Volume 3-2016-Agricultural, Food, and Feed Process Engineering

Draft: May 2016
A.T.Belonio
D.A.H. Belonio
2016
Agricultural, Food
and Feed Process
Engineering
VOLUME
AG R I C U LT U R A L ENGINEERING REVIEWER
Agricultural, Food and Feed
Process Engineering
AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING REVIEWER VOLUME 3
by
Alexis T. Belonio, MS, PAE, ASEAN Engineer

Daniel Alexis H. Belonio, PAE
Copyright 2016
No part of this book is allowed to be photocopied or reproduced in any form

without any written permission from the author.
Revised Edition
Acknowledgment/Prayer:
We are very much thankful to you God the Father for inspiring us to prepare this review
material to help those who graduated the agricultural engineering degree to pass the
Professional Agricultural Engineering Licensure Examination. May you grant them the
desires of their hearts to pass the exam and be used by You in the future years to come!
All glory and honor belongs to You! In Jesus name, Amen!

PREFACE
This book, Agricultural Engineering Comprehensive Board Exam Reviewer
Volume 3, was prepared primarily for the agricultural engineering graduates
who are preparing for the professional agricultural engineering licensure
examination. With this material, they can be refreshed and updated on the
new principles and developments in agricultural engineering. Also, they can
develop their analytical ability in analyzing the problems related to current
practices in agricultural engineering.
The contents of the book are series of questions and problems that compel
the students to review the fundamentals, theories, and concepts in
agricultural engineering. The questions and problems are grouped into
subtopics. Most questions are practical in nature but tricky to test whether
students have thorough understanding of the principles in each of the
different subject matters in agricultural and food process engineering. The
answer for each question and problem is provided at the end of every topic.
This book is the third of the six volumes of the Reviewer. It focuses on the
different topics on agricultural, food, and feed process engineering. It also
includes specific topics on refrigeration, cold storage, heat transfer, and
thermal insulation.
This book is still in draft form and is produced in limited copies. Additional
items will be included in the future to make this material more
comprehensive. Comments and suggestions are welcome for the
improvement of this book.
May this book become useful to the aspiring Agricultural Engineers as they
prepare for the Agricultural Engineering Board Examination. God bless!
ALEXIS T. BELONIO
DANIEL ALEXIS H. BELONIO
Table of Contents
No. of
Pages
General Information
Basic Engineering
Properties of Agricultural and Food Products
Moisture Content
Cleaning, Grading, and Sorting
Size Reduction and Sieving
Mixing and Blending
Air Moving Device
Material Handling
Crop Drying
Crop Storage
Rice Milling
Corn Milling
Coconut Flour Processing
Sugar Processing
Food Process Engineering
Feed Milling
Refrigeration and Cold Storage
Heat Transfer and Thermal Insulation
General
Information
1. A study that deals with the principles 5. These are crops that have high
and practices of processing agricultural moisture content of 30% and more such
products suitable for food and feeds. as fruits and vegetables including dairy,
a. Agricultural processing meat, poultry, and fish and easily
b. Food processing deteriorate or spoil.
c. Feed processing a. Perishable crops
d. All of the above b. Durable crops
c. Flexible crops
2. A study that deals with the d. None of the above
application and practices in converting
agricultural products into different 6. Processing operation which does not
kinds and forms of food. significantly change the physical
a. Agricultural processing characteristics of the product such as
b. Food processing drying and dehydration of fruits and
c. Feed processing vegetables.
d. All of the above a. Primary processing
b. Secondary processing
3. A study that deals with the c. Tertiary processing
application and practices in converting d. None of the above
agricultural products into different
kinds and forms of food suitable for 7. Processing operation which changes
animal consumption. the physical properties of the product
a. Agricultural processing such as processing banana into catsup.
b. Food processing a. Primary processing
c. Feed processing b. Secondary processing
d. All of the above c. Tertiary processing
d. None of the above
4. These are crops that are produced
and harvested with normally low 8. Which country do not belong to the
moisture content of about 20 to 30% ASEAN Free Trade Agreement?
and do not easily deteriorate or spoil. a. China
a. Perishable crops b. Japan
b. Durable crops c. Korea
c. Flexible crops d. All of the above
d. None of the above e. None of the above
Basic Engineering
1. The study that deals with fluids at 6. Newtons law of motion states that:
rest such as those fluids like coconut oil, a. Everybody continues in a state of rest
milk, etc. or of uniform motion in a straight line
a. Hydrodynamic unless compelled by force to change that
b. Hydrostatic state.
c. Hydro pneumatic b. The rate of change of momentum is
d. None of the above proportional to the force applied and
took place in the direction of the force
2. The study that deals with the various application.
factors affecting the relationship c. To every action there is always an
between the rate of flow of fluid and equal and opposite reaction.
the various pressure tending it to cause d. All of the above
or inhibit its flow.
a. Hydrodynamic 7. Mass flow rate states that:
b. Hydrostatic a. The rate of flow of fluid is constant at
c. Hydro pneumatic any point in the system and there is no
d. None of the above accumulation or depletion of fluid within
the system.
3. Fluids include ___. b. The rate of flow of fluid is not
a. solid, gas, and liquid constant at any point in the system and
b. gas and liquid there is accumulation or depletion of
c. liquid fluid within the system.
d. all of the above c. The rate of flow of fluid increases at
any point of the system and there is
4. Which of the following resources are accumulation and no depletion within
considered fluid? the system.
a. Biogas d. None of the above
b. Producer gas
c. Bioethanol 8. What is the mass flow rate of coconut
d. Coconut oil oil in a 2-in. pipe if the velocity of the
e. Sugar cane juice fluid is measured at 0.02 m/s? The
f. All of the above specific weight of oil is 1500 kg/m3.
g. None of the above a. 3.54 kg/sec
b. 3.13 kg/sec
5. Which of the following resources are c. 2.35 kg/sec
not fluid? d. None of the above
a. Biomass
b. Grains and Cereals
c. Fruits and vegetables
d. All of the above
Basic Engineering
9. Which of the following factors affect 14. Reynolds number equation.

the flow of fluid in pipes? a. Re = DV/
a. Characteristics of fluid b. Re = DV/
b. Size of pipe c. Re = DV/
c. Shape of pipe d. None of the above
d. Condition inside the surface of the
pipe 15. This refers to the characteristics of
e. Fluid velocity fluid that is linearly related to shear
f. All of the above force.
g. None of the above a. Newtonian fluid
b. Non-Newtonian fluid
10. When fluids flow in parallel c. All of the above
elements, it is classified as ___. d. None of the above
a. turbulent flow
b. laminar flow 16. This refers to the characteristics of
c. mixture of laminar and turbulent fluid not linear with the shear force.
flow a. Newtonian fluid
d. None of the above b. Non-Newtonian fluid
c. All of the above
11. When fluids flow in elemental swirl d. None of the above
or eddies, it is classified as ___.
a. turbulent flow 17. An example of Newtonian fluid.
b. laminar flow a. Coconut oil
c. mixture of laminar and turbulent b. Butter
flow c. Slurries
d. None of the above d. None of the above
12. This refers to the internal resistance 18. An example of Non-Newtonian fluid.
of fluid to shear. a. Purees
a. Viscosity b. Jathropha oil
b. Coefficient of friction of fluid to fluid c. Coconut water
c. All of the above d. None of the above
19. The characteristic of agricultural
13. Reynolds number is a function of products that determines the angle by
the ___. which it will move freely by gravity with
a. inside diameter of the pipe respect to the material in which it is
b. velocity of fluid inside the pipe held, such as hopper bottom of a storage
c. specific weight of the fluid bin structure.
d. fluid viscosity a. Angle of repose
e. All of the above b. Angle of friction
f. None of the above c. Angle of slide
Basic Engineering
20. The angle formed by agricultural 25. The plenum chamber of a flatbed
product itself with respect to the dryer registers 2 inches of water. How
horizontal axis which varies with the much is the equivalent pressure of the
moisture content and the amount of chamber in psig?
foreign matter. a. 0.072 psig
a. Angle of repose b. 1.201 psig
b. Angle of friction c. 1.537 psig
c. Angle of slide d. None of the above
26. The pressure taken perpendicular
21. The unit of pressure. from the direction of fluid where sample
a. Psi application of which is taking the velocity
b. Inches of water of flow of fluid in pipes using pitot- tube
c. Inches of mercury manometer.
d. All of the above a. Static pressure
e. None of the above b. Dynamic pressure
c. Isothermic pressure
22. High pressure is usually expressed d. None of the above
in ___.
a. psi 27. The pressure taken from the
b. inches of water direction of fluid which is also the
c. inches of mercury pressure resulting from force due to
d. All of the above change in velocity of the fluid.
e. None of the above a. Static pressure
b. Dynamic pressure
23. Low pressure is usually expressed in c. Isothermic pressure
___. d. None of the above
a. psi
b. inches of water 28. A simple device used to measure
c. inches of mercury pressure by taking the difference in the
d. All of the above height of fluid inside a tube.
e. None of the above a. Pyschrometer
b. Hydrometer
24. Very low pressure is usually c. Manometer
expressed in ___. d. None of the above
a. psi
b. inches of water 29. An open tube pointing to the
c. inches of mercury direction of flow of the fluid that is
d. All of the above usually used with manometer to
e. None of the above measure static and dynamic pressures.
a. Pitot-Tube
b. Orifice
c. Weir
Basic Engineering
30. Which of the following instruments 36. The energy available from moving
can measure the flow of fluid? fluids.
a. Pitot tube a. Pressure Energy
b. Venturi meter b. Kinetic Energy
c. Hot wire anemometer c. Potential Energy
d. All of the above d. None of the above
e. None of the above
37. In fluid mechanics, the total hydraulic
31. Which of the following fluids is energy is the sum of ___ energy plus the
considered as highly incompressible? work supplied by the pump or blower
a. Flue gases less friction (conduit and fittings) in the
b. Biogas system.
c. Vegetable oil a. potential and kinetic
d. All of the above b. pressure and kinetic
c. potential, kinetic, and pressure
32. Which of the following fluids is d. None of the above
considered as compressible?
a. Producer gas 38. Which of the following statements is
b. Vegetable oil true?
c. Molasses a. The velocity of fluid flowing in a pipe
d. None of the above is highest at the center and decreases
towards its surfaces.
33. The mass flow rate equation: b. The velocity gradient for streamlined
a. Q = AV flow in a long circular conduit is
b. Q = AV parabolic in shape.
c. Q = A c. The velocity gradient for turbulent
d. None of the above flow flattens and the relationship
between the maximum and the average
34. The available energy due to the velocity changes.
elevation above a reference plane. d. All of the above
a. Pressure Energy e. None of the above
b. Kinetic Energy
c. Potential Energy 39. The process which results in the
d. None of the above diffusion of substances from the region
of high concentration to the region of
35. The available energy due to the low concentration.
internal pressure. a. Energy transfer
a. Pressure Energy b. Mass transfer
b. Kinetic Energy c. Heat transfer
c. Potential Energy d. None of the above
Basic Engineering
40. The amount of heat transfer from

within the product.
a. Thermal diffusivity
b. Thermal conductivity
c. Thermal expansion
Basic Engineering
Conversion of Units
Inches of water Psi x 27.648
Inches of water In. mercury x 13.6
psi In. of water x 0.0361
psi In. mercury x 0.491
Inches mercury Psi x 2.036
Inches of mercury In. of water x 0.0736
Static Pressure Continuity Equation
P = WH Q =A V
where: where:
P - intensity of pressure, kg/m2 Q - discharge, m3/sec
W - unit weight of liquid, 1000 kg/m3 A - cross sectional area of pipe, m2
H - depth of water, m V - average velocity of water, m/s
Velocity of Flow Friction Loss in Pipe
V = [2 g H] 1/2 Hf = [f L V2 ] / [2 g D]
where: where:
V - velocity of flow, m/s Hf - pressure loss in pipe, m
g - gravitational acceleration, m/s2 f - friction factor
H - height of water, m L - length of pipe, m
V - average velocity of water in pipe, m/s
g - gravitational acceleration, 9.8 m/s2
D - pipe diameter, m
Flow from Vertical Pipe (50- to 200-mm Pipe Flow from Vertical Pipe (50- to 200-mm Pipe
Diameter with H = 0.075 to 0.1m ) Diameter with H = 0.3 to 0.6m )
0.87 D2 H 1/2 0.97 D2 H 1/2
Q = -------------------- Q = --------------------
287 287
where: where:
Q - pipe discharge, lps Q - pipe discharge, lps
D - pipe diameter, mm D - pipe diameter, mm
H - vertical rise of water jet, m H - vertical rise of water jet, m
Flow from Horizontal Pipe

Q = 3.6 A X/ y
where:
Q - discharge, gpm
A - cross sectional area of water at the end
of the pipe, in2
X - coordinate of the point on the surface
measured parallel to the pipe, in
y - vertical coordinate, in
Basic Engineering
Problem 1
What is the rate of flow of coconut oil in a 2- in.

pipe if the velocity of the fluid is measured at 0.02
m/s? The specific weight of oil is 1500 kg/m3.
Given:
Inside diameter of pipe - 2 in.
Fluid velocity - 0.02 m/s
Specific weight of fluid - 1500 kg/m3
Required: Mass flow rate
Solution:
Q = AVd
= 3.14 (2 in.)2/4 x 0.025 m/in. x 0.02 m/s
x 1500 kg/m3
= 2.35 kg/sec
Basic Engineering
Problem 2
A coconut oil is to be pumped into a

6meter-high tank from the pump at 100 kg
per minute rate. The container where the
oil is contained is located 1 m below the
pump. The estimated dynamic head loss in
the system is 0.2 m of water. What is the
horsepower required to pump the oil?
Assume a 0.93 kg/l specific weight of oil.
Also ,compute the brake horsepower and
motor horsepower, if the efficiencies for
pump, transmission, and motor are 60%,
80%, and 90%, respectively.
Given:
Q - 100 kg/min
Hsd - 6m
Hss - 1m
Hd - 0.2 m
Y - 0.93 kg/l
Required: Fluid Horsepower
Solution:
FHP = Q H Y / 33,000 ft-lb/min

Q = 100 kg/min
= 220 lb/min
H = (6 m + 1 m + 0.2 m) x 3.28 ft/m
= 23.6 ft
FHP = 220 lb/min x 23.616 ft / 33,000 ft-
lb/min-hp
= 0.158 hp
BHP = FHP / Ep
= 0.158 hp / 0.6
= 0.263 hp
MHP = BHP / (Em x Et)
= 0.263 hp / (0.9 x 0.8)
= 0.36 hp
Therefore, use -hp pump.

Basic Engineering
Problem 3
A rotary pump is used in pumping

vegetable oil to a tank at a rate of 1
gpm. The pump is driven directly by an
electric motor with an input power of
1.5 hp running at 1700-rpm speed. The
total head loss of the system is 10 m. If
the motor drives the pump at 2200 rpm,
what is the rate of flow of the pump?
What is the change in the total head
delivered by the pump? What would be
the increase in the input power of the
pump?
Given:
Q1 - 1 gpm
HP1 - 1.5 hp
N1 - 1700 rpm
H1 - 10 m
N2 - 2200 rpm
Required: Q2, HP2, and H2
Solution:
N1/N2 = Q1/Q2
Q2 = N2Q1/N1
= 2200 rpm ( 1gpm)/1700 rpm
= 1.294 gpm
N12/N22 = H1/H2
H2 = H1 (N22) / N12
= 10 m (2200 rpm)2 / (1700 rpm)2
= 16.75 m
N13/N23 = HP1/HP2
HP2 = HP1 (N23) / N13
= 1.5 hp (2200 rpm)3 / (1700 rpm)3
= 3.25 hp
Properties of Agricultural Products
1. The unhulled grain of Oryza sativa. 7. The slender type paddy has ___
a. Palay length to width ratio.
b. Paddy a. less than 2.0
c. Rough rice b. between 2 to 3
d. All of the above c. more than 3.0
2. The fibrous layer of paddy when hull
is removed and is commonly known as 8. The free space between the husk of
the silver skin of brown rice. rough rice and the brown rice kernel
a. Lemma and Palea greatly affects milling in the sense that
b. Pericarp ___.
c. Bran layer a. the larger the free space the greater
d. None of the above is the amount of broken grains
b. the smaller the free space the
3. An angle with tangent equals the lesser its abrasive effect to the
coefficient of friction between surfaces rubber-roll huller
of the stored materials. c. the larger the free space, the
a. Angle of contact lesser the breakage and losses
b. Angle of friction d. All of the above
c. Angle of repose
d. All for the above 9. The uneven expansion and
contraction of the inner and the outer
4. The coefficient of friction of rice to layers of the grains that cause fissuring is
steel material is 0.41. What would be a factor of ___.
the minimum angle of the hopper a. mechanical stress
required for the system? b. thermal stress
a. 22 deg. c. physical stress
b. 30 deg. d. All of the above
c. 50 deg. e. None of the above
10. The specific gravity of rice.
5. The drying temperature of copra is a. 1.11 to 1.12
___. b. 1.19 to 1.30
a. less than 50C c. 1.22 to 1.26
b. between 50 to 95C d. None of the above
c. above 95C
d. None of the above 11. The specific gravity of corn.
a. 1.11 to 1.12
6. The density of pig and poultry feeds b. 1.19 to 1.30
is approximately ___. c. 1.22 to 1.26
a. 250 kg/m3 d. None of the above
b. 450 kg/m3
c. 650 kg/m3
12. The specific gravity of sorghum 19. The angle of friction of rough rice in
a. 1.11 to 1.12 steel.
b. 1.19 to 1.30 a. 0.41
c. 1.22 to 1.26 b. 0.37
d. None of the above c. 0.36
13. The bulk density of rough rice.
a. 25 lbs/ft3 20. The angle of friction of shelled corn
b. 36 lbs/ft3 in steel.
c. 45 lbs/ft3 a. 0.41
d. None of the above b. 0.37
c. 0.36
14. The bulk density of shelled corn. d. None of the above
a. 25 lbs/ft3
b. 36 lbs/ft3 21. The angle of friction of soybean in
c. 45 lbs/ft3 steel.
d. None of the above a. 0.41
b. 0.37
15. The physical properties of important c. 0.36
agricultural processing. d. None of the above
a. Surface area
b. Porosity 22. Which of the following thermal
c. Bulk density properties are important in agricultural
d. Angle of repose processing?
e. Angle of friction a. Thermal conductivity
f. All of the above b. Specific heat
c. Coefficient of thermal expansion
16. The angle of repose of rough rice. d. Heat of vaporization
a. 27 degrees e. Thermal diffusivity
b. 33 degree f. All of the above
c. 36 degrees
d. None of the above 23. The thermal conductivity of paddy
grain ___ linearly with temperature,
17. The angle of repose of shelled corn. bulk density, and moisture content.
a. 27 degrees a. increases
b. 33 degree b. decreases
c. 36 degrees c. do not increase or decrease
18. The angle of repose of sorghum.

a. 27 degrees
b. 33 degree
c. 36 degrees
24. The amount of heat required to 30. The equivalent loss in the dry matter
raise the temperature of the product of a product due to respiration during
one degree higher when heat is added. storage.
a. Heat of vaporization a. Moisture loss
b. Specific heat b. Dry matter loss
c. Thermal diffusivity c. Respiration loss
25. The amount of heat required to 31. The pressure drop in the product
remove a certain amount of moisture during drying is a function of ___.
from the product. a. airflow
a. Heat of vaporization b. amount of foreign matter present
b. Specific heat c. moisture content
c. Thermal diffusivity d. depth of drying
d. None of the above e. All of the above
26. Hygroscopic properties important in 32. The terminal velocity of rough rice.
agricultural processing. a. 1.3 to 5.2 m/s
a. Equilibrium moisture content b. 6.0 to 7.1 m/s
b. Mass transfer coefficient c. 7.5 to 9.0 m/s
c. Dry matter loss d. None of the above
d. Tempering period
e. All of the above
27. The property of a product that holds

moisture when subjected to a prolong
condition of known temperature and
relative humidity.
a. Dry matter loss
b. Mass transfer coefficient
c. Equilibrium moisture content
29. The mass transfer among

agricultural products is a function of
___.
a. air temperature
b. air relative humidity
c. airflow rate
d. thickness
e. All of the above
Paddy Porosity Thermal Conductivity of Paddy Grains

Pm = 69.05 - 0.885 M K = 0.0500135 + 0.000767 M
Pl = 65.55 - 0.475 M where:
where: K thermal conductivity, BTU/hr-ft-F
Pm porosity for medium paddy, % M moisture content, % wet basis
Pl porosity for long paddy, %t
M moisture content wet basis, %
Specific Heat of Paddy Length of Paddy (Short Grain)
C = 0.22008 + 0.01301 M 11.21%M21.89%
where: L = 0.7318 + 0.00122 M
C specific heat, BTU/lb-F where:
M moisture content, % wet basis L - length of paddy, cm
M moisture content of paddy, %
Width of Paddy (Short Grain) Thickness of Paddy (Short Grain)
11.21%M21.89% 10.40%M22.59%
W = 0.3358 + 0.00089 M T = 0.2187 + 0.000089 M
where: where:
W - width of paddy, cm T - thickness of paddy, cm
M moisture content of paddy, % M moisture content of paddy, %
Coefficient of Thermal Expansion of Milled Coefficient of Thermal Expansion of Milled
Rice (For Temperature Below 53C) Rice (For Temp. Equal and Above 53C)
Ck = 0.0002403 perC Ck = 0.0003364 perC
where: where:
Ck coefficient of thermal expansion at Ck coefficient of thermal expansion at
storage moisture over a temperature storage moisture over a temperature
of 30-70C of 30-70C
Latent Heat of Vaporization of Paddy Equilibrium Moisture Content
HV = 2.32 [1094-1.026 x Md = E F ln [ -R ( T + C) ln RH ]
(T+17.78)] x [1 + 2.4962 where:
Exp (-21.73M)] Md moisture content, decimal dry basis
where: E constant, 0.0183212 to 0.480920
HV latent heat of vaporization, KJ/kg F constant, 0.026383 to 0.066826
T air temperature, C R universal gas constant, 1.987
M moisture content, decimal dry basis T temperature, C
C constant, 12.354 to 120.098
RH relative humidity, decimal
Mass Transfer Coefficient of Paddy
Kg = 0.008489-0.000225T
+0.000236 RH 0.00042 Q
where:
Kg mass transfer coefficient, moisture
decimal drybasi-cm2/h-m2-kg
T temperature of drying air, C
RH relative humidity, %
Q airflow rate of drying air, m3/min
Problem 1
What is the porosity of a medium-sized paddy having 21% moisture content wet
basis? If the paddy is to be dried to 14% wet basis, what is the percentage increase
in the porosity of the sample?
Given:
MC wb 1 - 21%
MCwb 2 - 14%
Required: Porosity and percentage increase if

sample is dried to 14%
Solution:
At 21% MC, PM = 69.05 - 0.885 MC
= 69.05 0.885 (0.21)
= 68.86%
At 14% MC, PM = 69.05 0.885 MC
= 69.05 0.885 (0.14)
= 68.92%
% Increased = (68.92% - 68.86%) x 100 / 68.86%
= 0.1%
Problem 2
A receiving pit for rough rice is to be designed for a rice mill. If concrete material is
to be used, what is the minimum angle of inclination of the pit to make it self-
emptying? Consider a 0.52 coefficient of friction for rough rice to smooth concrete.
If steel will be used instead of concrete with 0.46 coefficient of friction, what will
be the inclination needed for the pit?
Given:
Material - rough rice
Coef. of friction to concrete - 0.52
Coef. of friction to steel - 0.46
Required: Minimum angle of friction to

concrete and steel materials
Solution:
Angle of friction for concrete = tan -1 0.52
for concrete
= 27.47 degrees
Angle of friction for steel = tan -1 0.46 for steel
= 24.70 degrees
Problem 3
Ten tons of shelled corn is to be stored in a cylindrical silo. Loading is from the
bottom to the top of the cylindrical container, without considering the additional
volume of the cone due to the effect of the angle of repose of the sample. If the
silo requires a ratio of 2D = H, what would be the dimension of the silo? Assume a
45 lb/ft3 bulk density for shelled corn.
Given:
Sample - shelled corn
Weight of sample - 10 tons
Ratio - 2D = H
Density of sample - 45 lb/ft3
Required: Dimension of silo
Solution:
Volume of paddy = Weight/Density

= [10 tons x 1000 kg/ton]/[45 lb/ft3 x kg/2.2lb x (3.28 ft/m)3 ]
= 13.85 m3
D2 /4 x H = 13.85 m3
D2/4 x 2 D = 13.85 m3
D3 = (8/) 13.85 m3
D = 2.07 m
H = 4.14 m
Problem 4
What is the amount of heat

needed to raise the temperature of
a 1.5-tons medium-sized paddy
from 27C to 45C? The moisture
content of paddy is
14% wet basis.
Given:
Sample - paddy
Weight of sample - 1.5 tons
Initial temperature of sample - 27C (106.2F)
Final temperature of sample - 45C (138.6F)
Moisture content - 14% wet basis
Required: Heat energy required to raise the

temperature of the sample
Solution:
C = 0.22008 + 0.1301 M
= 0.22008 + 0.1301 (0.14)
= 0.22190 BTU/lb-F
Qs = 1.5 tons x 0.2219 BTU/lb-F x (138.6F 106.2F)

= 23,725.548 BTU
Problem 5
What is the latent heat of vaporization of paddy at 28% moisture content wet
basis and at 40C temperature. If 200-kg moisture will be removed from the bulk
of paddy, what is the amount of heat required to remove it?
Given:
Moisture content - 28% wet basis
Temperature - 40C
Moisture to be removed - 200 kg
Required: Latent heat of vaporization

Amount of heat required to remove the moisture
Solution:
HV = 2.32 [1094-1.026(T+17.78)][1+2.4962 21.73 M]

= 2.32 [1094 1.026 (40C + 17.78][1+2.496 21.73 (0.28)]
= 2,409.731 kJ/kg of water
Heat to be removed = HV x Moisture to be removed

= 2,409.731 kJ/kg x 200 kg
= 481,946.2 kJ
Problem 6
Five hundred tons of paddy, at 16% wet basis, is to be stored in a silo for 6 months.
If the storage temperature in the warehouse will be maintained at 95F, what
would be the expected weight of the paddy after the storage period? Neglect
losses due to insect and pests.
Given:
Product - paddy
Weight of product - 500 tons
Storage time - 6 months
Moisture content - 16%
Storage temperature - 95F
Required: Weight of paddy after storage
Solution:
DML = 1- exp [(A x TC) exp [D (T-60)] exp (E (W-0.14))]

= 1-exp [(-0.000914 x 4.32 0.6540) exp [0.03756 (95-60)]
Exp [33.61 (0.16 0.14)]]
= 1 exp [-(0.00237)(3.715)(1.958)]
= 1 0.983
= 0.01
Therefore, the weight of paddy after 6 months is 491.45 tons.

Problem 7
If the coefficient of friction of rice to steel

material is 0.41, what is the minimum angle of
hopper required for the system?
Given:
Coefficient of friction - 0.41
Required: Angle of friction of the hopper
Solution:
tan = 0.41
= tan -1 0.41
= 22.3
Problem 8
A grain dryer was used to reduce the moisture content of

four tons of paddy rice from 25% to 15% wet basis. What
is the amount of moisture removed?
Given:
MC initial - 25%
MC final - 14%
Initial weight - 4 tons
Required: Weight of moisture removed
Solution:
Wt. of Moisture removed = Wi - Wf

Wt. final = Wi (1 MCi) / (1 MCf)
= 4 tons (1- 0. 25) / (1 -0.14)
= 4(0.75) / (0.86)
= 3.53 tons
Wt. of moisture removed = 4 tons 3.53 tons
= 0.47 ton
Moisture Content
1. The amount of moisture in the grain 6. The method of measuring the

expressed as a percentage of the total moisture content of the product by
weight of the samples. direct extraction of water.
a. Moisture content dry basis a. Primary method
b. Moisture content wet basis b. Secondary method
c. Moisture content c. Tertiary method
2. The amount of moisture in the grain 7. If a product has 12% moisture

expressed as a percentage of the content expressed in wet basis, the
weight of dry matter. equivalent percentage moisture content
a. Moisture content dry basis in dry basis is ___.
b. Moisture content wet basis a. 13.6%
c. Moisture content b. 16.3%
d. None of the above c. 13.4%
3. A moisture meter that determines
the moisture content of the product 8. A product has 25% moisture content
based on the ability of the current to expressed in dry basis. What is the
pass through the material. percentage moisture content of the
a. Capacitance-type moisture meter product in wet basis?
b. Resistance-type meter a. 20%
c. Infrared moisture meter b. 22%
d. All of the above c. 26%
4. The moisture found on the surface
of the material. 9. An expression of moisture content
a. Unbound water commonly used in commercial scale.
b. Bound water a. Moisture content wet basis
c. Free moisture b. Moisture content dry basis
d. All of the above c. Moisture content
d. All of the above
5. When the amount of water in a
product is determined based on its dry 10. A plot or a graph representing the
matter content, the moisture content is equilibrium moisture content of grains at
expressed in ___. different relative humidity but with
a. wet basis constant temperature.
b. dry basis a. Isothermal graph
c. semi wet basis b. Sorption isotherms
d. None of the above c. Isothermal humidity
Moisture Content
11. An important index to determine 16. The appliance usually used in

whether the paddy is ready for calibrating resistance- and capacitor-
harvesting, storage or milling. type moisture meters.
a. Color a. Oven
b. Moisture content b. Distillation
c. Hardness c. Infrared
d. None of the above d. All of the above
12. The moisture inside the tissue of a 17. The device used by the industry in
material that can only be removed by determining moisture content of grains.
heating or reducing the vapor pressure a. Oven
within the material. b. Electrical resistance and capacitance-
a. Chemically bound moisture type meter
b. Bound moisture c. Infrared moisture meter
c. Free moisture d. All of the above
d. All of the above
18. If 20 kg of water is to be removed
13. The difficult-to-remove moisture from 110-kg paddy, what is the
from the product that requires other percentage moisture content of the
method than heating in order to paddy in wet basis?
remove it. a. 14.5%
a. Chemically-bound moisture b. 16.9%
b. Bound moisture c. 18.18%
c. Free moisture d. None of the above
d. All of the above
19. What is the percentage moisture
14. Which of the following is considered content of the paddy in Item 18 above
primary method in determining when expressed in dry basis?
moisture content? a. 16.4%
a. Oven method b. 19.9%
b. Distillation method c. 22.2%
c. Infrared method d. None of the above
d. All of the above
e. None of the above 20. Determine the amount of moisture
that can be removed from 9 tons of
15. Which of the following is considered paddy with 24% initial moisture content
secondary method in determining dried to 14%.
moisture content? a. 1.05 tons
a. Electrical resistance method b. 1.26 tons
b. Electrical capacitance method c. 1.57 tons
c. Chemical method d. None of the above
d. Hygrometric method
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
Moisture Content
Moisture Content (Wet Basis) Moisture Content (Dry Basis)

MCw = (Ws Wdm)100 / Ws MCd = (Ws Wdm) 100 / Wdm
where: where:
MCw - moisture content wet basis, % MCw - moisture content wet basis, %
MCd - moisture content dry basis, % MCd - moisture content dry basis, %
Ws - weight of sample, g Ws - weight of sample, g
Wdm - weight of dry mater, g Wdm - weight of dry mater, g
Wet Basis to Dry Basis Dry Basis to Wet Basis
MCd = MCw 100 / (100 MCw) MCw = MCd 100 / (100 + MCd)
where: where:
MCd - moisture content dry basis, % MCd - moisture content dry basis, %
MCw - moisture content wet basis, % MCw - moisture content wet basis, %
Moisture Loss
Wi ( 1 MCi ) = Wf ( 1- MCf )
ML = Wi - Wf
where:
Wi - initial weight of sample, kg
Wf - final weight of sample, kg
Mci - initial moisture content, % wb
MCf - final moisture content, % wb
ML - moisture loss, kg
Moisture Content
Problem 1
What is the amount of moisture to be removed

from a material with 14.5% moisture content
and 76 kg dry matter weight?
Given:
MCi - 14.5%
Wdm - 76 kg
Required: Amount of moisture to be removed
Solution:
MC = Wmr x 100 / (Ww + Wdm)

Wmr = 0.145 (Wm + 76 kg)
Wmr = 0.145 Wmr + 11.02 kg
0.855 Wmr = 11.02 kg
Wmr = 11.02 kg / 0.855
= 12.89 kg
Problem 2
What is the percentage moisture content of

paddy in Problem 1 above when expressed in dry
basis?
Given:
MCw - 14.5%
Required: MCd
Solution:
MCd = (MCw x 100 )/ (100 - MCw)

= (14.5 x 100) / (100-14.5)
= 16.95%
Moisture Content
Problem 3
What is the equilibrium moisture content of paddy stored in bags at 27C storage
temperature with 90% humidity. If the moisture content of paddy stored is 14%
wet basis, is there a danger for the grains to deteriorate when the condition
prevails for a longer period?
Given:
Storage temperature - 27C
Storage humidity - 90%
Moisture content of sample - 14%
Required: Equilibrium moisture content
Solution:
Md = E F ln [-R (T+C) ln RH)

= 0.325 0.046 ln [-1.987 (27 +35.703) ln (0.90)
= 0.206 or 20.66% moisture dry basis
Mw = Md 100 / (100 Md)

= 20.6% x 100 / (100 20.6%)
= 17.08%
Problem 4
If 20 kg of water is removed from a 110-kg paddy,

what is the percentage moisture content of paddy
in wet basis?
Given:
Wm - 20 kg
Wi - 110 kg
Required: % MC wet basis
Solution:
% MCw = ( Wi Wf ) x 100 / Wi
= ( 20 kg / 110 kg ) x 100
= 18.18 %
Moisture Content
Problem 5
If a product has 12% moisture content

wet basis, what is the equivalent
percentage moisture content in dry
basis?
Given:
MCw - 12%
Required: MCd
Solution:
MCd = MCw x 100 / (100 MCw)

= 12 x 100 / ( 100 12 )
= 13.64%
Problem 6
A product has 25% moisture content,

expressed in dry basis . What is the
percentage moisture content of the
product in wet basis?
Given:
MCd - 25%
Required: MCw
Solution:
MCw = MCd x 100 / (MCd + 100)

= ( 25 x 100 ) / (25 + 100 )
= 20%
Moisture Content
Problem 7
If 9 tons of a product is to be dried from 24%

to 14%, what would be the final weight of
the product?
Given:
Wi - 9 tons
MCi - 24%
MCf - 14%
Required: Weight final
Solution:
Wi ( 1 Mci ) = Wf (1- MCf)

Wf = Wi (1-MCi) / (1-MCf)
= 9 tons (1-0.24) / (1.014)
= 7.9 tons
Problem 8
What is the moisture loss of the product in

Problem 7 above?
Given:
Wf - 7.9 tons
Required: Moisture loss
Solution:
ML = Wi Wf
ML = 9 tons 7.9 tons
= 1.05 tons
Moisture Content
Problem 9
Shelled corn initially at 24% is to be dried to 14%. If the

initial weight of the shelled corn is 1000 kilos, what is its
final weight?
Given:
Grain - corn
MC initial - 24%
MC final - 14%
Initial weight - 1000 kg
Required: Final wt. of the corn
Solution:
Wi (1 MCi)
Wt. = (1 - MCf)
1000 kg (1 0.24) = (1 0.14)
= 883.72 kg
Problem 10
Referring to Problem 9, what is the moisture loss of corn

grains?
Given:
Wt. - 883.72 kg
Required: Moisture loss
Solution:
Moisture loss = Wti - Wtf

= 1000 kg 883.72 kg
= 116.28 kg
1. The percentage of grains that are 7. The rough cleaning of paddy

free from foreign matter. removing most foreign materials prior to
a. Percentage foreign matter drying and storage.
b. Percentage Cleanliness a. Aspiration
c. Purity b. Scalping
d. None of the above c. Sieving
d. All of the above
2. A type of screen cleaners that uses
air blast to assist in the cleaning. 8. A kind of cleaner that uses air in
a. Screen separator separating lesser-density materials from
b. Fanning mill corn kernel/corn grits such as floured
c. Blower corn, germ and bran.
d. None of the above a. Aspirator
b. Oscillating screen
3. The process of separating lower c. Cleaner
density materials from grains. d. Cyclone separator
a. Aspiration e. All of the above
b. Cleaning
c. Fanning 9. The process of removing
d. All of the above contaminants from the product.
a. Sorting
4. A primary cleaner which separates b. Grading
larger particles from rice, also known as c. Cleaning
rough cleaning of rough rice. d. None of the above
a. Rotary sieve
b. Scalper 10. The process of separating cleaned
c. Vibrating screen products in various quality fractions that
d. All of the above maybe defined based on the size, shape,
texture, colors, and other factors.
5. The recommended size of scalper for a. Sorting
paddy is ___. b. Grading
a. 0.2-0.25sq.m. per ton c. Cleaning
b. 0.3-0.35sq.m. per ton d. None of the above
c. 0.4-0.45sq.m. per ton
d. None of the above 11. Which of the following parameters
are taken into consideration during
6. The amount of foreign materials in a cleaning and grading products?
sample of grains. a. Size
a. Impurities b. Weight
b. Chalky grain c. Surface Texture
c. Dockage d. Affinity to liquid
d. None of the above e. Color
f. Shape
g. All of the above
12. The material commonly used in 17. A separator used for particles with
separating grains from chaffs according low and high terminal velocity.
to size. a. Air blast separator
a. Indented plate b. Aspirator
b. Perforated sheet c. Fanning mill
c. Steel screen d. None of the above
d. All of the above
18. Vibrator separator is recommended
13. When removing light particles from for separating grains based on ___.
threshed grains that goes with the a. weight
chaffs during operation, what would be b. surface texture
the best course of action that you can c. size
recommend as an Agricultural Engineer d. none of the above
in order to achieve better cleaning and
separation? 19. A grain separator for seed based on
a. Install additional perforated sheets in the affinity for liquid or on the rate at
the cleaning system. which the surface of the seed absorbs
b. Provide an air blast system using a liquid.
blower so it can carry light particles. a. Vibrator separator
c. Reduce the feeding of threshed b. Aspirator
grains. c. Magnetic separator
14. When using a cylindrical slotted 20. The machine used to separate grains
rotating screen or sheet, the material according to color or reflectivity.
can be separated in terms of ___. a. Color meter
a. weight b. Electronic color sorter
b. shape c. Electric color separator
c. thickness d. None of the above
21. Precleaners are provided for the rice
15. Indented rotating cylinders are milling plant primarily to ___ and to
usually used for separating grains in improve the quality of the final product.
terms of ___. a. add for the machine requirement
a. thickness b. protect other processing equipment
b. width and length c. reduce the load
c. size d. None of the above
22. In a tray-type paddy separator,
16. Air blast separation is effective for brown rice moves at the ___ of the tray.
separating the product based on ___. a. bottom
a. size b. middle
b. weight c. top
c. length d. None of the above
23. Self -cleaning sieves used for rice 27. Efficiency of ordinary cyclone ranges
mills basically consist of ___. from ___.
a. a brush to remove particles that clogs a. 80 to 90%
the screen of the cleaner b. 95 to 98%
b. one or two balls that continuously c. 98 to 99%
hammer the top sieve of the cleaner d. None of the above
c. assigned operator to do the cleaning
while the machine is operating
24. A machine used to remove hard

materials of almost the same size as
milled rice through gravity separation
using air stream to cause the rice grains
to be carried away by the air stream
leaving heavy materials behind.
a. Aspirator
b. De-stoner
c. Sifter
25. Magnetic separator basically is

installed into the rice milling plant
before the ___.
a. precleaner
b. husker
c. whitener
d. polisher
26. A separation equipment coupled to

the end of a pneumatic conveyor to
separate solid particles from the air
stream.
a. Magnetic separator
b. Cyclone Separator
c. Vibratory separator
Size Reduction
1. The process of making too-large-to- 6. Which of the following statements is

be-used solid materials usable. true in relation to reducing particle size
a. Size reduction of a material?
b. Grinding a. Reduction of materials to very fine
c. Cutting sizes is more costly in terms of energy as
d. All of the above compared with reduction to relatively
coarse particles.
2. Size-reduction processes include ___. b. Reduction of materials to very fine
a. cutting sizes is much cheaper in terms of energy
b. crushing as compared with reduction to relatively
c. grinding coarse particles.
d. All of the above c. Reduction of materials to very fine
sizes has the same cost as compared
3. Raw materials for feeds are with reduction to relatively coarse
processed primarily using a size- particles.
reduction equipment to ___. d. None of the above
a. increase the surface area of contact
of the material to facilitate taking place 7. Which of the following is an example
of reaction of size-reduction processes?
b. make it palatable when used as feed a. Chopping corn fodder
for animals b. Slicing of sweet potato
c. facilitate conveyance operation at c. Milling of cassava into flour
the feed mill d. All of the above
f. all of the above
8. A trade term used relative to the
4. A physical mechanism used in size- reduction of grains into meal or flour.
reduction process. a. Shredding
a. Compression b. Crushing
b. Impact c. Milling
c. Attrition d. None of the above
d. Cutting
f. All of the above 9. Size-reduction machines are
characterized based on ___.
5. Which of the following statements is a. capacity
true in relation to size-reduction b. power required unit material reduce
operation? c. size and shape of the product after
a. Size reduction is the most inefficient reduction
unit operation in terms of energy use. d. range of size and shape of resulted
b. Size reduction is the most efficient product.
unit operation in terms of energy use. e. All of the above
c. Size reduction is neither efficient nor
inefficient unit operation in terms of 10. A burr or a plate mill.
energy use a. Micro mill
d. None of the above b. Attrition mill
c. Roller mill
d. All of the above
Size Reduction
11. The process of reducing the size of 16. Vertical-axis hammer mill is more
materials by applying force to the advantageous than horizontal-axis for
product in excess of its strength. the reason that:
a. Shearing a. It is more effective in grinding
b. Crushing grains with higher moisture
c. Milling content of up to 25%.
d. None of the above b. The power requirement of the
vertical-axis hammer mill is much lower
12. The process of reducing the size of than that of the horizontal-axis
materials by pushing or forcing a thin hammer mill.
sharp knife into it. c. Less broken grains can be derived
a. Shearing from vertical-axis.
b. Crushing d. None of the above
c. Cutting
d. All of the above 17. A grain milling machine consisting
of two cast-iron disk plates with teeth
13. An indicator of the uniformity of or serration on one or on both faces.
ground materials in the resultant a. Hammer mill
product. b. Attrition mill
a. Uniformity index c. Roller mill
b. Particle size d. All of the above
c. Fineness modulus
d. All of the above 18. A grain milling machine suitable for
grinding grains with moisture content
14. The process of reducing the size of of up to 30%.
materials by cutting and crushing a. Hammer mill
actions. b. Attrition or bar mill
a. Milling c. Roller mill
b. Grinding d. All of the above
c. Shearing
d. None of the above 19. A type of mill used for crushing
grains by allowing it to pass through
15. Hammer mills are designed two rotating-cylinder steels, one of
purposely to ___. which is smaller than the other.
a. chop forage materials a. Hammer mill
b. reduce the sizes of granular b. Roller mill
products c. Plate mill
c. compact powdered product d. All of the above
Size Reduction
20. When reduced material size is 25. In hammer milling, the fineness of a
between 1/8 in. or more, it is classified material is determined by the ___.
as ___. a. number of hammers
a. microscopic range b. speed of hammer
b. sieve range c. size of hole of the screen
c. dimension range d. None of the above
26. The speed of hammer mills.
21. When reduced material size is a. 200 to 1000 rpm
between 0.125 to 0.0029 in., it is b. 1500 to 4000 rpm
classified as ___. c. 4500 to 6000 rpm
a. microscopic range d. None of the above
b. sieve range
c. dimension range 27. The operating speed of burr mills.
d. None of the above a. Less than 1200 rpm
b. 1200 to 2400 rpm
22. When reduced material size is less c. 2400 to 3200 rpm
than 0.0029 in., it is classified as ___. d. None of the above
a. microscopic range
b. sieve range 28. Performance characteristics of size-
c. dimension range reduction equipment are based on ___.
d. none of the above a. size uniformity
b. temperature rise
23. A device used for classifying c. power requirement
granular materials by passing through d. trouble-free operation
series of screens. e. All of the above
a. Tyler Sieves
b. Tyler screen 29. The power requirement in reducing
c. Tyler Separator the size of grains is ___ for moist grains
d. None of the above than for dried grains.
a. lesser
24. Sieves used in determining the b. the same
fineness modulus of a material includes c. higher
3/8-, 4-, 8-, 14-, 28-, 48-. and ___ -in. d. None of the above
mesh.
a. 60 30. The power requirement of size
b. 80 reduction equipment is ___ for fibrous
c. 100 than crystalline materials.
d. None of the above a. lesser
b. the same
c. higher
Size Reduction
31. The energy requirement of a 36. The factor affecting the power
hammer mill in grinding shelled corn. requirement of grinding mill.
a. 7.4 kw-hr/ton a. Type of material
b. 5.8 kw-hr/ton b. Moisture content of material
c. 2.3 kw-hr/ton c. Fineness of grinding of material
d. None of the above d. Rate of feeding the material
e. Type and condition of mill
32. A cassava processing plant is f. All of the above
required to grind fresh cassava into
flour, what size-reduction machine 37. The most suitable machine for
would you recommend as an reducing size of materials like forages,
Agricultural Engineer? straw, stalks, and weeds.
a. Hammer mill a. Hammer mill
b. Roller mill b. Roller mill
c. Burr mill c. Burr mill
d. None of the above d. Cutter mill
e. All of the above
33. The size-reduction machine usually
used in feed milling to break dried grains
into suitable size for feeds.
a. Hammer mill
b. Roller mill
c. Burr mill
34. In burr milling, the size of grind can

be varied by ___.
a. varying the size of the screen
opening
b. varying the pressure on the plates
c. varying the opening between rolls
35. During grinding, the temperature of

the material ___ when grinding fibrous
than granular material.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. does not change
Mixing and Blending
1. The blending of ingredients or of 6. A feed mixer characterized by low

materials in agricultural processing capacity, longer mixing time and low
operation. power requirement.
a. Sorting a. Horizontal mixer
b. Molding b. Inclined mixer
c. Mixing c. Vertical mixer
d. All of the above d. All of the above
2. The auger that is centrally located in 7. A feed mixer with an auger that
a vertical feed mixer and usually rotates elevates the feed to the top of the
at ___ speed. mixing bin and spreads them evenly
a. 100-250 rpm throughout by gravity for another mixing
b. 250-400 rpm cycle.
c. 400-650 rpm a. Horizontal mixer
d. None of the above b. Vertical mixer
c. Inclined mixer
3. Horizontal feed mixer is not d. All of the above
advantageous for feed mixing as
compared with vertical feed mixer for 8. A mixer with U-shaped bin containing
the reason that ___. a central mixing blade or a ribbon
a. it has lower capacity mounted on a rotating shaft.
b. it has high power requirement a. Horizontal mixer
c. it has shorter life span b. Inclined mixer
d. none of the above c. Vertical mixer
d. All of the above
4. If mixing is needed during conveying,
the suitable conveyor to use is ___ type. 9. The assembling and measuring of the
a. bucket needed amount of every solid raw feed
b. screw material in the formulation of the
c. belt desired composition of a mixture.
d. All of the above a. Mixing
b. Blending
5. A feed mixer characterized by high c. Pelleting
capacity, short mixing time, and high d. All of the above
power requirement.
a. Horizontal mixer 10. The process of combining different
b. Inclined mixer materials until a certain degree of
c. Vertical mixer homogeneity is achieved.
d. All of the above a. Milling
b. Mixing
c. Feeding
Mixing and Blending
11. Feed materials are purposely mixed 16. During mixing, round or small
to ___. particles tend to move towards the ___
a. obtain a homogenous feed to of the container.
ensure that animals are given the a. top
same proportions of nutrient b. middle
b. reduce the density of the feed c. bottom
material so that it can be easily d. All of the above
transported
c. improve the digestability of 17. Difficulty in mixing may result if the
feeds solid particles has ___.
d. None of the above a. the same size but of different specific
gravity
12. Basically, the purpose of mixing is b. different sizes
___. c. different shapes
a. to promote the transfer of heat d. All of the above
between hot and cold products
b. to obtain good contact between 18. The type of mixer satisfactory for
materials being mixed extensively large operations.
c. to promote reactions between a. Batch-type mixer
reactants b. Semi-continuous type mixer
d. all of the above c. Continuous-type mixer
e. any two of the above d. None of the above
13. A type of mixer suitable for either 19. The type of mixer suitable for
free flowing or non-free flowing moderate to small operation in which
materials. overhead cost is low and labor cost is
a. Rotating mixer without stirrers not critical.
b. Rotating mixer with stirrers a. Batch-type mixer
c. All of the above b. Semi-continuous-type mixer
d. None of the above c. Continuous-type mixer
14. An indicator of satisfactory mixing.
a. Produce uniform mixture
b. Less time in mixing materials
c. Less cost
d. All of the above
15. During mixing, heavier particles tend

to remain ___ of the container.
a. near the bottom
b. away from the bottom
c. at the middle
Air-Moving Device
1. The measure of the power output of 7. A Class 1 air-moving device operating

a fan in relation to its power input. at pressure equal to or more than 1 psi.
a. Fan thermal efficiency a. Blower
b. Fan performance index b. Fan
c. Fan efficiency c. Exhauster
2. An air-moving device that produces 8. A Class 2 air-moving device operating

high airflow but low head. at pressure less than 1 psi.
a. Fan a. Blower
b. Blower b. Fan
c. Compressor c. Compressor
3. An air-moving device suitable for 9. An air-moving device in which the air

grain cleaning. flow is at the same axis with the shaft of
a. Axial fan the device.
b. Propeller fan a. Propeller fan
c. Cross-flow fan b. Axial flow fan
d. All of the above c. Tube axial fan
d. Vane axial fan
4. If the diameter of the blower is e. All of the above
increased, the pressure will f. None of the above
consequently ___.
a. increase 10. An axial-type fan that delivers large
b. decrease volume of air at low head and has few
c. be the same narrow blades.
d. None of the above a. Propeller fan
b. Axial-flow fan
5. An air-moving device commonly c. Tube-axial fan
used for drying which produces high d. Vane-axial fan
pressure but low airflow. e. None of the above
a. Blower
b. Fan 11. An axial-type fan with enlarged hubs
c. Compressor and warped blades for better efficiency
d. None of the above in order to operate against higher
pressure than that of the propeller fan.
6. Which of the following operations a. Propeller fan
employs air-moving devices? b. Axial-flow fan
a. Drying c. Tube-axial fan
b. Material handling d. Vane-axial fan
c. Refrigerating e. None of the above
d. All of the above
Air-Moving Device
12. An axial-type fan with wider axial- 16. A centrifugal blower with blades
flow wheel capable of delivering higher positioned at the same plane with the
pressure than that of the axial-flow fan rotating shaft and has larger housing
and is driven either by belt or by direct than other types of centrifugal blower
drive system. and is capable of handle dirty air and
a. Propeller fan conveys materials that go through the
b. Axial-flow fan fan.
c. Tube-axial fan a. Forward curved-blade centrifugal
d. Vane-axial fan blower
e. None of the above b. Radial or straight-blade centrifugal
blower
13. An axial-flow-type fan with set of c. Backward curved-blade centrifugal
guide vanes located before or after the blower
wheel and is capable to deliver higher d. All of the above
pressure than that of the tube-axial fan.
a. Propeller fan 17. A type of centrifugal blower with few
b. Axial-flow fan blades tilted backward from the
c. Tube-axial fan direction of wheel rotation and is
d. Vane-axial fan inherently high speed with self-limiting
e. None of the above horsepower characteristics, and delivers
higher pressure than that of the forward
14. An air-moving device in which and radial-type centrifugal blowers.
airflow enters the axis of the shaft of a. Forward curved-blade centrifugal
the rotating blades and leaves in blower
perpendicular manner. b. Radial or straight- blade centrifugal
a. Propeller fan blower
b. Axial-flow fan c. Backward curved-blade centrifugal
c. Tube-axial fan blower
d. Centrifugal blower d. All of the above
18. A low-pressure high-airflow
15. A centrifugal-type blower operating centrifugal-type blower that delivers
at low speed at several inches of uniform airflow along its length.
pressure than that of the axial-type fan a. Axial-type fan
and has a squirrel-cage rotor and large b. Centrifugal blower
number of blades. c. Cross-flow centrifugal blower
a. Forward curved-blade centrifugal d. All of the above
blower e. None of the above
b. Radial or straight-blade centrifugal
blower
c. Backward curved-blade centrifugal
blower
d. All of the above
Air-Moving Device
19. If the width of the blade of an axial- 24. For the same shaft rpm, which of the
type fan is increased, the airflow will following centrifugals delivers higher
relatively ___. pressure?
a. increase a. Forward-curved
b. decrease b. Radial
c. remain the same c. Backward-curved
20. If the width of the impeller of a 25. The air-moving device commonly
centrifugal-type blower is increased, the used for refrigeration and ventilation
airflow will relatively ___. systems.
a. increase a. Forward-curved
b. decrease b. Radial
c. remain the same c. Backward-curved
21. If the diameter of the impeller of 26. The air-moving device commonly
the centrifugal-type blower is increased, used for 6-ton flatbed paddy dryers.
the pressure will relatively ___. a. Forward-curved centrifugal blower
a. increase b. Propeller fan
b. decrease c. Vane-axial fan
c. remain the same d. None of the above
d. none of the above
27. The air-moving device commonly
22. If the diameter of the blade of an used for pneumatic conveyor systems.
axial-type fan is increased, the airflow a. Backward-curved centrifugal blower
will relatively ___. b. Propeller fan
a. increase c. Vane-axial fan
b. decrease d. None of the above
c. remain the same
d. None of the above 28. The air-moving device commonly
used for tunnel-ventilated poultry farms.
23. Noise level is highest for ___ a. Radial centrifugal blower
centrifugal blower. b. Propeller fan
a. forward-curved c. Vane-axial fan
b. radial d. None of the above
c. backward-curved
Air-Moving Device
29. The factor to consider in selecting

an air-moving device.
a. Quantity of air to be moved per unit
time
b. Estimated system resistance or head
c. Amount of noise permitted
d. Space available
e. Economic implication
f. All of the above
g. None f the above
Air-Moving Device
Specific Speed Impeller Width (Centrifugal and Mixed Flow
Ns = [ N Q 0.5 ] / [Ps 0.75] Blower)
where: 175 Q
Ns specific speed, dmls W = -----------------
N - speed of air-moving unit, rpm N D2
Q - airflow, cfm where:
Ps pressure requirement, in. H2O W width of impeller, in.
Q - airflow, cfm
N - speed of impeller, rpm
D - diameter of impeller, in.
- flow coefficient, 0.01 to 0.80
Impeller Diameter Impeller Width (Traverse Flow)
(2.35) 108 Ps 550 Q
D = [--------------------------] 0.5 W = ---------------
N2 N D2
where: for 0.5 W/D 10
D - diameter of impeller, in. where:
Ps pressure requirement, in. H2O W width of impeller, in.
- pressure coefficient, 0.05 to 2.0 Q - airflow, cfm
N - speed of impeller, rpm N - speed of impeller, rpm
D - diameter of impeller, in.
- flow coefficient, 0.01 to 0.80
Pitch Angle for Axial Fan Casing Dimension (Forward Curved
350 Q Centrifugal)
1
= Sin ------------------ Hc = 1.7 D
N D3 Bc = 1.5 D
where: Wc = 1.25 W + 0.1 D
- pitch angle, deg where:
Q - airflow, cfm Hc height of casing, in.
N - speed of impeller, rpm Bc - breadth of casing, in
D - diameter of impeller, in. Wc width of casing, in.
- flow coefficient, 0.01 to 0.80 D diameter of impeller, in
W - width of impeller, in
Air-Moving Device
Casing Dimension (Narrow Backward Curved Casing Dimension (Wide Backward Curved
Centrifugal) Centrifugal)
Hc = 1.4 D Hc = 2.0 D
Bc = 1.35 D Bc = 1.6 D
Wc = W + 0.1 D Wc = W + 0.16 D
where: where:
Hc height of casing, in. Hc height of casing, in.
Bc - breadth of casing, in Bc - breadth of casing, in
Wc width of casing, in. Wc width of casing, in.
D diameter of impeller, in D diameter of impeller, in
W - width of impeller, in W - width of impeller, in
Casing Dimension (Mixed Flow) Casing Dimension (Traverse Flow)
Hc = 2.0 D Hc = 2.2 D
Bc = 2.0 D Bc = 2.2 D
Wc = 0.46 D Wc = W + [D/4]
where: where:
Hc height of casing, in. Hc height of casing, in.
Bc - breadth of casing, in Bc - breadth of casing, in
Casing Dimension (Vane-Axial Flow) Casing Dimension (Tube-Axial Flow)

Wc = 1.2 D Wc = 1.0 D
where: where:
Casing Dimension (Partially-Cased Fan) Mechanical Efficiency
Wc = 0.5 D f = AHP / BHP
where: where:
Wc width of casing, in. f - fan efficiency, decimal
D diameter of impeller, in AHP - air horsepower, hp
BHP - brake horsepower, hp
Air Horsepower Brake Horsepower
Q V H Q Pa
AHP = ---------------- BHP = --------------
33,000 6360 f
where: where:
AHP - air horsepower, hp BHP - brake horsepower, hp
Q - airflow rate, cfm Q - airflow rate, cfm
V - specific weight of air, lb/ft3 Pa - static pressure, in. water
H - total head, ft f - fan efficiency, decimal
Air-Moving Device
Propeller Fan Pitch Fan Laws

P = 2 r tan H1 1/4 Q2 1/2
where: D2 = D1 --------- ---------
P - pitch in. Q1 1/2 H2
r - fan radius, in. where:
- angle of fan blade twist, deg D impeller diameter, in.
H - fan head, in. H20
Q - air flow rate, cfm
Fan Laws Fan Laws
D2 5 N2 3 Q1 1/2 H2 3/4
HP2 = HP1 -------- --------- N2 = N1 --------- ---------
D 1 5 N1 3 H1 3/4 Q2
where: where:
HP fan horsepower, hp N impeller speed, rpm
D - fan diameter, in. H - fan head, in. H20
N - speed of impeller, rpm Q - air flow rate, cfm
Air-Moving Device
Problem 1
A vane-axial fan for a flat-bed dryer runs at 800-rpm

speed. The rate of flow of the fan is 100 cfm at 1 in. of
water pressure head. What is the specific speed of the
fan?
Given:
Speed - 800 rpm
Rate of flow - 100 ft3
Required:
Specific speed of the fan
Solution:
Ns = N x Q 0.5 / Ps 0.75
= (800 rpm)(100 cfm)0.5 / (1 in.H2O)0.75
= 800 x 10 x 1
= 8,000
Problem 2
A 12inch-diameter fan rotates at 1800-rpm speed. The fan blade has 10-degree
pitch angle. What is the fan flow rate if it has 40% static efficiency?
Given:
Diameter - 12 in.
Speed - 1800 rpm
Static efficiency - 40 %
Required:
Fan flow rate
Solution:
Pitch = 2 ( 6.in) Tan 10 deg

= 6.6 in.
Q = 6.6 in per rev x 3.1416 (12 in)2 /4 x 1800 rpm x 40%

= 313.35 cfm
Material Handling
1. A machine recommended for use in 7. An electrically-operated device

conveying products with less damage. commonly used for automatic bagging
a. Bucket elevator of grains or of feeds.
b. Screw conveyor a. Solenoid switch
c. Belt conveyor b. Transducer
d. All of the above c. Load cell
2. The part of a belt conveyor used to
discharge materials over the end of the 8. What is the theoretical rpm of a
belt with the use of a diagonal scraper. bucket elevator with 0.2m-diameter
a. Scraper head pulley and and a 0.1-m bucket
b. Tripper projection?
c. Head pulley a. 77 rpm
d. None of the above b. 120 rpm
c. 160 rpm
3. The type of a conveyor feeder used d. None of the above
for feeding birds in cages in a poultry
farm. 9. If the operational efficiency of the
a. Flat chain feeder bucket elevator in Item 8 above is 85%
b. Auger feeders of the theoretical speed, what is the
c. Round chain feeders operation speed of the elevator?
d. All of the above a. 65 rpm
b. 102 rpm
4. A conveyor with high power c. 136 rpm
requirement per unit capacity. d. None of the above
a. Bucket
b. Belt 10. What is the theoretical horsepower
c. Pneumatic requirement of a bucket elevator with
d. All of the above 545-kg/min capacity and has 10.7-m lift.
The elevator is loaded down side.
5. A type of bearing used for tightening a. 2.19 hp
the belt of bucket elevators. b. 1.92 hp
a. Pillow block bearing c. 2.91 hp
b. Flange bearing d. None of the above
c. Take-up units
d. None of the above 11. When a bucket elevator is to be fed
at the downside section, instead of the
6. The horsepower requirement of belt upside section of the elevator booth, its
conveyors includes the power ___. power requirement will ___.
a. to drive empty a. decrease
b. to drive at horizontal b. increase
c. to drive vertical c. be the same
Material Handling
12. A machine recommended to use in 17. An auger which releases conveyed

removing metallic elements during materials uniformly along a substantial
conveying. portion of its length.
a. Screen separator a. Feeding auger
b. Magnetic separator b. Portable auger
c. Pneumatic separator c. Distributing auger
13. The commonly used material- 18. An auger with accessories that
handling equipment. include a suitable support system for
a. Bucket elevator mobility.
b. Screw conveyor a. Feeding auger
c. Belt conveyor b. Portable auger
d. All of the above c. Distributing auger
14. A conveyor which is essentially
made of an endless belt operating 19. The size of an auger is referred to the
between two or more pulleys with load ___.
supported by idlers. a. diameter of the auger
a. Bucket elevator b. inside diameter of the auger tube
b. Screw conveyor c. outside diameter of the auger tube
c. Pneumatic conveyor d. none of the above
20. What is the capacity of a 10in.-
15. A conveyor used for fine materials diameter screw conveyor running at 300-
and is made of a helical plate that rpm speed? The screw pitch is equal to
rotates on a trough and moves the its diameter while the shaft diameter is
product by dragging. equal to D. The percentage load is
a. Chain conveyor 30% while the density of corn is 45
b. Pneumatic conveyor lbs/ft3.
c. Screw conveyor a. 2824 kg/hr
d. None of the above b. 3104 kg/hr
c. 4231 kg/hr
16. An auger capable of discharging d. None of the above
materials to one or more locations.
a. Feeding auger 21. The movement of material in a
b. Portable auger processing plant in any direction
c. Distributing auger whether it be horizontal, vertical, or any
d. None of the above combination.
a. Transporting
b. Shipping
c. Material handling
d. All of the above
Material Handling
22. Which of the following is not 27. The factor(s) affecting the capacity of
considered a material handling belt conveyors.
equipment? a. Belt width
a. Bucker elevator b. Angle of trough
b. Screw conveyor c. Belt speed
c. Belt conveyor d. All of the above
d. Lifts, trucks, and carts e. Two of the above
f. All of the above 28. What is the theoretical rpm of a
bucket elevator with 0.4m-diameter
23. Pulleys used to hold the belts of a head pulley and 0.1-m bucket
belt conveyor to keep them in place. projection?
a. Head pulley a. 45.3 rpm
b. Booth pulley b. 55.4 rpm
c. Idlers c. 66.7 rpm
24. Pulleys used to drive the belt at the 29. If the operational speed of the
inlet and at the outlet ends of a belt bucket elevator in Item 28 above is 85%
conveyor. of the theoretical speed, what is its
a. Head pulley operational speed?
b. Booth pulley a. 53.4 rpm
c. End pulleys b. 62.1 rpm
d. None of the above c. 69.3 rpm
25. The angle of inclination of belt
conveyors for conveying paddy and most 30. Which of the following is a
grains. characteristic of belt conveyors?
a. 9 to 12 degrees a. Self cleaning
b. 16 to 17 degrees b. Limited elevating capacity
c. 20 to 24 degrees c. Can convey materials in long distance
d. None of the above d. Negligible damage to product being
conveyed
26. The conveyor used to handle finely e. Two of the above
divided powders, damp , sticky, and f. All of the above
heavy viscous materials and hot
substances and granular materials of all 31. What is the theoretical horsepower
types. requirement of a bucket elevator with
a. Belt conveyor 740-kg/min capacity and 12-m lift and is
b. Screw conveyor loaded up side?
c. Bucket elevator a. 2.3 hp
d. Pneumatic conveyor b. 3.5
e. None of the above c. 4.1 hp
Material Handling
32. If 850 kg of paddy is to be lifted per 37. What is the capacity of the belt
minute to a 12-m height, what is the conveyor in Item 36 above in tons of
horsepower requirement of the paddy per hour. Assume a paddy
elevator? Loading is on the downside of density of 600 kg/m3.
the elevator booth. a. 29.4 tons per hour
a. 3.35 hp b. 32.6 tons per hour
b. 4.12 hp c. 41.3 tons per hour
c. 5.7 hp d. None of the above
38. What is the capacity of the belt
33. The type of belt conveyor suitable conveyor in Item 36?
for conveying grains. a. 98.2 tons per hour
a. Flat belt b. 100.2 tons per hour
b. Trough belt c. 110.6 tons per hour
c. V belt d. None of the above
39. What is the horsepower requirement
34. Commonly used belt conveyor for of the conveyor in Item 36 running
paddy in bag storage. empty?
a. Flat belt a. 0.72 hp
b. Trough belt b. 0.81 hp
c. V belt c. 0.89 hp
35. The trough angle for belt conveyors 40. What is the horsepower requirement
used for paddy and grains. of the conveyor above in lifting the
a. 10 degrees product?
b. 20 degrees a. 0.32 hp
c. 45 degrees b. 0.48 hp
d. None of the above c. 0.53 hp
36. The pulley diameter of a belt
conveyor is 50 cm. It will be ran at 48- 41. Referring to Item 36, what is the
rpm speed. If the width of the belt is 40 horsepower required to move the
cm with an estimated cross-sectional product horizontally?
area of 0.012 m2 and a 20-deg surcharge a. 0.32 hp
angle, what will be the speed of the b. 0.48 hp
belt? c. 0.89 hp
a. 75.4 m/min d. None of the above
b. 82.1 m/min
c. 93.2 m/min 42. Still referring to Item 36, what is the
d. None of the above total horsepower requirement of the
conveyor?
a. 1.22 hp
b. 1.69 hp
c. 2.15 hp
Material Handling
43. Determine the speed of the belt of a 48. Screw conveyors are seldomly used
10m-long belt conveyor needed to for conveying rough rice for the reason
deliver shelled corn to a feeder of a that ___.
storage bin which is 1-m high from the a. it is expensive since the materials are
main floor. The pulley diameter and difficult to fabricate
width of the conveyor is 60 cm and 50 b. it easily wears out screw and trough
cm, respectively, running at 40-rpm because rough rice is abrasive
speed. The cross-sectional area of the c. it doesnt look good to convey rough
conveyor is 0.031 m2. Assume a 700- rice using the conveyor
kg/m3 density for shelled corn. d. none of the above
a. 65.7 m/min
b. 75.4 m/min 49. Assuming the roughness of the
c. 81.2 m/min surface of rough rice and corn is equal,
d. None of the above which of them requires more power to
convey using a screw conveyor?
44. The standard screw pitch for screw a. Rough rice
conveyors. b. Shelled corn
a. 1/2 of the diameter c. Same for both materials
b. 1 of the diameter d. None of the above
c. 1-1/2 of the diameter
d. None of the above 50. If a screw conveyor is inclined, its
capacity to convey will ___.
45. The type of screw utilized for screw a. increase
conveyors, which are used to mix b. decrease
materials while conveying. c. be the same
a. Variable pitch screw d. none of the above
b. Steeped diameter screw
c. Ribbon screw 51. A 15-degree inclination of conveyor
d. None of the above will roughly increase its power by 25%
while a 25-degree inclination will
46. A device used to support long increase the power of the conveyor by
horizontally-oriented screw. roughly ___.
a. End bearings a. 30%
b. Hangers brackets b. 40%
c. Trough c. 50%
47. A U-shaped trough without cover is 52. The type of bucket elevator designed
usually used for screw conveyors ___ to handle grains.
oriented in position. a. Centrifugal
a. vertically b. Positive ( gravity)
b. inclined c. Continuous (direct gravity)
c. horizontally d. None of the above
Material Handling
53. Which of the following is a good 58. Which of the following statements is
design feature for bucket elevators. true in selecting bucket elevator belts.
a. Clean out provision for booth a. As the diameter of the pulley
b. Belt tension take up increases, the number of plies required
c. Replaceable liners at point of wear for the belt increases.
d. Provision to remove large foreign b. As the diameter of the pulley
materials such as metals and stones. increases, the number of plies required
e. All of the above for the belt decreases.
f. None of the above c. As the diameter of the pulley
increases, the number of plies required
54. Carrying capacity of bucket in bucket for the belt remains the same.
elevator is usually calculated by design d. None of the above
engineers considering a ___ of the rated
capacity. 59. A pneumatic conveyor moves
a. 60 to 75% granular materials at a velocity beyond
b. 85 to 90% the ___ of the materials.
c. 95 to 100% a. superficial velocity
d. None of the above b. apparent velocity
c. terminal velocity
55. The capacity of a bucket elevator is a d. none of the above
function of ___.
a. bucket size 60. Pneumatic conveyor is used very
b. bucket spacing seldom in conveying rough rice for the
c. belt speed reason that ___.
d. all of the above a. it is heavy to convey
e. None of the above b. the shape is not round
c. it is abrasive
56. A device used to tighten the belt in d. None of the above
order to provide proper tension of the
belt of a belt conveyor. 61. The main reason that pneumatic
a. Belt take up unit conveyor is not preferred over bucket,
b. Belt idler pulley belt and screw conveyors is because the
c. Belt tripper pneumatic conveyor ___.
d. None of the above a. is expensive
b. has high power requirement
57. The actual horsepower requirement c. requires manpower when loading a
of bucket elevators is ___ higher than material
the theoretical value due to friction, d. None of the above
power transmission and drive losses.
a. 5 to 10% 62. Conveying material can be changed
b. 10 to 15% easily when using ___.
c. 15 to 20% a. screw conveyor
d. None of the above b. bucket elevator
c. pneumatic conveyor
Material Handling
63. A pneumatic conveyor system that

usually operates below atmospheric
pressure.
a. High pressure system
b. Low pressure system
c. Suction system
d. All of the above
64. A pneumatic conveyor system that

uses low-velocity, high-density air
employing a positive displacement
blower for which elevator is a function
of ___.
a. high pressure system
b. low pressure system
c. suction system
d. All of the above
65. For grains, the air conveying capacity

required for pneumatic conveyor is ___.
a. 15 to 50 ft3/lb
b. 55 to 100 ft3/lb
c. 105 to 250 ft3/lb
66. The static pressure for fan design in

a pneumatic conveyor system is ___
times of the air pressure requirement.
a. 1.2 to 1.3
b. 2.2 to 2.3
c. 3.2 to 3.3
67. The design grain-to-air weight ratio

for pneumatic conveyor is ___.
a. 1:1.2 to 1:3.7
b. 1:3.8 to 1:4.5
c. 1:4.6 to 1:5.5
d. none of the above
68. A drag, flight or scraper conveyor.

a. Screw conveyor
b. Chain conveyor
c. Belt conveyor
Material Handling
Belt Capacity Horsepower to Drive Empty Belt Conveyor
S A+B (3.28L)
C = 1710 A S HPe = --------- + --------------------
0.3048 100
where: where:
C - capacity, bu/hr HPe horsepower (empty), hp
A - area of cross-section of belt, m2 S belt speed, m/min
S - belt speed, m/min A constant, 0.20 to 0.48 @ 36-76 belt
width
B constant, 0.00140 to 0.00298 @ 36-76
belt width
L belt length, m
Horsepower to Lift Materials in Belt Horsepower to Convey Materials in Belt
Conveyor Conveyor on Level Position
h C 0.48 + 0.01 L
HPh = -------- x 1.015 x ---------- HPl = C x ----------------------
0.3048 1000 100
where: where:
HPh horsepower to lift materials, hp HPl horsepower to drive belt conveyor on
h lift, m level position, hp
C capacity, tph C belt capacity, tph
L belt length, m
Total Horsepower of Belt Conveyor Capacity of Screw Conveyor
( D 2 - d2 )
HPt = HPe + HPl + HPh C = ------------------- x P x N
36.6
where: where:
HPt total horsepower, hp C capacity of screw conveyor, ft3/hr
HPe power to drive empty, hp D screw diameter, in.
HPl power to drive in level, hp D shaft diameter, in
HPh power to lift materials, hp P screw pitch, in (normally equal to D)
N shaft speed, rpm
Horsepower Requirement when Screw is Bucket (Elevator) Capacity
Inclined Position C = 60 Qb nb Sb
HPi = HPh sin where:
where: C elevator capacity, m3/hr
HPi power requirement when screw is in Qb bucket capacity, m3/1,000,000
inclined position, hp nb number of buckets per meter of belt
HPh power requirement in horizontal Sb belt speed, m/min
position, hp
- inclination of the screw, deg
Material Handling
Power Requirement of Screw Conveyor Motor Horsepower of Screw Conveyor

L (D S + Q K) HP P
HP = -------------------- MHP = ----------------
1,000,000 0.85
where: where:
HP horsepower requirement, hp MHP motor horsepower, hp
L overall length, ft HP power requirement, hp
D bearing factor, 10 to 106 for ball P 2 when HP is less than 1; 1.5 when
bearing @ conveyor diameter of 7.5 to HP is equal to 1 and above
40 cm
S Speed, rpm
Q quantity of materials, lbs/hr
K material factor, 0.4 to 0.7
Material Handling
Problem 1
What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator with

0.2m-diameter head pulley and 0.1-m bucket
projection?
Given:
Pulley Diameter - 0.2 m
Bucket projection - 0.1 m
Required: Theoretical rpm
Solution:
Radius = 0.1 m + 0.05 m

= 0.15 m
Nt = 54.19 / (R)
= 54.19 / ( 0.15 m x 3.28 ft/m)
= 54.19 / 0.701
= 77.3 rpm
Problem 2
If the operational efficiency of the bucket elevator in

Problem 1 is 85% of the theoretical speed, what is its
operating speed?
Given:
Nt - 77.3 rpm
- 0.85
Required: Operational Speed
Solution:
No = x Nt
= 0.85 (77.3 rpm)
= 65.7 rpm
Material Handling
Problem 3
What is the theoretical horsepower requirement

of a bucket elevator with 545-kg/min capacity and
10.7-m lift? The elevator is loaded down side.
Given:
Capacity - 545 kg/min
Lift - 10.7 m
Loading - downside
Required: Theoretical Hp
Solution:
Hp = Q H F / 4562
= [545 kg/min (10.7 m) (1.5 m)] 4562
= 1.9 hp
Problem 4
Compute the theoretical capacity of an 8inch-diameter screw conveyor loaded at

45% of the full load. The screw shaft diameter is 2 inches with 4 inches screw pitch.
The speed of the conveyor is 80 rpm.
Given:
Screw diameter - 8 inches
Shaft diameter - 2 inches
Screw pitch - 4 inches
Screw speed - 80 rpm
Loading - 45%
Required: Theoretical capacity of the

conveyor
Solution:
Ct = [(D2 d2)/36.6][P x N]
= [(8 in)2 (2 in)2 /36.6] [4 in x 80 rpm]
= 524.59 ft3/hr
@ 45% loading
= 524.59 ft3/hr x 0.45
= 236.07 ft3/hr
Material Handling
Problem 5
What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator

with 0.4m-diameter head pulley and 0.1-m bucket
projection?
Given:
Pulley diameter - 0.4 m
Bucket projection - 0.1 m
Required: Theoretical rpm
Solution:
Nt = 54.19 [(0.2 + 0.05)(3.28 ft/m)]0.5

= 54.19 / 0.812
= 66.7 rpm
Problem 6
If the operational speed of the bucket elevator in

Problem 5 above is 85% of the theoretical speed,
what is its operational speed?
Given:
Efficiency - 0.80
Theoretical speed - 66.7 rpm
Required: Operational speed
Solution:
No = 0.80 Nt
= 0.80 (66.7 rpm)
= 53.4 rpm
Material Handling
Problem 7
What is the theoretical horsepower requirement of a

bucket elevator with 740-kg/min capacity and 12-m lift and
is loaded up side?
Given:
Capacity - 740 kg/min
Lift - 12 m
Loading - up side
Required: Theoretical Hp
Solution:
Hp = QHF/4562
= (740 kg/min)(12 m)(1.2) / 4562
= 2.3 Hp
Problem 8
If 850 kg of paddy is to be lifted per minute to a 12-m

height, what is the horsepower requirement of the
elevator? Loading is at the downside of the elevator
booth.
Given:
Q - 850 kg/min
H - 12 m
Loading - downside
Required: Hp requirement
Solution:
QHF
Hpe =
4562
850 kg/min (12 m) (1.5)

=
4562
= 3.35 hp
Material Handling
Problem 9
The pulley diameter of a belt conveyor is 50 cm. It will be ran at 48-rpm speed. If the
width of the belt is 40 cm with a 0.012 m2 estimated cross-sectional area and a 20-
deg surcharge angle, what will be the capacity of the belt conveyor in tons of paddy
per hour? Assume a 600 kg/m3 paddy density.
Given:
Pulley diameter - 50 cm
Pulley speed - 48 rpm
Belt width - 40 cm
Belt cross-sectional area - 0.012 m2
Surcharge angle - 20 deg
Paddy density - 600 kg/m3
Required: Belt capacity in tph
Solution:
(a) V belt = 3.1416 x Dp x Np
= 3.1415 x (50 cm/100 cm/m) x 48 rpm
= 75.4 m / min
(b) Capacity = A x V x 60
= 0.012 m2 x 75.4 m/min x 60
= 54.3 m3/min x 600 kg/ m3
= 32,580 kg/hr x ton/1000 kg
= 32.58 tons/hr
Problem 10
A screw conveyor discharges grains on a

horizontal position at 10 kg per minute. If
the conveyor will be inclined at 45-degree
position, what will be its output in tons per
hour?
Given:
Q - 10 kg/min
Angle - 45
Required: Output in tons/hour
Solution:
Q inc = Q horizontal Sin 45
= (10 kg/min) x Ton/1000 kg x
60 min/hr x 0.707
= 0.42 ton per hour
Material Handling
Problem 11
Determine the power required of a 10m-long
belt conveyor needed to deliver shelled corn
to a feeder of a storage bin which is 1-m high
from the main floor. The pulley diameter and
width of the conveyor are 60 cm and 50 cm,
respectively, running at 40-rpm speed. The
cross-sectional area of the conveyor is 0.031
m2. Assume a 700-kg/m3density for shelled
corn.
Given:
Belt length - 10 m
Lift -1m
Pulley diameter - 60 cm
Belt width - 50 cm
Pulley speed - 40 rpm
Belt x-area - 0.031 m2
Product - shelled corn
Density - 700 kg/m3
Required: Horsepower required to drive the
belt conveyor
Solution:
V = 3.14 D x N
= 3.14 x 0.6 m x 40 rpm
= 75.4 m/min
C = V x A x 60
= 75.4 m/min x 0.031 m2 x 60
= 140.24 m3/hr x 700 kg/m3 x
ton/1000 kg
= 98.17 ton/hr
(a) Hpe = [(S/0.3048) (A + B (3.28 L))] / 1000
= [[(75.4 m3/min)/0.3048]
[0.3+0.00187(3.281x10 m)]]/100
= 0.89 hp
(b) Hpv = C (0.48 + 0.01 L) / 100
= 98.17 (0.48 + 0.01 (1m) / 100
= 0.48 hp
(c) Hph = (L/0.3048) (1.015) (C/1000)
= (1/0.3048) (1.015) (98.17 ton/hr)
= 0.32 hp
Total Hp = Hpe + Hpv + Hph
= 0.89 hp + 0.48 hp + 0.32 hp
= 1.69 hp (use 2 hp)
Material Handling
Problem 12
Calculate the theoretical power required to drive a 10meter-long screw conveyor
having 6-inches diameter. The conveyor shaft is supported by a roller-type bearing
and is used to convey ground lime at 10-tph rate. The conveyor speed is 40 rpm.
Also, compute the power required for the motor.
Given:
Screw length - 10 meters
Screw diameter - 6 inches
Type of bearing - roller
Product - ground lime
Capacity - 10 tons per hour
Screw speed - 40 rpm
Required: Theoretical Power
Motor Power
Solution:
HP = L (DS + Q k) / 1,000,000
= 10 m x 3.28 ft/m ( 18 x 40 rpm + 10,000 kg/hr x 2.2 lb/kg x 0.6) / 1,000,000
= 32.8 ft/min (720 rpm + 1320 lb/hr) / 1,000,000
= 0.456 hp
MHP = H x P / 0.85
= 0.456 x 2 / 0.85
= 1.074 hp
Problem 13
A screw conveyor discharges 10 kg per minute of

grains on a horizontal position. It consumes 2 hp
of power during operation. If the conveyor will be
inclined at 45 degree position, what will be its
power consumption?
Given: Q - 10 kg/min
Angle - 45
Required: Output in tons/hour
Solution:
HPinc = HPhor x Sin
= 2 hp x sin 45 deg
= 1.4 hp
Crop Drying
1. The minimum drying efficiency 6. The pressure built up in the plenum

requirement for mechanical dryers chamber used to maintain uniform
based on standard performance criteria. distribution of airflow throughout the
a. 90% mass of grains.
b. 75% a. Velocity pressure
c. 50% b. Static pressure
d. None of the above c. Dynamic pressure
d. Any combination of the above
2. The minimum heating efficiency
requirement for direct-fired biomass- 7. The temporary holding of grains
fueled grain dryers. between drying passes to allow the
a. 75% moisture in the center of the grain to
b. 65% equalize with that on its surface.
c. 50% a. Tempering
d. None of the above b. Static drying
c. Dryaeration
3. The minimum heat utilization d. None of the above
efficiency requirement for direct-fired
petroleum-fueled mechanical dryers 8. If 20 kg of water is removed from a
based on standard performance criteria. 110-kg paddy, what is the percentage
a. 90% moisture content of the paddy in wet
b. 80% basis?
c. 70% a. 12%
d. None of the above b. 18%
c. 22%
4. The warranty period requirement for d. None of the above
mechanical grain dryers.
a. 6 months 9. What is the percentage moisture
b. 12 months content of the paddy in Item 8 when
c. One year expressed in dry basis?
d. Two of the above a. 22%
b. 30%
5. The ratio of the heat released by the c. 12%
fuel to the theoretical heat available in d. None of the above
it.
a. Burner efficiency 10. What is the amount of moisture to
b. Thermal efficiency be removed from a material with 14.5%
c. Combustion efficiency moisture content and 76 kg dry matter
d. None of the above weight?
a. 12.9kg
b. 24.1kg
c. 14.5kg
Crop Drying
11. If 9 tons of a product is to be dried 17. Referring to Item 15, what is the
from 24 to 14% moisture content, what moisture reduction per hour?
would be the final weight of the a. 29.07 kg/hr
product? b. 27.09 kg/hr
a. 7953.4 kg c. 20.97 kg/hr
b. 8837.3 kg d. None of the above
c. 9741.4 kg
d. None of the above 18. The divisional layer between the
dried and the undried products in a
12. What is the weight of moisture to be drying system.
removed from the product in Item 11? a. Drying layer
a. 1046.5 kg b. Drying zone
b. 2285.6 kg c. Drying front
c. 2634.4 kg d. All of the above
19. The amount of heat required to raise
13. The recommended depth of grains one gram of water one degree
in a shallow-bed dryer. centigrade.
a. Up to 12 inches a. One BTU
b. Up to 18 inches b. One calorie
c. Up to 24 inches c. One joule
14. A 45C drying temperature is equal 20. A solar dryer is used to reduce the
to ___. moisture content of 4 tons of paddy rice
a. 113F from 25 to 15% wet basis. How much is
b. 131F the amount of moisture removed?
c. 121F a. 471 kilos
d. none of the above b. 417 kilos
c. 714 kilos
15. Two tons of paddy was dried in a d. None of the above
mechanical dryer from 24 to 14% in 8
hours. What is the final weight of the 21. A device that generally removes
product after drying? excess moisture by forced ventilation
a. 1767.4 kg either with or without addition of heat.
b. 1677.4 kg a. Fryer
c. 1776.4 kg b. Dehydrator
d. None of the above c. Dryer
16. What is the drying capacity of the
dryer in Item 15? 22. A batch-type dryer with vertical
a. 200 kg/hr holding bin used for deep-bed drying.
b. 250 kg/hr a. Recirculating dryer
c. 125 kg/hr b. Vertical bin dryer
d. None of the above c. Batch-type dryer
Crop Drying
23. A mechanical dryer equipped with 28. If the point is moved horizontally to
series of holding bins that allow grains the left of the psychrometric chart, the
to continuously pass through its drying process is ___.
chamber until their moisture content is a. heating
reduced to a desired level. b. cooling
a. Batch dryer c. drying
b. Continuous-flow dryer d. None of the above
c. Recirculating dryer
d. None of the above 29. Shelled corn initially at 24% is to be
dried to 14%. If the initial weight of the
24. A batch-type dryer that circulates or corn is 1000 kilos, what would be its
mixes the grains during drying. final weight?
a. Vertical-bin dryer a. 782 kg
b. Recirculating dryer b. 827 kg
c. Flat-bed dryer c. 872 kg
25. An air chamber maintained under 30. What is the weight of moisture
pressure and is usually connected to removed from the corn grains in Item 29
one or more distribution ducts in a above?
drying system. a. 128 kg
a. Drying bin b. 173 kg
b. Plenum chamber c. 218 kg
c. Air duct d. None of the above
31. The usual depth of grains in a deep-
26. The component of a dryer that bed batch dryer.
converts the velocity pressure of the fan a. 18 inches
to static pressure. b. 2 to 8 ft
a. Drying bin c. 8 to 10 ft
b. Plenum chamber d. None of the above
c. Manometer
d. None of the above 32. In grain drying theory, drying occurs
when ___.
27. What is the relative humidity of the a. the vapor pressure of grains is
air if the psychrometer measures 40C higher than the vapor pressure of the
for both the dry bulb and the wet bulb air
temperatures? b. the vapor pressure of grains is
a. 40% lower than the vapor pressure of the
b. 80% air
c. 100% c. the vapor pressure of grains is
d. All of the above equal with the vapor pressure of the
air
Crop Drying
33. Compute the drying efficiency of a 37. A flatbed dryer is using a direct fired
one-ton capacity flat-bed dryer used to biomass furnace for heating paddy. As
dry paddy from 21 to 14% in 8 hrs. The an Agricultural Engineer, what would you
fuel consumption rate of the dryer is 7 recommend to eliminate entirely fly
lph. Assume a 600 kCal/kg heat of ashes that goes with the hot air in the
vaporization and a 9,000 kCal/kg bin during drying?
heating value of fuel. The density of a. Increase the height of the plenum
fuel is 0.76. chamber to slow down the velocity of
a. 10.24% the air in the bin
b. 11.35% b. Reduce the rpm of the blower to slow
c. 12.75% down the air velocity of the hot air
d. None of the above c. Install a heat exchanger in the furnace
34. What is the fuel consumption rate
of a 2-ton grain dryer required to dry 38. The dryer is equipped with optimum
paddy from 22 to 14% in 8 hrs. The size of blower and furnace to push the
dryer efficiency is 45%. Assume a 600- air into a metal drying bin. As an
kCal/kg heat of vaporization for paddy. Agricultural Engineer, what would you
a. 4.53 lph recommend to improve the pressure
b. 3.56 lph draft of air at the plenum chamber?
c. 2.78 lph a. Replace the bin with bigger plenum
d. None of the above chamber
b. Reduce the drying temperature of the
35. What is the required dimension for air when operating the dryer
a square bin with 1-ton paddy load if c. Seal the bin plenum chamber
the dryer requires 0.45-m thickness. d. None of the above
Assume a 576-kg/m3 grain density.
a. 2 m
b. 3 m
c. 4 m
36. Compute the theoretical heat

requirement for a 1-ton flat-bed dryer
operating on the following conditions:
enthalpy of drying air, 46 BTU/ lbda.;
enthalpy of outlet air, 40 BTU/lbda;
specific volume of air, 0.9 m3/kg.
Airflow rate is 100m3/min.
a. 25,920 kCal/hr
b. 26,640 kcal/hr
c. 27,543 kcal/hr
Crop Drying
Drying Capacity Final Weight of Dried Material

Cd = (Wi / Td) Wi (100 Mci)
where: Wf = -------------------------
Cd drying capacity, kg/hr (100 MCf)
Wi initial weight of material, kg where:
Td drying time, hr Wf final weight of dried material, kg
Wi initial weight of material, kg
Mci initial moisture content, %
MCf final moisture content, %
Moisture Reduction Rate per Hour Heat Supplied to the Dryer
Wi Wf 60 (h2-h1) AR
MRR = ------------- Qsd = -------------------------
Td
where: where:
MRR moisture reduction rate, kg/hr Qsd heat supplied to the dryer, KJ/hr
Wi initial weight, kg H2 enthalpy of drying air, KJ/kg da
Wf final weight, kg H1 enthalpy of ambient air, KJ/kg da
Td drying time, hr AR airflow rate, m3/min
- specific volume, m3/kg da
Heat Available in the Fuel Heat System Efficiency
Qaf = FCR HVf hs = (Qsd / Qaf) 100
where: where:
Qaf heat available in the fuel, KJ/hr hs heating system efficiency, %
FCR fuel consumption rate, kg/hr Qsd heat supplied to the dryer, KJ/hr
HVf heating value of fuel, KJ/hr Qaf heat available in the fuel, KJ/hr
Heat Utilization Heat Utilization Efficiency
HU = (Qsd x Td / MR) 100 THU
where: hu = ----------- x 100
HU heat utilization, KJ/kg Qsd
Qsd heat supplied to the dryer, KJ/hr where:
Td drying time, hr hu heat utilization efficiency, %
MR amount of moisture removed, kg THU total heat utilized, KJ/hr
Qsd heat supplied to the dryer, KJ/hr
Volume of Grain to be Dried Drying Floor Area
Vg = 1000 Wi / Dg Af = Vg / Dg
where: where:
Vg volume of grain to be dried, m3 Af floor area of bin, m2
Wi initial weight of grain, tons Vg volume of grain in bin, m3
Dg grain density, kg/m3 Dg depth of grain in bin, m
Crop Drying
Airflow Requirement Apparent Air Velocity in Grain Bed

Af = C SAF Vapp = AF / Af
where: where:
Af air flow rate, m3/min Vapp apparent air velocity, m/min
C dryer capacity, tons AF total airflow, m3/min
SAF specific air flow rate, m3/min-ton Af dryer floor area, m2
Blower Pressure Draft Requirement Theoretical Weight of Fuel

Pd = Ps Dg WF = Qr / HVF
where: where:
Pd blower pressure draft, cm of water WF theoretical weight of fuel, kg/min
Ps specific pressure draft, cm water per Qr total heat required, KJ/min
meter depth of grain HVF heating value of fuel, KJ/kg
Dg depth of grain in bed, m
Theoretical Heat Required Weight of Moisture Removed
Hn AF 1 - Mci
Qr = ---------------- WMR = Wi (1 - --------------- )
Vs 1 MCf
where: where:
Qr theoretical heat required, KJ/min WMR weight of moisture removed, kg
Hn net enthalpy, KJ/kg Wi initial weight of grain to be dried, kg
Vs specific volume of air, m3/kg MCi initial moisture content, decimal
MCf final moisture content, decimal
Theoretical Volume of Fuel Actual Volume of Fuel
Vf = WF / Df FVa = Vf / t
where: where:
Wf theoretical volume of fuel, lpm FVa actual volume of fuel, lph
WF total weight of fuel, kg/min Vf theoretical volume of fuel, lph
Df density of fuel, kg/liter t thermal efficiency, decimal
Drying Time
WMR
DT = --------------
AF Vs HR
where:
DT drying time, min
WMR weight of moisture to be removed,
kg
AF airflow rate mg/min
Vs air density, kg/m3
HR humidity ratio, kg moisture/kg da
Crop Drying
Problem 1
A two-ton mechanical dryer dries paddy from 24 to

14% in 8 hours. What is the final weight of the
product after drying?
Given:
Capacity - 2 tons
MCi - 24%
MCf - 14%
Time - 8 hours
Required: Final weight
Solution:
Wf = Wi (1-MCi) / (1 MCf)
= 2 tons (1-0.24) / (1-0.14)
= 1.767 tons
Problem 2
What is the percentage moisture reduction per hour in

Problem 1 above?
Given:
MC initial - 24 %
MC final - 14 %
Drying time - 8 hours
Required: % moisture reduction per hour
Solution:
% moisture = (24% 14%) / 8

= 1.25 % per hour
Crop Drying
Problem 3
Referring to Problem 1, what is the drying capacity of

the dryer?
Given:
Wt initial - 2 tons
Required: Drying Capacity
Solution:
Cd = Wi / Td
= 2 tons / 8 hours
= 0.25 ton / hour
Problem 4
Still referring to Problem 1, what is the rate of

moisture reduction per hour?
Given:
Wt initial - 2 tons
Wt final - 1.767 tons
Required: Moisture reduction per hour
Solution:
Wt. of moisture removed = 2 tons 1.767 tons

= 0.233 ton
Moisture reduction per hr = 0.232 ton / 8 hours

= 0.029 ton/hr
Crop Drying
Problem 5
Compute the apparent air velocity in a 1-ton capacity flat-bed dryer with 2.4m-x-
2.4m dimension square bin. The specific airflow rate of the dryer is 50 m3 per
minute of air per m3 of grain. Assume a 500-kg/m3 density of grain.
Given:
Total airflow - 50 m3/min
Area - 2.4 m x 2.4 m
Grain density - 500 kg/m3
Required: Apparent air velocity
Solution:
Volume= 1 ton x 1000 kg/ton x m3/500kg

= 2 m3
Q = 50 m3/min-m3 x 2 m3
= 100 m3/min
Vapp = 100 m3/min / 2.4 m x 2.4 m

= 17.36 m/min
Crop Drying
Problem 6
Compute the drying efficiency of a one-ton capacity recirculating-type dryer used to
dry paddy from 21 to 14% in 8 hrs. The fuel consumption rate of the dryer is 7 lph of
diesel. Assume a 600 kcal/kg heat of vaporization and a 9,000 kcal/kg heating value
of fuel. The density of fuel is 0.76.
Given: Capacity - 1 ton FCR - 7 lph diesel
MC i - 21% Hv - 600 kcal/kg
MC f - 14% HVF - 9,000 kcal/kg
Td - 8 hours f - 0.76
Required:
Drying Efficiency
Solution:
Wf = 1 ton (1-.021)/(1-.14) Qf = 7 liters/hr x 9,000 kcal/kg
= 0.918 ton x 0.76 kg/liter
WR = 1 ton 0.918 ton = 47,880 kcal/hr
= 81.4 kg Ed = 6,104 kcal/hr x 100/
Qo = 81.4 kg x 600 kcal/kg 47,880 kcal/hr
= 48,840 kcal/8 hours = 12.75%
= 6,104 kcal/hr
Problem 7
What is the fuel consumption rate of a 2-ton grain dryer required to dry paddy
from 22 to 14% in 8 hrs.? The dryer efficiency is 45%. Assume a 600 kcal/kg
heat of vaporization for paddy.
Given:
Capacity - 2 tons d - 45%
Mci - 22% Hv - 600 kcal/kg
MCf - 14%
Drying Time = 8
Required: Fuel Consumption Rate
Solution:
Wf = 2 (1-0.22)/(1-0.14) FCR = (31,007 kcal/hr) / (9,000 kcal/kg

= 1.81 tons x 0.76 kg/liter)
WR = 2 tons - 1.81 tons = 4. 53 liters per hour
= 186 kg
Qr = 186 kg x 600 kcal/kg
= 111,627 kcal/8 hr
= 13,953 kcal/hr
Qf = 13,953 kcal/hr / 0.45
= 31,007 kcal/hr
Crop Storage
1. The process in which air moves 7. If 5000 bags of paddy are to be piled
through the mass of stored grains at a 20-bags high, how many square meters
low rate to maintain grain quality. of floor space is required? (0.23 m/bag)
a. Cooling a. 111 sqm
b. Aeration b. 121 sqm
c. Fanning c. 211 sqm
2. The maximum allowable safe height 8. A storage method in which the

of sack pile in bag storage. concentration of gas in the storage
a. 12-16 sacks atmosphere is changed.
b. 18-25 sacks a. Sealed storage
c. 28-30 sacks b. Modified atmosphere
d. None of the above c. Controlled atmosphere
d. All of the above
3. The recommended stacking density
for paddy per cubic meter of space. 9. A storage practice in which grains are
a. 5 bags stored in loose form in a large container.
b. 10 bags a. Bag storage
c. 15 bags b. Bunker storage
d. None of the above c. Bulk storage
d. All of the above
for corn per cubic meter of space. 10. A small metal probe used for taking
a. 12 bags samples of paddy from a sack.
b. 14 bags a. Sampling tube
c. 16 bags b. Trier
d. None of the above c. Sampler
for rice per cubic meter of space. 11. A wooden frame used in staking
a. 10 bags bags of rice.
b. 15 bags a. Dunnage
c. 20 bags b. Loading platform
d. None of the above c. Bag holder
d. All of the above
6. If a pile of rice is 8-m long, 6-m wide,
and 3.6-m high, how many bags of rice 12. A warehouse used for storing paddy
are safe to be piled? or rice, either in bulk or in bags.
a. 2592 bags a. Silo
b. 2952 bags b. Godown
c. 2295 bags c. Farmstead
Crop Storage
13. The optimum relative humidity for 18. The size of wire mesh used in storage
storing fruits and vegetables is ___. to protect stored product from insects
a. 60-70% and rodents.
b. 80-90% a. inch mesh
c. 90-100% b. inch mesh
d. All of the above c. inch mesh
d. All of the above
14. What is the peak storage capacity of
a 5m-diameter grain storage bin with 6- 19. Changes in texture, odor, flavor, and
m average height and 28-deg minimum nutritive value of grains during prolonged
angle of fill? storage, even in the absence of insects
a. 126.5m and microorganisms, are due to ___.
b. 162.5m a. moisture and temperature
c. 156.2m b. vapor pressure and temperature
d. None of the above c. vapor pressure and moisture
d. all of the above
15. The recommended overall height by e. None of the above
ASAE for an agricultural pallet bin.
a. 72 or 133 cm 20. The recommended dimension for
b. 62 or 122 cm maximum piling of stacks to conform
c. 52 or 112 cm with the fumigating sheets in situations
d. None of the above where warehouses cannot be made
airtight.
16. A storage system for holding buffer a. 7.3 m x 21.9 m x 4.5 m
stocks and is usually located at the b. 6.3 m x 20.9 m x 4.5 m
shipping receiving terminals. c. 5.3 m x 19.8 m x 4.5 m
a. Village level storage system d. None of the above
b. Commercial level storage system
c. Centralized storage system 21. The recommended stack height in a
d. All of the above warehouse should not exceed the height
of the walls plus a space of at least ___
17. A storage structure made of pre- between the top of the stacks and the
fabricated reinforcement concrete with roof frame.
metal siding and with either a hopper a. 1 meter
bottom or a flat bottom. b. 1.5 meters
a. Warehouse c. 2.0 meters
b. Silo d. None of the above
c. Bulk container
d. All of the above 22. The rrecommended optimum stock
height for paddy stored in a warehouse.
a. 16 layers
b. 18 layers
c. 20 layers
d. All of the above
Crop Storage
23. The recommended optimum stock 27. Safe storage moisture content of
height for maize stored in a warehouse. copra for use as feed ingredient.
a. 16 layers a. 5.8 %
b. 18 layers b. 11%
c. 20 layers c. 13%
24. The method of piling grains that 28. Safe storage moisture content of
provides ventilation space between bags copra for use as feed ingredient.
and allows circulation of convective air a. 5.8 %
current which, in turn, becomes the b. 11%
medium for heat dissipation. c. 13%
a. Chinese Method d. None of the above
b. Japanese Method
c. Philippine Method
25. The allowable space between the

top of the stocks and the roof truss of a
warehouse.
a. 1.0 meter
b. 1.5 meters
c. 2.0 meters
26. In storing paddy, which of the

following statements is true?
a. More paddy can be stored in a
warehouse when it is placed in jute
sacks.
b. More paddy can be stored in a
warehouse when it is placed in woven
polypropylene bags.
c. The same volume of paddy can be
stored in a warehouse whether they are
stored in jute sacks or in woven
polypropylene bags.
Crop Storage
Loss Due to Resp Loss Due to Microorganism

Lres = Wp x DML Wi(100-Mi)
DML = 1-exp[[-AtC exp[D(T-60)] Lm = [---------------- + 0.68x10 0.44Mi-11.08 ] D
Exp [E (W-0.14)]] 100
where: where:
Lres weight loss due to respiration, kg Lm - weight loss due to microorganism, kg
Wg weight of grain stored, kg Wi - weight of incoming stock, tons
DML dry mater loss, decimal Mi - moisture content of incoming stock,
t storage time, hr/1000 % w.b.
T temperature, F D - storage period, days
W moisture content, decimal wb
A constant, 0.000914
C constant, 0.6540
D constant, 0.03756
E constant, 33.61
Loss Due to Insect Loss Due to Rodents
Li = 0.003 Id Lr = C D
where: where:
Li - weight loss due to insects, kg Lr - weight loss due to rodents, kg
Id - percent insect damaged kernels at the C coefficient, 0.0036, 0.020, 0.035 kg/day
end of the storage period, % for mice, small rats, and big rats
respectively
D - storage period, days
Loss Due to Birds Loss Due to Spillage
Lb = 0.005 D P Ls = 0.005 Wg Hf
where: where:
Lb - weight loss due to birds, kg Ls - weight loss due to spillage, kg
D - storage period, days Wg - weight of grain handled, kg
P - bird population Hf number of times of handling
Total Weight Loss
Lt = Lr + Lm + Li + Lr + Lb + Ls
where:
Lt - total weight loss, kg
Lr - weight loss due to respiration, kg
Lm - weight loss due to microorganism, kg
Li - weight loss due to insect, kg
Lr - weight loss due to rodents, kg
Lb - weight loss due to birds, kg
Ls weight loss due to spillage, kg
Crop Storage
Problem 1
If a pile of rice is 8-m long, 6-m wide and 3.6-m

high, how many bags of rice are safe to be piled?
Given:
Length of pile - 8 m
Width of pile - 6 m
Height of pile - 3.6 m
Required: Number of bags of rice
Solution:
No. of bags = [ L x W x H ] / 15 bags / m3

= [8m x 6m x 3.6 m]/15 bags/m3
= 2,592 bags
Problem 2
If 5000 bags of palay is to be piled 20-bags

high, how many square meters of floor
space is needed? (0.23 m/bag)
Given:
No of bags - 5000 bags
Height of pile - 20 bags
Height of bag - 0.23 m/bag
Required: Floor area
Solution:
Volume of pile = 5000 bags/ 10 bags/m3

= 500 m3
Height of pile = 20 bags x 0.23 m/bag

= 4.6 m
Area of pile = 500 m3 / 4.6 m

= 108.69 m2
Crop Storage
Problem 3
What is the peak storage capacity of a 5-m

diameter grain-storage bin with 6-m average
height and 28-deg. minimum angle of fill?
Given:
Diameter of grain - 5m
Average height - 6m
Angle of fill - 28
Required: Peak storage capacity
Solution:
D/2 tan
V = (D2/4) EH + (D2/4)
3
(5m)2 5m/2 tan 28

= (5m)2/4) 6m +
4 3
= 117.8 m3 + 8.70 m3
= 126.50 m3
Crop Storage
Problem 4
Two piles of shelled corn in bags will be stored in a warehouse having a dimension
of 15-m wide by 30-m long and 6-m high. How many bags of the product would be
contained per pile inside the warehouse?
Given:
Length - 30 m
Width - 15 m
Height - 6m
Required:
No. of bags per pile
Solution:
Volume = 30 m x 15 m x 6 m
= 2,700 m3
number of bags = 2,700 m3 12 bags/m3
= 32,400 bags
Problem 5
A 100,000-bag capacity pile will be constructed to stack paddy in a warehouse using

jute bags to a height of 20 ft. What will be the probable floor area of the stack if a
rectangular pile (2W=L) will be constructed? Assume a 0.23 m/bag height and
10bags-per-m3 stacking density.
Given:
Capacity - 100,000 bags
Height - 20 ft
Bag ht. - 0.23 m/bag
- 10 bags/m3
Required: Floor area
Solution:
Volume = 100,000 bags / 10 bags per m3
= 10,000 m3
Floor Area = 10,000 m3 / 6 m
= 1,667 m2
2W x W = 1,667 m2
W2 = 1,667 m2/2
W = 28.8 m
L = 57.6 m
No. of Layers = 6 m / 0.23 m per bag
= 26 bags
Rice Milling
1. The hydrothermal treatment of 7. If five tons of paddy is milled in 6
paddy before milling is called ___. hours produces 3950 kg of brown rice
a. parboiling and 3250 kg of milled rice, what is the
b. drying milling recovery?
c. water treatment a. 60%
d. None of the above b. 65%
c. 70%
2. A machine that converts paddy to d. None of the above
milled rice.
a. Paddy husker 8. Referring to Item 7 above, what is the
b. Rice whitener hulling coefficient of the huller?
c. Rice mill a. 0.79
d. All of the above b. 0.89
c. 0.99
3. A kind of rice mill that employs only d. None of the above
one whitening machine.
a. Kiskisan rice mill 9. If the head rice recovery of paddy in
b. Single-pass rice mill Item 7 is equal to 85%, what is the
c. Rubber roll rice mill amount of broken grains?
d. None of the above a. 487.50 kg
b. 478.50 kg
4. A multi-pass rice mill is characterized c. 475.85 kg
by ___. d. None of the above
a. having two or three separate
hullers in the system 10. Referring to Item 7, what is the
b. having a series of two or three amount of rice hull produced during
whitening machines milling?
c. having the paddy loaded in the rice a. 1000 kg
mill several times b. 1050 kg
d. None of the above c. 1100 kg
5. The ratio of the weight of milled rice
to the weight of paddy multiplied by 11. Broken rice is a quality deterioration
one hundred. index during ___.
a. Percentage head rice recovery a. drying
b. Percentage milling recovery b. threshing
c. Percentage milling capacity c. milling
6. The maximum percentage of milling 12. A fraction of grain with its length
recovery from rice mills. equal to or greater than an average of
a. 69% three-fourths.
b. 75% a. Large broken grain
c. 80% b. Small broken grain
d. None of the above c. Head grain
Rice Milling
13. A rice processing plant operates at 5 18. The measure of the machines ability
tons per hour. The milling and head rice to remove hulls with minimum
recoveries of the rice mill are 69% and breakage.
95%, respectively. What is its input a. Coefficient of hulling
capacity? b. Coefficient of breakage
a. 7.24 tons per hour c. Coefficient of wholeness
b. 3.45 tons per hour d. All of the above
c. 4.75 tons per hour
d. None of the above 19. A dehulled paddy but with bran layer
remaining intact.
14. Referring to Item 13, what is the a. Rough rice
throughput rate of the rice mill in kg b. Milled rice
broken grains per hour? c. Brown rice
a. 0.172 ton per hour d. All of the above
b. 0.250 ton per hour
c. 0.350 ton per hour 20. If the end-product in milling is brown
d. None of the above rice, the grain has just passed through a
___.
15. If a rice huller has 0.90 hulling a. paddy cleaner
coefficient and 0.80 wholeness b. rubber roll huller
coefficient, what is the output per hour c. whitener
of the rice huller in Item 13 in kg of d. sifter
brown rice? e. None of the above
a. 6.52 tons per hour
b. 4.50 tons per hour 21. The minimum hulling efficiency
c. 4.00 tons per hour requirement for rice mill based on
d. None of the above standard performance criterion.
a. 90%
16. An example of a rice huller. b. 80%
a. Steel-fluted huller c. 70%
b. Rubber-roll d. None of the above
c. Disk
d. Centrifugal 22. The recommended peripheral speed
e. All of the above of a rubber roller for hulling operation.
a. 10 m/s
17. A rice mill huller that has high b. 14 m/s
milling recovery. c. 18 m/s
a. Steel huller d. None of the above
b. Rubber huller
c. Stone disk 23. The percentage speed difference
d. All of the above between rubber rollers.
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
Rice Milling
24. The speed of the fixed rubber roll in 30. A machine used to remove the bran
a rubber roll huller is slower by ___ from brown rice.
compared to that of the adjustable a. Polisher
roller. b. Husker
a. 20 % c. Whitener
b. 25 % d. All of the above
c. 30 %
d. None of the above 31. The extent by which the bran layer
of the brown rice is removed as a result
25. The husking ratio of a rubber roll of whitening.
huller is about ___. a. Milling degree
a. 60-70 % b. Degree of whitening
b. 80-90 % c. Milling recovery
c. 95-98 % d. All of the above
32. A type of whitener consisting of a
26. If the rubber roll huller wears out, flutted-roller rotating inside a hexagonal
the peripheral speed of the roller will chamber with slot-type perforations.
___. a. Abrasive-type whitener
a. decrease b. Frictional-type whitener
b. increase c. All of the above
c. be the same d. None of the above
33. The manufacturers recommended
27. In a disk huller, the stationary disk is speed for the rotating cone in a vertical
located at the ___. abrasive whitening cone must not
a. top of the huller exceed ___.
b. bottom of the huller a. 13 m/s
c. side of the huller b. 14 m/s
d. None of the above c. 15 m/s
28. The manufacturers prescribed
peripheral velocity for a disk huller is 34. The recommended clearance for a
___. disk huller in order to achieve high
a. 10 m/s brown rice recovery with less breakage.
b. 14 m/s a. of the length of the paddy grain
c. 18 m/s b. of the thickness of the paddy grain
d. None of the above c. of the length of the paddy grain
29. The manufacturers recommended
speed for a horizontal abrasive whitener
is ___.
a. 800 rpm
b. 1000 rpm
c. 1200 rpm
d. All of the above
Rice Milling
35. The adjustment clearance for rubber 40. The process of grinding pellets into
brakes in a vertical abrasive whitening coarse granular form.
cone is ___. a. Coarse pelleting
a. 1 to 2 mm from cone coating b. Crumbling
b. 2 to 3 mm from cone coating c. Milling
c. 3 to 4 mm from cone coating d. None of the above
41. Grinding feeds will basically ___.
36. The auxillary device in a rice mill a. make the feed attractive to the
that receives the fine bran particles animals
from milled rice and gives a glossy b. improve its digestability
appearance to the product. c. prolong its storage period
a. Whitener d. None of the above
b. Grader
c. Polisher 42. A machine that separates paddy from
d. All of the above brown rice.
a. Screen sifter
37. A machine that smoothens the b. Paddy separator
surfaces of milled rice after removing c. Paddy husker
the bran making it shiny. d. Rice whitener
a. Whitener e. None of the above
b. Polisher
c. Sifter 43. The capacity of a compartment- type
d. Grader separator is ___.
e. All of the above a. 20-30 kg. brown rice per hour
b. 40-60 kg. brown rice per hour
38. A machine used to segregate various c. 70-80 kg. brown rice per hour
fractions/sizes of milled rice. d. None of the above
a. Whitener
b. Grader 44. A one-ton-per-hour rice mill is to be
c. Whitener designed. The milling recovery is 68%
d. None of the above while the hulling efficiency is 90%. What
size of paddy separator will you
39. The process of compressing mash recommend?
feeds with the use of live steam to a. 26 compartments
produce small chunks or cylindrical b. 32 compartments
feeds. c. 40 compartments
a. Mixing d. None of the above
b. Crumbling
c. Pelleting
d. All of the above
Rice Milling
Hulling Coefficient Wholeness Coefficient

Ch = Wbr / Wp Cw = Wwbr / Wbr
where: where:
Ch hulling coefficient, decimal Cw wholeness coefficient, decimal
Wbr weight of brown rice, grams Wwbr weight of whole brown rice, grams
Wp weight of paddy, grams Wbr weight of brown rice, grams
Hulling Efficiency Percentage Brown Rice Recovery
h = Ch Cw
where: % BRR = (Wbrr / Wp ) x 100
h hulling efficiency, decimal
Ch hulling coefficient, decimal where:
Cw wholeness coefficient, decimal %BRR percentage brown rice recovery, %
Wbrr weight of brown rice, kg
Wp weight of paddy, kg
Percentage Broken Milled Rice Throughput Capacity
%BR = (Wbr / Wmr) 100 Ct = 0.2 Wp / To : brown rice
where: Ct = [Wp MR]/To: milled rice
%BR percentage broken rice, % where:
Wbr weight of broken rice, kg Ct - throughput capacity, kg/hr
Wmr weight of milled rice, kg Wp - weigh t paddy input, kg
To - operating time, hr
MR milling recovery, decimal 0.60 to 0.69
Percentage Brewers Rice Head Rice Recovery
%BrR = (Wbrr / Wmr ) 100 %HR = (Whr / Wmr ) 100
where: where:
%BrR percentage brewers rice, % %HR head rice recovery, %
Wbrr weight of brewers rice, kg Whr weight of head rice, kg
Wmr weight of milled rice, kg Wmr weight of milled rice
Milling Recovery Speed of Low Speed Rubber Roller
% MR = ( Wmr / Wp ) 100 Ns = Nh - [0.25 / Nh]
where: where:
% MR milling recovery, % Ns - speed of slower rubber roller, rpm
Wmr weight of milled rice, % Nh - speed of faster rubber roller, rpm
Wp weight of paddy, kg
Rice Milling
Number of Compartments for Paddy Number of Brake for Vertical Abrasive

Separator Whitener
NC = Cb / 40 : long grain NB = [D / 100] : Germany
NC = Cb / 60 : short grain NB = [D / 100] : Italy
where: where:
NC - number of compartments NB number of brakes, units
Cb - throughput capacity, kg brown rice per D - cone diameter, mm
hour
Rice Milling
Problem 1
A single-pass rice mill was tested for 30 min. and gave the following results: input
paddy, 1000 kg; milled rice produced, 650 kg; broken rice produced, 150 kg; and
weight of head rice, 200 kg. Compute the following: (a) Throughput capacity, (b) %
Milling recovery, (c) % Broken grains, and (d) % Head rice recovery.
Given:
Wp - 1000 kg
Wmr - 650 kg
Whr - 200 kg
Wbr - 150 kg
Time - 30 min.
Required: Throughput capacity

% Milling recovery
% Broken grains
% Head rice recovery
Solution:
Throughput Capacity = Wp x MR / To
= 1000 kg x 0.65 / 30 min/60 min/hr
= 1300 kg milled rice per hr
% Milling recovery = Wmr 100 / Wp

= 650 kg x 100 / 1000 kg
= 65%
% Broken rice = Wbr 100 / Wmr

= 150 kg x 100 / 650 kg
= 23%
% Head rice recovery = Whr 100/Wmr

= 200 kg x 100 / 650 kg
= 31%
Rice Milling
Problem 2
Five tons of paddy milled in 6 hours produces 3950

kg of brown rice and 3250 kg of milled rice. What
is the milling recovery?
Given:
Wt of paddy - 5 tons
Milling time - 6 hors
Wt of brown rice - 3950 kg
Wt of milled rice - 3250 kg
Required: Milling Recovery
Solution:
MR = Wt milled rice x 100 / wt of paddy

= 3250 kg x 100 / 5000 kg
= 0.65 x 100
= 65%
Problem 3
What is the hulling coefficient of the huller in

Problem 2?
Given:
Weight of brown rice - 3950 kg
Weight of paddy - 5000 kg
Required: Hulling Coefficient
Solution:
Coef. of hulling = Wt of brown rice/Wt of paddy

= 3950 kg / 5000 kg
= 0.79
Rice Milling
Problem 4
If the head rice recovery of the paddy in Problem 2

is equal to 85%, what is the amount of broken
grains?
Given:
Head rice recovery - 85%
Required: Weight of milled rice
Solution:
Wt. of broken grains = Wt mr (100 HRR)

= 3250 (100 0.85)
= 487.5 kg
Problem 5
Referring to Problem 2, what is the amount of rice

hull produced during milling?
Given:
Wt. of paddy - 5000 kg
Required: Weight of rice hull
Solution:
Wt. of RH = Wt. of paddy x 20%

= 5000 kg x 0.20
= 1000 kg
Rice Milling
Problem 6
A disk huller with 600-mm diameter will be installed as return huller for a rice
milling plant. As an Agricultural Engineer, determine the diameter of the pulley
required for the huller. The motor for the huller will have 4-inches pulley diameter
and is expected to run at 1740 rpm.
Given:
Diameter of huller - 600 mm
Motor pulley - 4 in.
Motor speed - 1740 rpm
Required: Huller pulley diameter
Solution:
Huller rpm = (14 m/s ) (60 s/min) /[ 3.14 (0.6 m)]
= 445.8 rpm
Huller Pulley D = 4 in (1740 rpm) / 445.8 rpm
= 15.6 in. use 16 in.
Problem 7
A rice milling plant is to be designed to run at

5tons-per-hour throughput rate. The design
milling recovery is 69% while the hulling
efficiency is 95%. How many compartments
are needed for the paddy separator of the rice
mill? Assume a 50-kg br/hr-comp.
Given:
Throughput capacity - 5 tph
Milling recovery - 69%
Hulling efficiency - 95%
Required: No. of compartments
Solution:
C p = 5 tph / 0.69
= 7.25 tph of paddy
C br = 7.25 tph x 0.95
= 6.9 tph brown rice
No. of compartments = 6.9 tph x 1000 kg/ton
x 1 comp/50 kg-hr
= 138 compartments
Rice Milling
Problem 8
A rubber roll husker was tested to determine

its performance. The husker ran for 2 hours
at a rate of 1000 kg of input paddy. The
weight of brown rice obtained after passing
the husker was 805 kg. The weight of whole
brown rice obtain per kg of sample was 900
grams. What is the hulling coefficient,
wholeness coefficient, and hulling efficiency
of the huller? What is the throughput
capacity of the husker, in kilogram per hour
of brown rice?
Given:
Weight of paddy - 1000 kg
Operating time - 2 hours
Weight of brown rice - 805 kg
Weight of whole brown rice - 900 g per
kg of brown rice
Required:
Hulling coefficient, wholeness coefficient,
husking efficiency, and throughput rate
Solution:
Hulling coefficient = 805 kg/1000 kg

= 0.805
Wholeness coefficient = (900 g brown

rice x 1kg/1000 g) x 805 kg brown
rice / 805 kg brown rice
= 0.9
Hulling efficiency = (0.805 x 0.90) x 100

= 72.45%
Throughput capacity = 805 kg / 2 hours

= 402.5 kg/hr
Corn Milling
1. The process of reducing corn kernel 7. The minimum main product recovery
into grits, germ, and pericarp with or requirement based on the performance
without conditioning. criteria for corn mill.
a. Dry milling a. 44%
b. Hammer milling b. 54%
c. Attrition milling c. 64 %
2. The major component of a corn mill 8. The minimum by-product recovery

that reduces corn kernels into grits. requirement based on the performance
a. Burr mill criteria for corn mills.
b. Hammer mill a. 21 %
c. Steel roller mill b. 31%
d. All of the above c. 41%
3. The milled corn kernel where the
outer covering and germs have been 9. The machine used to remove germs
removed and with particle size of not and pericarp from the corn kernel.
less than 0.86 mm. a. Conditioner
a. Broken corn kernel b. De-germinator
b. Cracked corn kernel c. Corn mill
c. Corn grits d. None of the above
10. A kind of shelled corn kernels in
4. The main product in milling corn. which the germ and pericarp have been
a. Corn grit # 10 removed.
b. Corn grit # 12 a. Milled corn kernel
c. Corn grit # 14 b. Degerminated corn kernel
d. Corn grit # 16 c. Polished corn kernel
e. All of the above d. None of the above
5. The ratio of the weight of corn kernel 11. The process of rewetting dried corn
input to the total operating time. kernels to about 18 to 22% moisture
a. Input capacity content and tempering them to make
b. Output capacity the pericarp and the germ become more
c. Milling capacity pliable and easier to remove during
d. All of the above degermination process.
a. Wet milling
6. The ratio of the weight of corn grits b. Degermination process
to the total weight of corn kernel input c. Conditioning
expressed in percent. d. None of the above
a. % input capacity
b. % main product recovery
c. % milling recovery
d. All of the above
Corn Milling
12. The starch component of corn 17. The process of softening and
kernel. conditioning corn kernels for subsequent
a. 11-23% milling and for preventing germination
b. 4-8% and fermentation.
c. 2-4% a. Cleaning
d. 61-68% b. Steeping
e. 2-16% c. Grinding
f. None of the above d. None of the above
13. The fiber component of corn kernel. 18. In steeping process, corn kernel is
a. 11-23% soaked in water at a controlled
b. 4-8% temperature of ___ for 30 to 50 hours.
c. 2-4% a. 35C
d. 61-68% b. 48C
e. 2-16% c. 64C
f. None of the above d. None of the above
14. The protein/gluten component of 19. The process of milling corn kernels
corn kernel. by soaking them first in chemicals before
a. 11-23% subjecting them to a size- reduction
b. 4-8% equipment and other successive
c. 2-4% processes.
d. 61-68% a. Dry milling process
e. 2-16% b. Wet milling process
f. None of the above c. Wet and dry milling process
15. The oil component of corn kernel.
a. 11-23% 20. A chemical added to prevent
b. 4-8% bacterial growth and to reduce the bond
c. 2-4% between the gluten and starch in corn
d. 61-68% kernels during steeping process.
e. 2-16% a. Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
f. None of the above b. Sodium chloride (NaCl)
c. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
16. The shrinkage component of corn d. None of the above
kernel.
a. 11-23% 21. The process of milling corn kernels
b. 4-8% by subjecting them into size-reduction
c. 2-4% processes after cleaning.
d. 61-67% a. Dry milling process
e. 2-16% b. Wet milling process
f. None of the above c. Wet and dry milling process
Corn Milling
22. The major product(s) produced 26. The product of corn wet-milling
during corn wet-milling process. process that has high protein
a. Condensed Corn Fermented concentrate typically supplied at 60%
Extractive protein, 2.5% fat, and 1% fiber and is
b. Corn Germ Meal considered an excellent cattle feed.
c. Corn Gluten Feed a. Condensed Corn Fermented
d. Corn gluten Meal Extractive
f. All of the above b. Corn Germ Meal
c. Corn Gluten Feed
23. The corn step liquor which is a high- d. Corn gluten Meal
energy liquid feed ingredient with f. All of the above
protein value of 25% on a 50% solid
basis and also a source of B-vitamins
and mineral when used as pellet fiber.
a. Condensed Corn Fermented
Extractive
b. Corn Germ Meal
c. Corn Gluten Feed
d. Corn gluten Meal
f. All of the above
24. The product of corn wet-milling

process that consists of 20% protein, 2%
fat and 9.5% fiber and contains amino
acid balance that makes it valuable in
poultry and swine rations, also used as
carrier of liquid feed nutrients.
Extractive
b. Corn Germ Meal
c. Corn Gluten Feed
d. Corn gluten Meal
f. All of the above
25. A medium protein ingredient

composed of bran and fibrous portions
which is widely used in complete feeds
for dairy and beef cattle, poultry, swine,
and pet foods.
Extractive
b. Corn Germ Meal
c. Corn Gluten Feed
d. Corn gluten Meal
f. All of the above
1. A screened food-grade product 6. The coconut meat obtained after

obtained after drying, expelling and/or extracting oil for granulated copra.
extracting most of the oil or milk from a. Copra
sound coconut meat. b. Copra meal
a. Copra c. Copra meat
b. Virgin coconut oil d. None of the above
c. Coconut flour
d. All of the above 7. The process of drying of grinded
coconut meat, oil extraction and
2. A natural oil obtained from fresh pulverizing the meal.
mature kernel of the coconut by a. Dry process
mechanical extraction. b. Wet process
a. Coconut oil c. Wet and dry process
b. Virgin coconut oil d. None of the above.
c. Copra
d. All of the above 8. The process wherein the meat is
extracted with milk, drying of residue
3. A coconut flour prepared from and grinding to produce flour.
unpared dehydrated and edible coconut a. Dry process
kernel by pre-pressing and solvent b. Wet process
extraction. c. Wet and dry process
a. Whole full fat coconut flour d. None of the above
b. Defatted coconut flour
c. Paring Flour 9. Virgin coconut oil can be obtained in
f. All of the above ___ process.
a. dry process
4. The coconut flour prepared from the b. wet process
paring or the testa of the coconut. c. wet and dry processes
a. Whole full fat coconut flour d. none of the above
b. Defatted coconut flour
c. Paring Flour 10. The advantage of dry process over
f. All of the above wet process is that it gives ___ oil
recovery and 0.1% free fatty acid.
5. The coconut flour obtained from a. low
food-grade copra meal. b. medium
a. Whole full fat coconut flour c. high
b. Defatted coconut flour d. All of the above
c. Paring Flour
f. All of the above
11. In virgin coconut-oil processing, the

coconut milk and oil will separate and a
layer of curd will appear at the top of
the jar for at least ___ hour.
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. All of the above
12. Which of the following products is

not a by-product of coconut processing?
a. Virgin coconut oil
b. Desiccated coconut powder
c. Coconut vinegar
d. Nata de coco
13. A cellulosic white cream yellow

substance formed by the bacteria
Xylinium on the surface of sugar-
enriched coconut water.
a. Cocosugar
b. Virgin coconut oil
c. Nata de coco
f. All of the above
14. A by-product of drying finely

particles of homogenized coconut milk
mixed with maltodextrins and other
emulsifiers.
a. Desiccated coconut powder
b. Spray dried coconut milk powder
c. Heated air dried coconut powder
d. All of the above
Sugar Processing
1. In sugarcane processing, water at 43 6. The process of separating sugarcane

to 48C is applied into the sugarcane juice from the water vapor by heating in
tables to ___ it before milling. a vacuum container to produce raw and
a. cool and soften white sugar.
b. wash and remove dirt from a. Extraction
c. increase the moisture content of b. Evaporation
d. All of the above c. Crystallization
d. All of the above
2. Machines used in braking and e. None of the above
removing fibers from the steam cells of
the sugarcane. 7. Sugar crystals formed after
a. Chippers evaporation are separated from sugar
b. Oscillating mincers honey using a ___, which rotates at a
c. Fiber removers very high speed.
d. All of the above a. rotary dryer
b. centrifuge
3. Sugarcane passes through a series of c. extractor
v-stripped roller mills to ___. d. None of the above
a. soften the cane before subjected for
extraction process 8. After separating sugar crystals from
b. extract juices sugar honey, which of the following
c. chop it into pieces before extracting needs to undergo drying and cooling
the juice processes?
d. All of the above a. Sugar crystal
b. Sugar honey
4. The by-product from sugarcane juice c. Sugar crystal and honey
extraction and is usually used as fuel for d. None of the above
the boiler of the sugar mill.
a. Molasses 9. Materials used for further refinement
b. Bagasse of white or raw sugar.
c. Filter cake a. Activated charcoal and diatomaceous
d. All of the above earth
b. Bleaching solution, such as chlorine
5. In sugarcane processing, clarifiers are c. Solution of caustic soda
used primarily to ___. d. All of the above
a. reduce odor of sugarcane juice
b. separate out suspended particles in 10. The moisture content requirement
sugarcane juice for raw sugar before storage and
c. ensure that white sugar can be packaging.
produce during the process a. 20.%
d. None of the above b. 2.0%
c. 0.2%
Sugar Processing
11. The storage moisture content 17. The mother liquor separated from
requirement for white sugar. crystals by centrifuging.
a. 3.0% a. Sugar honey
b. 0.3% b. Molasses
c. 0.03% c. Syrup
12. White and refined white sugars are
packed in standard sizes which is ___, 18. The brown sugar produced from a
respectively. sugar mill generally destined for further
a. 50 and 46 kg processing to white sugar in a refinery.
b. 60 and 40 kg a. Molasses
c. 60 and 50 kg b. Raw sugar
d. All of the above c. White sugar
13. Sticking together of two or more
crystals during centrifuging and drying 19. The concentrated juice from the
operations. evaporator.
a. Crystallization a. Molasses
b. Agglomeration b. Syrup
c. Coagulation c. Extracted juice
14. The residue derived from cane 20. Insoluble solids in juice or in other
milling after extraction of juice. liquids which can only be removed by
a. Molasses mechanical means.
b. Bagasse a. Suspended solids
c. Filter cake b. Sugar crystals
d. All of the above c. Bagasse
d. All of the above
15. The apparatus used for the
separation of suspended-solid 21. The treatment of raw sugar to
sediments from turbid-sugar solutions. remove the film of adhering molasses.
a. Centrifuge a. Clarification
b. Clarifier b. Extraction
c. Extractor c. Affination
16. The material retained on the filter 22. The by-product of sugarcane
screen and is discharged from the filters processing.
after filtering clarifier muds. a. Bagasse
a. Filter Scum b. Molasses
b. Filter Sediments c. Filter cake
c. Filter cake d. All of the above
Sugar Processing
23. The fine fraction of bagasse 28. The type of molasses used as food
obtained by screening or by pneumatic syrup and blended with other syrups.
separation generally used as a filter aid a. Edible molasses
in filtration. b. Blackstrap molasses
a. Mud press c. Organic molasses
b. Bagacillo d. None of the above
c. Trash
d. None of the above 29. The process of heating the juice and
adding lime after passing the milling
24. The term that refers to cane tops, rollers to form coagulants from
leaves, dead stalks of cane, and any impurities and then allowed to settle in
other vegetable matters delivered with a large tank.
the cane. a. Filtration
a. Mud press b. Clarification
b. Bagacillo c. Extraction
c. Trash d. None of the above
d. All of the above
30. The process of separation of sugar
25. The measure of dissolved solids in crystals from dark syrup after crystalizing
sugar liquor or syrup using with the use of a high-speed rotating
refractometer also known as the cylindrical basket.
percentage sugar by mass. a. Fugalling
a. Glycemic index b. Filtering
b. Brix c. Clarifying
c. Brix index d. All of the above
d. All of the above
31. The process after clarification of
26. The process involving introduction of sugar juices before subjecting them to
carbon dioxide gas into limed juice or evaporation.
syrup to remove color and non-sugar a. Coagulation
solids. b. Extraction
a. Color extraction c. Filtration
b. Carbonization d. None of the above
c. Extraction
d. All of the above 32. Coconut sugar contains ___ sucrose
than sugarcane.
27. The type of molasses used primarily a. the same amount of
as animal feed and is also used to b. lesser amount of
produce ethanol, compressed yeast, c. more amount of
citric acid, and rum. d. None of the above
a. Edible molasses
b. Blackstrap molasses
c. Organic molasses
Sugar Processing
33. Coconut sugar contains ___ of 39. An instrument used to reduce the
macro and micro nutrients than sugar relative humidity of air in coconut sugar
cane. storage.
a. the same amount a. Pyschrometer
b. more amount b. Dehumidifier
c. less amount c. Hydrometer
34. The collection time requirement for 40. An instrument used to measure the
harvesting coconut sap for coco sugar sugar level of coconut sap.
processing. a. Refractometer
a. 4 to 5 hours b. pH meter
b. 6 to 9 hours c. Glycimeter
c. 10 to 14 hours d. All of the above
41. The dark-brown color of coconut
35. The cooking temperature for sugar is basically the result of drying
coconut sap for sugar processing. sugar crystals at ___ temperature.
a. 80C a. low
b. 90C b. medium
c. 100C c. high
36. Coconut sap brix requirement for

coconut sugar.
a. 9.1 to 10.5
b. 11.0 to 12.9
c. 13.0 to 14.5
d. All of the above
37. The recommended temperature for

drying coconut sugar.
a. 40 to 50C
b. 51 to 60C
c. 65 to 70C
38. The recommended relative humidity

in drying coconut sugar.
a. 80 to 95 %
b. 50 to 75 %
c. 35 to 45 %
1. The prevention or protection of 6. The process of segregating alcohol,
products against spoilage. sugar, and some soluble materials with
a. Preservation the use of water.
b. Drying a. Leaching
c. Dehydration b. Hydrolysis
d. None of the above c. Water adsorption
2. The process of preservation by
means of heating the product at a 7. An equipment either in the form of
temperature below 100C to kill sheets, rods, or other shapes used in
pathogenic bacteria. food industry for feeding solid/liquid
a. Drying mixture into a screw press or wringers.
b. Dehydration a. Extruder
c. Pasteurization b. Screw press
d. All of the above c. Screw feeder
d. All of the above
3. The process of preserving food
materials in a hermetically-sealed 8. The machine used for mixing solids
container which has been sterilized and liquids at a ratio that forms a very
using heat. viscous mixture, like pastes and doughs.
a. Drying a. Kneader
b. Canning b. Roller
c. Steaming c. Mixer
4. The process of subjecting food 9. The termination of the entire

products to a temperature of about organisms in the product using heat at a
65C for 30 min causing the death of temperature of about 50 to 100C.
many, but not all, of the organisms a. Pasteurization
present. b. Heat sterilization
a. Dehydration c. Dehydration
b. Sterilization d. None of the above
c. Pasteurization
d. None of the above 10. The process applied in the
manufacture of chocolates and other
5. The process of removing solid similar products producing a very
particles from a liquid such as wine, marked effect on the products
fruit juices, vinegar, and vegetable oil. appearance and flavor through the
a. Screening elimination of moisture, harshness, and
b. Filtration acidity.
c. Leaching a. Conching
d. None of the above b. Roasting
c. Frying
11. The process of heating the product 15. The process of pumping the product
to nearly boiling point achieving against a steel plate through a very small
stability of the food product against opening of 0.0001 diameter at a
spoilage due to microorganism. pressure of about 3500 psi to reduce the
a. Cooking size of fat globules such as those in milk,
b. Sterilization mayonnaise, and others to a point that
c. Pasteurization fats have no tendency to rise.
d. None of the above a. Homogenizing
b. Conching
12. The process often used in heating c. Pressing
cans and their content under vacuum d. None of the above
condition to remove air and other
entrapped gases before sealing. 16. The process used in many food
a. Exhausting products by giving deaeration treatment
b. Sterilizing to improve the color and flavor, to retain
c. Heating the aroma, and to reduce the volume of
d. All of the above the product.
a. Degassing
13. A drying technology that has the b. Blending
ability to maintain the original c. Exhausting
appearance of the product with no d. All of the above
shrinkage, retain shape and structure.
a. Heated air drying 17. The process usually applied to nuts
b. Conduction drying and beans of various sorts in order to
c. Freeze drying bring about the desired flavor.
d. All of the above a. Drying
b. Blanching
14. A type of dryer commonly used in c. Roasting
food industry where dried materials are d. Pasteurization
injected into it in an automized form to e. None of the above
produce powdered product.
a. Spray dryer 18. Brown spots on dried vegetables are
b. Drum dryer caused by ___.
c. Pneumatic dryer a. too high drying temperature used
d. All of the above b. low drying temperature used
c. optimum drying temperature used
15. The complete destruction of all d. None of the above
forms of life in the product being
processed. 19. An indicator of food quality which
a. Cooking determines its acceptability to the
b. Sterilization consumers.
c. Pasteurization a. Taste
d. None of the above b. Flavor
c. Palatability
20. The process used in canning in which 26. A pretreatment method used for
there is a rigid regulation on the cooking vegetables to destroy enzymes that can
temperature in such a manner that cause undesirable changes in color and
packages are not misshapen or broken flavor during drying and storage.
by too rapid cooling. a. Cleaning
a. Tempering b. Blanching
b. Freezing c. Drying
c. Refrigeration d. None of the above
27. A pretreatment method for fruits
21. An example of Newtonian fluid with and vegetables to retard spoilage and
low viscosity. darkening of skins.
a. Soup a. Blanching
b. Chocolate b. Sulfuring
c. Juices c. Sterilizing
22. An example of Non-Newtonian fluid
with high viscosity. 28. Pretreatment of fruits and
a. Juices vegetables are recommended to ___.
b. Drinks a. stop enzymatic activity which
c. Mashed vegetables results in color, flavor, and
d. All of the above nutrient losses or changes
b. stop ripening and spoilage
23. The pre-drying temperature c. hasten drying rate and improve
requirement for mushroom. storability of the product
a. 80-90F d. None of the above
b. 120-125F
c. 250-300F 29. The formation of a case like a
d. None of the above leathery material outside of a very high-
e. All of the above sugar food, such as fruit, which doesnt
24. The roasting temperature for allow water to pass through during
pumpkin seeds, sunflower seeds, and drying is a factor of ___.
peanuts. a. slow drying
a. 200 - 250F b. rapid drying
b. 250 - 300F c. normal drying
c. 300 - 350F d. None of the above
30. The requirement(s) for a good
25. The recommended temperature for dehydrator:
drying vegetables. a. Some forms of temperature control.
a. 125F b. A fan to circulate air and remove
b. 150F moisture.
c. 175F c. Easy to remove and wash trays.
d. 200F d. All of the above
e. All of the above
31. Sulfured foods are recommended 36. Another term used for citric acid.
for storage using ___. a. Table salt
a. metal can container b. Lemon salt
b. plastic container c. Acid salt
c. bottle with can cover container d. All of the above
d. All of the above
37. These are fruit rolls characterized by
32. Conditioning dried fruits after drying tasty chewy dried fruit made by pouring
is basically done to ___. pursed fruit into a flat surface for drying.
a. allow the moisture to equalize a. Fruit rolls
throughout the entire fruit so that b. Dried fruit
there will be no damp spots where c. Fruit leathers
molds may grow d. All of the above
b. increase the quality of dried fruit
prior to packaging 38. Which of the following statements is
c. improve the color and taste of the true?
fruit a. Different foods requiring similar
d. none of the above drying times and temperature
can be dried together.
33. Sulfur treatment on fruits and b. Vegetables with strong odor or
vegetables can be replaced by ___. flavor should be dried separately.
a. sulfite dips c. Dont dry strong-smelling
b. steam blanching vegetables in an electric
c. water blanching dehydrator because dehydrators
d. All of the above are not screened and insect may
e. None of the above invade the food.
d. All of the above
34. An example of chemicals used as e. None of the above
sulfite dip.
a. Sodium bisulfite 39. The commonly used methods for
b. Sodium sulfite pasteurizing foods.
c. Sodium metabisulfite a. Freezing and oven drying
d. None of the above b. Steaming and Blanching
e. All of the above c. Boiling and drying
d. All of the above
35. The use of rotating or exchanging e. None of the above
trays in a dehydrator is recommended
when drying fruits and vegetables ___. 40. The recommended storage time for
a. to reduce drying time dried foods.
b. to increase the efficiency of the a. 2 4 months
dryer b. 4 12 months
c. to promote even drying of product c. 12 24 months
41. Pasteurizing is recommended for 46. A product prepared by extracting the

foods that had been contaminated or juice from boiled fruits, and then boiled
used as second treatment for with sugar and cooked to such
vegetables held in storage if the consistency that gelatinize when cooled.
vegetables do not have any mold on a. Jam
them ___. b. Jellies
a. before drying c. Marmalade
b. before and during storage d. All of the above
c. after storage
d. All of the above 47. A clear jelly which contains evenly
e. None of the above suspended slices of fruits or peel.
a. Jam
42. The drying time requirement for b. Jellies
solid yellow or slightly brown-flecked c. Marmalades
bananas in a dehydrator. d. All of the above
a. 4 - 8 hours
b. 8 - 10 hours 48. The aseptic practice in the
c. 10 - 16 hours preparation, processing and packaging of
d. All of the above food products.
a. Cleaning
43. The process of decomposition of b. Sanitation
carbohydrates by microorganism or c. Housekeeping
enzyme. d. None of the above
a. Fermentation
b. Spoilage 49. Substances used to preserve food by
c. Preservation retarding deterioration, rancidity or
d. None of the above discoloration due to oxidation.
a. Additives
44. Preservation of food in brine or in b. Antioxidants
vinegar, with or without bacterial c. Emulsifiers
fermentation. d. None of the above
a. Pickling
b. Salting 50. Any tag, brand, mark, pictorial, or
c. Blanching other descriptive matter written,
d. None of the above printed, marked, embossed or
impressed on, or attached to a container
45. The process of boiling whole fruits of food.
or pieces of fruit pulp with sugar to a a. Nutrition facts
moderate-thick consistency, without b. Label
retaining the shape of the fruit. c. Trademark
a. Jams d. None of the above
b. Jellies
c. Marmalades
d. All of the above
51. A pretreatment procedure to keep 57. Chilling injury of banana occurs at a
the color and the quality of vegetables temperature ___.
before drying. a. below 27C
a. Trimming b. below 14C
b. Blanching c. below 5C
c. Salting d. None of the above
58. The lowest temperature that is safe
52. Substances that modify surface for storing banana is ___.
tension in the component phase of an a. 14C
emulsion to establish a uniform b. 5C
dispersion. c. 0C
a. Additives d. All of the above
b. Antioxidants
c. Emulsifiers 59. The process of heating vegetables in
d. None of the above steam or in boiling water to inactivate
enzymes and to reduce microbial
53. Any substance, including food population thereby prolonging storage at
additive, used as a component in the subfreezing temperature.
manufacture or preparation of food and a. Dehydration
is present in the final product. b. Blanching
a. Nutrient c. Drying
b. Microelement d. None of the above
c. Ingredient
d. None of the above 60. Factors that change during cold
storage of fish due to oxidation of fish
54. The cooking temperature that oils and pigments, particularly in more
destroys most bacteria in foods. fatty fish species.
a. 115C a. Color and flavor
b. 100C b. Color and texture
c. 74C c. Flavor and texture
55. The canning temperature for fruits,
tomatoes, and pickles in a water bath 61. The most favorable cold storage
canner. temperature for eggs.
a. 115C a. 29 30C
b. 100C b. 29 30F
c. 74C c. 28F
56. The canning temperature for low- 62. The freezing temperature for eggs.
acid vegetables, meat and poultry in a a. 29 30C
pressure canner. b. 29 30F
a. 115C c. 28F
b. 100C d. None of the above
c. 74C
63. A frozen product made from 68. Tenderness of poultry meat can be
pasteurized mixture of sugar, solid milk, maintained during cold storage by ___.
stabilizer, food acid, and flavorings such a. storing it in aluminum foil
as fruits, fruit juices or extracts, and b. storing it in plastic net
water. c. storing it unpacked
a. Ice cream d. All of the above
b. Sherbet
c. Frozen milk 69. The process of hanging meat at a
d. All of the above temperature between 0 to 3C to
create tenderizing effect before freezing.
64. Which of the following material is a. Aging
used for packaging frozen poultry b. Freezing
products? c. Tempering
a. Plastic d. None of the above
b. Edible coating
c. Aluminum foil 70. Frozen poultry products are only
d. Waxed cardboard good for a period of ___.
e. All of the above a. 1 to 6 months
b. 6 to 12 months
65. Changes in the flavor of meat, fish c. 1 to 2 years
or poultry during freezing is due to the d. All of the above
___.
a. change in temperature of the 71. If a poultry product is stored at a
product temperature between 35- 40F, the
b. microorganisms that were product quality can be maintained
killed during storage within ___.
c. oxidation of fats a. 1 to 2 months
d. none of the above b. 1 to 2 days
c. 1 to 2 hours
66. In order to minimize darkening of d. none of the above
carcass of poultry meat, it is
recommended that before cold storage 72. The flesh obtained from
poultry meat should be ___. domesticated animals.
a. slowly be frozen and undergo a. Carcass
scalding process b. Meat
b. frozen rapidly c. Giblets
c. undergo scalding process d. None of the above
73. The meat from rabbit.
67. The term used for internal organs of a. Lapan
poultry suitable for cold storage. b. Venison
a. Carcass c. Chevon
b. Giblets d. None of the above
c. Gills
74. The meat of sheep that is less than 79. Which of the following statements is
one year old. true in cold storage of meat?
a. Lamb a. Extreme temperature fluctuation
b. Mutton during defrosting contributes to
c. Chevon shorter storage life of the meat.
d. None of the above b. Freezing meat and its subsequent
frozen storage improve the quality of
75. The method used in preserving meat products.
meat. c. Proper handling of meat prior to
a. Smoking process freezing reduces the quality of frozen
b. Refrigeration products.
c. Freeze drying d. None of the above
d. Irradiation
e. All of the above 80. The process in heating copra to
facilitate the removal of oil during
76. Which of the following statements is pressing.
true? a. Drying
a. When beef is stored at a lower b. Steaming
temperature, it will have longer c. Conditioning
storage life than when it is stored at d. None of the above
higher temperature.
b. Storing beef at lower 81. One thousand nuts, at 800 grams
temperature will shorten its storage per nut, will produce ___ of copra.
life. a. 220 kg
c. Storing beef at higher b. 320 kg
temperature will prolong its storage c. 420 kg
life. d. None of the above
d. All of the above
77. The meat of a less-than-one year old

cattle.
a. Beef
b. Veal
c. Carabeef
d. All of the above
78. Myoglobin content in meat is

responsible for ___.
a. odor of meat after cold storage
b. appearance of meat
c. color of meat
d. All of the above
e. Two of the above
f. None of the above
Feed Milling
1. Any substance or product including 6. Which of the following is not a feed

additives, whether processed, partially ingredient?
processed or unprocessed, intended for a. Corn bran
oral feeding to animal. b. Blood meal
a. Food c. Cassava meal
b. Feed d. Fish mill
c. Feed materials e. Brown sugar
d. None of the above f. None of the above
2. This refers to various products from 7. Which of the following is not a
vegetable or animal origin in their natural mineral supplement in the production
state, fresh or preserved, products of feeds?
derived from industrial processing, and a. Calcium phosphate
organic or organic substances, whether b. Oyster shell
or not containing additives, which are c. Steamed bone meal
intended for oral animal feeding either d. Limestone
directly as such or after processing, in the e. All of the above
preparation of compound feeding stuff or f. None of the above
as carriers of premixtures.
a. Feed 8. The basic function(s) to be
b. Feed material performed in the production of animal
c. Feedstock feeds.
d. None of the above a. Collection of raw materials
3. Which of the following grain b. Modification of raw materials
processing methods is a dry process? c. Blending and mixing of ingredients
a. Grinding d. Delivering of compound feed
b. Pelleting produced
c. Extruding e. All of the above
d. Popping f. Two of the above
e. All of the above g. None of the above
4. Which of the following grain 9. The process in feed milling

processing methods is a wet process? operation in order to obtain the
a. Soaking desired formulation that includes such
b. Steam flaking operation as weighing and volumetric
c. Exploding dosing of feed materials.
d. All of the above a. Milling and flaking
5. The process of converting agricultural b. Blending and mixing
materials into suitable kind of feeds for c. Weighing and bagging
animal use. d. None of the above
a. Feed milling
b. Food processing
c. Feed preservation
Feed Milling
10. Pelleting of feeds in the feed milling 15. The process of preparing raw
plant is done after ___. materials for mixing and making them
a. cleaning digestible to the animals.
b. grinding a. Blending
c. mixing b. Grinding
d. None of the above c. Pelleting
11. Cleaning and drying of feed material
are done in the milling plant after ___. 16. The usual storage period for mixed
a. grinding the feed material feed.
b. pelleting the feed material a. 2 to 7 days
c. reception of raw material b. 8 to 15 days
d. None of the above c. 16 to 30 days
12. The assembling and measuring of
the required qualities of raw material 17. Quality control in feed milling plant is
into batch of desired operation. basically done ___.
a. Mixing a. at the receiving center
b. Blending b. after pelleting process
c. Grinding c. both at the receiving center and after
d. None of the above pelleting process
13. The process of obtaining a
homogenous mixture of feeds so that 18. The standard size of pallet for 25-kg
animal can be offered with different bag feeds.
nutrients in the desired proportion. a. 120 cm x 80 cm
a. Mixing b. 120 cm x 100 cm
b. Blending c. 120 cm x 160 cm
c. Grinding d. None of the above
19. The standard size of pallet for 50-kg
14. The process of making feeds into bag feeds.
acceptable solid particles so nutrients is a. 120 cm by 80 cm
properly distributed. b. 120 cm by 100 cm
a. Mixing c. 120 cm x 160 cm
b. Pelleting d. None of the above
c. Grinding
d. None of the above 20. The principal liquid ingredient in feed
milling plant.
a. Water
b. Molasses
c. Coconut oil
Feed Milling
21. In feed milling plant, gravity 27. A mechanical feeding device that
conveyors for dry grains require a controls the flow of feeds through the
minimum slope of ___. amplitude of the vibration and by
a. 26 degrees regulating the thickness of the layer of
b. 35 degrees feed by means of a slide.
c. 60 degrees a. Rotating lock feeder
d. None of the above b. Feed rolls
c. Vibratory feeder
22. In feed milling plant, gravity d. None of the above
conveyors for meal and light ingredients
require a minimum slope of _____. 28. A mechanical feeding device that
a. 26 degrees controls the flow of feeds through the
b. 35 degrees speed of rotation of the compartment
c. 60 degrees valve .
d. None of the above a. Rotating lock feeder
b. Feed rolls
23. The conveyor used in feed milling c. Vibratory feeder
plants for distributing materials over d. None of the above
silos.
a. Belt conveyor 29. Homogeneity of particles during
b. Screw conveyor mixing can be achieved more for ___
c. Chain conveyor materials.
d. None of the above a. smaller particles
b. large particles
24. For the same size of a conveyor unit, c. small and large
chain conveyors has ___ capacity over d. None of the above
screw conveyors.
a. lower 30. The more uniform is the particle size
b. higher the ___ is the homogeneity.
c. the same a. easier
d. None of the above b. difficult
c. harder
25. The typical speed requirement for d. None of the above
chain conveyor in a feed milling plant.
a. 10 to 20 m/min 31. Segregation of feed materials and
b. 20 to 30 m/min ingredients is facilitated when there is
c. 30 to 40 m/min ___ variation on the specific density of
d. None of the above materials to be mixed.
a. lower
26. The most commonly used grinding b. higher
equipment in feed milling plants. c. lower and higher
a. Roller mill d. None of the above
b. Attrition mill
c. Hammer mill
Feed Milling
32. The approximate rpm of a batch-type

feed mixer.
a. 25 rpm
b. 100 rpm
c. 150 rpm
33. Vertical mixer has ___ mixing time

compared with batch mixer.
a. shorter
b. longer
c. the same
34. The power requirement of a vertical

mixer is ___ than that of the batch-type
feed mixer.
a. lower
b. higher
c. the same with
35. The mixing time of vertical mixer.

a. 15 to 30 min
b. 30 to 60 min
c. 60 to 120 min
36. The steam is used in feed milling

plant during ___ process.
a. bending
b. mixing
c. grinding
d. pelleting
1. The process of removing heat from a 7. One-hundred calories is equivalent

substance or from a space at a lower to ___.
temperature. a. 418.7 Joules
a. Sublimation b. 481.7 Joules
b. Heat of fusion c. 471.8 Joules
c. Refrigeration d. None of the above
d. All of the above
8. The instrument used to measure
2. The heat moves from one substance heat is ___.
to another naturally ___. a. thermometer
a. from higher temperature to lower b. watt meter
temperature c. calorimeter
b. at lower temperature to higher d. None of the above
temperature
c. at either temperature 9. The measurement of the heat level
d. None of the above of a substance.
a. Thermometer
3. The intensity of the molecular b. Temperature
movement of matter. c. Calorimeter
a. Energy d. All of the above
b. Heat
c. Work 10. Which of the following statements
d. All of the above is true?
a. The freezing point of water is 0F.
4. A substance is said to be cold if ___. b. The boiling point of water is 212C.
a. heat is present c. That 32F and 0C is the same
b. heat is absent temperature level.
c. heat is higher d. None of the above
d. All of the above
11. The quantity of heat required to
5. The quantity of heat in the raise the temperature of a substance
substance is described in terms of ___. one degree scale.
a. BTU a. Sensible heat
b. calories b. Specific heat
c. pascal c. Latent heat
d. two of the above d. None of the above
12. The specific heat of water is ___.
6. Ten BTU is equivalent to ___. a. 1 BTU/lb-F
a. 2520 calories b. 1 kcal/kg-C
b. 2250 calories c. 1 cal/g-C
c. 2045 calories d. All of the above
13. The amount of heat added to or 18. The quantity of heat required to
removed from a substance without change a unit mass of solid to gas
changing its temperature. without change in temperature.
a. Sensible heat a. Latent heat of fusion
b. Latent heat b. Latent heat of vaporization
c. Specific heat c. Latent heat of sublimation
14. The heat added to or removed from 19. The latent heat of fusion of water is
a substance causing a change in its state ___.
but without changing its temperature. a. 336 kJ/kg
a. Sensible heat b. 144 BTU/lb
b. Latent heat c. All of the above
c. Specific heat d. None of the above
d. All of the above
20. At higher elevation, ___.
15. The quantity of heat required to a. water will boil at 100C
change a unit mass of a liquid into b. water will boil above 100C
gaseous state without change in c. water will boil below 100C
temperature. d. water will not boil
a. Latent heat of vaporization e. None of the above
b. Latent heat of fusion
c. Latent heat condensation 21. The amount of heat transmitted to
d. None of the above a wall is a factor of ___.
a. wall thickness
16. The quantity of heat required to b. temperature difference
change a unit mass of solid to liquid c. resistance of heat flow of the
state without change in temperature. wall materials
a. Latent heat of vaporization d. all of the above
b. Latent heat of fusion
c. Latent heat of sublimation 22. A material with high emissivity ___.
d. All of the above a. will collect more heat
b. will not collect heat
17. The quantity of heat required to c. will transmit heat
change a unit mass of gas to liquid state d. None of the above
without change in temperature.
a. Latent heat of vaporization 23. The basic use of insulating materials
b. Latent heat of condensation for a refrigeration system is ___.
c. Latent heat of fusion a. to retard heat flow
d. All of the above b. to prevent surface condensation
c. to control noise and vibration
d. All of the above
24. Which of the following insulating 30. One ton refrigeration is the amount
materials for a refrigeration system is of heat required to melt one ton of ice
efficient and less expensive? in ___.
a. Asbestos a. 12 hours
b. Styrofoam b. 24 minutes
c. Aluminum foil c. one day
25. The cooling coil of a refrigeration 31. One ton refrigeration is equal to
system. ___.
a. Condenser a. 288,000 BTU/day
b. Evaporator b. 12,000 BTU/hr
c. Compressor c. 200 BTU/min
26. The basic part of a refrigeration 32. An example of a refrigerant.

system which is characterized by high a. Ammonia
pressure side. b. Carbon monoxide
a. Condenser c. Methyl bromide
b. Evaporator d. All of the above
c. Expansion valve
d. All of the above 33. The commonly used refrigerant in
ice plants.
27. The part of a refrigeration system a. Ammonia
that causes the refrigerant to circulate. b. Carbon dioxide
a. Condenser c. Methyl chloride
b. Expansion valve d. None of the above
c. Compressor
d. None of the above 34. A refrigeration appliance that
operates at higher temperature.
28. The part of a refrigeration system a. No-frost refrigerator
that causes the reduction of pressure of b. Air-conditioner
the refrigerant. c. Domestic freezer
a. Evaporator d. All of the above
b. Compressor
c. Expansion valve 35. The introduction of fresh ambient
d. All of the above air to an air-conditioned or refrigerated
space.
29. A fluid that easily boils at lower a. Cooling
temperature. b. Air changes
a. Water c. Air filtration
b. Oil d. None of the above
c. Refrigerant
d. All of the above
36. The removal of accumulated ice 41. To reduce the relative humidity of air,
from the surface of cooling coils that it is recommended to use a ___.
operates below freezing point. a. humidifier
a. Dehumidification b. dehumidifier
b. Defrosting c. psychrometer
c. Ice melting d. None of the above
42. In a domestic refrigerator, the
37. A refrigeration system used to condenser can be found ___.
either cool or heat a given space a. inside the refrigerator cabinet
normally by exchanging the functions of b. outside the refrigerator cabinet
the evaporator and the condenser. c. beneath the freezer
a. Heat pump d. None of the above
b. Humidifier
c. Dehumidifier 43. Freezers in a refrigerator
d. None of the above compartment are normally found at the
upper section of the cabinet for the
38. The air that flows through the gaps reason that ___.
around doors, windows and others. a. it is easy to load a product
a. Air intake b. it is easy to install in the cabinet
b. Air changes c. heat will efficiently be
c. Infiltration distributed throughout the
d. None of the above refrigerator compartment
39. The difference between the dry
bulb and the wet bulb temperatures. 44. When a product is termed as frozen,
a. Wet bulb depression it is ___.
b. Relative humidity a. chilled and stored above freezing
c. Dew point temperature point
d. None of the above b. stored between 10F to 10F
c. stored at 10F to 50F
40. The temperature at which liquid is d. All of the above
converted to solid state upon the
removal of its latent heat of fusion. 45. Another important factors in cold
a. Cooling point storage of perishable products are:
b. Solid point a. Energy and power requirement
c. Freezing point inside the storage room.
d. None of the above b. Temperature and heat loss in the
storage room.
c. Humidity and air motion inside
the storage room.
46. The use of plastic polyethylene 50. An important factor that contributes
sheet as packaging material for cold in proper refrigeration of perishable
storage is ___. crops is ___.
a. to provide heat insulating effect a. constant temperature
on the product b. free air circulation
b. to make the product attractive c. control of relative humidity
to the customer d. All of the above
c. to prevent moisture loss in the
product 51. The process of retarding moisture
d. None of the above and oxidation loss from the product
during cold storage by continuously
47. The purpose of refrigeration in providing a film or a coating that adheres
storing perishable products is ___. to the products surface.
a. to improve the quality of the a. Blanching
product b. Thawing
b. to arrest or retard the natural c. Glazing
process of deterioration d. None of the above
c. to hasten ripening or maturity
of product, such as fruits and 52. A type of freezer that operates at -
vegetables 30F and below air temperature and at
d. All of the above 500 to 100 fpm velocity.
a. Sharp freezer
48. The process of exposing freshly- b. Air-blast freezer
harvested product and carefully- c. Contact plate freezer
prepared food to subzero temperatures d. All of the above
and holding them at 32C during
storage period to maintain their quality. 53. A type of freezer used for fish
a. Cold storage products in which the products are
b. Quick freezing placed in shelves or in aluminum pans or
c. Sharp freezing plates covered by pipe coils or
d. All of the above evaporators at a temperature of 20 to -
29C.
49. If vegetables are stored at a a. Sharp freezer
temperature between 0 to 30C, the b. Air-blast freezer
product is under ___. c. Contact plate freezer
a. frozen storage d. All of the above
b. refrigerated storage
c. All of the above
54. The method of freezing the surface 59. The method of freezing shrimp in an
of poultry meat using mist of liquid agitated cold brine solution with fixed
prior to storage in an air-blast freezer or concentration and temperature.
cold storage room. a. Blast freezing
a. Liquid immersion freezing b. Immersion freezing
b. Liquid spray freezing c. Tunnel freezing
c. Conveyor tunnel freezing d. None of the above
d. All of the above
60. At 18C, scallop meat has a frozen
55. The freezing point of milk. storage life of ___.
a. -0.545C a. 1 - 2 months
b. -0.545F b. 3 - 6 months
c. 0. 545C c. 7 - 12 months
56. Freezer-burn in meat products is a 61. ASHRAE is the acronym for ___.
result of ___. a. Association of Heat, Refrigeration,
a. storing meat products in a freezer and Air Conditioning Engineers
with plastic sheet to prevent moisture b. American Society of Heating,
loss Refrigerating, and Air Conditioning
b. storing meat products without Engineers
plastic sheet at high relative humidity c. Association of Sensible Heating,
b. storing meat products without Refrigeration, and Air Cooling
plastic sheet at low relative humidity Engineers
57. The recommended time for storing 62. An equipment used to clean, cool,
beef cuts at 18C is ___. heat, humidify, or dehumidify air.
a. 6 to 12 months a. Air heat exchanger
b. 3 to 4 months b. Air conditioner
c. 1 to 2 months c. Air-cooled condenser
58. Ground beef can be safely stored at 63. The process of removing moisture
18C within a period of ___. from the air.
a. 6 to 12 months a. Dehydration
b. 3 to 4 months b. Air suction
c. 1 to 2 months c. Dehumidify
64. The most popular refrigerant used 70. The condenser efficiency of an air
for a refrigeration system. conditioner can be increased by ___.
a. R-12 (Dichlorodifluoromethane) a. reducing the condenser surface area
b. R-22(Monochlorodiflouromethane) b. increasing the condenser surface
c. R-502 area
d. All of the above c. increasing the amount of refrigerant
flowing in the condenser
65. The most popular refrigerant for d. None of the above
air-conditioning.
a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane) 71. The operating temperature of an
b. R-22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane) evaporator in an air-conditioning system.
c. R-502 (mixture of R-22 and R115) a. 20F
d. All of the above b. 40F
c. 60F
66. The popular refrigerant for low- d. All of the above
temperature refrigeration systems.
a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane) 72. Refrigerated air-conditioning is used
b. R-22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane) in ___.
c. R-502 (mixture of R-22 and R115) a. hot temperature with high humidity
d. All of the above b. hot temperature with low humidity
c. hot temperature with either high or
67. The process in which the air is low humidity
cooled, cleaned and circulated. d. None of the above
a. Air conditioner
b. Air conditioning 73. Which of the following statements is
c. Air cooling and cleaning true?
d. All of the above a. The motor and the compressor of a
refrigeration system is separately
68. An air-conditioning system in which installed.
the condenser is located separately b. The motor and the compressor of a
from the evaporator and uses refrigeration system are housed in the
interconnecting refrigerant lines. same compartment.
a. Split-system air conditioning system c. The compressor and the motor of a
b. Package- equipment air conditioning refrigeration system is non-hermetic
system type.
c. All of the above d. None of the above
74. A refrigerated system that cleans,
69. The cooling equipment of an air dehydrates and cools a compartment.
conditioner. a. No frost refrigerator
a. Condenser b. Chiller
b. Evaporator c. Freezer
c. Compressor d. Air conditioner
d. Expansion valve e. None of the above
75. The highest pressure in the 80. The state of the refrigerant at the
refrigeration system is found at ___. condenser side immediately after leaving
a. the capillary tube the compressor.
b. the entrance of the evaporator coil a. Superheated gas
c. the entrance of the condenser tube b. Lukewarm liquid
d. the evaporator coil, immediately c. Saturated gas
before the compressor d. None of the above
81. The state of the refrigerant at the
76. The component of a refrigeration evaporator side immediately before the
system positioned next to the compressor.
condenser. a. Superheated gas
a. Capillary tube b. Lukewarm liquid
b. Filter c. Saturated gas
c. Compressor d. None of the above
82. A newly discovered refrigerant not
77. The component of a refrigeration harmful to the ozone layer and also
system located after the capillary tube. known as ozone-friendly gas.
a. Evaporator a. R12
b. Compressor b. Ammonia
c. Condenser c. Suva Mp 52 (R-134a)
78. A refrigeration system component 83. A term used to describe overcharging

found before the condenser. of refrigerant.
a. Filter a. Back frost
b. Evaporator b. Sweating
c. Capillary tube c. Supercharging
d. Compressor d. None of the above
84. A device used mostly in large cooling
79. The lowest temperature zone in a units to cool the water that absorbs the
refrigeration system. heat from the condenser.
a. Condenser a. Cold storage room
b. Capillary tube b. Cooling Tower
c. Evaporator c. Heat Exchanger
85. The mixture of vapor and liquid. 91. A passage from the outside of a leaky
a. Saturated gas room caused by cracks in windows,
b. Saturated liquid doors and other possible sources.
c. Superheated gas a. Heat loss
d. None of the above b. Air infiltration
c. Air gap
86. The mixture of liquid and gas. d. None of the above
a. Saturated gas
b. Saturated liquid 92. The primary refrigerant for
c. Superheated gas refrigerators known as Dichlorodifluoro-
d. None of the above methane.
a. R-11
87. The charging pressure for b. R-12
refrigerator and for freezer using R-12 c. R-22
refrigerant. d. None of the above
a. 19 psi
b. 65 psi 93. The primary refrigerant for air-
c. 75 psi conditioning systems known as
d. None of the above Monochlorodifluoro-methane.
a. R-11
88. The charging pressure for air b. R-12
conditioning unit using R-12 refrigerant. c. R-22
a. 19 - 45 psi d. None of the above
b. 65 - 75 psi
c. 80 - 90 psi 94. An extruded foam used for low-
d. None of the above temperature systems such as
refrigeration, building and sub-zero
89. A dry ice is ___. insulation.
a. solid H2O a. Polystyrene foam
b. solid CO b. PVC foam
c. solid CO2 c. Plastic foam
90. When a condenser of a refrigeration

system is cooling, what is the common
trouble?
a. Too much refrigerant
b. Lacks refrigerant
c. No refrigerant
Heat Gain on Walls Air Infiltration Load

Qw = A Rt (To Ti) Vr Hf AC
where: Qai = -------------------------
Qw - heat gain from walls, W 86400
A - wall surface area, m2 where:
Rt - thermal transmittance, W/m-C Qai - air infiltration loss, W
To wall outside temperature, C Vr - room volume, m3
Ti - wall inside temperature, C Hf - heat factor, J
AC - Air changes, KJ/m3
Product Load Heat of Respiration Load
Qp = Wp Cp (Ti Tf) / 86400 Qr = Wp HRp / 86400
where: where:
Qp - product load, W Qr - heat of respiration load, W
Wp - weight of the product, kg Wp weight of the product, kg
Cp - specific heat of the product, J/kg-C HRp product heat of respiration, J/kg-day
Ti product initial temperature, C
Tf product final temperature, C
Light Load Tons of Refrigeration
Ql = Lr TR = TL / 12,000
where: where:
Ql - light load, W TR - refrigeration capacity, tons of ref
Lr - lamp rating, W TL total load, BTU/hr
Human Heat Load Latent Heat of Freezing
Qh = Nh HRh / 86400 Qlf = Mw LHF
where: where:
Qh - human heat load, W Qlf - latent heat of freezing water, KJ
Nh - number of human Mw - mass of water, kg
HRh - heat of respiration of human, LHF - Latent heat of freezing, 336 KJ/kg
J/man-day
Problem 1
Compute the amount of heat needed to drop the

temperature of 100 cans of milk from 32C to
25C. Assume a specific weight of milk equal to
0.99 kg/liter. The specific heat of milk is 0.93
BTU/lb-F.
Given:
No. of cans = 100
Volume per can = liter
Temp initial = 30C
Temp final = 25C
Cp = 0.93 BTU/lb-F
Required:
Amount of heat to be removed
Solution:
Qs = (00.99kg/li x li x 100 cans)
x (0.93 BTU/lb-F) (86F 79F)
= 455.75 BTU
Problem 2
Compute the cooling load of a 150-kg

carabeef if it is to be cooled from 28C to
-2.2 C, after which it is frozen and
cooled to -20C. The specific heat of
carabeef above and below freezing are
3.5 kJ/kg-C and 1.75 kJ/kg-C,
respectively. The freezing point is -2.2C
and the latent heat of fusion is 250 kJ/kg.
Given:
m - 150 kg Solution:
Te - 28C
Tf - -2.2C Qt = m Cb (Te Tf) + mh1 + m Ca (Tf Ts)
Ts - -20C = 150 kg (3.5 kJ/kg-C) [28 - (-2.2)C]
Cb - 3.5 kJ/kg-C + 150 kg (250 kJ/kg) + 150 kg (1.75
Ca - 1.75 kJ/kg-C kJ/kg-C) [-2.2 (-20)C]
h1 - 250 kJ/kg = 58, 027.5 kJ
Required: Cooling load (Qt)
Problem 3
One ton of poultry meat is put in a chiller

at 8C and frozen to -18C in 10 hours.
Compute the product load if the latent
heat is 235 kJ/kg and the freezing
temperature is -4C. The specific heat of
poultry meat is 3.5 kJ/kg-C above freezing
and 1.5 kJ/kg-C below freezing.
Given:
Cb - 3.5 kJ/kg-C
Ca - 1.5 kJ/kg-C
Te - 8C Solution:
Tf - -4C
Ts - -18C Qt = [m Cb (Te Tf) + mh1 + m Ca (Tf Ts)] / T
h1 - 235kJ/kg = 1000 kg (3.5 kJ/kg-C) [8 - (-4)] + 1000 kg
m - 1 ton (= 1000 kg) (235 kJ/kg) + 1000 kg (1.5 kJ/kg-C) [.-4
time - 10 hrs (-18)] / 10 hrs x 3600 sec/hr
= 278,000 kJ / 10 hrs x 3600 sec/hr
Required: Product load (Qt) = 7.72 kJ/sec or 7.72 kW
Problem 4
How many units of 1-hp air conditioning

system is required to maintain the
temperature of a farm house at 27 C? The
floor dimension of the house is 10-m wide x
30-m long. The height of ceiling of the room
is 8 ft .
Given: Structure - Farm house
Dimension - 10-m W x 30-m L
Ceiling Height - 8 ft
Temperature - 27C
Required: No. of units of 1-hp air conditioner

Solution:
No. of Units = 10 m x 30 m / 20 m2 per 1-hp unit
= 5 units of 1-hp air conditioner
Problem 5
Determine the heat load of a proposed walk-in

cooler having 6-ft x 8-ft floor space and 7 ft
height. It is designed to have a 4-in cork
insulation (6.5 BTU/hr-ft2) on all surfaces and
an inside temperature of 35F. The products to
be cooled are: cabbage, 100 lb/day (0.9
BTU/lb-F) and fresh beef, 200 lbs/day (0.5
BTU/lb-F). Assume the products are to be
cooled from 85 to 35F in 24 hours.
Given:
Cooler Type - Walk-in
Floor Space - 6 ft x 8 ft
Height - 7 ft
Insulation - 4-in. thick cork
Heat insulating cap - 6.5 BTU/hr-ft2
Temp inside - 35F
Product - 100-lb/day cabbage, 200-lbs fresh beef
Temp for cooling - 85F to 35F
Time of cooling - 24 hours
Required: Heat Load
Solution:
Product load:
0.9 x 100 x (85-35)/24 = 187 BTU/hr
0.75 x 200 x (85-35)/24 = 312 BTU/hr
Space Load:
6 x 8 + 6 x 7 x 2 + 8 x 7 x 2 + 6 x 8 = 292 ft2
Using 6.5 BTU/ft2-hr
292 ft2 x 6.5 BTU/ ft2-hr = 1,898 BTU/hr
Total Heat Load:
187 + 312 + 1,898 = 2,397 BTU/hr
1. The transfer of heat from one part 7. A proportionality factor that

of a solid body to the other parts represents the property of a material
under the influence of temperature through heat conduction.
gradient. a. Thermal resistivity
a. Convection b. Thermal conductivity
b. Conduction c. Thermal coefficient
c. Radiation d. None of the above
d. All of the above
8. Cooling meat, fruits and vegetables
2. The transfer of heat by mixing one are examples of heat transmission by
parcel of fluid with another. ___.
a. Convection a. unsteady state conduction
b. Conduction b. steady state conduction
c. Radiation c. free convection
3. The shape factor for heat by 9. The factor influencing thermal

conduction is expressed as ___. conductivity of a material.
a. A/dx a. Chemical composition of materials
b. K A/dx b. Temperature of materials
c. dt/dx c. Surrounding pressure
d. none of the above d. All of the above
4. The amount of heat transferred per 10. If the temperature surrounding the
unit temperature per unit length. material is reduced, the thermal
a. Emissivity conductivity also ___.
b. Thermal conductivity a. changes in a decreasing manner
c. Heat transfer coefficient b. changes in increasing manner
d. None of the above c. does not change
5. When heat is transmitted through
molecular waves, it is transmitted by 11. Fluids with low molecular weight
___. have ___.
a. Convection a. high thermal conductivity
b. Conduction b. low thermal conductivity
c. Radiation c. no thermal conductivity
6. The amount of heat required to 12. Heat basically transfers from ___.
raise one pound of water one degree a. lower temperature to high
Farenheight. temperature
a. Thermal capacity b. high temperature to lower
b. Specific heat temperature
c. British Thermal Unit c. lower pressure to high pressure
13. If more heat is to be transmitted 19. In a vacuum condition, heat transfer

from one side of a solid body to the by conduction moves ___.
other side, which of the following a. faster
would you recommend as an Engineer? b. slower
a. Increase the thickness of material. c. at constant rate
b. Decrease the thickness of material. d. None of the above
c. Maintain the thickness of material.
d. None of the above 20. In sundrying, heat is released to a
material by ___.
14. The shape factor for conduction a. radiation
heating on a cylindrical wall is ___. b. force convection
a. 6.3 L/ (ln r2/r1) c. natural convection
b. 3.14 L/ (ln r2/r1) d. None of the above
c. 3.14 kL/ (ln2/r1)
d. None of the above 21. The amount of heat required to
raise a kilogram of water one degree
15. The amount of heat transmitted per centigrade.
unit time and temperature for a given a. Kilo Calories
surface area of a fluid. b. Joules
a. Heat coefficient c. Watts
b. Specific heat d. None of the above
c. Heat transfer coefficient
d. None of the above 22. Dimensionless numbers used in
determining heat transfer coefficient by
16. If a boiling water is pumped from a natural convection.
boiler to a heat exchanger, heat is a. Nusselt/Grashof/Prantdl
transmitted by ___. b. Nusselt/Reynolds/Prantdl
a. natural convection c. Prantdl/Reynolds/Grashof
b. forced convection d. None of the above
c. radiation
d. None of the above 23. The unit of energy in SI system is
___.
17. Heat transfer coefficient is lower for a. Newton-meter
___. b. Joules
a. liquids c. W-sec
b. gases d. All of the above
c. boiling water
d. condensing vapors 24. The insulating ability or resistance
e. None of the above of a material to the flow of heat.
a. Thermal resistance
18. An example of heat conductor. b. Thermal conductivity
a. Silica brick c. Thermal insulator
b. Refractory cement d. All of the above
c. Asbestos fiber
25. The ability of a material to give up 30. Which of the following fluids has
or to receive heat. the highest heat transfer coefficient?
a. Resistance a. Gases
b. Thermal conductance b. Liquids
c. All of the above c. Boiling water
26. The temperature of the 31. The heat transfer coefficient of

surrounding air. liquids, in kcal/m-hr-C , ranges from
a. Dry bulb temperature ___.
b. Wet bulb temperature a. 3 to 20
c. Ambient temperature b. 100 to 600
d. All of the above c. 1000 to 2000
27. The form of energy that provides
the difference in temperature among 32. Which of the following statements
molecular materials. is true?
a. Heat a. The thermal conductivity of
b. Temperature aluminum is higher than that of silver.
c. Thermal resistance a. Silver is faster to transmit heat than
d. None of the above aluminum.
c. Aluminum and silver transfer heat
28. Nusselt number is a function of at the same rate.
___. d. All of the above
a. convection coefficient, pipe
diameter, and thermal conductivity 33. What is the heat loss per ft of the
b. thermal conductivity, viscosity, and 9-inch-thick wall of a brick kiln made
diameter of pipe from a material with thermal
c. convection coefficient, velocity of conductivity of 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F? The
fluid, diameter of pipe outside and inside temperatures are
d. None of the above 1500F and 400F, respectively.
a. 224 BTU/hr-ft
29. A thick-walled stainless-steel tube b. 264 BTU/hr-ft
(k = 19 w/m-C, with 2 cm ID and 4 cm a. 246 BTU/hr-ft
OD) is covered with a 3-cm layer of d. None of the above
asbestos insulation (k = 0.2 w/m-C).
If the inside wall temperature of the 34. If the flow of fluid is on streamline
pipe is maintained at 600C and the characteristics, the fluid is at ___.
temperature outside of the insulation a. turbulent condition
is at 100C, what would be the heat b. laminar condition
loss per foot length of the tube? c. Eddies
a. 600 w/m d. All of the above
b. 680 w/m
c. 720 w/m
35. What is the heat transfer loss per 40. Basically, the thermal conductivity
foot of a 2-inch nominal pipe (OD=2.37 of a material will increase if the ___.
in.) covered with 1-inch-thick insulating a. thickness is increased
material having an average thermal b. temperature is increased
conductivity of 0.037 BTU/hr-ft-F. The c. temperature is decreased
inner and outer temperatures of the d. All of the above
insulation are 380 and 80F,
respectively. 41. Which of the following statements
a. 161 BTU/hr-ft is true?
b. 111 BTU/hr-ft a. Heat transfer rate is higher on edges
c. 125 BTU/hr-ft of boxes.
d. None of the above b. Heat transfer rate is higher on
corners of boxes.
36. The Prantdl number is a function of c. Heat transfer rate is lower on
___. walls of boxes.
a. viscosity, specific heat, and thermal d. None of the above
conductivity
a. specific heat, heat transfer 42. A good insulator for kiln dryer.
coefficient, and thermal conductivity a. Rice husk
c. viscosity, diameter of pipe, thermal b. Brick
conductivity c. Concrete
37. Heat transfer coefficient by force 43. A material that is poor conductor of
convection is determined by what heat or has low thermal conductivity.
dimensionless numbers? a. Conductor
a. Nusselt, Prantdl, Reynolds b. Insulator
b. Nusselt, Prantdl, Grashof c. Resistor
c. Reynolds, Grashof, Prantdl d. All of the above
44. A good example of high-
38. One British thermal unit (BTU) is temperature insulating material.
equal to ___. a. Iron
a. 1055 J b. Wood
b. 1505 J c. Asbestos
c. 1550 J d. All of the above
45. Which of the following materials
39. If the heated pipe is changed with a has low thermal conductivity?
higher pipe schedule, the transfer of a. Building brick
heat will ___. b. Asbestos
a. increase c. Firebrick
b. decrease d. Concrete
c. remains the same e. None of the above
d. All of the above
46. Insulators used for steam lines are 51. An extruded foam used for low-
classified as ___. temperature systems such as
a. low temperature range insulator refrigeration, building and sub-zero
b. medium temperature range insulation.
insulator a. Polystyrene foam
c. high temperature range insulator b. PVC foam
d. None of the above c. Plastic foam
d. All of the above
47. A good example of a dual-
temperature insulator. 52. A ceramic material designed to be
a. Expanded silica resistant to high temperature, i.e.,
b. Cellular glass 1000 to 1800C.
c. Vermiculite a. Refractory
d. All of the above b. Asbestos
c. Fiber glass
48. A form of insulants used in d. None of the above
industrial insulation application.
a. Flexible strips 53. The factor(s) that need(s) to be
b. Foil considered in selecting an insulant.
c. Flexible pipe section and a. Operating temperature
mattresses b. Maintenance cost
d. All of the above c. Ability to resist mechanical and heat
damage
49. Which of the following statements d. All of the above
is true?
a. In insulation, heat gain is more 54. To protect the insulant from
costly than heat loss. mechanical damage, it must be
b. The cost of extracting heat from provided with ___.
refrigerated space is the same with the a. metal sheet cladding
cost of heat losses from a high b. nets and asbestos cement
temperature system. c. wire net and bituminous compound
c. The cost of insulating high d. All of the above
temperature system is the same with
that of low temperature system. 55. The StefanBoltzmann constant is
d. All of the above equal to ___.
a. 0.147 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F4
50. The presence of moisture in a low- b. 0.174 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F4
temperature insulation material may c. 0.174 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F3
cause ___. d. None of the above
a. reduction in the insulating value of
the material 56. The equation for heat transfer by
a. improvement in the insulating value radiation in gray bodies is ___.
of the materials a. Qr = AT4
c. reduction in the cost of the b. Qr = AT4
insulating materials c. Qr = AT4
57. A device used in transferring heat.

a. Insulator
b. Heat absorber
c. Heat exchanger
d. All of the above
58. The overall heat transfer coefficient

includes ___.
a. thermal conductivity and heat
transfer coefficient of the materials
b. heat transfer coefficient and
emissivity of the materials
c. thermal conductivity and emissivity
of the materials
59. Which of the following statements

is true?
a. When radiant energy falls on a
body, portion of it may be reflected,
absorbed and the remainder
transmitted.
b. When radiant energy falls on a
body, part of it may be reflected and
absorbed.
c. When radiant energy falls on a
body, all of the energy are absorbed.
60. When two fluids in a heat

exchanger move in opposite direction,
the device is classified as ___.
a. parallel flow HE
b. cross flow HE
c. constant flow HE
61. In heat transfer by radiation,

configuration factor for parallel planes
is ___.
a. higher than perpendicular planes
b. lower for perpendicular planes
c. equal to perpendicular planes
Conduction (Homogenous Wall) Conduction (Composite Wall)
Qk = k A (To Ti) / x A (T1 T4)

Qk = ------------------------------------------
where: x12/k12 + x23/k23 + x34/k34
Qk - heat transfer rate, W
k - thermal conductivity, W / K-m where:
A - surface area, m2 Qk - heat transfer rate, W
To - outside wall temperature, K k - thermal conductivity, W / K-m
Ti - inside wall temperature, K A - surface area, m2
x - wall thickness, m T4 - outside wall temperature, K
T1 - inside wall temperature, K
x - wall thickness, m
1,2,3,4 - represent wall surfaces
Conduction (Homogenous Cylindrical Wall) Convection
2 k L (Ti - To) Qh = h A (To Ti )

Qk = -----------------------------
Ln ro/ri where:
Qh - heat transfer rate, W
where:
h - heat transfer coefficient, W-m2-K
Qk - heat transfer rate, W
A - surface area, m2
K - thermal conductivity, W / K-m Tf - fluid temperature, K
Ts - surface temperature, K
L - length of cylinder, m
To - outside wall temperature, K
Ti - inside wall temperature, K
r - radius of wall, m
o, i outside and inside wall surfaces
Radiation
Qr = A T 4
where:
Qr - heat trabsfer rate, W
- emmisivity
- Stefan-Boltzman constant, 5.7x104
W/m2-K4
T - temperature of the surface of the
material, K
Problem 1
The temperature inside a rice hull furnace is maintained at 1500 F by means of

suitable control apparatus. The wall of the furnace is 9 in. in thickness and
constructed from a material having 0.18 Btu/hr-ft-F thermal conductivity.
Calculate the heat loss for each square foot of wall surface per hour. Assume that
the inside and outside wall temperatures are 1500F and 400F, respectively.
Given:
Furnace inside wall temperature - 1500F
Wall thickness - 9 in.
K material - 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F
Outside wall temperature - 400F
Required: Heat transfer loss per square foot
Solution:
dt = 1500F 400F
= 1100F
dx = 9 in. x ft.12 in
= 0.75 ft
Qk/A = (0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F)(1100F) / 0.75 ft
= 264 BTU/hr-ft2
Problem 2
Calculate the thermal conductivity of a 4 x 8 test

panel, 1-in. thick if during a 3-hour test period it
conducted 900 BTU of heat through the panel with
15F temperature differential between its surfaces.
Given:
Area of the wall - 4 ft x 8 ft
Wall thickness - 1 in.
Heat conducted - 900 BTU
Difference in temp - 15F
Required: thermal conductivity
Solution:
Qk = 900 BTU/ 3 hours
= 300 BTU/hr
K = (300 BTU/hr) (0.083 ft) / (32 ft2) (15F)
= 0.052 BTU/hr-ft-F
Problem 3
The wall of a kiln is made up of 9-in fire bricks

(k=0.72 BTU/hr-ft-F), 5-in insulating bricks
(k=0.08 BTU/hr-ft-F), and 7.5-in red bricks (K=0.5
BTU/hr-ft-F). The inner (t1) and outer surface
temperatures (t4) are 1500F and 150F,
respectively. Neglecting the residences of the
mortar joints, compute the temperatures t2 and
t3 at the contact surface.
Given:
Fire brick - 9 in. K - 0.72 BTU/hr-ft-F
Insulating Brick - 5 in. K - 0.08 BTU/hr-ft-F
Red brick - 7.5 in. K - 0.5 BTU/hr-ft-F
t1 - 1500F
t4 - 150F
Required:
Temperatures at t2, t3, and at the
contact surface area
Solution:
Qk1-4 = 1 ft2 (1500F-150F) /
[(9in/12in/ft/0.72 BTU/hr-ft-F)
+ (5in/12in/ft/0.08BTU/hr-ft-F)
+ (7.5in/12in/ft/0.5BTU/hr-ft-F)]
= 180 BTU/hr
180 BTU/hr = 0.72 BTU/hr-ft-F x 1 ft2 (1500

t2) / (9 in/12 in/ft)
t2 = 1312F
180 BTU/hr = 0.08 BTU/hr-ft-F x 1 ft2

x (1312F t3) / (5 in/12in/ft)
t3 = 375F
Problem 4
A biomass furnace with 1-in. horizontal-plate

steel wall is covered by a 2-in.-thick insulation.
The temperature of the upper side of the steel
wall is 450F while at the lower side of the
insulation is 100F. If the k for steel is 29
BTU/hr-ft-F and the k for the insulation is 0.5
BTU/hr-ft-F, what is the temperature at the
junction between the steel plate and the
insulation?
Given:
Material - steel plate
Thickness - 1 in
Insulation - 2 in.
T1 - 450F
T3 - 100F
K steel - 29 BTU/hr-ft-F
K insulation - 0.5 BTU/hr-ft-F
Required:
Temperature between the
steel plate and the insulation
1 in. 2 in.
Solution:
Qk = 1 ft2 x (450F 100F) / (1in./12 in./ft/29 BTU/hr-ft-F)

+ (2 in./12 in/ft/0.5 BTU/hr-ft-F)
= 1041 BTU/hr
1041 BTU/hr = 29 BTU/hr-ft-F x 1 ft2 x (450-T2) /

1 in./12 in./ft
T2 = 447F
Problem 5
What is the heat loss per ft2 of a 9-inch-thick

brick-kiln wall made of a material with 0.18
BTU/hr-ft-F thermal conductivity? The outside
and inside temperatures are 1500F and 400F,
respectively.
Given: k - 0.18 BTU/ hr-ft-F

To - 1500 F
Ti - 400 F
x - 9 in.
Required: Heat loss per ft2
Solution:
Qk = kA(To-Ti)/x
= 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F (1500F 400F) / 9 in x 12 ft/in
= 264 BTU/hr-ft2
Problem 6
1 in.
What is the heat transfer loss per foot of a 2- To= 80 F
inch nominal pipe (OD=2.37 in.) covered with
1-in.-thick insulating material having of 0.037
BTU/hr-ft-F average thermal conductivity.
The inner and outer temperatures of the Ti= 380F
insulation are 380 and 80F, respectively.
Given: K = 0.037 BTU/hr-ft-F
Required: Heat transfer lose per foot

Solution:
2.37 in.
Qk = 2 kL (Ti To) / ( ln ro/ri )
= 2 (0.037 BTU/hr-ft-F) (380F 80F) / ln 2.187/1.1875
= 114.16 BTU/hr-ft
Problem 7
A thick-walled stainless-steel tube (k = 19 w/m-C, with 2 cm ID and 4 cm OD) is

covered with a 3-cm layer of asbestos insulation (k = 0.2 w/m-C). If the inside
wall temperature of the pipe is maintained at 600C and the outside of the
insulation at 100C, what is the heat loss per foot length of the tube?
Given:
Pipe inside diameter - 2 cm
Pipe outside diameter - 4 cm
Thickness of asbestos - 3 cm
K pipe - 19 W/m-C
K asbestos - 0.2 W/m-C
Temperature inside the pipe - 600C
Temperature outside the asbestos - 100C
Required:
Heat transfer rate per foot length of pipe
Solution:
Qk = 2 x L x (600C 100C) / [[(ln 2 cm/1 cm)/19 W/m-C]

+ [(ln 5 cm/2 cm)/0.23 W/m-C)]]
= 680 W per m or 207 W/ft
Problem 8
What is the heat loss per ft of the 9-inch-thick wall of a brick kiln made from a
material with 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F thermal conductivity? The outside and inside
temperatures are 1500F and 400F, respectively.
Given:
Brick wall thickness - 9 in.
Thermal conductivity - 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F
Inside temperature - 1500F
Outside temperature - 400F
Required:
Heat loss per ft 2
Solution:
Qk = A x [0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F x (1500F 400F)] / (9 in/12 in/ft)
= 264 BTU/hr-ft2
Problem 9
Calculate the energy transfer rate across a

6-in. firebrick wall of a farm house with
50C temperature difference across the
wall. The thermal conductivity of the
firebrick is 0.65 BTU/hr-ft-F.
Given:
Thickness of wall - 6 in.

Temperature difference - 50C
Heat transfer coefficient - 0.65
BTU/hr-ft-F
Required:
Heat transfer rate by conduction
Solution:
Qk = A 0.65 BTU/hr-ft-F (50 C) / 6 in.
= 0.65 BTU/hr-ft-F (122F) /
(6 in./12 in./ ft)
= 158.6 BTU/hr-ft2
The Authors:
Alexis T. Belonio is a Professional Agricultural Engineer and a

registered ASEAN Engineer. He is an Senior Research Fellow at
the Philippine Rice Research Institute, Science City of Munoz,
Nueva Ecija. He also serves as Affiliate Professor at the College
of Engineering, Central Luzon State University (CLSU), Science City
of Munoz, Nueva Ecija and a former Associate Professor of the
Department of Agricultural Engineering and Environmental
Management, College of Agriculture, Central Philippine
University, Iloilo City. He finished his Bachelor of Science in
Agricultural Engineering and Master of Science degrees from
CLSU. Since 1983, he has been deeply involved in teaching,
research, technology development, and entrepreneurial activities
related to the fields of agricultural engineering.
He was awarded by the Philippine Society of Agricultural Engineers (PSAE) as the Most Outstanding
Agricultural Engineer in the field of Farm Power and Machinery, in 1993. In that same year, he was
named by the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) as the Outstanding Professional in the
field of Agricultural Engineering. And in 1997, he was awarded by the TOYM Foundation and the
Jerry Roxas Foundation as the Outstanding Young Filipino (TOYF) in the field of Agricultural
Engineering. He was also awarded as Associate Laureate of the Rolex Awards for Enterprise 2008
(Geneva, Switzerland) and as a Laureate in Economic Business Development Category of The Tech
Awards 2010 (San Jose, California). He was adjudged as one of the Inspiring Modern-Day Filipino
Heroes by Yahoo Southeast Asia in 2011 and one of the 25 Heroes for Better of Western Union.
As a dedicated professional, he serves as technical consultant to various agricultural companies

and machinery manufacturers in the country and abroad. He also serves as a Reviewer for the
Agricultural Engineering Board Examination to TGIM, CLSU, BUCAF, CBSUA, and SPAMAST Review
Centers, in the fields of Agricultural Power, Machinery and Allied Subjects, and Agricultural
Processing, Structures and Allied Subjects. He has written and published several research and
technical papers, including instructional and review materials.
Daniel Alexis H. Belonio is a Professional Agricultural Engineer.

He finished his BS in Agricultural Engineering degree at Central
Luzon State University (CLSU) in 2014. He worked as project
assistant at Vinasilic SJ in Vietnam and at PT Minang Jordanindo
in Indonesia on the development of ric e husk gasifiers. He also
worked as assistant engineer at Agribio Philippines in Palawan on
the design, construction, and operation of 100 kW rice husk
gasifier power generating unit, rotary flash combined with in-
store dryer, and re-circulating bin type dryers. While working at
CNC Design Lab as assistant engineer, he is presently taking up BS
in Civil Engineering through the ETEEAP Program at CLSU.

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Alexis T. Belonio, MS, PAE, ASEAN Engineer

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All glory and honor belongs to You! In Jesus name, Amen!

9. Which of the following factors affect 14. Reynolds number equation.

40. The amount of heat transfer from

Flow from Horizontal Pipe

What is the rate of flow of coconut oil in a 2- in.

Required: Mass flow rate

A coconut oil is to be pumped into a

Required: Fluid Horsepower

FHP = Q H Y / 33,000 ft-lb/min

Therefore, use -hp pump.

A rotary pump is used in pumping

Required: Q2, HP2, and H2

18. The angle of repose of sorghum.

27. The property of a product that holds

29. The mass transfer among

Paddy Porosity Thermal Conductivity of Paddy Grains

Required: Porosity and percentage increase if

Required: Minimum angle of friction to

Required: Dimension of silo

Volume of paddy = Weight/Density

What is the amount of heat

Required: Heat energy required to raise the

Qs = 1.5 tons x 0.2219 BTU/lb-F x (138.6F 106.2F)

Required: Latent heat of vaporization

HV = 2.32 [1094-1.026(T+17.78)][1+2.4962 21.73 M]

Heat to be removed = HV x Moisture to be removed

Required: Weight of paddy after storage

DML = 1- exp [(A x TC) exp [D (T-60)] exp (E (W-0.14))]

Therefore, the weight of paddy after 6 months is 491.45 tons.

If the coefficient of friction of rice to steel

Required: Angle of friction of the hopper

A grain dryer was used to reduce the moisture content of

Required: Weight of moisture removed

Wt. of Moisture removed = Wi - Wf

1. The amount of moisture in the grain 6. The method of measuring the

2. The amount of moisture in the grain 7. If a product has 12% moisture

11. An important index to determine 16. The appliance usually used in

Moisture Content (Wet Basis) Moisture Content (Dry Basis)

What is the amount of moisture to be removed

Required: Amount of moisture to be removed

MC = Wmr x 100 / (Ww + Wdm)

What is the percentage moisture content of

MCd = (MCw x 100 )/ (100 - MCw)

Required: Equilibrium moisture content

Md = E F ln [-R (T+C) ln RH)

Mw = Md 100 / (100 Md)

If 20 kg of water is removed from a 110-kg paddy,

Required: % MC wet basis

If a product has 12% moisture content

MCd = MCw x 100 / (100 MCw)

A product has 25% moisture content,

MCw = MCd x 100 / (MCd + 100)

If 9 tons of a product is to be dried from 24%

Required: Weight final

Wi ( 1 Mci ) = Wf (1- MCf)

What is the moisture loss of the product in

Required: Moisture loss

Shelled corn initially at 24% is to be dried to 14%. If the

Required: Final wt. of the corn

Referring to Problem 9, what is the moisture loss of corn