasa (The Minister Signets Ring) is a
Sanskrit drama written by Vishakhadatta, who is also
credited with the authorship of Devichandragupta.
Sanskrit drama of 4th century AD describing the
overthrow of the Nandas ruling the Magadhan
empire by the first Mauryan emperor Chandragupta
Maurya who was aided in this endevour by Kautilya
also called as Chanakya and Vishnugupta.
3. (b) Ashtadhyayi is written by Panini. Panini a
sage who is believed to have lived around the fifth
century B.C., although other claims trace him to the
4th, 6th and 7th centuries, is credited with having
created the Ashtadhyayi, or Ashtak, which is a
grammar defining the structure and syntax of the
Sanskrit language.
4. (a) Mrichhakatikam is written by Shudrak.
Sanskrit dramas like Mrichhakatikam by Shudrak
and Shakuntalam by Kalidas give some very vivid
pictures of police force at work in the ancient times.
5. (a) Raghuvansham is written by Kalidasa.
Raghuvansha, a long classical poem of 19 cantos,
contains a brilliant account of the illustrious kings
of Raghu Dynasty. It is indeed a gallery of brilliant
kings - Dilipa, Raghu, Aja, Dasharatha, Rama -
painted exquisitely by Kalidasa in which the picture
of Rama is undoubtedly the best.
6. (c) Meghdootam is written by Kalidasa. The
meghaduta is a poem describing the message of
departed Yaksha to his wife, to be conveyed through
a cloud. Yaksha, a servant of lord, Kubera, made
some mistake in his duty; Kubera punished him
with a curse, banishing him from Alaka into exile
for a period of one year. Therefore, Yaksha sent his
message to his wife through a cloud.
7. (a) Kamasutra is written by Vatsyayana.
8. (c) Mitakshara is written by Vigyaneshwar. It was
considered one of the main authorities on Hindu
Law from the time the British began administering
laws in India.
9. (c) The history of the Kings of Kashmir written
by Kalahan, one of the most famous Sanskrit
scholars of Kashmir in 12th Century AD, is the book
Rajatarangini. The Rajatarangini also traces the
political history of Queen Diddas reign and adds to
our interest as it also includes Kalhans views on the
morality and modality of events and personalities.
10. (c) The book Natural History is written by Pliny.
It is one of the largest single works to have survived
from the Roman Empire to the modern day and
purports to cover all ancient knowledge.
11. (c) Kautilyas Arthashastra is an excellent treatise
on statecraft, economic policy and military strategy.
it is said to have been written by Kautilya, also

known by the name Chanakya or Vishnugupta,
the prime minister of Indias first great emperor,
Chandragupta Maurya.
13. (d) Buddhacharita is an epic poem in the Sanskrit
mahakavya style on the life of Gautama Buddha by
Avaghosha, composed in the early second century
CE.
14. (a) The writer of Geet Govind is Jayadev. He
was the poet of eleventh century who wrote the
sanskrit poem on the mystic love of Radha and
Krishna. Jayadev was born in Kudali Sasan a small
village near Puri in Orrisa. In his poem he describes
the eternal love of Krishna and Radha. He was a
great devotee of Lord Krishna and considered both
Krishna and Radha as divine.
15. (b) The Kadambari is one of the best romantic
fictions of 7th century by Banabhatta. An
imaginative romantic story, technically, in the form
of a katha.
16. (a) Although Surdas is known for his greatest
work the Sur Sagar, he has also sung Sur-
Saravali, which is based on the theory of genesis and
the festival of Holi, and Sahitya-Lahiri, devotional
lyrics dedicated to the Supreme Absolute. Surdas
verse is also credited as one that lifted the literary
value of the Hindi language, transforming it from
crude to a pleasing tongue.
18. (c) The Immortals is written by Amit Chaudhury.
He is an internationally recognized Indian English
author and academic.
19. (a) Sarojini Naidu was an Indian poet and political
leader. Her poetry, originally published in three
volumes. The Golden Threshold (1905), The Bird
of Time (1912), and The Broken Wing (1915) was
written in English but deals, in a romantic vein,
with Indian themes. She was active in the Indian
National Congress and in 1925 became its first
woman president.
20. (c) A River Sutra is written by Gita Mehta.
This novel beautifully embodies the art and craft
of storytelling as Mehta portrays diverse lives
touched by the river Narmada, a holy pilgrimage
site worshipped as the daughter of the god Shiva.
21. (a) The Hungry Tide is written by Amitabh
Ghosh. The Hungry Tide tells a very contemporary
story of adventure and unlikely love, identity and
history, set in one of the most fascinating regions on
the earth.
General Awareness || F-23
22. (c) Imaging India : Ideas for the New Century
is written by Nandan Nilekani. In this momentous
book, Nandan Nilekani traces the central ideas that
shaped Indias past and present and asks the key
question of the future. How will India as a global
power avoid the mistakes of earlier development
models? As a co-founder of Infosys, a global leader
in information technology, Nilekani has actively
participated in the companys rise during the past
twenty-seven years.
23. (b) One night @ call centre is written by Chetan
Bhagat, published in 2005. The themes involve the
anxieties and insecurities of the rising Indian middle
class, including questions about career, inadequacy,
marriage, family conflicts in a changing India, and
the relationship of the young Indian middle class
to both executives and ordinary clients whom they
serve in U.S.A.
25. (a) A passage to England is written by Nirad C.
Chaudhary. In 1955, the British Council and the
BBC jointly made arrangements to take Chaudhuri
to England for eight weeks. He was asked to
contribute lectures to the BBC. He contributed
eight lectures on British life. Later these lectures are
collected in the Passage to England modified and
edited.
26. (b) Playing to win is written by Saina Nehwal. In
Playing to win, my life on and off court Saina has
written her autobiography in which she has revealed
many of her secrets. The book has many incidents
about Saina which are not in public domain.
27. (a) The Freethinkers Prayer Book is written
by Khushwant Singh. In this eclectic and deeply
personal collection, Indias grand old man of letters
brings together precepts, prayers and practical
advice by prophets, poets and philosophers, and
his favourite passages from the seminal texts of the
worlds major faiths.
28. (a) The Last War by Sandipan Deb is a novel
about a business family that deals in many illegal
activities. The novel stretches from the year 1955
to the year 2007, during which time the life of the
family members takes various twists and turns. The
novel bursts with drama, deceit and manoeuvre.
29. (a) Chitrangada and Gitanjali was written by
Rabindra Nath Tagore. Rabindra Nath Tagore was
a Bengali poet, short-story writer, song composer,
playwright, essayist, and painter awarded the Nobel
Prize for Literature in 1913 for Gitanjali.
F-24 || Books and Authors
30. (c) Jhansi Ki Rani is written by Vrindavanlal
Verma. Vrindavan Lal Verma is the acclaimed
author of various books including a National Award
winning book titled Mrignayani.
31. (a) Gaban and Godan were written by Prem chand.
Prem Chand was the first Hindi author to introduce
realism in his writings. He pioneered the new form
- fiction with a social purpose. He supplemented
Gandhijis work in the political and social fields by
adopting his revolutionary ideas as themes for his
literary writings.
38. (d) The Post Office (Bengali: Dak Ghar) is a 1912
play by Rabindranath Tagore. It concerns Amal, a
child confined to his adopted uncles home by an
incurable disease.
39. (b) The Ground Beneath Her Feet is Salman
Rushdies sixth novel. Published in 1999, it is a
variation on the Orpheus/Eurydice myth with rock
music replacing Orpheus lyre.
40. (d) English, August: An Indian Story is a novel
by Indian author Upamanyu Chatterjee written in
English, first published in 1988. It was adapted into
a film of the same name in 1994.
41. (b) English author Rudyard Kipling wrote the
Jungle Book in 1894. It is a collection of stories.
42. (d) Towards Total Revolution is written by
Jayaprakash Narayan. He, popularly referred to
as JP or Lok Nayak , was an Indian independence
activist, social reformer and political leader.
46. (b) The Prince is a 16th-century political treatise
by the Italian diplomat and political theorist Niccol
Machiavelli. The descriptions within The Prince
have the general theme of accepting that the aims
of princessuch as glory and survivalcan justify
the use of immoral means to achieve those ends.
47. (b) Daughter of the East is a comprehensive
political autobiography recounting a detailed
panorama of Bhuttos fight against the military
regime in Pakistan.
50. (c) Ashtadhyayi is Sanskrit treatise on grammar
written in the 6th to 5th century BCE by the
grammarian Panini.
52. (c) We Indians is written by Khushwant Singh.
He analyses the good and the bad of Indian character
in this unusual and timely book.
54. (c) The Naked Face is the first novel (1970)
written by Sidney Sheldon. It was nominated by the
Mystery Writers of America for the Edgar Allan Poe
Award for Best First Novel by an American Author.
In 1983 the novel was adapted as a film directed
by Bryan Forbes, starring Roger Moore and Rod
Steiger.
55. (a) The Gathering Storm is the first volume of The
Second World War (book series), a history of the
period from the end of the First World War to July
1945, written by Winston Churchill.
56. (a) War and Peace is a novel by the Russian author
Leo Tolstoy, first published in 1869. The work is
epic in scale and is regarded as one of the most
important works of world literature. It is considered
as Tolstoys finest literary achievement, along
with his other major prose work, Anna Karenina
(18731877).
57. (b) The White Tiger is the debut novel by Indian
author Aravind Adiga. It was first published in 2008
and won the 40th Man Booker Prize in the same
year.
58. (d) The Audacity of Hope: Thoughts on Reclaiming
the American Dream is the second book written by
Barack Obama. In the fall of 2006 it became number
one on both the New York Times and Amazon.com.
59. (b) Long Walk to freedom is an autobiographical
work written by South African President Nelson
Mandela, which was published in 1995 by Little
Brown & Co.
60. (a) A Bend in the River is a 1979 novel by Nobel
laureate V. S. Naipaul.
61. (a) Freedom at Midnight (1975) is a book by Larry
Collins and Dominique Lapierre. It describes the
events in the Indian independence movement in
1947-48.
62. (c) An Inconvenient Truth 2006 is an Academy
award winning documentary film on the sensitive
issues of environmental and climate change. It has
been written by Al Gore.
63. (a) A Passage to England is a book comprising the
lectures of Nirad C. Chaudhury.
64. (d) Rights of Man (1791), a book by Thomas Paine,
including 31 articles, supports revolution when a
Government does not safeguard its people. It was
published in two parts in March 1791 and February
1792.
65. (c) India Remembered is a book by Pamela
Mountbatten written as a personal account of
Mountbattens.
66. (c) Mother India, was a polemical book by the
American author Katherine Mayo. It was published
in 1927. In her book, Mayo attacked society, religion
and culture of the country of India.
 4 Sports and Games
1. India first won the Olympic Hockey gold at
(a) Amsterdam (b) Los Angeles
(c) Mumbai (d) Tokyo
2. The Olympic Museum was opened at which of
the following places?
(a) Rome (b) Berlin
(c) Lausanne (d) Athens
3. With which sport the term Caddie is associated?
(a) Polo (b) Golf
(c) Bridge (d) Billiards
4. Who is the highest wicket taker in the world in
one day cricket?
(a) Kapil Dev (b) Muthia Muralitharan
(c) Wasim Akram (d) Anil Kumble
5. Champion Trophy is associated with
(a) Football (b) Hockey
(c) Cricket (d) Chess
6. The famous player Ronaldo is associated with
which of the following games?
(a) Table Tennis (b) Football
(c) Hockey (d) Volleyball
7. Which country won the Cricket World Cup in
2011?
(a) India (b) Pakistan
(c) Australia (d) England
8. Rangaswami Cup is associated with
(a) Wrestling (b) Football
(c) Hockey (d) Golf
9. Grand Slam is associated with the game of
(a) Lawn Tennis (b) Hockey
(c) Football (d) Swimming
10. First youth Olympic games was held in
(a) Japan (b) China
(c) North Korea (d) Singapore
11. Subroto Cup is associated with
(a) Badminton (b) Cricket
(c) Chess (d) Football
12. India reached the final of the Davis Cup for the
first time in
(a) 1965 (b) 1966
(c) 1970 (d) 1971
13. The Indian Football team made its first appearance
at Olympics in
(a) 1940 (b) 1948
(c) 1950 (d) 1951
14. Who was the first ODI captain for India?
(a) Ajit Wadekar (b) Bishan Singh Bedi
(c) Kapil Dev (d) Vinoo Mankad
15. Dipeeka Kumari is known for her outstanding
performance in which of the following?
(a) Boxing (b) Athletics
(c) Basketball (d) Archery
16. Wankhede Stadium is situated in
(a) Mumbai (b) Delhi
(c) Lucknow (d) Bangalore
17. The term Gambit is associated with
(a) Chess (b) Tennis
(c) Basketball (d) Baseball
18. Ashes is the term associated with which of the
following sports?
(a) Cricket (b) Badminton
(c) Basketball (d) Football
F-26 || Sports and Games
19. National Sports Day is celebrated on
(a) 29th Aug. (b) 4th Dec.
(c) 14th Nov. (d) 28th Oct.
20. How many players are there in a cricket team?
(a) 11 (b) 12
(c) 10 (d) 9
21. The normal length of a football ground must be
(a) 110 120 m (b) 100 110 m
(c) 90 100 m (d) 120 130 m
22. The term bogey is associated with
(a) Cricket (b) Chess
(c) Golf (d) Baseball
23. Which one of the following countries was
defeated by India in the inagural T-20 Cricket
World Cup?
(a) Pakistan (b) South Africa
(c) Australia (d) England
24. FINA is governing body of which sports?
(a) Cricket (b) Archery
(c) Water polo (d) Polo
25. Which of the following trophies is not concerned
with Football?
(a) Durand Trophy (b) Rovers Cup
(c) Euro Cup (d) Ranji Trophy
26. The famous sportsperson Shane Warne is
associated with
(a) Cricket (b) Football
(c) Basketball (d) Athletics
27. Who among the following women won the
Wimbledon title successfully nine times?
(a) Steffi Graf (b) Martina Navratilova
(c) Serena Williams (d) Chris Evert
28. Which of the following terms is not associated
with the game of cricket?
(a) China man (b) Hook
(c) Pull (d) Love
29. Who was the first Indian woman who won the
gold medal in Asian Games?
(a) PT Usha (b) Sunita Rani
(c) Shiny Abraham (d) Kamaljeet Sandhu
30. In which Indian state did the game of Polo
originates?
(a) Nagaland (b) Manipur
(c) Mizoram (d) Kerala
31. Which of the following trophies/cups associated
with the game of Hockey?
(a) Derby (b) Aga Khan Cup
(c) Merdeka (d) Vizzy Trophy
32. Famous Golf player Vijay Singh is from which
one of the following countries?
(a) Fiji (b) Mauritius
(c) Malaysia (d) Kenya
33. The Dronacharya Award is given to
(a) Coaches (b) Sportspersons
(c) Umpires (d) Sports Editors
34. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Cricket : Bogey
(b) Boxing : Bully
(c) Chess : Checkmate
(d) Tennis : Smas
35. Who was the first Indian to win an individual
medal in Olympics?
(a) PT Usha (b) Karnam Malleshwari
(c) Deepika Kumari (d) Sania Nehwal
36. Gautam Budha circuit is the venue for which
Grand Prix race?
(a) Malaysian Grand Prix
(b) Indian Grand Prix
(c) British Grand Prix
(d) Italian Grand Prix
37. Which one of the following Tennis tournaments
is the first to start the International Grand Slam in
the Tennis history?
(a) Australian Open (b) French Open
(c) Wimbledon Open (d) US Open
38. When did the Wimbledon Grand Slam Tennis
tournament start?
(a) 1857 (b) 1877
(c) 1897 (d) 1898
39. In which year, the Grand Master title of Chess
started?
(a) 1971 (b) 1972
(c) 1973 (d) 1974
40. Which one of the following countries had hosted
the first world Paralympic Games in 1960?
(a) Rome, Italy (b) Mumbai, India
(c) Madrid, Spain (d) Paris, France

41. Who founded the IOC to organise the Olympic
Games in 1894?
(a) J.H. Bacquerel (b) Baron de Coubertin
(c) Khalid Ali Ansari (d) None of the above
42. The sportsperson Soma Biswas is associated
with
(a) Sailing (b) Hockey
(c) Golf (d) Athletics
43. Which one of the following countries had hosted
the first winter Paralympic Games?
(a) Sweden (b) France
(c) Soviet Union (d) China
44. Which one of the following games is associated
with the Sultan Azlan Shah Cup?
(a) Hockey (b) Football
(c) Cricket (d) Tennis
45. Gagan Narang, whose name has been
recommended for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
Award is a famous
(a) Motor Car Racer (b) Cricketer
(c) Air Rifle Shooter (d) Footballer
46. The sportsperson Sunil Chhetri is associated with
(a) Football (b) Shooting
(c) Cricket (d) Hockey
47. What is the number of players in Polo and Water-
polo respectively?
(a) 2 and 5 (b) 7 and 9
(c) 4 and 7 (d) 6 and 5
48. Among the following which one is not a football
club?
(a) Arsenal (b) Aston villa
(c) Chelsea (d) Monte Carlo
49. Which of the following terms is used in the game
of Cricket?
(a) Love (b) Scoop
(c) LBW (d) Tee
50. Duleep Trophy is associated with the game of
(a) Hockey (b) Badminton
(c) Football (d) Cricket
51. Which game is associated with Queensberry
rules?
(a) Weight lifting (b) Boxing
(c) Golf (d) Polo
52. How many players are there in Kho-Kho?
(a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 8 (d) 7
General Awareness || F-27
53. What is the National Game of Russia?
(a) Chess (b) Hockey
(c) Table Tennis (d) Baseball
54. In which Olympic Games, Hockey was introduced
for the first time
(a) London, 1908 (b) Stockholm, 1912
(c) St. Louis, 1904 (d) Paris, 1900
55. The first World Cup Hockey was played in
(a) Amsterdom, 1972
(b) Barcelona, 1971
(c) Kualalumpur, 1975
(d) Mumbai, 1976
56. Dodge, Goal line, through pass are associated
with
(a) Volleyball (b) Cricket
(c) Table Tennis (d) Hockey
57. Blue Riband Cup is associated with
(a) Rugby Football (b) Netball
(c) Horse Racing (d) Chess
58. Hurlington stadium is associated with
(a) Polo (b) Cricket
(c) Boxing (d) Golf
59. Fianchetto is a strategy in the game of?
(a) Football (b) Cricket
(c) Hockey (d) Chess
60. Who among the following was the first
heavyweight boxer to go undefeated throughout
his career?
(a) Rocky Marciano (b) Lee Epperson
(c) Larry Holmes (d) Michael Spinks
61. Which county did Ravi Shastri play for?
(a) Glamorgan (b) Leicestershire
(c) Gloucestershire (d) Lancashire
62. Who was the first Indian to win the World
Amateur Billiards title?
(a) Geet Sethi (b) Wilson Jones
(c) Michael Ferreira (d) Manoj Kothari
63. India won its first Olympic hockey gold in...?
(a) 1928 (b) 1932
(c) 1936 (d) 1948
64. How long are professional Golf Tour players
allotted per shot?
(a) 25 seconds (b) 45 seconds
(c) 2 minutes (d) 1 minute
65. The number of medals won by Indian in the 2010
Commonwealth Games-
(a) 107 (b) 101
(c) 105 (d) 98
F-28 || Sports and Games
66. Which of the following trophies is NOT
associated with cricket?
(a) Charminar Challenge Cup
(b) Thomas Cup
(c) Rohinton Baria Trophy
(d) Duleep Trophy
67. Cannon, Cue and Pot are three terms associated
with:
(a) Billiards, Golf and Shooting
(b) Golf Only
(c) Both Billiards and Golf
(d) Billiards only
68. In which year did Milkha Singh win the first
National title in the 400 m race?
(a) 1955 (b) 1956
(c) 1957 (d) 1970
69. Who was the 1st ODI captain for India?
(a) Bishen Singh Bedi
(b) Ajit Wadekar
(c) Vinoo Mankad
(d) Nawab Pataudi
70. First Olympic Games were held in-
(a) 776 BC. (b) 798 BC.
(c) 876 BC. (d) 898 BC.
71. Marion Jones is a well-known
(a) Badminton players
(b) Tennis player
(c) Golfer
(d) Athlete
72. For which game is the Indira Gandhi Gold Cup
being awarded?
(a) Womens Hockey
(b) Womens Football
(c) Womens Cricket
(d) Womens Badminton
73. Which of the following football clubs announced
to open its first official football school in India?
(a) Barcelona (b) Leverpool
(c) AC Milan (d) Chelsea
74. Which football hero was nicknamed The
Sundance Kid?
(a) Jim Forrest Kiick (b) Troy Aikman
(c) Brett Favre (d) Joe Montana
75. How many gold medals have been won by India
in the Olympics by the Beijing Olympics 2008?
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 10
76. With which game is Bully associated?
(a) Cricket (b) Football
(c) Golf (d) Hockey
77. Indian Sports Research Institute is located at
(a) Patiala (b) Delhi
(c) Cochin (d) Poona
 General Awareness || F-29

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 10. (d) 19. (a) 28. (d) 37. (c) 46. (a) 55. (b) 64. (b) 73. (a)
2. (c) 11. (d) 20. (a) 29. (d) 38. (b) 47. (c) 56. (d) 65. (b) 74. (a)
3. (b) 12. (b) 21. (b) 30. (b) 39. (b) 48. (d) 57. (c) 66. (b) 75. (c)
4. (b) 13. (b) 22. (c) 31. (b) 40. (a) 49. (c) 58. (a) 67. (c) 76. (d)
5. (c) 14. (a) 23. (a) 32. (a) 41. (b) 50. (d) 59. (d) 68. (c) 77. (a)
6. (b) 15. (d) 24. (c) 33. (a) 42. (d) 51. (b) 60. (a) 69. (b)
7. (a) 16. (a) 25. (d) 34. (c) 43. (a) 52. (a) 61. (a) 70. (a)
8. (c) 17. (a) 26. (a) 35. (b) 44. (a) 53. (a) 62. (c) 71. (d)
9. (a) 18. (a) 27. (b) 36. (b) 45. (c) 54. (a) 63. (a) 72. (a)

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) The India national field hockey team had won
its first Gold in 1928 at Amsterdam, Nederlands in
which India defeated the Nederlands by 3-0. India
also won Gold in 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956,
1964, and 1980.
2. (c) The Olympic Museum is located in Lausanne,
Switzerland. The museum was founded on 23 June
1993, on the initiative of Juan Antonio Samaranch.
The Olympic Museum was opened again on 21
December 2013 after 23 months of renovation.
3. (b) In golf, a caddy or caddie is the person who
handles a golf players bag and clubs, and gives also
some insightful advice and moral support to him.
4. (b) The record for highest number of wickets in one
day cricket is held by Muttiah Muralitharan of Sri
Lanka, for taking total 534 wickets in 350 matches.
5. (c) The ICC Champions Trophy is a One Day
International (ODI) cricket tournament organised by
the International Cricket Council (ICC). It is second
in importance only to the Cricket World Cup.
6. (b) Ronaldo is a retired Brazilian footballer. He is
considered to be one of the great players of the world.
He is one of only three men to have won the FIFA
World Player of the Year award three times.
7. (a) India had won the cricket world cup 2011,
defeating Sri Lanka by 6 wickets in the final in
Wankhede Stadium Mumbai, thus becoming the first
country to win the Cricket World Cup final on home
soil.
9. (a) The four Grand Slam tournaments, also called
Majors, are the most important annual tennis events.
The Grand Slam itinerary consists of the Australian
Open in mid January, the French Open in May/June,
Wimbledon in June/July, and the US Open in August/
September.
10. (d) The first Youth Olympic Games (YOG), was
held in Singapore from 14 to 26 August 2010. The
age limit for the games is 14-18. The next Summer
Youth Olympics will be held in Nanjing in 2014.
11. (d) Subroto Cup Football Tournament is an inter-
school football tournament in India, named after the
Indian Air Force Air Marshal Subroto Mukerjee.
Subroto Cup is conducted by the Indian Air Force,
with support from Indias Ministry of Youth Affairs
& Sports.
12. (b) The Davis Cup is the premier international team
event in mens tennis. India finished as the Davis
Cups runners up 3 times (1966, 1974, 1987).
13. (b) Indias first major football international
tournament was in 1948 London Olympics, where
a predominately barefooted Indian team lost 21 to
France.
14. (a) India had played her first ODI in 1974 under
the captaincy of Ajit Wadekar.
F-30 || Sports and Games
15. (d) Deepika Kumari is an Indian athlete who
competes in the events of Archery. She has also won
Gold in 2010 Commonwealth games. She has also
became an Arjuna Award winner in 2012.
16. (a) Wankhede stadium is in Mumbai. It is in this
stadium that India had won the World cup cricket in
2011 against Sri Lanka.
17. (a) A Gambit is a term associated with the game of
Chess. Gambit is a chess opening in which a player
sacrifices material, usually a pawn, with the hope of
achieving a resulting advantageous position.
18. (a) The term ashes is associated with cricket.
19. (a) National Sports Day is celebrated on 29th August
in the memory of the great hockey player Major
Dhyan Chand.
21. (b) The average length of the football field is
100 110m (110 120 yards) with width is in the
range of 64 to 75 m (7080 yd).
22. (c) A bogey is a score of 1-over par on any
individual hole on a golf course. Golf holes are
typically rated as par 3, par 4 or par 5.
23. (a) The 2007 ICC World Twenty20 was the
inaugural Twenty20 cricket world championship.
Pakistan was defeated by India in the finals.
24. (c) FINA or Fdration Internationale de Natation
or International Swimming Federation is the
International Federation (IF) recognized by the
International Olympic Committee (IOC) for
administering international competition in Aquatics.
25. (d) Ranji Trophy is associated with cricket and
not football. The Ranji Trophy is a domestic first-
class cricket championship played in India. The
competition is named after England and Sussex
cricketer Kumar Shri Ranjitsinhji.
26. (a) Shane Warne is a former Australian cricketer
who is considered to be one of the great bowlers of
the world.
27. (b) Martina Navratilova is a retired Czech American
tennis player and coach. She is the greatest singles,
doubles and mixed doubles player. She reached the
Wimbledon singles final 12 times, including nine
consecutive years from 1982 through 1990, and won
the womens singles title at Wimbledon a record nine
times.
28. (d) China man is a left-arm unorthodox spin
bowling in cricket, Hook and Pull are two specific
styles of batting.
29. (d) Kamaljeet Sandhu is a former woman Indian
athlete who won gold medal at 1970 Asian Games
in 400 m race. She was the first woman to win Gold
in any Asian games.
30. (b) The modern game of polo, though was
formalised and popularised by the British, is actually
derived from Manipur, India, where the game was
known as Sagol Kangjei, Kanjai-bazee, or Pulu.
32. (a) Vijay Singh, nicknamed The Big Fijian, is a
Fijian professional golfer who was also Number 1
in the Official World Golf Ranking for 32 weeks in
2004 and 2005.
33. (a) The Dronacharya award is presented by Indian
Government to people showing excellence in sports
coaching. B.I. Fernandez is the first foreign Coach
who was awarded by Dronacharya Award in 2012.
34. (c) Bogey is associated with Golf, Bully is used in
hockey, Smas is a vague term. The only correct match
here is Chess: Checkmate.
35. (b) Karnam Malleshwari is an Indian weightlifter.
She is the first Indian to win an individual medal in
Olympics.
36. (b) The Buddh International Circuit is an Indian
motor racing circuit in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh.
The circuit is best known as the venue for the annual
Formula One Indian Grand Prix, which was first
hosted on 30 October 2011.
37. (c) Wimbledon Championship is the oldest and the
most prestigious tennis tournament in the world. The
name of the tournament is derived from Wimbledon, a
suburb of London, where it has been held since 1877.
40. (a) The 1960 Summer Paralympics, originally
known as the 9th Annual International Stoke
Mandeville Games were the first international Para
Olympic Games held in Rome, Italy from September
18 to 25, 1960.
41. (b) The International Olympic Committee (IOC) is
a Swiss non-profit, non-governmental organisation
based in Lausanne, Switzerland, created by Pierre,
Baron de Coubertin, on 23 June 1894 with Demetrios
Vikelas as its first president.

42. (d) Soma Biswas is an athlete who specializes in
heptathlon. She has won the silver medal in 2002
Asian Games in Busan, South Korea.
43. (a) The winter Olympics were first held in 1976 in
rnskldsvik Sweden.
44. (a) The Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is an annual
international mens field hockey tournament held in
Malaysia.
45. (c) Gagan Narang is an Air Rifle Shooter. He was
the first Indian to qualify for the London Olympics.
He won the Bronze Medal in the Mens 10 m Air Rifle
Event at the 2012 Summer Olympics in London with
a final score of 701.1 on 30 July 2012.
46. (a) Sunil Chhetri is an Indian professional footballer
who plays as a striker for Bengaluru FC in the
I-League.
48. (d) Arsenal Football Club is an English Premier
League football club based in Holloway, London.
Chelsea Football Club is an English football club
based in Fulham, London. Aston Villa Football Club
is an English professional association football club
based in Witton, Birmingham. Monte Carlo is not
any football club.
49. (c) LBW or Leg Before Wicket is a term used in
cricket to denote a criterion for a wicket to become
out.
50. (d) The Duleep Trophy is a domestic first-class
cricket competition played in India between teams
representing geographical zones of India. The
competition is named after Kumar Shri Duleepsinhji.
51. (b) The Marquess of Queensberry rules is a code
of generally accepted rules in the sport of boxing.
54. (a) Hockey (as field hockey) was introduced in
Olympics for the first time in Summer Olympics
London in 1908.
55. (b) The first world cup Hockey was played in
Barcelona in 1971 whose final winner was Pakistan.
56. (d) Dodge, Goal line, through pass, are some terms
associated with the game of Hockey.
General Awareness || F-31
59. (d) In chess the fianchetto is a pattern of
development wherein a bishop is developed to the
second rank of the adjacent knight file, the knight
pawn having been moved one or two squares
forward.
62. (c) Michael Ferreira nicknamed the Bombay
Tiger, is notable amateur player of English
billiards from India, and a three-time Amateur
World Champion. In 1977, he won his first World
Amateur Billiards Champion title and followed it up
with the World Open Billiards Champion title in the
same year.
65. (b) The Commonwealth Games is an international,
multi-sport event involving athletes from the
Commonwealth of Nations. In 2010 the event held
in Delhi, India. India won total 101 medals in it.
66. (b) Charminar Challenge Cup, Rohinton Baria
Trophy and Duleep Trophy are associated with
cricket while the Thomas Cup is associated with
badminton.
69. (b) Ajit Wadekar has played only 2 ODI matches.
70. (a) The Olympic Games were a series of athletic
competitions among representatives of city-states
and one of the Panhellenic Games of Ancient
Greece. They were held in honor of Zeus, and the
Greeks gave them a mythological origin. The first
Olympics is traditionally dated to 776 BC.
72. (a) Indira Gandhi gold cup is associated with
hockey while Indira Gandhi cup is associated with
Boxing.
73. (a) Football Club Barcelona, also known as
Barcelona and familiarly as Bara,is a professional
football club, based in Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain.
75. (c) In the 2008 Games in Beijing, Abhinav Bindra
became the first Indian to win gold in an individual
event when he won the mens 10 meter air rifle
competition. This was Indias 9th gold medal in
Olympic competition.India has won eight gold
medals in field hockey (1928, 1932, 1936, 1948,
1952, 1956, 1964 and 1980).
77. (a) Founded in 1961, Netaji Subhas National
Institute of Sports commonly known as National
Institute of Sports (NIS), is the Academic Wing
of the Sports Authority of India (SAI) and Asias
largest Sports Institute located in city of Patiala.
 5 Miscellaneous
1. In which one of the following films did the Nobel
Laureate Pearl S Buck collaborate?
(a) Shatranj Ke Khiladi
(b) Guide
(c) Lawrence of Arabia (c) National Stock Exchange(NSE)
(d) Titanic
2. Larry page and Sergey Brin are well known as
(a) Creators of Bluetooth device
(b) Founders of Google
(c) Stem cell researchers
(d) Scientists
3. Professor Mohd. Yunus is renowned in the area
(a) Economics (b) Human Rights
(c) Freedom of Press (d) Microcredit Concept
4. The name of Pierre Cardin is associated with
(a) Painting (b) Films
(c) Pop Music (d) Fashion Designing
5. Oprah Winfrey is a famous __________
(a) Prime Minister 13. With which of the following Keplers Laws are
(b) Television Presenter (USA)
(c) Artist
(d) Sports Woman
6. Morgan Freeman earned distinction in the field
(a) Vocal music (b) Instrumental music
(c) Acting (d) Classical dance
7. Mario Miranda is well known as
(a) Editor (b) Story Writer
(c) Cartoonist (d) Politician
8. Army wine house is associated with
(a) Sports (b) Politics
(c) Pop Music (d) Social Service
9. Nifty is the main share index of which stock
exchange?
(a) Calcutta Stock Exchange(CSE)
(b) Bombay Stock Exchange(BSE)
(d) NASDAQ
10. Line connecting the points on a map that have the
same temperature is called?
(a) Isobar (b) Isotherm
(c) Isohyet (d) Isohels
11. Which scale is used to measure hardness of
minerals?
(a) Kelvin
(b) Mohs
(c) Richter
(d) Mercalli intensity scale
12. Rearing of silkworms for the production of raw
silk is called?
(a) Horticulture (b) Sericulture
(c) Viticulture (d) Apiculture
related to _______?
(a) Motion of Milkyway
(b) Motion of planets around sun
(c) Rotation of Earth on Its own axis
(d) Motion of Moon around earth
14. What is the second largest desert in the world
after the Sahara desert?
(a) Arabian Desert (b) Gobi Desert
(c) Kalahari Desert (d) Libyan Desert
15. Which schedule of Indian constitution contains
languages?
(a) 6th (b) 7th
(c) 8th (d) 9th

16. What is the use of Venturimeter?
(a) To measure subdivisions of scale
(b) To measure wavelength of radio wave
(c) To measure friction
(d) To measure rate of flow of fluids
17. Where is located the Centre for Wind Energy
Technology (C-WET)?
(a) Hyderabad (b) Chennai
(c) Kochi (d) Kolkata
18. In which year the Damodar Valley Corporation
which is first multipurpose river valley project of
India was launched?
(a) 1948 (b) 1951
(c) 1953 (d) 1956
19. Where is the Mauna Kea a dormant volcano
located?
(a) Sumatra Island (b) Hawaii Island
(c) Galapagas Island (d) Cape Verde
20. Which is the worlds youngest nation?
(a) Georgia (b) South Sudan
(c) Mecadonia (d) Vosovo
21. Which one of the following is called the
Crossroads of Pacific?
(a) Hawaii (b) Ellice
(c) Tonga (d) Fiji
22. The headquarter of International Court of Justice
is at
(a) Hague (b) New York
(c) Geneva (d) Paris
23. WTO came into existence in the year
(a) 1977 (b) 1985
(c) 1995 (d) 1950
24. The first summit of SAARC was held at
(a) Kathmandu (b) Colombo
(c) New Delhi (d) Dhaka
25. Where was the first Non-Aligned Summit (NAM)
Meet held?
(a) New Delhi (b) Cairo
(c) Belgrade (d) Havana
26. IMF began operations in the years of
(a) 1945 (b) 1946
(c) 1951 (d) 1963
27. The economic and social commission for Asia
and Pacific (ESCAP) is located at
(a) Manila (b) Singapore
(c) Kualalumpur (d) Bangkok
General Awareness || F-33
28. The working languages of the UNESCO is/are
(a) French only
(b) English only
(c) English and French
(d) English, French and Russian
29. The headquarter of Amnesty International is at
(a) Berlin (b) New York
(c) Washington (d) London
30. Which of the following countries is not the
member of the Mercosur organisation?
(a) Paraguay (b) Brazil
(c) Venezuela (d) Mexico
31. When is the World Population Day observed?
(a) July 8 (b) July 10
(c) July 11 (d) July 19
32. International Literacy Day was proclaimed by
(a) WHO (b) Virginia Literacy
(c) UNESCO (d) UNIDO
33. World Disability Day is observed annually on
(a) 10th Dec. (b) 3rd Dec.
th
(c) 29 Nov. (d) 15th Dec.
34. World Cancer Day is observed on
(a) 19th February (b) 4th February
th
(c) 12 February (d) 17th January
35. World Environment Day run by the UNEP on
(a) 11th Dec. (b) 20th Dec.
(c) 15th Sept. (d) 5th June
36. International Human Rights Day is observed on
(a) 10th Dec. (b) 24th Oct.
th
(c) 25 Nov. (d) None of these
37. In which of the following places, pygmies are
found?
(a) Nile Basin (b) Congo Basin
(c) Niger Basin (d) Limpopo Basin
38. The tribesmen Eskimo are found
(a) Finland (b) Canada
(c) Florida (d) Sweden
39. The tribesmen Khirgir are found
(a) Europe (b) Central Asia
(c) Middle-east Asia (d) Tanzania
40. Maori tribes are found in
(a) Australia (b) Japan
(c) New Zealand (d) Malaysia
F-34 || Miscellaneous
41. The parliament of Russia is known as
(a) Federal Assembly of Russia (a) Sachchida Nand Sinha
(b) Shora
(c) National Assembly (c) G..V. Mavalankar
(d) Folketing
42. The parliament of Japan is known as
(a) Knesset (b) The National Diet
(c) Shora (d) Federal Assembly
43. Knesset is the parliament of
(a) Israel (b) Iran
(c) Turkey (d) Sudan
44. Shora is the parliament of
(a) Afghanistan (b) Tajikastan
(c) Uzbekistan (d) Malaysia
45. Majilis is the parliament of
(a) Iran (b) Bhutan
(c) Canada (d) Turkey
46. MOSSAD is the intelligence agency of
(a) Egypt (b) Israel
(c) USA (d) Japan
47. K.G.B. / G.R.U. is the intelligence agency of
(a) China (b) Russia
(c) Australia (d) South Africa
48. The newspaper Daily Mirror is published at
(a) London (b) Paris
(c) Moscow (d) Dubai
49. The newspaper Dawn published at
(a) Dhaka (b) Karachi
(c) Dubai (d) Rome
50. The Khaleej Times is published at
(a) Dubai (b) Dhaka
(c) Cairo (d) Colombo
51. Which was the first atomic submarine of India?
(a) INS Chakra (b) INS Vikrant
(c) INS Dhanush (d) INS Viraat
52. Indias first minister to resign from Union
Cabinet.
(a) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
(b) Sukumar Sen
(c) Hasrat Mohani
(d) Narimha Rao
53. First Indian to go into space
(a) Mohan Sharma th
(b) Rakesh Chaudhary
(c) Sqn. Ldr. Rakesh Sharma (a) 20th May (b) 21st May
(d) Suresh Sharma
54. The first speaker of Lok Sabha?
(b) Satyendra Kumar
(d) G. Shankar Kurup
55. Indias first Open University was :
(a) Kolkata Open-University
(b) Andhra Pradesh Open-University
(c) Bombay Open-University
(d) Karnataka Open-University
56. The first Chief Justice of India was
(a) Justice Manohar lal
(b) Justice Hiralal J. Kania
(c) Justice Mohan Das
(d) Justice Sukumar Sen
57. The first test tube baby of India was
(a) Durga (b) Radha
(c) Kamla (d) Manorama
58. Indias first woman Governor was
(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Sucheta Kripalani
(c) Fatima Bibi (d) Kiran Bedi
59. The first woman Chief Minister of a state was
(a) Santosh Yadav (b) Ashapurna Devi
(c) Durga Banerjee (d) Sucheta Kriplani
60. Who was the first Indian President who died in
office?
(a) Dr. Zakir Hussain (b) M. Hidayatullah
(c) Abul Kalam Azad (d) Morarji Desai
61. The largest animal fair organised in
(a) Sonepur (b) Agra
(c) Pushkar (d) Gwalior
62. The largest lake of India is
(a) Sambhar lake (b) Wular lake
(c) Didwana lake (d) Fulhar lake
63. The highest mountain peak of India is
(a) Godwin Austen (K-2)
(b) Everest
(c) Kanchanjunga
(d) Nanda
64. The National Youth Day is celebrated on
(a) 12th Jan. (b) 13th Jan.
(c) 14 Jan. (d) 15th Jan.
65. The Anti-terrorism Day is observed on
nd
(c) 22 May (d) 23rd May

66. The National Sports Day is observed on
(a) 28th Aug. (b) 29th Aug.
th
(c) 30 Aug. (d) 31st Aug.
67. Indian Airforce Day celebrated on
(a) 8th Oct. (b) 9th Oct.
th
(c) 10 Oct. (d) 11th Oct.
68. Whose birthday is celebrated as Kisan Divas?
(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(b) Ch. Devilal
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Jagjivan Ram
69. Where is the National Academy of Agricultural
Research Management located?
(a) Dehradun (b) Hyderabad
(c) New Delhi (d) Itanagar
70. The National Chemical Laboratory of India is
located in
(a) Mumbai (b) Bengaluru
(c) Hyderabad (d) Pune
71. Rock theme park is located in
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
72. Wind Energy is produced in
(a) Kayathar (b) Tirunelveli
(c) Kodaikanal (d) Pollachi
73. The longest dam in India is
(a) Bhakra dam (b) Hirakund dam
(c) Kosi dam (d) Nagarjuna sagar
74. The highest dam of India is
(a) Mettur (b) Rihand
(c) Tehri (d) Bhakra
75. The first fertilizer plant in India was established
in
(a) Trombay (b) Nangal
(c) Alwaye (d) Sindri
76. Mudumalai sanctuary is famous for
(a) tigers (b) bisons
(c) elephants (d) birds
77. When national girl child day of India is observed?
(a) 25th Jan. (b) 24th Jan.
th
(c) 24 Oct. (d) 14th Nov.
General Awareness || F-35
78. When is International Right To Know day
observed?
(a) 25th Jan. (b) 18th Dec.
(c) 24 Oct. th (d) 28th Sept.
79. Who declared that his ultimate aim was to wipe
every tear from every eyes?
(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Sardar Patel
(c) J. L. Nehru (d) Mahatma Gandhi
80. Which of the following is an indigenously built
light combat aircraft of India?
(a) Akash (b) Vikrant
(c) Tejas (d) Arjun
81. Which of the following is the first ever pollution-
control warship?
(a) Sagar Manthan (b) Sagar Rattan
(c) Sagar Prahari (d) Samudra Prahari
82. Which of the following paramilitary forces was
the first force to raise an all-woman battalion in
India?
(a) ITBP (b) BSF
(c) CRPF (d) CISF
83. The first satellite launched by India was called
(a) Aryabhata (b) Bhaskara-I
(c) Bhaskara-II (d) Rohini
84. Index Residex is associated with
(a) share prices
(b) mutual fund prices
(c) price inflation index
(d) land prices
85. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is at
(a) Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Mumbai
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Bengaluru
86. Manikaran Power Plant is in?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
87. First Internal Affairs Minister of independent
India?
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) V. Krishna Menon
(d) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
F-36 || Miscellaneous
88. The persons who became the Chief Minister for
the longest period in India?
(a) E.K. Nayanar (b) Jyothi Basu
(c) Vasantha Sate (d) K. Karunakaran
89. The largest freshwater lake in India is?
(a) Wular Lake (b) Dal Lake
(c) Powai Lake (d) Chilka Lake
90. JEEVIKA, is the Rural Livelihoods project of
which of the following State Governments?
(a) Bihar (b) West Bengal
(c) Punjab (d) Uttar Pradesh
91. Which of the following is not a missile developed
by the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO)?
(a) Agni (b) Pinaka
(c) Shaurya (d) Brahmos
92. Which colour is in the centre of Rainbow?
(a) Green (b) Red
(c) Blue (d) Yellow
93. What is the direction of rotation of Earth on its
axis?
(a) North to South (b) South to North
(c) East to West (d) West to East
94. In Computer, One Byte memory is equal to how
many Bits?
(a) 7 (b) 9
(c) 8 (d) 10
95. Who is the first indian woman to win Olympic
medal?
(a) Kunjarani Devi
(b) Mary Kom
(c) Karnam Malleshwari
(d) Tania Sachdev
96. Which canal connects Mediterranean Sea with
Red Sea?
(a) Suez Canal (b) Panama Canal
(c) Erie Canal (d) Indira Gandhi Canal
97. Name of first indigenously developed Super
Computer of India is?
(a) Param (b) Aryabhatt
(c) Apsara (d) Tejas
98. River Narmada flows into which water body?
(a) Bay of Bengal (b) Red Sea
(c) Arabian Sea (d) Indian Ocean
99. Who was the first Indian woman to scale the
Mount Everest?
(a) Santosh Yadav (b) Bachendri Pal
(c) Mary Kom (d) Jwalla Gutta
100. Which of the following is the principal ore of
Mercury?
(a) Bauxite (b) Cinnabar
(c) Hematite (d) Galena
101. Indian Standard Time (IST) is ahead of Greenwich
Mean Time (GMT) by how many hours?
(a) 4:30 hours (b) 5:00 hours
(c) 5:30 hours (d) 6:00 hours
 General Awareness || F-37

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 12. (b) 23. (c) 34. (b) 45. (a) 56. (b) 67. (a) 78. (d) 89. (a) 100. (b)
2. (b) 13. (b) 24. (d) 35. (d) 46. (b) 57. (a) 68. (a) 79. (c) 90. (a) 101. (c)
3. (d) 14. (a) 25. (b) 36. (a) 47. (b) 58. (a) 69. (b) 80. (c) 91. (b)
4. (d) 15. (c) 26. (b) 37. (b) 48. (a) 59. (b) 70. (d) 81. (d) 92. (a)
5. (b) 16. (d) 27. (d) 38. (b) 49. (b) 60. (a) 71. (a) 82. (a) 93. (d)
6. (c) 17. (b) 28. (d) 39. (b) 50. (a) 61. (a) 72. (a) 83. (a) 94. (c)
7. (c) 18. (a) 29. (d) 40. (c) 51. (a) 62. (b) 73. (b) 84. (d) 95. (c)
8. (c) 19. (b) 30. (d) 41. (a) 52. (a) 63. (a) 74. (c) 85. (a) 96. (a)
9. (c) 20. (b) 31. (c) 42. (b) 53. (c) 64. (a) 75. (c) 86. (b) 97. (a)
10. (b) 21. (d) 32. (c) 43. (a) 54. (c) 65. (b) 76. (c) 87. (d) 98. (c)
11. (b) 22. (a) 33. (b) 44. (a) 55. (b) 66. (b) 77. (b) 88. (b) 99. (b)

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) In the English adaptation of the film Guide,
Pearl S Buck had been collaborated for the script.
2. (b) Larry Page and Sergey Brin are the two
co-founders of Google which was found in 1989.
3. (d) Professor Mohd. Yunus is the founder of the
Grameen Bank and the pioneer of the micro-credit
and micro-finance systems. For his work in this field
he was awarded the Noble Peace prize in 2006.
4. (d) Pierre Cardin is an Italian born French fashion
designer.
5. (b) Oprah Winfrey is a famous TV host of her multi-
award-winning talk show The Oprah Winfrey Show.
6. (c) Morgan Freeman is the famous actor, director
and narrator. He has won many awards including
Golden Globe Award and a Screen Actors Guild
Award.
7. (c) Mario de Miranda was the famous Indian
cartoonist. He was also given the Padma Vibhushan
by Government of India.
8. (c) Singer-songwriter known for her deep
contralto vocals and her eclectic mix of musical
genres, including rhythm and blues, soul, jazz and
reggae.
9. (c) The Nifty is National Stock Exchange of
Indias benchmark stock market index for Indian
equity market. Nifty is owned and managed by
India Index Services and Products (IISL), which
is a wholly owned subsidiary of the NSE Strategic
Investment Corporation Limited.
11. (b) The Mohs scale of mineral hardness is a
qualitative ordinal scale which characterizes the
scratch resistance of various minerals through
the ability of a harder material to scratch a softer
material.
13. (b) Keplers laws of planetary motion are three
scientific laws describing the motion of planets
around the Sun - The orbit of a planet is an ellipse
with the Sun at one of the two foci, a line segment
joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas
during equal intervals of time and the square of the
orbital period of a planet is proportional to the cube
of the semi-major axis of its orbit.
14. (a) Spread out over 900,000 square miles, the
Middle East region is just one - fourth the size of
the Sahara.
15. (c) 8th schedule of Indian constitution contains 22
languages.
18. (a) Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) is public
company which operates several power stations
in the Damodar River area of West Bengal, India.
The company operates both thermal power station
and hydel power dams under the Indian Ministry of
Power.
F-38 || Miscellaneous
19. (b) Mauna Kea is a dormant volcano on the island
of Hawaii. Standing 13,803 ft (4,207 m) above sea
level, its peak is the highest point in the U.S. state of
Hawaii.
20. (b) South Sudan is the new youngest country. It
is a landlocked country in northeastern Africa. Its
current capital is Juba, which is also its largest city.
21. (d) Fiji is called the crossroads to Pacific. It is the
main harbor for both ships and planes coming from
the west to the east of the Pacific.
22. (a) The International Court of Justice is the
primary judicial branch of the United Nations. It
was established in 1945. ICJ has its headquarters at
The Hague, Netherlands.
23. (c) The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an
organization that intends to supervise and liberalize
international trade. It is headquatered in Centre
William Rappard. The organization officially
commenced on 1 January 1995.
24. (d) The first South Asian Association for Regional
Cooperation (SAARC) summit was held in Dhaka,
Bangladesh on 78 December 1985 and was
attended by the Government representative and
president of Bangladesh, Maldives, Pakistan and
Sri Lanka, the kings of Bhutan and Nepal, and the
prime minister of India.
25. (b) The Non-aligned Movement is a Movement
of 115 members representing the interests and
priorities of developing countries. First NAM
Summit Conference was held in Cairo, from 5-12
June 1961 where the invitations for Bandung were
on a regional basis.
26. (b) The International Monetary Fund was
established on December 27, 1945. The IMF began
operations in Washington, D.C. in May 1946.
27. (d) The Economic and Social Commission for
Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP or ESCAP), is
one of the five regional commissions of the United
Nations Economic and Social Council. It is located
in Bangkok, Thailand.
28. (d) The six official languages of UNESCO are
Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and
Spanish.
29. (d) Amensty International is an non-governmental
organisation which was awarded the 1977 Nobel
Peace Prize for its campaign against torture, and
the United Nations Prize in the Field of Human
Rights in 1978. Its headquarter is located in Global
International Secrateriat in London.
30. (d) Mercosur or Mercosul is an economic and
political agreement among Argentina, Brazil,
Paraguay, Uruguay, and Venezuela. With Bolivia
becoming an acceding member on 7 December
2012 to be ratified by member state legislatures.
31. (c) World Population Day is observed on July
11 every year, which seeks to raise awareness of
global population issues. The event was established
by the Governing Council of the United Nations
Development Programme in 1989.
32. (c) September 8 was proclaimed International
Literacy Day by UNESCO on November 17, 1965.
It was first celebrated in 1966.
33. (b) World Disability Day or International Day
of People with Disability is an international
observance promoted by the United Nations since
1992. It is celebrated every year on December 3
to raise awareness about understanding various
disabilities and to promote and mobilize support for
dignity, equal rights and well being of all.
34. (b) World Cancer Day was founded by the Union
for International Cancer Control (UICC) to support
the goals of the World Cancer Declaration, written in
2008. It is marked on February 4 to raise awareness
of cancer and to encourage its prevention, detection,
and treatment.
35. (d) World Environment Day by the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP) is celebrated
every year on 5 June to raise global awareness of
the need to take positive environmental action.
36. (a) The UN General Assembly had proclaimed 10
December as Human Rights Day in 1950.
37. (b) Pygmy, in anthropology, member of any
human group whose adult males grow to less than
59 inches (150 cm) in average height. The famous
Pygmy groups of the Ituri Forest live in Congo.
38. (b) Eskimo are the indigenous peoples who have
traditionally inhabited the northern circumpolar
region from eastern Siberia (Russia), across Alaska
(United States), Canada, and Greenland.
39. (b) Tribesmen Khirgir live in Central Asia.
41. (a) The name of the parliament of Russian
Federation is the Federal Assembly of Russia. The
term for its lower house is Duma, which is better
known than the Federal Assembly itself, and is often
mistaken for the entirety of the parliament.

42. (b) The National Diet is Japans bicameral
legislature. It is composed of a lower house that is
called the House of Representatives, and an upper
house, called the House of Councillors.
43. (a) The Knesset is the unicameral national
legislature of Israel. As the legislative branch of
the Israeli government, the Knesset passes all laws,
elects the president and prime minister.
46. (b) The Mossad or also known as Institute for
Intelligence and Special Operations is the national
intelligence agency of Israel. It is one of the main
entities in the Israeli Intelligence Community, along
with Aman (military intelligence) and Shin Bet
(internal security).
47. (b) KGB, an initialism for Komitet
gosudarstvennoy bezopasnosti was the main
security agency for the Soviet Union from 1954
until its collapse in 1991. GRU or Glavnoye
Razvedyvatelnoye Upravleniye is the foreign
military intelligence main directorate of the General
Staff of the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation.
48. (a) The Daily Mirror is a British national daily
tabloid newspaper which was founded in 1903. It
was founded by Alfred Harmsworth.
49. (b) Dawn is Pakistans oldest and most widely
read English-language newspaper. It was founded
by Quaid-i-Azam Mohammad Ali Jinnah in Delhi,
India on 26 October 1941. The newspaper has
offices in Karachi (Sindh), Lahore (Punjab), and the
federal capital Islamabad, as well as representatives
abroad.
50. (a) The Khaleej Times is a daily English language
newspaper published in Dubai, United Arab
Emirates. The daily is published in Sharjah. The
Galadari Brothers began publishing the daily on 16
April 1978 making it the first English daily in the
UAE.
52. (a) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was the first
minister to resign from the Central Union Cabinet.
On 8th April, 1950, he resigned from the Central
Cabinet as a protest against the Nehru- Liaquat Ali
Pact.
53. (c) Sqn Ldr Rakesh Sharma was a test pilot in the
IAF. In 1984 he became the first citizen of India to
go into space when he flew aboard the Soviet rocket
Soyuz T-11.
54. (c) The First Lok Sabha was constituted on 15
April 1952 after India's first general election. The
General Awareness || F-39
first Lok Sabha Speaker was Ganesh Vasudev
Mavlankar who remained in his tenure from 8 May
1952 to 27 February 1956.
55. (b) The B. R. Ambedkar University, initially
known as Andhra Pradesh Open University, came
into being on 26th August 1982, was Indias first
Open University.
56. (b) The first Chief Justice of India was Hiralal
J. Kania who served from 26 January 1950 to
November 1951.
57. (a) The name of the first test-tube baby (1978) of
India was Durga.
58. (a) Sarojini Naidu was the first woman Governor
of India who served from 15th August 1947 to 2
March 1949.
59. (b) The first woman Chief minister of the Indian
state of free India was Sucheta Krilplani of Indian
National Congress who termed her tenure from 2
October 1963 13 March 1967.
60. (a) Dr. Zakir Hussain was the third president of
India and he was the first President to have died in
the office while working in his office.
61. (a) Sonepur in Bihar hosts one of the world's
largest Animal Fair which starts on Kartik Poornima,
an Indian Festival.
62. (b) Wular Lake in the state of Jammu and Kashmir
is one of the largest fresh water lakes in Asia.
63. (a) K2 or Godwin-Austen (8,611 metres (28,251
ft)) is the second largest peak to Everest.
64. (a) National Youth Day is celebrated on 12
January on the birthday of Swami Vivekananda in
India. In 1984 the Government of India declared the
day as the National Youth Day and since 1985 the
event is celebrated in India every year.
65. (b) The Anti-terrorist Day is celebrated on
21st May. It was on this day in 1991 that former
Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi fell to the designs of
terrorists.
66. (b) National Sports Day in India is celebrated
on the August 29. This day marks the birthday of
Dhyan Chand, the hockey player who won gold
medals for India in year 1928, 1932 and 1936.
67. (a) Indian Air Force was formally established on
8th October 1932, which is marked as the Indian Air
Force Day.
68. (a) 23rd January is celebrated as Kisan Divas
every year to mark the birthday of Chaudhary
Charan Singh.
F-40 || Miscellaneous
69. (b) The National Academy of Agricultural
Research Management was established by the Indian
Council of Agricultural Research at Hyderabad, in
1976.
70. (d) National Chemical Laboratory is an Indian
Government laboratory is located in Pune.
71. (a) The Rock Theme Park is located in Kerala,
India.
72. (a) India ranks 5th in the Wind Energy production
in the world. In Kayathar, Tamil Nadu, wind energy
is produced in much quantity.
73. (b) Hirakud dam in Sambalpur on the river
Mahanadi is around 25.8 km in length, is the major
eastern longest dam in Asia.
74. (c) Tehri dam is the highest dam in India is on
Bhagirathi river in Tehri, Uttarakhand.
75. (c) The first fertilizers plant was established in
Sindri which is an industrial township within the
Dhanbad municipal limits of the Dhanbad District
of Jharkhand state.
76. (c) Mudumalai sanctuary is in Tamil Nadu, India.
It is famous for elephants.
77. (b) National girl child day is celebrated every year
on 24th of January as a national observance day for
the girl child. This celebration was started to offer
more supports and new opportunities to the girls in
the country.
78. (d) The International Right to Know Day is
celebrated on 28 September, 2002. This day was
proposed on 28 September, 2002 at a meeting of
Freedom of information organisations from around
the world in Sofia, Bulgaria.
80. (c) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL): Tejas
is Indias indigenously built light combat aircraft.
It has come from Light Combat Aircraft (LCA)
programme.
81. (d) Samudra Prahari, the first-ever pollution
control warship, had been commissioned on 9
October 2010. The warship is the first in Asia
and third in the world that has the sophisticated
equipment to control oil spillage and pollution.
82. (a) Indo-Tibetan Border Police is the first to form
an all women commandos battalion in India.
83. (a) The first satellite launched by India was
Aryabhata, on 19th April, 1975.
84. (d) National Housing Bank had launched
RESIDEX in July, 2007, which is a price indices
for residential properties.
85. (a) The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is
a major space research centre of the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO), which focuses
on rocket and space vehicles for India's satellite
programme. It is located in Thiruvananthapuram,
Kerala.
86. (b) Manikaran is located in the Parvati Valley
between the rivers Beas and Parvati, northeast of
Bhuntar in the Kullu District of Himachal Pradesh.
89. (a) Wular Lake is one of the largest fresh water
lakes in Asia. It is in Bandipora district in the state
of Jammu and Kashmir.
90. (a) Bihar Rural Livelihoods Promotion Society
(BRLPS) is implementing JEEVIKA - Bihar Rural
Livelihoods Project with the objective of enhancing
the social and economic empowerment of the rural
poor in Bihar.
91. (b) Pinaka is not a not a missile. It is a multiple
rocket launcher produced in India and developed
by the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Army.
92. (a) The order of colors in a rainbow is - R=red,
O=orange, Y=yellow, G=green, B=blue, I = indigo,
and V=violet. It can be remembered as ROY G.
BIV.
93. (d) The Earth rotates from the west towards the
east. As viewed from the North Star or polestar
Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise.
95. (c) Karnam Malleshwariwon a bronze medal in
the 2000 Summer Olympics at Sydney lifting for of
240 kgand became the first Indian woman to win an
Olympic medal.
96. (a) The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level
waterway in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean
Sea and the Red Sea.
97. (a) PARAM is a series of supercomputers designed
and assembled by the Centre for Development of
Advanced Computing (C-DAC) in Pune, India. The
latest machine in the series is the PARAM Yuva II.
99. (b) Bachendri Pal is an Indian mountaineer, who
in 1984 became the first Indian woman to reach the
summit of Mount Everest.
100. (b) Cinnabar is the common ore of mercury.
Generally it occurs as a vein-filling mineral associated
with recent volcanic activity and alkaline hot springs.
101. (c) India Standard Time (IST) is 5:30 hours (5
hours 30 minutes) ahead of Greenwich Mean Time
(GMT). IST is calculated on the basis of 82.5 E
longitude, in Shankargarh Fort (25.15N 82.58E)
in Allahabad district in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
 Section G : Current affairs
1 National
1. M Sathiyavathy has become first woman to be
appointed as Director General of
(a) Shipping (b) Hydrocarbons
(c) Foreign Trade (d) Civil Aviation
2. Green PHABLET, a customised low-cost
combination of phone and tablet computer, has
been launched with the aim to empower
(a) Women (b) Students
(c) Farmers (d) Hilly Areas
3. Which among the following has become first
state to ban selling of loose cigarettes?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala
(c) Punjab (d) Gujarat
4. What is the theme for 19th National Youth
Festival which began in Assam?
(a) Youth for Clean and Green India
(b) Youth for Clean and Developed India
(c) Youth for Clean, Green and Developed
India
(d) Youth for Clean, Green and Progressive
India
5. Who has been appointed as the new Chief
Election Commissioner (CEC) of India?
(a) Harishankar Brahma
(b) S C Sinha
(c) Sekhar Basu
(d) Sindhushree Khullar
6. Bhakti Sharma has recently set a new world
record by swimming 1.4 miles in 52 minutes in
which of the following seas/oceans?
(a) Arctic Ocean (b) Antarctic Ocean
(c) Aral Sea (d) Caspian Sea
7. Which among the following states has recently
launched Taluka Planning Atlas (TPA) project?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Gujarat (d) Karnataka
8. Which of the following has become Indias first
Wi-Fi-enabled metro city?
(a) Bengaluru (b) Hyderabad
(c) Mumbai (d) Kolkata
9. Who is the author of the book Recasting India:
How Entrepreneurship is Revolutionizing the
Worlds Largest Democracy?
(a) C.N. Ramachandran
(b) Hindol Sengupta
(c) James Grant
(d) Chinu Modi
10. Which among the following states has become
first to launch Crime and Criminal Tracking
Network System (CCTNS) Project?
(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Karnataka
11. Vanaj which was recently conducted in New
Delhi was a
(a) National Youth Festival
(b) National Handicraft Fair
(c) National Tribal Festival
(d) National Food Fair
12. Nitish Kumar has become the chief minister of
Bihar for the _______ time.
(a) Second (b) Third
(c) Fourth (d) Fifth
13. Adya Sharma, who died recently, was related to
which field?
(a) Space Science (b) Education
(c) Environment (d) Theatre
G-2 || National
14. University of Disability Studies is proposed to be
established in which of the following states?
(a) Haryana (b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Gujarat
15. The government has proposed to create centre
for film production in
(a) Manipur (b) Assam
(c) Tripura (d) Arunachal Pradesh
16. Recently, Union Ministry of Shipping, Road
Transport & Highways launched a new website
called
(a) Shipping Samvad date as the US-India Partnership Day?
(b) Shipping Nivedan
(c) Shipping Vartalaap (b) 30th September, 2014
(d) Shipping Vikaas
17. Recently, an Eco-restoration project has been
started for Kinnerasani Sanctuary with a cost of
60 lakh rupees. Where is this sanctuary located?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Telangana
(c) Karnataka (d) Kerala
18. Delhi High Court has recently restrained which
of the following company from manufacturing
anti-diabetes drugs Zita and Zita-Met?
(a) GlaxoSmithkline
(b) Cipla
(c) Pfizer
(d) Glenmark
19. AIIMS has joined hand with Alfred Hospital
for research in health field. Alfred Hospital is
located in
(a) USA (b) Australia
(c) Canada (d) Germany
20. Who among the following retired Judges of the
Supreme Court is/was the first to be appointed as
the Governor of a state in India?
(a) Justice Fathima Beevi
(b) Justice Mohammed Hidayatullah
(c) Justice Lalit Mohan Sharma
(d) Justice P. Sathasivam
21. The name of the committee appointed to search
for a suitable location for capital of Andhra
Pradesh is
(a) N.C Saxena Committee
(b) I.S Israni Committe
(c) Sivaramakrishnan Committee
(d) Justice Shah Committee
22. Kuno Palpur wildlife sanctuary is located in
(a) West Bengal (b) Jharkhand
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
23. Swachh Vidyalaya campaign will be anchored by
which of the following ministries?
(a) Ministry of Rural Development
(b) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
24. US Senate has declared which of the following
(a) 25th September, 2014
(c) 2nd October, 2014
(d) 5th October, 2014
25. Alok Shetty, who has been named as the leader
of tomorrow is a/an
(a) Doctor (b) Environmentalist
(c) Educationist (d) Architect
26. Who among the following has been appointed
as the Chairman of Competition Appellate
Tribunal?
(a) Justice RM Lodha
(b) Justice Swatanter Kumar
(c) Justice GS Singhvi
(d) Justice HL Gokhale
27. Sutlej-Yamuna link will carry the surplus water
of which of the following rivers to Haryana?
(a) Ravi and Beas
(b) Ravi and Jhelum
(c) Sutlej and Ghaggar
(d) Yamuna and Chenab
28. Maulana Azad National Academy of Skills
(MANAS) has been planned to be established
with headquarter at
(a) Mumbai (b) Delhi
(c) Lucknow (d) Pune
29. Who has been appointed as the Chairman and
Managing Director of BHAVINI?
(a) Rajani Sankaran
(b) Prabhat Kumar
(c) K Radhakrishnan
(d) Sekhar Basu

30. Harinder Pal Sandhu is associated with which of
the following game?
(a) Table Tennis (b) Boxing
(c) Golf (d) Squash
31. Which government has honoured Dr. Manmohan
Singh with Grand Cordon of the order of
Paulownia Flowers?
(a) China (b) Vietnam
(c) Japan (d) Thailand
32. The Government of India has decided to set up
National Cultural Audio-Visual Archives at
(a) Jodhpur (b) Vadodara
(c) Jalandhar (d) Ernakulam
33. Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam was formally conferred
the title of Honorary Professor by which of the
following university?
(a) Shanghai University
(b) University of Hong Kong
(c) Peking University
(d) Tsinghua University
34. Recently, a team of researchers succeeded in
establishing brain-to-brain communication link
using internet. The team is led by
(a) Amitabh Ghosh (b) Rajesh Rao
(c) Manjul Bhargava (d) CR Rao
35. Where is the 68th National Aquatic Championship
being held?
(a) New Delhi (b) Chennai
(c) Kolkata (d) Ahmedabad
36. According to the data released by the Ministry of
Health and Child Welfare, which of the following
state has highest count of sterilisation deaths in
India?
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) Madhya Pradesh
37. Sitara Devi, was best known for which of the
following dance?
(a) Kathak (b) Kathakali
(c) Bharatnatyam (d) Manipuri
38. Who has been appointed as the new Lok Sabha
Secretary General?
(a) Sumitra Mahajan (b) Anoop Mishra
(c) Rajeev Kher (d) R. K Mathur
39. What is the rank given to India in Corruption
Perception Index-2014?
(a) 82 (b) 85
(c) 88 (d) 90
Current Affairs || G-3
40. Who among the following has been appointed as
the new CBI chief?
(a) Anand Lal Banerjee
(b) Sumedh Singh
(c) Ashok Kumar
(d) Anil Sinha
41. Which among the following cities will host
World IT Congress in 2018?
(a) Bengaluru (b) New Delhi
(c) Hyderabad (d) Pune
42. Madhuri Dixit has been appointed as the brand
ambassador of Mamta Abhiyan (maternal and
child health) campaign the government of?
(a) Goa (b) West Bengal
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
43. Gopinath Munde was a Member of Parliament
from?
(a) Guna (b) Beedh
(c) Aurangabad (d) Nanded
44. Who is the speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(a) Sumitra Mahajan
(b) Meira Kumar
(c) Ravishankar Prasad
(d) Prakash Javdekar
45. Wang Yi, a minister of China visited India
recently. He is the _________?
(a) Finance Minister (b) Foreign Minister
(c) Defence Minister (d) Railway Minister
46. Vishal Sikka has been appointed as the new CEO
of?
(a) HCL (b) Infosys
(c) Amazon (d) Microsoft
47. After reconstitution of the cabinet committees,
the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS)
is headed by the:
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Home Minister
(d) External Affairs Minister
48. Global Cloud Xchange (GCX) has planned to
lay a sub-sea India Cloud Xchange (ICX) and to
provide a sub-sea route between Mumbai and:
(a) Europe (b) Africa
(c) Malaysia (d) Singapore
G-4 || National
49. The first Indian to become the Chairperson of
ICC is?
(a) N. Srinivasan (b) Sunil Gavaskar
(c) Kapil Dev (d) Lalit Modi
50. Justice V.K Rajah has been appointed as the
Attorney-General of which country?
(a) India (b) Singapore
(c) USA (d) England
51. Which of the following states in India has
announced 33% quota for women in Police
force?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala
52. Vakkom Purushothaman has been appointed as
the Governor of?
(a) Nagaland (b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Manipur (d) Sikkim
53. Recently, India has lost 19,467 sq. km of sea area
in an arbitration case in a UN tribunal with:
(a) China (b) Bangladesh
(c) Myanmar (d) Maldives
54. National Institute of Design which is sought
to be recognized as an institution of national
importance is located at?
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Vadodara
(c) Surat (d) Jamnagar
55. According to the Telecom Consumers Complaint
Redressal (Third Amendment) civilisation has recently been found at:
Regulations 2014, the minimum broadband
speed is?
(a) 256 kbps (b) 512 kbps
(c) 1 mbps (d) 2 mbps
56. A new species of shield tail snake Rhinophis
goweri has been discovered in:
(a) Nilgiri hills (b) Cardamom hills
(c) Annaimalai hills (d) Bodamalai hills
57. India has signed audio-visual cooperation treaty
with which of the following countries?
(a) USA (b) Canada
(c) Russia (d) France
58. The government of India has announced to set
up National Investment and Manufacturing
Zones (NIMZs) in 16 cities. Which among the
following is not one of them?
(a) Nagpur (b) Kolar
(c) Medak (d) Vijayawada
59. Agricultural Biosecurity Bill, 2013 proposes
to set up Agricultural Biosecurity Authority of
India at
(a) Ludhiana (b) Faridabad
(c) Allahabad (d) Bhopal
60. Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project is planned to
built on which river?
(a) Mahakali (b) Gandaki
(c) Koshi (d) Ramganga
61. A panel has been setup by the HRD ministry to
restructure the apex regulatory body for higher
education i.e., University Grants Commission.
Who is the chairman of this panel?
(a) CM Jariwala (b) Kapil kapoor
(c) Hari Gautam (d) Syed Vicaruddin
62. Mahindra & Mahindra is in talks with which
French automobile major, for a strategic alliance?
(a) Peugeot (b) Piaggio
(c) Lafarge (d) Renault
63. Who has been appointed as the new Managing
Director and CEO of the Taj Group?
(a) Khieu Samphan
(b) Raymond N. Brickson
(c) Nuon Chea
(d) Rakesh K. Sarna
64. A copper crown with beads of carnelian - a semi
precious gemstone associated with the Harappan
(a) Baghpat (b) Ropar
(c) Meerut (d) Hastinapur
65. Who has been recently appointed as head of
National Biodiversity Authority?
(a) V Rajagopalan
(b) Venkatesh Naik
(c) Rama Krishunudua
(d) Ajit Seth
66. Which city was chosen as the ad hoc capital of
Andhra Pradesh by the state government ?
(a) Vijayawada
(b) Guntur
(c) Visakhapatanam
(d) Nellore
67. Who was elected as the Deputy Speaker of the
Lok Sabha on 13 August 2014?
(a) M. Thambidurai (b) M. Venkateshwar
(c) V. Rameshwar (d) D. Subramaniam

68. Which one of the following has been appointed
as the Governor of Kerala, the former Chief
Justice of India?
(a) Justice Altamas Kabir
(b) Justice P. Sathasivam
(c) Justice K.G.Balakrishnan
(d) Justice S.H. Kapadia
69. Who among the following Indian-origin British
MP, has been appointed as the Labour Partys
maiden shadow minister in UK?
(a) Seema Malhotra (b) Reena Wadhwa
(c) Seema Pathania (d) Veena Malhotra
70. Who has been appointed as the Civil Aviation
Secretary ?
(a) Chandraji Banerjee
(b) V. Somasundaram
(c) Ajit Seth
(d) S.A. Suryanarayan Verma
71. Who among the following is the author of the
Book Titled Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi: An
Inside Job?
(a) Faraz Ahmed (b) DP Yadav
(c) Daman Singh (d) None of these
72. Who has been recently appointed as the Governor
of Rajasthan?
(a) Kalyan Singh (b) Kamla Beniwal
(c) Vidya Sagar Rao (d) Mridula sinha
73. India signed loan agreement with ___________
for Mizoram State Roads Project (MSRP II).
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) UNDP
(d) World Bank
74. The Union Government has set a target to
achieve literacy rate in the country by 2017 :
(a) 78% (b) 80%
(c) 82% (d) 85%
75. First gas-based power plant is commissioned in
Palatana. Palatana is located in :
(a) Tripura (b) Assam
(c) Manipur (d) Meghalaya
76. The Union Government has banned three major
medicinesPioglitazone, Deanxit, Analgin.
These medicines widely prescribed as :
(a) Anti-cancer drug, Anti-malaria drug, Anti-
depressant
Current Affairs || G-5
(b) Anti-Malaria drug, Anti-depressant, Anti-
TB drug, Anti-depressant
(c) Anti-diabetes drug, Pain killer
(d) Anti-TB drug, Anti-diabetes drug, Pain
killer
77. Tear You Apart campaign is related to :
(a) Tobacco control campaign
(b) Sanitation campaign
(c) Health Awareness Campaign
(d) Anti-Globlization Campaign
78. Green Energy Corridor Project (GEC) is related to:
(a) facilitate the flow of renewable energy into
the National grid.
(b) establishment of Bio-gass plants in rural
area.
(c) establishment of solar-energy plants in rural
area.
(d) developing Industrial corridor based on
renewable energy.
79. Which are three food items from the components
of the National Food Security Mission?
(a) Wheat, Pulses, Bajra
(b) Rice, Wheat, Bajra
(c) Rice, Wheat, Pulses
(d) Rice, Pulses, Jwar
80. In which state Union Government formally
launched the Give It Up movement ?
(a) Haryana (b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan (d) Karnataka
81. Who becomes Indias first cyber security chief?
(a) Vikas Swarup (b) Gulshan Rai
(b) Rajni Razdan (d) Shashi Kant Sharma
82. Which among the following states instituted the
National Kavi Pradeep Samman?
(a) Haryana (b) Jharkhand
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
83. Which state has become first to fix minimum
educational qualification for panchayat polls?
(a) Kerala (b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan (d) Karnataka
84. As on March 2015, how many Prime Ministers
of India have been awarded the Bharat Ratna?
(a) Five (b) Six
(c) Seven (d) Nine
G-6 || National
85. Recently, the Union government has given
approval to set up Seafood Park in which state?
(a) Odisha (b) West Bengal
(c) Gujarat (d) Tamil Nadu
86. Who has been chosen for the 2015 Tyler Prize
for Environmental Achievement?
(a) Ullas Karanth (a) Ratan Tata (b) Arvind Panagariya
(b) Madhav Gadgil
(c) Sunitha Narayanan
(d) Rajendra Singh
87. Yousaf Ali Kechery, who passed away recently,
was a noted poet in ____?
(a) Malayalam (b) Urdu
(c) Kannada (d) Telugu
88. Recently, the union government has appointed
Amitabh Bachchan as the brand ambassador for
its campaign against which disease?
(a) Swine Flu (b) Tuberculosis
(c) Hepatitis B (d) Diabetes
89. The proposed plan to construct dams across
Cauvery River at Mekedatu is a bone of
contention between ___?
(a) Karnataka and Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(c) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(d) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
90. Who has been chosen as head of the Kaya Kalp,
a new innovative council of Indian Railways?
(a) Ratan Tata (b) Narayana Murthy
(c) Anil Kakodkar (d) Azim Premji
91. Which ministry is implementing the Technology
Development for Indian Languages (TDIL)
programme?
(a) Ministry of Communication & Information
Technology
(b) Ministry of Culture
(c) Ministry of Home
(d) Ministry of Science and Technology.
92. Recently launched National Judicial Reference
System (NJRS) is a computerized repository for
all judgements and pending cases related to __?
(a) Banking Fraud (b) Direct Tax
(c) Insurance Claims (d) Pensions
93. Which of the following conducts the Annual
Survey of Industries (ASI)?
(a) Central Statistics Office
(b) National Sample Survey Organisation
(c) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public
Enterprises
(d) Ministry of Economy
94. Who is the head of the task force set up to define
poverty and prepare a roadmap to alleviate it?
(c) Rathin Roy (d) Surjit Bhalla
95. In which country, has the Indian Prime Minister
inaugurated the first of the eight Coastal
Surveillance Radar Systems (CSRS) being set up
by India?
(a) Seychelles (b) Mauritius
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Maldives
96. What is Indias female labour force participation
rate at present?
(a) 45 (b) 33
(c) 50 (d) 55
97. As per the latest data by health ministry, which
state has registered highest swine flu death in the
country?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra (d) Madhya Pradesh
98. Which state recently launched a scheme Aapki
Beti Humari Beti to combat the problem of
declining child sex ratio?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Odisha
(c) Haryana (d) Rajastha
99. Who has been chosen for 2014 Saraswati Samman
Award?
(a) S L Byrappa (b) Veerappa Moily
(c) Mahesh Tripathi (d) Subhash Chandra
100. What is the name of Innovation Council
proposed in the Railway budget-2015 to promote
innovation?
(a) Navachar (b) Rail Tech
(c) Kayakalp (d) Sankalp
101. Rana Bhagwandas, who passed away recently,
was the first Hindu chief justice of ____?
(a) Saudi Arabia (b) Indonesia
(c) Pakistan (d) angladesh
102. The NERPAP programme, which is in news, is
related to _____?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Election Commission
(c) Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Panchayati Raj and Rural Development
 Current Affairs || G-7

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 12. (c) 23. (c) 34. (b) 45. (b) 56. (d) 67. (a) 78. (a) 89. (c) 100. (c)
2. (c) 13. (d) 24. (b) 35. (c) 46. (b) 57. (b) 68. (b) 79. (c) 90. (a) 101. (c)
3. (c) 14. (b) 25. (d) 36. (b) 47. (b) 58. (d) 69. (a) 80. (d) 91. (a) 102. (b)
4. (d) 15. (d) 26. (c) 37. (a) 48. (d) 59. (b) 70. (b) 81. (b) 92. (b)
5. (a) 16. (a) 27. (a) 38. (b) 49. (a) 60. (a) 71. (a) 82. (c) 93. (a)
6. (b) 17. (b) 28. (b) 39. (b) 50. (b) 61. (c) 72. (a) 83. (c) 94. (b)
7. (c) 18. (d) 29. (a) 40. (d) 51. (b) 62. (a) 73. (d) 84. (c) 95. (a)
8. (d) 19. (b) 30. (d) 41. (c) 52. (a) 63. (d) 74. (b) 85. (a) 96. (b)
9. (b) 20. (a) 31. (c) 42. (c) 53. (b) 64. (a) 75. (a) 86. (b) 97. (b)
10. (c) 21. (c) 32. (a) 43. (b) 54. (a) 65. (a) 76. (c) 87. (a) 98. (c)
11. (c) 22. (c) 33. (c) 44. (a) 55. (b) 66. (a) 77. (a) 88. (c) 99. (b)

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) M Sathiyavathy will succeed Prabhat Kumar,
to become first woman to be appointed as Director
General of the chief aviation for period of three
years till 2017.
2. (c) The device aims to empower small farmers
who own small plots of land by providing them with
precise information related to agriculture and help
them purchase inputs at lower prices.
3. (c) The Punjab Health Department has banned the
sale of loose cigarettes (as single sticks) and loose
tobacco, becoming the first State to do so.
4. (d) The theme of 19th National Youth Festival is
Youth for Clean, Green and Progressive India and
aims to spread to spread national integration and
harmony.
5. (a) Harishankar Brahma succeeded V S Sampat to
become new Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
of India.
6. (b) Indias open water swimmer Bhakti Sharma
has set a new world record by swimming 1.4 miles
in 52 minutes in one degree temperature in the
Antarctic Ocean.
7. (c) Under this project of Gujarat government, an
atlas will be compiled to showcase various facilities
as well as government schemes at village level in
each taluka.
8. (d) Kolkata has become Indias first Wi-Fi-
enabled metro city. The whole city is expected to
come under Wi-Fi coverage by mid-April in 2015.
9. (b) The book written by Hindol Senguptahas been
shortlisted for the prestigious Hayek Prize-2015.
10. (c) Himachal Pradesh has launched CCTNS
project. The project is being funded by the Union
government and is intended to raise the professional
efficiency of police.
11. (c) The Ministry of Tribal Affairs held National
Tribal Festival Vanaj in New Delhi. The festival
aimed to promote tribal culture and uplift the quality
of tribal lives.
12. (c) Nitish Kumar was sworn in as the CM of Bihar
in 2000 (for 7 days), 2005 and 2010 before this. He
had resigned in May 2014 from the CM post.
13. (d) Adya Sharma was pioneer of mobile theatre
in Assam. He was also a well known painter and
sculpture artist.
14. (b) The government in Union Budget 2015-16
has proposed to establish University of Disability
Studies in Kerala. This will boost research and
development in this field.
G-8 || National
15. (d) Centre for film production will be established
in Arunachal Pradesh. It will give boost to film
production in North-eastern region of the country.
16. (a) Shipping Samvad aims to increase public
participation in decision making of the government.
It will invite ideas and suggestions from the people.
The best ideas will be implemented to improve the
shipping industry.
17. (b) Kinnerasani Sanctuary is located at Khammam
district, Telangana. Wildlife will be restored under
the project.
18. (d) In a case of violation of patent law, Delhi
High Court has restrained Glenmark, an Indian
pharmaceutical company from manufacturing and
selling its anti-diabetes drugs Zita and Zita-Met.
19. (b) AIIMS has partnered with Alfred Hospital
under Science and Technology Strategic Research
Partnership Programme between Australia and
India.
20. (a) Justice Fathima Beevi was the first retired
judge of the supreme court to be appointed as the
Governor of a state in India whereas Justice P.
Sathasivam became the first retired CJI to hold the
position of the Governor.
21. (c) Sivaramakrishnan Committee has submitted
its report for a suitable location for capital of Andhra
Pradesh. It has recommended to develop a string of
cities as business and industrial cities.
22. (c) Kuno Palpur wildlife sanctuary is planned to
be made the second home for Asiatic lions.
23. (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
will lead the Swachh Vidyalaya campaign which
will be funded via the Swachh Bharat Kosh.
24. (b) US Senate on 19 September 2014 passed a
bipartisan resolution declaring 30 September 2014
as US-India Partnership Day
25. (d) Alok Shetty, who is working with a Non-Profit
Organisation has designed homes for hundreds of
slum dwellers
26. (c) Justice GS Singhvi has been appointed as the
Chairman of Competition Appellate Tribunal in
which appeals against a decision of Competition
Commision of India could be made.
27. (a) Sutlej-Yamuna link will help to provide
irrigation in arid region of Haryana by diverting
surplus water of Ravi and Beas.
28. (b) MANAS will be estableshed with All-India
Network with headquarter at Delhi.
29. (a) Rajani Sankaran has been appointed as the first
woman chief of Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam
Ltd (BHAVINI).
30. (d) Harinder Pal Sandhu defeated top seeded
Egyptian Karim Ali Fathi in the fourth and
concluding leg of the JSW-PSA Challenger squash
circuit.
31. (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh has been honoured with
the award for his contribution in boosting Indo-
Japanese ties.
32. (a) Ministry of Culture and the Rupayan Sansthan
has signed an MoU to set up a National Cultural
Audio-Visual Archives in Jodhpur with the aim to
preserve cultural heritage of the country.
33. (c) Peking University, one of the oldest Chinese
universities conferred the title of Honorary Professor
to Dr.Kalam.
34. (b) A team of researchers led by Prof. Rajesh Rao
at University of Washington established brain-to-
brain communication link using internet.
36. (b) Tamil Nadu, which has one of best health
systems in India has witnessed highest number of
sterilisation deaths in the recent years.
37. (a) Sitara Devi, who was the recipient of Sangeet
Natak Academi Award, Padma shree and Kalidas
Samman, died at the age of 94 on November 25,
2014.
38. (b) Anoop Mishra, former Chief Secretary of Uttar
Pradesh, has been appointed as the new Secretary
General of the Lok Sabha.
39. (b) Indias rank has improved from 94 to 85 this
year, ahead of all the South Asian countries, except
Bhutan.
40. (d) Anil Sinha has been appointed as the new CBI
chief by the appointments committee of the cabinet.
41. (c) Hyderabad will host prestigious World
Information Technology Congress (WITC) in 2018.
42. (c) Madhuri Dixit as brand ambassador of the
campaign by Madhya Pradesh government will
start it with an event organised in collaboration with
UNICEF.
43. (b) Gopinath Munde was a BJP MP in the Lok
Sabha from Beedh constituency.

44. (a) Sumitra Mahajan has been elected as the
speaker of the new Lok Sabha
45. (b) Wang Yi came to India for a two days visit
and met President Pranab Mukherji, Prime Minister
Narendra Modi and Foreign Affairs Minister
Sushma Swaraj.
46. (b) Vishal Sikka has replaced N.R Narayana
Murthy as the CEO of Infosys.
47. (b) After the reconstitution, the Prime Minister
has become the head of CCS, CCEA, ACC and the
Committee on Political Affairs.
48. (d) The direct sub-sea ICX will help to connect
emerging markets corridor of Mumbai and
Singapore.
49. (a) N. Srinivasan has been appointed as the first
Chairman of ICC.
50. (b) Justice V.K Rajah, an Indian-origin judge
has been appointed as the Attorney-General of
Singapore.
51. (b) Anandiben Patel, the Chief Minister of Gujarat
has announced 33 percent reservation for women in
the police force.
52. (a) Vakkom Purushothaman has become the
Governor of Nagaland along with additional charge
of the office of Governor of Tripura.
53. (b) UN tribunal has awarded 19,467 sq. km
of 25,602 sq. km sea area to Bangladesh in Bay
of Bengal in a dispute case in which India was
involved.
54. (a) National Institute of Design Bill has been
passed by the parliament which would recognize the
institute as an institution of national importance.
55. (b) TRAI notified that according to The
Telecom Consumers Complaint Redressal (Third
Amendment) Regulations 2014, the minimum
broadband speed has been raised to 512 kbps from
256 kbps
56. (d) Rhinophis goweri has been discovered in
Bodamalai hills of Tamil Nadu.
57. (b) India has signed audio-visual cooperation
treaty with Canada with an aim to create jobs in
both the countries and to boost tourism.
58. (d) NIMZ has not been proposed to be set up in
Vijayawada.
59. (b) Agricultural Biosecurity Authority of India is
proposed to be established at Faridabad. It will be
Current Affairs || G-9
headed by a Director General to be appointed by the
central government.
60. (a) India and Nepal are jointly planning to build
Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project on the River
Mahakali.
61. (c) The four member panel will be headed by
former UGC Chairman, Mr. Hari Gautam.
62. (a) According to top automobile industry
sources in India and France, a senior level team
from Mahindra has already visited the Peugeot
headquarters.
63. (d) Hospitality industry veteran Mr. Rakesh N.
Sarna will head the Taj Group as its MD and CEO
after the resignation of Raymond N. Brickson.
64. (a) The accidental discovery of a skeleton wearing
what appears to be a copper crown has created a
buzz in Baghpat district of Uttar Pradesh.
65. (a) Environment secretary V Rajagopalan has been
appointed as the head of the national Biodiversity
authority by Union Minister Prakash Javedkar.
66. (a) Vijayawada would be used as ad hoc capital
of the state until the needed infrastructure and other
projects for the new capital are completed.
67. (a) M. Thambidurai represents AIADMK in the
Lok Sabha. He was elected unanimously as almost
all parties moved motions for his election, including
the Congress.
68. (b) Justice P.Sathasivam has been appointed as the
Governor of Kerala, after the resignation of Mrs.
Sheila Dixit, who was the former Chief Minister of
Delhi.
69. (a) Seema Malhotra, has been appointed as the
Labour Partys maiden shadow minister dealing
with violence against women and girls.
70. (b) V. Somasundaram has been appointed as the
new Civil Aviation Secretary. He will take over from
Ashok Lavasa who has been appointed secretary in
the ministry of Environment.
71. (a) Faraz Ahmad is a print journalist and has a vast
working experience of covering crime and politics.
The book reveals that Rajiv Gandhis assassination
by the LTTE on 21 May 1991 was a myth which has
been perpetuated for twenty-three years. The myth
was perpetuated because Congress Party feared that
Rajiv Gandhi might not triumph in the 1991 general
elections which were underway.
G-10 || National
72. (a) Kalyan Singh has been appointed as the
Governor of Rajasthan. He was the Chief Minister
of Uttar Pradesh in 1990s.
73. (d) India signed this agreement with World Bank,
according to which soft loan window of World
Bank, International Development Agency (IDA)
will provide assistance of 107 million US dollars
for the Project.
74. (b) The Union Government of India announced
that it has set a target to achieve 80% literacy rate in
the country by 2017. The literacy rate of the country
at present is 74%.
75. (a) First gas - based power plant is commissioned
at Palatana in Tripura. The Palatana gas - based
power plant is developed by OMGC and is the
first such power company in India to be awarded
with the clean development mechanism by UNFC
(United Nations Framework Convention) on climate
change.
76. (c) Government has banned three major medicines
the widely prescribed anti-diabetes drug
pioglitazone, painkiller analgin and Anti-depressant
deanxit.
77. (a) Ministry of Health & Family welfare launched
the nation wide National Tobacco Control campaign
known asTears you apart.
78. (a) Union government has planned to roll out a
43000 crore rupees Green Energy Corridor Project
to facilitate the flow of renewable energy into the
national grid.
79. (c) Rice, wheat, pulses are three food items from
the National Food Security Mission.
80. (d) The movement appeals to the rich people to
voluntarily give up their subsidy amount given on
Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) cylinders.
81. (b) Prime Minister Narendra Modi in March 2015
had created this new post in PMO and had appointed
Rai as its head.
82. (c) Gopaldas Neeraji, a well noted Hindi poet, was
awarded the first National Kavi Pradeep Samman.
83. (c) Rajasthan state legislative assembly passed
the Panchayati Raj Amendment Bill 2015 fixing
minimum educational qualifications for contesting
Panchayat polls in the state.
84. (c) So far seven Prime Ministers of India have
been awarded the Bharat Ratna. Atal Bihari
Vajapayee is the seventh Prime Minister to receive
the award, after Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi,
Rajiv Gandhi, Morarji Desai, Lal Bahadur Shastri
and Gulzarilal Nanda.
85. (a) Union government has given approval to set
up Seafood Park in Odisha. It will be set up by state-
run Odisha Industrial Infrastructure Development
Corporation at Deras in Khurda district on 100 acres
of land.
86. (b) Madhav Gadgil, well known ecologist has
been chosen for the prestigious 2015 Tyler Prize for
Environmental Achievement.
87. (a) Yousaf Ali Kechery was a famous Malayalam
poet and film personality. A poet of the modern era,
he had won several awards for his poetry which
include the Odakkuzhal, Kerala Sahitya Academy
and Vallathol awards
88. (c) Union government has appointed Amitabh
Bachchan as brand ambassador for its campaign
against hepatitis B.
89. (c) Karnataka state has proposed a plan to
construct two dams on Cauvery River at Mekedatu
but Tamil Nadu has been opposing the plan saying
it would severely affect the livelihoods of farmers
in 12 districts, who entirely depend on the Cauvery
river water for farm activities.
90. (a) Apart from Ratan Tata, the Kaya Kalp council
will also have two railway union leaders Shiv Gopal
Mishra and M Raghuvaiah.
91. (a) The objective of TDIL is developing
Information Processing Tools and Techniques
to facilitate human-machine interaction without
language barrier.
92. (b) The NJRS project is being undertaken by the
Directorate General of Income Tax, Income Tax
Department.
93. (a) ASI is the principal source of industrial
statistics in India.
94. (b) Union government has set up a task force,
headed by NITI Aayog Vice-Chairman Arvind
Panagariya, to define poverty and prepare a roadmap
to alleviate it.

95. (a) During PMs visit to Seychelles the two
nations signed four agreements for cooperation
in hydrography, renewable energy, infrastructure
development and hydro-graphic survey.
96. (b) It means only 125 million of the 380 million
working-age Indian women are currently part of the
labour force.
97. (b) The death toll was highest in Gujarat where
382 people have perished to the disease.
98. (c) Aapki Beti Humari Beti will be implemented
in both rural and urban areas of the state covering
first-born girl child of Scheduled Caste (SC) and
Below Poverty Line (BPL) families and all second
Current Affairs || G-11
girl child born on or after January 22, 2015 of all
families.
99. (b) M. Veerappa Moily has been selected for the
prestigious Saraswati Samman 2014 for his famous
Kannada poem Ramayana Mahanveshanam.
100. (c) Purpose of the Council- To recommend
innovative methods and processes for the
improvement, betterment and transformation of the
Indian Railways
101. (c) Rana Bhagwandas was the first Hindu and
second non-Muslim head of the Supreme Court of
Pakistan.
102. (b) NERPAP is nothing but National Electoral
Roll Purification and Authentication Programme.
G-12 || International
2 International
1. Robert Mugabe, who has been appointed as the
chairman of African Union is the President of
which country?
(a) Zimbabwe (b) Nigeria
(c) Zaire (d) Kenya
2. Where was First World Ocean Science Congress
held recently?
(a) Vishakhapatnam (b) Kochi
(c) Cuttack (d) Kolkata
3. Which among the following companies has
joined hand with World Wide Fund (WWF) to
launch the Friends for Life project recently?
(a) Cholamandalam Finance
(b) Muthoot Finance
(c) Birla Global Finance
(d) L & T Finance
4. The World Wildlife Day is observed on
(a) 1st March (b) 3rd March
(c) 5th March (d) 7th March
5. Which of the following is not involved in the
protocol for ceasefire agreement between Ukraine
government and the rebels signed recently?
(a) Russia
(b) the Organisation for Security and Cooperation
in Europe
(c) Ukrainian rebels
(d) NATO
6. NATO Summit-2014 was held at
(a) Geneva (b) London
(c) Lisbon (d) Wales
7. Catalonia is located in
(a) Spain (b) Scotland
(c) Ukraine (d) Turkey
8. Recent outbreak of Ebola virus in Africa started
in
(a) Nigeria (b) Guinea
(c) Somalia (d) Sudan
9. Yazidi tribes lives in which of the following
countries?
(a) Afghanistan (b) Uzbekistan
(c) Azerbaijan (d) Iraq
10. Which of the following has been selected to be
the SAARC cultural capital for the year 2016-17?
(a) Bamiyan (b) Dhaka
(c) Ajanta (d) Lahore
11. 5/20 rule is associated with which industry?
(a) Steel (b) Aviation
(c) Telecom (d) Coal
12. Pivot to Asia doctrine is associated with
(a) China (b) USA
(c) Russia (d) European Union
13. Which of the following day is observed as
International Day of Older Persons?
(a) 25th September (b) 1st October
(c) 5th October (d) 8th October
14. Burkina Faso, which was recently in a news, is a
country located in which of the following region?
(a) Oceania (b) Europe
(c) South America (d) Africa
15. Uva, a place which was recently hit by a landslide,
is located in
(a) Srilanka (b) Myanmar
(c) Bhutan (d) Bangladesh
16. Which of the following date has been declared as
Yoga Day by the United Nations?
(a) 21st June (b) 23rd June
(c) 21st July (d) 23rd July

17. Anerood Jugnauth has become the new Prime
Minister of
(a) Suriname (b) Singapore
(c) Mauritius (d) Fiji
18. Rolene Strauss, who has been crowned as Miss
World 2014, is from
(a) South Africa (b) Brazil
(c) Argentina (d) Australia
19. Gulen Movement is mainly associated with
which of the following countries?
(a) Tunisia (b) Syria
(c) Iraq (d) Turkey
20. Who is Petro Porshenko?
(a) President of Ukraine
(b) President of Italy
(c) Chairman of IMF
(d) Chairman of European Union
21. Which of the following countries is not the part
of G-7?
(a) France (b) Russia
(c) Germany (d) England
22. King Juan Carlos I who abdicated to hand over
the crown to his son was the king of?
(a) Luxemburg (b) Spain
(c) Monaco (d) Austria
23. Reuven Rivlin has been elected as the President
of?
(a) Ukraine (b) Palestine
(c) Israel (d) Syria
24. Thwaites Glacier is located in
(a) West Arctic (b) East Arctic
(c) West Antarctic (d) East Antarctic
25. China is assisting for the construction of
Pataukhali power plant. It is located in which
country?
(a) Pakistan (b) Bangladesh
(c) Myanmar (d) Sri Lanka
26. Abdel Fattah el Sisi is sworn as president of?
(a) Egypt (b) Oman
(c) Tunisia (d) Libya
27. ISIS, a jehadist group has captured many
territories and a civil war like situation is
emerging in?
(a) Iran (b) Iraq
(c) Egypt (d) Tunisia
Current Affairs || G-13
28. Who has been elected as the new Premier of
Finland?
(a) Alexander Stubb (b) Paula Risikko
(c) Jyrki Katainen (d) Reuven Rivlin
29. Albie Sachs Won Tang Prize for his anti-apartheid
struggle. Tang Prize has origin in which country?
(a) China (b) South Korea
(c) Taiwan (d) Japan
30. Who has been named as the next President of the
European Commission?
(a) Roberto Azevedo
(b) Jean-Claude Junker
(c) Jose Manuel Barroso
(d) Herman Van Rompuy
31. The first United Nations Environment Assembly
held recently at?
(a) Geneva (b) Budapest
(c) Durban (d) Nairobi
32. Which among the following states of USA has
been hit by hurricane Arthur?
(a) Georgia (b) Texas
(c) North Carolina (d) South Carolina
33. Which of the following countries has launched
military operation codenamed Zarb-e-Azb?
(a) Afghanistan (b) Pakistan
(c) Iraq (d) Syria
34. Mt. Sinha peak is located in?
(a) Australia (b) USA
(c) Antarctica (d) Canada
35. Which among the following country has
announced the plan to install a statue of Mahatma
Gandhi in the Parliament Square?
(a) USA (b) United Kingdom
(c) South Africa (d) Russia
36. Which among the following actress has been
appointed as the Goodwill Ambassador of UN
Women?
(a) Emma Watson (b) Keira Knightley
(c) Emily Blunt (d) Kate Winslet
37. Which among the following countries has
recently legalised child labour for children above
the age of 10 years?
(a) Bolivia (b) Peru
(c) Ecuador (d) Venezuela
G-14 || International
38. Sendai nuclear plant is located in which country?
(a) China (b) South Korea
(c) Iran (d) Japan
39. Green Climate Fund, working within the
framework of the UNFCCC, is based in
(a) Sweden (b) South Korea
(c) Denmark (d) Japan
40. Which among the following nations ranked
highest in Social Progress Indicator (SPI)-
2014?
(a) New Zealand (b) Denmark
(c) Norway (d) Australia
41. Which of the following countries is set to become
the 19th member of the Eurozone?
(a) Estonia (b) Latvia
(c) Lithuania (d) Kosovo
42. Joko Widodo recently won the presidential
election in which of the following countries?
(a) philippines (b) Cambodia
(c) Indonesia (d) Vietnam
43. Who is Faud Masum?
(a) Prime Minister of Iraq
(b) President of Iraq
(c) President of Egypt
(d) Prime Minister of Egypt
44. Identify the foreign office minister of the David
Cameron government in UK, who resigned in
protest against the Israeli Air Strikes in Gaza?
(a) Heather Smith. (b) Baroness Warsi
(c) Dorothee Warsi (d) Shoukeen Khan
45. Which of the following community in Iraq is
warned by ISIS to convert to Islam or be ready to
face the consequences?
(a) Zoroastrians. (b) Christians.
(c) Yazidis (d) Jews
46. Identify the name Indian American who invented
E-mail 32 years back?
(a) A.V. Ramaswami
(b) V.V. Annadurai
(c) V.A.Shiva Ayyadurai
(d) R.V. Ramalingam
47. Which one of the following has been recently
appointed as the 12th President of Turkey?
(a) Ekmeleddin Ihsanoglu
(b) Selahattin Demirtas
(c) Recep Tayyip Erdogan
(d) None of these
48. Which country was chosen to chair Partnership in
Population and Development (PPD) for the year
2015?
(a) India (b) China
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Ghana
49. Who is the winner of Abel Prize 2015?
(a) John Nash (b) Kirsti Storm Bull
(c) John Milnor (d) Kristian Ranestad
50. Which country has been constructing the
controversial Grand Renaissance Dam project on
Nile River?
(a) Ethiopia (b) Egypt
(c) Sudan (d) Cairo
51. Which city/country has been ranked top in the
2015 The Energy Productivity and Economic
Prosperity Index?
(a) Hong Kong (b) Singapore
(c) UK (d) Norway
52. Recently, the World Wide Fund for Nature
(WWF) has kicked off River for Life campaign
to protect ___
(a) Crocodile
(b) Coral Reef
(c) Gangetic River Dolphins
(d) Olive Ridley Turtles
53. Which country leads in the production of
hydroelectric power in the world?
(a) USA (b) China
(c) Brazil (d) Canada
54. The United Nations general assembly has
declared the year 2015 as ____?
(a) International Year of Seas
(b) International Year of Soils
(c) International Year of Vegetables
(d) International Year of Food
55. Which of the following was the venue of 3rd UN
World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction?
(a) New Delhi, India
(b) Shanghai, China
(c) Sendai, Japan
(d) Jaffna, Sri Lanka

56. Who among the following has won the 2015
Australia Grand Prix-Formula One World
Championship?
(a) Nico Rosberg
(b) Lewis Hamilton
(c) Sebastian Vettel
(d) Felipe Massa
57. According to latest report, which country is
worlds top defence importer in 2014?
(a) China (b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Pakistan (d) South Korea
58. As per the UN women report which country has
the highest percentage of women parliamentarians
in the world?
(a) Nepal (b) Mongolia
(c) Rwanda (d) UK
59. The Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA) is
related to ____
(a) Disaster reduction
(b) Biodiversity protection
(c) Population control
(d) Ozone protection
60. Which space agency has launched the
Magnetospheric Multiscale Spacecraft (MMS)?
(a) ISRO (b) NASA
(c) SpaceX (d) ESA
61. Evan Spiegel, who is the youngest billionaire in
the world is co-founder of_____ ?
(a) Snapchat (b) Apple
(c) Watsapp (d) Yahoo
62. The One Belt, One Road initiative has been
proposed by China for __?
(a) Defence Cooperation
(b) International Travel & Tourism
(c) Investment and Trade Promotion
(d) None of them
63. Which country has recently developed the
worlds first 3D-printed jet engine?
(a) Japan (b) China
(c) Australia (d) Germany
64. Recently, which country has started military
operations against Houthi rebels in Yemen.
(a) Saudi Arabia (b) Jordan
(c) Syria (d) U.S.A
Current Affairs || G-15
65. Recently, which country became the first member
country to the UN Framework Convention
on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to submit its
action plan on Intended Nationally Determined
Contribution (INDC)?
(a) India (b) Switzerland
(c) Australia (d) Singapore
66. Hifikepunye Pohamba, who won the prestigious
Mo Ibrahim Prize for Achievement in African
Leadership-2014, is the president of which
country?
(a) Mozambique (b) Botswana
(c) Cabo Verde (d) Namibia
67. The Ufa city, where annual BRICS summit-2015
is scheduled to be held is in which country?
(a) China (b) Russia
(c) South Africa (d) Brazil
68. Which South East Asian country has recently
banned surrogacy service to end its flourishing
rent-a-womb industry?
(a) Singapore (b) Laos
(c) Thailand (d) Vietnam
69. The Dwekh Nawsha is a Christian militia brigade
formed to fight against the Islamic State (IS) in
which country?
(a) France (b) Iraq
(c) Japan (d) Australia
70. The Minsk Peace Summit seeks to end conflict
and establish peace in which country?
(a) Yemen (b) Syria
(c) Ukraine (d) Iraq
71. The first country to introduce laws to allow the
creation of so called three-parent babies is___
(a) USA (b) Georgia
(c) Britain (d) South Africa
72. The Operation Inherent Resolve is the military
operation against ISIL (Islamic State of Iraq and
the Levant) conducting by which country?
(a) France (b) USA
(c) Japan (d) Russia
G-16 || International
73. Who among the following have won the womens 76. Which among the following airports has become
and mens single titles, respectively at Australia the worlds busiest airport for international
Open-2015? traffic?
(a) Maria Sharapova and Andy Murray (a) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
(b) Serena Williams and Novak Djokovic (b) Dubai International Airport
(c) Maria Sharapova and Novak Djokovic (c) Londons Heathrow Airport
(d) Serena Williams and Andy Murray (d) Las Vegas Airport
74. Carl Djerassi, who passed away recently, was the 77. The Operation Ice Bridge, is the largest airborne
chemist widely known as father of ____? survey of Earths polar ice ever flown was
(a) Liposuction launched by _______.
(b) Birth control pill (a) ISRO (b) NASA
(c) Plastic surgery (c) ESA (d) RSA
(d) Blood transplant 78. Who won the worlds first Global Teacher Prize
75. Who among the following has been appointed as which is widely known as Nobel Prize for
new chairman of the African Union? teaching?
(a) Omar al-Bashir (b) Morgan Tsvangirai (a) Kiran Bir Sethi (b) Nancie Atwell
(c) Robert Mugabe (d) Olusegun Obasanjo (c) Guy Etienne (d) Jacque Kahura
 Current Affairs || G-17

ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 10. (b) 19. (d) 28. (a) 37. (a) 46. (c) 55. (c) 64. (a) 73. (b)
2. (b) 11. (b) 20. (a) 29. (c) 38. (d) 47. (c) 56. (b) 65. (b) 74. (b)
3. (b) 12. (b) 21. (b) 30. (b) 39. (b) 48. (b) 57. (b) 66. (d) 75. (c)
4. (b) 13. (b) 22. (b) 31. (d) 40. (a) 49. (a) 58. (c) 67. (b) 76. (b)
5. (d) 14. (d) 23. (c) 32. (c) 41. (c) 50. (a) 59. (a) 68. (c) 77. (b)
6. (d) 15. (a) 24. (c) 33. (b) 42. (c) 51. (a) 60. (b) 69. (b) 78. (b)
7. (a) 16. (a) 25. (b) 34. (c) 43. (b) 52. (c) 61. (a) 70. (c)
8. (b) 17. (c) 26. (a) 35. (b) 44. (b) 53. (b) 62. (c) 71. (c)
9. (d) 18. (a) 27. (b) 36. (a) 45. (c) 54. (b) 63. (c) 72. (b)

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Robert Mugabe is the President of Zimbabwe
since 1987.
2. (b) First World Ocean Science Congress-2015
was held at Kochi with the theme-Protect Oceans
for Posterity and Blue Economy.
3. (b) Friends for Life Project will work to protect
the habitats of elephants. It also aims to manage and
reduce the human-elephant conflict.
4. (b) 3rd March is observed as World Wildlife Day
as Convention on International Trade in Endangered
Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) was
adopted on this day in 1973. The theme for this year
is Wildlife crime is serious, lets get serious about
wildlife crime.
5. (d) The protocal is signed by the Ukrainian
representatives, rebels, Russia and the Organisation
for Security and Cooperation in Europe.
6. (d) NATO Summit-2014 concluded with
Wales declaration which focused on some major
international issues. new Prime Minister of Mauritius after he won a
7. (a) Catalans are demanding sovereignty for
Catalonia
8. (b) The Ebola virus stuck first in Guinea ann then
it spread to many parts of the Western Africa.
9. (d) Yazidi is a tribe of Iraq who are being targeted
by the ISIS (a terrorist organization) in Iraq
10. (b) Bamiyan has been selected to be the SAARC
cultural capital for the year 2015-16 and Dhaka for
the year 2016-17.
11. (b) According to 5/20 rule, a carrier must be 5
years old and have at least 20 aircraft in its fleet
before being permitted to fly abroad.
12. (b) Pivot to Asia doctrine of the USA aims to
counter the rising power of China in Asia.
13. (b) 1st October is observed as International Day
of Older Persons in accordance with a UN General
Assembly resolution.
14. (d) Burkina Faso is located in West Africa. People
stormed parliament in protest of Burkina Fasos
effort to extend his presidential reign after 27 years
rule.
15. (a) Uva, a province in Srilanka, was hit by a
landslide recently in which dozen of people were
killed.
16. (a) The UN General Assembly has adopted
a resolution of India declaring 21st June as the
International Day of Yoga.
17. (c) Anerood Jugnauth has been named as the
landslide.
18. (a) Rolene Strauss has been crowned as Miss
World 2014 in London.
19. (d) The Glen movement is a religious and social
movement led by Turkish Islamic scholar and
preacher Fethullah Glen.
20. (a) Petro Porshenko, a business tycoon backed by
Western powers has been elected as the President of
Ukraine.
G-18 || International
21. (b) Russia has been expelled from G-8 after
Ukraine crisis and the group has become G-7.
22. (b) Juan Carlos abdicated as king after his name
appeared in a scam.
23. (c) Reuven Rivlin is a member of Likud party and
former speaker of parliament. He defeated Meir
Sheetrit in the run-off.
24. (c) Thwaites Glacier in West Antarctic is rapidly
melting due to rise in atmospheric temperature and
geothermal heat.
25. (b) China has signed deal with Bangladesh to
assist in the construction of Pataukhali power plant.
27. (b) The Sunni Jihadists have captured many parts
in Southern Iraq.
28. (a) Former Foreign Minister, Alexander Stubb
defeated Paula Risikko in second round of polling
and became the new Prime Minister of Finland.
29. (c) Tang Prize Foundation gave $1.7 million to
Albie Sachs for his anti-apartheid crusade in South
Africa.
30. (b) Former Luxembourg Premier has been named
as the next President of the European Commission
with 26-2 votes.
31. (d) The first United Nations Environment
Assembly held at the headquarter of UNEP at
Nairobi.
32. (c) Hurricane Arthur hit the coast of North
Carolina on 4th July. It is the first hurricane of the
season.
33. (b) Pakistan has launched military operation
codenamed Zarb-e-Azb in Waziristan.
34. (c) The United States has named a mountain in
Antarctica after Indian-American scientist Akhouri
Sinha.
35. (b) A statue of Mahatma Gandhi is planned to be
installed in the Parliament Square in London.
36. (a) Emma Watson, a British actress has been
named as UN Women Goodwill Ambassador.
37. (a) According to the legislation, a child above
the age of 10 years can work under the parents
supervision and above 12 years can work under
contract.
38. (d) Japans Nuclear Regulation Authority has
given nod to restart the Sendai nuclear plant which
was temporarily closed after Fukushima disaster.
39. (b) Green Climate Fund is a mechanism to transfer
money from the developed nations to the developing
countries, so that they can tackle climate changes.
India in Major Economies Forum (MEF), urged rich
countries to make the initiative successful by their
help.
40. (a) New Zealand got first rank in the Social
Progress Indicator (SPI)-2014 followed by
Switzerland and Iceland.
41. (c) Lithuania will become the 19th member of
Eurozone in January next year. Estonia and Latvia
are already the members of Eurozone.
42. (c) Joko Widodo defeated Prabowo Subianto to
win the presidential election in Indonesia.
43. (b) Faud Masum, a Kurdish, became the new
President of Iraq.
44. (b) In the first political fallout of the Gaza conflict
for the David Cameron government, foreign office
minister Baroness Warsi resigned.
45. (c) Members of Yazidis (a minority community)
believe in reincarnation. ISIS regards them as devil
worshippers and warned them to convert to Islam.
46. (c) E-mail was invented by an Indian American,
V.A. Shiva Ayyadurai when he was just 14 years
old, in 1978.
47. (c) Recep Tayyip Erdogan was sworn in on 28
August 2014 as 12th President of Turkey. He won
the elections with 51.79 percent of vote.
48. (b) Partnership in Population and Development
(PPD) is an inter-governmental body promoting
South-to-South collaboration in the fields of
reproductive health, population and development.
49. (a) American mathematicians John F. Nash, Jr and
Louis Nirenberg are chosen for the Abel Prize for
2015.
50. (a) The Grand Renaissance Dam is a gravity dam
on the Blue Nile River in Ethiopia currently under
construction. At 6,000 MW, the dam will be the
largest hydroelectric power plant in Africa.
51. (a) The Energy Productivity and Economic
Prosperity Index report ranks countries based on
their economic output per unit of energy consumed.
52. (c) World Wide Fund for Nature flagged off
a campaign called River for Life to protect the
endangered Gangetic River Dolphins.
53. (b) China is the worlds largest producer of the
hydroelectric power.
54. (b) The International Year of Soils, 2015 (IYS
2015) was declared by the Sixty-eighth session of
the United Nations General Assembly on December
20, 2013 after recognizing December 5 as World
Soil Day.

55. (c) The third world conference on disaster risk
reduction was held from 14 to 18 March in Sendai
city, Japan. In, 1994 first world conference on
disaster risk reduction was held in Yokohama.
56. (b) Nico Rosberg and Sebastian Vettel came
second and third, respectively.
57. (b) Saudi Arabia emerged as worlds top defence
importer of defence equipment worldwide in 2014
by replacing India.
58. (c) Women have won 63.8 per cent of seats in the
lower house.
59. (a) The framework was approved in 2005, at the
World Conference for disaster reduction in Kobe,
Japan.
60. (b) On March 13, 2015, NASA has launched the
Magnetospheric Multiscale Spacecraft (MMS),
which the first ever spacecraft to study the magnetic
reconnection.
62. (c) The scheme aims to deepen economic
connections between China and rest of the world.
63. (c) Australian researchers have created worlds
first 3D jet engines using 3D printing. The
technology is believed lead to cheaper, lighter and
more fuel-efficient jets.
64. (a) Saudi Arabia along with Gulf Cooperation
Council (GCC) and several other countries have
started military operations against Houthi rebels in
Yemen.
65. (b) Switzerland committed to reduce greenhouse
gas emissions by 50% relative to 1990 levels by
2030.
66. (d) Pohamba was chosen for the prestigious award
for his contribution to boosting governance, media
freedom and human rights in the southern African
country.
Current Affairs || G-19
67. (b) The BRICS summit-2015 will be held in the
Russian city of Ufa in Bashkortostanth.
68. (c) The law will end a rent-a-womb industry that
made the Thailand a top destination for fertility
tourism.
69. (b) Nawshas objective is to defend Christians
and reclaim areas in Ninawa controlled by the IS.
Dwekh Nawsha (The Sacrificers) is also known as
al-Fedayoon.
70. (c) Leaders from Germany, France, Russia
and Ukraine gathered at Minsk and reached an
agreement to end ongoing conflict in Ukraine.
71. (c) Britain became the first country in the world to
allow the creation of so-called three-parent babies
as MPs voted overwhelmingly in favour of the
controversial technique of mitochondrial donation.
72. (b) Operation Inherent Resolve is the United
States military operations in Iraq and Syria against
the Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant.
73. (b) Serena Williams and Novak Djokovic has
have won the womens and mens single titles,
respectively at Australia Open-2015.
74. (b) Carl Djerassi was widely considered the father
of the birth control pill.
75. (c) Zimbabwe president Robert Mugabe has
been appointed as new chairman of the 54-nations
African Union.
76. (b) Dubai International Airport has overtaken
Londons Heathrow airport as the worlds busiest
airport for international traffic.
77. (b) It will yield an unprecedented three-
dimensional view of Arctic and Antarctic ice sheets,
ice shelves and sea ice.
78. (b) Nancie Atwell, a teacher at the Centre for
Teaching and Learning in Edgecomb, Maine, US,
has been named as the first winner of the one million
dollar global teacher prize.
G-20 || Economic

3 Economic

1. Government of India has signed a loan
agreement for Karnataka Integrated Urban Water
Management Investment Program (KIUWMIP)
with which of the following institutions?
(a) World Bank
(b) Asian Development Bank
(c) New Development Bank
(d) UNDP
2. Who among the following has been appointed
as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of NITI
Aayog?
(a) Arvind Panagariya million with Asian Development Bank (ADB) to
(b) Sindhushree Khullar
(c) Anil Sinha following states?
(d) S C Sinha
3. Which among the following companies has
agreed to pay USD 70 million in fines to the
US authorities for failing to report safety issues
involving its cars?
(a) Mitsubishi (b) Toyota
(c) Chevrolet (d) Honda
4. Which bank has launched countrys first
contactless debit and credit cards?
(a) ICICI Bank (a) State Bank of India
(b) HDFC Bank
(c) State Bank of India (c) Bank of Baroda
(d) Punjab National Bank
5. Which among the below states has been awarded
with National e-Governance award 2014-15 for
its best district level initiative in the country?
(a) Gujarat (b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Punjab (d) Madhya Pradesh
6. The World Bank has released report Scaling
the Heights: Social inclusion and sustainable
development for which of the following states?
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim (d) Arunachal Pradesh
7. Which among the following states has been
awarded the 10th national award for excellent
work in Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Gujarat
8. Recently, India has signed loan agreement of $50
boost power generation capacity in which of the
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Tripura
(c) Assam (d) Sikkim
9. Takahiro Hachigo has been appointed as
President and Chief Executive Officer of which
of the following motor company?
(a) Honda (b) Suzuki
(c) Toyota (d) Mitsubishi
10. Which bank has recently signed a Memorandum
of Understanding (MoU) with Indian Army on
the Defence Salary Package?
(b) Punjab National Bank
(d) Allahabad Bank
11. Union Government and the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) have signed an agreement to lower
down inflation rate. What is the target of inflation
rate by January 2016?
(a) 4% (b) 5%
(c) 6% (d) 7%

12. After the revision by the Reserve Bank of India in
March 2015, the new repo rate is
(a) 7% (b) 7.25%
(c) 7.5% (d) 7.75%
13. Sunil Sabharwal is associated which of the
following international organizations?
(a) World Trade Organization (WTO) 22. Which of the following bank has launched
(b) World Bank
(c) World Health Organization (WHO)
(d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
14. Who has been appointed as the Managing
Director of Renault Nissan Automotive India?
(a) Toshihiko Sano (b) Colin Macdonald
(c) Carlos Ghosn (d) Akirai Sakurai
15. India has recently signed a Memorandum of
Understanding in the field of textile and clothing
with which of the following countries?
(a) Kazakhstan (b) Turkmenistan
(c) Kyrgyzstan (d) Belarus
16. Ashu Suyash has been appointed as the Managing
Director of
(a) SEBI (b) BSE
(c) CRISIL (d) CIBIL
17. Recently, the Reserve Bank of India has signed a
USD 400 million currency swap agreement with
the
(a) Central Bank of Sri Lanka
(b) Central Bank of Myanmar
(c) Bank of Korea
(d) Bank of Japan
18. Union Ministry of Railways has constituted
a committee to review the Public-Private
Partnership (PPP) cell in the railway board under
the chairmanship of
(a) Ajay Shankar (b) S. Jaishankar
(c) Pramod Asthana (d) Anil Baijal
19. Basel III norms are related with which of the
following sectors?
(a) Banking (b) Insurance
(c) software (d) Agriculture
20. Subhash Chandra Garg has been appointed as the
(a) Executive Director in World Bank
(b) Executive Director in IMF
(c) Executive Director in UNDP
(d) Executive Director in WTO
Current Affairs || G-21
21. Who among the following has been appointed as
Chief Economic Adviser of India?
(a) H R Khan
(b) Urjit Patel
(c) Arvind Subramanian
(d) SS Mundra
e-mandate service?
(a) ICICI Bank (b) Corporation Bank
(c) Vijaya Bank (d) Bank of India
23. Who among the following has been rated as No.1
on Forbes list of Worlds most powerful people?
(a) Barack Obama (b) Vladimir Putin
(c) Satya Nadella (d) Bill Gates
24. The Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)
has recently cleared 74% foreign holding in
which of the following bank?
(a) Yes Bank (b) Axis Bank
(c) ICICI (d) HDFC
25. Recently, India has signed a deal on the issue of
public stock holdings of foodgrains for security
with the
(a) European Union
(b) World Trade Organization
(c) World Bank
(d) World Health Organization
26. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) as
recently commissioned 28 MW Nyaborongo
Hydro Electric Project. The project is located in
(a) South Sudan (b) Botswana
(c) Rwanda (d) Gambia
27. Which among the following e-commerce
companies has tied up with India Post to facilitate
weavers and artisans of Varanasi to sell their
product through its website?
(a) Flipkart (b) Snapdeal
(c) Amazon (d) HomeShop18
28. Which among the following e-commerce
companies has launched Agristore ?
(a) Flipkart (b) Snapdeal
(c) Amazon (d) HomeShop18
29. The bank to launch video branch is?
(a) HSBC (b) ICICI
(c) IndusInd (d) Yes Bank
G-22 || Economic
30. The Special Investigation Team on black money
has been formed under the chairmanship of?
(a) Justice Ganguly (b) Justice Pasayat
(c) Justice Shah (d) Justice Khehar
31. SBIINTOUCH launched by State Bank of India
relates to
(a) ATM services (c) Mysore (d) Kochi
(b) digital branches
(c) infrastructure loans
(d) home loans
32. The Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) cap in
defence sector has been increased to?
(a) 26% (b) 33%
(c) 49% (d) 51%
33. Jal Marg Vikas, an Inland Navigation project on
Ganges is to be developed between:
(a) Haridwar-Patna (b) Allahabad-Haldia
(c) Kanpur-Haldia (d) Allahabad-Patna
34. Technical Education Quality Improvement
Programme (TEQIP) Phase II, a four-year
programme, is currently being implemented with
the assistance of?
(a) World Bank
(b) UNESCO
(c) Asian Development Bank
(d) Japan under ODA
35. Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL) is a
(a) Maharatna company
(b) Navratna company
(c) Miniratna company
(d) None of the above
36. How much was the Foreign reserves of India, as
on August 1st, 2014?
(a) 319.9 bn US$ (b) 321.4 bn US$
(c) 323.5 bn US$ (d) 318.7 bn US$
37. Which of the following pact is on track between
India and Japan?
(a) Automobile SEZ Pact
(b) Nuclear Pact
(c) Aviation SEZ Pact
(d) GM crop Pact
38. Recently, a new term Fragile Five is being
used to describe countries that have witnessed
economic turmoil in recent years. Which of the
following is not included in the list?
(a) Brazil (b) India
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Turkey
39. The Union government has recently given its
approval for setting up the first ESDM (electronic
system design and manufacturing) in which city?
(a) Chennai (b) Bangalore
40. Who among the following is the chairman of the
recently constituted 7th Pay Commission?
(a) Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur
(b) Dr Rathin Roy
(c) Justice B.N.Srikrishna
(d) C. Rangarajan
41. How many Mega food parks were approved by
union government for food processing across the
country in 2015?
(a) 15 (b) 16
(c) 17 (d) 18
42. Name the Bank that was launched by PM
Narendra Modi on 8th Apr15 with a corpus of
` 20,000 Crore and credit guarantee corpus of
` 3,000 Crore?
(a) Awasiya Bank
(b) Jand Dhan Bank
(c) Federal Bank of India
(d) MUDRA Bank
43. Name the portal launched by the Government
on 6th Apr15 to improve vocational training
delivery in the country?
(a) Vocational Management information system
(b) National Management information system
(c) Training Management information system
(d) National Council for vocational training-
Management information system
44. In how many districts of the country will the
government will implement the first phase of the
Universal Immunization programme Mission
Indradhanush from 7th Apr15?
(a) 75 (b) 201
(c) 290 (d) 156
45. China has expressed its readiness to work with
India to link its ambitious Maritime Silk Road
plans with Indias ______ Project.
(a) Udaan (b) Bullet Train
(c) Indradhanush (d) Mausam

46. Which state has achieved 100 percent success
in implementing ambitious Pradhan Mantri Jan
Dhan Yojna?
(a) Gujarat (b) Assam
(c) Kerala (d) Bihar
47. Name the country that has not followed the UK in
joining the China-sponsored Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank?
(a) France (b) Germany
(c) Italy (d) Syria
48. Name the organization that has developed a
Flood Hazard Atlas by mapping flood prone and
vulnerable areas?
(a) FAO (b) FICCI
(c) ICAR (d) ISRO
49. Which state has inaugurated the very first water
ATM in the state?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Rajasthan
50. Which High Court became the first court in India
to set up commercial courts on 25th Mar15for
speedy disposal of cases on 25th Mar15?
(a) Kerala High Court
(b) Allahabad High Court
(c) Delhi High Court
(d) ujarat High Court
51. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revised
regulations for _____ lenders by directing them
to get themselves rated by March 2016.
(a) Non-Banking finance
(b) Core-banking
(c) Stock
(d) Home based
52. Name the platform launched by the government
in association with social networking service
Twitter to facilitate direct communication
between leaders, government agencies and
citizens?
(a) Pragati (b) Twitter Samadhan
(c) Twitter Samvad (d) Social Samvad
53. Which country overtook United States to become
the third-largest steel producer in the world with
a production of 14.56 million tonnes (MT) in first
two months of the year 2015?
(a) India (b) China
(c) Japan (d) Australia
Current Affairs || G-23
54. Name the scheme that has been launched by
the government for redressal of grievances of
consumers relating to pricing and availability of
medicines?
(a) Ausadhi Samadhan Scheme
(b) Pharma Redressal Scheme
(c) Pharma Jan Samadhan Scheme
(d) None of these
55. How many Central Public Sector Enterprises
(CPSEs) have been decided to be closed down by
the Union Cabinet?
(a) 10 (b) 9
(c) 8 (d) 7
56. Name the commission that has recommended
increasing states share in the centres tax revenue
to 42% from current 32%?
(a) Y.V. Reddy Commission
(b) Justice C Rangarajan Commssion
(c) Bajpai Panel
(d) Bimal Jalan Committee
57. What is the new rate of Service Tax as per Budget
2015-16?
(a) 13% (b) 14%
(c) 13.5% (d) 14.5%
58. What type of tax has been abolished with a CESS
in this budget 2015-16?
(a) Entertainment Tax (b) Income Tax
(c) Transaction Tax (d) Wealth Tax
59. To which country India has offered a fresh 1
billion dollar line of credit for the development
of the countrys road, communication and
infrastructure?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal (d) Bangladesh
60. In which of the following launched the first of its
kind green project launched first of its kind green
project to generate 120 MW power?.
(a) Tisco(Tata Steel Limited)
(b) RINL(Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited
(c) SAIL(Steel Authority of India Ltd)
(d) Mahamaya Steels Industries Ltd
61. Nine organic and exotic agricultural products
from Northeast India were accorded geographical
indication (GI) registration tag. Which of the
following is not among them?
G-24 || Economic
(a) Mizoram Bird Eye Chilly.
(b) Assam Tezpur Tea
(c) Meghalaya Khasi Mandarin
(d) Sikkim Large Cardamom.
62. India and Kyrgyzstan on 17 March 2015 signed
an MoU to strengthen bilateral cooperation on
______ .
(a) Textile and Clothing.
(b) Gems and Jewellery
(c) Petroleum
(d) Gas
63. For which crop,has the Central Government has
asked to relax quality norms for procurement on
7th Apr15?
(a) Wheat (b) Maize
(c) Pulses (d) Rice
64. The Current CRR is ______.
(a) 7% (b) 6%
(c) 5% (d) 4%
65. In which of the following states, the was the first
Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet and
Expo (Re-Invest) 2015 was inaugurated ?
(a) Mumbai (b) New Delhi
(c) Chennai (d) Kolkata
66. Which of the following banks launched Indias
first digital bank Pockets .?
(a) HDFC (b) ICICI
(c) IDBI (d) SBI
67. The U.S. Chamber of Commerces Global
Intellectual Property CenterCentre (GIPC) has
released its third annual international intellectual
property (IP) index list.What is Indias rank
among them?
(a) 29th (b) 28th
(c) 30th (d) 35th
 Current Affairs || G-25

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 10. (a) 19. (a) 28. (a) 37. (b) 46. (b) 55. (d) 64. (d)
2. (b) 11. (c) 20. (a) 29. (c) 38. (c) 47. (d) 56. (a) 65. (b)
3. (d) 12. (c) 21. (c) 30. (c) 39. (b) 48. (d) 57. (b) 66. (b)
4. (a) 13. (d) 22. (b) 31. (b) 40. (a) 49. (a) 58. (d) 67. (a)
5. (b) 14. (b) 23. (b) 32. (c) 41. (c) 50. (c) 59. (d)
6. (b) 15. (c) 24. (d) 33. (b) 42. (d) 51. (a) 60. (b)
7. (c) 16. (c) 25. (b) 34. (a) 43. (d) 52. (c) 61. (b)
8. (c) 17. (a) 26. (c) 35. (b) 44. (b) 53. (a) 62. (a)
9. (a) 18. (a) 27. (b) 36. (a) 45. (d) 54. (c) 63. (a)

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Union Government has signed a loan
agreement with the Asian Development Bank
(ADB) for 75 million dollar and 1.8 million dollar
grant for KIUWMIP.
2. (b) Sindhushree Khullar has been appointed as the
Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of NITI Aayog on
January 10, 2015.
3. (d) Japanese automaker Honda has agreed to pay
USD 70 million in fines as it failed to report more
than 1,700 death and injury claims involving its cars
between July 2003 and June 2014.
4. (a) ICICI Banks contactless debit and credit
cards will provide its customers to make electronic
payments by waving the cards near the merchant
terminal instead of dipping or swiping.
5. (b) Department of Administrative Reforms
selected Jammu & Kashmir for this award due to its
successful e-Panchayat project.
6. (b) The report reveals that Himachal Pradesh has
been able to balance economic growth with social
inclusion.
7. (c) Madhya Pradesh has been honoured with the
award for convergence of MGNREGA scheme
with other schemes, which led to construction
of permanent assets alongwith employment
opportunities.
8. (c) The loan amount provided by ADB will
help Assam to increase the power generation and
improve distribution system.
9. (a) Takahiro Hachigo has replaced Takanobu Ito to
become new President and CEO of Honda. Before
this, he was Managing Officer of Honda Motor Co.
10. (a) SBI signed an MoU with the Indian Army
which revised its first MoU which was signed in
2011. This will benefit 19.5 lakh army pensioners
and 10 lakh serving personnel in army.
11. (c) The government has set a target for RBI to
bring down inflation below 6 percent by January
2016 and to 4 percent for financial year 2015-16.
12. (c) The central bank has reduced the repo rate by
25 basis point to 7.5% from 7.75%. Reverse repo
rate is 6.5%.
13. (d) Sunil Sabharwal has been re-nominated as
Alternate Executive Director at IMF. He was
holding this position since April 2014.
14. (b) Colin Macdonald has been appointed as the
Managing Director of Renault Nissan Automotive
India. He will replace Toshihiko Sano.
15. (c) India has signed MoU with Kyrgyzstan in the
three fields. These include Textiles and Clothing,
Silk and Sericulture and Fashion.
16. (c) Ashu Suyash has been appointed as Chief
Executive Officer (CEO) and Managing Director of
CRISIL. CRISIL is the largest credit rating agency
in India.
17. (a) The swap agreement between the RBI and the
Central Bank of Sri Lanka seeks to bring in more
financial stability. It has been signed for three years.
G-26 || Economic
18. (a) The committee will look into the functioning
of the cell and will suggest changes to make it more
efficient, effective and result-oriented.
19. (a) RBI recently revised and issued the final
guidelines to implement Basel III capital norms.
20. (a) Subhash Chandra Garg, a senior IAS officer
has been appointed as the Executive Director in
World Bank.
21. (c) US based economist Arvind Subramanian has
been selected as chief economic adviser.
22. (b) Corporation Bank launched e-mandate service
to offer large numbers of repetitive payments and
thus eliminating post-dated cheques.
23. (b) Vladimir Putin topped the list followed by
Barack Obama.
24. (d) Banks can have upto 49% foreign investment
without regulatory approval, but above that the
banks require approval from RBI and FIPB.
25. (b) The deal is expected to pave a way for
negotiations on Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA)
of World Trade Organization.
26. (c) BHEL has commissioned Nyaborongo Hydro
Electric Project in Rwanda, an East-African country.
27. (b) Snapdeal and India Post have partnered to
jointly work on bringing thousand of weavers and
artisans of Varanasi on e-commerce platform.
28. (a) Agri Store, an online store launched by
Flipkart will offer products such as seeds, fertilizers,
irrigation tools etc.
29. (c) IndusInd Bank launched a customer-centric
service video Branch. This enables a customer to
do a video conference with the bank staff.
30. (c) The SIT on black money held its first meeting
under the chairmanship of Justice Shah on 2nd June.
31. (b) SBI, under SBIINTOUCH, has launched six
digital branches across the country to provide next
generation banking solutions.
32. (c) The union government in its budget proposed
to hike the FDI cap in defence and insurance to 49%
from 26%.
33. (b) ` 4200 crore has been allocated for Jal Marg
Vikas project on river Ganga between Allahabad
and Haldia.
34. (a) TEQIP is a programme to improve technical
education in the country and is being implemented
with the help of the World Bank
35. (b) The government is planning to start
disinvestment process in Navratna status company
Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL).
36. (a) After rising for eight consecutive weeks,
Indias foreign exchange reserves declined by $
573.5 million to $ 319.99 billion in the week to
August 1 on the back of a major drop in foreign
currency assets.
37. (b) India and Japan are looking at a special
arrangement to reconcile the differences over the
non-proliferation issue in a bid to seal a Nuclear
pact.
38. (c) Fragile Five countries are Turkey, Brazil,
India, South Africa and Indonesia. The term is
coined by a research analyst Morgan Stanleywho
identifies that these countries have become too
dependent on skittish foreign investment to finance
their growth ambitions.
39. (b) ESDM is the fastest growing segment of the
Information and Communications Technology
(ICT) and is projected to be a $400 billion industry
by the end of this decade.
40. (a) Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur former
Supreme Court Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur has
been appointed as the Chairman of the 7th Pay
Commission.
41. (c) Union Government has approved 17 mega
food parks for food processing across the country.
The scheme aims at facilitating the establishment of
a strong food processing industry in the country.
42. (d) MUDRA is abbreviated as Micro Units
Development and Refinance Agency Ltd. It is set
up through a statutory enactment, and is responsible
for developing and refinancing all Micro-finance
Institutions which are in the business of lending to
micro and small business entities.
43. (d) National Council for vocational training-
Management information system.
44. (b) These districts have been selected under the
programme, keeping in view that nearly 50 per cent
of all un-vaccinated or partially vaccinated children
are in these 201 districts.
45. (d) One of the main deliverables of Mausam
project is nomination of maritime cultural landscapes
across the Indian Ocean as a trans-national property
on the World Heritage List of UNESCO.
46. (b) As per the statement made by Officials of the
State Bank of India, all the districts have able to
open at least one bank account of every household
under the scheme.

48. (d) Flood Hazard Atlas will help people know the
level of water flow through early warning system.
49. (a) This ATM is attached to Reverse Osmosis
plant and the consumers can get 20 literslitters of
water for just Rs. 2. This will help solve the water
crisis in Sonkh town in Mathura district, where it is
launched..
52. (c) The service was launched by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi during afterhis meeting with Twitter
Chief Executive Dick Costolo in New Delhi.
53. (a) Now India is behind China and Japan.
54. (c) It is a web-enabled system created by National
Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA).
55. (d) The Seven CPSEs are HMT Bearings, HMT
Watches, HMT Chinnar Watches, Tungabhadra Steel
Products, Hindustan Photo Films Manufacturing
Co., Hindustan Cables and Spices Trading
Corporation Ltd.
Current Affairs || G-27
58. (d) Wealth tax has been replaced with a 2% cess
on super rich individuals
60. (b) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL) the
corporate entity of Vizag Steel Plant (VSP) on 31
March 2015 launched novel green project that can
generate 120 MW power.
61. (b) Assam Tezpur Tea is not among them.
63. (a) If quality of wheat is affected due to unseasonal
rains or any other reason, relaxation in the norms is
considered.
65. (b) Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated
the first Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet
and Expo (Re-Invest) 2015 in New Delhi.
66. (b) The Industrial Credit and Investment
Corporation of India (ICICI) Bank, has launched
Indias first digital Bank on mobile phones, Pockets.
G-28 || Awards and Honours
4 Awards and Honours
1. Who won the best film award in 87th Academy
Award ?
(a) The Theory of Everything
(b) Birdman
(c) The Kings Speech
(d) Still Alice
2. Who was conferred with Nayudamma Award
2014 ?
(a) Dr. Tessy Thomas (b) Geeta Varadan
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Dr. Vandana Shiva
3. Who of the following was awarded with Yash
Bharti Samman 2015 ?
(a) D.R. Mehta (b) Vinod Mehta
(c) Vijay Yadav (d) Zubin Mehta
4. Who was selected for Jnanpith Award 2014 ?
(a) Bhalchandra Nemade (c) Devendra Kumar (d) Devesh Kumar
(b) Ashok Sen
(c) Pradeep Saurabh (a) Resham Fatma (b) Gunjan Sharma
(d) Narendra Kohli
5. Who won the best film award in 60th Filmfare
Awards ?
(a) Queen (b) Haider
(c) Highway (d) PK
6. Who won the 10th National Award for excellent
work in MGNREGA ?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Gujrat
7. Who awarded with Shrilal Shukla Sahitya IFFCO
award 2014 ?
(a) Gurpreet Singh (b) Mithileshwar
(c) U.K. Mishra (d) Sudha Sharma
8. Indians, who have won the 57th Grammy Awards ?
(a) Ricky Kej (b) Neela Vaswani
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Manjula Mridul
9. Who awarded with Ashok Chakra ?
(a) Narindar Singh Saini
(b) R.S. Arora
(c) Chauthiram Yadav
(d) Mukund Varadarajan
10. Who crowned as Miss Universe 2014 ?
(a) Yu Venesia (b) Paulina Vega
(c) Gabriela Isler (d) Diana Harkusha
11. Which of the following were conferred with
National Bravery Award ?
(a) 8 girls and 16 boys
(b) 10 girls and 14 boys
(c) 6 girls and 18 boys
(d) 4 girls and 20 boys
12. Who conferred with Sanjay Chopra Award ?
(a) Ravish Kumar (b) Darmendra Kumar
13. Who conferred with Geeta Chopra Award ?
(c) Manjula Bansal (d) Ripa Das
14. In 21st screen awards, who won the Best Actress
Award ?
(a) Vidya Balan (b) Usha Jadhav
(c) Kangana Ranaut (d) Priyanka Chopra
15. Who was conferred with Giraffe Hero Award
2015 ?
(a) K.C. Abraham
(b) Vinod Rai
(c) Subhash Chandra Agrawal
(d) Pratap Singh Patwal
16. Who named as the winner of Sahitya Akademi
Award 2014 for Sanskrit language ?
(a) Prabhu Nath Dwivedi
(b) Budhi Nath Mishra
(c) Prabodh Nath Sharma
(d) Prakash Mishra

17. The 2015 Space Pioneer Award won by-
(a) The Mars Orbiter Mission Team
(b) The Chandrayan Mission Team
(c) Agni-5 Missile Team
(d) GSLV MK-III Team
18. Governor of the Year Award received by-
(a) Claudio Borio
(b) Raghuram Rajan
(c) Jacques de Larosiere
(d) Tabare Vazquez
19. Who was selected for Vikram Sarabhai Memorial
Award 2015 ?
(a) Tessi Thamos (b) Dr. Sudha Sharma
(c) Mrs Prasad (d) K. Radhakrishnan
20. Who of the following was honoured with Yash
Chopra Memorial Award ?
(a) Lata Mangeshkar (b) Amitabh Bachchan
(c) Dharmendra (d) Dileep Kumar
21. Who was honoured with Bharat Ratna awards ?
(a) Amitabh Bachchan
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpei
(c) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(d) (b) and (c) Both
22. The company who won seven awards at the CIO
choice Honour and Recognition 2015 ?
(a) Tata Telicommunication
(b) Infosys
(c) Wipro
(d) Bharti Group
23. Who was honoured with Doctorate of Automotive
Engineering by the Clemson University ?
(a) Ratan Tata (b) Sunil Mittal
(c) Mukesh Ambani (d) Narayan Murti
24. Who conferred with Indian Film personality of
the year 2014 award ?
(a) Rajnikanth (b) Amitabh Bachchan
(c) Dileep Kumar (d) Shahrukh Khan
25. Who was conferred with the Indira Gandhi Prize
for peace, disarmament and development for
2014 ?
(a) Ela Bhatt (a) Manjula Srinivasan
(b) Angela Merkel
(c) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf (c) Chandraprabha Bokey
(d) ISRO
Current Affairs || G-29
26. International childrens peace prize 2014 was
won by
(a) C.S. Verma (b) Neha Gupta
(c) Sonali Patel (d) Sweta Mukherjee
27. Who was honoured with The Grand Cordon of
the Order of the Paulownia Flowers 2014. ?
(a) Narendra Modi (b) Ratan Tata
(c) Manmohan Singh (d) Pranab Mukherjee
28. Who won the Nobel Prize 2014 for Economics ?
(a) Jean Tirole (b) Patrick Modiano
(c) John O Keefe (d) Stefan W. Hell
29. Nobel Peace Prize 2014 won by
(a) Patrick Modiano (b) Kailash Satyarthi
(c) Malala Yoosafzai (d) Both (b) and (c)
30. Sakharov human rights prize 2014 won by
(a) Adam Johnson (b) Denis Mukwege
(c) Anna Hazare (d) David Barboza
31. World Food Prize 2014 won by
(a) Sanjay Rajaram (b) Vivek Murthi
(c) Alisher Usmanov (d) Pierre Deligne
32. Man Booker Prize 2014 won by
(a) Lydia Davis (b) Philip Roth
(c) Richard Flanagan (d) Hilary Mantel
33. Who announced first ever Dadabhai Naoroji
Awards ?
(a) India (b) Pakistan
(c) Bangladesh (d) U.K.
34. Who crowned Miss World 2014 ?
(a) Yu Venesia (b) Rolene Strauss
(c) Edina Kulcsar (d) Elizabeth Safrit
35. Colonel C.K. Nayudu Lifetime achievement
award received by -
(a) Sunil Gavaskar (b) Kapil Dev
(c) Dilip Vengsarkar (d) Chetan Sharma
36. Who Selected for Saraswati Samman 2014 ?
(a) Veerappa Moily (b) Narendra Kohali
(c) Ramdarash Mishra (d) Sugatha Kumari
37. Who of the following was awarded with Rani
Lakshmibai Award ?
(a) Geeta Chandran (b) Neeta Chaudhary
(c) Seema Prakash (d) Sudha Sharma
38. Who of the following was awarded with Mata
Jijabai Award?
(b) P. Bhanumati
(d) Aparajita Datta
G-30 || Awards and Honours
39. Who awarded by National Institute of Gender
Justice for representing the cause of women ?
(a) Arpana Sen (b) Priti Patel
(c) Ravina Tandon (d) Rani Mukharji
40. In the 87th Oscar Awards who won the Best Actor
Award ?
(a) J.K. Simmone for the best feature-length film at the 65th Berlin
(b) Edward Snoden
(c) Alexander Dinelaris (a) Dhanak (b) Kanak
(d) Eddie Redmayne
41. Who was selected for G.K. Reddy Memorial
Award 2014?
(a) Pankaj Subir (b) Vinod Mehta
(c) Zubin Mehta (d) Shekhar Joshi
42. Who won the Shakti Bhatt First Book Prie 2014 ?
(a) Bilal Tanweer (b) Pankaj Subir
(c) S. Janaki (d) Illa Bhatt
43. Prabhu Nath Dwivedi has been conferred
prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award 2014 in
which of the following languages?
(a) Hindi (b) Urdu
(c) Marathi (d) Sanskrit
44. Who is the winner of inaugural Khushwant Singh
Memorial Prize for poetry?
(a) Sridala Swamy
(b) Arundhathi Subramaniam
(c) Joy Goswami
(d) Ranjit Hoskote
45. Who among the following has been selected for
the Jnanpith Award 2014?
(a) Rabindra Sarkar Booker Prize for which of the following book?
(b) M. N. Paloor
(c) Satish Kalsekar (b) A Life Apart
(d) Bhalchandra Nemade
46. Ricky Keg won Grammy Award under the
category of Best New Age Album for which of
his album?
(a) Ballad of Maya
(b) Urban Grooves South India
(c) Winds of Samsara
(d) Punjabi in the Club
47. Which university has been chosen for Mahindra
Samridhi India Agri Award 2015?
(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural
University, Hisar
(b) Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana
(c) Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New
Delhi
(d) Anand Agricultural University, anand
48. Which film has been honoured with The Grand
Prix of the Generation Kplus International Jury
International Film Festival?
(c) Manak (d) Raunak
49. Which one of the following organizations has
been awarded Gandhi Peace Prize 2014?
(a) Bachpan Bachao Andolan
(b) ISRO
(c) BARC
(d) Grameen Bank
50. Madhav Gadgil is a winner of Tyler Prize 2015.
He is a well known
(a) Physicist (b) Satirist
(c) Ecologist (d) Violinist
51. Which amongst the following countries has won
Women in Parliament Award by World Economic
Forum?
(a) Bangladesh (b) Bhutan
(c) Malaysia (d) Indonesia
52. Milky Way is part of the supercluster which is
named as
(a) Laniakea (b) Perseus-Pisces
(c) Shapley (d) Coma
53. Neel Mukherjee has been shortlisted for Man
(a) Past Continuous
(c) The Lives of Others
(d) None of these
54. Govind Misra has been awarded with Saraswati
Samman- 2013 for his novel titled as
(a) Kohre Mein Kaid Rang
(b) Paanch Aangano Wala Ghar
(c) Biyanba Mein Bahar
(d) Dhool Paudhon Par
55. Patrick Madiano has been awarded with Nobel
Prize in which of the following category?
(a) Medicine (b) Economics
(c) Physics (d) Literature

56. Jean Tirole has won Nobel Prize in which of the
below category?
(a) Literature (b) Physics
(c) Chemistry (d) Economics
57. Recently, Madhav Sharma has been hounoured
with which of the following award by the UK
government?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi Award
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji Award
(c) Nelson Mandela Award
(d) Mother Teresa Award
58. C.K. Nayudu award is associated with which of
the following games?
(a) Cricket (b) Football
(c) Hockey (d) Volleyball
59. Which of the following organization has been
chosen for the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace,
Disarmament and Development for the year
2014?
(a) ONGC (b) ISRO
(c) UNDP (d) BARC
60. Who has been chosen for the World Food Prize
this year?
(a) Sanjaya Rajaram (a) Mukul Pathak (b) Sanjay Barua
(b) Ashok Gulati
(c) Siddharth Mukherjee
(d) G. Venkatraman
61. Who is named as the winner of Pen Pinter Prize?
(a) Salman Rushdie (b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Anita Desai (d) Khushwant Singh
62. Who has been chosen for the Jnanpith Award
2013?
(a) Mridula Garg (b) Kashinath Singh
(c) Kedarnath Singh (d) Sri Lal Sukla
63. James Rodriguez has been awarded with which
award in the Football World Cup, 2014?
(a) Golden Ball
(b) Golden Boot
(c) Golden Glove
(d) Young player of the tournament
Current Affairs || G-31
64. Who has been honoured with the Gandhi Peace
Prize this year?
(a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
(b) Medha Patker
(c) Pamposh Bhat
(d) Sanjeev Sanyal
65. Nikhil Srivastava who has been recently declared
as the joint winner of the prestigious George
Polya Award is a/an
(a) Physicist (b) Biologist
(c) Mathematician (d) Social Scientist
66. The Citizens foundation, an organisation which
has been honoured with the Ramon Magsasay
Award this year belongs to which country?
(a) Myanmar (b) Srilanka
(c) Afghanistan (d) Pakistan
67. Which of the following received the outstanding
Parliamentarian Award for the year 2010?
(a) Sharad Yadav. (b) Karan singh
(c) Arun Jaitley (d) Jaswant Singh
68. Which of the following received the Fields
medal (Nobel Prize of Mathematics) 2014?
(c) Manjul Bhargava (d) Srikant Kheda
69. Who has been awarded the highest peace time
gallantry award Ashoka Chakra on 15th August
2014?
(a) Major Mukund Varadarajan
(b) Sepoy Vikram
(c) Lt. Manoran kumar
(d) Lt. Kapish singh
70. Identify the Legendary Actor and Director, who
directed the movie Gandhi for which he won
Academy Award, recently passes away?
(a) Steven Speilberg
(b) Martin Scorsese
(c) Alfred Hitchcock
(d) Richard Attenborough
G-32 || Awards and Honours

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (a) 21. (d) 31. (a) 41. (b) 51. (a) 61. (a)
2. (c) 12. (d) 22. (c) 32. (c) 42. (a) 52. (a) 62. (c)
3. (b) 13. (b) 23. (a) 33. (d) 43. (d) 53. (c) 63. (b)
4. (a) 14. (d) 24. (a) 34. (b) 44. (b) 54. (d) 64. (a)
5. (a) 15. (c) 25. (d) 35. (c) 45. (d) 55. (d) 65. (c)
6. (b) 16. (a) 26. (b) 36. (a) 46. (c) 56. (d) 66. (d)
7. (b) 17. (a) 27. (c) 37. (c) 47. (a) 57. (b) 67. (c)
8. (c) 18. (b) 28. (a) 38. (c) 48. (a) 58. (a) 68. (c)
9. (d) 19. (c) 29. (d) 39. (d) 49. (b) 59. (c) 69. (a)
10. (b) 20. (b) 30. (b) 40. (d) 50. (c) 60. (a) 70. (d)

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) 87th Academy Award popularly called Oscar
Awards was conferred on 22 February 2015 at
the Dolby theatre in Los Angeles. The best film
award was won by Birdman directed by Alejandro
Gonzalez Inarritu. The Oscar Awards for the year
2015 were presented by the Academy of Motion
Picture Arts and Science (AMPAS) in 24 categories.
2. (c) Women Scientists Dr. Tessy Thomas and
Geeta Varadan on 15 February 2015 were jointly
named for Dr. Y. Nayudamma Memorial Award
2014. They have been chosen for the award for their
outstanding performance in the field of Science
and Technology. This is the first time in the history
of the trust that two eminent women scientists are
being concurrently honoured.
3. (b) Journalist Vinod Mehta was awarded with
the Yash Bharti Samman 2015 by Uttar Pradesh
Government. Vinod Mehta has launched a number
of successful publications such as the Sunday
observer, Indian post, The Independent, The Pioneer
and Outlook. He has authored a biography of Meena
Kumari (actress) and Sanjay Gandhi.
4. (a) Eminent Marathi writer Bhalchandra Nemade
on 6 February 2015 was chosen for the Jnanpith
Award 2014. He will be the 50th recipient of
Jnanpith award. His novel Kosala (Cocoon)
published in 1963 was not only instrumental in
changing the dimensions of the Marathi novel, but
also the world of Marathi friction was transformed
with its advent. With this award, he will join the
league of three noted Marathi writers who have won
Jnanpith award. Nemades novels among others
include Bidhar, Hool, Jarila, Jhool, etc.
5. (a) 60th Filmfare Awards were announced in
Mumbai. Best film award was given to film Queen
and its Director Vikas Bahl won the Best Director
award. Shahid won the Best Actor award for film
Haider and Kangana Ranaut won the Best Actress
award for film Queen. Kamini Kaushal was
honoured with the Filmfare Lifetime Achievement
Award.
6. (b) Madhya Pradesh won the 10th National Award
for excellent work in MGNREGA. The award was
presented to Madhya Pradesh Panchayats and Rural
Development Minister Gopal Bhargava by union
minister Virendra Singh at the MGNREGA summit
held in New Delhi.
7. (b) Hindi novelish Mithileshwar was awarded on
31 January 2015 with Shrilal Shukla Sahitya IFFCO
Award 2014. He is the fourth recipient of this literary
award. Mithileshwar belongs to Bhojpur district and
is known for his insight into the rural heartland of
India.
8. (c) This year two Indians have won Grammy
awards. They are Ricky Kej and Neela Vaswani.
Ricky Kej won the best new age album trophy for
his collaborated album winds of Samsara. Neela
Vaswani won award in childrens album category for
her album I am Malala : How one Girld Stood UP
For Education And Changed The World.

9. (d) Major Mukund Varadarajan and Naik Neeraj
Kumar Singh were posthumously awarded on 26
January 2015 with the highest peacetime military
honour the Ashok Chakra by president Pranab
Mukherjee. Both the army men sacrificed their
lives while battling groups of militants in separate
operations in Shopian and Kupwara districts of
Jammu and Kashmir.
10. (b) Miss Colombia Paulina Vega was crowned
Miss Universe 2014. She was a 22 year old students
of business, administration from Barranquilla,
Colombia. With this Vega became the second
beauty queen from Colombia to win the title. Luz
Marina Zuluaga was the first Colombian to win the
crown in 1956. The first runner-up was Miss USA
Nia Sanchez and the second runner-up was Miss
Ukraine Diana Harkusha.
11. (a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 24 January
2015 presented National Bravery Awards 2014 to 24
awardees. 8 girls and 16 boys were conferred with
National Bravery Awards. Four of them have been
awarded posthumously.
12. (d) Devesh Kumar was conferred with Sanjay
Chopra Award on 24 January 2015 for his bravery.
13. (b) Gunjan Sharma was conferred with Geeta
Chopra Award on 24 January 2015.
14. (d) 21st screen awards were announced on 15
January 2015 at Mumbai. Priyanka Chopra won best
Actor (female) award for film Mary Kom. Shahid
Kapoor won the best Actor (male) award for Haider.
Best film award was given to film queen. Hema
Malini was honoured with Lifetime Achievement
Award.
15. (c) Indian RTI activist Subhash Chandra Agrawal
was conferred with the Giraffe Hero Award 2015
by a US-based NGO. The Giraffe Heroes project.
Agrawal was awarded for his bravery in utilising
the Right to Information (RTI) Act 2005 for public
good despite innumerable challenges.
16. (a) Eminet Sanskrit Scholar Prabhu Nath Dwivedi
was on 14 January 2015 named as the winner of the
Sahitya Akademi Award 2014 for Sanskrit language.
He was awarded for his work Kanakalochanaha, a
collection of 16 short stories based on various social
issues.
17. (a) The Mars Orbiter Mission Team of Indian
Space Research Organization (ISRO) won the
2015 Space Pioneer Award in the Science and
Current Affairs || G-33
Engineering category. Indias Mars Orbiter Mission
was launched on 5 November 2013 and it reached
the Mars orbit on 24 September 2014. The Indian
spacecraft has gone into orbit around Mars on the
very first attempt and no other country has been able
to do this till now.
18. (b) RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan received the
Governor of the year Award for 2015. The award
recognises the Governor of a Central Bank who has
demonstrated strong leadership during the period
under review. He was awarded for his disciplined
and focused approach to tackling macroeconomic
instability.
19. (c) The director of Satish Dhawan space centre
Sriharikota Range (SHAR) MYS Prasad was
selected for the Vikram Sarabhai memorial award
2015. Prasad was selected for his outstanding
contribution to Research and Development in the
field of space science in his long career at the ISRO.
20. (b) Megastar Amitabh Bachchan was honoured
with the Yash Chopra Memorial Award. Amitabh
Bachchan is the second recipient of the award. The
award was first conferred to melody queen Lata
Mangeshkar in 2013.
21. (d) Former prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpei and
freedom fighter Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
(Posthumously) will receive the Bharat Ratna. The
decision to confer the highest civilian award of the
country was announced by Union Government on 24
December 2014. In 2013 cricketer Sachin Tendulkar
and Scientist CNR Rao were awarded Bharat Ratna
for their contribution in their respective fields.
22. (c) Wipro won seven awards at the third annual
edition of the CIO choice Honour and Recognition
2015. The awards were given to Wipro to recognise
the customer satisfaction and endorsement by
the CIO community. Wipro won the award in the
categories of Managed IT services, Managed
Security Services, Enterprise Infrastructure
Automation Services, Systems Integrator, Network
Maintenance Services, Service Assurance Program
and Application Managed Services.
23. (a) Ratan Tata was honoured on 26 February
2015 with an honorary Doctorate of Automotive
Engineering by the Clemson University at the South
Carolina Automotive summit. He was awarded for
his contribution to the global automotive industry.
G-34 || Awards and Honours
24. (a) Tamil Superstar Rajnikanth was honoured
with the centenary award for Indian film personality
of the year 2014 at the 45th International Film
Festival of India (IFFI).The award consisted of a
cash prize of 10 lakhs rupees, a certificate and the
silver peacock medal. The award for Indian film
personality of the year category was instituted in
2013 to commemorate 100years of Indian cinema.
25. (d) The Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO) was chosen for the Indira Gandhi Prize for
peace, disarmament and development for 2014. The
award will be given to ISRO for its contribution in
strengthening international cooperation in peaceful
use of outer space.
26. (b) Neha Gupta was awarded with the prestigious
international childrens peace prize 2014. Neha an
18 year old Indian American from Philadelphia was
awarded for her work to help orphans in India and
other vulnerable children.
27. (c) Manmohan Singh received the Japans top
national award The Grand Cordon of the Order of
the Paulownia Flowers 2014. He was awarded for
his contribution to the enhancement of relations and
promotion of friendship between Japan and India.
Manmohan Singh became the first Indian to receive
this honour.
28. (a) The Noble prize 2014 for Economics was
awarded to French economist Jean Tirole for his
analysis of market power and regulation.
29. (d) The Nobel Peace Prize 2014 was awarded
jointly to Kailash Satyarthi from India and Malala
Yousafzai from Pakistan for their struggle against
the suppression of children and young people and
for the right of all children to education.
30. (b) Congolese gynaecologist Denis Mukwege
won the prestigious Sakharov human rights prize
2014. He was awarded for his efforts in helping
thousands of gang rape victims in the Democratic
Republic of Congo.
31. (a) Indian Scientist Dr. Sanjay Rajaram received
the World Food Prize 2014 for his scientific research
that led to a prodigious increase in world wheat
production by more than 200 million tons building
upon the successes of the Green Revolution.
32. (c) Australian author Richard Flanagan won
the Man Booker Prize 2014 for his wartime novel
The Narrow Road to the Deep North. Flanagan is
the third Australian to win the prize after Thomas
Keneally and Petercarey.
33. (d) The UK government announced the inaugural
Dadabhai Naoroji Awards to honour individuals
who have worked to strengthen the UK- India
relationship over the years.
34. (b) Miss South Africa Rolene Strauss was crowned
Miss World 2014 at the final of the beauty pageant
held in London. Strauss is a 22 year old fourth
year medical student at university of the Free state.
Indias 21 year old Koyal Rana made it to the top 10
but failed to make it to the top five.
35. (c) Former Indian Cricket Captain Dilip Vengsarkar
received the prestigious BCCI instituted colonel
C.K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award. He
was conferred with the award for his contribution
to Indian cricket. Apart from this, Indian medium
pacer Bhuvneshwar Kumar received the Polly
Umrigar award.
36. (a) Former Union Minister and Senior Congress
leader M.Veerappa Moily on 9 March 2015 was
selected for the prestigious Saraswati Samman 2014
for his Kannada poem Ramayana Mahanveshanam.
In the poem Ramayana Mahanveshanam, Moily
tried to explore the Ramarajya or the true principle
of the ideal state from a secular and modern point of
view in his collection of poems.
37. (c) Seema Prakash of Madhya Pradesh won the
Rani Lakshmibai Award. She awarded working
for the cause of vulnerable and marginalised
communities of Madhya Pradesh since 2000
particularly for the Korku tribe of the state.
38. (c) Chandraprabha Bokey of Maharashtra won
the Mata Jijabai award. She is a social worker
and is working in rural areas since 1960. He field
of work includes empowerment and rehabilitation
of destitute, divorced, disabled women and
rehabilitation of Orphan children.
39. (d) Rani Mukherji is the first ever film personality
to be felicilated with this prestigious award. She
was awarded for creating awareness about child
trafficking in New Delhi.
40. (d) The Oscar Awards for the year 2015 were
presented by the Academy of Motion picture Arts
and Sciences in 24 categories. Eddie Redmayne won
the best Actor award for the Theory of Everything.
41. (b) Vinod Mehta, eminent Journalist and Editorial
chairman of outlook group was selected for GK
Reddy Memorial Award 2014. The award was
announced by the TSR foundation. He was selected
for this award for his outstanding contribution in the
field of Journalism.

42. (a) Lahore based author Bilal Tanweer won the
2014 Shakti Bhatt First Book Prize for his novel The
Scatter Here is Too Great (Random House India).
43. (d) Prabhu Nath Dwivedi has been conferred
prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award 2014 for his
work Kanakalochanaha- a collection of 16 short-
stories based upon various social issues.
44. (b) Arundhathi Subramaniam has received
Khushwant Singh Memorial Prize for poetry for her
work When God is a Traveller.
45. (d) Bhalchandra Nemadeis the 4th Marathi writer
to receive the award. He is the 50th recipient of
Jnanpith award.
46. (c) Winds of Samsara of Ricky Keg was awarded
Grammy Award under the category of Best New
Age Album.
47. (a) Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural
University has been chosen for the award for
its contribution in agricultural development and
productivity through Research and Development.
48. (a) Dhanak which was directed by Nagesh
Kukunoor revolves around the story of brother-
sister living in a village.
49. (b) ISRO has been awarded Gandhi Peace Prize
2014 for boosting development through space
technology and its contribution to the service of the
nation.
50. (c) Madhav Gadgil is an ecologist. He, along
with Jane Lubchenco, has won Tyler Prize 2015 for
Environmental Achievement.
51. (a) Bangladesh has won the award for reducing the
gender gap in political sphere. The Prime Minister,
the Speaker of the Parliament and the leader of the
opposition are all women.
52. (a) Milky Way lies on the far outskirt of Laniakea
near the border of Perseus-Pisces.
53. (c) Neel Mukherjee, now a British resident has
been shortlisted for Man Booker Prize for his book
The Lives of Others.
55. (d) Patrick Madiano who has been hailed as
Marcel Proust of our time has been awarded with
the Nobel Prize for Literature.
56. (d) Jean Tirole has won Nobel Prize for his
analysis of market power and regulation.
Current Affairs || G-35
57. (b) The first ever Dadabhai Naoroji Award for
culture has been given to Madhav Sharma by the
UK government.
58. (a) Dilip Vengsarkar has been honoured with the
C.K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award for
2013-14.
59. (c) ISRO has been chosen for the award for its
contribution in the space technology which will
boost the development of the country.
60. (a) Dr. Sanjaya Rajaram, a plant scientist has been
chosen for the award for his contribution to increase
worlds wheat production.
61. (a) Salman Rushdie has been awarded with
prestigious Pen Pinter Prize named after Harold
Pinter.
62. (c) Kedarnath Singh has been chosen for the
Jnanpith Award 2013. His works include many
poems, essays and stories.
63. (b) James Rodriguez of Colombia was awarded
with the Golden Boot Award for his six goals in the
tournament.
64. (a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt has been awarded with
the Gandhi Peace Prize for his contribution towards
the environment.
65. (c) Nikhil Srivastava has been declared as the
joint winner of the George Polya Award for solving
the Kadison Singer problem.
66. (d) The Pakistani non-government group The
Citizens foundation is among the six winners of the
Ramon Magsasay Award this year.
67. (c) Arun Jaitley received the award for the year
2010 when he was the leader of opposition in Rajya
Sabha.
68. (c) Manjul Bhargava has been awarded Fields
medal 2014 for his work in developing powerful
new methods in the Geometry of numbers.
69. (a) Major Mukund Varadarajan laid down his
life, in a counter terrorist operation, posthumously
awarded Ashoka Chakra.
70. (d) Richard Attenborough was a legendary actor
and director, he dedicated six decades of his life to
the Film Industry.
G-36 || Sports and Games

5 Sports and Games

1. Who won the womens single title of Sydney 9. Who became the first Indian footballer to
International Tennis Tournament ? conferred AFC Hall of Fame award ?
(a) Victoria Azarenka (b) Petra Kvitova (a) Baichung Bhutia (b) Sunil Chhetri
(c) Serena Williams (d) Marion Bartoli (c) Syed Abdul Rahim (d) None of these
2. The name who appointed as head coach of Indias 10. Who appointed as coach of National mens
men football team. Hockey team ?
(a) Stephen Constantine (a) Terry Walsh (b) Anthony Thornton
(b) Steven Gerrad (c) Paul Van Ass (d) Neil Hawgood
(c) Wayne Rooney 11. Who won the womens single of Syed Modi
(d) Juan Roman Grand Prix Gold Badminton Tournament 2015 ?
3. Who set world record by swimming in Antarctic (a) Carolina Marin (b) Saina Nehwal
ocean ? (c) P.V. Sindhu (d) Vang Yihan
(a) Bhakti Sharma (b) Bombayla Devi 12. Who won the mens single title of Sydeny
International Tennis Tournament ?
(c) V.G. Parvati (d) Manna Patel
(a) Roger Federer (b) Milos Raonic
4. Who won the FIFA Ballon dor Award 2014 ?
(c) Andy Murray (d) Viktor Troicki
(a) David Beckham (b) Lionel Messi
13. Who won the National Billiards title for seventh
(c) Manuel Neuer (d) Cristiano Ronaldo
time ?
5. Who was declared player of the series on Border- (a) Ishpreet Singh Chadha
Gavaskar test series 2014-15 ? (b) Pankaj Advani
(a) Nathan Michael Lyon (c) S. Shrikrishna
(b) Virat Kohli (d) None of these
(c) Steven Smith 14. The name of batsman who hit fastest century in
(d) Ryan James Harris one day cricket.
6. Who won the Chennai Open title of Tennis ? (a) AB de Villiers (b) Corey Anderson
(a) Stanislas Wawrinka (c) Misbah. ul. Haq (d) Steven Smith
(b) Sabine Lisicki 15. Who won the womens doubles title of Sydeny
(c) Caroline Wozniacki International Tennis Tournament ?
(d) Marion Bartoli (a) Serena and Venus Williams
7. Who won the mens Hockey Champions Trophy (b) Sania Mirza and Bethanie Mattek Sands
for the year 2014 ? (c) Abigail Spears and Raquel Kopsjones
(a) Australia (b) Germany (d) Bethanie Mattek Sands and Lucie Safarova
(c) India (d) Pakistan 16. Twenty 20 World Cup Cricket 2016 will be held
8. Who won the Deodhar Trophy 201415 ? in.
(a) South zone (b) North zone (a) India (b) Australia
(c) West zone (d) East zone (c) England (d) West Indies

17. Who won the 13th Parsvanath International
Grand Master Chess Tournament ?
(a) Deepan Chakkravarthy (a) Surendra Singh
(b) Alberto David
(c) Abhijeet Gupta (c) Shambu Nath Singh
(d) Andrey Baryshpolets
18. World Bridge Championships 2015 will be held
in
(a) Madrid (b) Delhi
(c) Buenos Aires (d) Chennai
19. ATP World Tennis Championship was won by-
(a) Rafael Nadal
(b) Stanislas Wawarinka
(c) Andy Murray ball of Sean Abbott was
(d) Novak Djokovic
20. Who appointed as ambassador of cricket world
cup 2015 ?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Brett Lee
(c) Sunil Gavaskar (d) Shane Warne
21. Women title of Kabaddi World Cup 2014 was
win by
(a) India (b) Pakistan
(c) Iran (d) Newzealand
22. Name the Cricketer who banned by BCCI from
bowling in competitive cricket ?
(a) Amit Mishra (b) Ashok Dinda
(c) Pradeep Sangwan (d) Pragyan Ojha
23. Who won Gold in Mens 50 metre Rifle prone
event at 58th National Shooting Champions.
(a) Vijay Kumar (b) Hariom Singh
(c) Jeetu Rai (d) Manvinder Singh
24. Who won the London Classic Chess title ?
(a) Michael Adams
(b) Andrey Baryshpolets
(c) Magnus Carlsen Super Series of Badminton ?
(d) Viswanathan Anand
25. Who won 29th Pune International full Marathan ?
(a) Regassa Bezida (b) Teresse
(c) Amos Meindi (d) Herlen Musyoka
26. Who appointed mentor and batting consultant for
IPL Team Kolkata Knight Rider ?
(a) Jacques Kallis (b) Kumar Sangakkara
(c) Graeme Smith (d) Michael Bevan
27. Who win the Blind Cricket World Cup 2014 ?
(a) South Africa (b) Australia
(c) India (d) Pakistan
Current Affairs || G-37
28. Who became first Indian to be elected to ISSF
executive committee ?
(b) Ravinder Singh
(d) Ranaveer Singh
29. Who won Beighton Cup Hockey Tournament ?
(a) Panjab National Bank
(b) Indian Oil
(c) Bharat Petrolium
(d) None of these
30. The Australian cricketer who died after a bouncer
(a) Phillip Hughes (b) Michael Bevan
(c) Corey Anderson (d) Kane Williamson
31. FIDE World Chess Championship 2014 was won
by
(a) Viswanathan Anand
(b) Michael Adams
(c) Magnus Carlsen
(d) Andrey Baryshpolets
32. Davis Cup of Tennis was win by
(a) France (b) Russia
(c) Switzerland (d) USA
33. Who won the 3rd SAFF Womens Championship ?
(a) India (b) Pakistan
(c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal
34. The Tennis player who won the ATP World Tour
Finals was
(a) Roger Federer (b) Novak Djokovic
(c) Rafael Nadal (d) Andy Murray
35. Who won the womens single title of China Open
(a) Akane Yamaguchi (b) Yihan Wang
(c) Nitya Krishinda (d) Saina Nehwal
36. The cricketer who scored the highest ODI score
are
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Virendra Sehwag
(c) Rohit Sharma (d) Corey Anderson
37. Durand Cup 2014 won by-
(a) Salgaocar FC
(b) Pune FC
(c) Mohammedan Sporting Club
(d) ONGC
G-38 || Sports and Games
38. Who won the mens Hockey Test series ?
(a) Germany (b) Australia
(c) Pakistan (d) India
39. Who named as captain of the ICC Test Team of
the year 2014 ?
(a) Kumar Sangakara (b) Angelo Mathews
(c) M.S. Dhoni (d) Michael Clark
40. Who won the LG Peoples Choice Awards 2014 ?
(a) M.S. Dhoni (c) Simone Boleli and Lucie Safarova
(b) Virat Kohali
(c) Bhuvneshwar Kumar 51. Who has won 25,000 US Dollar ITF singles title
(d) Rohit Sharma
41. Who won the womens single title of Australian
Open 2015?
(a) Maria Sharapova 52. Syed Modi Grand Prix Gold title is associated
(b) Serena Williams
(c) Stanislas Wawrinka (a) Golf (b) Formula 1 Race
(d) Marion Bartoli
42. Who became youngest medal winner in National
Games 2015 ?
(a) Kalyani Saxena (b) Saloni Dalal
(c) Rutuja Udeshi (d) Anisha Gaonkar
43. Who defeated England to win Tri-nation ODI
Series ?
(a) Australia (b) India
(c) Sri Lanka (d) South Africa
44. Usain Bolt decided to retire in which year of
world championship ?
(a) 2015 (b) 2016
(c) 2017 (d) 2018
45. Virat Kohli became first Indian cricketer to score
century in World Cup against-
(a) South Africa (b) Australia
(c) West Indies (d) Pakistan
46. Who won the mens single title of Australian
Open 2015 ?
(a) Andy Murray (b) Novak Djokovic
(c) Rafael Nadal (d) Roger Federer
47. 36th National Games will be hosted in-
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Goa
48. Who was the Goodwill Ambassador of 35th
National Games ?
(a) Saradara Singh (b) Rahul Dravin
(c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) Shahrukh Khan
49. Who was the top position in medal of 35th
National Games?
(a) Services (b) Maharashtra
(c) Kerala (d) Haryana
50. The Mixed Doubles title of Australian Open 2015
was won by
(a) Daniel Nestor and Kristina Mladenovic
(b) Leander Paes and Martina Hingis
(d) Nicolas Mahut and ChanYung Jan
in maiden attempt in December 2014?
(a) Ankita Raina (b) Sonal Phadke
(c) Arati Ponnappa (d) Isha Lakhani
with which game?
(c) Badminton (d) Table Tennis
53. Leander Paes won 2015 Australian Open mixed
doubles title with his teammate
(a) Kristina Mladenovic
(b) Cara Black
(c) Martina Hingis
(d) Petra Kvitova
54. What was the name given to the official mascot of
35th National Games which recently concluded
in Kerala?
(a) Ammu (the great hornbill)
(b) Appu (the great hornbill)
(c) Appu (elephant)
(d) Ammu (elephant)
55. Who among the following has been recently
inducted into the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Sourav Ganguly
(c) Anil Kumble (d) Rahul Dravid
56. Which among the following teams won Hero
Hockey India League (HHIL) 2015?
(a) Punjab Warriors
(b) Ranchi Rays
(c) Uttar Pradesh Wizards
(d) Delhi Waveriders
57. Kidambi Srikanth is associated with which one of
the following games?
(a) Lawn tennis (b) Cycling
(c) Rowing (d) Badminton

58. How many times has Australia won the one-day
cricket world cup?
(a) Three (b) Four
(c) Five (d) Six
59. The winners of US Open women doubles title
2014 are
(a) Sania Mirza and Cara Black
(b) Martina Hingis and Flavia Pennetta
(c) Ekaterina Makarova and Elena Vesnina
(d) Sania Mirza and Abigail Spears
60. Varsha Gautam is associated with which of the
following games?
(a) Badminton (b) Sailing
(c) Hockey (d) Table Tennis
61. Who among the following Tennis players has
won the Shanghai Masters Title?
(a) Andy Murray (b) Roger Federer
(c) Gilles Simon (d) Rafael Nadal
62. Who among the following is the winner of mens
singles title of China Open Super Series?
(a) K. Srikanth (b) Akshay Dewalkar
(c) Lin Dan (d) Chen Long
63. Which country is the winner of Davis Cup-2014?
(a) Serbia (b) USA
(c) Switzerland (d) Russia
64. Who among the following players has received
the Arjuna Award in 2014?
(a) Manoj Kumar (b) Mary Kom
(c) M S Dhoni (d) Sardar Singh
65. Which among the below teams has won
Champions Trophy, 2014?
(a) Australia (b) Germany
(c) Pakistan (d) The Netherlands
66. Who has been named as 2015 Cricket World Cup
Ambassador?
(a) Sourav Ganguly (b) Brian Lara
(c) Ricky Ponting (d) Sachin Tendulkar
67. Who is the winner of French Open 2014 womens
title?
(a) Victoria Azarenka (b) Serena Williams
(c) Maria Sharapova (d) Simona Halep
68. Who won the French open 2014?
(a) Rafael Nadal (b) Novan Djokovic
(c) Roger Federer (d) Andy Murray
Current Affairs || G-39
69. Who won the gold medal in womens 200m event
in the 16th Asian Junior Athletics Championship?
(a) VV Jisha
(b) Jessy Joseph
(c) Navjeet Kaur Dhillon
(d) Dutee Chand
70. Jitu Rai, who was recently in news, is associated
with which game?
(a) Swimming (b) Gymnastics
(c) Shooting (d) Athletics
71. Luis Suarez, a soccer player was recently in news.
He belongs to which of the following country?
(a) Brazil (b) Spain
(c) Paraguay (d) Uruguay
72. Who won the Australian Open Super Series Title-
2014?
(a) Qing Tian (b) Saina Nehwal
(c) Kim Ha-Na (d) P.V Sindhu
73. Who among the following is the winner of Mens
Wimbledon-2014?
(a) Roger Federer
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Novak Djokovic
(d) Stanislas Wawrinka
74. Sanjita Khumukcham is associated with which of
the following games?
(a) Weight lifting (b) Judo
(c) Boxing (d) Wrestling
75. Dipa Karmakar, who won a bronze medal in
the Glasgow Commonwealth games-2014 is
associated with which game?
(a) Shooting (b) Artistic gymnastics
(c) Judoka (d) Squash
76. Who is the winner of the World Golf
Championship?
(a) Rory McIlory (b) Sergio Garcia
(c) Kane Richardson (d) Mitchell Marsh
77. Who won the Mens title of Washington open
Tennis Tournament 2014?
(a) Vasek Pospisil
(b) Roger Federer
(c) Juan Martin del Potro
(d) Milos Raonic
G-40 || Sports and Games
78. Consider the following statements given below,
and choose the Statement (s) which is/are correct?
1. Rooney has won several trophies with
Manchester United including five EPL titles
and Champions League.
2. Darren Fletcher has been appointed as the
captain of Manchester United.
Choose the Correct Option:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
79. The 2014 winner of prestigious Goldman
Environmental Prize is __?
(a) Ramesh Agarwal (a) A Joseph Paulraj
(b) Srinivas Acharya
(c) Raman Choudhary
(d) Sunil Nayak
80. Who among the following has been honoured as
the Most Popular All Time International Star in
India at IIFA awards 2013-14?
(a) Johny Depp (b) Kevin Spacey
(c) John Travolta (d) Tom Cruise
81. Who among the following has won Syed Modi
International India Grand Prix Gold badminton
title?
(a) P V Sindhu
(b) Saina Nehwal
(c) Ashwini Ponnappa
(d) Jwala Gutta
82. Who among the following Indians have been
awarded the 2014 Marconi Prize, a Nobel
equivalent for technology engineers?
(b) Naveen Natarajan
(c) Sumitraraj Gupta
(d) Jagadish Singh
83. Which of the following states has won United
Nation award for sustainable tourism?
(a) Kerala (b) Gujarat
(c) West Bengal (d) Goa
 Current Affairs || G-41

ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 11. (b) 21. (a) 31. (c) 41. (b) 51. (a) 61. (b) 71. (d) 81. (b)
2. (a) 12. (d) 22. (d) 32. (c) 42. (b) 52. (c) 62. (a) 72. (b) 82. (a)
3. (a) 13. (b) 23. (b) 33. (a) 43. (a) 53. (c) 63. (c) 73. (c) 83. (a)
4. (d) 14. (a) 24. (d) 34. (b) 44. (c) 54. (a) 64. (a) 74. (a)
5. (c) 15. (b) 25. (c) 35. (d) 45. (d) 55. (c) 65. (b) 75. (b)
6. (a) 16. (a) 26. (a) 36. (c) 46. (b) 56. (b) 66. (d) 76. (a)
7. (b) 17. (d) 27. (c) 37. (a) 47. (d) 57. (d) 67. (c) 77. (d)
8. (d) 18. (d) 28. (b) 38. (d) 48. (c) 58. (c) 68. (a) 78. (a)
9. (a) 19. (c) 29. (b) 39. (b) 49. (a) 59. (c) 69. (d) 79. (a)
10. (c) 20. (a) 30. (a) 40. (c) 50. (b) 60. (b) 70. (c) 80. (c)

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Petra Kvitova of Czech Republic won the
womens single title of Sydney International Tennis
Tournament. She won the title defeating Karolina
Pliskova of Czech Republic 7-6, 7-6 in the final.
This is the 15th career title won by world No. 4
Petra Kvitova.
2. (a) Stephen Constantine was appointed as the
head coach of Indian mens football team on 16
January 2015. He will supervise both the senior and
under-23 football teams. Constantine of England
replaced Wim Koevermans of Netherlands. This is
the second time that Constantine has been appointed
as the coach of Indian football team. He served as
Indias coach from 2002 to 2005.
3. (a) Bhakti Sharma the open water swimming
champion of India set a world record by swimming
1.4 miles in 52 minutes one degree temperature in
the Antarctic Ocean.
4. (d) Real Madrid forward Cristiano Ronaldo on 12
January 2015 won the FIFA Ballon dor award 2014
for the best footballer of the year in the world. It is
the third time that Ronaldo has won the Ballon dor
award following the previous triumphs in the years
2008 and 2013.
5. (c) Steven Smith was declared player of the series
in Border-Gavaskar test series 2014-2015. Australia
won the 4 match Border-Gavaskar test series from
2-0. The third and fourth match of the series was
drawn.
6. (a) Switzerlands Stanislas Wawrinka defeated
Slovenian qualifier Aljaz Bedene to win Chennai
open title of tennis for a third time. In the title clash
Wawrinka defeated Bedene 6-4,6-3.
7. (b) Germany won the mens Hockey Champions
Trophy for the year 2014 after defeating Pakistan by
2-0 margin at the Kalinga stadium in Bhuvaneswar
Odisha. This was 10th Champions Trophy crown for
Germany. It had last won the tournament in 2007.
For the third position world Champion Australia
defeated India 2-1.
8. (d) East zone won the 2014-15 Deodhar Trophy of
Cricket by defeating West zone from 24 runs. The
final match was played at the Wankhede stadium
in Mumbai. Ashok Dinda of East zone who bagged
4 wickets was adjudged man of the match. The
captain of East zone was Manoj Tiwary and West
zone was Yusuf Pathan.
9. (a) Former Indian Football Captain Baichung
Bhutia became the first Indian Footballer to
conferred AFC Hall of Fame Award. The award
was conferred by FIFA president Sepp Blatter in
Philippines. Baichung has played 107 matches for
India and scored 42 goals.
G-42 || Sports and Games
10. (c) Former Dutch National Hockey team coach
Paul Van Ass was on 30 January 2015 appointed
as the head coach of Indian mens hockey team.
He succeeded Terry Walsh of Australia. Besides
Newzealands Anthony Thornton was appointed as
the coach of National womens hockey team. She
replaced Neil Hawgood of Australia.
11. (b) Saina Nehwal of India won the womens
singles of Syed Modi Grand Prix Gold Badminton
Tournament 2015. She defeated Carolina Marin
of Spain 19-21, 25-23, 21-16 in the final played
at Babu Banarasi Das Indoor Stadium in Lucknow,
U.P. with this win, Saina retained her title which
she had won in 2014 and also maintained her win
record against Carolina in three career meetings.
Saina Nehwal is ranked third in the world whereas
Carolina Marin is ranked seventh in the world.
12. (d) Viktor Troicki of Serbia won the mens single
title of Sydney International Tennis Tournament. He
won the title by defeating Mikhail Kukushkin of
Kazakhstan from 6-2, 6-3 in the final match.
13. (b) Pankaj Advani won National Billiards
Championship at the Bengal Rowing club in
Kolkata. He defeated his PSPB male Dhruv Sitwala.
This was his seventh senior National Billiards
Championship. Advani has won the previous six
titles in 2005, 2007, 2008, 2009, 2011 and 2012.
14. (a) South Africas Cricketer AB de Villiers hit
the fastest century in one day international cricket.
He scored the century in just 31 balls against West
Indies. The previous record was held by New
Zealands Corey Anderson who scored a century in
36 balls against West Indies.
15. (b) Sania Mirza (India) and Bethanie Mattek-
Sands (US) won the womens doubles title of the
Sydney International Tennis Tournament. The
unseeded Indo-American pair defeated top seeded
Americans Abigail Spears and Raquel Kops Jones
6-3, 6-3. This was the fifth WTA title for Sania and
Bethanie together and 23rd career title for Sania.
16. (a) International Cricket Council (ICC) in its
board meeting in Dubai announced that India will
host the Twenty 20 World Cup in 2016. The Twenty
20 World Cup will be held in India from 11 March
2016 to 3 April 2016.
17. (d) Ukrainian Grandmaster Andrey Baryshpolets
won the 13th Parsvanath International Grandmasters
Chess Tournament. He defeated Deepan
Chakkravarthy of India in 10th and final round of
the tournament that was held in New Delhi.
18. (d) India will host the 42nd World Bridge
Championship that will be held in Chennai from 20
September 2015 to 10 October 2015.
19. (c) Andy Murray won the ATP World Tennis
Championship at Zayed sports city in Abu Dhabi.
He won the title after the world number one Novak
Djokovic withdrew from the final match citing
illness. This was the first title of the year 2015 for
Andy Murray.
20. (a) Sachin Tendulkar was appointed as the
ambassador of Cricket World Cup 2015. Tendulkar
in the role of ambassador will promote and support
a variety of ICC initiatives to enhance the profile of
tournament.
21. (a) The Indian Womens Kabaddi team won
Kabaddi World Cup title by defeating Newzealand.
Indian mens kabaddi team also won Kabaddi World
Cup by defeating Pakistan.
22. (d) BCCI issued ban on Indian left arm spinner
Pragyan Ojha from bowling in competitive matches
after his action was found illegal.
23. (b) Hariom Singh won Gold medal in mens 50
metre rifle prone event at the 58th National Shooting
Championship held in Pune. Representing Indian
army Hariom won the gold with a total of 205 in the
finals.
24. (d) Viswanathan Anand defeated British
Grandmaster Michael Adams to win his maiden
London classic title.
25. (c) Amos Meindi of Kenya won 29th Pune
International full Marathan in mens category. He
finished the race by completing 41.175 km in 2
hours 18 minutes and 36 seconds. Regassa Bezida
of Ethiopia and Teresse came at second and third
place respectively Nancy Wambua of Kenya won
the half Marathon in women category in 71 minutes
and 55 seconds.
26. (a) The South African cricketer Jacques Kallis was
appointed as the mentor and batting consultant for
Indian Premier League (IPL) team Kolkata Knight
Rider (KKR).
27. (c) Indian Blind cricket team defeated Pakistan to
win the fourth edition of Blind Cricket World Cup
2014 in Cap Town, South Africa.

28. (b) Ravinder Singh became the first Indian to get
elected as a member of the International shooting
sport Federation (ISSF)s Executive Committee.
He is the president of National Rifle Association of
India (NRAI). He was also elected as the member of
the Administrative Council of ISSF.
29. (b) Indian oil won the 119th Beighton Cup Hockey
tournament to defeated Panjab National Bank
in Kolkata. The awards of the tournament were
presented by the West Bengal Governor Keshari
Nath Tripathy.
30. (a) Australian cricketer Phillip Hughes went
into induced coma and died after a bouncer ball of
Sean Abbott hit back of his head at Sydney cricket
ground.
31. (c) Magnus Carlsen of Norway won FIDE World
Chess Champoinship 2014 played at Sochi, Russia.
He defeated Viswanathan Anand of India with
a score of 6.54.5. Thus Carlsen became the first
player to score 6.5 points to win the FIDE World
Championship.
32. (c) Switzerland won its first Davis Cup Tennis title
after defeating France by securing three one lead at
Lille Stade Pierre Maurery, France. With this win
Switzerland became the fourteenth nation to win the
Davis Cup in the competitions 115 year history.
33. (a) India won the 2014 South Asian Football
Federation (SAFF) womens championship at the
Jinnah stadium in Islamabad after defeating Nepal.
With this win the Indian team has won all the three
SAFF women finals against Nepal.
34. (b) World number one Serbian tennis player
Novak Djokovic was crowned champion of ATP
World Tour Finals in London. He was crowned after
Swiss Roger Federer withdraw from the title clash
due to a back injury. With this win he centuries and
also broke the record of highest ODI Tour Finals
titles.
35. (d) Indian shuttlers Saina Nehwal clinched
womens singles title of China Open Super Series
premier of Badminton in Fuzhou, China. Saina
defeated Akane Yamaguchi of Japan in the womens
singles final.
36. (c) The Indian cricketer Rohit Sharma on
November 2014 scored the highest ODI score ever
of 264 runs. With this he became the only cricketer
to score two double ODI became the first tennis
player to win three world score of 219 runs made
Current Affairs || G-43
by Virendra Sehwag. Rohit Sharma achieved this
distinction during the 4th ODI between India and
Sri Lanka at Kolkata.
37. (a) Salgaocar FC won Durand Cup and emerged as
Durand Cup champion for the third time. It defeated
Pune FC by 10. 127th Durand Cup played at the
Raia Sports Complex Goa.
38. (d) Indian Hockey team won four match mens
Hockey Test series against Australia by 3-1. In the
fourth and final match of the series played at the
Perth Hockey stadium, Australia. This is the first
time that India defeated Australia in a bilateral
series. In this series Indian mens hockey team
skipper Sardar Singh registered a milestone as he
completed his 200th international cap in the fourth
and final test.
39. (b) Sri Lankan cricket captain Angelo Mathews
was named as captain of the ICC Test Team of
the year 2014. The ICC Test Team of the year was
chosen by a specially appointed selection panel
chaired by the ICCs Cricket committee Chairman
Anil Kumble.
40. (c) Cricketer Bhuvneshwar Kumar won LG
Peoples Choice Award 2014. He is the third Indian
player after Sachin and Dhoni to win the coveted
prize.
41. (b) Serena Williams won the womens single title
of Australian Open 2015. Serena defeated Maria
Sharapova of Russia in Melbourne, Australia.
This was the 19th Grand Slam title and the sixth
Australian Open title for Serena Williams.
42. (b) Saloni Dalal, a school girl of Karnataka
became the youngest medal winner in the 35th
National Games in Kerala. The 12 years old Saloni
won a Bronze medal in the 200 meter breast stroke
swimming event. Kalyani Saxena of Gujarat
and Rutuja Udeshi of Maharashtra won the gold
and silver medals of the 200 meter breast stroke
swimming event respectively.
43. (a) Australia won the Tri-nation. One day
International (ODI) series by defeating England.
The tri-series was played between Australia, India
and England from 16 January to 1 February 2015. In
this Tournament Mitchell Stare was the man of the
series.
44. (c) The six time Olympic gold medalist Usain
Bolt has decided to retire after 2017 World
Championships in London in which he will
concentrate only in 100 meter event.
G-44 || Sports and Games
45. (d) Virat Kohli became first Indian cricketer 53. (c) Leander Paes and Martina Hingis beat Daniel
to score century against Pakistan in World Cup. Nestor and Kristina Mladenovic to win 2015
He scored 107 run at Adelaide Oval, Australia. Australian Open mixed doubles title.
The previous highest score by an Indian batsman 54. (a) The great hornbill, the state bird of Kerala,
against Pakistan in World Cup was held by Sachin was the official mascot of 35th National Games.
Tendulkar, who scored 98 run in Centurion in 2003 The name of the mascot was Ammu showing the
World Cup. empowerment of women in Kerala.
46. (b) Novak Djokovic of Serbia won the mens 55. (c) Anil Kumble became the fourth Indian
single title of Australian Open 2015 by defeating cricketer to be inducted into the ICC Cricket Hall
Andy Murray of Britain. With this win Djokovic of Fame. Bishan Singh Bedi, Sunil Gavaskar and
Kapil Dev are the other hall of fame members from
became the most decorated Australian Open
India.
Champion of the open era. Surpassing Andre Agassi
56. (b) Ranchi Rays defeated Punjab Warriors by 3-2
and Roger Federers quartet of titles.
goals in the final match of HHIL 2015. The result
47. (d) The 36th National Games will be hosted by
was decided through tie-breaker.
Goa in 2016. The 35th National Games were held in 57. (d) Kidambi Srikanth has won Swiss Open Grand
Kerala from 31 January 2015 to 14 February 2015. Prix Gold title in Mens singles category. He
48. (c) Sachin Tendulkar was the Goodwill defeated Denmarks Viktor Axelsen by score of 21-
Ambassador of 35th National Games. He was the 15, 12-21 and 21-14.
chief guest of the inauguration event. The Mascot of 58. (c) Australia defeated New Zealand by seven
the 35th National Games was The Great Hornbill wickets in the final to win the world cup for the fifth
(The state bird of Kerala). time. Apart from 2015, Australia has grabbed the
49. (a) Services by topping the medal tally set the cup in 1987, 1999, 2003 and 2007.
record of topping the National Games for the third 59. (c) Ekaterina Makarova and Elena Vesnina beat
consecutive time. It won the Raja Bhalendra Singh Martina Hingis and Flavia Pennetta in the final of
Trophy. US Open women doubles title 2014.
The top 5 positions in medal tally in 35th National 60. (b) Varsha Gautam and Aishwarya Nedunchezhiyan
Games. won a first ever bronze medal in sailing in Asian
Games.
S.No. Winner Gold Silver Bronze Total
61. (b) Roger Federer defeated Gilles Simon in final
1. Services 91 33 35 159 to clinch Shanghai Masters Title.
2. Kerala 54 48 60 162 62. (a) K. Srikanth defeated Lin Dan in the final to
3. Harayana 40 40 27 107 win mens singles title of China Open Super Series.
63. (c) Switzerland defeated France by 3-1 to win
4. Maharashtra 30 43 50 123
Davis Cup-2014.
5. Punjab 27 34 32 93 64. (a) Boxer Manoj Kumar received the Arjuna
50. (b) Indo-Swiss pair Leander Paes (India) and Award after he filed a case in the Delhi High Court.
Martina Hingis (Switzerland) defeated Canadian- 65. (b) Germany defeated Pakistan in the final match
French pair Daniel Nestor (Canada) and Kristina of Champions Trophy, 2014 held in bhubaneswar.
Mladenovic (France) in straight sets 6-4, 6-3. This 66. (d) Sachin Tendulkar has been named as the
was Leanders third Mixed Doubles title at the Ambassador for the second successive time.
Australian Open and 15th overall. 67. (c) Maria Sharapova defeated Simona Halep in
51. (a) Ankita Raina defeated Katy Dunne to win the final of French Open.
25,000 US Dollar ITF singles title in maiden 68. (a) Rafael Nadal beat Novan Djokovic in the final
attempt. of French open to win the title.
52. (c) Parupalli Kashyap in men and Saina Nehwal 69. (d) Dutee Chand won two gold in the 16th Asian
in women category have won Syed Modi Grand Junior Athletics Championship, one in 200 m and
Prix Gold badminton title 2015. another in 4*400m relay race.

70. (c) Jitu Rai won Gold medal in Air Pistol in the
Shooting world cup held in Slovenia.
71. (d) Uruguay striker Luis Suarez has been
suspended from all football-related activity for four
months for biting Italian defender Giorgio Chillan.
72. (b) Saina Nehwal defeated Spains Carolina Marin
in the final of Australian Open.
73. (c) Novak Djokovic defeated Roger Federer in the
final of Mens Wimbledon-2014 to grab the title.
74. (a) Sanjita Khumukcham, a Weight lifter, won
the first gold medal for India in the Commonwealth
games-2014.
75. (b) Dipa Karmakar became the first Indian to win
a medal in artistic gymnastics at a major sporting
event.
76. (a) Rory McIlory is a 25 year old from Northern
Ireland, rallied from a three stroke deficit to beat
Spains Sergio Garcia by two strokes at the WGC
Bridgestone Invitational.
77. (d) Milos Raonic captured his sixth ATP title by
defeating Vasek Pospisil at Washington Open.
78. (a) Rooney has been appointed as the captain of
Manchester United and not Darren Fletcher.
79. (a) Indian environment activist Ramesh Agarwal
has won the prestigious Goldman Environmental
Current Affairs || G-45
Prize that honours heroic grassroot environmentalists
around the world for their achievements. He has
been honoured for his contribution to control the
unchecked industrial development throughout
India.
80. (c) John Travolta the famous super star of
Hollywood honoured as most popular All Time
International Star in International Indian Film
Academy (IIFA) awards 2014.
81. (b) Saina Nehwal clinched the Syed Modi
International India Grand Prix Gold badminton title
with a straight-game victory over compatriot P V
Sindhu in the womens single competition.
82. (a) A Joseph Paulraj Stanford University Professor
A Joseph Paulraj who has been recognised for his
work in inventing and advancing MIMO (Multiple
Input Multiple Output) technology, a key enabler of
wireless broadband services that has revolutionised
high speed delivery of multimedia media across the
world awarded the 2014 Marconi Prize, a Nobel
equivalent for technology engineers.
83. (a) Kerala Tourism has been conferred the United
Nation Award for creating innovative initiatives for
sustainable tourism, the first time India has ever
won the recognition.
G-46 || Science and Technology
6 Science and Technology
1. National Biodiversity Conference (NBC)-2015
will be held in
(a) Gujarat (b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala (d) Telangana
2. Beagle 2, which was found after eleven years,
was a space probe to
(a) Mercury (b) Venus
(c) Mars (d) Moon
3. GARUDA SHAKTI-III which was conducted at
Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School
in Vairengte, Mizoram from 09 to 21 Feb 15 was
a joint exercise of armies of India and
(a) Vietnam (b) Indonesia
(c) Myanmar (d) Thailand
4. According to recent announcement of the Indian
government, how many Indian satellites are
currently operational?
(a) 23 (b) 25
(c) 27 (d) 29
5. Dwarf planet Ceres is located between
(a) Mars and Jupiter
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Saturn and Uranus by?
(d) Uranus and Neptune
6. INS Sumitra has been recently commissioned in
the Indian Navy. Which of the following does not
belong to the same class as INS Sumitra?
(a) INS Saryu (b) INS Shivalik
(c) INS Sunayna (d) INS Sumedha
7. What is the name of the worlds first womb
transplant baby?
(a) Glenn
(b) Vincent
(c) Margaret
(d) Louis
8. GSLV Mark -III being developed by ISRO
uses which of the following fuel propellants in
Cryogenic Upper stage?
(1) Liquid Oxygen (2) Liquid Nitrogen
(3) Liquid Hydrogen (4) Hydrazine
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 ony (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
9. Thirty-Metre Telescope,the worlds largest
telescope, for which India is creating software is
located in
(a) Iceland (b) USA
(c) Antarctica (d) Norway
10. The first and only Compulsory License has been
provided to Natco Pharmaceuticals to produce
a generic medicine. The medicine named as
sorafenib tosylate (Nexavar) is a drug for
(a) Blood cancer (b) Kidney cancer
(c) Breast cancer (d) Stomach cancer
11. 2011 MD shortlisted by NASA is a/an?
(a) Planet (b) Comet
(c) Asteroid (d) Meteoroid
12. Micros Systems, a cloud firm has been taken over
(a) SAP (b) Oracle
(c) Microsoft (d) Apple
13. National Centre for Research & Development
in Bulk Drugs is proposed to be set up in which
city?
(a) Bengaluru (b) Hyderabad
(c) Ahmadabad (d) Pune
14. Rotavirus is responsible for which of the
following diseases?
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Diarrhoea
(c) Japanese Encephalitis
(d) Measles

15. Ebola is caused by which type of micro-organism?
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi
(c) Virus (d) Protozoa
16. Enceladus, where NASAs Cassini spacecraft has
suggested possibility of liquid water is a moon of
(a) Jupiter (b) Saturn
(c) Uranus (d) Mars
17. Gaia satellite which was launched in 2013 has
reached its intended location. The satellite was
launched by
(a) ESA
(b) NASA
(c) ISRO
(d) China National Space Administration
18. Identify the space craft, which finally arrived at
its destination, Comet 67P, on August 6th 2014,
after a journey of about 10 years and five months?
(a) Rosetta (b) Philae
(c) Curiosity (d) Mezinni
19. Which of the following social networking site
has joined GSM operators lobby group Cellular
operators Association of India (COAI)?
(a) Orkut (b) Facebook
(c) Twitter (d) Linkedin
20. Which among the following is Indias largest
indigenously built warship, recently inducted in
Indian Navy?
(a) INS Kolkata (b) INS Goa
(c) INS Kochi (d) INS Mumbai
21. What is the name of worlds first high definition
3D model human brain?
(a) Big Brain (b) Super Brain
(c) Great Brain (d) Huge Brain
22. The most commonly used chemicals for artificial
raining or cloud seeding are?
(a) Silver iodine (b) Sodium chloride
(c) Dry ice (d) All of the above
23. Study of life in outer space is
(a) Entrobiology (b) Endobiology
(c) Exobiology (d) Neobiology
24. International Renewable Energy Agency
(IRENA) is presently headed by
(a) Helene Pelosse (b) Adnan Z. Amin
(c) Lars Rasmussen (d) G. Vishwanathan
Current Affairs || G-47
25. Which one of the following was discovered first
in the chromosphere of the sun?
(a) Neon (b) Xenon
(c) Helium (d) Krypton
26. Rosatom is the atomic energy agency of
(a) France (b) Britain
(c) Canada (d) Russia
27. Which of the following falls in the category of
endangered species under the Red data list of
IUCN?
(a) Crowned solitary eagle
(b) Albatross
(c) Snow leopard
(d) All of the above
28. Which of the Europes cargo carrier accomplished
its mission?
(a) ATV-4 (b) ATV-7
(c) ATV-6 (d) ATV-8
29. The fastest super computer of India
(a) Param YuvaII (b) SAGA500
(c) AKA1000 (d) None of these
30. First climate change theatre opened in India in
the state of
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana
(c) Orissa (d) Kerala
31. In 2014, US scientists genetically engineered a
plant to produce more eugenol. The engineered
plant is :
(a) Mango (b) Basil
(c) Neem (d) Capsicum
32. Which country launched first ever deep UV laser
device?
(a) China (b) USA
(c) Canada (d) UK
33. Indias first Defence Satellite, successfully placed
in the Geosynchronous orbit
(a) GSAT8 (b) GSAT7
(c) GSAT9 (d) None of these
34. German scientists developed a new App to find
lost things called
(a) Find my stuff (b) Find my goods
(c) Find my things (d) Find lost goods
G-48 || Science and Technology
35. Worlds first trip to moons south pole for
installation of a permanent telescope 2016 started
by
(a) ILO Association and Moon express
(b) NASA and ILO Association
(c) Moon Express and NASA
(d) EU and Moon Express
36. The worlds lightest substance produced by China
called 47. Scientists at the Berkley lab created worlds first
(a) Carbon Aerogel (b) Carbon Aerosol
(c) Carbon Aero (d) None of these
37. The worlds first space telescope released by
Japan for remote observation of planets named
(a) SPRINTJ (b) ORBIT5
(c) SPRINTA (d) ORBITA
38. New software for android phones named Home
has been released by
(a) Twitter (b) Linkedin
(c) Facebook (d) Google
39. Worlds first Green Helicopter tested in Germany
named
(a) Volocopter (b) Greenocopter
(c) Nalocopter (d) Domocopter
40. The New sign language translator KINECT was
developed by
(a) Google (b) Apple
(c) Microsoft (d) Yahoo
41. Curiosity Rover captured a flower like formation
on the rocks of
(a) Mars (b) Saturn
(c) Jupiter (d) Venus
42. The oldest super predator living on earth
discovered was the
(a) Marine crocodile (b) Blue Dolphin
(c) Yellow whale (d) Marine Cobra
43. India was affected by the cyber spying campaign
called
(a) Red October (b) Red September
(c) Black October (d) Black September
44. Scientists of the JNUs school of Biotechnology
discovered a gene that can restrict tumours, the
discovered gene is :
(a) SCO2 (b) CNO2
(c) SNO2 (d) None of these
45. The company developed new device that helps
Stephen Hawking communicate faster is
(a) Microsoft (b) Intel
(c) Apple (d) Sony
46. Space Telescope of NASA discovered magnetic
Braids in the atmosphere of
(a) Mars (b) Sun
(c) Venus (d) Jupiter
digital Atlas of
(a) Head (b) Eyes
(c) Brain (d) Heart
48. Mangalore University and BARC signed MoU
for collaborative research on
(a) Gravity (b) Radioactivity
(c) Elasticity (d) Magnetism
49. Andrea Colaco, a native of South Goas
Velim developed accurate 3D gesture sensing
technology on
(a) Mobile device (b) LCD TV
(c) Cinema screen (d) None of these
50. Diskagma Buttonii a 2.2 billion year old fossils
discovered in
(a) South Africa (b) Nigeria
(c) Kenya (d) Morroco
51. Russian capsule Bion-M returned after a month-
long space tour with the animal
(a) monkey (b) mice, newts.
(c) dog (d) tortoise
52. Worlds first gun made from 3D printer technology
test-fired successfully in
(a) UK (b) USA
(c) China (d) Japan
53. UK scientists produced a disease resistant piglet
called
(a) pig-24 (b) pig-25
(c) pig-26 (d) pig-27
54. Jeff Bezos, the Amazon CEO recovered two
Apollo Rocket Engines from
(a) Atlantic ocean (b) Arabian sea
(c) South China sea (d) Pacific ocean
55. The rank of India on the list of spam spewing
nations in the world is
(a) 2nd (b) 3rd
(c) 4 th (d) 5th

56. The French scientists developed a headset that
give humans 360 degree vision called
(a) 360 VIZ (b) Fly VIZ
(c) Rotate VIZ (d) VISION
57. What is the objective of SMAP Satellite launched
by NASA?
(a) Observe and measure moisture of soil on
Earth.
(b) Detect moisture in atmosphere of Mars.
(c) Measure rigidity of rocks on Moon.
(d) Measure sea level on Earth.
58. Which district has become the first one in India to
have high speed Rural Broadband Network under
National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN)?
(a) 8 trillion km (b) 10 trillion km
(c) 12 trillion km (d) 14 trillion km
59. Which district has become the first one in India to
have high speed Rural Broadband Network
(a) Ajmer of Rajasthan
(b) Vidisha of Madhya Pradesh
(c) Idukki of Kerala
(d) Hisar of Haryana
60. Which bank has launched Indias first contactless
debit and credit cards?
(a) ICICI Bank (b) Axis bank
(c) HDFC (d) HSBC
Current Affairs || G-49
61. What was the theme of Indian Science Congress
2015?
(a) Science and Technology for Inclusive
Development
(b) Science and Technology for Indias
Development
(c) Science and Technology for Rural
Development
(d) Science and Technology for Human
Development
62. Delhi Police has launched a mobile application in
January 2015 named
(a) Himmat (b) Kismat
(c) Madad (d) Suraksha
63. The Defense Research Development Organisation
(DRDO) has developed a drug named Lukosin.
It will be used in the treatment of
(a) Leukemia (b) Lucoderma
(c) Lung cancer (d) Brain tumor
64. Which of the following is not a feature of
Graphene?
(a) Elastic (b) Lightweight
(c) Weak (d) Flexible
65. In year 2014, a drug named ZMapp was approved
by World Health Organisation(WHO) to combat
(a) Ebola (b) Malaria
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Dengue
G-50 || Science and Technology

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (a) 31. (b) 41. (a) 51. (b) 61. (d)
2. (c) 12. (b) 22. (d) 32. (a) 42. (a) 52. (b) 62. (a)
3. (b) 13. (b) 23. (c) 33. (b) 43. (a) 53. (c) 63. (b)
4. (c) 14. (b) 24. (c) 34. (a) 44. (a) 54. (a) 64. (c)
5. (a) 15. (c) 25. (c) 35. (a) 45. (b) 55. (b) 65. (a)
6. (b) 16. (b) 26. (d) 36. (a) 46. (b) 56. (b)
7. (b) 17. (a) 27. (d) 37. (c) 47. (c) 57. (a)
8. (c) 18. (a) 28. (a) 38. (c) 48. (b) 58. (b)
9. (b) 19. (b) 29. (a) 39. (a) 49. (a) 59. (c)
10. (b) 20. (a) 30. (a) 40. (c) 50. (a) 60. (a)

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) The second edition of National Biodiversity
Conference will be held in Kerala in February 2015.
2. (c) Beagle was released European Space
Agencys Mars Express (MEx) orbiter in 2003. It
was discovered by NASAs Mars Reconnaissance
Orbiter (MRO)
3. (b) The exercise aimed at building and promoting
positive military to military relations between the
armies of India and Indonesia. It included sharing of
experience in counter terrorism and conduct of joint
counter insurgency training.
4. (c) According to the Indian government, 27
Indian satellites are currently operational. Out of
these, 11 are communication satellites, 12 are earth
observation satellites, 3 are navigational satellites
and 1 is MOM.
5. (a) Ceres is between Mars and Jupiter. NASAs
Dawn probe has completed its orbit around Ceres
and has become first spacecraft to reach there.
6. (b) INS Shivalik does not belong to 105-metre
class of Naval Offshore Patrol Vehicle (NOPV)but
is a stealth multi-role frigates.
7. (b) Vincent, the worlds first womb transplant
baby was born to a Swedish family.
8. (c) Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Liquid Hydrogen
(LH2) are used Cryogenic Upper stage (C-25) 17. (a) Gaia satellite, the billion star surveyor was
of GSLV Mark-III.
9. (b) Thirty-Metre Telescope is located in the
Hawaii islands of the USA.
10. (b) The Supreme Court has rejected the Bayers
appeal to cancel Compulsory License granted by
the Indian government to Natco Pharmaceuticals to
produce a generic medicine of Nexavar.
11. (c) Under the Asteroid Redirect Mission (ARM)
an asteroid or its part will be captured by the robotic
spacecraft. 2011 MD has been shortlisted for this
purpose along with other two.
12. (b) Oracle is buying cloud firm Micros Systems
for $5.3 Billion.
13. (b) The centre is proposed to be set up at National
Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research
(NIPER), Hyderabad.
14. (b) Rotavirus is the leading cause of moderate
to severe diarrhoea. Rotvirus vaccine along with
rubella vaccine and Inactivated Poliovirus Vaccine
(IPV) has been recemtly included in Indias
Universal Immunisation Programme.
15. (c) Ebola is a tropical viral disease which has
killed around a thousand people recently in West
African nations.
16. (b) NASAs Cassini spacecraft has identified 101
geysers on Saturns moon Enceladus suggesting
possibility of liquid water.
launched by ESA in 2013.

18. (a) Space Craft Rosetta, covered a distance of
about 6.5 billion KM. The goal of this arduous
journey has been to rendezvous with Comet 67P.
19. (b) Facebook has joined GSM operators lobby
group Cellular operators Association of India
(COAI). This move will help it get a bigger and
effective platform to raise various issues with the
government.
20. (a) On 16th August 2014, Prime Minister
Narendra Modi inducted INS Kolkata, Indias
largest indigenously built warship.
21. (a) The first high-resolution 3D digital model of
the human brain, which is called Big Brain has
been published in the journal Science.
22. (d) The most common chemicals used for cloud
seeding or artificial rain include silver iodide and
dry ice (solid carbon dioxide), sodium chloride,
liquid propane.
23. (c) The study of life outside earth or extra-
terrestrial life or alien life and the effects of extra-
terrestrial surroundings on living organism is known
as Exobiology or Astrology or space biology. The
hypothetical forms of life in space are of bacteria,
and virus like organisms.
24. (c) Adnan Z. Amin was elected as the Director
General of the International Renewable Energy
Agency (IRENA) in April 2011. Helene Pelosse
was the earlier Directorate General of IRENA. She
served in this position for 15 months, from June 30,
2009 until October 21, 2010.
25. (c) The chromosphere (literally, sphere of
colour) is the second of the three main layers in the
Suns atmosphere and is roughly 2,000 kilometers
deep. It sits just above the photosphere and just
below the solar transition region. Helium, the lighter
of the noble gases, was the first to be discovered. In
fact, this element was first identified in the Suns
chromosphere rather than in the Earth.
26. (d) ROSATOMs mission is to maintain national
interests in defence, nuclear safety and nuclear
power by achieving global leadership in advanced
technologies, competencies and innovations.
ROSATOM group is situated in Russia.
27. (d) The Crowned Solitary Eagle (Buteogallus
coronatus), is a large South American raptor.
Albatrosses are large flying birds that spend most
of their life on the sea found in the Southern
Hemisphere: Antarctica, Australia, South Africa,
and South America. The snow leopard (Panthera
Current Affairs || G-51
uncia or Uncia uncia ) native to the mountain ranges
of Central Asia. All of the three have been added to
the red data list of IUCN.
28. (a) Europes cargo-carrier, the ATV-4 accomplished
its Mission. The Automated Transfer Vehicle (ATV)
was burnt over the uninhabited zone of the southern
Pacific Ocean after a five month mission on 2
November 2013.
29. (a) Indias fastest super computer is PARAM
Yuva II as per December 2013 developed by the
Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
(C-DAC). It delivers sustained performance of
360.8 teraflops.
30. (a) First Climate Change theatre was opened at
Pushpa Gujral Science City in Kapurthala, Punjab
on 16 January 2014. The theatre will educate people
on climate change. This is the second theatre in the
world to be opened after Canada.
31. (b) Scientists genetically engineered Tulsi or
basil to produce eugenol, having pharmaceutical
value which controls the breast cancer. Tulsi is a
medicinal plant and has anti-cancerous compounds.
32. (a) The Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS) has
launched a deep ultraviolet (DUV) solid-state laser
device, making the country first-ever in the world to
possess such technology in September, 2013.
33. (b) Indias first exclusive defence satellite GSAT-
7 was successfully launched by European space
consortium Arianespaces Ariane 5 rocket from
Kourou spaceport in French Guiana on 30 August,
2013.
34. (a) German scientists have developed a new
mobile app to find the commonly lost items like
keys, wallet, or small things. The name of this app
is FIND MY STUFF.
35. (a) It will be a private enterprise mission,
announced by the International Lunar Observatory
Association and Moon Express and will be both
scientific and commercial, and plans to deliver
the International Lunar Observatory (ILO) aboard
a Moon Express robotic lander. Moon Express
will send a series of robotic missions to the Moon
in support of science, commerce and exploration
starting in 2015.
36. (a) The worlds lightest substance has been
developed by Chinese scientists of Zhejiang
University - Carbon aerogel that has a density of
only one sixth of that of the air. Its density is only
0.16 mg/cubic centimetre, less than previously
recorded lightest substance, graphite aerogel.
G-52 || Science and Technology
37. (c) Sprint-A is the first space telescope dedicated
to observing the environment of planets in the solar
system (Venus, Mars and Jupiter). The telescope
is located in earths orbit and fluctuating between
950 km and 1150 km.
38. (c) Facebook on 4 April 2013 released the software
called Home, which puts the feeds from Facebook
on Android phones home screen. Software would
become the wrapper for Android operating system.
It will become the primary way of handling the
phone.
39. (a) The worlds first green helicopter which is
noiseless and emission-free has been successfully
tested in Germany.The two-seat prototype of the
Volocopter, by the company e-volo, made its
maiden voyage on November 17, 2013 in Karlsruhe,
Germany.
41. (a) Mars Curiosity Rover has captured an image
of a flower like object embedded on the rocks of
Mars. It has also photographed a snake-like rock
formation on the Martian Rocks. The picture was
captured by the microscope Mars Hand Lens Imager
held by the robotic arm of Rover on 19 December
2012.
42. (a) Scientists at the University of Edinburghs
School of Biological Sciences in the second week of
January 2013 discovered that the oldest known super
predator of the world was the Marine Crocodile.
44. (a) Scientists at the Jawaharlal Nehru Universitys
School of Biotechnology claimed in the third week
of January 2013 the discovery of SCO2 gene having
potential qualities of restricting tumours.
45. (b) The Intel has devised a communication
technology in 2013 that helps Stephan Hawking
communicate faster.
46. (b) A small telescope of NASA in Jan. 2103 has
captured surprising images of magnetic braids in
the outer atmosphere, or corona, of the sun.
48. (b) The University Science Instrumentation
Centre at Mangalagangotri and Bhabha Atomic
Research Centre (BARC) signed a memorandum of
understanding (MoU) for conducting collaborative
research on amount of radioactivity in Chitradurga
district.
51. (b) A Russian Capsule Bion-M craft that was filled
with 45 mice and 15 newts along with other animals
returned from a months long mission in Orbit on 19
May 2013.
52. (b) The first gun of the world made out of 3D
printer technology was fired successfully in US. It
is available at 8000 US Dollars.
54. (a) Jeff Bezos the Amazon CEO recovered two
Apollo Rocket Engines from Atlantic Ocean.
Recovery team was funded by Amazon CEO , who
recovered two Saturn V rocket engines from the
Atlantic.
56. (b) Scientists Developed a headset that gives
humans 360 degree Vision. French scientists
claimed that they developed a new system called
Fly VIZ which enables humans to get 360 degree
vision.
57. (a) SMAP (Soil Moisture Active Passive) Satellite
is a three-year mission which will measure the
amount of moisture in soil. It will help to monitor
drought, predict floods, assist crop productivity,
weather forecasting and linking water, energy and
carbon cycles.
58. (b) A light-year is a unit of distance. It is the
distance that light can travel in one year. Light
moves at a velocity of about 300,000 kilometers
(km) each second. So in one year, it can travel about
10 trillion km.
59. (c) Idukki district of Kerala has become first
district in India to have high speed Rural Broadband
Network i.e. National Optical Fibre Network
(NOFN) Internet connectivity. NOFN is the largest
rural connectivity project of its kind in the world.
60. (a) Contactless cards launched by ICICI Bank can
be used to make electronic payments by waving the
cards near the merchant terminal instead of dipping
or swiping. These cards are based on Near Field
Communication technology.
61. (d) The 102nd session of Indian National
Congress was held at Mumbai University. The
theme was Science and Technology for Human
Development.
62. (a) The Himmat application will allow women to
send a distress call to the Police Control Room and
their relatives in case of any emergency.
63. (b) Lukosin is a herbal drug developed by Defense
Research Development Organisation(DRDO) for
treatment of Lucoderma( White patches on skin).
64. (c) Graphene is a 2-dimensional single layer of
carbon atoms. It is characterized by its flexibility,
elasticity, lightweight, and strength.
65. (a) In the wake of large number of deaths due to
viral disease Ebola, the use of drug ZMapp was
approved to combat the disease.

7 Miscellaneous
1. Who appointed as chairman of National Book
Trust ?
(a) Kewal Sharma (b) Dr. Ajay Sharma
(c) Baldev Sharma (d) Suresh Mehta
2. 77th Annual convention of presiding officers of
Legislative bodies held in
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Hyderabad
(c) Jaipur (d) Lucknow
3. World Congress on Information Technology
(WCIT) in 2018 will be held in
(a) Geneva (b) Hyderabad
(c) London (d) New York
4. Who appointed as CMD of Small Industries
Development Bank of India ?
(a) Sunil Mittal (b) Seema Tuteja
(c) M. Parasaran (d) Kshatrapati Shivaji
5. World Diamond Conference held in
(a) Durban (b) New Delhi
(c) Moscow (d) Santiago
6. Who appointed as chief of ISROs Space
Application Centre?
(a) R. V. Ravindran (b) Arun Mishra
(c) Tapan Mishra (d) A.S. Kiran Kumar
7. Who appointed as chief operating officer of
Vodafone India?
(a) Sunil Mittal (b) Sunil Sood
(c) Naveen Chopra (d) Amrita Paul
8. 102nd Indian Science Congress held in
(a) Lucknow (b) Hyderabad
(c) Chennai (d) Mumbai
9. Who appointed as Judicial Commissioner to
Supreme Court Bench of Singapore?
(a) Kannan Ramesh (b) Ravi Chaudhary
(c) Amar Kumar (d) P. R. Mohan Rao
Current Affairs || G-53
10. 10th Aero India show concluded in
(a) Hyderabad (b) Goa
(c) Bengaluru (d) Pune
11. Who was selected as the partner nation for 29th
Surajkund International Crafts Mela?
(a) Pakistan (b) Sri Lanka
(c) Lebanon (d) Nepal
12. Third UN world conference on Disaster Risk
Reduction held in
(a) USA (b) UK
(c) France (d) Japan
13. The book Editor Unplugged : Media, Magnates,
Netas and Me written by
(a) Vinod Mehta (b) Vimal Kumar
(c) Suresh Menon (d) Zubin Mehta
14. Hindi Novel Farishta authored by
(a) S. K. Rath (b) Perumal Murugan
(c) Kapil Isapuri (d) Avinash Kumar
15. The book Red Sari written by
(a) Neelanjan Mukhopadhyaya
(b) Prof. Chamanlal
(c) Sudha Pai
(d) Javier Moro
16. World Mental Day is observed on
(a) 3rd October (b) 5th October
(c) 8th October (d) 10th October
17. Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas was held from January 7,
2015 in which of the following city?
(a) Pune (b) Hyderabad
(c) Chandigarh (d) Ahmedabad
18. Who among the following is the author of The
scatter here is too great?
(a) Kedarnath Singh (b) Bilal Tanweer
(c) Deepti Kapoor (d) Mahesh Rao
G-54 || Miscellaneous
19. Which among the following states has been
chosen as the theme State for 29th Surajkund
International Crafts Mela?
(a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand (d) Chhattisgarh
20. Haruko Obokato, who was recently in news
due to publication of her controversial paper in
Nature belongs to which country?
(a) Korea (b) Japan
(c) China (d) Taiwan
21. The five principles of peaceful existence or
Panchsheel which is celebrating 60th year of its
signing by India, China and:
(a) Bhutan (b) Nepal
(c) Myanmar (d) Thailand
22. Malabar series of exercises which is a joint naval
manoeuvres, this year include India along with?
(a) Russia (b) Japan
(c) China (d) France
23. Who is the author of the book One life is not
enough?
(a) Soli Sorabjee (b) Natwar Singh
(c) Jaswant Singh (d) Sonia Gandhi
24. What is the name of the new Australian Humpback
species of dolphin seen off the coast of northern
Australia?
(a) Sousa Sahulensis (b) Sousa teuszii
(c) Sousa chinensis (d) Souse plumbea
25. Who is the author of the Book The Lost History
of 1914?
(a) Pratiksha Baxi (b) Javed Alam
(c) Jack Beatty (d) Anna Morcom
26. The 9th G-20 Summit of 20 economic powers
held on 1516 November, 2014 in
(a) Durban (b) St. Pitts burg
(c) Brisbane (d) Ottawa
27. The 40th G-7 Summit held on 4-5th June 2014 in
(a) London (b) Paris
(c) Brunei (d) Sochi
28. The 24th ASEAN Summit held on 1-11 May
2014 in
(a) Nyi Pyi Taw (b) Epoh
(c) Nom Penh (d) Kathmandu
29. The 4th ministrial meeting of SAARC for poverty
abolition will be held in
(a) Bhutan (b) Columbo
(c) Dhaka (d) Brunei
30. The 6th BRICS Summit held on 14-16 July 2014
in
(a) Durban (b) Brasilia
(c) Moscow (d) New Delhi
31. The 45th world Economic Forum meeting held
on 21 to 24 Jan 2015 in
(a) Switzerland (b) New York
(c) Durban (d) Paris
32. The 26th APEC summit held on 10-11 Nov. 2014
in
(a) Beijing (b) Tokyo
(c) Beijing (d) Seal
33. CELAC (Community of Latin American and
Carribbean States) Summit will be held in
(a) Costa Rio (b) Lima
(c) Caracus (d) Hawana
34. The Summit on UN Commission on the status of
women held on 9-20 March 2015 in
(a) Beijing (b) Geneva
(c) New York (d) New Delhi
35. The author of the book Dhyanchand-The Wizard
of Hockey is
(a) Gulab Kathari (b) Luis Fernandes
(c) Devdutt Patnaik (d) Raj Kundra
36. The book Narendera Modi-The man, The times
is written by
(a) Neelanjan Mukhopadhyay
(b) Dr. Ajay sharma
(c) Prof. Chamanlal
(d) Kingshuk Nag
37. The book My Journey-Transforming Dreams
into Action is written by
(a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(b) C.N.R. Rao
(c) K. Kasturirangan
(d) V.N. Rao
38. The book Tendulkar-The Cricketer of the
Century is written by
(a) Vinod Mehta (b) Vimal Kumar
(c) Suresh Menon (d) Jeet Arora
39. The book Playing to Win is written by
(a) Saina Nehwal (b) Jwala Gutta
(c) Ashwini Punappa (d) P.V. Sindhu

40. The book The Namo Story-A Political Life is
written by
(a) Kingshuk Nag (b) Raghu Raman
(c) Shivnath Jha (d) R.K. Dhawan
41. World Malala Day celebrated on
(a) 12 July (b) 12 June
(c) 12 August (d) 12 October
42. Indias first White Label ATM Brand launched
by
(a) Tata communication
(b) Reliance communication
(c) Airtel India
(d) Idea communication
43. The Mascot of 35th National Games is
(a) Pigeon (b) Ammu
(c) Vulture (d) Eagle
44. How Not to Make Money is the first publication
of which of the celebrity?
(a) Shilpa Shetty (b) Raj Kundra
(c) Sashi Tharoor (d) Neeta Ambani
45. A book titled A Bouquet of Vivekanands
Writings in which languages?
(a) Bengali and English
(b) Hindi and English
(c) Hindi and Sanskrit 56. Who appointed as chairman of Railway Board?
(d) Hindi and Gujarati
46. Which city of the world is announced as World
Book Capital for the year 2015?
(a) Incheon (b) Bangkok
(c) New Delhi (d) Detroit
47. Who appointed 23rd governor of Reserve Bank
of India?
(a) Raghuram G. Rajan
(b) Y.V. Reddy
(c) C. Rangrajan 59. The book entitled Momentous Times is authored
(d) D. Subbarao
48. The current Chief Information Commissioner
(CIC) of Central Information Commission is
(a) Sushma Singh (b) Sudha Sharma
(c) Aruna Bahuguna (d) Naina Lal Kidwai
49. Who appointed as a Chief Justice of Supreme
Court of India?
(a) H.L. Datta (b) R. V. Ravindran
(c) S. Gopalakrishnan (d) M. Parasaran
Current Affairs || G-55
50. The current Foreign Secretary of India is
(a) Sudha Sharma (b) Neeta Chaudhary
(c) S. Jaishankar (d) Sumitra Singh
51. Who is the National Security Advisor of United
States of America?
(a) Samantha Power (b) Susane Rice
(c) Helen Thomas (d) Hillary Clinton
52. Indian origin American appointed Assistant
Foreign Minister for South and Middle Asia
Issues is
(a) Sima Biswal
(b) Sunita Biswal
(c) Nisha Desai Biswal
(d) None of these
53. Maldives Presidential polls won by
(a) Abdulla Yameen
(b) Mohammed Nasheed
(c) Abdul Naseer
(d) Mohammed Shamim
54. Who won Miss Universe 2015 is
(a) Pia Wurtzbach (b) Samantha Brooks
(c) Gabriela Lyndy (d) None of these
55. Who was crowned Miss Asia Pacific World 2014?
(a) Shrishti Biswas (b) Swetha Raj
(c) Seema Tuteja (d) Soma Biswas
(a) A.K. Mittal (b) Arun Kumar
(c) Abhinav Kumar (d) Akhilesh Kumar
57. The first Miss Universe contender to represent
Myanmar in 50 years is
(a) Joe Sui Ki (b) Moe Set Wine
(c) Aan Sui (d) Loe Sui Jem
58. The book Birth of Cinema is written by
(a) N. Gopal Krishna (b) P. Balaswamy
(c) N. Gopalan (d) T. Udayawarluon
by
(a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(b) Hamid Ansari
(c) Salman Khurshid
(d) Farukh Abdullah
60. The book titled 1283 launched by a legendary
footballer named
(a) Baichung Bhutia (b) Pele
(c) L Messy (d) Ronaldo
G-56 || Miscellaneous
61. The Third Curve a book written by film director
named
(a) Mansoor Khan (b) Salim
(c) Abbas Mastan (d) Farhan Akhtar
62. The book Gandhi Before India written by
(a) Satish Chandra (b) Ramchandra Guha
(c) Romila Thapar (d) H. C. Verma
63. The book entitled India and MalaysiaInterwined
Strands written by
(a) Veena Sikri (b) Veena Paul
(c) Veena Mahajan (d) Veena Pathak
64. The book titled Smritiyan is authored by
(a) Kavya Viswanath (b) Garima Sanjay
(c) Meghna Desai (d) Anu Aga
65. The book entitled The Luminaries is written by
(a) Eleanor Catton (b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Amitav Ghosh (d) None of these
66. An Introduction to Urdu Poetry is written by
(a) Aneesha Syed (b) Anees Ayesha
(c) Sharmin Obaid (d) Shirin Ibadi
67. The book Maimaar-e-Qaun edited by
(a) Mufti Ataur Rahman Ansari
(b) Mehbooba Mufti
(c) Mufti Salman Hyder
(d) None of these
68. Who was on 6 April 2015 re-appointed as the
chairman of the IPL governing council?
(a) Saurav Ganguly (b) Rajeev Shukla
(c) Sunil Gavaskar (d) Sandeep Patil
69. Name Indias first Scorpene submarine which
was recently launched for sea trials?
(a) INS Alleppy (b) INS Vikrant
(c) INS Kalvari (d) INS Pigeon
70. Which country will host the fifth meeting of
SAARC health ministers in April 2015?
(a) India (b) Nepal
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh
71. Which state government on 5 April 2015 re-
launched the anti-corruption helpline number
1031 to help people register their complaints if
they are harassed for bribes?
(a) Haryana (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Delhi (d) Rajasthan
72. Which airport has recently bagged the prestigious
Golden Peacock National Quality Award for the
year 2015?
(a) Delhi International Airport Limited
(b) Veer Savarkar International Airport
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport
(d) Trivandrum International Airport
73. What is the code name of the military operation
in Yemen against Shia Houthi group?
(a) Operation Rahat
(b) Operation Thunderbolt
(c) Operation All Out
(d) Operation Decisive Storm
74. Carolina Marin who recently won the womens
singles titles of Malaysia Open Super series
Premier badminton tournament, is from which
country?
(a) Germany (b) Spain
(c) Switzerland (d) Malaysia
75. Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 6 April 2015
launched National Air Quality Index (AQI) for
monitoring the quality of air in major urban
centres across the country on a real-time basis.
The AQI has been developed by the Central
Pollution Control Board in consultation with?
(a) IIT-Kanpur (b) IIT-Madras
(c) IIT-Delhi (d) IIT-Guwahati
76. Government on 13 April 2015 notified the
National Judicial Appointments Commission
Act, 2014 and also ___th constitution amendment
act?
(a) 99th (b) 100th
(c) 94th (d) 101st
77. Which state government on 13 April 2015
announced Cabinet-rank status for yoga guru
Baba Ramdev?
(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra
(c) Jharkhand (d) Haryana
78. Former US Secretary of State Hillary Clinton
on 12 April 2015 announced that she would be
contesting the election for the office of U.S.
president to be held in which year?
(a) 2015 (b) 2018
(c) 2016 (d) 2017

79. Name the Foreign Minister of North Korea who
visited India from 12 April to 14 April 2015,
which was also the first-ever visit of a foreign
minister of North Korea to India?
(a) Wang Yi (b) Ri Su Yong
(c) Fumio Kishida (d) None of these
80. Richie Benaud who passed away on 10 April
2015 in Sydney was a famous?
(a) Cricket commentator
(b) Nuclear Scientist
(c) Author
(d) Historian
81. Which city was recently awarded the title of
Global Earth hour Capital 2015?
(a) Thane (b) Sydney
(c) Ottawa (d) Seoul
82. Which city was named Indias Earth Hour Capital
2015?
(a) Rajkot (b) Pune
(c) Thane (d) Coimbatore
83. National Safe Motherhood day was observed
across India on?
(a) 11 April (b) 12 April
(c) 13 April (d) 14 April
84. An Asteroid numbered 316201 was recently
named after?
Current Affairs || G-57
(a) Viswanathan Anand
(b) Srinivasa Ramanujan
(c) Malala Yousafzai
(d) Bernard Shaw
85. Indias first International Financial Services
Centre (IFSC) recently became operational at
GIFT City in Gandhinagar district of which state?
(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka (d) Gujarat
86. n a landmark development, U.S. President Barack
Obama and Cuban President ____ held a meeting
on 11 April 2015, which marked the first summit
between the two countries since the height of the
Cold War?
(a) Raul Castro
(b) Michelle Bachelet
(c) Simpson Miller
(d) Enrique Pea Nieto
87. Renowned novelist, poet, playwright, illustrator,
graphic artist, sculptor and recipient of the 1999
Nobel Prize in Literature, Gunter Grass who
passed away on 12 April 2015 was from which
country?
(a) Mexico (b) France
(c) Germany (d) Canada
G-58 || Miscellaneous

ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (a) 41. (a) 51. (b) 61. (a) 71. (c) 81. (d)
2. (d) 12. (d) 22. (b) 32. (a) 42. (a) 52. (c) 62. (b) 72. (a) 82. (c)
3. (b) 13. (a) 23. (b) 33. (a) 43. (b) 53. (a) 63. (a) 73. (d) 83. (a)
4. (d) 14. (c) 24. (a) 34. (c) 44. (b) 54. (a) 64. (b) 74. (b) 84. (c)
5. (b) 15. (d) 25. (c) 35. (b) 45. (a) 55. (b) 65. (a) 75. (a) 85. (d)
6. (c) 16. (c) 26. (c) 36. (a) 46. (a) 56. (a) 66. (b) 76. (a) 86. (a)
7. (c) 17. (d) 27. (d) 37. (a) 47. (a) 57. (b) 67. (a) 77. (d) 87. (c)
8. (d) 18. (b) 28. (a) 38. (b) 48. (a) 58. (a) 68. (b) 78. (c)
9. (a) 19. (d) 29. (a) 39. (a) 49. (a) 59. (b) 69. (c) 79. (b)
10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (a) 40. (a) 50. (c) 60. (b) 70. (a) 80. (a)

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Union Ministry of Human Resource
Development on 2 March 2015 appointed Baldev
Sharma as chairman of National Book Trust (NBT).
He is a former Panchajanya editor. He replaced A.
Sethumadhavan
2. (d) The 77th annual convention of presiding
officers, speakers and secretaries of legislative
assemblies and councils was held in Lucknow, Uttar
Pradesh. The four day convention was inaugurated
by Lok Sabha speaker Sumitra Mahajan on 31
January 2015. Uttar Pradesh hosted the annual
convention after 30 years.
3. (b) Hyderabad will host the World Congress on
Information Technology (WCIT) in 2018. This will
be the first WCIT to be held in India and the theme
of the 2018 WCIT will be Future of Enterprises.
WCIT will be attended by over 2500 delegates from
80 countries and would cover issues such as cyber
security, global collaborative models, IT continuing
education policies and other.
4. (d) Kshatrapati Shivaji was on 27 February 2015
appointed as the chairman and Managing Director
(MD) of Small Industries Development Bank of
India (SIDBI). Shivaji was appointed on deputation
basis for a period of three years. Shivaji, a 1986
batch IAS officer, is currently the principal secretary
Finance Department in Maharashtra government.
5. (b) World Diamond Conference was held in New
Delhi. The aim of the conference is to increase the
global market for diamonds. During the conference
ALROSA the largest rough diamond supplying
company of Russia signed agreement for direct sale
of rough diamonds with 12 Indian companies. India
is the worlds largest centre for cutting and polishing
diamond and its largest importer of uncut diamond.
6. (c) Eminent scientist Tapan Mishra was on 20
February 2015 appointed as the chief of ISROs
Space Applications Centre (SAC) at Ahmedabad,
Gujarat. He succeeded A. S. Kiran Kumar, who was
appointed as chairman of the Indian Space Reaserch
Organization (ISRO) on 12 January 2015. Tapan
Mishra was lead designer for the development
of C-band Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) of
Indias RISAT-1 He also led the development of
scatterometer payload of Ocean sat-2 satellite that
was launched in 2009.
7. (c) Naveen Chopra was appointed as the chief
operating officer of Vodafone India. He succeeded
Sunil Sood who was elevated to post of Managing
Director and Chief Executive officer in the company.

8. (d) The 102nd Indian Science Congress was held
in Mumbai from 3 January to 7 January 2015.
The theme of 102nd Indian Science Congress was
Science and Technology for Human Development.
The 102 Indian Science Congress was inaugurated
by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The ISC
was organized by the Indian Science Congress
Association with University of Mumbai.
9. (a) Indian origin Lawyer Kannan Ramesh
was on 27 February 2015 appointed as Judicial
Commissioner to Singapores Supreme Court
bench. He will serve the office for two years. As a
lawyer Ramesh specializes in legal cases related to
insolvency and restructuring dispute resolution, and
international arbitration.
10. (c) 10th Aero India show concluded on 22
February 2015 at the Yelahanka Air Force station in
Bengaluru Karnataka. The five day long show had
started on 18 February 2015 and was inaugurated
by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. During the
10th Aero India show, audience witnessed the
performance of Sarang aerobatic team from the
Indian Air Force flying Dhruv helicopters
11. (c) The 29th Surajkund International Crafts mela
was celebrated from 1 to 15 February 2015 at
Surajkund, Faridabad. Chhattisgarh was selected
as the theme state while Lebanon was partner
Nation for the Surajkund mela. The mela was
jointly hosted by Haryana Tourism Corporation and
Surajkund mela Authority in collaboration with the
Union Ministries of Tourism, Textiles, Culture and
External Affairs.
12. (d) The conference was hosted by the Government
of Japan in cooperation with the United Nations
office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR) as
secretariate of the international strategy for Disaster
Reduction.
13. (a) Book titled Editor Unplugged : Media,
Magnates, Netas and Me written by Vinod Mehta
was in news in the first week of February 2015. The
book was published by Penguins India. Mehta in the
book has highlighted his views on Narendra Modi,
Arvind Kejriwal and the Nehru-Gandhi dynasty.
14. (c) Kapil Isapuri, the Hindi Novelist of Farishta
a ceised filmmakers of PK for plagiarism. He has
sought punitive damages of 1 crore rupees along
with the credit of his work from the filmmakers.
Current Affairs || G-59
15. (d) The Red Sari, an unauthorized biography of
congress party president Sonia Gandhi, was released
by Roli books in India. The book has been written
by spanish author Javier Moro.
16. (c) World Health Organisation every year observes
October 10 as the World Mental Health Day.
17. (d) Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas will be held from
January 7 in Ahmedabad.
18. (b) Bilal Tanweer has been awarded with Shakti
Bhatt First Book Prize- 2014 for his novel The
scatter here is too great.
19. (d) Chhattisgarh has been chosen as the theme
State for Surajkund International Crafts Mela to be
held from 1st February to 15th February 2015.
20. (b) Haruko Obokato, a Japanese researcher came
in prominence after publication of her two papers in
Nature.
21. (d) Panchsheel was signed between India, China
and Myanmar 60 years ago for peaceful co-
existence.
22. (b) India, Japan and the USA are holding joint
naval manoeuvres in Pacific Ocean as part of the
Malabar series of exercises.
23. (b) The book One life is not enough is the
autobiography of Natwar Singh.
24. (a) Sousa Sahulensis is one of the four recognised
species of humpback dolphin. It is grey in colour
and has a characteristic cape pattern on its back.
25. (c) The Lost History of 1914 is written by Jack
Beatty, an American news analyst.
26. (c) G20 summit held in St. Brisbane.
27. (d) G7 summit held in Sochi.
28. (a) ASEAN summit held in Nayi Pyi Taw.
29. (a) The 4th Ministrial meeting of SAARC held in
Bhutan.
30. (a) The 6th BRICS summit held in Durban.
31. (a) The 45rd WEF meeting held in Switzerland.
33. (a) CELAC summit will be held in Costa Rica .
34. (c) UNcommission on the status of women held
in Beijing.
35. (b) Dhyanchand The Wizard of Hockey is written
by Luis Fernandes.
36. (a) Narendra Modi The man, The times is written
by Neelanjan Mukhopadhyay.
37. (a) My Journey Transforming Dreams into
Action is written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.
G-60 || Miscellaneous
38. (b) Tendulkar The Cricketer of the Century is
written by Vimal Kumar.
39. (a) Playing to Win is written by Saina Nehwal.
40. (a) The Namo StoryA Political Life is written by
Kingshuk Nag.
41. (a) World Malala Day observed on 12 July.
42. (a) White Label ATM brand launched by Tata
communication.
43. (b) Ammu is the Mascot of 35th National Games.
44. (b) How Not to Make Money is written by Raj
Kundra.
45. (a) A Bouquet of Vivekanands Writings, released
in Bengali and English languages.
46. (a) Incheon is announced as the World Book Capital
for 2015.
47. (a) Raghuram G. Rajan appointed as the governor
of Reserve Bank of India.
48. (a) The CIC of India is Sushma Singh.
49. (a) H.L. Datta appointed as the Chief Justice of
Supreme Court of India.
50. (c) S. Jaishankar appointed as the Foreign Secretary
of India.
51. (b) Susane Rice is the National Security Advisor of
the US.
52. (c) Nisha Desai Biswal appointed Assistant Foreign
Minister for South and Middle Asia Issues for
America.
53. (a) Abdulla Yameen won the presidential poll of
Maldives.
54. (a) Miss Pia Wurtzbach won the title of Miss
Universe 2015.
55. (b) Swetha Raj was crowned as Miss Asia Pacific
World 2014.
56. (a) A.K. Mittal appointed as the chairman of
Railway Board.
57. (b) Moe Set Wine, the first Miss Universe contender
to represent Myanmar in 50 years.
58. (a) The book Birth of Cinema is written by N.
Gopal Krishna.
59. (b) The book entitled Momentous Times is
authored by Hamid Ansari.
60. (b) The book titled 1283 launched by legendary
footballer Pele.
61. (a) The Third Curve is written by Mansoor Khan.
62. (b) The book Gandhi before India is written by
Ramchandra Guha.
63. (a) The book India and Malaysia : Interwind
Strands is written by Veena Sikri.
64. (b) The book entitled Smritiyan is authored by
Garima Sanjay.
65. (a) The book entitled The Luminaries is written
by Eleanor Catton.
66. (b) An Introduction to Urdu Poetry is written by
Anees Ayesha.
67. (a) The book Maimaar-e-Qaun edited by Mufti
Ataur Rahman Ansari.