Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
2017
COMBINED TEST 6 (P, C, B)
2
(2) At angle of tan 1 with the vertical towards the west.
5
5
(3) At angle of tan 1 with the vertical towards the east.
2
5
(4) At angle of tan 1 with the vertical towards the west.
2
19. If a body is projected with an angle to the horizontal, then
(1) Its velocity is always perpendicular to its acceleration.
(2) Its velocity becomes zero at its maximum height.
(3) Its velocity makes zero angle with the horizontal at its maximum height.
(4) The body just before hitting the ground, the direction of velocity coincides
with the acceleration
20.Two particles are projected in air with speed u at angles 1 and 2 (both acute) to
the horizontal respectively. If the height reached by the first particle is greater
than that of the second, then which one of the following is correct?
(1) 1 > 2 (2) 1 = 2 (3) T1 < T2 (4) T1 = T2
21. Two projectiles are fired from the same point with the same speed at angles of
projection 600 and 300 respectively. Which one of the following is true?
(1) Their range will be the same
(2) Their maximum height will be the same
(3) Their velocity at the highest point will be the same
(4) Their time of flight will be the same
22. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a speed of 360 k m h-1 released a bomb at
a height of 490 m from the ground. If g=9.8 ms-2, it will strike the ground at
(1) 10 km (2) 100 km (3) 1 km (4) 16 km
23. A ball is thrown from the top of a tower with an initial velocity of 10 ms -1 at an
angle of 300 with the horizontal. If it hits the ground at a distance of 17.3 m from
the base of the tower, the height of the tower is (Take g=10 m s-2)
(1) 5 m (2) 20 m (3) 15 m (4) 10 m
-2
24. A player kicks a ball at a speed of 20 ms so that its horizontal range is maximum.
Another player 24 m away in the direction of kick starts running in the same
direction at the same instant of hit. If he has to catch the ball just before it
reaches the ground, he should run with a velocity equal to (Take g=10 m s-2)
(1) 2 2ms 1 (2) 4 2ms 1 (3) 6 2ms 1 (4) 10 2ms 1
25. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) In one dimension motion, the velocity and the acceleration of an object are
always along the same line
(2) In two or three dimensions, the angle between velocity and acceleration
vectors may have any value between 00 and 1800.
(3) The kinematic equations for uniform acceleration can be applied in case of a
uniform circular motion.
(1) 1 N along y-axis (2) 1 N along x-axis (3) 0.5 N along x-axis (4) 0.5 N
along the y-axis
31. Figure shows the position-time graph of a particle of mass 4 kg. Let the force on
the particle for t<0, 0<t<4s, t>4 s be F1, F2 and F3 respectively. Then
(3) The gain in kinetic energy of the drop is not equal to the loss of potential
energy of the drop
(4) All of these
43. Two springs of spring constants 1000 N m-1 and 2000 N m-1are stretched with
same force. They will have potential energy in the ratio of
(1) 2:1 (2) 22 : 12 (3) 1:2 (4) 12 : 22
44.When two spheres of equal masses undergo glancing elastic collision with one of
them at rest, after collision they will move
(1) Opposite to one another (2) in the same direction
(3) together (4) at right angle to each other
45. A particle of mass 1 g moving with a velocity v1 3i 2 jms 1 experiences a
perfectly in elastic collision with another particle of mass 2 g and velocity
1 . The velocity of the particle is
v2 4 j 6kms
(1) 2.3 m s-1 (2) 4.6 m s-1 (3) 9.2 m s-1 (4) 6 m s-1
Part B (Chemistry)
46. What is true regarding complete combustion of gaseous isobutene?
(1) H= E (2) H > E (3) H= E = 0 (4) H < E
47. How much heat is produced when 4.50 g methane gas is burnt in a constant pressure system?
Given: CH4 +2O2 CO2+2H2O; H= -802 kJ
(1) 225.6 kJ (2)125.6 kJ (3)175.6 kJ (4) 325.6 kJ
48. Hf o for Al2O3 is -1670 kJ. Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction : 4Al+3O22Al2O3
(1) 2340 kJ (2) 3340 kJ (3) 1340 kJ (4) 4320 kJ
49. Calculate the heat of neutralization by mixing 200 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4 and 200 ml of 0.2 M
KOH if heat generated by the mixing is 2.3 kJ.
(1) 17.5 kJ (2) 42.5 kJ (3) 57.5 kJ (4) 34.5 kJ
50. A system does 100 J of work on surroundings by absorbing 150 J of heat. Calculate the change
in internal energy.
(1) 100 J (2) 50 J (3) 25 J (4) 150 J
51. Heat of resolution for C6H12O6 (s) +6O2 (g) 6CO2 (g) + 6H2O (I) at constant pressure is
651 kcal at 170 C. Calculate the heat of reaction at constant volume at 17o C.
(1) 554.5 kcal (2) 654.5 kcal (3) 354.5 kcal (4) 154.5 kcal
52. The heat of combustion of naphthalene (C10H8(s)) at constant volume was measured to be
5133 kJ mol-1 at 298 K. Calculate the value of enthalpy change. (Given R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1).
(1) 3137955.14 Joule (2) 5137955.14 Joule
(3) 4127955.14 Joule (4) 3247955.14 Joule
53. Calculate the work performed when 2 moles of hydrogen expands isothermally and reversibly
at 250C from 15 to 50 litres.
(1) 1436 calories (2) 1318 calories (3)- 1215 calories (4) 1172 calories
54. Which one of the following equations does not correctly represents the first law of
thermodynamics for the given process?
(1) Isothermal process : q= - w
(2) Cyclic process : q= - w
(3) Expansion of gas into vacuum : = q
(4) Adiabatic process : = - w
55. The work done in ergs for the reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from a volume
of 10 litres to 20 litres at 250 C is
(1) 2.303 x 298 x 0.082 log 2 (2) 298 x 108 x 8.31 x 2.303 log 2
(3)2.303 298 x 0.082 log 0.2 (4) 8.31 x 107 x 298 2.303 log 0.5
56. In a closed insulated container, a liquid is stirred with a paddle to increase its temperature. In
this process, which of the following is true?
(1) E=W=Q=0 (2) E0, Q=W=0 (3) E=W0, Q=0 (4) E=Q 0, W=0
57. One mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expand freely and adiabatically into vacuum until its
volume has doubled. A statement which is not true concerning this expression is
(1) H=0 (2) S=0 (3) E=0 (4) W=0
58. Calculate the standard free energy change for the reaction N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 at
298K .Given H0 = - 92.4 kJ and S0 = - 198.3 JK-1.
(1) 23.106 kJ (2) 43.506 kJ (3) 33.306 kJ (4) 13.306 kJ
59. Determine the enthalpy change for the reaction CH4 (g) + Cl2 (g) CH3Cl (g) + HCl (g). Bond
energies for C H, C Cl, Cl Cl, H Cl are 412, 338, 242, 431 kJ/mol respectively.
(1) 215 kJ/mol (2) 115 kJ/mol (3) 130 kJ/mol (4) 145 kJ/mol
60. Calculate the standard enthalpy change for a reaction CO2 (g) + H2 (g) CO (g) + H2O (g)
given Hf0 CO2 (g), CO (g) and H2O (g) as 393.5, - 110.5 and 241.8 kJ/mol respectively.
(1) 31.2 kJ (2) 21.2 kJ (3) 11.2 kJ (4) 41.2 kJ
61. C (graphite) +O2 (g) CO2 (g); H= - 94.05 kcal mol -1
69. The specific heats of iodine vapours and solid are 0.031 and 0.055 Cal/g respectively. If heat
of sublimation of iodine is 24 Cal/g at 2000 C, what is its value at 2500 C?
(1) 22.8 Cal/g (2) 11.2 Cal/g (3)12.8 Cal/g (4) 24.4 Cal/g
70. A sample of gas is compressed by an average pressure of 0.50 atmosphere so as to decrease its
volume from 400 cm3 to 200 cm3. During the process 8.00 J of heat flows out to surroundings.
Calculate the change in internal energy of the system.
(1) 2.13 J (2) 4.17 J (3) 1.13 J (4) 3.52 J
71. Identify the transition elements.
(1) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s2 (2) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d2, 4s2
(3) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s2 4p2 (4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s2 4p1
72. Which one of the following orders presents the correct sequence of the increasing basic nature
of the given oxides?
(1)Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O (2) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O
(3) Na2O < K2O< MgO< Al2O3 (4) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3< MgO
73. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the ionic radii of the elements is
(1) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F- >O2- (2) Na+> Mg2+> Al3+ >O2- > F-
(3) Na+> F- > Mg2+>O2- > Al3+ (4) O2- > F- > Na+> Mg2+> Al3+
74. In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to the property
written against it?
(1) CO2 < SiO2<SnO2<PbO2; increasing oxidizing power
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI; increasing acid strength
(3) NH3>PH3<AsH3 < SbH3; increasing basic strength
(4) B<C<O<N; increasing first ionization enthalpy
75. The correct order of increasing electron affinity of halogens is
(1) F<Cl<Br<I (2) I<Br<F<Cl (3) I>Br<Cl<F (4) Br<I<F<Cl
3- 2- -
76. The ionic radii of isoelectronic species N , O and F are in the order?
(1) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71 (2) 1.36, 0.71, 1.40 (3) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36 (4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40
77. Na2O, MgO, Al2O3 and SiO2 have heat of formation equal to 416, - 602, - 1676 and
911 kJ mol-1 respectively. The most stable oxide is
(1) Na2O (2) MgO (3) Al2O3 (4) SiO2
78. The correct order of acidic strength
(1) Cl2O7>SO2>P4O10 (2) K2O>CaO>MgO
(3) CO2>N2O5>SO3 (4) Na2O>MgO>Al2O3
79. Paulings electro negativity values for elements are useful in predicting
(1) Polarity of bonds in molecules
(2) Position of elements in electromotive series
(3) Coordination number
(4) Dipole moment of various molecules
80. The correct order of increasing oxidizing power is
(1) F2<Cl2<I2>Br2 (2) F2<Br2<Cl2<I2 (3) Cl2<Br2<F2<I2 (4) I2<Br2<Cl2<F2
81. Which one of the following is highest melting halide?
(1) AgCl (2) AgBr (3) AgF (4) AgI
Part C (Biology)
91. Tse-tse fly is a vector for sleeping sickness which transmits the infective stage of
which of the following parasite
(1) Leishmania donavani (2) Plasmodium fa1ciparum
(3) Trypanosoma gambiense (4) Wuchereria bancrofti
92. Fever in malaria is due to
(1) Entry of sporozoites into blood capillaries
(2) Entry of merozoites into liver cells
(3) Release of merozoites from red blood cells
(4) Entry of cryptomerozoites into red blood cells
93. Malaria is transmitted by 'Anopheles'. This was discovered by
(1) A. Laveran (2) Ronald Ross (3) Pasteur (4) Huxley
94. Filaria germ is a kind of
(1) Bacteria (2) Helminthes (3) Mosquito
(4) Protozoa
95. The accumulation of excess fluid in tissue space is called
(1) Hodgkin's disease (2) Parkinson's disease (3) Oedema
(4) Cirrhosis
96. Which of the following is a matching pair of the vector and the disease
(1) Culex -Filariasis (2) Housefly - Yellow fever
(3) Body louse - Typhoid (4) Sandfly - Plague
97. Congenital diseases are those which
(1) Occur during life time (2) Are deficiency diseases
(3) Are present from time of birth (4) Are spread from man to man
98. A non-infectious unnatural and unusual reaction of a person to any substance or
condition for which he is hypersensitive is termed as
(1) A and B only (2) Band Conly (3) Band D only (4) A and C only
169. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked
with an inhibitor?
(1) In the absence of HCI secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the
active enzyme pepsin
(2) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so
trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin
(3) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
(4) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen.
170. A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother's milk which is white in colour
but the stools which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow
colour due to?
(1) bile pigments passed through bile juice (2) undigested milk protein casein
(3) pancreatic juice poured into duodenum (4) intestinal juice
171. Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption
of food in humans?
(1) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the
help of carrier ions like Na+
(2) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from
intestine into blood capillaries
(3) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
(4) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
172. Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the
stomach totally undigested?
(1) starch and fat (2) fat and cellulose
(3) starch and cellulose (4) protein and starch
173. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead
to
(1) Indigestion (2) Jaundice (3) Diarrhoea (4)
Vomiting
174. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of
blindness associated with vitamin'A' deficiency ?
(1) 'Flaver Savr' tomato(2) Canolla (3) Golden rice (4) Bt-
Brinjal
175. Which one of the following human organs is often called the graveyard of RBCs?
(1) Gall bladder (2) Kidney (3) Spleen (4) Liver
176. Which of the following is the matching pair of the deficient nutrient and the
resulting disease in which the patient develops swollen lips, thick pigmented skin
of hands and legs and irritability
(1) Iodine-goitre (2) Niacin-pellagra (3) Thiamine-beri beri (4) Protein -
Kwashiorkar
177. Which of the following is not a source of vitamin A
(1) Carrot (2) Mango (3) Apple (4) Yeast
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COMBINED TEST 6 (P, C, B)
178. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a certain body feature and its
value/count in a normal human adult
(1) Urea 5-10 mg/100 ml of blood (2) Blood sugar 80-100 mg/ 100 ml
(3) Total blood volume 3-4 litres (4) ESR in wintrobe method 9-15
mm per hour in males and 20-34 mm per hour in females
179. The richest sources of vitamin B12 are
(1) Rice and hens egg (2) Carrot and chickens breast
(3) Goats liver and Spirulina (4) Chocolate and green gram
180. One of the following is not a common disorder associated with digestive system