CAR -66

1) The AME licenses in CAR 66 pattern will be available in two different ways:
1. After conversion of existing AME licenses with applicable limitation
2. Issue of fresh license after passing of applicable modules of Basic knowledge should be conducted by CEO.
3. Both (1) & (2) 4. All
2)The initial issue date of car 66 .
1)11 Nov 2011 2.11Nov2010 3. 1 jan2012 4. none
3) Ame course described in
1. Car 66 2.Series-E part-8 3.Series f part-12 4. all
4) Approved training or approved type training examination conducted by
1. CAR 147 2.As in 1. conducted by other organisation as directly approved by DGCA 3. CAR 145 4. none
5. Car-66 is issued for
1. All AME personnel in commercial air transport 2. Ame personnel who completed their training
3. Defense personnel 4. AME personnel in civil aviation
6)The type training shall be completed in..
1. With in 3 year 2.In the last 3 month
3.With in 3 year form the date of applicantion 4. W ith in preceding 3year form the date of applicantion
7)The general lay out comes under ..
1. level-1 2. level-2 3.level-3 4.level-4
8)One tuition hour mean .
1.50minutes 2.60minutes 3.30 minutes 4.40minutes
9) level-1 type training described in
1. system over view component maintenance manual 2.system over view maintenance manual
3.maintenance organisation exposition 4. both 1&2
10)The location of engine is cover under
1.level-1 2. level-3 3.level-2 4. none
11)A person has failed in examination module,he is working an approved organiation he should applying examination
1. 30 days 2.60 days 3. 90 days 4.all
12)The maintenance of electrochemical attack or electro chemical component released by.
1.B1 engineer 2. B2 engineer 3. both 1&2 4.none
13)In flight entertainment system are maintain by
1. cat-B1.1 2.cat-B2 3.cat-C 4.cat-A
14)IN flight operating system of an a/c is having some problem after that CRS issued by
1. cat-B1&B2 2. cat-B2&C 3. only B2 4. only C
15) The issue of CAR66 under
1. car 66 2. AMC 3.GM 4. all
16)the detail scope of certifying staff& support staff given in
1.66.A .70( c) 2. 66.A .70( d) 3. 66.A.50(c)
17) Limitation of certifying staff& support staff descrived in ..
1.66.A .70( c) 2. 66.A . 70( d) 3. 66.A.50(c)
18) Exam conducted for removing limitation given in
1.66.A .70( c. 2. 66.A . 70( d) 3. 66.A.50(C
19) Modular exam conducted by
1. appendix-1of CEO 2. appendix-1of DGCA 3. appendix-2 of CEO 4. appendix-2 of DGCA
20)Ther credit of ame person given in..
1.APM_19 2 )APM_17 3. )APM_38 4. )APM_23
21) The individual log book may be contain
1. Date and time 2. A/C type 3. A/C identification that is registration 4. All
22) The issue of the appropriate privileges included in 66.A.20(2. means that during the previous
1. 1 year 2. 2 year 3. 3 year 4. 4year
23) type training examination is done under
1. 145 2.147 3. CAR 66 4. Any organization approved under 133B
24) The AME licenses in CAR 66 pattern will be available in
1. After conversion of existing AME licenses with applicable limitation
2. Issue or fresh license After passing of applicable module of basic knowledge exam to be conducted by CEO
3. both (1.&(2. 4. None
25) Review records for compliance with airworthiness directive comes under
1. ATA 05 2. ATA 10 3. ATA 12 4. ATA 15
26) Application for appearing written paper(s) of CAR 66 basic knowledge examination prescribed in
1. CA FROM 19-08A 2. CA FROM 19-08B 3. CA FROM 19-09 4. CA FROM 19-10
27) A/C type training and examination standard on the job training
1. Appendix I 2. Appendix II 3. Appendix III 4. Appendix I
28) Continued validity of the A/C maintenance engineer's license come under subpart
1. 66.A.35 2. 66.A.40 3. 66.A.45 4. 66.A.50
29) CAR66.A.70(c) deals with
1. scope of different between certifying staff and support staff 2. limitation of certifying staff
3.exam conducting to remove the limitations 4. All
30) To get a B2 licenses are AME personal required
1. 5 year experience 2. 5 year experience with operating A/C
3. 5 year experience for any A/C 4. 5 year experience for commercial A/C
31.Component training programme is conducted by
1. Manufacturer of A/C 2. Manufacturer of Equipment 3. Trained person having approval for 2 years 4. AOTA
32. Glider is certified by category
1. A1 2. B2 3. C 4. AOTA
33.Personnel able to use his knowledge in a practical way by use of detailed procedures falls under
1. level 1 2. Level 3 3. Level 2 4. None
34.CA form 19-11 is applied to
1.CEO 2. DGCA 3. RAO 4. As in 1, through DGCA
35. Type training exam is conducted by
1. DGCA 2. CEO 3. Training organization 4. Both 1& 2
36. The waiting period between sets of type training exam
1. 30 days 2. 60 days 3. 90 days 4. 1 year
37. Experience requirement for extension of licence from B1.2 to B1.3
1. 6 months 2. 1 year 3. 2 years 4. None
38. Application forms
1. Appendix V of AMC to Car66 2. Appendix V of Car66 3. Appendix IV of Car66 4. Appendix IV of AMC to Car66
39.50 % of recent experience should covered
1. In 12 calender months 2. Within 12 Calendar months 3. Within 12 months 4. Within 7 years
40. The function of the assessor is described in
1. Appendix II 2. Appendix III of CAR 66 3. Appendix III of AMC to CAR66 4. Both 2 & 3

SECTION 1
41.Issue of CAR is dealt in
1. section 1 series A part 1 2. Section 2 series E part 8 3. Section 7 series F part 3 4. Both 1 & 3

42. The power is given to the central govt to make rules for civil aviation in
1. ICAO Annex 5 2. ICAO Annex 4 3. ICAO Annex 6 4. ICAO Annex 5A

43.ICAO Annex 5A deals

1. power given to central govt to implement CAR 2. Power given to DGCA to implement CAR
3. power given to central govt to issue CAR 4. Power given to DGCA to issue directions for a/c operations

44. Section 7 of CAR

1. general 2. Air Transport 3. Air safety 4. Flight crew standards,Training & licensing

45. Aircraft operations

1. Section 8 2. Section 5 3.Section 6 4. Section 10

46. The top right hand corner of the file contains

1. revision date 2. File number 3. Both 1& 2 4. None

47. A report regarding the compliance of CAR is submitted to

1. RAO 2. Regional office 3. DGCA 4. Both 2 & 3

48. The examination for defence personnel is conducted according to

1. CAR 66 2. Series L part 2 3. Series E part 8 4. Both 1 & 2
49Medical certificate for defence personnel is issued according to
1. Section 2 Series L part II 2. Section 3 Series L part II 3. Section 1 Series L part II 4. Section 2 Series L part III

50. Issue of licence to defence personnel is issued

1. Section 2 Series L part I 2. Section 3 Series L part VII 3. Section 1 Series L part II 4. Section 2 Series L part VIII

51. Medical examination for Defence personnel in piloting is issued according to

1. Section 7 Series L part II 2. Section 7 Series L part II 3. Section 7 Series C part I 4. Section 7 Series C part III

52 An appeal can be made to the higher officer in

1. 60 days 2. Within 60 days 3. As in 1 & to the central authority 4. As in 2 & from the date of issue

53.Any changes to the appeal can be made

1. within 10 days of appeal 2. within 120 days of appeal 3. within 20 days of appeal 4. within 30 days of appeal

54.Aircraft rules 2012 deals with

1. air laws 2. Carriage of dangerous goods 3. Investigation of accidents 4. Both 1 & 3

55.Aircraft rules 2003 deals with

1. air laws 2. Carriage of dangerous goods 3. Investigation of accidents 4. Both 1 & 3

56. Binding circular are issued by

1. dgca 2. RAO 3. Organization 4. AOTA

57. DGCA functions by

1. Procedure manuals 2. Civil Aviation procedures 3. Both 1& 2 4. Only 1

58. Rule 3B
1. Complaints 2. Appeals 3. Registration 4. Cof A

59. Exemption by Central govt

1. Rule 156 2. Rule 15 3. Rule 160 4. Rule 165

60. Air navigation facilities & standard systems

1. Article 29 2. Article 26 3. Article 28 4. Article 35

61. Units & measurements used in air operations

1. ICAO Annex 9 2. ICAO Annex 4 3. ICAO Annex 8 4. ICAO Annex 5

62. Exemption application is submitted in

1. Appendix 1 of series B part-II in triplicate 2. Appendix 1 of series B part-II in duplicate
3. Appendix 1 of series B part-I in duplicate 4. Appendix II of series B part-II in triplicate

63. Exemption under rule 130 is approved by

1. RAO 2. DGCA 3. Central govt 4. As in 3 in concurrence with DGCA

64. The exemptions are include in

1. operations manual/Quality manual 2. AMM 2. Both 1 & 2 4. CMM/AMM

65. Safety Management System is issued according to

1. ICAO Annexure 2. Rule 133A 3. APM chapter 17 4. None

66. The responsibility of the SMS lies with

1. Organization 2.Safety manager 3. Accountable manager 4. Accountable Executive

67. Safety policy is given in

1. Annex I of series B part I 2. Annex I of series C part I 3. Annex II of series B part I 4. Annex I of series A part I

68. Sample job description & requirements for safety manager is given in
1. Annex I of series C part I 2. Annex II of series C part I 3. Annex III of series C part I 4. Annex IV of series C part I

69.The approach to safety in organization is given in

1. SMM 2. SMSM 3. AMM 4. CMM
70. Guidelines for guidelines for SMS documentation development is given in
1. Attachment H to ICAO Annex 6 Part 1 2. Attachment G to ICAO Annex6 Part 3 3. both 4. None

71. Guidance on training & education of Safety promotion is ...............of SMS

1. Annex III 2. Annex II 3. Annex I 4. Annex IV

72. Guidance on safety communication of Safety promotion is ...............of SMS

1. Annex III 2. Annex II 3. Annex I 4. Annex IV

73. Phase 1 of implementation of SMS.......... from the date of issue of CAR section 1
1. Within 6 months 2. Within 4 months 3. Within 3 months 4. Within 12 months

74. Phase 2 of implementation of SMS.......... from the date of issue of CAR section 1
1. Within 6 months 2. At one year 3. Within 3 months 4. At 12 months

75. Phase 3 of implementation of SMS.......... from the date of issue of CAR section 1
1. Within 6 months 2. At two years 3. Within 2 years 4. At 24 months

76. Implementation of SMS phase wise is given in

1. Annexure V 2. Annexure IV 3. Annexure VI 4. Annexure VII

77. Job description of a safety manager is given in

1. Annexure II of Section 3 Series C part 1 2. Annexure II of Section 1 Series C part 1
3. Annexure II of Section 2 Series C part 1 4. Annexure III of Section 1 Series C part 1

CAR 66
78. CAR 66 issue II revision 1 is issued on
1. 10.02.2016 2. 10.03.2015 3.11.11.2011 4. 10.02.2017

79. Appendix I to AMC of CAR 66

1. A/C type practical experience & OJT Training list of task 2. A/C type ratings
3. Evaluation of the competence: assessment & assessors 4. Fuel tank safety training

80. Appendix II to AMC of CAR 66

1. A/C type practical experience & OJT Training list of task 2. A/C type ratings
3. Evaluation of the competence: assessment & assessors 4. Fuel tank safety training

81. Appendix III to AMC of CAR 66

1. A/C type practical experience & OJT Training list of task 2. A/C type ratings
3. Evaluation of the competence: assessment & assessors 4. Fuel tank safety training

82. Appendix IV to AMC of CAR 66

1. A/C type practical experience & OJT Training list of task 2. A/C type ratings
3. Evaluation of the competence: assessment & assessors 4. Fuel tank safety training

83. A person has failed in examination module,he is working an approved training organiation he should applying examination
1. 30 days 2.60 days 3. 90 days 4.all

84.Defence persoonel should have .............................experience for type training

1. 1 year in civil aviation 2.12 years in civil aviation 3. 15 year experience in civil aviation 4.AOTA

85. AME licence is invalid after

1. 5 years from the date of approval 2. 5 years after type training 3. 5 year experience in civil aviation

86. In component maintenance for change of stream

1. 2 years of experience 2. 24 months experience 3.6 months experience 4. Both 1 & 2

87. Basic overview of controls , indicators is

1. level 1 2. Level 2 3. Level 3

88. Type rating theoretical course is made as defined by

1. DGCA 2. Manufacturer 3. CAR 147 organization 4. Both 1 & 3
89. Type training exam is conducted by
1. car 147 2. CEO 3. DAW 4. RAO

90. Additional Experience for B3 engineer to convert to A2

1. 6 months 2. 1 year 3. 2 years 4. None

91. CA form 26
1. AME licence 2. AME licence as per rule 61 3. AME license as per rule 133A 4. Both 1& 2

92. ATA 27
1. Flight controls 2. Communication 3. Fuel 4. Engine

93. Pitot static components are maintained by

1. B1 2. B2 3. BOTH 1& 2 4. Only B2

94. BITE test is used in

1. line maintenance 2. Trouble shooting 3. Simple test 4. AOTA

95. A2 category jobs can be done by B3 engineer if

1. A/C is less than 2000kg MTOW 2. Aeroplane of 2000 kg MTOW 3. Non pressurised aeroplane 4. Non
pressurised A/C

96. MTCS
1. Skill test is part of TNA 2. Exam is not a part of TNA 3. Manuals are taught in TNA 4. AOTA

SECTION 8
97. Series O part II is issued under
1 Rule 133A 2. As in 1 in conformity with ICAO Annex 6 3. As in 1 in conformity with ICAO Annex 4 4. AOTA

98. Information for pilots & flight crew is contained in

1. PANS OPS volume 1 2. APW 17 3. APW 19 4. PANS OPS volume II

99. Criteria for consruction of visual & instrument procedures is in

1. PANS OPS volume 1 2. APW 17 3. APW 19 4. PANS OPS volume II

100. Operational control lies with

1. Operator 2. Accountable manager 3. Operations manager 4. Owner

101. Report regarding the emergency situation has to be reported to

1. DGCA 2. RAO 3. Both 4. Only 1

102. Report regarding the emergency situation has to be reported in

1. 24 hrs 2. ASAP within 24 hrs 3. 1 days 4. 72 hrs

103. Psychoactive substance usage is contained in

1. Section 4 Series E part 1 2. Section 4 Series E part 2 3. Section 2 Series E part 1 4. Section 8 Series E part 1

104. Requirements & guidance for issue of air operator permit is given in
1. section 3 series C Part 2,3,4,5,7 2. Cap 3100 3. CAP 3300 4. AOTA

105. Air operator certificate is given in

1. appendix A 2. Appendix B 3. Appendix C 4. Appendix D

106. Emergency Phase criteria

1. Annexure 11 of series O part 2 2. Annexure 12 3. Annexure 18 4. Annexure 2

107. Fire extinguishers in A/C with passenger capacity 65

1. 5 2. 3 3.9 4.1