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EST: Biomedical Technology

1. A mammography service examined 327 patients during the third calendar quarter of
1996. 719 films were exposed during this period, eight of which were repeats. What is
the repeat rate?

a. 45.5% b. 2.45% c. 1.1% d. 54.52%

2. A type of luminescence where the visible light is emitted only during the stimulation of
the phosphor.

a. fluorescence b. phosphorescence c. after glow d. any of the above

3. If a heart measures 12.5 cm from side to side at its widest point, and its image on chest
radiograph measures 14.7 cm, what is the magnification factor?

a. 0.85 b. 1.18 c. 0.15 d. 2.2

4. Radiation doses in the range of approximately 200 to 1000 rad produce the

a. Gastrointestinal (GI) syndrome

b. Central Nervous System (CNS) syndrome
c. Hematologic syndrome
d. Prodomal syndrome

5. Ratio of incident to transmitted radiation through a grid ratio of patient dose with and
without grid.
a. Bucky factor b. Damadian factor c. Grid ratio d. Roentgen equivalent
6. A radiographic single-phase unit installed in a private office has a maximum capacity of
100 milliseconds of 120kVp and 500mA. What is the power rating?
a. 42 kW b. 60 kW c. 600W d. 24kW
7. Who completes the development of first computed tomographic (CT) scanner (EMI, Ltd.)
in 1973?

a. Mistretta b. Forssmann c. Kuhl d. Hounsfield

8. It is the study of the response of an image receptor to x-rays

a. sensitometry b. xeroradiography c. xeroradiometry d. spectrometry

9. Ratio of radiographic contrast with a grid to that without a grid.

a. grid ratio b. contrast improvement factor
c. Collidge factor d. Bucky factor
10. Analysis of persons irradiated therapeutically with superficial x-rays has shown that the
skin erythema dose required to affect 50% of persons so irradiated is about
a. 200 rad b. 400 rad c. 600 rad d. 800 rad
11. ECG recording requires a bandwidth of 0.05 to ____ Hz
a. 1000 b. 540 c. 100 d. 40
12. Find the potential generated if blood flowing in a vessel with radius 0.9 cm cuts a
magnetic field of 250 G. Assume a volume flow rate of 175 cubic cm per second.
a. 206 uV b. 309 uV c. 903 uV d. 260 uV

13. Period during which heart contracts.

a. Diastole b. Systole c. block mode d. Synapse
14. Apparatus for measuring blood pressure
a. defibrillator b. electrocardiogram
c. plethysmograph d. sphygmomanometer
15. Given the energy level of 6.624x10^-18 J imparted to an electron stream by an X-ray
device, calculate the frequency in MHz.
a. 10^6 MHz b. 45.29 MHz c. 10^10 MHz d. 300 MHz

10^10 MHz
16. It was first noted by Heinrich Hertz in 1887 and won Albert Einstein the Nobel Prize in
1905. It refers to the emission of electrons from a clean metallic surface (phototube)
when electromagnetic radiation (light waves or X-rays) falls onto that surface.
a. Photoelectric effect b. Compton effect
c. Bremsstrahlung d. Mie effect
17. Unit of radiation exposure or amount of X-ray radiation that will produce 2.08x10^9 ion
pairs per cubic centimetre of air at standard temperature and pressure (STP).
a. Curie b. Roentgen
c. Radiation absorbed dose (rad) d. Gray
18. An optical electronic device that measures the color concentration of a substance in
a. colorimeter b. flame photometer
c. spectrophotometer d. chromatograph
19. Recording of heart sounds
a. ultracardiography b. cardioacoustics
c. electrocardiogram d. phonocardiography
20. Recorder for measuring galvanic skin resistance
a. electrodermograph b. electromyograph
c. electrocorporealograph d. electrogalvanograph

EST: Digital/Data Communications and Systems

1. It consists of 36 unique codes representing the 10 digits and 26 uppercase letters

a. Discrete code b. code 39 c. continuous code d. 20 code

2. The first fixed- length character code developed for machines rather than for people.

a. ASCII Code b. Gray Code c. EBCDIC code d. Baudot Code

3. The early pioneer in the development of error-detection and correction procedures.

a. Richard W. Hamming b. William R. Hamming c. Emile Baudot d. Samuel Baudot

4. The most reliable convolutional coding scheme for error detection.

a. checksum b. LRC c. CRC d. VRC

5. For the given parameters, determine the energy per bit-to noise power density ratio
C = 10e-12 W fb = 60 kbps
N = 1.2 x 10e-14`W B = 120 kHz
a. 16.2 dB b. 14.2 dB c. 20.2 dB d. 22.2 dB

6. A signal at the input to a mu-law compressor is positive with its voltage one-half the
maximum value. What proportion of the maximum output voltage is produced?

a. 0.786Vmax b. 0.876Vmax c. 0.867Vmax d. 0.678Vmax

7. Inaccuracies caused by the representation of a continuously varying quantity as one of a

number of discrete values
a. alias signal b. slope overload c. distortion d. quantizing errors

8. Circuit for digitizing voice at a low data rate by using knowledge of the way in which
voice sounds are produced.
a. vocoder b. codec c. sample-and-hold circuit d. ADC

9. A coding scheme that records the change in signal level since the precious sample.
a. unipolar code b. PPM c. PCM d. delta modulation

10. Distortion created by using too low a sampling rate when coding an analog signal for
digital transmission.
a. aliasing b. foldover distortion c. either a or b d. neither a nor b

11. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 12000 frames per
minute with each frame carrying an average of 10000 bits. What is the throughput of this
a. 1 Mbps b. 2 Mbps c. 3 Mbps d. 4 Mbps
= 2 Mbps

12. A telephone subscriber line must have an SNRdB above 40. What is the minimum
number of bits?
a. 3.56 b. 5.63 c. 6.35 d. 3.65
SNRdB = 6.02nb + 1.76 = 40
n = 6.35

13. The thick coaxial cable implementation of standard Ethernet.

a. 1000 Base-T b. 10 Base-T c. 10 Base 2 d. 10 Base 5

14. A bit pattern or a character added to the beginning and the end of a frame to separate
the frames.

a. Flag b. Firewall c. Frameguard d. Footprint

15. An IPv4 has an address space of how many?

a. 4294967296 b. 6927694924 c. 2449692769 d. 9672969442
232 = 4294967296

16. What is the bit rate of STS 1?

a. 51.84 Mbps b. 64 kbps c. 100 Mbps d. 2.4 GHz

17. A block coding technique in which four bits are encoded into a five bit code.
a. Baudot b. 2B1Q Encoding c. 4B/5B Encoding d. 4A/5A Encoding

18. A national standards organization that defines standards in the United States.
a. ANSI b. FCC c. ITU d. CCITT

19. In asynchronous transmission, one or more bits to indicate the end of transmission.

a. trailer b. flag c. escape byte d. stop bit

20. What is the overhead (number of extra bits) in the DS-3 service?
a. 1.368 Mbps b. 1.480 Mbps c. 2.048 Mbps d. 6.024 Mbps

21. The minimum sampling rate according to Nyquist Theorem

a. equal to the lowest frequency of a signal
b. equal to the highest frequency of a signal
c. twice the bandwidth of a signal
d. twice the highest frequency of a signal

22. It is used in wireless applications in which stations must be able to share the medium
without interception by an eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a
malicious intruder.
a. modulation b. Multiple access
c. multiple access d. Spread spectrum
23. An error detection method which uses ones complement arithmetic.
a. Checksum
b. CRC
c. Simple-parity check
d. Two-dimensional parity check

24. It is a connecting device between two internetworks that use different models.
a. Bridge
b. Gateway
c. Repeater
d. Router

25. It is an undesired shift or width change in digital bits of data due to circuitry action which
causes bits to arrive at different times.
a. alias b. impulse
c. jitter d. parity
26. In PCM system, it is the ratio of the maximum input voltage level to the smallest voltage
level that can be quantized.

a. Dynamic range
b. Figure of merit
c. Quality factor
d. Noise figure

27. A multiplexer combines four 100-kbps channels using a time slot of 2 bits, determine the
frame duration.
a. 20s
b. 50s
c. 100s
d. 400s

The link carries 50,000 frames /sec

The frame duration = 1/50,000 = 20s

28. Determine the Hamming distance for the codewords ( 10101, 11001)
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. five

10101 XOR 11001 = 01100 ( presence of two 1)

29. An address space is the total number of addresses used by the protocol, such as IPv4
and IPv6. What is the address space of IPv6?
a. 232
b. 264
c. 296
d. 2128

30. It is a standard designed by ITU to allow telephones in the public telephone

network to talk to computers/terminals connected to the internet.
a. H. 111
b. H.123
c. H.321
d. H. 323

31. A computer monitor has a resolution of 1200 by 1000 pixels. If each pixel uses 1024
colors, how many bits are needed to send the complete contents of a screen?
a. 12 Gigabits
b. 1. 2 Gigabits
c. 120 Megabits
d. 12 Megabits

1,200 times 1000 pixels x 10 bits = 12 Mb

1024 colors requires 10 bits , 210 = 1024

32. Is an OSI Layer which is responsible for providing error-free communications across the
physical link connecting primary and secondary stations (nodes).
a. Data Link Layer b. Transport Layer c. Session Layer d. Presentation Layer

33. Is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the smallest possible magnitude that can
be decoded by the digital-to-analog converter.
a. Step size b. Quantization Error c. Resolution d. Dynamic range

34. Is a PCM system which uses a single bit PCM code to achieve digital transmission of
analog signals.
a.Trellis Coding b. Delta modulation c. Differential PCM d. QAM

35. Is a redundancy error detection scheme that uses parity to determine if a transmission
error has occurred within a message and is sometimes called message parity.
a. Longitudinal redundancy check b. Vertical redundancy check
c. Character Parity Check d. Checksum

36. Is an n-bit data register inside the UART that keeps track of the UARTs transmit and
receive buffer registers.
a. Control Register b. Status Word register
c. Control and Status Register d. Command register

37. Is an access method used primarily with LANs configured in a bus topology.
38. IP version 4 address length is
a. 32 bits b. 24 bits c. 40 bits d. 48 bits

39. Is a multiport bridge that provides bridging function.

a. Repeater b. hub c. Router d. Switch
40. Is a device which operates in the Network layer and it makes forwarding decisions on
the basis of network addresses.
a. Repeater b. hub c. Router d. Switch

41. OC-1 (STS-1) line rate is

a. 51.84 Mbps b. 1.544 Mbps c. 3 Mbps d. 2.048 Mbps

42. Is one in which all computers share their resources with all the other computers on the
a. Dedicated client server network b. Peer-to-peer client/server network
c. Peer-to-peer network d. All of the above

43. Is used to interface DTEs to digital transmission channels.

a. Data modem b. Router c. Splitter d. Channel service unit

44. Modulation which combines encoding and modulation to reduce the probability of error.
a. DPSK b. FSK c. QAM d. TCM

45. Is an empirical record of a systems actual bit error performance.

a. ER b. BER c. EER d. BERT

46. Is an error-correcting code used for correcting transmission errors in synchronous data
a. Trellis Code b. EBCDIC c. Bisync Code d. Hamming code

47. The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to generate an output with logical
0s and 1s determined by comparing the phase of two successive data bits is

48. A special digital modulation technique that achieves high data rates in limited-bandwidth
channels is called
a. Delta modulation
b. Pulse-coded modulation (PCM)
c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM)
d. Pulse amplitude modulation (PAM)

49. FSK systems are much superior to two-tone amplitude-modulation systems with respect
a. Noise performance
b. Bandwidth requirements of the channel
c. Ionospheric fading characteristics
d. Power consumption
50. Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received data bits that provide information on
noise, jitter, and linearity is called a(n)
a. Eye pattern
b. Constellation pattern
c. Statistical concentration
d. Loopback

51. The type of radio transmission that uses pseudorandomly switched transmissions is
known as
a. Facsimile
b. Spread spectrum
c. Synthesizing
d. Compression

52. The acronym CDMA refers to ________.

a. Channel-division multiple-access systems
b. Carrier-division multiple-access systems
c. Capture-division multiple-access systems
d. Code-division multiple-access systems

53. The acronym OFDM refers to ________.

a. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
b. Over Frequency Division Multiplexing
c. Optional Frequency Division Modulation
d. Orthogonal Frequency Division Modulation

54. Using radio to transmit gathered data on some particular phenomenon without human
monitors is known as
a. Radio facsimile
b. Radio telemetry
c. Radio teletype
d. Radio multiplexing

55. The acronym for the form of data transmission in which the modulating wave shifts the
output between two predetermined frequencies is _____.
a. FSK
b. PSK
c. FPF
d. FSA
56. Pseudorandom implies a sequence that can be _____ but has the properties of
a. decoded
b. detected
c. re-created
d. minimized

57. ______ implies that both analog and digital signals share the same channel bandwidth.
a. AM
b. Hybrid
c. FM
d. RF

58. Telemetry may be defined as _____ metering.

a. distance
b. specialized
c. remote
d. data
59. Which is not a type of pulse modulation?
a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)
b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM)
c. Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM)
d. Pulse-position modulation (PPM)

60. PPM and PWM are superior to PAM systems in

a. Noise characteristics
b. Bandwidth characteristics
c. Simplicity in design
d. Frequency response of the intelligence signal

61. A procedure that decides which device has permission to transmit at a given time is
a. Line control
b. Protocol
c. Flow control
d. Sequence control

62. The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is

a. Excessive noise producing errors
b. Slope overload
c. Insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signal
d. Complexity of design

63. The AT&T T1 lines

a. Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
b. Use delta modulation and include 48 voice channels
c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
d. Use delta modulation and include 24 voice channels

64. The ground wire in a USB cable is ______.

a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Brown
65. A(n) ________ is used to allow a digital signal to be transmitted on an analog channel.
a. codec
b. alias
c. modem
d. PSK
66. The bit ________ is the amount of power in a digital bit for a given amount of time.
a. error
b. energy
c. joule
d. hp

67. The relationship for bit rate to ________ bandwidth is defined by the Shannon-Hartley
a. modem
b. codec
c. channel
d. amplifier

68. In an S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled voltage is
a. Aperture time
b. Acquisition time
c. Flat-top time
d. Dmin

69. Error signals associated with the sampling process are called
a. Foldover distortion
b. Aliasing
c. Nyquist rate
d. Foldover distortion and aliasing
70. A(n) ________ is a single LSI chip containing both the ADC and DAC circuitry.

a. modem
b. DSP
c. codec

71. The NRZ digital signal-encoding format has a ________ component in the waveform.
a. dc
b. sinusoidal
c. harmonic
d. parity
72. ReedSolomon codes utilize a technique called ________ to rearrange the data into a
nonlinear ordering scheme to improve the chance of data correction.
a. pseudorandom
b. BSC
c. interleaving
d. quantizing

73. For a total capacity of 36 Mbps and 64-QAM of digital modulation, what is the ideal RF

a. 4 Mhz b. 5 Mhz c. 6 Mhz d. 7 Mhz

For a 64-QAM, the total number of symbol combinations is 64 symbols and the number
of bits to produce this is
n = log2 64 = 6 bits per symbol
Therefore the ideal RF bandwidth is
BW = fB / n = 36 Mbps / 6 bits
BW = 6 MHz

74. Combination of compression at the transmitter and expansion at the receiver of

communications system.

a. Decoding b. Companding c. compression d. Coding

75. A series of pulses in which the amplitude of each pulse represents the amplitude of the
information signal at a given time.

a. PAM b. PCM c. PDM d. PPM

76. _______________ is used to position samples of the different message signals in non-
overlapping time slots.
a. FDM b. TDM c. CSMA-CD d. Hamming Code
77. A ___________ is similar to a phasor diagram except that the entire phasor is not drawn.
a. Product modulator b. constellation diagram c. truth table d. none of the above
78. It was the first fixed length character code.
a. ASCII Code
b. Baudot Code
c. Morse Code
d. EBCDIC Code
79. It involves transmitting each character twice.
a. Error Correction b. Redundancy c.Checksum d. Parity
80. The __________ provides the mathematical justification for using a Gaussian Process as a
model for a large number of different physical phenomena in which the random variable, at a
particular instant of time, is the result of a large number of individual random events.
a. Gaussian Theorem
b. Central Limit Theorem
c. Poisson Distribution
d. Gaussian Distribution
81. A set of communication facilities allowing direct access to 64kpbs data streams (or multiples
of) for drop and insert. A form of cell relay, supports B-ISDN.
a. synchronous digital hierarchy (SDH) b. Synchronization
c. Asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) d. Asynchronous
82. A series of pulses, in which the timing of each pulse represents the ampltitude of the
information signal at a given time.
a. Pulse Width Modulation b. Pulse Code Modulation
c. Pulse Duration Modulation d. Pulse Position Modulation
83. It refers to the rate of change of a signal on the transmission medium after encoding and
modulation have occurred.
a. Bit rate b. Baud c. Bit d. Signalling element

84. It was the first fixed-length character code developed for machines rather than people.
a. ASCII code b. Baudot code c. EBCDIC code d. Code 39
85. It is a term that is often misunderstood and commonly confused with bit rate (bps)
a. Bandwidth b. ASK c. Baud d. FSK
86. Duplicating each data unit for the purpose of detecting errors is a form of error detection
called ___________.
a. burst b. redundancy c. error correction d. error detection
87. The channel capacity of a 5 kHz bandwidth binary system is ____ bits/s. Assuming no
a. 1,000 b. 10,100 c. 10,000 d. 100,000

According to Hartleys Theorem:

C = 2B
C = 2(5000) = 10000
88. Data Communications refers to the transmission of ________.
a. voice b. video c. Computer data d. All of the above
89. Determine the peak frequency deviation for a binary FSK signal with a mark frequency of 49
kHz, space frequency of 51kHz and an input bit rate of 2kbps.
a. 1 kHz b. 1.5 kHz c. 2 kHz d. 2.5 kHz

90. It is often used to compare the performance of one digital modulation technique to another.
a. bandwidth efficiency c. dynamic range
b. baud rate d. Costas loop
91. It is the process of converting an infinite number of possibilities to a finite number of
a. quantization c. aliasing
b. sampling d. digitization
92. For a PCM system with a maximum analog frequency of 4kHz, Determine the minimum
sample rate.
a. 8 kHz b. 9 kHz c. 10 kHz d. 11 kHz

93. It is another relatively simple form of redundancy error checking where each character has a
numerical value assigned to it.
a. Checksum c. Longitudinal redundancy checking
b. Vertical redundancy checking d. Cyclic redundancy checking
94. It is a modulation and multiplexing technique that distributes the signal and its sidebands
over a very wide bandwidth.

a. Spread spectrum c. Frequency division multiplexing

b. Phase shift keying d. Quadrature amplitude modulation
95. The computers that hold shared files, programs and the network operating system. They
also provide access to network resources to all the users of the network.
a. Servers c. Transmission media
b. Clients d. Peripherals
96. It is defined by the ITU-T as a service that provides transmission channels capable of
supporting transmission rates greater than the primary data rate.
a. Broadband ISDN c. LAN Topology
b. Asynchronous Transfer Mode d. Ethernet
97. It is the only error-correction scheme that actually detects and corrects transmission errors
when they are received without requiring a transmission..
a. Forward Error Correction c. Code 39
b. Character Synchronization d. Line Control Scheme
98. This OSI Layer is responsible for network availability, data storage and processor capacity.
It also determines the type of dialogue available.
a. Session layer c. Data layer
b. Network layer d. Transport layer
99. Also known as Pin 21 of the RS-232 interface on D connector, this connection allows signals
to be transmitted from the DCE to the attached DTE whenever there is a high probability of an
error in the received data due to the quality of the circuit falling below a predefined level.
a. DCE transmitter b. color quality c. signal quality d. DTE transmitter
signal element timing selector detector signal element timing
100. ______ which means that 2 or more bits in the data unit have changed.?
a. singe bit error b. double bit error c. burst error d. none of the above

101. It is a four-wire Gigabit Ethernet implementation.

a. 1000 Base-SX b. 1000 Base-LX c. 1000Base-T d. 1000 Base-CX

102. It is a digital process that allows several connections to share the high bandwidth of a link.
a. TDM b. FDM c. WDM d. None of the above

103. IEEE 802.11 is define in which MAC sublayer?

a.NCF b.PCF c.DCF d. (b) and (c)

104. A modulation process wherein both frequence and phase remains constant while the
amplitude changes.
a. PSK b. ASK c. FSK d. QAM

105. It is the most powerful redundancy checking technique which is based on binary division.
a. cheksum b. parity check c. cyclic redundancy d. two dimensional
check parity

106. In pulse-code modulation, it translates the quantized samples into digital code words.
a. ADC b. DAC c. encoder d. decoder
107. It is an error detection technique in which a redundant bit is appended to every data unit so
that the total number of 1s in the unit (including the parity bit) becomes even.
a. vertical redundancy check b. longitudinal redundancy check
c. cyclic redundancy check d. checksum
108. A local area network topology in which the individual terminal, microcomputers or
workstations are connected directly to a central computer.

a. Star b. Ring c. Bus d. Mesh

109. The only way to achieve high data rates with a narrowband channel is to increase the
number of bits per symbol, the most reliable way to do this is to use a combination of amplitude
and phase modulation known as _________.
a. quadrature amplitude modulation b. phase shift keying
c. frequency shift keying d. frequency modulation
110. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM system using 16-bit quantizing.
a. 4.82 dB b. 25.84 dB c. 51.68 dB d. 98.08 dB
DR = 1.76 + 6.02m; dB
DR = 1.76 + 6.02(16)
DR = 98.08 dB
111. Compute the baud rate for a 72000 bps 64-QAM signal.
a. 12000 baud b. 1200 baud c. 120000 baud d. 12 baud
A 64-QAM signal means that there are 6 bits per signal element since 26 = 64.
Therefore, baud rate = 72000/6
baud rate = 12000 baud
112. It is a form of digital modulation similar to PSK except the digital information is contained in
both amplitude and the phase of the transmitted carrier.
a. FSK b. ASK c. QAM d.BPSK
113. The most common circuit used for demodulating binary FSK signals.
a. squarer b. PLL c. bandpass filter d. frequency divider

114. We have an audio signal with a bandwidth of 4KHz.What is the bandwidth needed if we
modulate the signal using AM? Ignore FCC regulations for now.
a. 4 KHz b. 8 GHz c. 8 KHz d. 4 GHz

BW = 2 x 4 KHz = 8 KHz

115. We have an audio signal with a bandwidth of 4 MHz. what is the bandwidth if we modulate
the signal using FM? Ignore FCC regulations.
a. 8 b. 6 c. 36 d. 40
An FM signal requires 10 times the bandwidth of the original signal.
BW= 10x4 = 40 MHz
116. For PCM system with the following parameters determine the minimum number of bits
Maximum analog frequency= 4 khz, maximum decoded voltage=2.55,
Minimum dynamic range= 199.5
a. 7 b. 6 c. 8 d. 9

= 7.63 = 8
117. A network topology in which data circulates from one computer to the next in sequence.
a. ring b. star c. bus d. mesh
118. Find the maximum dynamic range for linear PCM system using 8-bit quantizing
a. 2.01 dB b. 20.1 dB c. 49.92 dB d. 4.992 Db
DR = 1.76 + 6.02(m)
DR = 1.76 + 6.02(8)
119. It is a means of transmitting data by shifting the phase angle of the transmitted signal.
a. FSK b. PSK c. ASK d. QAM
120. The name given for a set of standards for communicating among computers in which the
primary purpose is to serve as a structural guideline for exchanging information between
computers, workstations and networks.
a. OSI b. TCP/IP c. PDU d. LAN
121. What type of digital modulation scheme uses two or more different output frequencies?
a. PSK b. FSK c. QAM d. QPSK
122. It is an error-correcting code used for correcting transmission errors in synchronous data
a. Hamming code b.Morse Code c. ASCII code d. Baudot code
123. A suite of protocols that allows a wide variety of computers to share the same network.
a. TCP/IP b. HTTP c. FTP d. SMTP
124. Is a form of constant amplitude angle modulation similar to standard frequency
modulation except the modulating signal is a binary signal that varies between two discrete
voltage levels rather than a continuously changing analog waveform.
a. ASK b. FSK c. CP-FSK d. BPSK
125. The highest layer in the hierarchy and is analogous to the general manager of the network
by providing access to the OSI environment.
a. Application layer
b. Presentation Layer
c. Transport layer
d. Session Layer
126. What is the equation for Hartleys Law?
a. I=ktB b. C=2Blog2M c. fa=fs-fm d. N=2^m
127. Network topology wherein individual terminals, microcomputers and workstations are
connected directly to a central computer.
a. Mesh b. Bus c. Ring d. Star
128. The loss of data that occurs when two stations transmit at the same time on a network
a. multitasking b. cross-over c. collision d. traffic
129. The most commonly used digital modulation scheme.
a. PCUM b. PPM c. PDM d. PCM
130. Simple form of redundancy error checking where each character has a numerical value
assigned to it. The characters within a message are combined together to produce an error
checking character.
a. CRC b. LRC c. Checksum d. VRC

131. Is an eight-bit fixed length character set developed in 1962 by the International Business
Machines Corporation.
a. ASCII code b. Baudot Code c EBCDIC code d. Code 39
132. An attempt is made to transmit base band frequency of 30khz using a digital audio system
with a sampling rate of 44.1khz. What audible frequency would result?
a. 14.1KHz b. 74.1KHz c. 14.1MHz d. 7.05KHz
fa = fs fm
= 44.1KHz 30KHz
= 14.1 KHz
133. Calculate the capacity of a telephone channel that has a S/N of 1023?
a. 16,000 b/s b. 30,000 b/s c. 25,000b/s d. 3000 b/s
The telephone channel has a bandwidth of about 3KHz
C= BW log2 (1+ S/N)
= 3 x 103 log2 (1+ 1023)
=30000 b/s
134. Designed to send characters of the message with the specified bit rate but without any
fixed timing relationship from one character to the next.
a. asynchronous b. synchronous c. error detection d. error correction
135. Token Ring Standard
a. 802.2 b. 802.3 c. 802.4 d. 802.5
136. It is the process of extracting a phase-coherent reference carrier from a receiver signal.
a. Carrier Recovery b. Squaring Loop c. Costas Loop d. Remodulator
137. A source whose output satisfies the condition of statistical independence among letters in
the sequence is said to be_____.
a memoryless b stationary c. entropy d. equivocation

138. Calculate the minimum data rate needed to transmit audio with sampling rate of 30 Khz
and 14 bits per sample.
a. 420 b/s b. 420 Kb/s c. 420 Mb/s d. 420 Gb/s
D = fsm
= 30 x 103 x 14
= 420 x 103 b/s
= 420 Kb/
139. Handles error recovery, flow control (synchronization), and sequencing (which terminals
are sending and which are receiving). It is considered the media access control layer.
a. Transport Layer b. Session Layer c. Data Link Layer d. Application Layer
140. A MAC protocol for LANs, with stations connected topologically or logically in a ring. Or the
IEEE 802.5 LAN standard.
a. Token Ring b. Token Bus c. Token d. Topology
141. A network topology where each device is connected to a centre point and all data is routed
through that point.
a. Star stop transmission b. Star bits
c. Star network d. Star wired ring network
142. Codes that have a restriction on the number of consecutive 1s or 0s in a sequence.
a. Fixed weight code b. Linear Block codes
c. Systematic code d. Run length limited code
143. Contains seven bytes (56 bits) of alternating 0s and 1s that alert the receiving system to
the coming frame and enable it to synchronize its input timing
a. padding b. preamble c. CRC d. signaling
144. Every letter was encoded into fixed length of binary code words of length 5.
a. Manchester Code b. Baudot Code c. Trellis Code d. Morse Code

145. It is a simple means of error detection. It involves the addition of one extra bit to the bits
that encode a character.
a. Parity
b. Checksum
c. Hamming code
d. Cyclic redundancy check
146. A data compression scheme that uses fewer bits to represent more frequently occurring
characters or bit patterns and more bits to represent those occur less frequently.
a. Cyclic redundancy check
b. Bit stuffing
c. Huffman coding
d. Bit overhead
147. Speed at which symbols are transmitted in a digital communication systems.
a. Bit rate b. Baud rate c. Data rate d. Flow rate
148. It is the institution that developed the ASCII (American Standard Code for Information
a. ISO b. ANSI c. FCC d. IEEE
149. In early 1900s, he showed that any composite signal is a sum of a set of sine waves of
different frequencies, phases and amplitudes.
a. Henri Fourier b. Robert Fourier c. Jean-Baptiste Fourier d. Harry Nyquist
150. Find the binary equivalent of x8+x3+x+1.
a. 100001011 b. 011110100 c. 010000101 d. 110000101
1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1
151. Given a bandwidth of 6000 Hz for an ASK signal, what is the baud rate?
a. 3000 Hz b. 2000 Hz c. 12000 Hz d. 6000 Hz
baud rate = bandwidth
6000 Hz = 6000 Hz
152. Compute the bit rate for a 2000 baud 16-QAM signal.
a. 8000 bps b. 4000 bps c. 2000 bps d. 500 bps
bit rate = baud * 4
2000 * 4 = 8000 bps
153. It is an electronic device that is used for computer communications through telephone
a. hub b. Modem c. Router d. NIC
154. A telephone line has a bandwidth of 4.5 kHz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 40dB. A signal is
transmitted down this line using a four level code. What is the maximum theoretical data rate?
a. 59.795 kbps b. 18 kbps c. 78 kbps d. 41.795 kbps

C = 2Blog2M = 2(4.5x103)log2(4) = 18 kbps

S/N = antilog (40/10) = 10000
C = Blog2(1+S/N) = (4.5x103)log2(1+10000) = 59.795 kbps
Since both results are maxima, we take the lesser of the two, 18 Kbps...
155. Showed mathematically that it is posssible to reconstruct a band-limited analog signal from
periodic samples, as long as the sampling rate is at least twice the frequency of the highest
frequency component of the signal.
a. Shannon-Hartley b. Claude E. Shannon c. Harry Nyquist d. R. Hartley
156. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM system using 8-bit quantizing.
a. 62.24 dB b. 49.92 dB c. 20.10 dB d. 15.78 dB
DR = 1.76 + 6.02m dB
= 1.76 + 6.02(8) dB
= 49.92 dB
157. In operation, many modern codecs achieved compresion by first encoding the signals
using a 12-bit linear PCM code, then converting the 12-bit linear code into an 8-bit compressed
code by discarding some of the bits. This is a simple example of:
a. Compression b. Differential PCM c. Vocoders d. Digital Signal Processing
158. Sampling of an analog signal using a sample-and-hold circuit such that the sample has the
same amplitude for its whole duration.
a. Natural Sampling b. Flat-topped Sampling
c. State Sampling d. Radom Sampling
159. For Ethernet system with a length of 2.5km on coaxial cable with a velocity factor of 0.66.
What is the propagation delay?
a. 12.6s b. 8.33s c. 1.27 s d. 13.88 s
T = d/(VfC) = 2.5km/(0.66*300000000m/s) = 12.6 s
160. A signal at the input to a -Law compressor is positive, with its volatage one-half the
maximum value. What proportion of the maximum output voltage is produced?
a. 0.876Vo b. 0.678Vo c. 0.768Vo d. 0.867Vo
161. Who invented the telegraph?
a. Carl Friedrich c. Alexander Grahambell
b. Samuel F.B Morse d. Emile Baudot
162. The simplest modulation technique, where a binary information signal modulates the
amplitude of an analog carrier.
a. Ampitude-Shift Keying c. Continous-Phase Frequency-Shift Keying
b. Frequency-Shift Keying d. Phase-Shift Keying
163. Is the lowest Open System Interconnection hierarchy and is responsible for the actual
propagation of unstructured data bits (1s and 0s) through a transmission medium.
a. Physical Layer b. Data Link Layer c. Network Layer d. Transport Layer
164. Error-correction scheme that actually detect and corrects transmission errors when they
are received without requiring a retransmission.
a. Forward error correction b. Hamming code c. Retransmission d. CRC
165. It allows the overall complexity of the system to be broken down into individual function
layers- that operate essentially by themselves.
a. Data Rate b. Transparency c. Physical Layer d. Format

166. This are very useful pictorial representations that clearly show the protocol operations such
as words or convetional drawings.
a. State Transition Diagram
b. Flow Chart Diagram
c. Block DIagram
d. Circuit Diagram
167. Network that connects users who are in the same general location
a. WAN b. Star Tropology c. LAN d. Bus Tropology
168. In operation, many modern codecs achieved compresion by first encoding the signals
using a 12-bit linear PCM code, then converting the 12-bit linear code into an 8-bit compressed
code by discarding some of the bits. This is a simple example of:
a. Compression b. Differential PCM c. Vocoders d. Digital Signal Processing
169. Used to established a point to point connection across a network.
a. ARP b.FTP c.TCP d.UDP
170. An attempt is made to transmit a baseband frequency of 25kHz using digital audio system
with a sampling rate of 44.1 kHz. What audible frequency would result?
a. 39.1kHz b.19.1kHZ c.29.1kHz d.14.1kHz
f a = f s - fm
= 44.1kHz 25kHz
= 19.1kHz
171. Defines the rules of the conversation the message passing among the network users
a. network protocol b. Internet protocol c. Data d. Information protocol
172. A network that is composed of a smaller lan that are closely link. It is needed for areas
spread out geographically
a. MAN B. Network tropology c. WAN d. Linking system
173. It is a method of switching that provides a separate physical path for each symbol
a. circuit switching b. packet switching c. space switching d. time switching

174. The OSI Layer responsible for data tracking as it moves through a network. It controls and
ensures the end to end integrity of the data message propagated through the network
between two devices.
a. Application b. Transport c. Physical d. Session
175. It is the most common means of overcoming the problems of quantizing error and noise.
a. multiplexing b. companding c. amplifying d. anti-aliasing

EST: Fiber Optics

1. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index of 1.55 and is clad with another
glass with a refractive index of 1.51. Launching takes place from air. What numerical
aperture does the fiber have?
a. 0.852 b. 0.352 c. 1.032 d. 0.235

By equation (20.10), the fractional difference between the indexes is:

By equation (20.11), the numerical aperture is found to be:
= 0.352
2. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index of 1.55 and is clad with another
glass with a refractive index of 1.51. Launching takes place from air. What is the
acceptance angle?
a. 22.8 b. 18.6 c. 20.6 d. 23.6
By equation (20.10), the fractional difference between the indexes is:
By equation (20.11), the numerical aperture is found to be:
= 0.352
By equation (20.8), the acceptance angle is:
0(max)=sin-1NA= sin-10.352= 20.6
3. For a single-mode optical cable with 0.25-dB/km loss, determine the optical power 100km
from a 0.1-mW light source.
a. -25dBm b. -45dBm c. -35dBm d. -30dBm
P=0.1mW x 10
=1 x 10-4 x 10{[(0.25)(100)]/(10)]
=(1 x 10-4)(1 x 10-25)
P(dBm)= 10log
= -35dBm
4. For an optical fiber 10km long with a pulse-spreading constant of 5ns/km, determine the
maximum digital transmission rates for return-to-zero.
a. 10Mbps b. 20 Mbps c. 50 Mbps d. 5 Mbps
Fb= =20Mbps

5. In fiber optics, it is a measure of the conversion efficiency of a photodetector. It is the ratio of

the output current of a photodiode to the input optical power and has the unit of amperes per
a. Dark current b. Responsivity c. Spectral Response d. Light Sensitivity

6. A phenomenon also called stress corrosion resulting if the glass fiber is exposed to long
periods of high humidity?
a. Static fatigue
b. Absorption
c. Scattering loss
d. Dispersion
7. The theory which states that when visible light or high-frequency electromagnetic radiation
illuminates a metallic surface, electrons are emitted.(alam nating lahat na Photoelectric Effect
yan, pero Plancks Law sagot ng TUP)
a. Photoelectric effect
b. Plancks law
c. Photoemission effect
d. Ray Theory of light
8. The science of measuring only light waves that are visible to the human eye
a. Radiometry
b. Photometry
c. Optometry
d. Optics
9. The process of constructing an ILD that is similar to LED except that the ends are highly
a.epitaxially grown b. Planar diffusion c. lasing d. None of the above

10. A phenomenon in optical fibers communication system that is caused by the difference in
the propagation times of light rays that take different paths down the fiber.

a. Pulse spreading
b. Wavelength distortion
c. Rayleigh scattering
d. Microbending

11. The most common light used in fiber-optic links is

a. Infrared b. Red c. Violet d. Ultraviolet
12. In the telecommunications industry, the most commonly used fiber(s) are
a..50 micron b. 62.5 micron c. 50 and 62.5 micron d. 125 micron
13. The abrupt change in refractive index from core to cladding of fiber-optic cable is called the
a. Total internal reflection b. Numerical aperture c. Dispersion d. Step index
14. A technique that is used to minimize the pulse dispersion effect is to
a. Use a higher frequency light source
b. Use plastic cladding
c. Minimize the core diameter
d. All the above
15. Which is not an important characteristic of a light detector?
a. Responsitivity b. Dark current c. Power consumption d. Response speed
16. The dispersion of light in fiber-optic cable caused by a portion of the light energy traveling in
the cladding is called
a. Modal dispersion
b. Material dispersion
c. Waveguide dispersion
d. Cable dispersion
18. Recent laser developments for fiber-optic communication include
a. Distributed feedback (DFB)
b. Vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)
c. Heterojunction
d. Distributed feedback (DFB) and vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)
19. Which of the following considerations is important when deciding between using a diode
laser or an LED?
a. Response time
b. Power levels
c. Temperature sensitivity
d. Failure characteristics

20. In 1815, the correct explanation of diffraction was given by

a. Maxwell b. Rayleigh c. Fresnel d. Snell

21. It is the central part of the optical communication system

a. Light Source b. Optical Fiber c. Photodetector d. none of the above
22. The light energy that is always emitted or absorbed in discrete units
a. Light Ray b. Boson c. Quanta d. Light
23. Which of the following Ethernet fiber optic standard uses synchronous, Centralized Clock?
a. 10 Base-FL (Link) b. 10 Base-FB (Backbone)
c. 10 Base-FP (passive) d. Both a & c
24. It is a mixed, multiple-service standard to allow the transmission of voice and video over an
FDDJ network.
a. FDDI - II b. FDDI - I c. Hi PPI d. Escon
25. It is a layer of plastic that surrounds a fiber or group of fibers
a. Buffer Tube b. Bulkhead c. Cladding d. Jacket
26. A lasers use organic dyes enclosed in a glass tube for an active medium, dye is circulated
into the tube with a pump. A powerful pulse of light excites the organic dye.
a. Solid Lasers b. Semiconductor Lasers
c. Gas Lasers d. Liquid Lasers
EST: Microwave Engineering
1. By how much should two antennas be separated for space diversity in the 11 GHz band?
a. 5.5 m b. 7.5m c. 9.5m d. 11.5m
200 3 x 10 8
d 200
200 c
5.5 m
f 9
11 x 10
2. What is the phase velocity of a rectangular waveguide with a wall separation of 3 cm and a
desired frequency of operation of 6 GHz?
a. 3.45 x 108 m/s b. 4.35 x 108 m/s c. 4.53 x 108 m/s d. 5.43 x 108 m/s
3. A transmitter and a receiver is 45 km apart. Suppose that there is an obstacle midway
between the transmitter and receiver. By how much must the path between the towers clear the
obstacle in order to avoid diffraction at a frequency of 11 GHz?
a. 17.52 m b. 10.51 m c. 8.76 m d. 7.52 m

4. How far from the transmitter could a signal be received if the transmitting and receiving
antennas where 40 m and 20 m, respectively, above level terrain?
a. 44.5 km b. 45.4 km c. 54.4 km d. None of the choices

5. A signal propagated in a waveguide has a full wave of electric intensity change between two
further walls, and no component of the electric field in the direction of propagation. The mode is
a. TE11 b. TE10 c. TM22 d. TE20
6. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return loss of 26 dB. A source provides 1 W to
the isolator, and the load is resistive with an SWR of 3. How much power is dissipated in the
a. 1 W b. 851 mW c. 750 mW d. 638 mW
Pout 851 .14 mW
0. 7
anti log
0. 5
PLOAD Pout 1 2 638 .35 mW
7. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return loss of 26 dB. A source provides 1 W to
the isolator, and the load is resistive with an SWR of 3. How much power returns to the source?
a. 250 mW b. 350 W c. 535 W d. 690 W
Pout 851 .14 mW
anti log
PLOAD Pout 1 2 638 .35 mW
Preflected Pout 2 212 .78 mW
212 .78 mW
Preturned 534 .49 W
anti log
8. It is a microwave device that allows RF energy to pass through in one direction with very little
loss, but absorbs RF power in the opposite direction.
a. multiplexer b. circulator c. isolator d. wave trap
9. A metal wrapped around the parabolic antenna aperture to eliminate sidelobes interfering
nearby stations is called
a. radome b. shield c. shroud d. bass drum
10. The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide _________.
a. is greater than in free space
b. depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free space wavelength
c. is inversely proportional to the phase velocity
d. is directly proportional to the group velocity
11. A device launches or receives a wave in a transmission line or waveguide in one direction
a. crossed-field tube b. directional coupler c. linear-beam tube d. slow-wave structure
12. A type of linear-beam microwave tube that uses velocity modulation of the electron beam
a. buncher b. Gunn device c. Bunching d. klystron
13. A line of sight radio link operating at a frequency of 6GHz has a separation of 40km
between antennas. An obstacle in the path is located 10km form the transmitting antenna. By
how much must the beam clear the obstacle?
a.11.6m b. 11.6ft c. 10.6m d. 10.6ft

R = 11.6m

14. Determine the wavelength of a 4 Ghz signal.

a. 0.0075m b. 75m c. 750m d. 0.075m
15. Microwaves are frequencies above _____ GHz.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 1 d. None of the above
16. A wave guide acts a/an _______ filter
a. high-pass b. low-pass c. Either a or b d. None of the above
17. Coax is not used beyond frequencies of about ______ GHz.
a. 6 b. 10 c. 4 d. 2
18. A type of microwave protection system where each working channel has a dedicated back
up or spare channel.

a. Frequency b. Space diversity c. Hybrid diversity d. Hot Standby


19. It is the oldest microwave tube design which is commonly used in radar transmitters where
they can generate peak power levels in the megawatt range.
a. Klystron b. Magnetron c. Microstrip d. crossed field tube

20. A microwave communications system, space loss calculation formula is

a. 92.4 + 10 log F + 20 log D b. 94.2 + 10 log F + 20 log D
c. 92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log D d. 94.2 + 20 log F + 20 log D

EST: Transmission Lines and Antenna Systems

1. A dipole antenna has a radiation resistance of 67 ohms and a loss resistance of 5 ohms,
measured at the feedpoint. Calculate the efficiency.
a. 90%
b. 91%
c. 92%
d. 93%
Efficiency = Rr / Rt = 67 / (67 + 5) = 93%
2. Two antennas have gains of 5.3 dBi and 4.5 dBd, respectively. Which has a greater gain?
a. The first antenna has a higher gain.
b. The second antenna has a higher gain.
c. Both antennas have the same gain
d. Cannot be determined
3. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:
a. Marconi antenna
b. Yagi antenna
c. Hertz antenna
d. none of the choices
4. An antenna's beamwidth is measured
a. from +90 to 90
b. between half-power points
c. from front to back
d. between the minor side-lobes
5. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by
a. radio signals reflecting off the ground
b. buildings and other structures on the ground
c. fading
d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground
6. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using
a. a shorted stub
b. an LC network
c. a loading coil
d. all of the choices
7. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased
a. the number of lobes increases
b. efficiency decreases
c. the number of nodes decreases
d. none of the above
8. LPDA stands for
a. Low-Power Dipole Array
b. Log-Periodic Dipole Array
c. Low-Power Directed Array
d. Log Power Dipole Array
9. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with
a. a slotted line
b. an EIRP meter
c. a dipole
d. a field-strength meter

10. A receiving antenna with a built-in preamplifier

a. active antenna
b. passive antenna
c. coil
d. LC antenna
11. Which of the following is not a reason why most half-wave antennas are mounted
horizontally at low frequencies?
a. physical construction is easier
b. more cost-effective
c. mounting is easier
d. support is easier
12. The shape of the electromagnetic energy radiated from or received by an antenna is called
a. signal shape
b. electromagnetic pattern
c. radiation pattern
d. antenna pattern
13. Antennas that transmit an equal amount of energy in the horizontal direction are called
a. bi-directional
b. unidirectional
c. omnidirectional
d. unilateral
14. The ability of an antenna to send or receive signals over a narrow horizontal directional
range is referred to as
a. focal factor
b. permittivity
c. directivity
d. horizontal range
15. A basic antenna connected to a transmission line plus one or more additional conductors
that are not connected to the transmission line form a
a. parasitic array
b. bi-directional array
c. half-wave dipole
d. counterpoise
16. An antenna made up of a driven element and one or more parasitic elements is generally
referred to as a
a. Hertz antenna
b. Marconi antenna
c. collinear antenna
d. Yagi antenna
17. Which antennas usually consist of two or more half-wave dipoles mounted end to end?
a. Hertz
b. Marconi
c. collinear
d. Yagi
18. A stacked collinear antenna consisting of half-wave dipoles spaced from one another by
one-half wavelengths is the
a. broadside array
b. end-fire array
c. wide-bandwidth array
d. parasitic array

19. When the characteristic impedance of the transmission line matches the output impedance
of the transmitter and the impedance of the antenna itself,
a. the SWR will be 10:1
b. the SWR will be 1:10
c. minimum power transfer will take place
d. maximum power transfer will take place
20. A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced transmission line of a specific impedance
connected between a load and a source in order to match impedances is
a. a balun
b. an autotransformer
c. a Q section
d. dummy load
21. The angular separation between the two half-power points on the power density radiation
a. Bandwidth b. Beamwidth c. Footprint d. Azimuth
22. Refers to the direction in space of electric vector of the electromagnetic wave radiated from
an antenna and is parallel to the antenna itself.
a. Propagation b. Coordinates c. Polarization d. Azimuth

23. Placing a metallic array on the antenna effects to increase the current at the base of the
antenna, and also to make the current distribution more uniform. What is this called?
a. Reflector b. Grounding c. Top loading d. Feeding
24. What principle that states that the properties of an antenna are independent of whether it is
used for transmission or reception.
a. Alternation b. Diplexer c. Reciprocity d. Repeatability
25. Calculate the beam width between nulls of a 2-m paraboloid reflector used at 6GHz. Note:
such reflectors are often used at that frequency as antennas outside broadcast television
microwave links.
a. 140 b. 70 c. 3.50 d. 0.8750

26. This is often used to cure the problem of great thickness required of lenses used at lower
microwave frequencies or for strong curved wavefronts.
a. Splicing b. Zoning c. Curving d. Polarizing
27. A structure-generally metallic and sometimes very complex-designed to provide an efficient
coupling between space and the output of a transmitter or input to a receiver.
a. Stub b. Antenna c. Transmission line d. waveguide

28. The ratio comparing the power density generated by a practical antenna in some direction,
with that due to an isotopic antenna radiating the same total power.
a. directivity b. Directive gain c. bandwidth d. Elementary doublet
29. Any array that is directional at right angles to the plane of the array is said, by inference, to
have __________.
a. Broadside b. Broadside array c. Broadside action d. End-fire array
30. The ratio of the focal length to the mouth diameter is called __________ of the parabola,
just as in camera lenses.
a. focus b. resolution c. feed d. aperture
31. Corresponds to a resonant transmission line, and the dipole antennas describe so far have
been resonant.
a. Non-resonant antenna
b. Resonant antenna
c. Antenna arrays
d. None of the above
32. Which of the following antenna types is not designed for transmitting at 10 Ghz
a. horn antenna b dish antenna c. Zepp antenna d. helical antenna
33. How many wavelengths long are required for a pair of conductors to be considered as a
transmission line?
a. b. c. 1/10 d. 5/8
34. Determine the time taken for a signal to travel down a 10 m transmission line, if its velocity
factor is 0.7.
a. 23.33 ns b. 14.52ns c. 76.8 s d. 47.6 ns
T= L/ (Vf x Vc)
T= 10 m/ (0.7)(3x108 m/s)
T= 47.6 ns
35. The maximum voltage standing wave of an RG-11/U foam coaxial cable is 52 V and its
minimum voltage is 17 V. How many percent of the incident power is the reflected power?
a. 51% b. 26% c. 3% d. 97%

2 = Pr/Pi

= SWR-1 ; SWR = Vmax/ Vmin = 52/17 = 3.05


= 3.05 1 = 0.51
3.05 +1
Thus : 2 = (0.51)2 = 0.26

The reflected power is 26 % of the incident power

36. At exactly one-quarter wavelength, the short-circuited transmission line behaves as a(an)
___________ circuit.
a. inductive b. capacitive c. parallel-resonant d. series-resonant

37. Determine the phase-shift represented by a 75 ns delay of a 4 MHz signal to a 75-ft cable
with a dielectric constant of 2.3.
a. 108 degrees b. 4.8 degrees c. 52 degrees d. 250 degrees
= 360 (td / T)
T =1/f = 1 / 4MHz = 250 ns
= 360 (75) / 250 = 108 degrees
38. Which of the following is a flat conductor separated by an insulating dielectric from a large
ground plane that is usually one-quarter or one-half wavelength long?
a. stripline b. microstrip c. twin-lead wire d. shielded-pair
39. One complete revolution around a Smith Chart represents _________ wavelengths.
a. b. c. 1 d. 2
40. A mismatched transmission line is also referred to as a ___________ line.
a. lossy b. lossless c. non-resonant d. resonant
41. It is the ratio of the speed of propagation on a line to that of light in free-space.
a. velocity factor b. refractive index c. dielectric constant d. standing-wave ratio
42. Which of the following is the most widely used UTP cable that can carry baseband data at
rates up to 100 Mbps at a range up to 100m?
a. CAT 4 b. CAT 5 c. CAT 5e d. CAT 6
43. ________________ means that the characteristics and performance of an antenna are the
same whether the antenna is radiating or intercepting an electromagnetic signal.
a. antenna reciprocity b. antenna polarization
c. antenna grounding d. tower sway
44. Which of the following methods is used to lower the resonant frequency of a shortened
vertical antenna?
a. loading coil b. top hat loading c. drooping radials d. grounding
45. Calculate the gain (relative to an isotropic) of a parabolic antenna that has a diameter of 3
m, an efficiency of 60% and operates at a frequency of 4 GHz.
a. 39.8 dBi b. 41.94 dBi c. 37.66dBi d. 79.53 dBi
G= D/ 2 2 2

= 3x108/ 4MHz = 0.075 m

G = 0.62(3)2
G= 9474.8
G = 10 log 9474.8
G = 39.8 dBi
46. It is a phenomenon caused by any support insulators used at the ends of the wire antenna.
a. skin effect b. end effect c. faraday effect d. miller effect
47. It refers to the maximum antenna gain.
a. directivity b. directive gain c. power gain d. power density
48. Typical mode of radiation of helical antenna is:
a. end fire b. normal c. common mode d. differential mode
49. A measure of mismatch in a transmission line
a. reflection coefficient b. propagation delay
c. standing wave ratio d. all of these
50. It is a piece of transmission line which is normally short-circuited at the far end.
a. terminator b. stub c. quarter wave transformer d. none of these
51. A 50 ohms transmission line is connected to a 30 ohm resistive load. Calculate the
reflection coefficient.
a. 0.35 b. 0.25 c. 0.10 d. 0.15
Ref Coeff = (30 50)/(30 + 50) = 0.25
52. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its
a. conductor spacing b. conductor diameter
c. length d. conductor radius
53. Characteristic impedance of a transmission line is the impedance measured at the _______
when its length is infinite.
a. input b. shorted end of the line c. output d. midsection
54. Which is properly terminated antenna?
a. rhombic b. dipole c. marconi d. hertz

EST: Satellite Communications

1. Geostationary satellites are located at ____ with respect to the equator.
a. 00 longitude b. 00 latitude c. 450 longitude d. 900 latitude
2. The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the ______ ratio.
a. S/N b. G/T c. C/N d. EIRP
3. Why does the downlink frequency appear to vary by several kHz during a low earth orbit
satellite pass?
a. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Kepler
b. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Bernoulli
c. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Boyles
Law effect
d. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the
Doppler effect
4. The most ambitious LEO constellation to date is ______.
a. Iridium
c. Teledesic
d. Globalstar
5. A satellite-dish owner has a 3 meter dish designed for C-band (4 GHz) operation. The owner
wants to use the same dish with a new feedhorn, for Ku-band (12 GHz) satellites. What effect
will the change in frequency have on the gain and beamwidth of the antenna?
a. Gain increases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth decreases to 1/3 of its former value.
b. Gain decreases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth decreases to 1/3 of its former value.
c. Gain increases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth increases to thrice of its former value.
d. Gain decreases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth increases to thrice of its former value.
6. The moon orbits the earth with a period of approximately 28 days. How far away is it?
Assume circular orbit.
a. 380 Mm b. 382 Mm c. 384 Mm d. 386 Mm
7. What is the length of the path to a geostationary satellite from an Earth station if the angle of
elevation is 300?
a. 6400 km b. 39000 km c. 42400 km d. 46000 km

8. What is the nominal uplink frequency for the Ku band?

a. 6 GHz
b. 4 GHz
c. 14 GHz
d. 12 GHz

9. To cover all inhabited regions of the earth, the number of polar-orbit satellites required is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5
10. The height above mean sea level of a satellite in a geosynchronous orbit around Earth is:
a. 35,786 miles b. 35,786 NM c. 35,786 feet d. 35,786 km
11. The location of a satellite is generally specified in terms of
a. azimuth & elevation b. latitude & longitude c. true morth d. bearing
12. A point in the orbit of an object orbiting the earth that is located closest to Earth.
a. perigee b. apogee c. apex d. subsatellite point
13. Find the velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit 500 km above the earths surface.
a. 76 km/s b. 76 m/s c. 7.6 km/s d. 7.6 km/s2
4 x1011
Formula : v
d 6400

Where : v = velocity in meters per second

d = distance above earths surface in km

4 x1011
(500 6400)

= 7.6 km/s
14. Find the orbital period of a satellite in a circular orbit 36,000 km above the earths surface if

the earths radius is 6400 km.

a. 1440 mins b. 24 days c. 3,600 sec d. 1440 sec
Formula :
Where : T = orbital period
C = circumference
v = orbital velocity

C = 2r
= 2 ( 6400 + 36,000 ) = 266.4 x 106 m

4 x1011
v 3.07km/s
(36,000 6400)

C 266.4 x106 m
T 24hrs or 1440 minutes
v 3.07x103 m /s
15. The outline of a communications satellite antenna pattern on the earth is known as:
a. beam b. propagation pattern c. spot d. footprint

16. Calculate the length of the path to a geostationary satellite from an earth station where the
angle of elevation is 30. (earths radius = 6400 km, height of satellite above earth is 36 X 103
a. 36,000 km b. 36,000 mi c. 39,000 km d. 39,000 mi.

Formula : d (r h)2 (rcos )2 rsin

d = distance to the satellite in km

r = radius of the earth in km (6400 km)
h = height of satellite above equator ( 36 x 103 km)

= angle of elevation to satellite at antenna site

Solution :
d (6400 36x103 )2 (6400cos 30)2 6400sin 30
= 39,000 km
17. A satellite access technique where each earth station transmits a short burst of information
during a specific time slot.

18. An earth station antenna look angle is determined by :
a. azimuth & elevation b. longitude & latitude c. bearing d. true north
19. An ITU radiocommunication standards for satellite services which provides information on
the range of frequencies that can be used by fixed satellite service systems for emergency and
disaster relief operations.
a. ITU-R M1854 b. ITU-R S 009 c. ITU-R S.1001-2 d. ITU-R S.004
20. A Satellite receiving system includes a dish antenna ( Teq = 35 K) connected via a coupling
network (Teq= 40 K) to a microwave receiver (Teq=52 K referred to its input). What is the noise
power to the receivers input over a 1-MHz frequency range?
a. 1.75 x 10-15W b. 1.75 x 10-12W c. 1.15 x 10-15W d. 1.15 x 10-12W
PN = KTf
= 1.38 x 10-23 J/K (35 + 40 + 52)K (1MHz)
= 1.75 x 10-15 W
ESAT: Radio Wave Propagation
1. What is the mode of radio wave propagation that utilized ionosphere as a medium of
transmission and / or reception of radio signals?
a. ground wave b. sky wave c. space wave d. all of these
2. What is the wavelength of a radio signal travelling at a frequency of 220 MHz in a coaxial line
having Teflon foam as its dielectric, r = 2?
a. 1 m b. 0.85 m c. 0.96 m d. 1.36 m
c = 3 x 108 m/sec = 300 x 106 m/sec
velocity factor vf = 1 / sqrt (r) = 1 / sqrt (2) = 0.707 = vP / c
Therefore the velocity of the radio signal in the coaxial line is
vP = 0.707c = 0.707 (300 x 106) = 212,132,034.36 m/sec (or 212 x 106 m/sec approx.)
so that the wavelength of the signal is
= vP / f = 212 x 106 / 220 x 106 = 0.963636 m or 0.96 m approx.
3. What is the angle of refraction in a Teflon (r2 = 2) medium of a radio wave from air (r1 = 1.0)
if its angle of incidence is 45?
a. 24 b.26 c.28 d.30
Using Snells Law
Sqrt (r1) sin i = Sqrt (r2) sin r
Sqrt (1) sin 45 = Sqrt (2) sin r
r = sin-1 [(Sqrt (1) sin 45) / Sqrt (2)] = sin-1 (0.5) = 30
4. An ionosphere layer also termed as absorption layer because it absorbs most of the
frequencies above 100 kHz is known as the layer.
a. D b. E c. F1 d. F2
5. As per ITU-R Recc. V.431-6 Tables 1 & 2 Wavelength Classifications, what is the
classification of Super High Frequency?
a. metric b. decimetric c. centimetric d. millimetric
SHF band: 3 GHz 30 GHz
max = 3 x 108 / 3 x 109 = 0.1 m = 100 cm
min = 3 x 108 / 30 x 109 = 0.01 m = 1 cm
SHF band wavelength classification is ranging from 1 cm to 100 cm. Therefore it is
centimetric wave.
6. What is a diversity scheme that uses two (2) separate antennas and receivers for each single
a. frequency diversity
b. space diversity
c. angle diversity
d. quadrature diversity
7. What is a diversity scheme that uses two (2) different frequencies in a simplex path?
a. frequency diversity
b. space diversity
c. angle diversity
d. quadrature diversity
8. What is the critical frequency of a layer if the maximum value of electron density is 2 x 106 per
a. 11 Mhz b. 12 Mhz c. 13 Mhz d. 14 Mhz
Nmax = 2 x 106 per cm3 = 2 x 106 x 106 per m3 = 2 x 1012 per m3
fc = 9 x sqrt (Nmax) = 9 x sqrt (2 x 1012)
fc = 12.73 MHz or 13 MHz approx.
9. A radio communication link is to be established via the ionosphere. The maximum virtual
height of the layer is 110 km. at the midpoint of the path and the critical frequency is 4 MHz. If
the distance between the radio stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value for the optimum
working frequency? Use flat terrain analysis.
a. 8.2 Mhz b. 8.3 Mhz c. 8.4 Mhz d. 8.5 Mhz
For flat terrain analysis, tan i = d/2hv
i = tan-1 [d/2hv] = tan-1 [500/2(110)] = tan-1 [2.273] = 66.25 angle of incidence
MUF = fc x sec i = fc / cos i = 4 / cos 66.25 = 4 / 0.40275 = 9.932 MHz via Secant Law
OWF = 0.85 x MUF = 0.85 (9.932) = 8.4422 MHz or 8.4 MHz approx.

10. The power density is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source.
This law is known as
a. Faradays Law
b. Snells Law
c. Inverse Square Law
d. Gauss Law
11. The lowest portion of the ionosphere that is useful for long-distance communication by
amateurs; about 100 to 115 km above the earth is known as the layer. This is often termed as
the Kennely-Heavyside layer.
a. D b. E c. F1 d. F2
12. A graph which shows the radiation in actual field strength of electromagnetic fields at all
points which are at equal distance from the antenna is known as
a. Frequency Response
b. Radiation Pattern
c. Smith Chart
d. FCC F(50,50) Graph
13. The efficiency of an antenna is 82 %. Its radiation resistance is 30 . What is the value of
its loss resistance?
a. 75 ohms b. 15 ohms c. 12 ohms d. 6.58 ohms
= Rd/(Rd + Rloss)
0.82 = 30/(30 + Rloss)
0.82 (30 + Rloss) = 30 = 24.6 + 0.82 Rloss
Rloss = (30 24.6) / 0.82 = 6.5854 or 6.58 approx.
14. A phenomenon on the surface of the sun with appearance and disappearance of dark
irregularly shaped areas.
a. SID b. 11-year sunspot c. Sporadic E-Layer d. Ionospheric Storms

15. What should be done to increase the transmission distance at frequencies higher than HF
a. increase antenna gain
b. increase antenna height
c. increase transmitter power
d. increase receiver sensitivity
16. Which of the following factors must be considered in the transmission of a surface wave to
reduce attenuation?
a. electrical properties of the terrain
b. frequency
c. antenna polarization
d. all choices
17. A radio station operates at 11 meter wavelength. What is the designated band of stations
a. MF b. HF c, VHF d. UHF
c = 3 x 108 m/sec
= 11 m = c / f
f = 3 x 108 / 11 = 27 MHz approx., which is within 3 30 MHz range designated as HF
18. What is the total radio horizon distance between an 80 ft transmitting station and a 20 ft
receiving station?
a. 53.66 km b. 53.66 mi c. 18.97 km d. 18.97 mi
dRH (TOT) = sqrt (2 x hT) + sqrt (2 x hR)
dRH (TOT) = sqrt (2 x 80) + sqrt (2 x 20)
dRH (TOT) = 18.97 mi
19. A power density of 1.57 x 10-4 W/m2 is measured 50 meters from a test antenna whose
directive gain is 2.15 dB. How much power was fed into the test antenna?
a. 1 W b. 2 W c. 3 W d. 4 W
From Inverse Square Law, PD = PR/4d2
PR = PD x 4d2 = 1.57 x 10-4 x 4(50)2 = 4.93 W approx. is the radiated power
GANT = log-1 [2.15 dB/10] = 1.64
PFED = PR / GANT = 4.93 / 1.64 = 3.007 W or 3 W approx.
20. The highest frequency that can be used for skywave propagation between two specific
points on earths surface.
a. Critical Frequency b. MUF c. Cut-off frequency d. mid frequency
21. Variation in signal loss caused by natural weather disturbances.
a. attenuation b. fading c. spreading loss d. weather loss
22. Determine the radio horizon for a transmit antenna that is 200 m high and a receiving
antenna that is 100 m high
a. 99.5km b. 96.5 km c. 95.87 km d. 97.5 km
D = 17ht + 17hr
= 17(200) + 17(100)
= 99.5 km
23. The height above the earths surface from which a refracted wave appears to have been
a. actual height b. virtual height c. average height d. mean height

24. Electromagnetic waves that are directed above the horizon level.
a. ground waves b. surface waves c. sky waves d. space waves
25. Variation in received field strength over time due to changes in propagation conditions.
a. Repeater b. Fading c. Fresnel Zone d. Diversity
26. The type of radio wave responsible for long distance communications by multiple skips is
a. Ground Wave b. Direct Wave c. Surface Wave d. Sky Wave
27. Line of sight communications is not a factor in which frequency range?
a. VHF b. UHF c. HF d. Microwave

28. A receiver-transmitter station used to increase the communications range of VHF, UHF and
microwave signals is called a(n):
a. Transceiver b. Remitter c. Repeater d. Amplifier
29. It is often defined as the loss incurred by an electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a
straight line through a vacuum with no absorption or reflection of energy from nearby objects.
a. transmission loss
b. atmospheric loss
c. free space loss
d. spreading loss
30. It is a single transmission path from transmitter to receiver with line of sight range.
a. diversity
b. direct path
c. jitter
d. hop
31. The electric field intensity is measured in:
a. V/m b. V-m c. C/m d. V/C
32. It is a result of an increase in the charge density in dielectric materials.
a. polarization b. dipole moment c. potential d. potential difference
33. The maximum horizontal distance between the transmitter and the receiver for line of sight
propagation is known as:
a. radio horizon b. range c. single hop distance d. service region
34. The electric field is perpendicular to the earths surface, the polarization is:
a. vertical b. normal c. horizontal d. circular
35. In what major RF band is ground wave basically applied?
a. MF b. HF c. VHF d. UHF

36. The highest frequency that can be set back to earth by the ionosphere, if wave is sent
vertically upward.
a. maximum usable frequency (muf) b. propagating frequency
c. critical frequency d. cut-off frequency
37. Travel in a straight line from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna.
a. ground wave b. scatter c. space wave d. sky wave
38. VLF waves are for some types of services because:
a. of low powers required b. the transmitting antennas are of convenient size
c. they are very reliable d. they penetrate the ionosphere easily
39. It is the distance between two wave fronts having the same phase at any given instant.
a. wavefront b. wavelength c. wave distance d. field intensity
40. Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long-distance night time
a. D layer b. E layer c. A layer d. F layer
41. Occurs when the radio beam is at point of grazing over an obstacle.
a. diffraction b. refraction c. absorption d. reflection

EST: Broadcast Engineering and Acoustics

1. As per Philippine standard, frequency allocation of AM Radio Broadcasting is from
a. 535 to 1605 kHz
b. 526.5 to 1605 kHz
c. 535 to 1705 kHz
d. 526.5 to 1705 kHz

2. Part of broadcasting in a day that refers to that period of time between 1000 UTC to 2200
UTC. UTC stands for Universal Time Coordinates.
a. daytime period
b. nighttime period
c. experimental period
d. primetime period
3. An AM broadcast service area in which groundwave field of 1mV/m (60dBu) is not subject to
objectionable interference or objectionable fading.
a. primary service area
b. secondary service area
c. intermittent service area
d. none among these
4. n antenna mast or tower construction, the required obstruction painting and/or lighting must
be imposed on mast or tower more than from the ground level.
a. 100 ft b. 150 ft c. 200 ft d. 250 ft
5. Regarding the design of AM antenna, what should be the polarization of the radiator?
a. horizontal
b. vertical
c. circular
d. elliptical
6. As per Phillipine standard, what is the minimum frequency separation in any service area for
adjacent AM radio stations?
a. 40 kHz b. 200 kHz c. 36 kHz d. 300 kHz
7. What is the maximum power allowable for remote pick-up stations used as broadcast
auxillary services for AM and FM broadcast stations?
a. 10 W b. 15 W c. 35 W d. 200 W
8. What is the classification of an FM station having an ERP not exceeding 30kW?
a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D

9. What is the modulation used for the stereophonic subcarrier of FM composite baseband
10. What is the pilot subcarrier frequency used in FM stereophonic transmission?
a. 15 kHz b. 19 kHz c. 30 kHz d. 38 kHz
11. The output power of an FM transmitter is 5 kW. If the power loss in transmission line is
around 10 W and the antenna has a power gain of 6 dB, what is the ERP of the station in kW?
a. 5 kW b. 30 kW c. 20 kW d. 19.96 kW
GANT = 6 dB = 4
ERP = (5000 10) x 4 = 4990 x 4 = 19,960 W or 19.96 kW
12. Frequency allocation of FM broadcast in the Philippines
a. 535 1605 kHz
b. 88 108 MHz
c. 50 15000 Hz
d. 174 216 MHz
13. What is the color TV system adopted by the Philippines?
b. PAL
d. none among choices
14. Exact value of color subcarrier frequency (MHz) is
a. 3.579554
b. 3.579455
c. 3.580545
d. 3.579545

15. Determine the visual carrier frequency of TV channel 9.

a. 175,25 MHz b. 187.25 MHz c. 193.25 MHz d. 199.25 MHz

fNLB = 174 + (N 7)6, using Arithmetic Progression

f9LB = 174 + (9 7)6 = 174 + (2)6 = 174 + 12 = 186 MHz, low band frequency of channel
fVC = 186 + 1.25 = 187.25 MHz, visual carrier frequency of channel 9
16. What is the maximum allowable ERPs for channels 7 13 in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu?
a. 100 kW
b. 316 kW
c. 350 kW
d. 1 MW
17. At NTSC standard, the number of lines per frame = ________ lines/frame
a. 485 b. 525 c. 625 d. 585
18. At NTSC standard, line frequency = 15734.264 Hz. What is the equivalent line period?
a. 66.556 usec
b. 65.556 usec
c. 63.556 usec
d. 64.556 usec
fH = 15734.264 Hz
H = 1 / fH = 1 / 15734.264
H = 63.556 x 10-6 = 63.556 usec
19. Nominal RF bandwidth of NTSC TV channel
a. 4.2 MHz b. 4.5 MHz c. 6 MHz d. 5.35 MHz

20. A land mobile station used for the transmission of TV program materials and related
communications from the scenes of events occuring at remote points from TV broadcast station
studios to TV broadcast station.
a. TV Pick-up station
b. TV STL station
c. TV Inter-city Relay station
d. TV Satellite link station
21. The government agencies that regulates radio communications in the US is the ________.
a. NCC b. FCC c. KBP d. PDCC
22. What do you call the accumulation of additional sounds such as wind, street noise, other
voices that contribute to what the listener hear?
a. natural sound
b. ambience
c. sound amplitude
d. flutter sound
23. It is defined by the average rate at which energy is carried out per unit area.
a. Harmonics
b. Intensity
c. Frequency
d. Interference
24. What happens to the frequency of the wave and to its wavelength when a sound wave
produced in one medium enters another medium with a different speed?
a. the frequency of b. the frequency of c. the frequency of d. the frequency of
the wave and the wave changes the wave stays the the wave and
wavelength changes while the wavelength same while the wavelength remains
stays the same wavelength changes the same

25. The speed of sequence of musical notes is called?

a. pitch b. tempo c. timbre d. musical instrument
digital interface (MIDI)
26. If the frequency of a sound is increased, what will happen to its pitch?
a. decreases b. increases c. remains the same d. none of the above
27. An acoustical phenomenon wherein the sound continues to persist after the cause of sound
has stopped resulting in repeated reflections is called
a. echo b. reverberation c. reflection d. diffraction
28. A group of filters has 1/3 octave of spacing. If the initial frequency is 25 Hz, what is the next
frequency available for the filter?
a. 50 Hz b. 12.5 Hz c.75 Hz d. 31.5 Hz
f2 = 2x f1 where x = 1/3, fraction of an octave
f2 = 21/3 x 25 = 31.5 Hz
29. A type of microphone that uses the principle of a capacitor as a means of transduction. It
uses a polarizing voltage of between 9 and 48 V of DC supply applied to its diaphragm by an
external power supply.
a. Dynamic b. Condenser c. Ribbon d. Carbon
30. Determine the sound power in Watts produced by the banks alarm if a by-stander heard the
alarm at a sound pressure level of 100 dB-SPL. The by-stander is 100 ft away from the bank.
a. 56.85 W b. 55.68 W c. 58.56 W d. 58.65 W
PWL = SPL + 20 log D(m) + 8
PWL = 100 + 20 log (100/3.28) + 8 = 137.68 dB-PWL
137.68 = 10 log W + 120
W = log-1 [(137.68 120)/10]
W = 58.65 Watts
31. A loudspeaker produces an SPL of 85dB-SPL at 1 meter distance and input electrical power
of 1 W. How loud is the SPL at distance of 20 meters if this speaker is driven to 10 W of
electrical power?
a. 82 dB-SPL b. 69 dB-SPL c. 65 dB-SPL d. 79 dB-SPL
SPL@1m/1W = 85 dB-SPL (given)
SPL@20m/1W = 85 - 20 log (20m/1m) = 59 dB-SPL
SPL@20m/10W = 59 + 10 log (10W/1W) = 69 dB-SPL
32. A number from 0 to 1 representing the ability of a surface material to absorb sound energy is
known as
a. Sound Absorption
b. Reflection Coefficient
c. Absorption Coefficient
d. Room Constant
33. The difference in dB between the loudest level of sound and the softest passage of sound is
known as ________.
a. Headroom b.Signal to noise ratio c. gain d. dynamic range

EST: Wired and Wireless Communication

1. Identical telephone numbers in different parts of a country are distinguished by their
a. language digits b. area codes c. central office codes d. access digits
2. Telephone traffic is measured ____.
a. in erlangs c. with echo cancellers
c. by the relative congestion d. in terms of the grade of service

3. In a cellular telephone system, each cell site contains a ____.

a. touch tone processors c. repeater
b. control computer d. direct link to a branch exchange
4. When the signal from a mobile cellular unit drops below a certain level, what action
a. the cell site switches antennas c. the unit is handed off to a closer cell
b. the call is terminated d. the MTSO increases power level
5. In a cellular telephone system, group of cells is called ___.
a. sector b. cluster c. site d. cell segment

6. In Celluar Telephone Systems, these are transmissions from base stations to mobile
units (Downlink)
a. forward links b. reverse links c. TRX d. TRA
7. A CDMA mobile measures the signal strength from the base as -100 dBm. What should
the mobile transmitter power be set to as a first approximation, considering - 76 dB at mobile
power contol?
a. 150 mW b. 200 mW c. 250 mW d. 300 mW
PT = -76 dB - PR
PT = transmitted power in dBm
PR = received power in dBm
PT = -76 dB - PR
= -76 dB (-100dBm)
= 24 dBm
= 250 mW
8. A telephone signal takes 2ms to reach its destination. Calculate the via net loss required for
an acceptable amount of echo.

a. 0.2 dB b. 0.4 dB c. 0.6 dB d. 0.8 dB

VNL = 0.2t + 0.4 dB
VNL = minimum required via net loss in dB
t = time delay in ms for propagation one way along line
VNL = 0.2t + 0.4 dB
= 0.2 X 2 + 0.4
= 0.8 dB
9. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is:
a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC
b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC
10. Central offices are connected by:
a. local loops c. both a and b
b. trunk lines d. none of the above

11. In telephony, call blocking is:

a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded
12. The cable used for local loops in telephone system is mainly:
a. twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable
b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire d. fiber-optic
13. In DTMF, the four vertical frequencies are ____.
a. 1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz
b. 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz
c. 679Hz,770Hz, 852Hz, 941Hz
d. 1208Hz,1336Hz,1747Hz,1633Hz
14. In DTMF, the Horizontal frequencies are
a. 1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz
b. 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz
c. 679Hz,770Hz, 852Hz, 941Hz
d. 1208Hz,1336Hz,1747Hz,1633Hz
15. In Celluar Telephone Systems, these are transmissions from mobile units to base stations
a. forward links b. reverse links c. TRX d. TRA
16. In DTMF, the horizontal frequencies is also known as
a. low group frequencies
b. high group frequencies
c. mid group frequencies
d. top group frequencies

17. In DTMF, the Vertical frequencies is also known as

a. low group frequencies
b. high group frequencies
c. bottom group frequencies
d. top group frequencies

18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to:
a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. allow signals to be multiplexed
b. prevent "singing" d. all of the above
19. This is the highest-ranking office in the DDD network in telephony in terms of the size of the
geographical area served and the trunking options available
a. section center c. primary center
b. regional center d. all of the above
20. In Cellular Radio, AMPS stand for:
a. American Mobile Phone System c. Advanced Mobile Phone System
b. Analog Mobile Phone Service d. Advanced Mobile Phone Service
21. In Cellular Radio, BSC stands for:
a. Base Station Controller c. Basic Service Contract
b. Base Signal Controller d. Basic Service Code
22. In Cellular Radio, MSC stands for:
a. Mobile Switching Center c. Maximum Signal Carrier
b. Mobile Service Cellular d. Minimum Signal Carrier
23. In GSM, voice channels are called:
a. traffic channels c. bearer channels
b. voice channels d. talking channels
24. In Mobile Communications, GSM uses:
a. frequency hopping c. CDMA
b. direct-sequence modulation d. all of the above
25. In Mobile Communications, IMSI stands for:
a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification
b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification
c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification
d. Intermodulation System Interference
26. Defined as the optimum level of a test tone on a channel at same point in a communication
a. transmission level point
b. transmission level
c. data level point
d. error detection
27. A telephone signal takes 2ms to reach its destination. Calculate the via net loss required for
an acceptable amount of echo.
a.0.6 dB b. 1 dB c. 0.4 dB d. 0.8 dB
VNL = 0.2t + 0.4dB
VNL = 0.2 (2ms) + 0.4 dB
VNL = 0.8 dB
28. Telephone switch that connects only to other switches, and not to individual customers.
a.central office b. toll station c. tandem office d. PSTN
29. What frequencies would be generated by a telephone using DTMF signalling, when the
number 8 is pressed?
a. 697 Hz and 1477 Hz
b. 941 Hz and 1633 Hz
c. 852 Hz and 1336 Hz
d. 770 Hz and 1209 Hz
30. Any transmission system which conveys more than one signal simultaneously can
experience this type of interference due to the reception of portions of a signal from one channel
in another channel.
a. Distortion b. Noise c. Crosstalk d. Echo
31. A term used to describe a telephone instrument whose handset is on its cradle, ready to
receive a ring signal
a. On hook b. Off hook c. crosstalk d. sidetone
32. It is a potential problem whenever two metallic conductors carrying different signals are
located in close proximity to each other
a. Hybrid b. Noise c. Crosstalk d. Echo suppresors
33. The basic building block of the FDM hierarchy.
a. Message Channel b. Group
c. Multiplexer d. Small Group
34. The GSM radio system uses GMSK in a 200kHzchannel, with a channel data rate of
270.883 kbps. Calculate the frequency shift between mark and space.
a. 135.4165kHz b. 100kHz c. 270.883kHz d. 200kHz
Fm-fs = 0.5fb = 0.5*270.833kHz = 135.4165kHz
35. Pair of wires that connects the central office to the users phone.
a . trunk b. local loop c. Telephone wire d. Network nodes
36. How long does it take to dial the number 784-3745 using pulse dialing with .5s inter digit
a. 6.5s b. 7.2s c. 6.8s d. 12.5s
0.7 + 0.8 + 0.4 + 0.3 + 0.7 + 0.4 + 0.5 (6x0.5) = 6.8s
37. Responsible for providing signals to the loop sensing activity and sending phone signals at
the end of the loop.
a. SLIC b. Interface card c. SCLIC d. Network card
38. The typical amount of voltage in dc use in the battery of the central office with respect to
a. -48 b.+72 c. +48 d. -72
39. How many central office allotted for each exchange?
a.2 b. 1 c.3 d. 5
40. The central office detects a request for service from a telephone by:
a. flow of loop current b. no loop current c. a ringing signal d. dial pulses
41. It is used on long distance circuits, in an effort to overcome echoes caused by circuit
a. Echo Suppresors b. Echo Silencer c. Echo Remover d. Echo Balancer

EST: Basic Communication Electronics

1. The atomic weight of an element is approximately determined by
a. the number of neutrons
b. the number of protons
c. the number of protons and neutrons
d. the number of electrons
2. Of the following substances the most conductor is (kitang kitang copper pero air daw)
a. air b copper c. iron d. salt water
3. The volt is the standard unit of
a. currrent b. charge c. electromotive force d. resistance
4. It represents the simplest whole number ratio of the various types of atoms in a compound.
a. molecular formula b. chemical formula c. reactants d. empirical formula
5. What is the device that converts energy from one form to another?
a. transducer b. converter c. transceiver d. inverter
6. It may be defined as any undesired voltages or currents that ultimately end up appearing in
the receiver output.
a. reflection b. Electrical noise c. interference d. loss
7. The process of combining multiple audio signals into one track is called?
a. audio mixing b. stereo panning c. stereo mixing d. audio signal

8. A method of nonspontaneous lysing (splitting) of a substance by the input of electrical

energy, and is often used to decompose a compound into its elements.
a. extraction b. electrolysis c.excitation d. fixation
9. What do you call the element with electrical properties between those of an insulator and a
a. Semiconductor b. Conduclator c. Insuductor d. Medium conductor
10. Noise that is primarily caused by lightning. Often called as Static Noise.
a. external noise b. equipment noise
c. atmospheric noise d. space noise
11. A modulation technique in which the frequency of the modulated signal varies with the
amplitude of the modulating signal.
a. AM c. FM
b. b. PM d. HM

12. What is the termed refer as the rapid degradation of output signal quality with channel
induced errors?
a. threshold effect b intersymbol interference c. quantization d. saturation
13. The composite signal that modulates the FM carrier.
a. narrowband b.baseband c sideband d. singleband
14. A balanced modulator that will used in conjuction with a microwave generator, power
amplifier, and band-pass filter, up-converts the IF carrier to an RF carrier and amplifies the RF
to the desired output power.
a. IF/RF modulator b. Transmit Modulator c. Recieved Modulator d. Equalizer
15. We have an audio signal with a bandwidth of 5 HHz. What is the bandwidth modulate the
signal using FM? Ignore FCC regulation.
a. 50 MHz b.40MHz c. 30 MHz d. 20MHz
BW = 10 x 5MHz = 50MHZ
16. The sensitivity of a radio receiver is given in terms of dBm. If the receiver is receiving 200
mW, what is the corresponding dBm of this signal?
a. 46dBm b. -46 dBm c. 23 dBm d. -23 dBm
dBm for 200 mW = 10 log (200mW/1mW) = 23 dBm

17. An antenna with a noise temperature of 75 Kelvin is connected to a receiver input with a
noise temperature of 300 K. Given the reference temperature T0 = 290 K, find the noise figure
of the system.
a. 0.97 dB b. 3.6 dB c. 6.02 dB d. 7.2 dB
The total noise temperature of the antenna and receiver is NTtot = 75+ 300 = 375.
The noise temperature is given by:
NT T 0NR 1 where: NT noise temp, NR = Noise ratio
Rearranging the above to find NR gives:
NR = (375/290) +1 = 2.29
The Noise figure is the decibel equivalent of the noise ratio, such that:
NF = 10 log NR = 3.6 dB

18. The modulation index of an AM radio station is 0.75. If the carrier power is 500W, what is
the total transmitted power?
a. 391 W b. 438 W c. 641 W d. 688 W
The modulation index m is related to the total transmitted power Pt by:
Pt Pc1 where Pt = total transmitted power, Pc = carrier power
19. An FM transmitter system is using a 1MHz crystal oscillator to generate a very stable
108MHz final carrier frequency. The output of the crystal oscillator is fed to a x36 multiplier
circuit then mixed with a 34.5 MHz signal. The sum output of the mixer is filtered out, while the
difference is fed to another multiplier in order to generate the final carrier frequency. What is the
multiplier value?
a. 108 b. 3 c. 1.5 d. 72
Basic Block Diagram of the FM carrier generator:
1 MHz carrier > x 36 > Mixer > Multiplier > 108MHz carrier
First Multiplier output:
1MHz x 36 = 36 MHz
Mixer output:
36MHz + 34.5 MHz = 70.5MHz (filtered output)
36MHz 34.5 MHz = 1.5 MHz (difference fed to the next multiplier)
Multiplier stage:
Output = 108MHz
Output = 1.5MHz x n
N = 108/1.5
= 72
20. A/an _______ is a range of frequency in which the upper frequency is double the lower
a. bandwidth b. frequency doubler c. octave d. harmonics

21. Determine the worst-case output S/N for a narrowband FM receiver with deviation maximum
of 10 kHz and a maximum intelligence frequency of 3 kHz. The S/N input is 3:1.
a. 10 b. 12 c. 14 d. 16
= sin (1/3) = 19.5 or 0.34 rad

= x fi
= 0.34 x 3 kHz = 1 kHz
The S/N will be
10 kHz/ 1 kHz = 10
22. A small variable capacitance in parallel with each section of ganged capacitor is called
a. trimmer b. converter c. padder d. autodyne
23. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125V and the unmodulated carrier value is 85V.
What is the modulation index?
a. 0.47 b. 1.47 c. 0.68 d. 0.32
m = Em/ Ec
Emax = Ec + Em ; Em = Emax Ec = 125 85 = 40 V
m = 40V/ 85V = 0.47
24. The total transmitted power of an AM broadcast transmitter with a carrier power of 50kW
when modulated 80 percent is:
a. 62.5kW b. 66W c. 66kW d. 40kW
Pt = Pc ( 1 + m /2)
Pt = 50,000 ( 1 + 0.82 /2)
Pt = 66,000 W
Pt = 66kW
25. One of the advantages of DSB is the savings of great deal of power. Which of the following
is the reason why it is not widely used?
a. the signal occupies a narrow bandwidth b. the signal has a low S/N
c. the signal is weak at high frequencies d. the signal is difficult to demodulate
26. If the input in a transmitter is collector-modulated, the system is called a
a. low level modulator b. high-level modulator
c. differential- amplifier modulator d. lattice modulator

27. The input to an FM receiver has a S/N of 2.8. What is the frequency deviation caused by the
noise if the modulating frequency is 1.5KHz and the permitted deviation is 4KHz?
a. 1,460.8 Hz b. 547.8 Hz c. 2.67 Hz d. 4,107.3 Hz
= fm
= sin -1 N/S = sin -1 1/2.8 = 0.3652
= (0.3652)(1.5KHz) = 547.8 Hz
28. What circuit is used to return the frequency response of a signal to its normal, flat level?
a. pre-emphasis b. de-emphasis c. carrier-recovery d. frequency-multiplier
29. + 26 dBu is how many volts?
a. 7.75 V b. 15.5 V c. 31 V d. 62 V
V (dBu) = 20 log [ voltage in Volts / 0.775 Volts ]
26 = 20 log [ voltage in Volts / 0.775 V ]
26 / 20 = log [ voltage in Volts / 0.775 V ] = 1.3
Voltage = log-1 (1.3) x 0.775 V
Voltage = 15.5 V
30. For an electronic device operating at a temperature of 17C with a bandwidth of 10 kHz,
determine the thermal noise power in dBm .
a. 134dBm b. 130dBm c. -134dBm d. 130dBm
N = KTB T(kelvin) = 17C + 273 = 290 K
B = 1 x 104 Hz

= (1.38 x 10-23)(290)(1 x 104) = 4 x 10-17 W

N(dBm) = 10log (4 x 10-17) = -134 dBm

31. A 300 resistor is connected across the 300 antenna input of a television receiver. The
bandwidth of the receiver is 6MHz, and the resistor is at room temperature .Find the noise
voltage applied to the receiver input.
a. 5.4 V b. 3.12 V c. 4.5 V d. 6.7 V
VN =
= 4(1.38 x 10-23 J/K)(293 K)(6 x 106 Hz)(300 )
= 5.4 x 10-6 V
= 5.4 V
32. The signal power at the input to an amplifier is 100W and the noise power is 1 W. At the
output, the signal power is 1W and the noise power is 30mW. What is the amplifier noise figure,
as a ratio?
a. 3.5 b. 4.5 c. 3 d. 4
(S/N)p = 100W = 100
(S/N)o = 1W = 33.3
NF (ratio) = 100 =3
33. It is desired to operate a receiver with NF = 8dB at S/N = 15 dB over a 200-KHz bandwidth
at ambient temperature. Calculate the receivers sensitivity.
a. -84dBm b. -98dBm c. -80dBm d. -75dBm
S = Sensitivity = -74dBm + NF + 10logf + desired S/N
S = -174 + 8 + 10log(200,000) + 15
S = -98 dBm

34. Equivalent temperature of a passive system having the same noise power output of a given
a. Noise figure
b. Total temperature
c. Equivalent temperature
d. Noise temperature

35. The noise voltage produced across a 50 is input resistance at a temperature of 302C with
a bandwidth of 6 MHz is ______.
a. 5.15 V b. 3005mV c. 2124mV d. 2.24V
VN =
= 4(1.38 x 10-23)(302)(6 x 106)(50)
= 2.24V

36. Determine the worst-case output S/N for a broadcast FM program that has a maximum
intelligence frequency of 5 kHz. The input S/N is 2
a. 2.5 b. 30 c. 3 d. 25
= x fi
= 0.5 x 5 kHz = 2.5 kHz
75 kHz = 30
2.5 kHz