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NEET | 20.08.

2017
COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)


Time: 3 hrs
Part A (Physics)
1. A person throws vertically n balls per second with the same velocity. He
throws a ball whenever the previous one is at its highest point. The height
to which the balls rise is
(1) g/n2 (2) 2gn (3) g/2n2 (4) 2gn2
2. The graph shown illustrates velocity versus time for two cars A and B
constrained to move in a straight line. Both cars were at the same position
at t = 0s. Consider the following statements.
(1) Car A is travelling west and Car B is travelling east.
(2) Car A overtakes Car B at t = 5s.
(3) Car A overtakes Car B at t = 10s

Which of the following is correct?


(1) only statement 1 is true (2) only statement 2 is true
(3) only statement 3 is true (4) only statements 1 and 2 are
true
3. A body A begins to move with initial velocity 2 m/sec and continues to
move at a constant acceleration a. t = 10 seconds after the body A begins
to move a body B departs from the same point with an initial velocity 12
m/sec and moves with the same acceleration a. What is the maximum
acceleration a at which the body B can overtake A?
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2 (3) 1/2 m/s2 (4) 3 m/s2
4. A man travelling in a car with a maximum constant speed of 20m/s
watches the friend start off at a distance 100m ahead on a motor cycle
with constant acceleration a. The maximum value of a
for which the main in the car can reach his friend is

(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 1m/s2 (3) 4 m/s2 (4) none of these


5. The acceleration versus time graph for a particle moving along a straight
line is shown in the figure. If the particle starts from rest at t = 0, then its
speed at t = 30 sec will be

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(1) 20 m/sec (2) 0 m/sec (3) 40 m/sec (4) 40 m/sec

6. In 1.0 sec. a particle goes from point A to point B moving in a


semicircle of radius 1.0 m. The magnitude of average velocity
is :

(1) 3.14 m/sec (2) 2.0 m/sec (3) 1.0 m/sec


(4)zero
7. The greatest acceleration or deceleration that a train may have is a. The
minimum time in which the train may reach from one station to the other
separated by a distance d is
d 2d 1 d d
2
(1) a (2) a (3) 2 a (4) a
8. A car accelerates from rest at constant rate of 2 m/s2 for some time.
Then its retards at a constant rate of 4 m/s 2 and comes to rest. What is
the maximum speed attained by the car if it remains in motion for 3
seconds
(1) 2 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(3) 4 m/s (4) 6 m/s
9. What are the speeds of two objects if they move uniformly towards
each other, they get 4m closer in each second and if they move
uniformly in the same direction with the original speeds they get 4m
closer in each 10 sec ?
(1) 2.8 m/s and 1.2 m/s (2) 5.2 m/s and 4.6 m/s
(3) 3.2 m/s and 2.1 m/s (4) 2.2 m/s and 1.8 m/s
10. From the top of a tower, a stone is thrown up. It reaches the ground in
5 sec. A second stone is thrown down with the same speed
and reaches the ground in 1sec. A third stone is released from
rest and reaches the ground in
(1) 3 sec (2) 2 sec
(3) 5 sec (4) 2.5 sec
RT
11. The speed of sound in a gas is given by v where the letters have usual
M
meanings. The dimensional formula of is
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [MLT] (3) [MLT-2] (4) [M0L0T-1]
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COMBINED TEST 4 (P, C, B)

12. In the equation X=3YZ2, X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic
induction respectively. In MKS system, the dimensional formula for Y is
(1) [M-3L-2T-2Q-4] (2) [ML-2] (3) [M-3L-2Q4 T8] (4) [M-3L-2Q4 T4]
x
13. The equation of a wave is given by y A sin k , where is the angular
v
velocity and v is the linear velocity. The dimensional formula of k is
(1) [LT] (2) [T] (3) [T-1] (4) [T2]
14. The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation F=A cos
D
Bx+C sin Dt. The dimensional formula of is
B
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M0L0T-1] (3) [M0L-1T0] (4) [M0L1T-1]
15. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by MaLbTc, then the physical
quantity will be
(1) Velocity if a=1, b=0, c=-1 (2) acceleration if a=1, b=1, c=-2
(3) force if a=0, b=-1, c=-2 (4) pressure if a=1, b=-1, c=-2
16. A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 km h-1 ejects its products of
combustion at the speed of 1500 km h-1 relative to the jet plane. The speed of the
products of combustion with respect to an observer on the ground is
(1) 500 km h-1 (2) 1000 km h-1 (3) 1500 km h-1 (4) 2000 km h-1
17. Two towns A and B are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in
either direction every T minutes. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km h -1 in the
direction A to B notices that a bus goes past him every 18 min in the direction of
his motion, and every 6 min in the opposite direction. The period T of bus service
is
(1) 4.5 min (2) 9 min (3) 12 min (4) 24 min
18. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30 km h-1 fires a bullet at a
theifs car speeding away in the same direction with a speed of 192 kmh -1. If the
muzzle speed of the bullet is 150 ms-1, with what speed does the bullet hit the
thiefs car?
(1) 90 ms-1 (2) 105 ms-1 (3) 110 ms-1 (4) 120 ms-1
19. Figure gives the x-t plot of a particle executing one dimensional simple harmonic
motion. Mark the correct combination. The signs of position, velocity and
acceleration variables at

(1) t=0.3 s, x<0, v<0, a<0 (2) t=1.2 s, x>0, v>0, a>0
(3) t=-1.2 s, x>0, v>0, a<0 (4) t=-0.3 s, x>0, v<0, a<0
20.Figure gives the x-t plot of a particle in one dimensional motion. Three different
equal intervals of time are shown. Let v1,v2,v3 be the average speed in each of
the intervals respectively, then
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(1) v1<v2>v3 (2) v1>v2>v3 (3) v3>v1>v2 (4) v2>v1<v3


21. On a long horizontally moving belt, a child runs to and fro with a speed 9 kmh -1
(with respect to the belt) between his father and mother located 50 m apart on
the moving belt. The belt moves with a speed of 4 km h-1. The time taken by the
child in running against the motion of the belt, between his parents is
(1) 10 s (2) 20 s (3) 25 s (4) 30 s
22. Which one of the following represents the time displacement graph of two objects
P and Q moving with zero relative speed?

23. Four velocity-time graphs (namely I, II, III and IV) are shown in figure in which
case is the acceleration uniform and positive?

(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV


24. From a high tower at time t=0, one stone is dropped from rest and
simultaneously another stone is projected vertically up with an initial velocity.
The graph of the distance s between the two stones, before either hits the
ground, plotted against time t will be as

25. A particle stating from rest with uniform acceleration travels a distance x in first
2 second and a distance y in next 2 second, then
(1) y=2x (2) y=3x (3) y=4x (4) y=x
26. Speeds of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific instant. If the same
deceleration is applied on both the cars, the ratio of the respective distance in
which the two cars are stopped from that instant is
(1) 1:1 (2) 1:4 (3) 1:8 (4) 1:16

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27. The position of a particle is given by r 3ti 2t 2 j 5k where t is in second and the
coefficients have proper units for r to be in metres. The direction of v(t) at t=1 s
is
(1) 370 with the x-axis (2) 530 with the x-axis (3) 450 with the y-axis (4)
0
60 with the y-axis
28.A particle starts from origin at t=0 with a velocity 5i m/s and moves in x-y plane
under action of a force which produce a constant acceleration of (3i 2 j ) m/s2.
The y-coordinate of the particle, when its x-coordinate is 84 m is
(1) 12 m (2) 24 m (3) 36 m (4) 48 m
29. A fighter plane flying horizontally at an altitude of 1.5 km with speed of 720 km/h
passes directly overhead an anti-aircraft gun. At what angle from the vertical
should the gun be fired for the cell with muzzle speed 600 ms-1 to hit the plane?
1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2
(1) sin (2) sin (3) cos (4) cos
3 3 3 3
30.What is the angle between ( A B) and ( A B) ?
3
(1) 00 (2) radian (3) radian (4) radian
2 2
31. An aeroplane flying horizontally with a velocity of 216 kmh-1 drops a food packet
while flying at a height of 490 m. The total horizontal distance travelled by the
packet is
(1) 600 m (2) 490 m (3) 216 m (4) 490 x 216 m

32. The x and y coordinates of a particle at any time t are given by x=2t+4t2 and y=5t,
where x and y are in metre and t in second. The acceleration of the particle at t=5
s is
(1) 40 ms-2 (2) 20 ms-2 (3) 8 ms-2 (4) zero
-1
33. Two projectiles, one fired from earth with 5 ms and the other fired from a
planet with 3 ms-1 trace identical trajectories. If acceleration due to gravity on
earth is 9.8 ms-2, then the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is
(1) 1.5 ms-2 (2) 3.5 ms-2 (3) 7.5 ms-2 (4) 9.5 ms-2
34. A body is projected at 300 angle with the horizontal with velocity 30 ms-1. What is
the angle with the horizontal after 1.5 s? (take g=10 ms-2)
(1) 00 (2) 300 (3) 600 (4) 900
-1
35. A plane flying horizontally at 98 ms releases an object which reaches the ground
10 s. The angle made by the velocity of the object with the horizontal at the time
of hitting the ground is
(1) 300 (2) 450 (3) 600 (4)
0
75
36. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed v0 at an angle of projection . From the
same point and at the same instant a person starts running with a constant speed

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v0/2 to catch the ball. Will the person be able to catch the ball? If s, what should
be the angle of projection?
(1) Yes, 600 (2) Yes, 300 (3) No (4) Yes, 450
37. On a two-lane road car A is travelling with a speed of 36 km h -1. Two cars B and C
approach car A in opposite directions, with a speed of 54 km h-1. At a certain
instant, when the distance of AB is equal to AC, both being 1 km, B decides to
overtake A before C does. The minimum required acceleration of car B to avoid an
accident is
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 1.5 m/s2 (3) 2 m/s2 (4)3 m/s2
38.Figure shows the graphical variation of displacement with time for the case of a
particle moving along a straight line. The accelerations of the particle during the
intervals OA, AB, BC and CD are respectively.

OA AB BC CD
(1) - 0 + 0
(2) + 0 + +
(3) - 0 - 0
(4) + 0 - +
39. Two stones are projected from the same point with same speed making angles
450+ and 450 - with the horizontal respectively. If 450, then the horizontal
ranges of the two stones are in the ratio of
(1) 1:1 (2) 1:2 (3)1:3 (4)
1:4
40. Two projectiles A and B are thrown with velocities v and v/2 respectively. They
have the same range. If B is thrown at an angle of 150 to the horizontal, A must
have been thrown at an angle of
1 1 1
(1) sin 1 (2) sin 1 (3) 2sin 1 (4)
16
4
4
1 1 1
sin
2 8
41. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 ms-1 and
angle with the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a
velocity of 3 ms-1 at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with
the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the
acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms ) given g=9.8 m/s2
-2

(1) 3.5 (2) 5.9 (3) 16.3 (4) 110.8


0
42. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45 with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the
projectile at its highest point as seen from the point of projection is

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1 3
(1) 600 (2) tan 1 (3) tan 1 (4) 450
2
2
43. If a body A of mass M is thrown with velocity v at an angle of 300 to the
horizontal and another body B of the same mass is thrown with the same speed at
an angle of 600 to the horizontal, the ratio of horizontal range of A to B will be:
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 :1
44.The maximum range of a gun of horizontal terrain is 16 km. If g=10 ms -2, then
muzzle velocity of a shell must be
(1) 160 ms-1 (2) 200 2 ms-1 (3) 400 ms-1 (4) 800 ms-1
45. Two bodies of same mass are projected with the same velocity at an angle 300
and 600 respectively. The ratio of their horizontal ranges will be
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 2

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Part B (Chemistry)
46. Which of the following anion has the smallest radius?
(1) H
F (3) Cl (4) Br
47. The first, second and third ionization energies (E1, E2 and E3) for an element are 7eV,
12.5 eV and 42.5 eV respectively. The most stable oxidation state of the element will
be
(1) +1 (2) +4 (3) +3 (4) +2
48. The elements with atomic number 117 and 120 are yet to be discovered. In which
group would you place these elements when discovered?
(1) 17, 2 (2) 16, 4 (3) 15, 3 (4) 18, 2
49. The number of elements present in fifth period is:
(1) 18 (2) 32 (3) 8 (4) 24
50. In the periodic table, metallic character of the elements shows one of the following
trend:
(1) Decreases down the group and increases across the period
(2) Increases down the group and decreases across the period
(3) Increases across the period and also down the group
(4) Decreases across the period and also down the group
51. The ionic radii of Li+, Be2+ and B3+ follow the order:
(1) Be2+ > B3+ > Li+ (2) Li+> B3+> Be2+
(3) B3+ > Be2+ > Li+ (4) Li+> Be2+ > B3+
52. The correct order of increasing radius of the elements Si, Al, Na and P is:
(1) Si < Al < P<Na (2) P<Si<Al<Na
(3) Al<Si<P<Na (4) Al<P<Si<Na
2+ 4+
53. The size of the species Pb, Pb , Pb decreases as:
(1) Pb4+> Pb2+> Pb (2) Pb> Pb2+> Pb4+
(3) Pb> Pb4+> Pb2+ (4) Pb4+> Pb > Pb2+
54. The first I.E. of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order:
(1) Na<Mg<Al < Si (2) Na<Al <Mg < Si
(3) Na <Al < Si<Mg (4) Na>Mg>Al> Si
55. Arrange N, O and S in order of decreasing electron affinity.
(1) S>O>N (2) O>S>N (3) N>O>S (4) S>N>O
56. The increasing order of electron affinity of the electronic configurations of element
is:
I. 1s2 2s22p63s23p5 II. 1s2 2s22p3 III. 1s2 2s22p5 IV. 1s2 2s22p63s1

(1) II<IV<III<I (2) I<II<III<IV (3) I<III<II<IV (4) IV<III<II<I


57. Among the following oxides, which has the maximum lattice energy?
(1) MgO (2) CaO (3) SrO (4) BaO
58. Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing radius?
(1) K+(aq)<Na+(aq)<Li+(aq) (2) Na+(aq)< K+(aq)<Li+(aq)
(3) K+(aq)<Li+(aq)<Na+(aq) (4) Li+(aq)<Na+(aq) <K+(aq)

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59. According to modern periodic law the properties of elements repeat at regular
intervals when the elements are arranged in order of:
(1) Decreasing atomic number (2) Increasing atomic weight
(3) Increasing atomic number (4) Decreasing atomic weights
60. The formation of the oxide ion O2(g) requires first an exothermic and then an
endothermic step as shown below:
O (g) + eg); H= - 142 kJ mol
O (g) + eg); H= 844 kJ mol
This is because
(1) Oion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom
(2) Oxygen has high electron affinity
(3) ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron
(4) Oxygen is more electronegative
61. A square planar complex is formed by the hybridization of
(1) s, px, py, pz orbitals (2) s, px, py, pz, d orbitals
(3) dx2-y2, s, px, py orbitals (4) s, px, py, dxy, dx2-y2, orbitals
62. Which of the following shows the correct order of increase in bond strengths of O2,
O2-, O22- and O2+?
(1) O2+ < O2 < O2- < O22- (2) O2 < O2+ < O2- < O22-
(3) O2- < O22- < O2+ < O2 (4) O22- < O2- < O2 < O2+
63. In which of the following pairs do both the molecules have permanent dipole
moments?
(1) SiF4 and NO2+ (2) NO2+ and CO2 (3) NO2 and O3 (4) SiF4 and CO2
64. Which of the following chlorides has the lowest melting point?
(1) BeCl2 (2) MgCl2 (3) SnCl2 (4) NaCl
65. Which of the following molecules sublimes on heating?
(1) SnCl2 (2) AlCl3 (3) LiF (4) KI
66. Which of the following compounds shows the maximum hardness?
(1) CaO (2) MgS (3) MgO (4) LiF
67. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of Fajans rules
explaining covalency?
(1) The covalent character increases as the size of the cation decreases.
(2) The covalent character increases as the size of the anion increases.
(3) The covalent character is more pronounced in cations with non-noble-gas
configurations than in carbons of similar size with noble-gas configurations.
(4) All of these
68. Anion polarization in the presence of a small cation takes places when
(1) the anion is smaller in size (2) the anion is bigger in size
(3) the cation is smaller in size (4)both the cation and anion are of
the same size
69. Hybridization means addition of
(1) electrons (2) nuclei (3) orbitals (4) all the above

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70. Which of the following pairs of molecules are diamagnetic according to molecular
orbital theory?
(A) B2 and C2 (B) N2 and O2 (C) O2 and F2 (D) F2 and
Ne2
71. Most stable molecules
(1) have paired electrons, and are diamagnetic
(2) have unpaired electrons, and are paramagnetic
(3) have paired electrons, and are ferromagnetic
(4) have unpaired electrons, and are ferromagnetic
72. According to molecular orbital theory, the number of antibonding electron pairs in
the O22- ion is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

73. Ozone has


(1) 1 bond and 2 bonds (2) 2 bonds and 2 bonds
(3) 2 bonds and 1 bond (4) 2 , 1 and a lone pair of electrons
74. Which of the following has a linear polymeric structure due to hydrogen bonding?
(1) NH3 (2) HCl (3) HF (4) H2O
75. The octet rule is not followed in
(1) F2 (2) NaF (3) CaF2 (4) BF3
76. The compound having only primary hydrogen atoms is :-
(1) Isobutene (2) 2,3-Dimethyl -1-butene
(3) Cyclohexane (4) Propene
77. Names of some compounds are given. Which one is not in IUPAC system :-

CH3
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH CH2 CH3

(1) CH2CH3 3Methyl4ethyl heptane


CH3 CH CH CH3

(2) OH CH3 3Methyl2butanol


CH3 CH2 C CH CH3

(3) CH2 CH3 2Ethyl3methylbut1ene


CH3CCCHCH3
(4) CH3 4Methyl2pentyne
CH3C=CHCOCH3
78. Cl O is named in IUPAC as :
(1) Methyl3chloro2butenoate (2) Methyl4chloro2pentanoate
(3) Methoxy3chloro butanol (4) Methoxy2chloro butanone

Me
79. is named in IUPAC as :-
(1) 3Methyl cyclohexyne (2) 2Methyl cyclohexyne
(3) 4Methyl cyclohexyne (4) 1Methyl2cyclohexyne

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80. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols
is
(1) CnH2nO2 (2) CnH2nO (3) CnH2n+1O (4) CnH2n+2O

81. The IUPAC name of is :-


(1) 3,4dimethylpentanoyl chloride (2) 1chloro1oxo2,3dimethylpentane
(3) 2ethyl3methylbutanoyl chloride (4) 2,3dimethylpentanoyl chloride
82. In the hydrocarbon
CH3 CH = CH CH2 C CH

6 5 4 3 2 1
The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence :-
2 3 3 2 2 3 3 2
(1) sp, sp , sp (2) sp , sp , sp (3) sp , sp, sp (4) sp, sp , sp
83. The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula CH C CH = CH2 is :-

(1) 1buten3yne (2) 3buten1yne (3) 1butyn3ene (4) but1yn3


ene
84. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH=CHC CH is :-

(1) Pent-3-en-1-yne (2) Pent-2-en-4-yne (3) Pent-1-yn-3-ene (4)


Pent-4-yn-2-ene

85. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is :-


(1) 4-Ethyl-3-propyl hex-1-ene (2) 3-Ethyl-4-ethenyl heptane
(3) 3-Ethyl-4-propyl hex-5-ene (4) 3-(1-ethyl propyl) hex-1-ene
Cl CH2CH3

86. The IUPAC name of the following compound CH I is :- 3

(1) cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene (2) trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene


(3) cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene (4) trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
87. Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system?
CH3 CH CH CH2CH3

CH3
(1) 2-Methyl-3-phenylpentane
C
||
(2) CH3 O CH2 CH2 CH2COOH 5-Oxohexanoic acid
(3) Br CH2 CH = CH2 1-Bromo-prop-2-ene

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CH3

CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CHCH3

(4) Br CH3 4-Bromo,2,4-di-methylhexane


88. Consider the reaction RCHO + NH2NH2 RCH = N NH2. What sort of reaction is
it ?
(1) Electrophilic substitution elimination reaction
(2) Nucleophilic addition elimination reaction
(3) Electrophilic addition elimination reaction
(4) Free radical addition elimination reaction
89. Assertion :- Benzene is a carbocyclic compound.
Reason :- It has three p bonds in the cycle.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False..
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
90. Assertion :- Number of bond angles of 120 and 10928' in butenyne are 6 and 2
respectively.
Reason :- It's molecular formula is C4H6.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
Part C (Biology)
91. Waste products of adenine and guanine metabolism are excreted by man as
(1) Ammonia (2) Urea (3) Uric acid (4)
Allantois
92. A man takes large amount of protein. He is likely to excrete
(1) Water (2) Glucose (3) Urea and uric acid (4) Salts
93. Which of the following nitrogenous substance is highly toxic
(1) Urea (2) Uric acid (3) Amino acid (4) Ammonia
94.The chief nitrogenous waste in urine of rabbit or terrestrial mammals is
(1) Urea (2) Uric acid (3) Ammonia (4) None
95. Two examples in which the nitrogenous wastes are excreted from body in the
form of uric acid are
(1) Birds and lizards (2) Mammals and mollusc
(3) Insects and bony fishes (4) Frogs and cartilaginous fishes
96.One of the following does the same work as is done by nephridia in earthworm
(1) Flame cells in liverfluke (2) Myotomes in fish
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(3) Statocysts in prawn (4) Parotid gland in toad


97. The nephrostomes, in the kidneys, are functional in
(1) Rabbit (2) Adult frog (3) Tadpole (4) Cockroach
98. Correct order of excretory organs in Cockroach, Earthworm and Rabbit
respectively
(1) Skin, malpighi tubules, kidney (2) Malpighi tubules, nephridia,
kidney
(3) Nephridia, malpighi tubule, kidney (4) Nephridia, kidney, green gland
99.Intestinal excretory organs of Pheretima has a function of
(1) Locomotion (2) Respiration
(3) Water balance (4) Excretion of nitrogenous waste
100. Which one of the following blood vessels in mammals would normally
carry the largest amount of urea
(1) Hepatic portal vein (2) Hepatic vein (3) Renal artery (4) Hepatic
artery
101.Excretory waste of birds and reptiles are
(1) Urea (2) Urea and uric acid
(3) Uric acid (4) Ammonia and uric acid
102. Animal which excrete urea produced during metabolism of amino acids is
(1) Ureotelism (2) Uricotelism (3) Ammonotelism (4)
Aminotelism
103. The most abundant, harmful and universal waste product of metabolism is
(1) CO2 (2) Uric acid (3) H2O (4) None of these
104. The main nitrogenous waste of Hydra is
(1) Ammonia only (2) Urea only
(3) Uric acid only (4) Both (1) and (3)
105. Each human kidney has nearly
(1) 10,000 nephrons (2) 50,000 nephrons (3) 1,00,000 nephrons (4) 1
million nephrons
106. Podocytes are the cells present in
(1) Bowman's capsule (2) Loop of Henle (3) Duct of Bellini (4) Distal
convoluted tubule
107. Loop of Henle is meant for absorption of
(1) Potassium (2) Glucose (3) Water (4) CO2

108. If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the
following is to be expected
(1) The urine will be more dilute (2) There will be no urine formation
(3) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
(4) The urine will be more concentrated
109. Which one of he four parts mentioned below does not constitute a part of a
single uriniferous tubule
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(1) Bowman's capsule (2) Distal convoluted tubule


(3) Loop of Henle (4) Collecting duct
110.Which of the following cycles in liver is mainly responsible for the synthesis of
urea
(1) Citruline cycle (2) Krebs cycle (3) Nitrogen cycle (4) Ornithine
cycle
111. At which stage of ornithine cycle arginase is used
(1) Arginine - Ornithine (2) Ornithine - Citruline
(3) Fumaric acid - Arginine (4) Glycolysis - Urea
112. Which one of the following pair of waste substances is removed from blood in
ornithine cycle
(1) CO2 and urea (2) Ammonia and urea
(3) CO2 and ammonia (4) Urea and sodium salt
113. Ornithine an amino acid is found
(1) As an intermediate of urea synthesis (2) As an intermediate of methonine
metabolism
(3) As a major fraction of the connective tissue (4) In bile salts
114. Ornithine cycle is related to
(1) Respiration (2) Nutrition (3) Excretion (4)
Digestion
115. The liquid which is collected in the cavity of Bowman's capsule is
(1) Concentrated urine (2) Blood plasma minus blood
proteins
(3) Glycogen and water (4) Sulphates and water
116. What causes the liquid part of the blood to filter out from the glomerulus into the
renal tubule
(1) Osmosis (2) High (hydrostatic) pressure
(3) Diapedesis (4) Dialysis
117. Which one of the following substances is actively secreted into the glomerular
filtrate of the kidney tubule?
(1) Potassium ions (2) Amino acids (3) Sodium ions (4) Chloride ions
118. In the kidney, glucose is mainly absorbed in
(1) Loop of Henle (2) Proximal convoluted tubules
(3) Distal convoluted tubules (4) Bowman's capsule
119. Due to insufficient filtration in the Bowman's capsule, all are likely to happen
except
(1) Accumulation of fluid in the body (2) Increase in blood pressure
(3) Increase in blood urea level (4) Loss of glucose through urine
120. Volume of urine is regulated by
(1) Aldosterone (2) Aldosterone, ADH and testosterone
(3) Aldosterone and ADH (4) ADH alone
121. Water reabsorption in the distal parts of kidney tubules is regulated by
(1) STH (2) TSH (3) ADH (4) MSH
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122. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are
totally removed
(1) Urine will not collect in the bladder (2) Micturition will continue
(3) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
(4) There will be no micturition
123.The yellow colour of urine of the vertebrates is due to
(1) Cholesterol (2) Urochrome (3) Uric acid (4) Melanin
124. Stool of a person contains whitish grey colour due to malfunction of
(1) Liver (2) Spleen (3) Kidney (4) Pancreas
125. Kidneys are not the only organs of excretion, their work is
supplemented by
(1) Liver (2) Skin (3) Heart (4) Large intestine
126. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His urine will be found to
contain abnormal quantities of
(1) Fats (2) Aminoacids (3) Glucose (4) Ketones
127. Which of these is not a ketone body
(1) Acetoacetic acid (2) Acetone (3) Succinic acid (4) Betahydroxy
butyric acid
128. Diuresis is a specific pathological condition which leads to
(1) Increased volume of urine excretion (2) Decreased volume of urine
excretion
(3) Increased glucose excretion (4) Decreased electrolyte concentration
129. The appearance of albumin in the urine is most likely due to
(1) Increase in the blood pressure (2) Decrease in the blood osmotic
pressure
(3) Damage to the Malpighian corpuscles (4) Damage to the proximal
convoluted tubules
130. A kidney stone is
(1) Blockage by fats
(2) Deposition of sand in kidney
(3) A salt such as oxalate crystallised in pelvis
(4) Blockage by proteins
131. Presence of RBC in urine is known as
(1) Proteinuria (2) Alkaptonuria (3) Haematuria (4) Uraethiasis
132.Reabsorption of glucose from the glomerular filtrate in the kidney tubule is
carried out by
(1) Active transport (2) Osmosis
(3) Brownian movement (4) Diffusion
133.The glomerular filtration rate in a normal adult is nearly
(1) 200ml/minute (2) 250ml/minute (3) 120ml/minute (4)170ml/minute
134. Sodium, water and phosphate reabsorption is maximum in
(1) Loop of Henle (2) Proximal tubule (3) Distal tubule (4) Collecting
tubule
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135.When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption then which of the
following will not help in the maintenance of blood volume
(1) Decreased glomerular filtration (2) Increased ADH secretion
(3) Decreased arterial pressure in kidney (4) Increased arterial pressure in
kidney
136. Irritability and conductivity are maximum developed in
(1) Muscular tissue (2) Nervous tissue (3) Connective tissue (4) None of the
above
137.Axons form nerve in
(1) Autonomic nervous system (2) Central nervous system
(3) Peripheral nervous system (4) All of the above
138. The function of repairing in nervous tissue is done by
(1) Glial cells (2) Nerve cells (3) Cytons (4) Only
axons
139. The junction between Schwann cells is known as
(1) Plasmalemma (2) Node of Ranvier (3) Dendrons (4)
Synapse

140. Some cells of our body can be over a foot long. These are

(1) Nerve cells (2) Muscle cells (3) Bone cells (4)
Gland cells
141. Nissls granules are characteristically found in
(1) Nephrons (2) Neurons (3) Cytons (4) Dendrites
142. Which of the following tissues in mammals show the least capacity for
regeneration
(1) Epithelial tissue of the skin (2) Endothelium of blood vessels
(3) Skeletal tissue of long bones (4) Nervous tissue of brain
143. Cell bodies or cyton is found in
(1) Brain (2) Spinal cord
(3) Brain and ganglia (4) Brain, spinal cord and ganglia
144. Nerve fibres conduct impulses in
(1) One direction (2) Two direction (3) Multidirection (4) None of the above
145. Neurons are classified on the basis of
(1) Number of nucleus present (2) Number of processes arising
from the cell body
(3) Number of dendrites present (4) Number of axons present
146. Node of Ranvier is found in
(1) Right auricle (2) Muscle bundles (3) Dendrite (4) Axon
147. The brain develops from
(1) Ectoderm (2) Mesoderm (3) Endoderm (4)
Meso-endoderm

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148. Which one of the following statement in regard to nerve activity is true

(1) The synaptic cleft does not prevent direct propagation of action potential from
presynaptic neuron to post synaptic cell
(2) Information across the synaptic cleft is transmitted by means of a chemical
neurotransmitter in small vesicle
(3) Combination of neurotransmitter with receptor site changes membrane
potential without changing membrane potentiality
(4) In tetanus the excitatory impulse to muscles are inhibited leading to lock jaw
149. Propagation of action potential is very fast in nerve fibres which have
(1) Large fibre diameter (2) Small fibre diameter
(3) Covering of myelin sheath (4) (1) and (3) both are correct
150. The following hormones are neurotransmitters
(1) Acetylcholine and secretin (2) Cholecystokinin and
acetylcholine
(3) Adrenalin and acetylcholine (4) Cholecystokinin and adrenalin
151. The potential difference between outside and inside of a nerve before excitation
is known as
(1) Resting potential (2) Action potential (3) Spike potential (4)
Reaction potential
152. During transmission of nerve impulse the potential inside membrane has
the following type of charge
(1) First positive, then negative and back positive
(2) First negative then positive and back negative
(3) First positive then negative and remain negative
(4) First negative then positive and remain positive
153.The medullary sheath of the nerve fibre is interrupted at intervals by
(1) Septa (2) Nodes of Ranvier (3) Synapses (4) Glia

154. When a nerve fibre is stimulated the inside of the membrane becomes
(1) Negatively charged (2) Positively charged
(3) Depolarised (4) Filled with acetylcholine
155.The mineral necessary for nervous conduction is
(1) Iron (2) Sodium (3) Phosphorus (4)
Magnesium
156. Suppose the terminal ends of axon are in contact with dendrites of four
adjacent neurons, the nerve impulse of the axon will
(1) Travel in all the four neurons
(2) Get, distributed in all the four neurons resulting in a weak impulse
(3) Travel only in one neuron which is in closest contact and with the same
intensity

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(4) Travel in none of the neurons because the impulse travels from dendrites of
one neuron into the axon of another neuron
157.Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from
(1) Effector organs to central nervous system (2) Receptors to central
nervous system
(3) Central nervous system to muscles (4) Central nervous system to
receptors
158. On nerve fibres to prevent leakage of an impulse layer of ...... is found

(1) Schwann cells (2) Neurilemma (3) Axons (4) Myelin sheath
159. Foramen of Monro is an aperture between
(1) 2nd and 3rd ventricle (2) Diocoel and metacoel
(3) Rhinocoel and diocoel (4) 3rd and 4th ventricle
160. The correct sequence of meninges from outer to the inner side is
(1) Arachnoid piamater duramater (2) Arachnoid duramater piamater
(3) Piamater arachnoid duramater (4) Duramater arachnoid
piamater
161. All the meninges of brain are interrupted at the structure known as
(1) Neuropore (2) Anterior choroid plexus only
(3) Posterior choroid plexus only (4) Anterior and posterior choroid
plexus
162. In which part of the following, the anterior choroid plexus is situated
(1) Diocoel (2) Metacoel (3) Olfactocoel (4) Optocoel
163. Foramen of Monro is
(1) Gap in pelvic girdle of rabbit
(2) Foramen in the skull of frog
(3) Space in brain of frog and rabbit
(4) Pore in the inter-auricular septum in a mammalian heart
164. Which of the following is a richly vascular layer with lots of blood
capillaries
(1) Durameter of brain (2) Piamater of spinal cord
(3) Epidermis of skin (4) Epithelial lining of trachea
165. Lateral ventricles are found in
(1) Heart (2) Brain (3) Thyroid (4) Brain and heart
166. Which one of the following cells secrete cerebrospinal fluid
(1) Ependymal cells (2) Neurons (3) Schwann cells (4) Neurilemma
167. Which of the following connect lateral ventricle of diocoel in brain with
third ventricle
(1) Iter (2) Foramen of Monro (3) Corpus striatum (4)
Filum terminale
168. Sub-arachnoid space is found in
(1) Piamater (2) Durameter (3) Blastocoel (4)
None of the above
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169. Cerebral aqua is


(1) A cavity in the ventricle of a brain (2) A fluid filled in the posterior
chamber of eye
(3) A fluid filled in the sacculus of ear (4) An aperture in the auricle of
heart
170. In the anatomy of man aqueduct of sylvius occurs in
(1) Ventricle of heart (2) Eye
(3) In between middle and internal ear (4) Brain
171. Foramen of Magendie is situated in
(1) Right auricle (2) Base of skull
(3) Medulla oblongata of brain (4) Posterior end of humerus
172. The nervous strip connecting both the cerebral hemispheres in the rabbit is
(1) Corpus callosum (2) Corpus albicans (3) Corpus stratum (4) Corpus
spongiosum
173.The thermoregulatory centre is situated in
(1) Spinal cord (2) Pituitary body (3) Cerebellum (4)
Hypothalamus
174. Nissls granules are present in the ....... and are made up of .......
respectively
(1) Muscle cells and deoxyribo nucleic acid (2) Mast cells and RNA
(3) Osteocytes and DNA (4) Neuron and RNA
175.Space between the two adjoining neurons where the chemical transmitter is
released is known as
(1) Synaptic vesicle (2) Synapse (3) Synaptic cleft (4) Terminal
button
176. An injury to diencephalon may result in
(1) Loss of understanding (2) Loss of learning
(3) Loss of intelligence (4) Loss of heat sensation
177.The lungs, heart, intestine etc. are supplied by cranial nerve
(1) Trigeminal (2) Vagus (3) Abducens (4)
Oculomotor
178. Reflex action immediately involves
(1) Spinal cord (2) Cerebellum (3) Medulla oblongate (4)
Optical lobe
179. Gasserian ganglion is formed by the
(1) Vagus nerve (2) Trigeminal nerve (3) Trochlear nerve (4)
Cervical nerve
180. IV, V and IX cranial nerves are
(1) Olfactory, spinal accessary and vagus (2) Trigeminal, vagus and
glossopharyngeal
(3) Occulomotor, trigeminal and hypoglossal (4) Pathetic, trigeminal and
glossopharyngeal
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ANSWER KEY 20.08.2017 (Sharanya)


PART A (PHYSICS)
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans 3 3 Bonus 4 2 4 3 4 3
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 1 4 2 4 4 2 2 2 4 2
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 2 2 2 1 2 4 2 3 1 2
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 1 3 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 3
Q.No 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 1 2 2 3 1
PART B (CHEMISTRY)
Q.No 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans 1 4 1 1 2 4 2 2 2 1
Q.No 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
Ans 1 1 1 3 3 3 4 3 1 2
Q.No 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 4 4 2 2 4 1 3 1 3 4
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
Ans 1 1 1 1 4 4 4 1 1 1
Q.No 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 2 3 2 2 4
PART C (BIOLOGY)
Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 3 3 4 1 1 1 3 2 4 2
Q.No 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans 3 1 1 1 4 1 3 1 4 4
Q.No 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 1 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 4 3
Q.No 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans 3 2 2 1 2 4 3 1 3 3
Q.No 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 3 1 3 2 4 2 4 1 2 1
Q.No 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans 3 4 4 3 2 4 1 2 4 3
Q.No 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 4 1 4
Q.No 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 1 1 4
Q.No 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 3 1 4 4 3 4 2 1 2 4

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