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UNIUYO PAST QUESTION PAPER

1. Which country was the first sub-Saharan African country to achieve

independence? A. Sudan B. Ghana C. Gambia D. Cameroon

2. When will Nigeria celebrate golden Jubilee Anniversary of Independence? A.

2010 B. 2022 C. 2015 D. 2020

3. The former name of Ghana was A. Gold Coast B. Slave Coast C. Songhai D. D.

Cape Coast

4. The Oil Rivers Protectorate was located in Todays A, South East Nigeria B.

South-South Nigeria C. Central Nigeria D. North West Nigeria

5. Before Independence, Northern Nigeria was administered by A. Royal Niger

Company B. Niger Delta Company C. Royal Delta Company D. Royal African

Company

6. At Independence, Nigeria had how many regions? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 12

7. Who was the first military head of state in Nigeria? A. General Ironsi B.

General Mohamed C. General Gowon D. General Babangida


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8. Oil was first discovered in Nigeria at A. Ihuo B. Ikot Akata C. Olibiri D. Eket

9. Nok culture is famous among the people of which state in Nigeria? A. Katsina B.

Kaduna C. Kano D. Kebbi

10. One of this was called a stateless society in pre colonial Nigeria A. Oyo B. Benin

C. Igbo D. Hausa

11. The long juju oracle was located in A. Hausa land B Benin C. Igbo land D.

Birom

12. The cradle of Yoruba civilization is A. Ibadan B. Lagos C. Ilesha D. Ile Ife

13. The legendary figure in the creation of Yoruba empire was A. obatala B.

Oduduwa C. Olumife D. Shango

14. The Zaghawa dynasty was created in A. Kano B. Kanem-Bornu C. Dauru D.

Rano

15.Who wrote the book titled Obligation of Princes? A. Al-Ali B. Al-Maghali C.

Ibn-Battuta D. Mohammed Runfa


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16.In what was year was Nigeria amalgamated? A. 1960 B. 1914 C. 1915 D. 1999

17.Who founded the town of Opobo A. Pepple B. Mannila C. Jaja D, Dappa

18. One of these was a member of Hausa Bokwoi? A. Daura B. Ilorin C. Oyo D.

Bauchi

19. The legendary founder of Hausa states is A. Biram B. Bajayida C. Barma D.

Rada

20. The first Governor General of Nigeria was A. Lugard B. Glover C. Edgerly D.

Hower

21. The 1922 constitution granted representation for these two cities in Nigeria A.

Lagos, Ibadan B. Lagos, Abeokuta C. Port Harcourt, Kano D. Kano, Calabar

22. The National council of Nigeria and the Cameroons (NCNC) was formed in A.

1922 B. 1944 C. 1945 C. 1960

23. The Richards constitution came in to effect in A. 1944 B. 1945 C. 1946 D. 1947

24. One of these was the greatest Nigeria Nationalist Leaders A. Akintola B.

Adedibu C. Macaulay D. Shagari


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25. The first University in Nigeria is A. University of Nigeria B. Ahmadu Bello

University C. University of Calabar D. University of Ibadan

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UNIVERSITY OF UYO

2012/2013 POST UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

ENGLISH 001

Two goats once meet in the middle of a wooden bridge over the river in a village. The bridge
was so narrow that only

one goat can pass across it at a time. Go back, shouted the first goat in anger. I am older
than you, answered the

other. I will soon teach you a lesson, we shall know whose bones are stronger, challenged the
first goat.

So angry did they become they started to push each other. This led to butting, and they
continued to fight until at

last, both of them fell into the river. Neither of them could swim, and so both of them drowned.

1. Where did goats meet? A. In the middle of the bridge B. under the narrow bridge C. at the
end of the
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bridge D. over the river

2. What caused the argument between the two goats? A. the goats were foolish B. each goat
wanted to be

first C. the bridge was too narrow for both of them to cross D. the river was deep and narrow

3. Why did first goat order the other goat to go back? A. because the first goat was older B. it
wanted to teach

the other a lesson C. the first goat was in a hurry D. because the first goat was more foolish

4. Why did the second goat want to cross first? A. because it was very angry B. wanted to push
the other C.

because it was stronger D. to challenge the other

5. How did they try to settle the dispute? A. by teaching each other a lesson B. by fighting C. the
first goat

walked over the other D. both of them went back

6. What happened to them finally? A. they started to butt B. they wounded each other on the
bridge C. they

continued to fight D. both of them went back

Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined statements or word

7. Had she asked me earlier, I might have been able to help him A. I employed him B. I did not
employ him C. I
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did not employ her D. I employed neither of them

8. If he were to apologize, I would probably forgive him. A. I will not forgive him even if he
apologizes B. if he

apologizes, I will decide whether to forgive him or not C. I will definitely forgive him if he
apologizes D. he

will not apologize and I will not forgive him

9. his summary of the meeting was brief and to the point. A. careful B. precise C. accurate D.
exact

10. publishers say that newsprint has become more expensive A. newspapers B. paper for
printing C. printers

salaries and wages D. publishing news

11. one of the stages of the creative process of the incubation period. This refers to the period
when A. the

idea is firmly fixed through repetition B. the person suddenly comes upon the idea C. the person
thinks over

the idea D. the idea is given up

12. in spite of the loud , John soon managed to fall asleep. A. the loud music soon helped John
to fall asleep B.

John soon fell asleep as a result of the loud music C. the loud music made John despise sleep
D. John soon
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fell asleep even though the music was loud

This past Questions was brought to you by Awajis (07064218470)

13. My school principal is getting old. His mates have been retired. But because of his zeal for
work he has been

retained. A. My school principal is strong B. my school principal is cheerful C. my school


principals activity

at work is unparalleled D. my school principal is enthusiastic about his job

Choose the expression or words that best completes each sentence below

14. The bridge connecting the two cities was __ by the enemy A. blown down B. blown up C.
blown off D.

blown out

15. By the end of this year ___ in this town for eleven years A. Im living B. Id be living C. I have
lived D. Ill

have lived

16. Walking down the street, ___ A. the boy was knocked down by car B. a car knocked the boy
down C. a car

collided with a boy D. the boy was knocked down by a car


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17. She doesnt have to attend the lecture, ___ A. doesnt she? B. is she? C. has she? D. does
she?

18. After our series of quarrels, it would be ___ to pretend that I have any more regard for him
A. hypothetical

B. essential C. inevitable D. hypocritical

19. If the company had any delay at customs office, it was ___ their own making A. at B. of C.
from D. through

Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at
the same time

correctly fill the gap in the sentence

20. The leader of the delegation was commended for the manner in which he handled the
matter while their

hosts were ___. A. applauded B. praised C. criticized D. sanctioned

21. Musa is very frugal whereas Audu is ___. A. miserly B. thrifty C. precocious D. extravagant

22. Taiwos flamboyance and kehinde ___ often keep people wondering if they are really twins
A. modesty B.

arrogance C. timidity D. pretention

23. He was promoted for his efficiency, while his colleagues were demoted for ___ A. ability B.
lateness C.

incompetence D. capability
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24. You should be ___ so as not to be caught unawares A. serious B. sober C. ready D. alert

25. The school authorities expected the contributions to be ___ rather than compulsory A. willful
B. voluntary

C. deliberate D. outright

UNIVERSITY OF UYO

2012/2013 POST UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

MATHEMATICS

1. Solve for x given that log x = - A. - B. -4 C. D. 4

2. Find dy/dx given that x = t + 1, y = t A. 2t/3 B. 3t/2 C. t + 1/t D. y/x

3. Find without using tables, the value of sin 210 A. 3/2 B. -3/2 C. D. -

4. A shop sells bananas at 6 for N100. A trader sells the same kind of bananas at 8

for 120. Which price is cheaper, and by how much per banana? A. 8 for 120;

1.67 B. 8 for V120; 15 C. 6 for 100; 16.67 D. 6 for 100; 6

5. The sum to infinity of G.P is 99. Find its first term if the common ratio is 2/3 A. 66

B. 33 C. 50 D. 9
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6. Calculate the perimeter of a sector of circle of radius 27 cm, the angle of the

sector being 140 A. 66 cm B. 93 cm C. 120 cm D. 76 cm

7. How many revolutions does a bicycle wheel of diameter 70 cm make in travelling

110 cm A. 50 B. 25 C. 5 D. 40

8. Express 495 g as a percentage of 16.5 kg A. 33% B. 3% C. 30% D. 33.3%

9. Which of the following quadrilaterals has diagonals intersecting at right angles?

A. rectangle B. rhombus C. trapezium D. parallelogram

10. In a test, the mean of four student was 61. The median was 60 and the mode was

57. What is the highest score? A. 63 B.64 C. 67 D. 65

11. Evaluate log8 - log1/9 A. -3/2 B. 5 C. 3/2 D. 1

12.Which of the following statements is not true? A. If RVQ = R, then QR B. if

RQ= RQ, the R=Q C. if QR then Q and R are disjoint sets D. if RQ = R, then

RQ

13. In a school inter-house sport competition, 80% of the students turned up at the

athletic event and 60% attended the football match. What percentage of the

students attended both events? A. 40% B. 50% C. 70% D. none of the above
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14.A box contains two red balls and four blue balls. A ball is picked at random from

the box and then replaced before a second ball is drawn. Find the probability of

drawing two red balls A. 4/16 B. C. 2/5 D. 1/5

15. If 5x+3/252x-3 = 1 find x. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

16. Subtract 16418 from 18630 A. 1121 B. 2112 C. 2113 D. 2211

17. Simplify 7 4/ + 2 A. 4 B. 4 C. 4 / D. 5 /

18.A student spent of his allowances on books, of the remainder on food and

kept the rest on contingencies. What fraction was kept? A. B. C. D.

19. If log 2 = 0.3010 and log 7 = 0.8451, evaluate log 280 A. 3.4471 B. 2.4471 C.

1.4471 D. 1.4071

20. If p = rs/T, express r in terms of p, s and t. A. pt/s B. pt/s C. pt/ s D. pt/s

21.A regular polygon has 150 as the size of each interior angle. How many sides

does it have? A. 12 B. 10 C. 9 D. 8

22. If the hypotenuse of a right angled isosceles triangle is 2 cm. What is the area of

the triangle? A. 2 cm B. 1 cm C. 2 cm D. 22 cm

23. Find the radius of a sphere whose surface area 154 cm A. 7.00 cm B. 3.50 cm C.
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3.00 cm D. 1.75 cm [ = 3.142]

24. If the 7th term of an A.P is twice the third term and sum of the first four terms is

42. Find th common difference A. 6 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1

25.What value of x makes the function x(4-x) maximum? A. 4 B 3 C. 2 D. 1

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UNIVERSITY OF UYO

2012/2013 POST UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

BIOLOGY 006

1. A group of closely related organism capable of interbreeding to produce fertile

offspring are known as members of a. A. Kingdom B. Class C. Family D. Species

2. Viruses are economically important because they. A. do not have cell structures B.

can only reproduce inside living cells C. suspends all cell organelles D. exists as

crystals outside living cells

3. The cytoplasm of the cell is considered a very important component because it A.

regulates the amount of energy in the cell B. suspends all cell organelles C. is the
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outermost part of the cell D. is solely responsible for cell division

4. Red blood cells were found to have burst open after being placed in distilled water

for an hour. This phenomena is known as A. plasmolysis B. diffusion C. haemolysis

D. Wilting

5. Two organelles directly involved in mitotic cell division are A. nucleus and

mitochondrion B. ribosome and nucleus C. centriole and golgi bodies D. nucleus and

centriole

6. The longest bone in the body is A. humerus B. femur C. scapula D. tibia

7. The reason why the floe of blood in the capillaries is very slow A. the walls of the

capillaries is too thin B. to avoid high blood pressure C. to ensure that the individual

does not get dizzy D. To ensure adequate for exchange of materials

8. Which of the following organisms has kidney as the excretory organ? A. fishes,

amphibians, birds, man B. fishes, amphibians, annelids, insects C. fishes, reptiles,

birds, tape worms D. fishes, protozoan, amphibians, man

9. The mesophyll layer of a leaf consists of A. wax and cutin B. cells with liquefied

walls C. irregularly shaped collenchymas cells D. photosynthetic parenchyma cells


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10. Pepsin is secreted as an inactive precursor called pepsinogen because A. pepsin as

enzyme is quickly destroyed by the alkaline food from the mouth B. all digestive

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enzymes pass through a precursor stage C. pepsin is a protocolytic enzyme and

might attack the stomach tissues D. pepsin is not required in large quantities

Study the diagram of the food chain shown below. Use it to answer question 11 and 12

PQRST

11. The organism designated P in the food chain above is normally sustained by energy

from A. sunlight B. carbohydrates C. green plants D. mineral salts

12. Which of the following statements best describes the organism designated R? A.

feeds on S B. is a primary consumer C. is a producer as well as consumer D. is secondary

consumer

13. Most tropical plant shed their leaves during dry weather condition in order to A.

reduce their growth rate B. conserve water C. reduce competition D. root cells

14. Terrestrial plant exchange gasses through the following except A. chloroplast B
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.stomata C. lenticels D. root cell

15. Which of the following is not a function of the liver in mammals A. storage of some

vitamin B. conversion of glycogen into glucose C. deamination of excess nitrogenous

substances D. filtration of urea from excess nitrogenous substances D. filtration of urea from

the blood

16. Iodine is needed by a patient suffering from a malfunction of the A. salivary gland B.

tyroid gland C. adrenal gland D. balance posture

17. The medulla oblongata controls all the following except A. heart beat B. breathing rate

C. blood pressure D. balance posture

18. Hypermetropia is corrected by the use of A. concave lenses B. convex lenses C.

cylindrical lenses D. contact lenses

19. During the germination of seeds water is taken by the process of A. diffusion B.

hydrolysis C. imbibitions D. translocation

20. The importance of a balanced diet is to A. maintain constant size of animal B. provide

good taste in the food C. increase the effectiveness D. provide good health for an individual
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enzymes pass through a precursor stage C. pepsin is a protocolytic enzyme and

might attack the stomach tissues D. pepsin is not required in large quantities

Study the diagram of the food chain shown below. Use it to answer question 11 and 12

PQRST

11. The organism designated P in the food chain above is normally sustained by energy

from A. sunlight B. carbohydrates C. green plants D. mineral salts

12. Which of the following statements best describes the organism designated R? A.

feeds on S B. is a primary consumer C. is a producer as well as consumer D. is secondary

consumer

13. Most tropical plant shed their leaves during dry weather condition in order to A.

reduce their growth rate B. conserve water C. reduce competition D. root cells

14. Terrestrial plant exchange gasses through the following except A. chloroplast B

.stomata C. lenticels D. root cell

15. Which of the following is not a function of the liver in mammals A. storage of some

vitamin B. conversion of glycogen into glucose C. deamination of excess nitrogenous


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substances D. filtration of urea from excess nitrogenous substances D. filtration of urea from

the blood

16. Iodine is needed by a patient suffering from a malfunction of the A. salivary gland B.

tyroid gland C. adrenal gland D. balance posture

17. The medulla oblongata controls all the following except A. heart beat B. breathing rate

C. blood pressure D. balance posture

18. Hypermetropia is corrected by the use of A. concave lenses B. convex lenses C.

cylindrical lenses D. contact lenses

19. During the germination of seeds water is taken by the process of A. diffusion B.

hydrolysis C. imbibitions D. translocation

20. The importance of a balanced diet is to A. maintain constant size of animal B. provide

good taste in the food C. increase the effectiveness D. provide good health for an individual

21. Which of the following statement is not true A. ptyalin acts on protein to give amino

acid B. lactase act on maltose to give amino acid C. pepsin acts on protein to give peptide

22. Soil factors in an ecosystem are referred to as A .topographic B. climate C. biotic D.

edaphic
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23. Carbon is added to the atmosphere by the following processes except A. respiration

B. burning C. photosynthesis D. volcanic eruption

24. Which of the following is an effect of carbon monoxide to man A. irritating the skin B.

reducing oxygen carrying capacity of blood causing germ mutation C. destroy white blood

cell

25. Which of the following statement about sex determination is correct at fertility A. the

probability of male to female offspring is 1/2 B. the Y chromosome of the father decreases the

probability of having of male child to 1/4 C. the XX chromosome of the mother decreases the

probability of having a female child to D. the vigour of either parent determines the sex of

the offspring.

Page 1

POST UTME SCREENING EXERCISE 2010/2011 SESSION

ECONOMICS 003

Instructions: From the words lettered A to U choose the correct answer based on the

specific instructions given for each question


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1. For each additional unit of a commodity we produce (a) The more we must give up for the

second commodity

(b) The greater the amount we must consume,(c) The more we face decreasing costs of

production.

2. In a free enterprise economy the three fundamental economic questions of what, how and for

who to produce are answered by (a) The technique of production (b) the price mechanism

(c) Government action.

3. Economics studies individuals and organizations in society engaged in the (a) Production of

goods and services

(c) Exchange of goods and services (c) All of the above.

4. The central economic problem in every society is (a) to maintain peace in the world (b) To

prevent riots in our cities (c) The scarcity of economic .resources.

5. The production possibility curve shows (a) how much of the resources of the society are

used to produce a particular commodity (b) the various alternative combinations of two

commodities that can be produced (c) The rate of unemployment in the economy.

6. The demand schedule shows the relationship between the quantities demanded of a
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commodity over a given period of time and (a) The price of the commodity (b) the tastes

of consumers (c) The money income of consumers.

7. In order to induce producers to supply more of commodity, a higher commodity puce Hunt

be pad because producers usually face (a) Decreasing production costs (b) Economies of

scale (c) Increasing production costs.

8. The intersection of the market demand and supply curves for a commodity determines (a)

The equilibrium price of the commodity (b) The point of neither surplus nor shortage for

the commodity (c) All of the above.

9. An upward shift in the market demand curve for a commodity result in which of the

following changes in its equilibrium price and quantity? (a) The price rises and the

quantity falls (b) The price falls and the quantity rises (c) The price and quantity both rise

10. Gross National Product is the market value of (a) All transactions in an economy during a

one- year-period

(b) All goods and services exchanged in an economy during a one-year period (C) All final
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goods and services produced in an economy during a one-year period.

11. An increase in government spending shifts aggregate demand schedule (a) Upward by the

increase in government spending (b) Downward by the increase in government spending (c)

Upward by the increase in government spending times the expenditure multiplier.

12. What is the major cause of labour unrest? (a) Workers are not well cared for by employees

(b) Workers are seasonally unemployed (c) Workers lack required skills

13. Inflation is a situation in which (a) There is a decrease in the purchasing power of the

monetary unit (b) There is a decrease in the general price level (c) Increase in the general

price level exceeds increase in the rate of Economic growth.

14. Reserve requirements are imposed on commercial banks to (a) Control demand deposit

expansion (b) Regulate commercial banks profit (C) Discourage the use of demand

deposits as a medium of exchange.

15. How does monetary policy affect economic activity? (a) An expansion of money supply

raises the rate of increases investment spending (b) Expansion of money supply lowers the

rate of interest, increases investment spending and brings about a multiple increase in the

level of income.
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age 3

16. Economic bottle-necks (a) cause the cost of specific resources to increase (b)cause the
cost

of specific resources to decrease (c) prevent the economy from reaching full employment.

17. In a perfectly competitive market, the long-run profit maximization condition is: (a) MR

=Mc (b) LMC=MR

(c) LMC=P=AR=MR=LAC.

18. Stagflation is a situation where (a) Inflation is stagnated (b) Inflation and unemployment

are rising (c) Only inflation is rising.

19. The consumption that does not depend on income is referred to as (a) Autonomous

consumption (b) Independent consumption (c) Free consumption

20. All, except one of the following, are instruments of monetary policy (a) Open market

operations (b) Bank rate

(C) Budget deficit.

21. A situation where a country is able to produce all commodities cheaper than the other in

international trade is referred to as (a) Comparative advantage (b) Absolute advantage (C)

Reconciliatory advantage.
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22. In a perfectly competitive firm, the MR curve is horizontal because (a) Product price falls

as output increases

(b) The law of diminishing marginal utility is at work (c) The firm is a price taker.

23. The central bank could increase the money supply by (a) Increasing the discount rate

(b)Buying government securities in the open market (c) Increase the reserve requirement.

24. All things being equal, an easy monetary policy during a recession will (a) Lower the

interest rate, increase investment and reduce net export (b) Lower the interest rate, increase

investment and increase aggregate Demand

(c) Increase the rate of interest, increase investment and reduce net exports.

25. An appreciation of the NAIRA (a) Reduce the price of imported resources, lower input

prices and increase aggregate supply (b) Increase net exports and aggregate demand (c)

Increase aggregate supply and aggregate demand