PAPER-I

Signature and Name of Invigilator

1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................
(Name) ____________________________ (To be filled by the Candidate)

2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No.

(Name) ____________________________ (In figures as per admission card)
Roll No.________________________________
D 00 1 2
Test Booklet Code W
(In words)

Time : 1 1/4 hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of 1.
this page. 2. - (60) ,
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of (50)
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions 3. , -
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. -
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet , :
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested (i) -
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : -
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet (ii) -
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in /
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other -
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a -
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet

will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) - OMR
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
OMR -
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet

Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)

and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on

the correct response against each item. :
Example : (C)
where (C) is the correct response. 5. - I - II
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer -
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in ,
the circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 6.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 7. (Rough Work)
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put 8. - ,
any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the ,
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose , ,
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other ,
unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer 9. - OMR -
sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. 10. /
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ( )
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12.
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 FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
Marks Obtained

Obtained
Question

Obtained
Obtained

Question
Number

Question
Number

Number
Marks

Marks
Marks
1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60
Total Marks Obtained (in words) ...........................................
(in figures) ..........................................
Signature & Name of the Coordinator ...................................

(Evaluation) Date .........................

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 Paper I
I
Note :

This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.

Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.
: (60) (2)
(50)
(50) (50)
1. The English word Communication is 1.
derived from the words ?
(A) Communis and Communicare (A)
(B) Communist and Commune (B)
(C) Communism and Communalism
(D) Communion and Common sense (C)
2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao (D)
Zedong used a type of communication to 2.
talk to the masses is known as -
(A) Mass line communication ( )
(B) Group communication (A) -
(C) Participatory communication
(D) Dialogue communication (B)
3. Conversing with the spirits and (C)
ancestors is termed as (D)
(A) Transpersonal communication 3.
(B) Intrapersonal communication (A)
(C) Interpersonal communication (B)
(D) Face-to-face communication
(C)
4. The largest circulated daily newspaper (D) - -
among the following is
(A) The Times of India 4.
(B) The Indian Express ?
(C) The Hindu (A)
(D) The Deccan Herald (B)
5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in (C)
India was (D)
(A) K.A. Abbas 5. -
(B) Satyajit Ray
(C) B.R. Chopra (A) .. (B)
(D) Dada Sahib Phalke (C) .. (D)
6. Classroom communication of a teacher 6.
rests on the principle of ?
(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment (A) (B)
(C) Entertainment (D) Power equation (C) (D)
7. The missing number in the series : 7. ?
0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336
(A) 240 (B) 220 (C) 280 (D) 210 (A) 240 (B) 220 (C) 280 (D) 210
8. A group of 7 members having a 8. 6 4 7
majority of boys is to be formed out of
6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways
the group can be formed is ?
(A) 80 (B) 100 (C) 90 (D) 110 (A) 80 (B) 100 (C) 90 (D) 110
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9. The number of observations in a group 9. 40 10
is 40. The average of the first 10 4.5 30
members is 4.5 and the average of the
remaining 30 members is 3.5. The 3.5 ?
average of the whole group is (A) 4 (B) 15/2
(A) 4 (B) 15/2 (C) 15/4 (D) 6
(C) 15/4 (D) 6
10. MOHAN KMFYL ,
10. If MOHAN is represented by the code COUNT
KMFYL, then COUNT will be (A) AMSLR (B) MSLAR
represented by
(C) MASRL (D) SAMLR
(A) AMSLR (B) MSLAR
(C) MASRL (D) SAMLR 11. A B 50
11. The sum of the ages of two persons A 5 5/3 A
and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of B
their ages was 5/3. The present age of A
and B are (A) 30, 20 (B) 35, 15
(A) 30, 20 (B) 35, 15 (C) 38, 12 (D) 40, 10
(C) 38, 12 (D) 40, 10
12. a () , b ()
12. Let a means minus (), b means , C ()
multiplied by (), C means divided by
D (+) , 90 D 9 a 29 C 10
() and D means plus (+). The value of
90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is b 2
(A) 8 (B) 10 (A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 14 (C) 12 (D) 14
13. I II
13. Consider the AssertionI and Assertion
II and select the right code given below : :
AssertionI : Even Bank-lockers are
not safe. Thieves can break them I : ,
and take away your wealth. But
thieves can not go to heaven. So
you should keep your wealth in :
heaven.
AssertionII : The difference of skin-
colour of beings is because of the
II :
distance from the sun and not , -
because of some permanent traits.
Skin-colour is the result of bodys
reaction to the sun and its rays.
Codes : :
(A) Both the assertions-I and II are
forms of argument. (A) I II
(B) The assertion-I is an argument but (B) I , II
the assertion-II is not.
(C) The assertion-II is an argument (C) II , I
but the assertion-I is not.
(D) Both the assertions are
explanations of facts. (D)
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14. By which of the following proposition, 14.
the proposition some men are not ?
honest is contradicted ? (A)
(A) All men are honest.
(B) Some men are honest. (B)
(C) No men are honest. (C)
(D) All of the above. (D)

15. A stipulative definition is 15.

(A) always true (A)
(B) always false (B)
(C) sometimes true sometimes false (C)
(D) neither true nor false
(D)
16. Choose the appropriate alternative 16.
given in the codes to replace the
question mark. , , ?
Examiner Examinee, Pleader Client,
Preceptor ? (A) (B)
(A) Customer (B) Path-finder (C) (D)
(C) Perceiver (D) Disciple
17.
17. If the statement most of the students
are obedient is taken to be true, which ?
one of the following pair of statements
can be claimed to be true ? I.
I. All obedient persons are students. II.
II. All students are obedient. III.
III. Some students are obedient. IV.
IV. Some students are not disobedient. :
Codes :
(A) I & II (B) II & III (A) I II (B) II III
(C) III & IV (D) II & IV (C) III IV (D) II IV

18. :
18. Choose the right code :
A deductive argument claims that :
() :
I. The conclusion does not claim I.
something more than that which is
contained in the premises. II. /
II. The conclusion is supported by the
premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then III.
premise/premises may be either /
true or false.
IV. If premise/combination of premises IV. / ,
is true, then conclusion must be
true. :
Codes : (A) I II (B) I III
(A) I and II (B) I and III
(C) II and III (D) All the above (C) II III (D)
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On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions from 19 to 24 :

Government Expenditures on Social Services

(As percent of total expenditure)
Sl. No. Items 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10 2010-11
Social Services 11.06 12.94 13.06 14.02
(a) Education, sports & youth affairs 4.02 4.04 3.96 4.46
(b) Health & family welfare 2.05 1.91 1.90 2.03
(c) Water supply, housing, etc. 2.02 2.31 2.20 2.27
(d) Information & broadcasting 0.22 0.22 0.20 0.22
(e) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC 0.36 0.35 0.41 0.63
(f) Labour and employment 0.27 0.27 0.22 0.25
(g) Social welfare & nutrition 0.82 0.72 0.79 1.06
(h) North-eastern areas 0.00 1.56 1.50 1.75
(i) Other social services 1.29 1.55 1.87 1.34
Total Government expenditure 100.00 100.00 100.00 100.00

19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure has been less than
5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09 ?
(A) One (B) Three
(C) Five (D) All the above

20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate ?
(A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09
(C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11

21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share of
expenditures ?
(A) North-eastern areas (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information & broadcasting (D) Social welfare and nutrition

22. Which of the following items expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in
the given years ?
(A) Information & broadcasting (B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C) Labour and employment (D) Social welfare & nutrition

23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in
expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11 ?
(A) Education, sports & youth affairs (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Overall social services

24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of
expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10 ?
(A) Labour and employment (B) Health & family welfare
(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Education, sports & youth affairs
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 19 24 :

( )
2007-08 2008-09 2009-10 2010-11

11.06 12.94 13.06 14.02
(a) , 4.02 4.04 3.96 4.46
(b) 2.05 1.91 1.90 2.03
(c) , 2.02 2.31 2.20 2.27
(d) 0.22 0.22 0.20 0.22
(e) / 0.36 0.35 0.41 0.63

(f) 0.27 0.27 0.22 0.25
(g) 0.82 0.72 0.79 1.06
(h) - 0.00 1.56 1.50 1.75
(i) 1.29 1.55 1.87 1.34
100.00 100.00 100.00 100.00

19. - 2008-09 5
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
20. ?
(A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09
(C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11
21. ?
(A) - (B) . /
(C) (D)
22. ?
(A) (B) . /
(C) (D)
23. 2007-08 2010-11
?
(A) ,
(B) /
(C)
(D)
24. 2007-08 2009-10 ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) ,
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25. ALU stands for 25. ...
(A) American Logic Unit (A)
(B) Alternate Local Unit (B)
(C) Alternating Logic Unit (C)
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
(D)
26. A Personal Computer uses a number of 26.
chips mounted on a circuit board called ,
(A) Microprocessor
(B) System Board (A) (B)
(C) Daughter Board (C) (D)
(D) Mother Board
27.
27. Computer Virus is a (A) (B)
(A) Hardware (B) Bacteria
(C) Software (D) None of these (C) (D)
28. Which one of the following is correct ? 28. ?
(A) (17)10 = (17)16 (A) (17)10 = (17)16
(B) (17)10 = (17)8 (B) (17)10 = (17)8
(C) (17)10 = (10111)2 (C) (17)10 = (10111)2
(D) (17)10 = (10001)2 (D) (17)10 = (10001)2
29. The file extension of MS-Word 29. .. 2007
document in Office 2007 is .
(A) .pdf (B) .doc (A) .pdf (B) .doc
(C) .docx (D) .txt (C) .docx (D) .txt
30. is a protocol used by e-mail 30. _______ ( ) -
clients to download e-mails to your -
computer.
(A) TCP (B) FTP
(C) SMTP (D) POP (A) TCP (B) FTP
(C) SMTP (D) POP
31. Which of the following is a source of 31. ?
methane ? (A) - ( )
(A) Wetlands
(B) Foam Industry (B)
(C) Thermal Power Plants (C)
(D) Cement Industry (D)
32. Minamata disaster in Japan was 32.
caused by pollution due to
(A) Lead (B) Mercury ?
(C) Cadmium (D) Zinc (A) (B)
(C) (D)
33. Biomagnification means increase in the 33. - ?
(A) concentration of pollutants in (A)
living organisms
(B) ()
(B) number of species
(C) ()
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass (D)

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34. Nagoya Protocol is related to 34. ( ) ?
(A) Climate change (A)
(B) Ozone depletion
(C) Hazardous waste (B)
(D) Biodiversity (C)
35. The second most important source after (D) -
fossil fuels contributing to Indias 35.
energy needs is ( )
(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower (A)
(D) Wind energy (B)
36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of (C) ( )
magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies (D)
(A) a ten-fold increase in the
amplitude of seismic waves. 36. 1
(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy
of the seismic waves. (A) -
(C) two-fold increase in the amplitude
of seismic waves. (B)
(D) two-fold increase in the energy of (C) -
seismic waves. (D) -
37. Which of the following is not a measure 37.
of Human Development Index ? ?
(A) Literacy Rate
(B) Gross Enrolment (A) (B)
(C) Sex Ratio (C) (D)
(D) Life Expectancy
38.
38. India has the highest number of students ?
in colleges after (A) . . (B) ...
(A) the U.K. (B) the U.S.A.
(C) Australia (D) Canada (C) (D)

39. Which of the following statement(s) 39.

is/are not correct about the Attorney / ?
General of India ? 1.
1. The President appoints a person,
who is qualified to be a Judge of a
High Court, to be the Attorney
General of India. 2.
2. He has the right of audience in all
the Courts of the country. 3.
3. He has the right to take part in the
proceedings of the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha. 4.
4. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the :
codes given below :
Codes : :
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (A) 1 4 (B) 2, 3 4
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only (C) 3 4 (D) 3
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40. Which of the following prefix President 40.
Pranab Mukherjee desires to be
discontinued while interacting with Indian
dignitaries as well as in official notings ? ?
1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim 1. 2.
3. Honble 4. Shri/Smt. 3. 4. /
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below : :
Codes : :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (A) 1 3 (B) 2 3
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 1 2 (D) 1, 2 3
41. Which of the following can be done 41.
under conditions of financial emergency ? ?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be 1.
abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire

2. ,
control over the budget and
expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High 3.
Courts and the Supreme Court can
be reduced. 4.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies
can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the :
codes given below : :
Codes : (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 2, 3 4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1 2 (D) 2 3
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3
42. Match List I with List II and select 42. I II
the correct answer from the codes given
below : :
List I List II I II
(a) Poverty (i) Mid-day (a) (i) -
Reduction Meals
Programme

(b) Human (ii) Indira Awas (b) (ii)
Development Yojana
Scheme (IAY) (...)
(c) Social (iii) National Old (c) (iii)
Assistance Age Pension
Scheme (NOAP) (....)
(d) Minimum (iv) MNREGA (d) (iv)
Need Scheme
Codes : :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
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43. For an efficient and durable learning, 43.
learner should have
(A) ability to learn only (A)
(B) requisite level of motivation only (B)
(C) opportunities to learn only (C)
(D) desired level of ability and
(D)
motivation

44. Classroom communication must be 44.

(A) Teacher centric (A)
(B) Student centric (B)
(C) General centric (C)
(D) Textbook centric (D)

45. The best method of teaching is to 45.

(A) impart information (A)
(B) ask students to read books (B)
(C) suggest good reference material (C)
(D) initiate a discussion and (D)
participate in it
46. Interaction inside the classroom should 46.
generate ?
(A) Argument (A) -
(B) Information (B)
(C) Ideas
(C)
(D) Controversy
(D)
47. Spare the rod and spoil the child, 47.
gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class should be (A)
banned.
(B) corporal punishment is not (B)
acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be (C)
punished.
(D) children should be beaten with (D)
rods.
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48. The type of communication that the 48.
teacher has in the classroom, is termed
as (A)
(A) Interpersonal (B) -
(B) Mass communication (C)
(C) Group communication
(D) -
(D) Face-to-face communication

49. Which one of the following is an 49.

indication of the quality of a research ?
journal ?
(A)
(A) Impact factor
(B) -
(B) h-index
(C) g-index (C) -

(D) i10-index (D) i10-

50. Good research ethics means 50.

(A) Not disclosing the holdings of (A)
shares/stocks in a company that /
sponsors your research.
(B) Assigning a particular research (B) ../
problem to one Ph.D./research
student only. (C)
(C) Discussing with your colleagues
confidential data from a research
paper that you are reviewing for
an academic journal. (D)
(D) Submitting the same research

manuscript for publishing in more
than one journal.

51. Which of the following sampling 51.

methods is based on probability ? ?
(A) Convenience sampling (A)
(B) Quota sampling (B)
(C) Judgement sampling (C)
(D) Stratified sampling (D)
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52. Which one of the following references 52.
is written according to American (...) ?
Psychological Association (APA)
format ? (A) , . (2010).
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals .
of Computer Science. :
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill (B) , . 2010.
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals .
of Computer Science. :
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C) . . 2010.
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of
,
Computer Science,
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
:
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals (D) , . (2010),
of Computer Science, ,
New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill :

53. Arrange the following steps of research 53.

in correct sequence : :
1. Identification of research problem 1.
2. Listing of research objectives 2.
3. Collection of data 3.
4. Methodology 4.
5. Data analysis 5.
6. Results and discussion 6.
(A) 1 2 3 4 5 6 (A) 123456
(B) 1 2 4 3 5 6 (B) 124356
(C) 2 1 3 4 5 6 (C) 213456
(D) 2 1 4 3 5 6 (D) 214356

54. Identify the incorrect statement : 54. :

(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis (A)
of limited evidence as a starting
point for further investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis for (B)
reasoning without any assumption
of its truth.

(C) Hypothesis is a proposed (C)
explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a (D)
scientific theory.
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Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60) :
The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is
that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes
environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment,
crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality ? Given the unprecedental increase
in urban population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in
developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.
In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and
sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a
large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in
Asias largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access
to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined
during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional
urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant
progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional
population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements
must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and
strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.

55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Neutral (D) Unspecified
56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950
to 2000 A.D. was close to
(A) 30 million (B) 40 million
(C) 50 million (D) 60 million

57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in

(A) How well the situation has been managed.
(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D) How fast the environment has degraded.

58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life ?
(A) Tempo of urbanization (B) Provision of basic services
(C) Access to social amenities (D) All the above

59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on

(A) Extension of Knowledge
(B) Generation of Environmental Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning
(D) Descriptive Statement

60. In the above passage, the author intends to state

(A) The hazards of the urban life (B) The sufferings of the urban life
(C) The awareness of human progress (D) The limits to growth
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 55 60 :

,
, , , ,
? 50 1950 300
2000 2

, , ,
: , ,

20

,
(1990-2000) 293
-,
- -
55.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56. 1950 2000 .. ?
(A) 30 (B) 40
(C) 50 (D) 60
57.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

58. ?
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)

59. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

60. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
_____________
W-00 15

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W-00 16

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UGC - NET DECEMBER 2012
ANSWER KEYS (PAPER I)
Q.No. W X Y Z
Q01 A A D A
Q02 A D C B
Q03 A D A D
Q04 A C C B
Q05 D A B A
Q06 B D A A
Q07 D B C A
Q08 B C D C
Q09 C D A D
Q10 A B D A
Q11 A A B A
Q12 D D D A
Q13 B D C A
Q14 A C C D
Q15 D D C B
Q16 D C A D
Q17 C D B B
Q18 A A D C
Q19 D B A A
Q20 B A B A
Q21 C D D D
Q22 D C B B
Q23 B A A D
Q24 A C A B
Q25 D B A C
Q26 D A C D
Q27 C C D B
Q28 D D A A
Q29 C A A D
Q30 D D A D
Q31 A B A C
Q32 B D D D
Q33 A C B C
Q34 D C D D
Q35 C C B A
Q36 A A C B
Q37 C B A A
Q38 B D A D
Q39 A A D C
Q40 C B B A
Q41 D D A C
Q42 A B D B
Q43 D A D A

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Q44 B A C C
Q45 D A A D
Q46 C C D A
Q47 C D D D
Q48 C A C B
Q49 A A D D
Q50 B A C C
Q51 D A D C
Q52 A D A C
Q53 B B B A
Q54 D D A B
Q55 B B D D
Q56 A C B A
Q57 A A C D
Q58 A A D D
Q59 C D B C
Q60 D B A A

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