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1. What is a stakeholder?

A- The person responsible for preparing the project budget.

B- An organization thats hired to perform risk analysis.

C- A person or organization that is not actively involved in the project, or whose interests will not be
affected by execution or completion of the project.

D- A person or organization that is actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be
positively or negatively affected by execution or completion of the project.

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2. Which answer includes the five project management process groups?

A- investigating process group, planning process group, deciding process group, monitoring and
controlling process group, and the closing process group

B- initiating process group, performing process group, executing process group, monitoring and
controlling process group, and the closing process group

C- initiating process group, planning process group, executing process group, monitoring and
controlling process group, and the closing process group

D- investigating process group, planning process group, estimating process group, monitoring and
controlling process group, and the closing process group
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3. A project charter

A- lists the names and roles of all project team members.

B- is most often reviewed when documenting lessons learned.

C- formally authorizes the existence of a project.

D- is used to document change requests.

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4. WBS is an acronym for

A- work breakdown structure.

B- waste breakdowns structure.

C- waste breakdown sequence.

D- work baseline sequence.

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5. Which subsidiary plan is not a part of the project management plan?

A- human resource management plan

B- communications management plan

C- risk management plan

D- baseline management plan

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6. When does a project reach its end?

A- When the project objectives have been achieved.

B- When the project is terminated because its objectives will not or cannot be met.

C- When the need for the project no longer exists.

D- For any of the reasons above.

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7. Which of the following is not a project constraint?

A- schedule

B- stakeholder

C- budget

D- quality

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8. Organizational project management is a strategy execution framework that utilizes which of the
following?

A- project management
 B- program management

C- portfolio management

D- all of the above

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9. Which answer best describes the PMBOK Guide?

A- It contains the standard for managing most projects most of the time across many types of
industries.

B- It contains step-by-step instructions for managing all projects.

C- It contains the standard for how project managers must conduct themselves.

D- It ensures project success.

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10. In the classic functional organization, the project managers authority is

A- high.

B- little or none.

C- moderate to high.

D- moderate.
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11. Which of the following best describe organizational process assets?

A- buildings and equipment owned by the performing organization

B- reasons that most projects encounter risk

C- items that must be estimated before the schedule is developed

D- plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific to and used by the
performing organization

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12. Project management offices (PMO) often serve which function?

A- They provide human resource support functions.

B- They provide project management certification exams.

C- They provide accounting and budgetary support functions.

D- They provide project management support functions.

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13. A directive PMO

A- takes control of the projects by directly managing them. Their degree of control is high.

B- directs contract project managers to manage the projects. Their degree of control is low.

C- receives directives from external stakeholders and shares in the management of the projects.
Their degree of control is low.
 D- none of the above.

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14. Which answer includes examples of operational stakeholders?

A- project managers and program managers

B- sales persons and help desk staff

C- both of the above

D- neither of the above

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15. Rather than relying on a functional approach, a particular organization conducts the majority of their
work as projects. This organization is referred to as a

A- Organization of Project Performance (OPP).

B- Non-Functional Organization (NFO).

C- Project-Based Organization (PBO).

D- none of the above

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16. The role of the project manager includes

 A- leading the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives.

B- leading the functional managers towards reaching the strategic objectives.

C- leading the human resources department to meet the labor ratio requirements.

D- all of the above

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17. Which of the following is an organizational influence thats likely to affect a project?

A- an organizations risk tolerance.

B- an organizations motivation and reward systems.

C- an organizations values and beliefs.

D- all of the above

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18. If the organizational structure is projectized, who will most-likely manage the project budget?

A- the project manager

B- the accounting department

C- a functional manager

D- the project sponsor

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19. When the organizational structure is projectized, the project managers authority is

A- little or none

B- low

C- low to moderate

D- high to almost total

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20. Which of the following is not an enterprise environmental factor?

A- project work activities

B- organizational culture

C- government or industry standards

D- political climate

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21. Select the correct statement.

A- Stakeholder identification should be completed prior to constructing the project charter.

B- Stakeholder identification should be performed at the beginning of each project phase.

C- Where a project begins pursuant to a contract, stakeholder identification is not necessary.

 D- Stakeholder identification is a continuous process that should be performed throughout the
entire project life cycle.

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22. A project to expand a manufacturing park will force Joes Hamburger Shack to relocate. Joe does not
wish to relocate. His interests are best served if the project never begins. Joe is a

A- functional stakeholder.

B- project sponsor.

C- negative stakeholder.

D- positive stakeholder.

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23. A project life cycle

A- provides the basic framework for managing the project.

B- is the series of project phases that a project passes through from its initiation to its closure.

C- can be documented with a methodology.

D- all of the above

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24. The initiating process group includes

 A- those processes required to tract, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the
project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding
changes.

B- those processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to
satisfy the project specifications.

C- those processes performed to finalize all activities across all process groups to formally close the
project or phase.

D- those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by
obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.

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25. Which of the following is not an input to developing the project charter?

A- project statement of work

B- business case

C- risk management plan

D- enterprise environmental factors

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26. The business case

A- describes the necessary information to determine whether or not the project is worth the
investment.

B- typically contains the business need and a cost-benefit analysis.

 C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B

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27. Which subsidiary plans are part of the project management plan?

A- work management plan, cost management plan, quality management plan, communication
management plan

B- scope management plan, cost management plan, quality management plan, communication
management plan

C- scope management plan, cost management plan, quality management plan, political
management plan

D- scope management plan, cost management plan, expectations management plan,

communication management plan

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28. An approved change request

A- is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

B- may be a corrective action, a preventative action, or a defect repair.

C- can modify the project budget and schedule.

D- all of the above

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29. When the project manager reviews all change requests, submits each one for approval and then
manages the changes to the deliverables and the project management plan, she is performing

A- change management.

B- integrated change control.

C- neither A nor B

D- both A and B

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30. Regarding change control, which of the following is correct?

A- Only approved changes are incorporated into a revised baseline.

B- Change requests are initiated by the project sponsor only.

C- Only the project manager can reject a change request.

D- Only the project sponsor can reject a change request.

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31. The Change Control Board (CCB) is responsible for

A- documenting all changes requests.

B- procuring the resources for all change requests.

C- naming the project manager and establishing the project budget.

 D- reviewing change requests and approving, rejecting or otherwise disposing of them.

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32. The scope baseline for the project is

A- set forth in the contract.

B- the initial project scope statement.

C- the approved version of the project scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS) and the
WBS dictionary.

D- found in the lessons learned documentation.

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33. To create the Work Breakdown Structure, a project manager

A- lumps together the related project deliverables into larger project phases.

B- subdivides project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components.

C- subdivides the project budget to fit each project phase.

D- lumps together the related work activities to better manage them.

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34. A baseline is
 A- the time in calendar units between the start and finish of a schedule activity.

B- compared to desired project performance to evaluate project success.

C- a component of work performed during the course of the project.

D- compared to actual performance to determine if performance is within acceptable variance

thresholds.

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35. The Scope Management Plan

A. defines when the statement of work will be complete.

B. documents how long it takes to complete each of the work activities.

C. documents how the project scope will be analyzed for scheduling.

D. documents how the project scope will be defined, validated, and controlled.

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36. A requirements traceability matrix

A- links requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them.

B- links requirements to the project sponsor and traces them to the appropriate member of the
project team.

C- is found in the project charter.

D- is a part of the cost management plan.

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37. Which of the following is not a tool or technique for collecting requirements?

A- conducting interviews

B- facilitating focus groups

C- brainstorming

D- preparing a Gantt chart

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38. Joint application design/development (JAD) sessions

A- refer to a type of facilitated workshop used in the software development industry.

B- bring business subject matter experts and the development team together to improve the
software development process.

C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B

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39. A user story is

A- a short, textual description of required functionality.

 B- often developed during a requirements workshop.

C- often used with agile methods.

D- all of the above

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40. Storyboarding

A- involves comparing actual practices to those of comparable industries to identify best practices.

B- provides a basis for measuring performance.

C- is a prototyping technique that illustrates the sequence of or navigation through a series of

images or illustrations.

D- analyzes existing documents to elicit requirements.

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41. Before being baselined, requirements should be

A- approved by the project team.

B- rejected by the Change Control Board.

C- unambiguous (measurable and testable), traceable, complete, consistent, and acceptable to key
stakeholders.

D- none of the above

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42. Benchmarking involves

A- comparing different types of project requirements to determine which ones must be included in
the project scope.

B- calculating the critical path to determine the shortest possible duration for completing a project.

C- reviewing budget forecasts and the actual amounts spent, including all costs of labor, to calculate
the total cost performance.

D- comparing actual or planned practices, such as processes and operation, to those of comparable
organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for
measuring performance.

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43. Alternatives generation is a technique that can be used to help define project scope. It involves
developing as many potential options as possible in order to identify different approaches to execute the
work of the project. Which of the following is a general management technique that can be used to
generate alternatives?

A- forming

B- storming

C- brainstorming

D- norming

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44. A ground excavation project is expected to last for a period of four months. All project work must
cease on rainy days. When preparing the project scope, the rain should be cited as
 A- a constraint.

B- an assumption.

C- an exclusion.

D- a deliverable.

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45. A ground excavation project is expected to last for a period of four months. All project work must
cease on rainy days. Based on prior weather patterns, the project manager suspects it will rain a total of
twelve days. This means, there may be twelve days where work cannot be performed. When preparing
the project scope, the prediction of twelve days of rain should be cited as

A- a constraint.

B- an assumption.

C- an exclusion.

D- a deliverable.

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46. ________ is the work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration can be
estimated and managed.

A- The HBC

B- The project life cycle

C- The project phase

 D- The work package

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47. Its not always possible to decompose a deliverable that will be accomplished far into the future.
Sometimes, a work item may remain to be agreed upon or all information may not be known. Therefore,
items in the very near future are planned in detail and work far into the future is planned at a high level
of the WBS. When more information is known, that work becomes planned at greater detail. This
technique is referred to as

A- excessive decomposition.

B- the 100 percent rule.

C- rolling wave planning.

D- none of the above

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48. The WBS is finalized by assigning each work package to

A- a stakeholder.

B- the scope statement.

C- a control account.

D- the estimated budget.

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49. By controlling the project scope, the project manager ensures all requested changes and
recommendations for corrective or preventative actions are processed through the

A- assignment process.

B- integrated change control process.

C- internal scope control process.

D- requesting organization.

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50. Which of the following is the definition of a project?

A- A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

B- An ongoing activity that is a part of daily operations.

C- neither A nor B

D- both A and B

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1. Which technique can be used to determine the cause and degree of the difference between the
baseline and actual performance?

A- root cause analysis

B- baseline bouncing

C- root cause calculations

D- variance analysis
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2. Change requests can include

A- corrective actions.

B- preventative actions.

C- defect repairs.

D- all of the above

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3. If a change request is approved and the project scope is revised, what must be revised and reissued to
reflect the approved changes?

A- procurements plan

B- cost baseline and schedule baseline

C- human resources plan

D- quality management plan

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4. Which of the following is a scheduling method?

A- critical path method

B- critical string method

C- critical chain method

D- both A and C are correct

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5. Without notice, the previous project manager is fired and Tim is the new project manager. Where
should Tim look to find which scheduling method and scheduling tool is being used?

A- cost management plan

B- quality management plan

C- schedule management plan

D- communications management plan

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6. Which of the following is not a tool or technique for estimating activity duration?

A- analogous estimating

B- cost-basis estimating

C- parametric estimating

D- three-point estimating

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7. The critical chain method is

A- the sequence of schedule activities that determines the duration of the project.

B- a schedule network analysis technique used to determine the amount of scheduling flexibility
(the amount of float) on various network paths.

C- a schedule network analysis technique that modifies the project schedule to account for limited
resources.

D- none of the above

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8. A network diagram is one way to present the

A- project budget.

B- project plan.

C- project schedule.

D- all of the above

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9. A decision to fast track a project schedule could affect

A- project risks.

B- project budget.

C- project cost.

D- all of the above

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10. The schedule management plan might establish the

A- scheduling methodology.

B- variance thresholds for monitoring schedule performance.

C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B
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11. With Earned Value Management (EVM),

A- performance is measured by determining the budgeted cost of work performed and comparing it
to the actual cost of work performed.

B- performance is measured by determining the budgeted cost of work performed and comparing it
to the actual amount of work completed.

C- performance is measured by determining the budgeted cost of work performed and comparing it
to estimated project schedule.

D- performance is measured by determining the actual cost of work performed and comparing it to
the actual project schedule.

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12. Earned Value (EV) is also referred to as

A- the expected net worth (ENW).

B- the estimate to complete (ETC).

C- the expected monetary value (EMV).

D- the budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP).

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13. The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is a measure of schedule efficiency on a project. Which of
following formulas calculate the SPI?

A- Earned Value (EV) minus Planned Value (PV)

B- Earned Value (EV) divided by Planned Value (PV)

 C- Planned Value (PV) minus the Earned Value (EV)

D- none of the above

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14. With respect to creating a WBS, the term decomposition refers to

A- dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more
manageable parts.

B- removing all work packages from the WBS.

C- through a stakeholder approval process, officially eliminating the WBS from the project
management plan.

D- removing those work packages from the WBS that take less than one business day to complete.

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15. Sarah is preparing the project activity list which will include the attributes of each activity. Which of
the following answers best describe activity attributes?

A- activity name or identifier and activity description

B- predecessor activities, successor activities, assumptions and constraints

C- logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, and imposed dates

D- all of the above

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16. The Shiny New project concerns the custom development of a complex business application. The
primary purpose of the new software is to forecast the amount of steel a manufacturing plant must
purchase, 90 days before they need it. Today, the in-progress application was presented to the client and
a major function was presented. This function presented the ability of the application to make the
required forecast. As to the Shiny New project, it reached a major

A- lag.

B- deadline.

C- milestone.

D- lead.

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17. Every activity and milestone except the first and last should be connected to at least one _________
with a finish-to-start or start-to-start logical relationship and at least one ________ with a finish-to-start
or finish-to-finish logical relationship.

A- predecessor, successor

B- minor activity, major activity

C- module, module

D- None of the above.

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18. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

A- is a technique used when performing quality assurance.

B- is a tool for projecting estimated costs.

C- is a technique used for constructing a schedule model.

D- is a technique used for constructing a scope statement.

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19. The precedence diagramming method (PDM) includes four types of dependencies or logical
relationships. Which answer below is not one of them?

A- finish-to-start (FS)

B- finish-to-finish(FF)

C- start-to-stop (SS)

D- start-to-finish (SF)

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20. Which of the following is an example of a finish-to-start logical relationship?

A- Writing (predecessor) is required to finish before proofreading (successor) can finish.

B- Final software testing (successor) can not start until the coding (predecessor) is finished.

C- neither of the above

D- both of the above

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21. Start-to-finish (SF) is a logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot

A- start until a predecessor activity has finished.

B- finish until a predecessor activity has finished.

C- start until a predecessor activity has started.

D- finish until a predecessor activity has started.

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22. In PDM, _____________ is the most commonly used type of precedence relationship.

A- finish-to-finish

B- finish-to-start

C- start-to-start

D- start-to-finish

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23. Bethany is scheduling a project for the construction of a new bike trail. She scheduled the
landscaping to start two weeks prior to the scheduled project completion date. This would be shown as a

A. finish-to-start with a two-week lead.

B. start-to-finish with a two-week lead.

C. finish-to-finish with a two-week lag

D. finish-to-start with a two-week lag

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24. This fishbone diagram illustrates cause and effect. Another name for this diagram is the

A- PERT Chart.

B- Gantt chart.

C- Monte Carlo diagram.

D- Ishikawa diagram.
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25. Jett Kayaks is adding a new manufacturing line and Brandon is the project manager. He estimated the
cost of implementing the new manufacturing line at $47,300. He arrived at this amount by reviewing the
WBS and adding together all estimates of the lower-level components. This method of estimating cost is
called

A- two-point estimating.

B- three-point estimating.

C- bottom-up estimating.

D- top-down estimating

Begin Exam 3

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1. Resource calendars specify

A- when and how long project resources will be available during the project.

B- the overall cost associated with identified project resources.

C- both A and B are correct

D- neither A and B are correct

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2. Analogous estimating, parametric estimating, and three-point estimating are all techniques used to

A- estimate cost.

B- estimate duration.
 C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B

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3. Analogous estimating is a technique that uses

A- histograms to determine activity costs and durations.

B- schedule activities with a low total float to calculate near-critical activities.

C- three cost or duration estimates to represent the optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic
scenarios.

D- values from a previous similar activity (like cost, duration, or size) as the basis for estimating the
same values for a future activity.

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4. Linda is uncertain about the estimates for some project activity durations. To improve the estimates,
she uses a three-point estimating technique to define an approximate range for each activity. She
estimates the expected duration of each activity by calculating a weighted average of the most likely
scenario, an optimistic or best-case scenario, and a pessimistic or worse-case scenario. Linda is relying on
a an estimating technique known as

A- Three-point Estimating Symposium (TES).

B- Forum on Weighted Averages (FOWA).

C- Duration Estimating Workshop (DEW).

D- Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT).

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5. Meg is managing a complex data migration project. Concerning the road ahead, she received
conflicting information from the subject matter experts on her project team. She suspects the loudest
voice may not be correct, but she is having a difficult time getting others to speak up. To identify the
information she needs, she sent a questionnaire to each subject matter expert. Once she received
everyones responses, she summarized them and sent them to all the subject matter experts for further
comment. She did this two more times and finally reached a consensus regarding the best approach.
Meg used the __________ technique to gather information and reach a consensus.

A- Delphi

B- Decision Tree

C- Monte Carlo

D- None of the above.

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6. Contingency reserves should be

A- added to each project activity.

B- added to each project phase.

C- clearly identified in schedule documentation.

D- avoided at all costs.

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7. If an activity duration is documented as 2 weeks 2 days, (assuming a five-day work week) the
activity will take

A- at least eight days and not more than twelve.

B- at least ten days and not more than fourteen.

C- two weeks because the 2 days can be addressed on the weekend or through overtime.
 D- none of the above

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8. Adding features and functionality without addressing the effects on time, costs, and resources or
without customer approval is referred to as

A- scope variation.

B- scope change.

C- scope growth.

D- scope creep.

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9. The project schedule network diagram is is an input to creating the

A- project schedule.

B- risk management plan.

C- project budget.

D- risk register.

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10. Rob must estimate the minimum project duration. What schedule network analysis technique should
he use?

A- automated string analysis

B- total float estimation

 C- critical path method.

D- network path calculation.

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11. Free float can be determined

A- any time after activity durations have been estimated.

B- as soon as all activities are defined.

C- once the total float for a network path has been calculated.

D- none of the above

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12. Positive total float is caused when the backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is
later than the early finish date that has been calculated during forward pass calculation. Negative total
float is caused when

A- a constraint on the late dates is violated by duration and logic.

B- the forward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date
that has been calculated during forward pass calculation.

C- the schedule network contains both leads and lags.

D- none of the above

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13. The critical path is the path on a project network schedule with the

A- shortest duration.
 B- shortest chain.

C- longest chain.

D- longest duration.

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14. On scratch paper, build the following network diagram to answer the next few questions:

Activity A (2 days) can start right away.

Activity B (3 days) and Activity C (4 days) can start after Activity A is finished.

Activity D (5 days) can start after Activity B is finished.

Activity E (1 day) and Activity F (4 days) can start after Activity C is finished.

Activity G (2 days) can start after Activity E is finished.

Activity H (3 days) can start after Activity F is finished.

Activity I (2 days) can start after Activity D, Activity G and Activity H are finished.

After Activity I is finished, the project is complete.

What is the critical path?

A- The critical path is A, B, D, I.

B- The critical path is A, C, F, H, I.

C- The critical path is A, C, E, H, I.

D- The critical path is A, C, E, G, I.

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15. What is the duration of the critical path in question #14?

 A- 10 days

B- 11 days

C- 15 days

D- 16 days

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16. What is the total float of Activity D in question #14?

A- 3 days

B- 12 days

C- 2 days

D- There is no total float.

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17. Apply the Forward Pass formula to calculate the Early Start (ES) date for Activity I in question #14?

A- 9 days

B- 18 days

C- 12 days

D- 13 days

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18. The critical chain method (CCM) is

 A- analogous to the critical path method.

B- a schedule network analysis technique that allows the project team to place buffers on any
project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties.

C- any activity that is on the critical path.

D- none of the above

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19. The critical chain method

A- adds a project buffer at the beginning of the critical chain.

B- removes all project buffers when calculating duration.

C- adds duration buffers that are non-work schedule activities.

D- all of the above

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20. Simply put, resource leveling is

A- an approach to procurements.

B- a cost saving measure.

C- a budget management approach.

D- a resource optimization technique.

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21. Schedule compression techniques are used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the
project scope. Which of the following are schedule compression techniques?

A- smashing

B- crashing

C- fast tracking

D- both B and C

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22. Zack is attempting to complete the project ahead of schedule by adding additional human resources.
Which schedule compression technique is he using?

A- smashing

B- crashing

C- fast tracking

D- storming

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23. Julia plans to shorten the project duration by performing some tasks in parallel. Which schedule
compression technique is she using?

A- smashing

B- crashing

C- fast tracking

D- storming
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24. Schedule performance measurements such as schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance
index (SPI) are used to assess

A- the magnitude of variation to the original schedule baseline.

B- the project completion date.

C- the cost efficiency of the project.

D- the magnitude of variation to the original cost estimates.

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25. Earned value management (EVM) is

A- used on all projects to monitor schedule performance.

B- used on all projects to measure cost performance.

C- used on all projects to measure risk.

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