1 Ondansetron HCL is used for :

a- Hypertension
b- Angina pectoris
c- Prophylaxis of migraine
d- Anti-emetic

It is used as anti-emetic with patients receiving cytotoxics due

to its serotonin antagonism.
Ondansetron is [ Zofran 2 , 4 mg. Tab & Amp. ]

2 All These are side effects of Chloramphenicol except :

a- Irreversible a plastic anemia
b- optic neuritis
c- peripheral neuritis
d- iron deficiency anemia

3 Ticlopidine is used for :

a- Anticoagulant
b- Antibiotic
c- anticholinergic
d- Antiplatelets
4 All these drugs are fibrinolytic except :
a- Dipyridamole
b- Steptokinase
c- urikinase

5 All These drugs cause anti-metabolic effect except :

a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
C- Cytabrin
d- Azothioprine
e- Cyclophosphamide

6 All These drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except :

a- Selgitine HCL
b- Carbidopa
c- Pergolide
d- Nedocromil Sod.

7 all These cases not cure with thiazides except :

a- Hypernatrimia
b- hyperglycemia
c- Hypokalaemia
d- hyperuricaemia
8 Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except :
a- Ephedrine
b- Ledocaine
c- Propranolol
d- Normal saline

9 Insulin which can be given I.V. is :

a- Regular type
b- 30/70 type
c- NPH type
d- Non of the above

10 Drug is used for Leishmania :

a- Sod. Stiboglyconate
b- Sod. Cromoglyconate
c- Mebendazole

11 All These drugs are anti-bacterial except :

a- Zalcitabine
b-Lomefloxacin
c- Cefprazone
12 All These are natural Estrogens except :
a- Mestronol
b- Oestrone
c- Oestriol
d- Oestradiol

13 Co-Trimethoxazole contains ;
Trimethopirm + Sulphmethoxazole

14 Which one of the following has vasodilator effect :

a- Nicotine
b- Cholestyramin
c- urikinase
d- Vit. A

15 One of the following is not from Quinolone group :

a- Nalidixic acid
b- Quinine
c- Eoxacin
d- Norfloxacin

16 One of the following is not for Epilepsy :

a- Clorizepam
b- Phenytoin
c- Primidone
d- Imipramine
17 All of these can be used for Leprosy except :
a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazinine
d- INH

18 Sumatriptan is used for :

a- Hypertension
b- Treatment of migraine
c- Angina Pectoris
d- Control of Epilepsy

19 Which one of the following is enzyme inducer :

a- Rifampcin
b- Cimetidine
c- Chloramphenicol
d- Vit. C

20 All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except :

a- Ketotifen
b- Nedocromil Sod.
c- Sod. Cromoglycate
d- Salbutamol
21 All of the following is NSAH [ non sedating antihistamine ] except :
a- Loratidine
b- Cetrizine
c- Astemizol
d- Azotodin

22 All of the following are controlled drugs except :

a- Rivotril
b- Epanutin
c- Sresolid
d- Diazepam

23 All These drugs are anti-viral except :

a- Amantadine
b- Zidovudine
c- Acyclovir
d- Aluerin [ anti-spasmodic ]

24 Which one of the symptoms does not occur with morphine :

a- Diarrhea
b- Respiratory depression
c- Constipation
d- Vomiting
25 Which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain :
a- Naproxen
b- Colchicine
c- Codeine
d- Prednisolone

26 Which one of these drugs is drug of choice for Myxodema

[ Hypothyrodism ]
a- Carbimazole
b- iodine
c- thyroxin sod.
d- propyl thiouracil

27 Benzyl peroxide is a local treatment for Acne Vulgaris

28 Vit. A daily dose is 30,000 - 50,000 IU for the correction of

deficiency and for therapy from 100,000 - 200,000 IU / daily

29 The drug of choice for the treatment of amoebae :

a- Chloramphenicol
b- Tetracycline
c- Gentamycin
d- Metronidazole
30 To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use :
a- Water
b- Salt Sol.
c- Saline
d- Charcoal

31 Hepatitis Vaccine dose is :

a- Once / year
b- Twice / Year
c- Three times / Year

32 Which one is OTC drug :

a- Simple analgesic
b- Warfarin
c- Ciprofloxacin

33 Anti-coagulant effect of Warfarin is decreased by :

a- Rifampcin
b- Aspirin
c- Vit. K
d- Verapamil

34 One of the following is given once daily

a- Amorphous Insulin
b- Protamine Zinc Insulin
c- Neutral insulin
d- Regular Insulin
35 The steady state conc. Of the drug in the plasma depends on :
a- Direct proportion to the rate of administration
b- Indirect proportion to the rate of administration
c- Indirect proportion to the rate of elimination
d- Direct proportion to the rate of elimination

36 All these are Anti-Coagulants except :

a- Warfarin
b- Ancord
c- Heparin
d- Dipyridamol

37 All these are Anti-Platelets except :

a- Dipyridamol
b- Aspirin
c- Streptokinase
d- Presantin
e- Ticlopidine

38 Ferrograde is :
a- Ferrous Sulphate
b- Ferrous Citrate
c- Ferrous gluconate
d- Ferrous Fumarate

39 Procainamide is :
a- Ca channel blocker
b- Nifedipine
c- Lisinopril
d- Qunidine
40 What is the mechanism of action of Vit. K ?
Vit. K has an essential role in the synthesis of coagulation
factors by hepatic cells.

41 Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except :

a- Hypokalamia
b- Hypercalcemia
c- Hyperuricamia
d- Hyponatrimia
e- Hyperglycemia
f- Hypernatremia

42 Treatment with anti-arrhythmic drug depends on except :

a- Type of medication
b- Period of medication
c- Patient sex

43 Elimination of Digoxin is mainly by :

a- Kidney
b- Liver
c- Both
d- None of the above

44 Dobutamine is given I.V. because :

a- It is not stable in the gastric PH
b- It is needed in large quantities in case of oral route
c- It is eliminated very quickly

45 Amilorid as trimetren causes :

a- CNS disturbances
b- Hyperkalamia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Not affect K [ Potassium ]
46 What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given OTC ?
a- Captopril
b- Warfarin
c- Chlorothiazide
d- Rifampcin

47 Drug physical dependence is as same as drug abuse

a- True
b- false

48 Mention two Thiazide diuretics ?

1- Chlorothiazide 2- Hydrochlorothiazide

49 What is the difference between QID & Q6H ?

QID = 4 times / day
Q6H = every after 6 hours

50 What is the difference between the following anti-fungal ?

Miconazole = local & systemic
Amphotercin = parenteral only
Griseofulvin = oral

51 Give the indication of the following drugs :

1- Gimfibrazole for hyperlipidaemia

2- Cisapride for gastro-oesophegyal reflux
3- Fluoxetin SSRI [ selective serotonin reuptake inh.]
( Antidepressant )
4- Carbimazole for hyperthyrodism
5- Imipramine Tricyclic anti-depressant
6- Ipratropium Br. Anti muscarinic as broncho-dilator
52 All are anti-metabolic except :
a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
c- Cytabrin
d- Azothiopin
e- Cyclophosphamide

53 Cefaclor is :
a- Ist, Generation Cephalosporin
b- 2nd, generation Cephalosporin
c- 3rd, generation Cephalosporin
d- None of the above

54 Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally ?

a- Gentamycin
b- Neomycin
c- Amikacin
d- Tobramycin

55 Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on Gram positive as :

a- Vancomycin
b- Jamicacin
c- Gentamycin
d- Kanamycin

56 Which one is not Tetracycline ?

a- Minocycline
b- Demeclocycline
c- Doxycycline
d- Clindamycin
57 Which one is not Ca channel blocker ?
a- Verapamil
b- Deltiazem
c- Amlodipine
d- Cinnarzine

58 Mesalazine is used for the treatment & maintenance of remission

of Ulcerative Colitis

59 Mention 4 lipid soluble vitamins ?

Vit. A, D ,E & K

60 Imipenam [ Carbapenam ]
It is the first Thiemamycin Beta - Lactam anti-biotic

61 All These medications are used in treating T.B. except :

a- Cyclosporin
b- INH
c- Cycloserin
d- Rifampcin

62 All These drugs are anti-cholinergic except :

a- Iprotropium
b- Atropine Sulphate
c- Benzatropine Methylate
d- Dobutamin

63 All Of These are antibiotics except :

a- Zalcitabin
b- Cefaprozil
c- loefloxacin
d- Cefopodoxin
64 There is one drug is used for HIV :
a- Zalcitabin
b- Kinasterdin
c- Cefaprozil
d- Enoxacin

65 Which one is Suprax ?

a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole

66 Which one is Sporanox ?

a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole

67 All of These can be used in treating leprosy except :

a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazimine
d- INH

68 One of these is not like the others :

a-Timolol Non - selective
b- Acebutalol Selective Beta Blocker
c- Labetolol Non - selective
d- Betaxolol Non - selective

69 Which is not Aminoglycoside ?

a- Netilimicin
b- Tobramycin
c- Kanamycin
d- Lymecyclin
70 Betahistine HCL
a- For Mieniere disease
b- Antihistamine
c- Analgesic
d- a & b

71 Which one is not 5HT3 antagonist ?

a- Tropisetron
b- Ondansetron
c- Domperidone [ Motilium ]
d- Granisetron

72 Which is not oral anti-coagulant ?

a- Warfarin
b- Enoxaprine
c- Phenidione
d- Nicoumolone

73 Which is correct ? Diazepam

a- Can cause muscle spasm
b- Is taken I.M. only
c- Is derivative from Morphine
d- Is not used for long term

74 Maximum dose of Paracetamol is 4 Gm / day

75 The duration of treatment of T.B. by CTC is :

[ CTC is Tuberculosis Committee Thoracic Society ]
a- One week
b- Two months
c- One month
d- 6 months

76 Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist

acts centrally by blocking Vomiting Center [ V.C. ] and
peripherally acts on the Chemo-Receptor Trigger Zone [ CTZ ]
to be used as anti-emetic.
77 Which one is contra-indicated in pregnancy :
a- Sucralfate
b- Ethambutol
c- Chlorphenramine
d- Ciprofloxacin

78 What is the definition of Bioavailability of the drug ?

Is the quantity of the active constituent of the drug
absorbed by the blood through the intestine or any other
route in a certain period of time .
OR : It is the conc. of the drug in the blood in a certain
period of time

79 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Hepatotoxicity ?

1- Paracetamol 2- Ketoconazol
3- Rifampcin 4- Quinolones

80 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Nephrotoxicity ?

Aminoglycosides as Gentamycin

81 Give the anti-dote for each of the following :

Heparin Protamine Sulphate
Paracetamol Acetyl cystine
Warfarin Vit. K
Morphine Naloxone
82 What is the generic name of Vit. B 12 ?
Cyanocobolamine

83 Zidovudine is used for HIV

84 What is the meaning of poor patient compliance ?

The patient did not take the medication properly [ not proper
dose, not proper time ] may be due to the dose regimen is not
easy or the dose is high, or the side effects is clear

85 Fluxotine is :
Prozac is selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor

86 Omeprazole is
Losec is a proton pump inhibitor

87 Mention two diseases cause Edema ?

1- Renal Failure 2- Congestive Heart failure

88 Give examples of drug - drug interactions ?

1- Warfarin Aspirin
2- Insulin B-Blockers
3- Heparin Aspirin & Ampicillin
4- Warfarin Vit. K
5- Warfarin Phenobarbital
6- Spironolactone Digoxin
7- ACEI Pot. Sparing diuretics

89 Generic name of :
Vit. B1 Thiamine
Vit. B2 Riboflavin
Vit. B6 Pyridoxin
Vit. B12 Cyanocobolamine

90 All of these are the components of Calamine lotion B.P. except :

a- ZnO
b- calamine
c- Sod. Citrate
d- Bentonite
 e- Sod. Sulphate

91 Terbinafine is used topically for :

a- Eczema
b- Candida
c- Fungal infections

92 Which one is not contra-indicated in pregnancy ?

a- Captopril
b- Enalpril
c- Lisinopril
d- Methyldopa

93 PCP [ Pneumocystis Corini Pneumonia ]

a- Virus
b- Bacteria
c- Parasite
d- Mycobacterum

94 Which of the following is not antibiotic ?

a- Erythromycin
b- Cefprozil
c- Ceprodoxin
d- Finasteride
95 Which one is used for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia [ BPHP ]
a- Flumazenil
b- Cefprozil
c- Mivacurim
d- Finasteride

96 All of these are third generation Cephalosporin except :

a- Cefixime
b- Cefopodoxime
c- Ceftriaxone
d- Cefotaxime

97 Which of the following is not mucolytic ?

a- Bromohexin
b- Carbocistene
c- Ambroxol
d- guaphenesin
e- Dextromethorphan

98 Which one is anti-platelet ?

a- Ticlopidine
b- Desfluron
c- Aldesleukin
d- Atovaquon

99 All of these anti-neoplastic except :

a- Aldesleukin
b- Teniposide
c- Pentostatin
d- Amlodipine
100 Which is not Benzodiazepine ?
a- Temazepam
b- Nitrozepam
c- Loprazolam
d- Clozapine

101 Potassium supplement must not be given with Triametren

1- False 2- True

102 Misoprostol inhibit gastric acid by blocking the hydrogen potassium

adenosine triphosphate enzyme system of gastric cell
[ Misoprostol is Cytotic ]

1- False 2- True

103 MMR vaccine is Measles - Mumps - Rubella vaccine

104 Oral re-hydrate solution is one of the following :

a- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Glucose
b- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Sod. Chloride
c- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Citrate - Sod. Citrate - glucose
d- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Chloride - NaHCO3 - Citric acid

105 Gemfibrazile
a- Increase HDL & Triglycerides
b- Increase HDL & decrease Triglycerides
c- Decrease HDL & LDL
d- Increase LDL & Triglycerides.

106 Nitroprusside Sod. Is :

a- Potent vasodilator
b- potent diuretic
c- potent vasoconstrictor
d- Anti-arrhythmic agent.
107 4 drugs need monitor for their serum level
1- Amikacin 3- Warfarin
2- Theophyllin 4- Digoxin

108 For Fluxacillin, all these statments are wrong except :

a- It is activated by Penicillinase enzyme
b- It is taken by oral route only
c- It is base stable
d- It is better absorbed than Cloxacilin

109 What are the instruction for patient taken Metamucil

Or any other bulk foaming laxative as Bran, methyl Cellulose &
Psyllum : The adequate fluid intake should be maintained to
avoid intestinal obstruction

110 Cytotec
Is used for gastric & duodenal ulcer. It is contra-indicated in
pregnancy.

111 Mention two drugs from HMG - COA- reductase inhibitors

Simvastatin - Provastatin - Fluvastatin

112 HMG-COA-Reductase Inhibitor is

[ 3-hydroxy. 3- methyl Glutoryl COA Reductase inhibitor ]

113 Source of Human Insulin is E-Coli by :

Recombinant DNA Technology

114 Zinnat contains :

Cefuroxime

115 Thiabendazole is one of Thiazides diuretics

1- False 2- True
N.B. Thiabendazole is anthelmintic
116 Praziquantil is :
a- Cause loss of intracellular calcium of worms
b- Used for malaria
c- Biltracid is the trade name
d- a & c

117 Nitrofurantoin is indicated for :

a- Viral infection
b- GIT Infection
c- Urinary tract infection [ UTI ]
d- URI

118 Vit. K
a- Increase formation of clotting factor
b- Increase conversion of Vit. K to the active form
c- Prevent conversion of Vit. K back to the active form
d- Non of the above

119 Quinidine Sulphate is :

a- Anti-arrhythmic agent
b- Anti-malarial agent
c- Anti-hypertensive agent
d- a & c

120 ACE stands for :

a- Converting Ag11 to vasoconstrictor Ag1
b- Converting Ag1 to vasoconstrictor Ag11
c- Converting Ag1 to vasodilator Ag11
d- Converting Ag11 to vasodilator Ag1

121 One of these side effects not occur with Thiazide diuretics
a- Hypernatraemia
b- Hypoglycemia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Hyperuricamia
122 Ipeca is emetic agent which induce emesis through :
a- Stimulation of the stomach
b- Stimulation of the CTZ
c- a & b
d- Inhibition of the stomach through CNS

123 Theophyllin is
a- Bronchdilator
b- B2 agonist
c- Cause Bradycardia
d- All of the above

124 Schedule of immunization for HBV is :

a- Single dose
b- Two doses
c- Three doses
d- Five doses

125 Itraconazol
is antifungal

126 Treatment of anaphylactic reaction is initiated by immediate :

a- Hydrocortisone
b- Cimetidine
c- Human albumin
d- Epinephrine

127 Introduction of emesis is not indicated in the following except :

a- Caustic substance ingestion
b- CNS
c- Seizures
d- paracetamol poisoning
128 all of these are anions except :
a- Phosphate
b-Acetate
c- Sodium
d- Chloride

129 Astemizole
is long acting non sedating anti-histamine

130 Triazole is
a- Antifungal
b- Trade name of clotrimazole
c- Trade name of amphotercin B
d- Nystatin

131 With Minoxidil, all these parameters should be monitored except :

a- Urine flow rate
b- B.P.
c- Pulse rate
d- Body weight

132 Aspirin is recommended with one of the following :

a- Anti-coagulant
b- Chicken box
c- Influenza symptoms
d- Dys-menorrhoea

133 Which is not true with Tetracycline

a- Broad spectrum bacteriostatic
b- Broad spectrum bactericidal
c- Inhibit protein synthesis
d- Used for acne

134 Give 2 indications for allopurinol

1- prophylaxis of Gout
2- Treatment of uric acid & Ca Oxalate renal stones

135 Give an ex. Of non sedating anti-histamines

Loratidine - Cetrizine- Terfenadine
136 Famotidine is H2 antagonist used for :
Treatment of gastric & duodenal ulcers

137 What are the effects of Captopril

1- Decrease conversion of Ag1 to Ag11
2- Effective hypotensive when others are contra-indicated
[ B blockers & diuretics ]

138 Type 2 Diabetics is characterized by :

a- Lack of response to Insulin
b- Lack of response to sulphonylurea
c- Respond to dietary therapy alone
d- Slowly increasing sulphonylurea requirement

139 Give 2 side effects of Aminoglycosides ?

Ototoxicity - Nephrotoxicity

140 Mention 2 quinolones

Ciprofloxacin Norfloxacin

141 Give 3 drugs as Pot. Sparing diuretics

Trimetren - Spironolactone - Amilorid

142 Acetazolamide is a diuretic used for Glaucoma by inhibition of

carbonic anhydrase enz. This reduce the carbonate in the aqueous
humor leads to reduction of I.O.P.

143 Which one reduces the metabolism of other drugs in the liver :
a- Rifampcin
B- Vit. C
c- Cimetidine
d- Metronidazole

144 All of these can be dispensed without prescription except :

a- Aspirin b- Maalox c- Bisacodyl
d- Tegretol

145 Simvastatin is used for hypolipidemic action

146 Acetohexamide is hypoglycemic

147 List the trade name of the following :

Pindolol Visken
Baclofen Lioresal
Omeprazol Losec

148 What is the meaning of each of the following :

POM Prescription Only Medicine
BID Twice Daily
ECG Electro Cardio Gram
G.6.PD Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
BPC British Pharmacopial Codex

149 Which of these is Pro-drug

a- Ampicillin
b- Erythromycin
c- Pivampicillin
d-All of the above

150 500 ml Normal saline 0.9 % contains 4.5 gm. NACL

151 Mention 3 ACEI

Captopril - Enalpril - Cilazapril

152 Levodopa with Cardiodopa for the treatment of Parkinsonism

153 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitor are used as :
a- Antihistaminic
b- Antidepressant
c- Antihypertensive
d- Antiemetic

154 Which of these has no vasodilator effect :

a- Methyl dopa
b- Hydralazine
c- Enalpril
d- Prazocin

155 Enalpril is the prodrug of :

Enalprilate

156 Mention 3 drugs contraindicated in pregnancy :

1 NSAI
2 Co-trimoxol
3 Antiepileptic

157 List 3 drugs used to treat T.B. :

1 INH [ Isoniazide ]
2 Rifampcin
3 Ethambutol

158 Calcipotriol is indicated for :

a- Psoriasis
b- Hypertension
c- Calcium supplement
d- Acne
159 List 8 side effects of Corticosteroids :
1 Water & sod. Retention
2 Cushing syndrome
3 Gastric ulcer
4 Hypertension
5 Pot. Loss
6 DM [ diabetes mellitus ]
7 Glaucoma
8 Osteoporosis

160 Maximum dose of Captopril is 150 mg / day

161 Amantadine is used for all of the following except :

a- Antiviral
b- For influenza A
c- Anti-parkinsonism
d- For influenza B

162 All are viral infections except :

a- Hepatitis B
b- Influenza
c- Herpes Zoster
d- Rikettsia

163 At the cardiac arrest [ shock ] . The drug of choice is :

a- Epinephrine
b- Propranolol
c- Hydrocortisone
d- Saline sol.

164 Give ae example of cardio selective B blocker ?

a- Atenolol
b- Bisoprolol
c- Esmolol
d- Betaxolol
e- Metoprolol
f- Acebutolol
165 Drugs to pass B.B.B. should be :
a- Unionized hydrophilic
b- Ionized hydrophilic
c- Unionized lipophilic
d- Ionized lipophilic

166 All of these are anti-parkinsonism except :

a- Amantadine e- Lysuride
b- Apomorphine f- Pergolide
c- Bromocriptine g- Levodopa
d- Primidone h- Selegiline

167 All of these are anti-metabolite [ cytotoxic ] except :

a- Methotrexate d- Azothioprin
b- Cylarabin e- Mercaptopurine
c- Cyclophosphamide f- Flurouracil

168 All of these are antichlonergic except :

a- Atropine sulphate d- Iprotropium bromide
b- Hydroatropine e- Butrepium bromide
c- Mebeverine

169 All of these are corticosteroids except :

a- Ondansetron d- Beclomethasone
b- Prednisolone e- Dexamethazone
c- Triamcinolone f- Methyl prednisolone

170 When newly married do not want child. How to arrange

a- Arrange contraception.
b- Send wife to the family doctor
c- Send the wife to her mother

171 Side effects of Insulin ?

1 Local reaction [ urticaria ]
2 Hypoglycemia
3 Fat dystrophy at site of injection
172 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin :
a- Hypoglycemia
b- Fluid retention
c- Hyperglycemia
d- All of the above

173 The only aminoglycoside can be taken orally is :

Neomycin sulphate

174 Chloramphenicol affect liver inhibitory enzyme. So

a- Decrease metabolism & increase response
b- Decrease metabolism & decrease response
c- Increase metabolism & increase response
d- Increase metabolism & decrease response

175 OTC simple analgesic is paracetamol

176 Enteric coated tab

a- Pass the stomach & release in the intestine
b- Pass the stomach & intestine
c- Release in the stomach

177 All of these are true for Levodopa except :

a- precursor of dopa
b- Does not pass B.B.B.
c- Effective in parkinsonism
d- Stimulate dopamine

178 Morphine & Morpin are similar in addiction

179 Cytocin is one of the posterior pituitary hormones

180 The conc. Of the drug on Exp. Date is :

a- Not less than 100%
b- Not less than 90%
c- From 90-110%
d- Non of the above
181 If you have prescription contains Inderal and the patient is
wheezing. What is your advice ?
Call the doctor

182 Bioavailability means :

a- Rate
b- Extent
c- Rate & extent
d- Non of the above

183 Pharmacokinetics means :

a- Effect of the body on the drug
b- Drug - receptor reaction
c- Non of the above

184 Surfactant not used orally

a- Tween
b- Spon
c- Na lauryl sulphate
d- B & C

185 Type 1 Diabetes. advise to use :

a- Insulin
B- Glibneclamide
c- a & b
c- Non of the above.

186 Type 11 Diabetes. advise to use :

a- Diet control
b- Insulin
c- Sulphonyl urea
d- All of the above

187 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin :

a- Hyperglycemia
b- Hypoglycemia
c- Fluid retention
C- All of the above
188 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital in :
a- Longer
b- Faster
C- Not use very much
d- a & b

189 Morphine & morpin are similar in :

a- Miosis
b- Addiction
C- Analgesic
d- All of the above

190 Theophyllin dose in children.

a- Increased metabolism & dose must be increased .
b- Decreased metabolism & dose must be increased .
c- Decreased metabolism & dose must be decreased .

191 Biotransformation
a- More lipid soluble
b- Less lipid soluble.

192 Phenylephrine is used for :

a- Decongestant
b- For runny nose
c- Sympathomimetics.
d- All of the above.

193 Oxytocin produces all the following except :

a- Progestron release
b- Uterine stimulation
c- Labor induction
d- Mammalian glands stimulation

194 Binding to the plasma protein , means :

a- Increase half life
b- Decrease half life.
195 New & best therapy for peptic ulcer is :
a- Antacid + H2 antagonist.
b- Use more than one H2 antagonist.
c- Four medicines including antibiotic.

196 In case of Osteoarthritis & peptic ulcer of elderly patients use :

a- Paracetamol
b- Strong NSAI
c- Aspirin

197 Give names of drugs that change the color of urine ?

1 Nitrofurantoin
2 Phenazopyridin
3 Rifampcin

198 The drug of choice for Febril Convulsion in children is :

Diazepam 250 microgram / kg.

199 Cyproteron [ Androcur ] is used for :

Increasing the sexual abilities.

200 Immunocompetent means ?

Control resistant to infections.

201 Immunocompromised means ?

Low resistant to infections.

202 Which of the following is not cardio-specific B blocker ?

a- Atenolol
b- Acebutolol
c- Satolol
d- Labetolol

203 Controled released drug delivery depends on :

a- Body fluid interaction
b- Enzymatic reactions
c- Ready programmed & no influece of the body fluid
d- Stomach PH.
204 The conc. Of the drug on exp. Date is :
a- Not less than 100%
b- Not less than 90%
c- From 90 - 110%
d- Not of the above

205 Type 11 Diabetes. Advise to use :

a- Diet control.
b- Insulin
c- Sulphonyl Urea.
d- All of the above.

206 All of these are antichlonergics except :

a- Atropine Sulphate
b- Hydro-atropine.
c- Mebeverine.
d- Iprotropium Bromide.
e- Butrepium Bromide.

207 Pharmacokinetics means :

a-Effect of the body on the drug.
b- Drug - Receptor reaction
c- Non of the above.

208 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used as :

a- Anti-histaminic
b- Anti-depressant
c- Anti-hypertensive
d- Anti-emetic

209 Type 1 Diabetes. Advise to use :

a- Insulin
b- Glibneclamide
c- a & b
d- Non of the above.

210 Biotransformation
a- More lipid soluble
b- Less lipid soluble
211 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital in :
a- Longer
b- Faster
c- Not use very much
d- a & b

212 Which one of these can not be used in pain crisis :

a- Morphine
b- Naproxine
c- Codeine
d- Colchicin [ used mainly in gout pain ]

213 All of the following are Ca ++ channel blockers except :

a- Mesalamine
b- Verapamil
c- Cinnarzine
d- Amlodipine

214 One of the following is not used for Parkinson disease :

a- Pergolide
b- Selegline
c- Amantadine
d- Disulfiram

215 All the following are ACE inhibitors except :

a- Captopril
b- Ramipril
c- Lisinopril
d- Isradipine

216 Quinidine Sulphate Is :

a- Anti-arrhythmic
b- Anti-malarial
c- Anti-hypertensive
d- a & b
217 All the following are used as Anti-tussive except :
a- Guaifenesin
b- Dextromethorphane
c- Codeine Phosphate
d- Morphine Hydrochloride

218 Nitrous Oxide is used in anaesthesia because :

a- It is non explosive & non inflammable
b- It induces rapid induction & rapid recovery
c- It is potent muscle relaxant
d- All of the above

219 All of the following have GIT upset except :

a- Phenytoin
b- Phenobarbiton
c- Ethosux - Pn 7 de
d- Benzodiazepam

220 A patient has a prescription of Erythromycin 500 mg tablets every 6 hours.

and you do not have this anti-biotic. You can phone the doctor to change
it with :
a- Clarithromycin
b- Amoxicillin
c- Clindamycin
d- Ampicillin

221 A child of 41 degrees centigrade, when his father ask you about him,
you must tell him to :
a- Go to hospital which is 30 m. distance.
b- Sponge by tap water and go to hospital.
c- Take 1 GM. Paracetamol
d- Go to home.

222 The patient under the prescribing drug.

when he comes to you , Then you must tell him :
a- All the drug side effects.
b- Some relatively side effects.
c- Another side effects.
d- Non of the above
223 A patient has a prescription of Enalpril + KCL,
what are you ask him ?
a- Any product of K do you need.
b- You take any other anti-hypertensive
c- You need syrup or tablets.
d- Not of all

224 ACE inhibitors are used for the treatment of :

a- Asthma
b- Migraine
c- Hypertension
d- All of the above

225 New non sedative anti-histaminics act through :

a- H1 antagonist
b- H2 antagonist
c- Muscarinic receptors
d- B1 antagonist

226 All of the following are B antagonists except :

a- Salbutamol
b- Metoprolol
c- Nadolol
d- Atenolol

227 B agonist causes :

a-Increasing of Oxygen consumption
b- Increasing of ectotopic effect
c- Increasing of inotopic effect
d- All of the above

227 Atropine is used as pre-anaesthetic to :

a- Give skeletal muscle relaxation
b- Decrease saliva
c- Treat the side effects of anesthesic.
d- Help the sleeping effect of anaesthetic
228 A patient weighing 10 kilograms is given a paracetamol
one teaspoon full every 4-6 hours.
you should call doctor and tell him that :
a- The dose is very high
b- The dose must not exceed 180 mg daily
c- The dose is not sufficient
d- There is no need to call the doctor.

229 Malignant hypothermia is usually a side effect of :

a- Anaesthesia
b- Azathropin
c- Phenytoin
d- Aspirin

230 The common side effect of Sulphonylurea is :

a- GIT upset
b- Thyrotoxosis
c- Hypoglysuris
d- All of the above

231 Vasopressine is used for the treatment of :

a- Diabetes insipidus
b- Diabetes mellitus type 1
c- Diabetes mellitus type 2
d- Anti-hypertensive

232 Pseudomembraneous colitis is a side effect of :

a- Vancomycin
b- Clindamycin
c- Reserpine
d- INH
233 Phenobarbiton induces liver microsomal enzymes
when taken with Warfarin anti-coagulant leads to :
a- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin
b- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, increasing the activity of Warfarin
c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin
c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, increasing the activity of Warfarin

234 Tetracycline, when taken with metals such as Calcium, Iron & Aluminium
from a chelate which is :
a- Inactive & not absorbed
b- Active & poorly absorbed
c- Inactive & poorly absorbed
d- Active & absorbed

235 Disulfiram is used for :

a- Treatment of chronic alcohol dependence
b- Protection of liver cells from alcoholism
c- Prevention of conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid
d- All of the above

236 The drug transfer through the cell membrane by :

a- Aqueous diffusion
b- Osmotic pressure
c- Lipid dissolve
d- Non of the above
237 Protein bound drugs forming a compound which is :
a- Inactive while the free part is active
b- Highly active while the free part is inactive
c- Less active while the free part is active
d- Active while the free part is more active

238 The drug metabolism in the body occurs in :

a- GIT & Plasma
b- Gut wall during absorption
c- Gut wall during absorption & in plasma stream
d- Liver , Kidney & bowel mucosa

239 Clonidine is used as :

a- A drug that prevents the recurrence of Migraine
b- Anti-hypertensive acting centrally
c- a & b
d- Non of the above

240 Dolomol is :
a- Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammatory
b- Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inflammatory
c- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammatory
d- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inflammatory

241 Metoclopramide gives its anti-emetic through :

a- Peripheral action
b- Dopaminergic receptors
c- Muscarinic receptors
d- All of the above

242 Dobutamine is used as :

a- Parasympathomimetic
b- In cardiac surgery
c- Hypotensive agent
d- All of the above
243 The following are the indications of Diazepam except :
a- Anti-Psychotic
b- Epelipsy
c- Analgesic
d- Hypnotic

244 The diuretic which is used with Captopril is :

a- Aldactone
b- Ethacrynic acid
c- Furosemide
d- Non of the above

245 The following drugs are used for the treatment of anxiety except :
a- Propranolol
b- Diazepam
c- Homatropine
d- Mebrobamate

246 All the following are macrolides except :

a- Clarithomycin
b- Roxithromycin
c- Erythromycin
d- Clindamycin

247 The main use of Metronidazole is :

a- Anti-amoebiasis
b- Anthelmintic
c- Anti-biotic
d- Anti-malarial
 1 Ondansetron HCL is used for :
a- Hypertension
b- Angina pectoris
c- Prophylaxis of migraine
d- Anti-emetic

It is used as

Ondansetron is

2 All These are side effects of Chloramphenicol except :

a- Irreversible a plastic anemia
b- optic neuritis
c- peripheral neuritis
d- iron deficiency anemia

3 Ticlopidine is used for :

a- Anticoagulant
b- Antibiotic
c- anticholinergic
d- Antiplatelets

4 All these drugs are fibrinolytic except :

a- Dipyridamole
b- Steptokinase
c- urikinase

5 All These drugs cause anti-metabolic effect except :

a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
C- Cytabrin
d- Azothioprine
1 e- Cyclophosphamide 1

6 All These drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except :

a- Selgitine HCL
b- Carbidopa
 c- Pergolide
d- Nedocromil Sod.

7 all These cases not cure with thiazides except :

a- Hypernatrimia
b- hyperglycemia
c- Hypokalaemia
d- hyperuricaemia

8 Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following except :

a- Ephedrine
b- Ledocaine
c- Propranolol
d- Normal saline

9 Insulin which can be given I.V. is :

a- Regular type
b- 30/70 type
c- NPH type
d- Non of the above

10 Drug is used for Leishmania :

a- Sod. Stiboglyconate
b- Sod. Cromoglyconate
2 c- Mebendazole 2

11 All These drugs are anti-bacterial except :

a- Zalcitabine
b-Lomefloxacin
c- Cefprazone

12 All These are natural Estrogens except :

a- Mestronol
b- Oestrone
c- Oestriol
d- Oestradiol

13 Co-Trimethoxazole contains :
 14 Which one of the following has vasodilator effect :
a- Nicotine
b- Cholestyramin
c- urikinase
d- Vit. A

15 One of the following is not from Quinolone group :

a- Nalidixic acid
b- Quinine
c- Eoxacin
d- Norfloxacin

16 One of the following is not for Epilepsy :

a- Clorizepam
b- Phenytoin
c- Primidone
3 d- Imipramine 3

17 All of these can be used for Leprosy except :

a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazinine
d- INH

18 Sumatriptan is used for :

a- Hypertension
b- Treatment of migraine
c- Angina Pectoris
d- Control of Epilepsy

19 Which one of the following is enzyme inducer :

a- Rifampcin
b- Cimetidine
c- Chloramphenicol
d- Vit. C

20 All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except :

a- Ketotifen
 b- Nedocromil Sod.
c- Sod. Cromoglycate
d- Salbutamol

21 All of the following is NSAH [ non sedating antihistamine ] except :

a- Loratidine
b- Cetrizine
c- Astemizol
4 d- Azotodin 4

22 All of the following are controlled drugs except :

a- Rivotril
b- Epanutin
c- Sresolid
d- Diazepam

23 All These drugs are anti-viral except :

a- Amantadine
b- Zidovudine
c- Acyclovir
d- Aluerin [ anti-spasmodic ]

24 Which one of the symptoms does not occur with morphine :

a- Diarrhea
b- Respiratory depression
c- Constipation
d- Vomiting

25 Which one of these drugs is not used for acute pain :

a- Naproxen
b- Colchicine
c- Codeine
d- Prednisolone

26 Which one of these drugs is drug of choice for Myxodema

[ Hypothyrodism ]
a- Carbimazole
b- iodine
c- thyroxin sod.
5 d- propyl thiouracil 5

27 Benzyl peroxide is a local treatment for

28 Vit. A daily dose is

29 The drug of choice for the treatment of amoebae :

a- Chloramphenicol
b- Tetracycline
c- Gentamycin
d- Metronidazole

30 To prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use :

a- Water
b- Salt Sol.
c- Saline
d- Charcoal

31 Hepatitis Vaccine dose is :

a- Once / year
b- Twice / Year
c- Three times / Year

32 Which one is OTC drug :

a- Simple analgesic
b- Warfarin
c- Ciprofloxacin

33 Anti-coagulant effect of Warfarin is decreased by :

a- Rifampcin
b- Aspirin
c- Vit. K
6 d- Verapamil 6

34 One of the following is given once daily

a- Amorphous Insulin
b- Protamine Zinc Insulin
c- Neutral insulin
 d- Regular Insulin

35 The steady state conc. Of the drug in the plasma depends on :

a- Direct proportion to the rate of administration
b- Indirect proportion to the rate of administration
c- Indirect proportion to the rate of elimination
d- Direct proportion to the rate of elimination

36 All these are Anti-Coagulants except :

a- Warfarin
b- Ancord
c- Heparin
d- Dipyridamol

37 All these are Anti-Platelets except :

a- Dipyridamol
b- Aspirin
c- Streptokinase
d- Presantin
e- Ticlopidine

38 Ferrograde is :
a- Ferrous Sulphate
b- Ferrous Citrate
c- Ferrous gluconate
7 d- Ferrous Fumarate 7

39 Procainamide is :
a- Ca channel blocker
b- Nifedipine
c- Lisinopril
d- Qunidine

40 What is the mechanism of action of Vit. K ?

41 Thiazide diuretics cause all the following except :

a- Hypokalamia
 b- Hypercalcemia
c- Hyperuricamia
d- Hyponatrimia
e- Hyperglycemia
f- Hypernatremia

42 Treatment with anti-arrhythmic drug depends on except :

a- Type of medication
b- Period of medication
c- Patient sex

43 Elimination of Digoxin is mainly by :

a- Kidney
b- Liver
c- Both
d- None of the above

44 Dobutamine is given I.V. because :

a- It is not stable in the gastric PH
b- It is needed in large quantities in case of oral route
8 c- It is eliminated very quickly 8

45 Amilorid as trimetren causes :

a- CNS disturbances
b- Hyperkalamia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Not affect K [ Potassium ]

46 What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given OTC ?

a- Captopril
b- Warfarin
c- Chlorothiazide
d- Rifampcin

47 Drug physical dependence is as same as drug abuse

a- True
b- false

48 Mention two Thiazide diuretics ?

 49 What is the difference between QID & Q6H ?
QID =
Q6H =

50 What is the difference between the following anti-fungal ?

Miconazole =
Amphotercin =
9 Griseofulvin = 9

51 Give the indication of the following drugs :

1- Gimfibrazole
2- Cisapride
3- Fluoxetin
4- Carbimazole
5- Imipramine
6- Ipratropium Br.

52 All are anti-metabolic except :

a- Methotrexate
b- Flurouracil
c- Cytabrin
d- Azothiopin
e- Cyclophosphamide

53 Cefaclor is :
a- Ist, Generation Cephalosporin
b- 2nd, generation Cephalosporin
c- 3rd, generation Cephalosporin
d- None of the above

54 Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally ?

a- Gentamycin
b- Neomycin
c- Amikacin
d- Tobramycin
 55 Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on Gram positive as :
a- Vancomycin
b- Jamicacin
c- Gentamycin
10 d- Kanamycin 10

56 Which one is not Tetracycline ?

a- Minocycline
b- Demeclocycline
c- Doxycycline
d- Clindamycin

57 Which one is not Ca channel blocker ?

a- Verapamil
b- Deltiazem
c- Amlodipine
d- Cinnarzine

58 Mesalazine is used for

59 Mention 4 lipid soluble vitamins ?

60 Imipenam [ Carbapenam ] is

61 All These medications are used in treating T.B. except :

a- Cyclosporin
b- INH
c- Cycloserin
d- Rifampcin

62 All These drugs are anti-cholinergic except :

a- Iprotropium
b- Atropine Sulphate
c- Benzatropine Methylate
11 d- Dobutamin 11
 63 All Of These are antibiotics except :
a- Zalcitabin
b- Cefaprozil
c- loefloxacin
d- Cefopodoxin

64 There is one drug is used for HIV :

a- Zalcitabin
b- Kinasterdin
c- Cefaprozil
d- Enoxacin

65 Which one is Suprax ?

a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole

66 Which one is Sporanox ?

a- Cefixime
b- Itraconazole

67 All of These can be used in treating leprosy except :

a- Dapson
b- Rifampcin
c- Clofazimine
d- INH

68 One of these is not like the others :

a-Timolol
b- Acebutalol
c- Labetolol
12 d- Betaxolol 12

69 Which is not Aminoglycoside ?

a- Netilimicin
b- Tobramycin
c- Kanamycin
d- Lymecyclin

70 Betahistine HCL
 a- For Mieniere disease
b- Antihistamine
c- Analgesic
d- a & b

71 Which one is not 5HT3 antagonist ?

a- Tropisetron
b- Ondansetron
c- Domperidone [ Motilium ]
d- Granisetron

72 Which is not oral anti-coagulant ?

a- Warfarin
b- Enoxaprine
c- Phenidione
d- Nicoumolone

73 Which is correct ? Diazepam

a- Can cause muscle spasm
b- Is taken I.M. only
c- Is derivative from Morphine
d- Is not used for long term

13 74 Maximum dose of Paracetamol is Gm / day 13

75 The duration of treatment of T.B. by CTC is :

[ CTC is Tuberculosis Committee Thoracic Society ]
a- One week
b- Two months
c- One month
d- 6 months

76 Metoclopramide is

77 Which one is contra-indicated in pregnancy :

a- Sucralfate
b- Ethambutol
 c- Chlorphenramine
d- Ciprofloxacin

78 What is the definition of Bioavailability of the drug ?

79 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Hepatotoxicity ?

1- 2-
3- 4-

80 Give an ex. Of a drug induce Nephrotoxicity ?

14 14

81 Give the anti-dote for each of the following :

Heparin
Paracetamol
Warfarin
Morphine

82 What is the generic name of Vit. B 12 ?

83 Zidovudine is used for

84 What is the meaning of poor patient compliance ?

85 Fluxotine is :

86 Omeprazole is
 87 Mention two diseases cause Edema ?
1- 2-

88 Give examples of drug - drug interactions ?

1-
2-
3-
4-
5-
6-
15 7- 15

89 Generic name of :
Vit. B1
Vit. B2
Vit. B6
Vit. B12

90 All of these are the components of Calamine lotion B.P. except :

a- ZnO
b- calamine
c- Sod. Citrate
d- Bentonite
e- Sod. Sulphate

91 Terbinafine is used topically for :

a- Eczema
b- Candida
c- Fungal infections

92 Which one is not contra-indicated in pregnancy ?

a- Captopril
b- Enalpril
c- Lisinopril
d- Methyldopa

93 PCP [ Pneumocystis Corini Pneumonia ]

a- Virus
b- Bacteria
 c- Parasite
d- Mycobacterum

94 Which of the following is not antibiotic ?

a- Erythromycin
b- Cefprozil
c- Ceprodoxin
16 d- Finasteride 16

95 Which one is used for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia [ BPHP ]

a- Flumazenil
b- Cefprozil
c- Mivacurim
d- Finasteride

96 All of these are third generation Cephalosporin except :

a- Cefixime
b- Cefopodoxime
c- Ceftriaxone
d- Cefotaxime

97 Which of the following is not mucolytic ?

a- Bromohexin
b- Carbocistene
c- Ambroxol
d- guaphenesin
e- Dextromethorphan

98 Which one is anti-platelet ?

a- Ticlopidine
b- Desfluron
c- Aldesleukin
d- Atovaquon

99 All of these anti-neoplastic except :

a- Aldesleukin
b- Teniposide
c- Pentostatin
17 d- Amlodipine 17
 100 Which is not Benzodiazepine ?
a- Temazepam
b- Nitrozepam
c- Loprazolam
d- Clozapine

101 Potassium supplement must not be given with Triametren

1- False 2- True

102 Misoprostol inhibit gastric acid by blocking the hydrogen potassium

adenosine triphosphate enzyme system of gastric cell
[ Misoprostol is Cytotic ]

1- False 2- True

103 MMR vaccine is

104 Oral re-hydrate solution is one of the following :

a- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Glucose
b- Sod. Citrate - Pot. Chloride - Sod. Chloride
c- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Citrate - Sod. Citrate - glucose
d- Sod. Chloride - Pot. Chloride - NaHCO3 - Citric acid

105 Gemfibrazile
a- Increase HDL & Triglycerides
b- Increase HDL & decrease Triglycerides
c- Decrease HDL & LDL
d- Increase LDL & Triglycerides.

106 Nitroprusside Sod. Is :

a- Potent vasodilator
b- potent diuretic
c- potent vasoconstrictor
18 d- Anti-arrhythmic agent. 18

107 4 drugs need monitor for their serum level

1- 3-
2- 4-
 108 For Fluxacillin, all these statments are wrong except :
a- It is activated by Penicillinase enzyme
b- It is taken by oral route only
c- It is base stable
d- It is better absorbed than Cloxacilin

109 What are the instruction for patient taken Metamucil

Or any other bulk foaming laxative as Bran, methyl Cellulose &
Psyllum :

110 Cytotec
Is used for

111 Mention two drugs from HMG - COA- reductase inhibitors

112 HMG-COA-Reductase Inhibitor is

113 Source of Human Insulin is E-Coli by :

19 19

114 Zinnat contains :

115 Thiabendazole is one of Thiazides diuretics

1- False 2- True

116 Praziquantil is :
a- Cause loss of intracellular calcium of worms
b- Used for malaria
c- Biltracid is the trade name
d- a & c

117 Nitrofurantoin is indicated for :

 a- Viral infection
b- GIT Infection
c- Urinary tract infection [ UTI ]
d- URI

118 Vit. K
a- Increase formation of clotting factor
b- Increase conversion of Vit. K to the active form
c- Prevent conversion of Vit. K back to the active form
d- Non of the above

119 Quinidine Sulphate is :

a- Anti-arrhythmic agent
b- Anti-malarial agent
c- Anti-hypertensive agent
20 d- a & c 20

120 ACE stands for :

a- Converting Ag11 to vasoconstrictor Ag1
b- Converting Ag1 to vasoconstrictor Ag11
c- Converting Ag1 to vasodilator Ag11
d- Converting Ag11 to vasodilator Ag1

121 One of these side effects not occur with Thiazide diuretics
a- Hypernatraemia
b- Hypoglycemia
c- Hypokalamia
d- Hyperuricamia

122 Ipeca is emetic agent which induce emesis through :

a- Stimulation of the stomach
b- Stimulation of the CTZ
c- a & b
d- Inhibition of the stomach through CNS

123 Theophyllin is
a- Bronchdilator
b- B2 agonist
c- Cause Bradycardia
 d- All of the above

124 Schedule of immunization for HBV is :

a- Single dose
b- Two doses
c- Three doses
d- Five doses

125 Itraconazol
21 Is 21

126 Treatment of anaphylactic reaction is initiated by immediate :

a- Hydrocortisone
b- Cimetidine
c- Human albumin
d- Epinephrine

127 Introduction of emesis is not indicated in the following except :

a- Caustic substance ingestion
b- CNS
c- Seizures
d- Paracetamol poisoning

128 all of these are anions except :

a- Phosphate
b-Acetate
c- Sodium
d- Chloride

129 Astemizole is

130 Triazole is
a- Antifungal
b- Trade name of clotrimazole
c- Trade name of amphotercin B
d- Nystatin

131 With Minoxidil, all these parameters should be monitored except :

 a- Urine flow rate
b- B.P.
c- Pulse rate
22 d- Body weight 22

132 Aspirin is recommended with one of the following :

a- Anti-coagulant
b- Chicken box
c- Influenza symptoms
d- Dys-menorrhoea

133 Which is not true with Tetracycline

a- Broad spectrum bacteriostatic
b- Broad spectrum bactericidal
c- Inhibit protein synthesis
d- Used for acne

134 Give 2 indications for allopurinol

1-
2-

135 Give an ex. Of non sedating anti-histamines

136 Famotidine is

137 What are the effects of Captopril

1- Decrease conversion of Ag1 to Ag11
2- Effective hypotensive when others are contra-indicated
[ B blockers & diuretics ]

138 Type 2 Diabetics is characterized by :

a- Lack of response to Insulin
b- Lack of response to sulphonylurea
c- Respond to dietary therapy alone
23 d- Slowly increasing sulphonylurea requirement 23

139 Give 2 side effects of Aminoglycosides ?

 140 Mention 2 quinolones
1
2

141 Give 3 drugs as Pot. Sparing diuretics

142 Acetazolamide is

143 Which one reduces the metabolism of other drugs in the liver :
a- Rifampcin
B- Vit. C
c- Cimetidine
d- Metronidazole

144 All of these can be dispensed without prescription except :

a- Aspirin b- Maalox c- Bisacodyl
d- Tegretol

145 Simvastatin is used for

146 Acetohexamide is

147 List the trade name of the following :

Pindolol
Baclofen
24 Omeprazol 24

148 What is the meaning of each of the following :

POM
BID
ECG
G.6.PD
BPC
 149 Which of these is Pro-drug
a- Ampicillin
b- Erythromycin
c- Pivampicillin
d-All of the above

150 500 ml Normal saline 0.9 % contains gm. NACL

151 Mention 3 ACEI

152 Levodopa with Cardiodopa for the treatment of

153 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitor are used as :

a- Antihistaminic
b- Antidepressant
c- Antihypertensive
d- antiemetic

154 Which of these has no vasodilator effect :

a- Methyl dopa
b- Hydralazine
c- Enalpril
25 d- Prazocin 25

155 Enalpril is the prodrug of :

156 Mention 3 drugs contraindicated in pregnancy :

1
2
3

157 List 3 drugs used to treat T.B. :

1
2
3

158 Calcipotriol is indicated for :

 a- Psoriasis
b- Hypertension
c- Calcium supplement
d- Acne

159 List 8 side effects of Corticosteroids :

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8

26 160 Maximum dose of Captopril is mg / day 26

161 Amantadine is used for all of the following except :

a- Antiviral
b- For influenza A
c- Anti-parkinsonism
d- For influenza B

162 All are viral infections except :

a- Hepatitis B
b- Influenza
c- Herpes Zoster
d- Rikettsia

163 At the cardiac arrest [ shock ] . The drug of choice is :

a- Epinephrine
b- Propranolol
c- Hydrocortisone
d- Saline sol.

164 Give ae example of cardio selective B blocker ?

a- Atenolol
b- Bisoprolol
c- Esmolol
 d- Betaxolol
e- Metoprolol
f- Acebutolol

165 Drugs to pass B.B.B. should be :

a- Unionized hydrophilic
b- Ionized hydrophilic
c- Unionized lipophilic
27 d- Ionized lipophilic 27

166 All of these are anti-parkinsonism except :

a- Amantadine e- Lysuride
b- Apomorphine f- Pergolide
c- Bromocriptine g- Levodopa
d- Primidone h- Selegiline

167 All of these are anti-metabolite [ cytotoxic ] except :

a- Methotrexate d- Azothioprin
b- Cylarabin e- Mercaptopurine
c- Cyclophosphamide f- Flurouracil

168 All of these are antichlonergic except :

a- Atropine sulphate d- Iprotropium bromide
b- Hydroatropine e- Butrepium bromide
c- Mebeverine

169 All of these are corticosteroids except :

a- Ondansetron d- Beclomethasone
b- Prednisolone e- Dexamethazone
c- Triamcinolone f- Methyl prednisolone

170 When newly married do not want child. How to arrange

a- Arrange contraception.
b- Send wife to the family doctor
c- Send the wife to her mother

171 Side effects of Insulin ?

1 Local reaction [ urticaria ]
2 Hypoglycemia
28 3 Fat dystrophy at site of injection 28

172 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin :

a- Hypoglycemia
b- Fluid retention
c- Hyperglycemia
d- All of the above

173 The only aminoglycoside can be taken orally is :

174 Chloramphenicol affect liver inhibitory enzyme. So

a- Decrease metabolism & increase response
b- Decrease metabolism & decrease response
c- Increase metabolism & increase response
d- Increase metabolism & decrease response

175 OTC simple analgesic is

176 Enteric coated tab

a- Pass the stomach & release in the intestine
b- Pass the stomach & intestine
c- Release in the stomach

177 All of these are true for Levodopa except :

a- precursor of dopa
b- Does not pass B.B.B.
c- Effective in parkinsonism
d- Stimulate dopamine

178 Morphine & Morpin are similar in

29 179 Cytocin is 29

180 The conc. Of the drug on Exp. Date is :

a- Not less than 100%
b- Not less than 90%
c- From 90-110%
d- Non of the above
 181 If you have prescription contains Inderal and the patient is
wheezing. What is your advice ?

182 Bioavailability means :

a- Rate
b- Extent
c- Rate & extent
d- Non of the above

183 Pharmacokinetics means :

a- Effect of the body on the drug
b- Drug - receptor reaction
c- Non of the above

184 Surfactant not used orally

a- Tween
b- Spon
c- Na lauryl sulphate
30 d- B & C 30

185 Type 1 Diabetes. advise to use :

a- Insulin
B- Glibneclamide
c- a & b
c- Non of the above.

186 Type 11 Diabetes. advise to use :

a- Diet control
b- Insulin
c- Sulphonyl urea
d- All of the above

187 One of the following is the main side effect of insulin :

a- Hyperglycemia
b- Hypoglycemia
c- Fluid retention
C- All of the above
 188 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital in :
a- Longer
b- Faster
C- Not use very much
d- a & b

189 Morphine & morpin are similar in :

a- Miosis
b- Addiction
C- Analgesic
31 d- All of the above 31

190 Theophyllin dose in children.

a- Increased metabolism & dose must be increased .
b- Decreased metabolism & dose must be increased .
c- Decreased metabolism & dose must be decreased .

191 Biotransformation
a- More lipid soluble
b- Less lipid soluble.

192 Phenylephrine is used for :

a- Decongestant
b- For runny nose
c- Sympathomimetics.
d- All of the above.

193 Oxytocin produces all the following except :

a- Progestron release
b- Uterine stimulation
c- Labor induction
d- Mammalian glands stimulation

194 Binding to the plasma protein , means :

a- Increase half life
32 b- Decrease half life. 32

195 New & best therapy for peptic ulcer is :

 a- Antacid + H2 antagonist.
b- Use more than one H2 antagonist.
c- Four medicines including antibiotic.

196 In case of Osteoarthritis & peptic ulcer of elderly patients use :

a- Paracetamol
b- Strong NSAI
c- Aspirin

197 Give names of drugs that change the color of urine ?

1 Nitrofurantoin
2 Phenazopyridin
3 Rifampcin

198 The drug of choice for Febril Convulsion in children is :

199 Cyproteron [ Androcur ] is used for :

200 Immunocompetent means ?

33 33

201 Immunocompromised means ?

202 Which of the following is not cardio-specific B blocker ?

a- Atenolol
b- Acebutolol
c- Satolol
d- Labetolol

203 Controled released drug delivery depends on :

a- Body fluid interaction
b- Enzymatic reactions
c- Ready programmed & no influece of the body fluid
d- Stomach PH.

204 The conc. Of the drug on exp. Date is :

 a- Not less than 100%
b- Not less than 90%
c- From 90 - 110%
d- Not of the above

205 Type 11 Diabetes. Advise to use :

a- Diet control.
b- Insulin
c- Sulphonyl Urea.
34 d- All of the above. 34

206 All of these are antichlonergics except :

a- Atropine Sulphate
b- Hydro-atropine.
c- Mebeverine.
d- Iprotropium Bromide.
e- Butrepium Bromide.

207 Pharmacokinetics means :

a-Effect of the body on the drug.
b- Drug - Receptor reaction
c- Non of the above.

208 Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used as :

a- Anti-histaminic
b- Anti-depressant
c- Anti-hypertensive
d- Anti-emetic

209 Type 1 Diabetes. Advise to use :

a- Insulin
b- Glibneclamide
c- a & b
d- Non of the above.

210 Biotransformation
a- More lipid soluble
35 b- Less lipid soluble 35
 211 Pentobarbital differs from Phenobarbital in :
a- Longer
b- Faster
c- Not use very much
d- a & b

212 Which one of these can not be used in pain crisis :

a- Morphine
b- Naproxine
c- Codeine
d- Colchicin [ used mainly in gout pain ]

213 All of the following are Ca ++ channel blockers except :

a- Mesalamine
b- Verapamil
c- Cinnarzine
d- Amlodipine

214 One of the following is not used for Parkinson disease :

a- Pergolide
b- Selegline
c- Amantadine
d- Disulfiram

215 All the following are ACE inhibitors except :

a- Captopril
b- Ramipril
c- Lisinopril
36 d- Isradipine 36

216 Quinidine Sulphate Is :

a- Anti-arrhythmic
b- Anti-malarial
c- Anti-hypertensive
d- a & b

217 All the following are used as Anti-tussive except :

a- Guaifenesin
b- Dextromethorphane
 c- Codeine Phosphate
d- Morphine Hydrochloride

218 Nitrous Oxide is used in anaesthesia because :

a- It is non explosive & non inflammable
b- It induces rapid induction & rapid recovery
c- It is potent muscle relaxant
d- All of the above

219 All of the following have GIT upset except :

a- Phenytoin
b- Phenobarbiton
c- Ethosux - Pn 7 de
d- Benzodiazepam

220 A patient has a prescription of Erythromycin 500 mg tablets every 6 hours.

and you do not have this anti-biotic. You can phone the doctor to change
it with :
a- Clarithromycin
b- Amoxicillin
c- Clindamycin
37 d- Ampicillin 37

221 A child of 41 degrees centigrade, when his father ask you about him,
you must tell him to :
a- Go to hospital which is 30 m. distance.
b- Sponge by tap water and go to hospital.
c- Take 1 GM. Paracetamol
d- Go to home.

222 The patient under the prescribing drug.

when he comes to you , Then you must tell him :
a- All the drug side effects.
b- Some relatively side effects.
c- Another side effects.
d- Non of the above

223 A patient has a prescription of Enalpril + KCL,

what are you ask him ?
 a- Any product of K do you need.
b- You take any other anti-hypertensive
c- You need syrup or tablets.
d- Not of all

224 ACE inhibitors are used for the treatment of :

a- Asthma
b- Migraine
c- Hypertension
d- All of the above

225 New non sedative anti-histaminics act through :

a- H1 antagonist
b- H2 antagonist
c- Muscarinic receptors
38 d- B1 antagonist 38

226 All of the following are B antagonists except :

a- Salbutamol
b- Metoprolol
c- Nadolol
d- Atenolol

227 B agonist causes :

a-Increasing of Oxygen consumption
b- Increasing of ectotopic effect
c- Increasing of inotopic effect
d- All of the above

227 Atropine is used as pre-anaesthetic to :

a- Give skeletal muscle relaxation
b- Decrease saliva
c- Treat the side effects of anesthesic.
d- Help the sleeping effect of anaesthetic

228 A patient weighing 10 kilograms is given a paracetamol

one teaspoon full every 4-6 hours.
you should call doctor and tell him that :
a- The dose is very high
 b- The dose must not exceed 180 mg daily
c- The dose is not sufficient
d- There is no need to call the doctor.

229 Malignant hypothermia is usually a side effect of :

a- Anaesthesia
b- Azathropin
c- Phenytoin
39 d- Aspirin 39

230 The common side effect of Sulphonylurea is :

a- GIT upset
b- Thyrotoxosis
c- Hypoglysuris
d- All of the above

231 Vasopressine is used for the treatment of :

a- Diabetes insipidus
b- Diabetes mellitus type 1
c- Diabetes mellitus type 2
d- Anti-hypertensive

232 Pseudomembraneous colitis is a side effect of :

a- Vancomycin
b- Clindamycin
c- Reserpine
d- INH

233 Phenobarbiton induces liver microsomal enzymes

when taken with Warfarin anti-coagulant leads to :
a- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin
b- Increasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, increasing the activity of Warfarin
c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes
so, decreasing the activity of Warfarin
c- Decreasing the activity of liver enzymes
40 so, increasing the activity of Warfarin 40
 234 Tetracycline, when taken with metals such as Calcium, Iron & Aluminium
from a chelate which is :
a- Inactive & not absorbed
b- Active & poorly absorbed
c- Inactive & poorly absorbed
d- Active & absorbed

235 Disulfiram is used for :

a- Treatment of chronic alcohol dependence
b- Protection of liver cells from alcoholism
c- Prevention of conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid
d- All of the above

236 The drug transfer through the cell membrane by :

a- Aqueous diffusion
b- Osmotic pressure
c- Lipid dissolve
d- Non of the above

237 Protein bound drugs forming a compound which is :

a- Inactive while the free part is active
b- Highly active while the free part is inactive
c- Less active while the free part is active
d- Active while the free part is more active

238 The drug metabolism in the body occurs in :

a- GIT & Plasma
b- Gut wall during absorption
c- Gut wall during absorption & in plasma stream
41 d- Liver , Kidney & bowel mucosa 41

239 Clonidine is used as :

a- A drug that prevents the recurrence of Migraine
b- Anti-hypertensive acting centrally
c- a & b
d- Non of the above

240 Dolomol is :
a- Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammatory
 b- Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inflammatory
c- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & anti-inflammatory
d- Non Paracetamol with analgesic & without anti-inflammatory

241 Metoclopramide gives its anti-emetic through :

a- Peripheral action
b- Dopaminergic receptors
c- Muscarinic receptors
d- All of the above

242 Dobutamine is used as :

a- Parasympathomimetic
b- In cardiac surgery
c- Hypotensive agent
d- All of the above

243 The following are the indications of Diazepam except :

a- Anti-Psychotic
b- Epelipsy
c- Analgesic
42 d- Hypnotic 42

244 The diuretic which is used with Captopril is :

a- Aldactone
b- Ethacrynic acid
c- Furosemide
d- Non of the above

245 The following drugs are used for the treatment of anxiety except :
a- Propranolol
b- Diazepam
c- Homatropine
d- Mebrobamate

246 All the following are macrolides except :

a- Clarithomycin
b- Roxithromycin
c- Erythromycin
d- Clindamycin
247 The main use of Metronidazole is :
a- Anti-amoebiasis
b- Anthelmintic
c- Anti-biotic
d- Anti-malarial
DEFINITIONS

DRUG
Is any small molecule that when introduced into the body
affect the functions.

PHARMACODYNAMIC :
Is the interaction between the drug & the body.
OR :
The effect [ desired & undesired ] of the drug on the body

PHARMACOKINETIC :
Is the way of the body to handle the drug.
[ through absorption, distribution, metabolism & excretion ]

EFFICACY :
Is the relation between occupancy of receptor sites & the
pharmacological response.
OR :
Is the degree of response regardless the dose.

POTENCY :
Is the dose or concentration of the drug required to produce
a given response.
OR :
Is the minimal dose required for the needed response.

THERAPEUTIC INDEX :
Is the ratio between TD50 : ED50.
TD50 is toxic dose that produce undesired effect.
ED50 is effective dose that produce desired effect.
IDIOSYNCRASY :
Is unusual drug response.
i.e. single individual may respond differently to the same drug
at different times during the course of treatment.

HYPERSENSITIVITY :
Is allergic or any other immunological response to the drug

TOLERANCE :
Is the decreasing of the intensity of response during the
treatment. [ the patient feels to increase the dose of the
drug to get the same response ]

TACHYPHYLAXIS :
When responsiveness decreases rapidly after drug administration

BIOAVAILABILITY :
Measure of speed & completeness of absorption from
the site of administration.

CLEARANCE :
Is the measure of the ability of the body to eliminate the
drug through the urine[ relative to the plasma drug conc. ]

VOLUME OF DISTRIBUTION :
Is the measure of the space in the body available to contain
the drug.
HALF LIFE :
Is the time required to attain 50% of steady state
OR :
Is the time to decay 50% of the steady state.

MAINTENANCE DOSE :
The dose needed to maintain a chosen steady state.

LOADING DOSE :
Is the amount of the drug needed to achieve a given steady
state conc. In the plasma.

XENOBIOTICS :
Substances absorbed across the lungs, skin or ingested with
food or drinks or drugs for recreational purposes.
 ORPHAN DRUGS ;
Drugs for rare diseases.

1- What is the mechanism of drug permeation ?

There are 4 mechanisms :
1- Aquous diffusion
through gut or cornes.
2- Lipid diffusion
through cell membranes.
3- Special carriers
as B.B.B.
4- Pinocytosis
drugs of exceptional large size

2- What are the factors that affect the drug distribution ?

1- Protein binding
2- Blood flow
3- Membrane permeability
4- Tissue solubility

Diabetes Mellitus [ DM ]

IDDM NIDDM
Insulin Dependant DM Non Insulin Dependant DM
Type 1 Type 11

Type 1 :
Is a severe form. Mainly in juveniles &
rare in adults ( non obese & elderly )
Occurs due to infections as mumps
or exposure to destructive substance
as Cytotoxics. There is ketosis.
Type 11 :
Mainly in adults ( obese )
insulin is insufficient or
the tissue sensitivity to
insulin is low or B cells impaired
to respond to Glucose.
* Insulin Structure :
It is 51 amino acids in two chains [ A & B ] linked by disulphide bridges.
Beef insulin is differ in 3 amino acids. But Pork is differ in one only.

Human Pancreas has Islets of Langerhams which has 4 types of cells

A cells [ alpha ] B cells [ beta ] D cells [ delta ] F cells [ PP ]

secretes secretes secretes secretes

glycogen Insulin somatostatin pancreatic polypeptides

* Insulin preparations ;
1- Short acting Insulin :
a- Regular type [ crystalline zinc ]
clear sol. & the only one can be taken I.V.
b- Semilente [ amorphous crystalline ]

2- Intermediate acing Insulin :

a- Lente type is mixture of [ 30% semilent & 70% ultralent ]
b- NPH [ protamine zinc - Isophane ]

ex. most common use one is 30/70 type ( NOVOLIN ) from Squibb
it is 70% NPH & 30% regular type.

3- Long acting Insulin :

ex. Ultralente

* Complications of Insulin Therapy ;

1- hypoglycemia [ treated by sugar intake ]
2- lipodystrophy at the site of injection.
3- Two immunopathology disorders
a- Insulin allergy
local & systemic urticaria
b- immuno insulin resistance
the tissues sensitivity to insulin decreased due to IgG
anti-insulin antibody neutralize the action of insulin.
 ** Oral Hypoglycemics :
1- Sulphonyl Ureas
mainly are used for type 11 DM
as Tolbutamide - Glibenclamide [ Daonil ] - Tolazamide -
Acetohexamide - Glipizide - Chlorpropamide
Mechanism of action
a- Stimulate B cells to release Insulin

b- Decrease the serum glycogen

c- Potentiate the action of Insulin on the target tissues.

2- Biguanides :
It decreases the level of glucose in the blood
as Phenformin [ Glucophage ] - Metformin - Buformin

Bronchodilators & Asthma

Drugs used to treat asthma are :

1- Cromolyn Sod.
ex. Sod. Cromoglycate for prophylaxis.

2- Methyl Xanthines
ex. Theophylline - Theobromine - Caffeine
Aminophylline [ theophylline + ethyldiamine ]
Pentoxyfylline [ Trental ]

3- Sympathomimetics :
ex. Ephedrine - Epinephrine - Isoproternol [ non specific B agonist ]

B2 selective agonists as :
a- Terbutaline [ Bricanyl ]
b- Metaproternol [ Alupent ]
c- Albuterol [ Salbovent , Ventolin ]

4- Anti-muscarinic drugs :
ex. Atropine - Ipratropium [ Atrovent

5- Corticosteroids :
ex. Beclomethasone - Dexamethazone - Triamcinolone.
AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM [ ANS ]

Q- What is the difference between ANS & endocrine system ?

** Is in the mode of transmission
in case endocrine system via blood - borne hormones.
in case ANS via chemical transmission as acetylcholine & nor-epinephrine
And both of them is used to control & integrate the body functions.

Q- The nervous system is two divisions :

a- Autonomic b- Somatic
What is the difference ?
** The autonomic to control the activities that are not under conscious
as blood flow , cardiac output
The somatic to control the activities that under conscious.
as respiration , exercise.
Q- The autonomic nervous system is sub-divided into :
a- Sympathetic b- Parasympathetic
What is effect on the body activities of both of them ?
Organ Sub-organ Sympathetic Parasympathetic
action receptor action receptor
1- Heart Vascular muscles constrict alpha relax Muscarinic/M
contractility contract alpha relax M

2- Lungs bronchial muscles Relax B2 contract M

3- G.I.T. walls Relax B2 contract M

sphincters contract Alpha Relax M
Secretions ****** **** Increase M

4- Sex Organs Penis ejaculation alpha erection M

uterus Relax B2

5- Urinary t. Bladder wall Relax B2 contract M

sphincters contract alpha Relax M

6- Skin sweat glands Increase M

Heat stress Increase alpha

7- Eye Radial muscles contract alpha Relax M

circular muscles contract alpha Relax M
[ mydriasis ] [ miosis ]
A- PARASYMPATHOMIMETICS :

A- Direct acting B- Indirect acting Cholinesterase

inhibitors

muscarinic nicotinic reversible irreversible

1- Carbamates Phosphates

2- Edrophonium

esters alkaloids 3- Neostigmine

1- Acetylcholine as Muscarine & Nicotine 4- Phtsostigmine{ eserine }

2- Bethanchole

3- Methacholine

4- Carbachol

** The main uses of Parasympathomimetics :

1- Glaucoma
There are two types of glaucoma
1- Primary 2- Secondary
It is caused by surgical procedures
( chronic )

Angle closure Open angle

( Acute ) ( chronic )

* for the closure angle type :

is kind of emergency & needs medication then surgery.
as Pilocarpine , physostigmine , Carbachole & Methacholine.
* for the open angle type :
only use medication

2- Postoperative ileus & Congenital megacolon

Use Bethanichole & Neostigmine

3- Myasthenia Gravis :
Use Edrophonium & Neostigmine

*** Antidote :
1- Atropine 2- Pralidoxime
B- PARASYMPATHOLYTICS :
They are contraindicated in Glaucoma & in elderly patients with urinary
retention.
Examples :
1- Anti-muscarinics : Atropine - Homatropine - isopropamide
Cyclopentolate - Hyoscyamine
Scopolamine - Propanthine
2- Ganglion Blockers : Mecamylamines - Hexamethonium - Trimethaphan
3- Cholinesterase regenerator : Pralidoxime
4- Sympathomimetics : Nor-epinephrine

** It is used to treat Mashroom poisoning

also Atropine is used before anesthesia to reduce secretions & retina
examination & as anti-spasmodic.

C- SYMPATHOMIMETICS :
mainly this group has positive effect on the heart & C.V.S.
This group is classified according the selectivity on Alpha & Beta receptors.

Alpha Agonists B1 & B2 non-selective B2 selective B1 selective

1- Epinephrine 1- Epinephrine 1- Albuterol ( ventolin ) 1- Norepinph..

2- Nor-epinephrine 2- Isoproternol 2- Terbutaline ( Bricanyl 2- Dobutamine

3- Phenylephrine 3- Metaproternol ( Alupent )

4- Methoxamine 4- Ritodrine

** Main Uses :
1- Hypotension
2- Heart block
3- Bronchodilators
4- Retinal examination
D- SYMPATHOLYTICS :
mainly are used for treating hypertension.

Alpha blockers Beta blockers B1 blockers B2 blockers

1- Prazocin ( Minipress ) 1- Propranolol ( Inderal ) 1- Metoprolol ( Lepressor ) Butoxamine

2- Phenoxybenzamine 2- Timolol 2- Acebutolol ( Sectral )

3- Phentolamine 3- Nadolol ( Corgard ) 3- Atenolol ( Tenormin )

4- Tolazoline ( Priscoline ) 4- Pindolol ( Visken ) 4- Esmolol

5- yohimbine ( for sex disorders ) 5- Alprenol

N.B. Levobunolol ( Betagan liquifilm ) Betaxolol ( Betoptic )

** Uses :
1- Hypertension
2- Pheichromocytoma
3- Glaucoma
4- Ischemic heart disease
5- Cardiac arrhythmia
7- Hyperthyroidism.
ANTIMICROBIAL DRUGS

** Mechanism Of Action

Antimicrobial action Antimicrobial group

1- Through inhibition of cell wall Penicillin's, Cephalosporins, Bacitracin
synthesis Cycloserin, Vancomycin

2- Through inhibition of cell Amphotericin B, Nystatin, Imidazoles

membrane Polymyxines

3- Through inhibition of protein Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin's,

synthesis Tetracycline's, Aminoglycosides

4- Through inhibition of nucleic Quinolones, Rifampin, Sulfonamides.

acid synthesis

Q- What is the definition of Cross Resistance ?

When micro-organisms resistant to a certain drug may also be resistant
to other drugs.

CEPHALOSPORINS

Ist, generation Gr. 2nd, generation Gr. 3rd, generation Gr.

1- Cephalexin ( Keflex ) 1- Cefaclor ( Ceclor ) 1- Cefoperazone ( Cefobid )

2- Cephalothin ( Keflin ) 2- Cefuroxime ( Zinacef - Zinnat ) 2- Cefotaxime ( Claforan )

3- Cephradin ( Velosef ) 3- Cefoxitin 3- Cefotetan

4- Cefazolin ( Kefzol ) 4- Cefonicid 4- Ceftizoxime ( Cefizox )

5- Cefadroxil ( Ultracif )
CHLORAMPHENICOL

** Side Effects :
1- G.I.T. disturbances.
2- Bone Marrow Disturbances [ aplastic anemia ]
3- Newborn infants toxicity [ gray syndrome ]

TETRACYCLINE'S

** Side Effects :
1- G.I.T. side effects
2- It affects the bony structures & teeth.
3- Liver & kidney toxicity.
4- Photosensitization [ specially Demecycline ]

* examples of tetracycline's :
1 Doxycycline ( Vibramycin )

2 Minocycline ( Minocin )

3 Oxytetracycline ( Terramycin )

4 Tetracycline

AMINOGLYCOSIDES

* Examples :
1- Amikacin ( Amikin )

2- Gentamycin ( Garamycin )

3- Neomycin

4- Sreptomycin
5- Tobramycin ( Nebcin )