Maxillofacial surgery tests (Tests in Maxillofacial Surgery),

V course, State Exam

1. S.A.What should be defined among acute odontogenic inflammatory jaws
diseases:
A. only osteomyelitis;
B. periodontitis and osteomyelitis;
C. + periodontitis, periostitis and osteomyelitis;
D. periostitis and osteomyelitis;
E. periostitis.

2. M.A. As a result of which bacterial influence appear pyoinflammatory

processes in maxilla-facial region:
A. + anaerobic;
B. + aerobic;
C.+ facultative;
D. only anaerobic and facultative;
E. only anaerobic.

3. M.A. In the presence of glandular abscesses and phlegmanous adenitis

purulent effluent (exudates) consists of:
A. + neutrophils, plasma cells;
B. + lymphocyte;
C. + eosinophils;
D. + macrophages;
E. + monocytes.

4. M.A. Periodontitis is:

A. inflammatory process which invades only periodontal tissues;
B. + inflammatory process which invades periodontal tissues and extends to its
adjoining osseous structures;
C. the disease which is characterized by the extension of the inflammatory
process from the periodontal tissue to dental periosteum and jaw body;
D. + odontogenic disease which occur in acute and chronic form;
E. suppurative inflammation which affects periodontal tissue and periosteum.

5. M.A. Predominantly periodontitis origin is:

A. + medicamental;
B. + infectious;
C. + traumatic;
D. neurotrophical;
E. allergic.

6. S.A.Acute serous periodontitis pains are:

A. + tender, mild apparent, do not irradiate, increase during the biting;
B. tender, pronounced, irradiate along the trigeminal nerve branches, increase
during the biting,
C. acute, pronounced, irradiate along the trigeminal nerve branches, and do not
increase during the biting but increases nightly;
D. acute, throbbing, irradiate along the trigeminal nerve branches and do not
increase during the biting but nightly;
E. tender, do not irradiate along the trigeminal nerve branches, and increase
during the biting, sensation of high tooth.

7. S.A.Acute suppurative periodontitis pains are:

A. - tender, mild apparent, do not irradiate along the trigeminal nerve branches,
increase during the biting;
B. + acute, throbbing, irradiate, increases in the horizontal position and physical
exertion as well as during the biting, the sensation as if tooth have grown;
C. acute, throbbing, do not irradiate, do not increases in the horizontal position
and physical exertion as well as during the biting;
D. - acute, throbbing, irradiate, do not increases in the horizontal position and
physical exertion as well as during the biting;
E. tender, do not irradiate along the trigeminal nerve branches, and increase
during the biting and in the horizontal position.

8. S.A.Chronic periodontitis can be:

A. - serous;
B. suppurative;
C. fibrous:
D. + granulating, fibrous and granulomatous;
C. diffuse.

9. S.A.Granuloma sizes do not exceed:

A.+0,5 cm;
B.-1,0 cm;
C.- 1,5 cm;
D.-2,0 cm;
E.-2,5 cm

10. S.A. Tooth reimplantation is:

A. the resection of a root together with the contiguous to it crown tooth portion;
B. the resection of the entire root with the preservation of crown tooth portion;
C. + the transplantation of extracted tooth in its alveole;
D. the transplantation of tooth in the alveole of other extracted tooth;
E. the fixation of the dislocated tooth to adjacent teeth.

11. S.A.Dental hemisection is:

A. + the extraction of the root together with the contiguous to it crown tooth
portion;
B. the extraction of entire root with the preservation of a crown tooth portion;
C. the transplantation of extracted tooth in its alveole;
D. the tooth bisection (is used in the molar treatment) in the region of bifurcation
with subsequent deletion of overhanging edges and cover by crown;
E. the tooth bisection (is used in the molar treatment) in the region of bifurcation
with subsequent deletion of overhanging edges, curettage and cover by crown.

12. S.A. Tooth amputation is:

A. the extraction of the root together with the contiguous to it crown tooth
portion;
B. + the extraction of the entire root with the preservation of a crown tooth portion;
C. the transplantation of extracted tooth in its alveole;
D. the tooth bisection (is used in the molar treatment) in the region of bifurcation
with subsequent deletion of overhanging edges, curettage and cover by crown;
E. partial all root extraction with the preservation of the crown tooth portion
13. S.A.Dental retention is:
A. + retention in terms of the normal formed permanent tooth eruption;
B. incomplete eruption of the tooth through jaw bony tissue or mucosa
membrane;
C. malposition in the tooth alignment of the erupted tooth;
D. its malalignment in jaw;
E. - its malalignment outside jaw.

14. S.A.Periostitis is:

A. an infectious allergic and purulo-necrotic process which develops in the
bone;
B. + a disease which is characterized by the development of the inflammatory
process from the periodontal tissue to alveolar bone periosteum and jaw body;
C. an inflammatory process which invades periodontal tissues and extends to its
adjoining osseous structures;
D. an infectious allergic and purulo-necrotic process which invades periodontal
tissues;
E. an infectious allergic and purulo-necrotic process which invades periodontal
tissues and extends to soft tissues.

15. S.A. More often reason of periostitis appearance is:

A. Chronic apical parodontitis;
B. Odontogenic osteomyelitis;
C. +Aggravated apical parodontitis;
D. Diseases of wisdom tooth eruption on the mandibular;
E. Gangrenous pulpitis.

16. S.A.The most frequent reason of the acute odontogenic periostitis are:
A. central incisors;
B. lateral incisors;
C. canines;
D. +molars;
E. premolars.

17. M.A. How are changed region lymph nodes in the case of acute periostitis:
A. unchanged;
B. + painful;
C. + increased;
D. + solid elastic consistence;
E. + flexible.

18. M.A. By which method is opened the intraperiosteal abscess on the hard
palate:
A. linear incision parallel to alveolar ridge;
B. + resection of the soft tissue zonule of triangular shape;
C. linear incision perpendicular to the middle palatine suture;
D. + resection of the soft tissue zonule in the form of lemon cantle;
E. - linear incision parallel to middle palatine suture.

19. S.A.Osteomyelitis is:

A. an inflammatory process which invades periodontal tissues and extends to its
adjoining osseous structures;
B. a disease which is characterized by the development of the inflammatory
process from the periodontal tissue to alveolar bone periosteum and jaw body;
C. an inflammatory process in the jaw bony tissue;
D. + an infectious allergic and purulo-necrotic process which develops in the
bone under the influence of the external and internal factors;
E. oftener the affection of the maxilla.

20. M.A. Which pathomorphological changes are present in the case of

odontogenic osteomyelitis:
A. + purulent infiltration of bone marrow;
B. + vessels thrombosis;
C. + purulent thrombus fusion;
D. + hemorrhage portion;
E. + osteonecrosis portion.

21. S.A.By the nature of clinical progression osteomyelitis can be defined as:
A. + acute, subacute, chronic and aggravated;
B. limited, focal and diffuse;
C. minor, moderate and severe form;
D. lytic and sequestrating form;
E. odontogenic and traumatic aetiology.
22. S.A.Osteomyelitis of the mandible, as opposed to analogous maxilla
affection, is characterized by:
A. milder course of disease, less than frequent and various aggravations, small
sequestrum;
B. + more sever course of disease, more frequent and various aggravations, vast
sequestrum
C. analogous course of disease in both jaws;
D. without any peculiarities in both jaws;
E. mandibular nerve paresthesia on the healthy part of the jaw.

23. S.A.Which wall of the maxillary antrum is affected preliminary in the case
of odontogenic osteomyelitis:
A. lower and medial;
B. + lower and inferior;
C. inferior and upper;
D. inferior and medial;
E. lower and upper.

24. .A. During diffusive osteomyelitis of the mandibular the patient presents
problems on:
A. - Hypersalivation;
B. +Trismus;
C. +Fistula on the skin and mucosa membrane of alveolar bone;
D. +Thickening of the periostenium in the region of causative tooth;
E. +Vincent symptom is positive.

25. .A. Inflammatory processes during the odontogenic osteomyelitis

proceeds in following phases:
A. +Acute;
B. +Subacute;
C. +Chronic;
D. +Recidivating;
E. - No one from mentioned above.

26. .A. Local clinical picture during acute odontogenic osteomyelitis is

characterized by:
A. +Pronounced edema, tissue hyperemia, exertion of skin teguments;
B. +Palpation is defined infiltrate;
C. +Membrane mucosa of the mouth cavity is edematous, hyperemic;
D. +Palpation of the alveolar bones is painful from the lingual and buccal part,
the thickness of the periostenium is defined;
E. +Morbidity of the teeth during the percussion, teeth mobility, which are
covered by the hypertrophic interdental papilla. Purulent exudates are
present from the gingival canal.
27. .A. Etiological factor during the maxilla osteomyelitis is:
A. +Gangrenous pulpitis complicated by acute apicalis parodontitis;
B. +Chronic apical processes in the aggravation stage;
C. +Maxilla fractures;
D. +Expansion by the hematogenic way from other regions;
E. +Inflammatory complications of teeth extraction, impacted teeth.

28. S.A.When are defined first bony changes of odontogenic osteomyelitis by

the help of X-ray radiography:
A. at the 2-5 day after beginning of disease;
B. - at the 6-10 day after beginning of disease;
C. + at the 10-14 day after beginning of disease;
D. in 3-4 weeks;
E. no sooner than a month after beginning of disease.

29. S.A.How long lasts the chronic stage of mandible odontogenic

osteomyelitis in the branch region:
A. 1-2 weeks;
B. 3-4 weeks;
C. no more than 4-6 weeks;
D. 1 month;
E. + 4-6 weeks and sometimes several months and even years.

30. S.A.What is the first clinical feature of the desequestration in the case of
odontogenic osteomyelitis:
A. - X-ray data;
B. blood values;
C. + granulation tissue bulge from the fistulous tract;
D. teeth mobility;
E. appearance of fistula on the alveolar process.

31. M.A. Which treatment is provided in the period of sequesters formation:

A. + measures are focused on inflammatory liquidation;
B. + microcirculation improvement;
C. + lowering of the vascular penetration;
D. + sequestrectomy;
E. + immunity improvement.

32. M.A. What is characteristic for the chronic odontogenic osteomyelitis:

A. + the fall of leucocytes quantity till the upper limit of normal;
B. + the normalization of stab cells quantity;
C. + the fall of ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate);
D. the appearance of new heterophilic leukocyte;
E. the appearance of albuminuria.
33. M.A. What is characteristic for the acute odontogenic osteomyelitis of
jaws:
A. + high body temperature, the general state of the patient is severe, the mobility
of the causative tooth and adjacent tooth, facial asymmetry;
B. low-grade fever, the general state is undisturbed;
C. complaints of jaws megalgia, pains appear attack-like;
D. complaints of tooth periodic aching pains;
E. + paresthesia of the inferior dental nerve in the case of mandible injury.

34. S.A.The acute osteomyelitis stage (period) lasts:

A. one week, in the case of vast bony damage till 2-4 weeks;
B. + 2-3 weeks, in the case of vast bony damage till 4 weeks;
C. 3-4 weeks, in the case of vast bony damage till 6 weeks;
D. 3-5 days;
E. till 6 years, sometimes throughout the years.

35. S.A. What is the treatment modality of an acute odontogenic osteomyelitis:

A. + to remove a tooth, to ease tension of tissues and to drain inflammation area;
B. to prevent the development of infection and necrosis formation;
C. to lower the vascular penetration, to preserve a tooth;
D. to diminish the general body intoxication, sequestrectomy;
E. to perform the expected treatment.

36. M.A. The purulent inflammation is characterized by the presence of thick

creamy liquid of yellow or green color which consists from:
A. +necrotic tissues;
B. +destroyed neutrophils;
C. +fibrin;
D. +microorganisms, toxins;
E. +enzymes.

37. S.A. Abscess is:

A. - the diffuse process in bony tissue;
B. - an inflammatory diffuse process in soft subcutaneous tissues, intermuscular
and parenchymatouse organs;
C. + a purulent localized, limited inflammation;
D. - a tissue inflammatory process;
E. - no one definition disagree.

38. S.A. Phlegmon is:

A. - a purulent localized inflammation;
B. + a purulent diffusive inflammation;
C. - an encapsulated mass;
D. - a process with the serous infiltration;
E. - a process with fibrous infiltration.
39. M.A. Phlegmon is characterized by:
A. + diffuse tissue infiltration:
B. + induration, hyperemia, edema, tenderness;
C. +exudates content with neutrophils, bacterial, necrotic remains;
D. +is caused by the aggressive streptococcal infection;
E. + local and general defensive reaction os reduced.

40. .A. Clinical symptoms of the abscess (phlegmon) of infraorbital region

are:
A. +Edema of infraorbital region, lower lid;
B. +Edema of the upper lip and smoothing of nasolabial fold;
C. +Deviation of the wing of nose in the healthy side;
D. +Insignificant numbness of upper lip;
E. +Edema through the transitory fold in the region of mouth cavity atrium.

41. .A. Clinical picture of the abscess of zygomatic region is expressed:

A. +By the edema, skin teguments hyperemia in zygomatic region;
B. +By possibility of edema expansion in the neighboring regions (temporal,
infraorbital, parotid);
C. +In some cases in the process can be involved masticatory muscle;
D. +By raising of local temperature;
E. - No one from the mentioned above.

42. .A. During the phlegmon of the buccal region the clinical picture is
characterized:
A. +By the pronounced edema with skin teguments hyperemia, exertion of skin
teguments;
B. +By smoothing of nasolabial folds;
C. +By the pronounced tissue edema of the buccal region;
D. +By hyperemia of the mucosa membrane in buccal region, presence of teeth
indentations covered by tartar;
E. +By morbidity during the palpation, the fluctuation is defined.

43. .A. Common clinical picture during the abscess (phlegmon) of parotid
region is characterized:
A. +By rising of body temperature, rigor;
B. +By septicemic condition;
C. +By temporary loss of capacity to labour;
D. +By headache, insomnia, loss of the appetite;
E. No one from the mentioned above symptoms.

44. S.A. During the inflammatory process of the parotid region the section for
the focus opening is done:
 A. - Before the concha of auricle;
B. +Edging angle of mandibular;
C. - Before sternoclavicular mastoid muscle;
D. - Along the frontal edge of mandibular;
E. Any section of mentioned above.

45. S.A. What section is made for abscess drainage in submandibular region:
A. - Section along the transitory fold;
B. - Section behind the knot of maxilla;
C. - Submandibular section;
D. - Section in the region maxilla-lingual philtrum;
E. +Line section (6-8 m) parallel to lower body edge of the mandibular and at
1,5-2 m. below the edge.

46. .A. Which etiological factors of abscesses and phlegmons of submental

region are:
A. +Purulent processes from the lower incisors and canines;
B. +Purulent submental lymphadenitis;
C. +Furuncle of lower lip or chin;
D. +Expansion from the neighboring regions( sublingual, submandibular);
E. +Osteomyelitis in the chin region.

47. .A. Local clinical symptoms of the sublingual abscess are:

A. +Edema of the frontal part of mouth floor;
B. +Hyperemia and mucosa bulging;
C. +Sublingual fold is covered by the fibrous mottle, cockscomb symptom;
D. +Tongue is removed in the healthy side;
E. +Morbidity during the palpation, fluctuation.

48. .A. Functional violence during the sublingual abscess is manifested:

A. +By dysphagia;
B. +By violation of speech and mastication;
C. +By tongue movements are painful;
D. - By pronounced trismus;
E. - By diplopy.

49. .A. Diagnosis sublingual abscess is differentiated with:

A. +Abscess of submaxilla region;
B. +Subgingival abscess;
C. +Ranula and dermatoid cyst of mouth floor;
D. - Maxilla osteomyelitis;
E. Fracture of the mandibular.

50. S.A. During the phlegmon of tongue root appears serious functional
damages, but one from those endanger life:
 A. - Deglutition disorder;
B. - Mastication disorder;
C. - Speech disorder;
D. +Breath disorder with symptoms of asphixia (shortness of breath);
E. - Trismus.

51. .A. During the phlegmon can occur such complications as:
A. +Expansion in the neighboring regions;
B. +Sepsis;
C. +Asphixia;
D. - Anchylosis;
E. +Tongue paresis.

52. .A. Inflammatory process during the abscess (phlegmon) of the

mastication region can develop:
A. +Between the mastication muscle and skin;
B. +Between the mastication muscle and maxilla;
C. +Between the external and internal part of mastication muscle;
D. - In the region of mandibular branch;
E. In the parotid gland.

53. S.A. Which symptom is more expressed during the abscess of mastication
region:
A. - Hypersalivation;
B. - Dyspnea (breathlessness);
C. +Trismus;
D. - Tachycardia;
E. - Dysphagia.

54. .A. Local abscess symptomatology of aliform-mandibular region is

characterized:
A. +By edema and bulging in the region of mandibular angle;
B. +By hyperemia of mucosa membrane of the pterygo -mandibular fold,
smoothed and sprained;
C. +Trismus;
D. +Morbidity during the deglutition;
E. - Macroglossia.

55. .A. The local symptomatology of abscess (phlegmon) of peripharyngeal

space is:
A. +Edema in the region of sternoclavicular mastoid muscle;
B. +Trismus;
C. +Bulging to the middle line of throat lateral side;
D. +Hyperemia and edema of palatine arches and tongue;
 E. - During the palpation at an angle of mandibular is defined edema and
fluctuation.

56. .A. Etiological factor of phlegmon of the mouth cavity floor is:
A. +Teeth-periodontal inflammatory processes of lower teeth;
B. +Maturate of sialolithiasis disease submandibular gland, with the affection
of its passage;
C. Teeth-periodontal inflammatory processes of upper teeth;
D. +Trauma of the mucosa membrane of the mouth cavity floor with the acute
enthetic bodies;
E. +Furuncles in the lower face part.

57. .A. External feature of the phlegmon of the mouth cavity floor are:
A. +Puffy all face bulging;
B. +Dense diffusive infiltrate in the submandibular and mental region from
both parts;
C. +Limitation of mouth opening, at the same time the mouth is semi-open;
D. +Deglutition is painful, the saliva spring from the semi-open mouth;
E. + Crepitation during the palpation of mouth cavity floor during anaerobic
infection.

58. .A. Intraoral features of phlegmon of the mouth floor:

A. +Sublingual rollers are infiltrated, bulge, sometimes above teeth crowns;
B. +Fold of the mouth floor are edematous and are covered by fibrous scab, are
seen marks of teeth crown;
C. +Tongue is increased in size;
D. +Tongue is covered by bloom;
E. +Tongue movement causes sharp pain.
59. .A. Pharmaceutical treatment of phlegmon of mouth cavity floor
consists of indications of:
A. +Pluripotential antibiotics;
B. +Desintoxication solutions;
C. +Antihistaminic medication;
D. +Analgetic means;
E. +Medications, which stimulate immunity processes.

60. .A. Clinical features of the anaerobic diffuse phlegmon of mouth cavity
floor are:
A. +Skin integument of grayish color;
B. +Morbidity during palpation;
C. +Gas crepitation;
D. - Fluctuation and bulging in the region of upper maxilla;
E. +General toxico-septical state.
61. .A. Common symptomatology of the diffusive hemisacial phlegmon (half
of face) is characterized:
A. +By disorder of general state;
B. +Patient is adynamic or anxious;
C. +By features of deep intoxication;
D. +Temperature raising (39-40), rigor;
E. +By movement of the leucocytal formulas on the left.

62. .A. Specify what from the mentioned below symptoms occur during the
hemifacial phlegmon (of half of face):
A. +Skin integuments are hyperemic;
B. +Skin integuments of grayish color;
C. +Hard infiltrate during the palpation;
D. - Gas crepitations;
E. +Fluctuation during the palpation.

63. .A. Pronounced trismus more often is met during:

A. Submentla phlegmon;
B. +Phlegmon of subtemporal region;
C. +Hemifacial phlegmon;
D. +Phlegmon of temporal region;
E. - Phlegmon of buccal region.

64. .A. Etiological factors of the abscess and phlegmon of the neck are:
A. +Dentoperiodontal teeth affection of mandibular;
B. +Extension from the neighboring spaces (mouth cavity floor, aliform-
maxilla space, peripharyngeal space,);
C. +Furunculus, carbuncle on the neck skin;
D. + Maturate cyst of mandibular;
E. + Maturate cyst of neck.

65. .A. Common symptomatology of neck phlegmons are:

A. +Temperature (38,9- 400), rigor;
B. +Slide of the leucocytal formula on the left;
C. +Damage of general organism state;
D. +Loss of working capacity;
E. +Paleness of skin integuments.

66. S.A. The most dangerous symptom of neck phlegmon for patient life is:
A. - Temperature (38,9- 400), rigor;
. - Disorder of organism`s general state;
. - Loss of working capacity;
D. - Paleness of skin integuments, sweatiness;
. +Functional disorders (deglutition, breath).
67. .A. Local abscess symptoms (phlegmons) of temporal region are:
A. +Edema of over- and subzygomatic region (Sandglass symptom);
B. +Edema of neighboring regions;
C. +Trismus;
D. +Edema in the mouth cavity in the region of the maxilla knot;
E. +Functional violations (mastication, deglutition, speech).

68. M.A. The principal source of infection contamination in buccal region are
pathological processes appeared in:
A. incisors, canines, upper jaw premolars and molars;
B. - upper jaw premolars and molars;
C. - lower jaw premolars and molars;
D. + premolars of upper and lower jaw;
E. + molars of upper and lower jaw.

69. M.A. Infratemporal fossa borders are:

A. + in front the maxillary tuber and lower part of zygomatic bone temporal
surface;
B. + from below - buccopharyngeal fascia;
C. + behind - styloid process of temporal bone with coming from its muscles and
the anterior surface mandible condylar process;
D.+inside - outside pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone;
E.+ interior outer table of sphenoid bone pterygoid process.

70. M.A. Clinical features of the odontogenic submaxillary phlegmon:

A. a high body temperature after frigorism (supercooling);
B. hard limiting of mouth opening;
C. + the presence of destroyed molar on a mandible;
D. + dermahemia, soft tissue edema of submaxillary region;
E. + painfulness and the soft-tissue swelling of submaxillary region.

71. M.A. What is characteristic for the soft tissue phlegmon of mouth cavity:
A. + pain in deglutition, high temperature;
B. + acute disease beginning, inflammatory contracture of lower jaw;
C. + bulge and tenderness of submaxillary regions;
D. subfebrile temperature, slow disease beginning;
E. edema in lower parts of temporal region.

72. M.A. Surgical approach in the case of submaxillary phlegmon:

A. medial (in submental region);
B. + extraoral;
C. collared;
D. + in the submaxillary region, parallel to the body of lower jaw;
E. in the submaxillary region, perpendicular to the body of jaw.
73. S.A.What contribute to the exceptional water depletion in the case of soft
tissue phlegmon of mouth floor:
A. - diuresis rise;
B. renal failure;
C. electrolytic imbalance;
D. + fluid intake impossibility because of severe edema and pains in the tongue
region and mouth floor;
E. hepatism.

74. M.A. What is characteristic for the tongue root phlegmon:

A. + violent pains, acute beginning, the mouth is semi-opened;
B. + high temperature, tongue enlargement;
C. + limitation of tongue motion, deglutition and breathing difficulties;
D. limitation of mouth opening;
E. domed bulge of throat later wall.

75. M.A. Surgical approach of prosection in the case of root tongue phlegmon
are:
A. intraoral;
B. + medisection;
C. collared section;
D. submaxillary section;
E. + extraoral.

76. M.A. What are typical reasons of orbital cellutitis:

A. phlegmon of mouth floor soft tissues;
B. phlegmon of temporal region;
C. phlegmon of parapharyngeal space;
D. + trombophlebitis of angular vein;
E. + acute purulent sinusitis or aggravation of chronic sinusitis.

77. M.A. What is characteristic for orbital cellutitis:

A. + diplopy;
B. + ophthalmoptosis;
C. + eyelid swelling;
D. + tenderness to palpation on eyeglobe;
E. the presence of purulent discharge from nose.

78. M.A. In the case of orbital cellutitis prosection surgical approaches are:
A. submaxillary section;
B. - at inner edge of eye socket;
C. + along the lower and upper edge of eye socket;
D. + maxillary antrum access;
E. at external edge of eye socket.
79. M.A. What is characteristic for the cheek phlegmon:
A. + diffuse edema of cheek soft tissues;
B. + flattering of nasolabial ruga;
C. + painfulness mouth opening;
D. free mouth opening;
E. nasal breathing difficulties.

80. M.A. What are symptoms of pterygomaxillary fossa phlegmon:

A. + tenderness limitation of mouth opening;
B. + edema and tenderness of mucosa membrane after the knot of upper jaw;
C. + bursting headache;
D. dryness of the mouth;
E. pains in the region of lower jaw body.

81. S.A.The main symptom of mediastinitis can be:

A.- tussis;
B. -deglutitive problem;
C. + dyspnea (labored breathing) with breathing frequency 45-50;
D.- nausea, vomit;
E. -body temperature, chills and fever.

82. S.A.Symphtoms of Gerke, Ivanov, Ravich - Shcherbo are characteristic

for:
A. mouth floor phlegmon;
B. pneumonia;
C. + mediastinitis;
D. meningitis;
E. sepsis.

83. S.A.Compression syndrome is:

A. a pain during bearing against the breast;
B. a pain during the percussion on breast bone;
C. + an increased pain in the region of mediastinal during the percussion on heel
of outstretched legs in the patient horizontal position;
D. increase of precordialgia in the case of pasive weasand displacement;
E. dyspnea and dysphagia in the case of pasive weasand displacement.

84. S.A.Throbbing pain in the breast region which irradiate in the inter-
scapular region, increase of pain during the effort to ingest food or during
deep breathing occurs in case of:
A. mouth cavity phlegmon;
B. sepsis;
C. frontal mediastinitis;
D. + back mediastinitis;
E. pneumonia.
85. M.A. Surgical treatment of mediastinitis consists of incision in:
A. + cervical region along the anterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle;
B. +episternal;
C. +vertical incision through breast (A. Ivanov);
D. +Transdiaphragmatic mediastenitotomy (Savin-Rozinov);
E. +parasternal (acc. To Madelung).

86. S.A.The main symptom of mediastinitis can be:

A. - tearing;
B. -faintness;
C. +defence patient attitude;
D. -edema in temporal region;
E. -edema in infraorbital region.

87. S.A. One of the important features during the mediastenitis is the rising of
mediastinal, which can be defined:
A. -Visually;
B. -By palpation;
C. -Auscultatory;
D. +X-ray;
E. -Spirometric.

88. .A. Treatment of septicemia can be urgent, intensive and complex:

A. +Sanitation of septic focus (surgical intervention);
B. +Atibioticotherapy in optimal doses with 2, 3 and more antibiotics;
C. +Treatment with antibiotics will be extended till 14-16 days;
D. +Immunotherapy (gammaglobulin, sera, anatoxin);
E. +Treatment by corticosteroids, reactivation of hydroelectrolytic and
acidic-alcaline balance, treatment of circulatory collapse, oxygen therapy
and etc.

89. S.A.Which microorganism is the activator of acute face and cervix

lymphadenitis typically:
A. + Staphylococcus aureus;
B. streptococcus;
C. - E.coli;
D. Proteus;
E. actinomycetes.

90. .A. The main clinical symptoms during phlegmonous adenitis are:
A. +Deterioration of general state.
B. +Temperature till 38-39,5 C0.
C. +Pains.
D. +Intoxications features.
 E. +Blood change.

91. S.A. The main in the treatment of acute purulent lymphadenitis is:
A. -Conservative treatment.
B. -Antibiotic therapy.
C. +Surgical intervention (opening of suppurative focus)
D. -Compresses, bandage with uncture.
E. -Physiotherapy.
92. S.A. What clinical forms of adenitis are subjected to conservative
treatment:
A. -acute purulent adenitis;
B. -specific adenitis;
C. +acute serous adenitis;
D.-traumatic adenitis;
E. -All forms of adenitis.

93. S.A. Phlegmonous adenitis is:

A. a serous inflammation of the lymph gland;
B. a purulent inflammation of the lymph gland;
C. a serous tissue infiltration which surrounds the inflammatory changed lymph
gland;
D. + a purulent tissue inflammation which surround the inflammatory changed
lymph gland;
E. a purulent tissue inflammation which surround the serous inflammatory
lymph gland.

94. S.A.False parotitis of Gertenberg is:

A. - lymphogenic parotitis;
B. - acute parotitis;
C. contact parotitis;
D. parotid gland actinomycosis;
E. + acute serous lymphadenitis of intraglandular lymph glands of parotid region.

95. M.A. What symptoms are characteristic for the false parotitis of
Gertenberg:
A. + solid algesic or less algesic limited infiltrate in parotic region;
B. + salivary discharge is not disturbed;
C. - hyperemia, the presence of induration;
D. usually the skin color is unchanged, from the parotid duct effuses purulent
discharge with the presence of solid ganglion;
E. + from the parotid duct effuses transparent saliva.

96. M.A. What are differential peculiarities of syphilitic lymphadenitis:

A. + significant firmness of lymph gland, Vasserman positive reaction;
B. + during palpation are obvious Treponema Pallidum;
C. lymph nodes are soldered against each other and with surrounding tissues,
RW negative;
D. lymph nodes are accompanied by suppuration always;
E. during the palpation there are no Treponema Pallidum and Vasserman
negative reaction.

97. S.A.Furunculus is:

A. + an acute purulent-necrotic inflammation of hair follicle and surrounding
tissues;
B. an acute purulent-necrotic inflammation of some neighboring hair follicles;
C. an inflammation of oil gland;
D. an inflammation of lacrimal gland;
E. an inflammation of respiratory glands.

98. M.A. Furunculus of what localization complicates by face angular vine

thrombophlebitis the most frequently:
A. + upper lip;
B. periorbital region;
C. lower lip, chin;
D. cheek, parotid masticatory region;
E. + mouth angle, infraorbital region.

99. .A. Furunculus on the face are very dangerous, especially if they are
localized:
A. +On the upper lip;
B. +In the nose region;
C. +On the lower lip;
D. -In the region of eyebrow;
E. -In the region of front.

100. .A. Furunculus of the upper lip, nasolabial angle, and suborbital region
is localized in the region rich of blood and lymph vessels, often promote
formidable complications:
A. +Thrombophlebitis of face veins;
B. +Meningitis;
C. +Thrombosis of brain sinus;
D. +Sepsis;
E. +Brain abscess.
101. S.A. Palbebrae could infiltrate sclerotic in the case of:
A. + facial veins thrombophlebitis;
B. - erysipelatous inflammation;
C. furunculus;
D. carbuncle;
E. - splenic fever (Siberian plague).
102. S.A. Tenderness infiltrate in the form of band is presented in the case
of:
A. furunculus;
B. carbuncle;
C. + angular vine thrombophlebitis;
D. - erysipelatous inflammation;
E. noma (corrosive ulcer).
103. S.A. Local clinical symptoms of facial veins thrombophlebitis are:
A.- expressed edema along the trajectory of facial and angle vessels;
B.- palpatory is defined hard tenderness infiltrate;
C.- hyperemia in the vessels region;
D.- along vessels are defined microabscesses;
E. +all mentioned above.

104. M.A. In the case of facial veins thrombophlebitis take place such changes
in blood as:
A. +leucocytosis;
B. +ESR rise;
C. +rises the quality of fibrinogen;
D. +rises factor XIII in blood;
E. +blood hypercoagulability.

105. M.A. Intensive treatment of the facial veins thrombophlebitis consists

from:
A. + prescription of broad-spectrum antibiotics;
B. +immunotherapy (gamy-globulins, antistaphylococcus serum);
C. +desintoxication (hemodez, Ringer sol., glucoze solution of 5%);
D. +Heparin 2.500-5000 un. In every 4-6 hours;
E. +antisensitizer means (diphenhydramine hydrochloride, calcium gluconate,
Tavegil, Suprastin)

106. .A. The treatment of actinomycosis is complex, lasting (30 40 days)

and includes:
A. +Usage of medications consisting iodine (Lughole solution).
B. +Antibiotics and sulfonamides in big doses.
C. +Immunotherapy by the actinolysate.
D. +Surgical opening of the abscess.
E. -X-ray therapy in doses 1000 2000 Rg.

107. S.A. Which epithelial tissue is covered the maxillary antrum in adults:
A. plain non-keratinizing squamous;
B. plain keratinized;
C. + multilayer ciliary;
D. cylindrical;
E. cubic.
108. M.A. What is the clinical symptomatology of aggravated chronic
odontogenic sinusitis:
A. + purulent discharge from the correspondent nose part;
B. + sensation of heaviness in a part of head;
C. + the rise of body temperature;
D. + sleep disturbance;
E. + asthenia.

109. M.A. The treatment of the acute purulent odontogenic sinusitis:

A. only a conservative treatment;
B. + the extraction of a causative tooth, an expected treatment;
C. maxillary sinusotomy;
D. - the extraction of a causative tooth and the prescription of vasoconstrictor and
physiotherapeutic means;
E. + puncture (if there is no any communication after tooth extraction) and
irrigation of a maxillary antrum.

110. .A. Perforation of maxillary antrum appears more often during tooth
extraction:
A. -Third upper molar;
B. +First upper molar;
C. +Second upper molar;
D. -Second upper premolar;
E. Upper canine.

111. S.A. Perforation of the maxillary antrum can be in the moment of

extraction of:
A. -All teeth of upper maxilla;
B. -Upper incisors and canines;
C. +Upper molars and premolars;
D. -Lower molars and premolars;
E. -Not depends from the extracted tooth placement (position).

112. .A. Etiological factors of odontogenic sinusitis, more often are:

A. +Apicals periodontitis of upper frontal teeth.
. +Low body resistance.
. + Deep parodentium excavations in the region of upper premolars and
molars.
D. +Acute apicals periodontitis and chronic periodontitis in the stage of
aggravation of upper molars.
. -Suppuration of root cysts at upper premolars and molars.

113..A. Local clinical symptoms of the acute sinusitis are:

A. +Pains with muscle spasm;
 B. +Irradiating pains in the infraorbital region from the affection side;
C. +Disorder of smell increasing during the movement or change of the
head;
D. +Hyperemia and edema of the mucosa membrane of the nose from the
affection side;
E. +Purulent secretions from the nose from the affection side.
114. .A. Which from the mentioned below symptoms are present during
chronic fenestration of the upper maxilla antrum with the mouth cavity:
A. +In the antrum it is possible to get in through socket by the help of blunt
instrument;
B. -Valsalva symptom is negative;
C. -According to X-ray examination the upper maxilla antrum is in norm.
D. -Can be defined by the X-ray examination the fenestration of the antrum
with the mouth cavity.
E. +Liquid get from the mouth cavity nose.
115. .A. In the presence of fistula between the supramaxillary antrum and
mouth cavity, aggravated by the chronic sinusitis, treatment consists in:
A. -Extraction of the causative tooth under civer of the antibiotics;
B. -Puncture of supramaxillary cavity and closing of the fenestration by
surgical method.
C. +Plastic method of fenestration opening.
D. +Sinusotomy, curettage of maxillary antrum ;
E. -No one from the mentioned above metods.
116. S.A. In the presence of chronic odontogenic sinusitis the treatment is
beginning from:
A. -Radical antrum treatment.
B. +Extraction of the causative tooth.
C. -Physiotherapeutic treatment.
D. -Pharmaceuticals treatment.
. - All mentioned above.
117. .A. During the odontogenic sinusitis more often are occurred:
A. +Osteomyelitis of the maxilla.
B. +Eye socket abscess.
C. +Abscesses and phlegmons of the buccal region.
D. - Septicemia.
E. -Brain abscess.
118. .A. What features appear during purulent parotitis:
A. +Edema in the front of the ear hircus.
B. +Edema of the stoma of the parotid gland excretory duct, during the
pressure on the gland appears purulence.
C. +Skin integuments in the region of parotid gland are hyperemic
D. +Mouth opening limitation.(Trismus.)
E. -Morbidity during the movement of the mandibular.

119. .A. Differential diagnosis of purulent parotitis is made with:

 A. +Epidemic parotitis.
B. +Osteomyelitis of the mandibular branch.
C. +Abscess of parotid region.
D. +Sialoliteasis disease of parotid gland.
E. +Tumor of parotid gland.

120. .A. During the parenchymatous parotitis on the sialogram are defined:
A. +Parenchyma of the gland is seen obviously.
B. +Absence of ducts image of IV-V.
C. +In the end sections of of the ducts are situated cavities of different sizes.
D. +Outlines of the main duct become abrupt.
E. -No one from mentioned above variants.

121. S.A. The main in the treatment of acute serosal sialoadenitis is:
A. -Section (opening anyhow).
B. -Gland massage and physiotherapy.
. +Antibiotic therapy, densensitise, desontaxication therapy, medications
stimulating saliva flow.
D. -Imunotherapy.
. -Extraction of the affected gland.

122. .A. During the palpation and massage of salivary gland during the
purulent sialoadenitis is defined:
A. +Pain in the gland.
B. +Infiltrate without expressed contours.
C. +From the duct effuses purulence.
D. -Increased, indurated, but painless gland.
E. -From the duct effuses clean saliva.

123. .A. During the complex treatment of the acute sialoadenitis in the
excretory duct administer:
A. -Hydric dioxide 3%.
B. -Lipoidoli 1-2 .
C. +Antibiotics and ferments.
D. +Warm Furacilini solution.
. -Artificial saliva.

124. S.A. What medication and in what dosage is indicated for stimulation of
the saliva flow during the sialoadenitis:
A. 3-4 times per day 20-30 drippings of 1% solution of pilocarpin.
B. 5-6 drippings of 1% pilocarpi solution.
C. 8-10 times per day 10-15 drippings of 1% pilocarpin solution.
D. Before meat is indicated 0,5 ml of 1% pilocarpin solution.
E. +2-3 times per day 4-6 drippings of 1% pilocarpin solutions (less than 10
days).
125. S.A. Sialodochitis is a inflammatory process localized in the region of:
A. +Wharton`s canal;
B. Stenon duct;
C. major salivary gland;
D. minor salivary gland;
E. all mentioned above.

126. S.A. Sialolithiasis occurs the most frequently in:

A. minor salivary gland;
B. Stenon duct;
C. parotid salivary gland;
D. sublingual gland:
E. +Wharton`s canal, submandibular gland.
127. .A. Sjoegren`s syndrome consists from specific symptomatology:
A. + xerostomia;
B. + xerophthalmia;
C. +rheumatoid arthritis;
D. +conjuctivitis;
E. +dermatomyositis.

128. S.A. What is the main treatment method of an inborn cervical fistula:
A. -sclerotherapy;
B. -cryolysis;
C. -laser coagulation;
D.- bandage;
E. +exsection.

129. .A. In the case of nose-bleeding the hemostasis is performed by the

help of:
A. +anterior nasal packing;
B. +posterior nasal packing;
C. +inflated rubber plug;
D. -suture of affected vessels;
E. -all mentioned above actions.

130. .A. The classification of soft tissues wounds in Maxillo-Facial Region is

performed in accordance with:
a. +time after accident (acute, chronic, maturated);
b. + traumatic agent (aggression, traffic accident, labor);
c. + topographic region (submental and other);
d. + affected tissues;
e. +anatomico pathological form.

131. .A. Affected tissues in MFR wounds can be:

A. +superficial (skin, muscles);
B. +deep (skin, muscles, glands, mucosa);
C. +cerebral nerves (trifacial, facial, sublingual and other);
D. +ramus of external carotid artery;
E. +with or without the tissues defect.

132. .A. General signs of MFR wounds could be:

A. +pain;
B. +hemorrhage;
C. +respiration disturbance;
D. +deglutitive and mastication problem;
E. +phonetics disturbance.

133. .A. Main forms of dent-parodontal traumatism are:

A. + dent-parodontal contusions (blunt injuries);
B. + crown fracture;
C. +root fracture;
D. + incomplete dislocation;
E. +complete dislocation;

134. .A. MFR is divided in tree main floors:

A. +upper;
B. +middle;
C. +lower;
D. -lateral;
E. -dorsal.

135. .A. Lower jaw fractures can be:

A. +single;
B. + double;
C. + triple;
D. +multiple;
E. +direct and indirect fractures.

136. .A. Which factors influence for the fragments displacement in the case
of lower jaw fracture:
A. +the strength of traumatic factor;
B. +muscle activity adjoining to them;
C. -fracture mechanism;
D. + direction of fracture line;
E.-other concomitant pathological diseases.

137. .A. Posttraumatic asphyxia can appear after:

A. +comminuted fracture of mental region;
B. airway constriction;
C. +laryngeal edema;
D. + displacement of palatine velum in the case of upper jaw fractures;
E. -no one answer is right.

138. .A. Clinical picture Le Fort II is:

A. +an expressed face bulge;
B. +a sensation disorders;
C.- un changed occlusion;
D. +palpebral hemorrhage;
E. +face flattened in A-P direction.

139. .A. The more complicated general early complications of jaws fracture
are:
A. +excessive bleeding;
B. + brain commotion;
C.- disturbance of occlusion;
D. +traumatic shock;
E.- phlegmons, acute osteomyelitis, sinusitis.

140. .A. What is the clinical picture of Le Fort I fracture:

A. +mobility of alveolar process;
B. + ecchymoma of lip and cheek;
C. +tenderness to palpation;
D. + occlusion disturbance;
E.- major bleeding.

141. S.A. What is the main reason that MFR is more subjected to traumatism:
A. -Rich of blood vessels, nerves, lymph glands and etc.;
B. -In this region are localized important organs (eyes, ears, nose, salivary
glands and etc.);
C. +Not protected (all traumatic agents more often are directed to face),
predisposed, fragile;
D. -Thin skin, connective fatty tissue practice are absent;
E. -All mentioned above.
142. .A. Classification of soft tissue wounds in MFO is made according to:
A. +Time, overpast after incident (acute, chronic, reinfected);
B. +Traumatic agent (aggression, traffic accident, working);
C. +Topographic region (mental etc.);
D. +Tissues affection;
E. +Anatomico-pathological form.

143. S.A. First help during the dislocational asphyxia in the case of tongue
failing is:
A. -Patient intubation;
B. +Traction of the tongue by the fibre leaded through frontal tongue third;
 C. -Immobilization of the mandibular strap;
D. -Performance of the tracheotomy;
E. -All mentioned above.
144. .A. Formed stomatological manipulations cab be the result of
dentoperiodontal trauma:
A. +Elevator sliding;
B. +Dislocation of neighboring teeth during the pressure on them;
C. +Trauma of antagonists by forceps during tooth extraction;
D. +Trauma by mouth expander;
E. +Fracture of the teeth during prosthesis removal.

145. S.A. Specify, in which from this situations, as a rule, is necessary tooth
extraction:
A. Partial tooth dislocation;
B. Complete tooth dislocation;
C. +Fracture of the crown and root;
D. Partial fracture of the crown;
E. Periodontal contusion.

146. S.A. Floating bone of face skeleton is:

A. Maxilla);
B. +Mandibular);
C. Zygomatic bone;
D. Nose bones;
E. Palatal bone.

147. .A. Maxilla forms next cavities:

A. +Eye socket;
B. +Nasal;
C. +Mouth;
D. Pterygo- maxillay;
E. +Supramaxillary antrum.

148. .A. Supramaxillary antrum participates in next functions:

A. +Resonance;
B. +Smell;
C. +Breath;
D. +Protective;
E. +Decrease of skull weight.

149. S.A. Supramaxillary antrum fenestrate with:

A. +Nose cavity;
B. Mouth cavity;
C. Eye sockets;
D. Throat;
 E. Temporal fossa.

150. .A. Dislocation of the tooth appears in the result of:

A. +Hurt or partial abruption of dento-alveolar band;
B. +Complete abruption of dento-alveolar band;
C. +Fracture of the alveolar bone;
D. Fracture of the upper and lower maxilla;
E. In no one from mentioned above situation.

151. S.A. More often fractures of the mandibular appear as a result of:
A. Downfall in the street;
B. Traffic accident;
C. Sportive trauma;
D. Working trauma;
E. +Human aggression.

152. .A. Mandibular can be fractured during some surgical interventions:

A. +Extraction of supernumerary teeth;
B. +Traumatic extraction of wisdom teeth;
C. +Removal of tumors;
D. +Orthognathic surgical interventions;
E. In no one of the mentioned above situation.

153. S.A. The zone with the minimal resistance during the trauma of
mandibular is:
A. Angle of mandibular;
B. On the canine level;
C. Between premolars roots;
D. Mental symphysis;
E. +Cervix of articular processes.

154. .A. Common features for all fractures of mandibular are:

A. +Pain;
B. Disorder of phonetics;
C. +Pathological mobility;
D. Disorder of occlusion;
E. Disorder of the sensitivity in the region of mandibular nerve.

155. .A. Which is the role of the temporary immobilization:

A. To get fragments into normal anatomic position;
B. +To reduce the pain;
C. To prevent introduction of infection;
D. +To reduce the asphyxia risk;
E. +To reduce hemorrhage.
156. S.A. Hypoesthesia in the zone of lower alveolar nerve occurs in the cases
of:
A. Medial fracture of mandibular;
B. Paramedian fracture of the mandibular;
C. +Fracture of the mandibular in the body region with the displacement;
D. Fracture of the articular processes of mandibula;
E. In all cases.

157. .A. Posttraumatic asphyxia can appear as a result of:

A. +Comminuted fracture of mental region;
B. Spasmodic contracture of breathing passages;
C. +Throat edema during the hematoma appearance;
D. +Displacement of palatine velum during the fractures of the maxilla;
E. No one answer is correct.

158. .A. During the fracture of the mandibular along the middle line:
A. +Are absent the secondary fragments displacement as the muscle draft at
equilibrium;
B. +It is observed harmonious occlusion during the mobilization;
C. +It is observed cyanosis or hyperemia along the transitory fold at the patient;
D. It is observed hypesthesia in the region of innervations of mandibular nerve;
E. Often occurs otorrhagia;
159. .A. Clinical features of the dorsal dislocation of mandibular are:
A. +Otorrhagia (hemorrhage from the auricle concha)
B. +Frontal inclusion;
C. Displacement of the chin down and forward;
D. +Semi-opened mouth;
E. Presence in the parotid region the asymmetry as a result of exit of the
articular head from joint.

160. .A. Among the reasons which lead to morphofunctional changes of

mental joint with the appearance of secondary (recidivous) dislocations, can
be distinguished):
A. +Postencephalitic myoclonic changes;
B. Polyrheumatism;
C. +Atrophy of mastication muscles as a result of poliomyelitis;
D. Fractures of the articular head in anamnesis;
E. + Occlusal- articular discord.

161. S.A. Notice the very right definition of associated trauma:

A. Damage of soft tissues and bones of face region;
B. Wounds of soft tissues accompanied by the simple maxilla fractures;
C. Wounds of soft tissue with the variety of fractures and tissue absence;
D. +Damage of maxilla-facial region, neighboring regions and also distant
from this zone, appeared as a result of the same traumatism;
 E. Trauma caused by some agents (mechanic, thermic, chemic and etc.).

162. .A. Emergency care during the combine trauma includes:

A. +Application of aseptic bandage and temporally immobilization of bone
fragments;
B. +Emergency care during the collapse;
C. +Hemostasia;
D. +Sustenance of vital systems;
E. No one from mentioned below variatnts.

163. .A. Time and volume of surgical interventions during maxilla-facial

trauma at the patients depends from:
A. +General state of the patient;
B. +Severity level of face trauma;
C. +Severity trauma of combined trauma;
D. +Stability of general state and local flow during the combined trauma;
E. No one from mentioned above.

164. S.A. Specify, during what trauma of face skull skeleton is possible
traumas of skull floor:
A. Fracture of the mandibular;
B. Tear wound with fracture of the jugal bridge;
C. +Fractures of the face middle third;
D. Nose trauma;
E. Bilateral fracture of the antrum of articular process.

165. S.A. More often occurrent late aggravation during MFR traumas is:
A. Excessive bleeding;
B. Concussion of the brain;
C. Asphyxia;
D. Traumatic shock;
E. +Infectious complications.

166. S.A. For how long the osteosynthesis palate is leaved on the level of
mandibular angle:
A. It will be there permanently and after fragments adhesion;
B. It is removed after bone osteotylus formation;
C. It is removed in the case of suppuration in the fracture place;
D. +It changes from time to time, depending on patient tolerance;
E. It is necessary to remove the palate for osteosynthesis.

167. .A. What are principal rules of ligature application for fixation of the
frames on the tooth alignment:
A. +The frame is fixed by the wire on each tooth or through one tooth;
B. +The ligature is placed at the dental neck;
 C. +The ligature must not traumatize the tooth;
D. +Ends of the ligature in length 5-7 mm and kink to the center and occlusive
line;
E. The ligature kink to opposite side and to the gingiva edge.

168. .A. The diagnostics of the maxilla fracture is based on:

A. +X-ray examination;
B. +Common clinical features of all fractures (pains, sores, crepitations,
hematomas, fractures dislocation and etc.)
C. +Specific clinical features;
D. +Rhinoscopy ;
E. No one from mentioned above answers.

169. .A. Tardive aggravations of the maxilla fractures:

A. +Face asymmetry;
B. +Changing of the mastication and pronunciation function;
C. +Incorrect adhesion;
D. +Purulent secretions from the sinus or cheek;
E. +Fenestration of the sinus with the mouth cavity.

170. .A. Clinical picture of the fracture according to Le Fort I are:

A. +Mobility of the fracture in the horizontal directions;
B. +Lips hematomas along the transitory fold;
C. +The pain during the pressure of the mandibular;
D. +Change of occlusion;
E. Massive bleeding.

171. .A. The main criteria of the apposition of the maxilla fragments are:
A. +Disappearance of the diplopy and violation from the side of eye nerve;
B. +Disappearance of the step structure along the fracture line;
C. +Reconstruction of the normal face configuration;
D. +Receipt of the normal occlusive interrelation;
E. +Correct apposition and retention of the fragments till their adhesion.
172. S.A. Among the fractures of the middle floor (of the maxilla) more often
occur:
A. Fractures of alveolar bone;
B. +Horizontal lower fracture (Le For I);
C. Horizontal meddle fracture (Le For II);
D. High horizontal fracture (Le For III);
E. Vertical cranial-facial fracture.

173. S.A. Determinate treatment of the maxilla fractures more often are
realized by the help of:
A. Surgical methods;
B. +Orthopedic methods;
 C. Combined methods;
D. Parietomental bandage;
E. Mental strap.

174. S.A. Fractures Le Fort II have complicated line of fracture running:

A. Above alveolar bones, through nasal passages, canine fossa, roughness of
the maxilla, vomer mad nasal septum.
B. On the frontal suture, lacrimal bone, orbital cavity, pterygoid bone, vomer,
and ethmoid;
C. On the medial line, divide dental alignment, from the nose, palatal bone
and supramaxillary bone;
D. +Through frontal-nasal suture, lacrimal bone, suborbital canal;
E. No one from them.

175. .A. During the fractures of the zygomatic bone the line gets through:
A. +Maxillary-zygomatic suture;
B. Internal wall of the orbital cavity;
C. +Temporal-zygomatic suture;
D. +Frontal-zygomatic suture;
E. Frontal wall of the sinus.

176. .A. What from the following symptom can occur during the fractures
of zygomatic bone with the displacement:
A. +Diplopy;
B. +Infraorbital hypoesthesis;
C. Disorder of the occlusion of the frontal teeth group;
D. +Hemorrhage from the maxillary antrum through nasal cavity;
E. Face symmetry is not disturbed.

177. .A. How is applied the ligature on the tongue during the dislocational
asphyxia:
A. Vertical;
B. +Horizontal;
C. +In the frontal third of the face;
D. On the tongue tip;
E. On the tongue middle.

178. S.A. Traumatic osteomyelitis more often develops after fracture:

A. +During the fractures of the mandibular in the within dental arch;
B. During the fractures of the maxilla;
C. During the fractures of nose pyramid;
D. Zygomatic bone and zygomatic arch;
E. During the fractures of the mandibular and branch of maxilla mandibular.
179. .A. Initial care during fractures of the maxilla presupposed temporally
fixation of the facial massif is performed with aim to:
A. +Normalize breath;
B. + Care the patient;
C. Normalize the occlusion;
D. Final hemostasis;
E. +Pain control.

180. .A. Clinical picture of the fracture Le Fort I includes:

A. +Transversally mobility of the fragment;
B. +Ecchymoma in the region of lip and cheek;
C. +Pains during the pressure;
D. + Occlusion disorder;
E. Massive bleeding.

181. .A. On what ground appears changes of conductivity of infraorbital

nerve (anesthesia, hyposthesia, paresthesia):
A. +Fractures of the lower wall of arcula with the displacement;
B. +Displacement of the zygomatic arch;
C. +Indentation of the zygomatic bone;
D. +Nerve damage during the stroke;
E. No one from mentioned above.

182. .A. For what it is necessary X-ray examination during the fractures of
zygomatic bones and arch:
A. +For fracture definition;
B. +For diagnosis specification;
C. +For specification of fracture localization;
D. +For definition of fragment displacement;
E. All mentioned above.
183. S.A. Frontal fractures of the zygomatic complex touch the following
anatomical elements:
A. Maxilla;
B. Lower-external arcula wall;
C. Sinus wall;
D. +Zygomatic bone;
E. Frontal bone.
184. S.A. The symptom of the zygomatic fracture is characterized by:
A. Hemorrhage from nose;
B. Hypoesthesis in the infraorbital region;
C. Subdermal emphysema;
D. Diplopy;
E. +Blockade of the maxilla movement.

185. .A. Diagnosis of the zygomatic complex is made according to:

 A. +Clinical symptoms;
B. +X-ray examination;
C. +Functional changes;
D. +Presence of other bone damages;
E. +All mentioned above.

186. .A. Symptoms of the fractures with the displacements of the zygomatic
bone can be:
A. +Incorrect fragments adhesion;
B. +Diplopy;
C. +Facial asymmetries;
D. +Blockade of the mandibular movements;
E. +Changes of infraorbital nerve conductivity.

187. .A. More often occur following traumas of nasal pyramid:

A. +Cartilage trauma;
B. Fracture Le Fort II;
C. Fracture Le Fort III;
D. +Fracture of the bony skeleton of nasal pyramid (opened);
E. +Fracture of the bony skeleton of nasal pyramid (closed).

188. .A. Clinical symptoms during the fracture of the nasal pyramid
include:
A. +Pathological mobility of the bony fragments;
B. +Emission of the blood clots from the nasal passages during the rhinoscopy;
C. +Ecchymoma;
D. + Displacement and deepening of nasal septum;
E. +Deglutition disorder.

189. .. Hemostasis in the case of nasal hemorrhage is performed by the

help of:
A. +Frontal tamponage with the gauze plug;
B. +Dorsal tamponage;
C. +Rubber balls which are inflated in the nasal cavity;
D. Sutures applying on the affected vessels;
E. All mentioned above.

190. .A. Some nose fractures do not need in surgical treatment, and namely:
A. +Fractures without fragments displacement;
B. Fractures with displacement;
C. +Cartilage fractures;
D. Hollowed fracture;
E. All fractures of the nasal pyramid.

191. .A. Main anatomical elements of mandibular are:

 A. +Articular process;
B. +Articular fossa of cuneated bone;
C. +Articular head;
D. Temporal bone and maxilla;
E. +Articular disk.

192. .A. What symptoms are present during acute nonspecific arthritis:
A. Displacement of the chin;
B. +Spontaneous irradiating pains;
C. +Edema in the front of tragus of the auricle;
D. +Maxilla movement limitation.
E. All mentioned above.
193. .A. Differential diagnosis of nonspecific acute arthritis is made with:
A. +Furuncle in the front of the tragus of the auricle;
B. +Mastoiditis;
C. +Inflamatin of the lymph node in the front of the tragus of the auricle;
D. Maxilla contraction;
E. Submandibular adenitis.

194. .A. What anatomical elements are affected in the subacute phase of the
arthritis if the mandibular joint:
A. +Articular capsule;
B. +Articular ligaments;
C. +Articular menniscus;
D. Articular crest;
E. Articular cavity.

195. .A. Symptomatic trine of the chronic arthritis includes:

A. +Pain;
B. +Rustle;
C. +Mechanic changes in the joint;
D. Limitation of maxilla movement;
E. Features of acute inflammation.

196. .A. Differential diagnosis of the unilateral frontal dislocations is

performed with:
A. +Fracture of the articular crest;
B. +Facial paralysis;
C. Symphysis fracture;
D. Acute purulent periodontitis;
E. +Spastic contracture of the mastication muscles.
197. .A. For aseptic cleaning of the mouth cavity during traumas of MFR
are used:
A. +Hydrogen dioxide of 3%;
B. +Faint of potassium permanganate solution;
C. +Chloramines;
D. +Chlorhexidine;
E. +Solutions of sodium bicarbonate.

198. M.A. The biopsy is carrying out for receipt of materials for histological
examination and definition of:
A. +Malignant tumors;
B. +Benign tumors;
C. +Suspicious pathological processes;
D. Inflammatory processes;
E. Any pathology in the maxillofacial region.

199. .A. Odontoma is:

A. an osseous structure tumor;
B. + a dental structure tumor;
C. + a benign tumor;
D. a malignant tumor;
E. +formed from dental tissues.

200. .A. Osteoma is:

A. +benign tumor;
B. malignant tumor;
C. + formed from the bony differentiated tissue;
D. formed from the bony undifferentiated tissue.
E. rapid growth

201. S.A. Pleomorphic adenoma (composite tumor) is:

A. rare tumor;
B. more often in minor salivary glands;
C. manifested in diffusive form;
D. + manifested in node-form;
E. more often in sublingual gland.

202. .A. Cylindroma is:

A. a benign tumor of salivary glands;
B. +a malignant tumor of salivary glands;
C. a benign tumor of salivary glands with the big malignization potential;
D. + an encapsulated;
E. an unencapsulated.
203. .A. What are signs of pleomorphic ademona malignization:
A. +cleavaged with skin;
B. increase of regional lymph nodes;
C. appearance of trismus;
D.+ spontaneous pain in the tumors;
E. +dysfunction of facial nerve (paresis).

204. .A. X-ray pattern of ameloblastoma is characterized by:

A. +bone rarefaction;
B. presence of dense tissue;
C. +sharp counters;
D. +predominantly cell structure (fenestration) in the form of soap suds blubs;
E. bone distraction with blurred contours.

205. .A. What are more informative additional examination methods of

jaws osteoclastoma patients:
A. +X-ray study;
B. computerized tomography;
C. ultrasound investigation;
D. cytological examination;
E. +pathohistological examination.

206. .A. In the treatment of face soft tissue angioma are used:
A. +sclerotherapy;
B. + exsection;
C. +electric coagulation;
D. + cryolysis;
E. +radiological therapy.

207. S.A. Primary diagnostics of malignant neoplasms in maxilla-facial region

can be carried out by:
A. Dental-therapist;
B. Surgeon dentist;
C. ORT specialist;
D. Dermatologist;
E. +all mentioned above specialists.

208. S.A. What malignant epithelial neoplasms of face skin occur more
frequent:
A. a keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma;
B. a squamous cell nonkeratinous carcinoma;
C. +a basal cell cancer;
D. an adenocarcimona;
E. a basalioma.
209. S.A. In the treatment of recoverable patients with the labial tumor
regional metastasis is used:
A. radiological method:
B. surgical method;
C. criosurgery;
D. +combined method;
E. complex method.

210. S.A.The primary element of the early tongue cancer predominantly is:
A. vesication;
B. hyperkeratosis;
C. + ulcer;
D. fissure;
E. ranula.

211. S.A. What foregoes to upper jaw cancer more often:

A. chronic gingivitis;
B. xerostomia;
C. +chronic sinusitis;
D. maturated radicular cyst;
E. chronic rhinitis.

212. S.A. Which malignant tumors of lower jaw occur oftener:

A. osteosarcoma;
B. ameloblastoma;
C. +cancer;
D. chondrosarcoma;
E. lipoma.

213. S.A. The main treatment method of mandible cancer is:

A. Surgical;
B. Radial;
C. +Combined;
D. Chemotherapeutic;
E. Electrosurgical.

214. S.A. Sarcoma of maxilla-facial region soft tissue develops from:

A. oil gland;
B. respiratory gland;
C. + deep derma layers;
D. minor salivary gland;
E. fatty tissue.

215. S.A. Face bony sarcoma develops from:

A. gum epithelium;
B. Malassez's epithelial rest;
C. dentin;
D. +bony tissue;
E. cementum.

216. S.A. In the case of benign tumors of submaxillary salivary gland:

A. it is ablated the tumor;
B. it is ablated the tumor with a part of gland;
C. it is ablated the tumor and secured the excretory duct;
D. + it is ablated the tumor together with entire gland;
E. it is made the upper radical neck dissection of cervical cellular tissue.

217. S.A. Ameloblastoma more often occurs at:

A. Men;
B. +Women;
C. Equal often at men and women.
D. Children;
E. Old men.

218. S.A. During the treatment of the ameloblastoma is used:

A. Focus curettage;
B. X-ray therapy;
C. +Maxilla resection;
D. Coagulation by the laser.
E. Conservative treatment.

219. S.A. For specification of the neck fistulas ducts is used:

A. Cytological method;
B. Radiosotope method;
C. Suprasonic method;
D. +Contrast fistulography ;
E. Contrast angiography.

220. S.A. Lateral neck cyst differentiates with:

A. Acute lymphadenitis;
B. Chronic lymphadenitis;
C. Specific lymphadenitis;
D. Lipoma;
E. +All mentioned above diseases.

221. S.A. Maxilla resection is justified during:

A. Fibroma, fibtomatosis;
B. Lipoma, lipomatosis;
C. Leiomyoma, rhabdomyoma;
D. + Ameloblastoma;
 E. Fibrous epulis.
222. S.A. For gemmangioma hardening is used:
A. Resorcin;
B. Formalin;
C. +Spirit;
D. Trypsin.
E. No one from mentioned above.
223. S.A. System TNM evaluates:
A. Degree of tumor differentiation;
B. Degree of tumor malignance;
C. +Expansion of the tumor;
D. Disease prognosis;
E. Tumor sizes.

224. S.A. Term precancer is used for characteristic of the pretumor

changes:
A. Connective tissue;
B. Nerve tissue;
C. + Epithelial tissue;
D. Muscular tissue;
E. All mentioned above tissues.

225. S.A. The plan of treatment of the patient with the malignant tumor in the
MFR is complied by:
A. Oncologists;
B. Radiologists;
C. Chemotherapeutist;
D. +Three mentioned above specialists.
E. Four specialists.
226. .A. To the main treatment methods of the patient with malignant
tumors belong:
A. +Surgical;
B. + X-ray;
C. + Pharmaceutical;
D. Palliative;
E. Symptomatic.

227. S.A. Sum doze during the X-ray treatment of the patients with the
malignant face tumors and mouth cavity organs constitute:
A. 20 gr;
B. +40 gr;
C. 60 gr;
D. 100 gr ;
E. 200 gr.
228. .A. Before the X-ray treatment of the patients with the malignant face
tumors and mouth cavity organs is necessary to:
A. +Sanitize mouth cavity;
B. +Remove metallic prosthesis;
C. +Remove metallic filings;
D. Transfuse blood with the same group;
E. Make plastic frame on teeth.

229. .A. X-ray treatment is stopped when at oncologic patients appears:

A. Leucocytosis;
B. + Leukocytopenia (3.103 ths.);
C. Rrythrocytosis;
D. + Humid epedermitis;
E. Epethelitis.
230. S.A. To the obligate precancer of face skin belongs:
A. +Bowen disease, pigmented xeroderma;
B. Red plane agria;
C. Lupus;
D. Lupus erythematosus;
E. Keratoacanthoma.

231. S.A. To the facultative precancer of face skin belongs:

A. Dermatitis;
B. +Papilloma;
C. Psoriasis;
D. Radioepedermitis;
E. Bowen disease.
232. .A. Planocellular face skin cancer is differentiated with:
A. Papilloma;
B. +Bowen disease;
C. +Basalioma;
D. Atheroma;
E. Dermatoid cyst.

233. .A. In the melanoma development is of importance:

A. Age;
B. Sex;
C. +Trauma;
D. Nutrition;
E. +Insolation.

234. S.A. Melanomas of the face skin metastasize:

A. By lymphogenic way;
B. +By hematogenic way;
C. By no one from mentioned above;
 D. Do not metastasize;
E. Are radio- and physioresistant.

235. S.A. Ulcers and anabrosis ob the mouth mucosa cavity more often
develops in the result of:
A. Heat burn;
B. Vascular cardiac decompensation;
C. Chronic trauma;
D. +Blood diseases;
E. Gastrointestinal tract.

236. S.A. The treatment of the precancer diseases of mouth cavity mucosa is
predominantly:
A. Conservative;
B. X-ray;
C. Chemo-X-ray therapy;
D. +Surgical;
E. Palliative.

237. S.A. The cancer of the mouth mucosa cavity id differentiated with:
A. Plane leukokeratosis;
B. +Bowen disease;
C. Stomatitis;
D. Ranula;
E. Hard chancre.
238. S.A. The treatment of the mouth mucosa cavity cancer is predominantly:
A. X-ray therapeutic;
B. Surgical;
C. +Combined;
D. Chemotherapeutic (pharmaceutical);
E. Palliative.

239. .A. To the advanced stage of the tongue cancer belongs:

A. -1;
B. -2;
C. +3;
D. +4;
E. -5.
240. S.A. In what lymph nodes metastasizes tongue cancer:
A. Parotid;
B. Postotic;
C. +Neck;
D. Buccal;
E. Submandibularis
241. S.A. More often from the malignant tumors of the maxilla occurs:
 A. +Cancer;
B. Osteosarcoma;
C. Chondrosarcoma;
D. Fibrosarcoma;
E. All mentioned above.
242. S.A. More often from the epithelial tumors of the big salivary gland
occurs:
A. Cyst;
B. Monomorphic adenoma;
C. +Pleomorphic adenoma;
D. Adenocarcinoma;
E. Adenocystic carcinoma.
243. .A. During the erasion of the tumors of the parotid-salivary gland the
surgical approach is used according to:
A. Bruns;
B. Muhin;
C. + Redon;
D. Jovchyv;
E. + Kovtunovych.
244. S.A. Retention cysts of the small salivary glands predominantly appear as
a result of:
A. Inflammatory process;
B. + Excretory duct trauma;
C. Allergic reaction;
D. All mentioned above factors.
E. No one from mentioned above factors.
245. S.A. Adenocystic carcinoma of salivary glands metastasizes
predominantly by:
A. +Lymphogenic way;
B. Hematogenic way;
C. Combined way;
D. Complex;
E. Do not gives metastasis.
246. S.A. Patients with the obligate precancer of face skin are on the
dispensary observation at :
A. dermatologist;
B. surgeon dentists;
C. + oncologists;
D. chemotherapist ;
E. radiologist.
247. S.A. Final diagnosis of the lip precancer is diagnosed after examination:
A. cytologic;
B. hematologic;
C. +pathogistological;
D. bacteriologic;
 E. biochemical.
248. .A. Main reasons of the plastic surgery are:
. Pain prevention;
. +Prevention of the edges wound tension;
. +Hemostasis;
D. Rapid regeneration;
. Reduction of edema.

249. .A. Main stages of Filatov halm preparation:

. +Halm preparation;
.+ Advancement of the halm;
. +Training of the halm;
D. +Fixation of the halm directly on the defect;
. +Sealing it.

250. M.A. Free skin flap can be:

. +Dense;
. +Partial;
. Square;
D. Rounded;
. Round.

Bibliografie:
Bibliografia recomandat:
A. Obligatorie:
Burlibaa C. Chirurgie Oral i maxilofacial Bucuresti 1999.
Guan A.E. (red.). Stomatologie chirurgical (elaborri metodice).
Ganua N. Chirurgia OMF, 1998
Ganua N., Canavea I. Anestezia n stomatologie i Chirur. MF, Bucureti, 1993,
Pricop M., Urtil E. Infeciile Buco-Maxilo-Faciale, Timioara
Voroneanu N. M. Chirurgia oral i maxilo-facial, vol.I, 1994,
Rotaru A. Ch.maxilo-facial Cluj-Napoca 2003
Hu D. Fracturile maxilarului superior. Curierul Medical. N 4. 2006 pag. 62-69
Hu D. Fracturile complexului zigomatic. Curierul Medical. N 2. 2006 pag. 69-
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Hu D. Elaborarea metodic Diagnosticul i tratamentul fracturilor oaselor
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Hu D. Traumatismul etajului mijlociu al feei 2008 pag. 112
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Timoca G., Burlibaa C. Chirurgie oro-maxilo-facial. Bucureti, 1988.
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Penteleiciuc D. Grefele i transplantele dento-alveolo-osoase. Bucureti,1987.

Popovici T. Implante dentare n stomatologie. Chiinu, 1994
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