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Combustion chambers of gas turbines

Aviation Engineer / Specialist


Tasks of combustion chambers

Firing fuel at low pollutant emission level


under high pressure
Having low pressure loss factor
Cooling back flue gas with air to the
acceptable temperature level of turbine blades
Power control of the turbine by means of fuel
flow control
Further task is to save combustion chamber
walls from extreme high temperature
Combustible range variation versus gas velocity
Simple and buffle added duct combustors
Flame stabilization created by swirl vanes
Fire
chamber
design
Typical combustor with straight through flow
Air distribution in typical combustor
Can-annular combustor
Combustion chamber design
Multiple
tubular
combustion
system
Tubular combustion chamber cross section
Supersonic fighter aircraft engine
Annular
combustion
chamber
Annular
combustion
chamber
design
Annular combustion chamber example
Fuel feeding system
The Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.)
or Fuel Flow Regulator (F.F.R.)
Altitude control
Acceleration control
Exhaust gas temperature limiting
Power limiter
RPM limiter
HP fuel cock (HP fuel shut off valve)
Pressurising and dump valve
Drains Tank
ELECTRONIC ENGINE CONTROL
The Supervisory EEC uses a computer which receives
inputs of various engine operating parameters and
controls a standard hydromechanical
Fuel Control Unit (FCU).
The FCU responds to the EEC commands and performs
the functions necessary for engine operation and
protection. The computer will monitor EPR, throttle
lever angle, Mach No, inlet pressure and temperature
and will maintain a constant thrust regardless of changes
in air pressure, temperature or flight environment.
Any fault with the EEC will cause the system to revert
to manual control.
The Full Authority Digital Engine Control
System (FADEC) receives all the necessary data
for engine operation and takes over virtually all of
the steady state and transient control functions,
which includes compressor airflow control
(VIGVs, VSVs, etc).
The fuel system components can therefore be
reduced to a pump, control valve and shut off
cock,
the traditional hydro-mechanical unit no longer
being required.
The FADEC system will monitor all of the normal
engine parameters to prevent exceeding limitations
while controlling the engine through all modes of
operation e.g. starting, idle, acceleration /
deceleration, take-off, climb, cruise in proportion
to the throttle lever position or Flight Management
Computer thrust demand.
Ignition
THE HIGH
ENERGY
IGNITION
UNIT
Effect of flame temperature on emissions
NOx emission reduction over years
NOx formation zones
Burner tube and blade inlet
Afterburner
Combustion chamber of a micro turbine
Firing temperature increase with blade
material and cooling solution improvement
Critical component the blade inlet
QUESTIONS
1. The ratio of air to kerosene to give the
greatest heat release during combustion is:
a. 45 : 1.
b. 130 : 1.
c. 12.5 : 1.
d. 15 : 1.
2. One advantage of an annular
combustion chamber system is that:
a. The diameter of the engine is reduced.
b. There is unrestricted airflow at maximum r.p.m.
c. There are no flame propagation problems.
d. The air casing area is greater.
3. Of the total airflow entering the combustion
chamber the percentage that is mixed with the
fuel and burnt is:

a. 10%
b. 40%
c. 20%
d. 60%
4. The combustion chamber drain valve is closed:

a. By combustion chamber gas pressure.


b. By a return spring.
c. By 12th stage compressor air pressure.
d. During a blow out cycle.
5. A cannular combustion system is:

a. A set of flame tubes, each of which is mounted


in a separate air casing.
b. A set of flame tubes enclosed in a common
air casing.
c. One common flame tube enclosed in a common
air casing.
d. Superior to the annular system because it only
requires one igniter.
6. It is necessary to have a
combustion drain system:
a. To prevent pressure build up in the
combustion chamber.
b. To allow moisture content in the fuel to drain
away.
c. To allow any unburnt fuel to drain after shut
down or a wet start.
d. To prevent the igniters becoming wetted by
excess fuel.
7. The purpose of the tertiary airflow created
in the combustion chamber is to:

a. Reduce the gas temperature and cool the flame


tube.
b. Form a toroidal vortex, which anchors and
stabilises the flame.
c. Reduce the gas temperature and cool the burner
head.
d. Ensure complete combustion of the fuel.
8. A re-light envelope:

a. Shows the flame stability limits.


b. Shows airspeed and altitude limitations for
an in-flight restart.
c. Shows fuel / air mixture limitations for an
in-flight restart.
d. Contains the in flight re-start igniter plugs.
9. Swirl vanes in the combustion chamber:

a. Increase the velocity of the airflow.


b. Reduce the velocity of the airflow.
c. Prevent compressor stall.
d. Help to stabilize combustion.
10. The air entering the combustion chamber is divided; a
small percentage is used in combustion, the rest:

a. Is syphoned off for airframe anti-icing purposes.


b. Is used only for cooling the gases before they exit
the combustion chamber.
c. Is used to reduce the oil temperature and cool the
turbine blades.
d. Is used to cool both the gases exiting the chamber
and the walls of the air casing.
1. With an increase in altitude the boiling
point of fuel will:
a. Stay the same.
b. Increase
c. Decrease.
d. Increase up to FL80 then remain the same.
2. Modern jet aircraft fuel tanks are
pressurised:
a. By air from the engine compressor to
prevent cavitation.
b. By air from the air conditioning system to
prevent cavitation.
c. By ram air to prevent cavitation.
d. By ram air to stabilise the boiling point.
3. Fuel is heated from which of the
following?
a. Air conditioning air.
b. Air from the compressor.
c. Air from the Bootstrap.
d. Air from the turbine.
4. Fuel is heated to:

a. Prevent waxing.
b. Ensure vapour losses are minimised.
c. Make it more viscous.
d. Make it easier to flow under all conditions.
5. Fuel booster pumps are situated in:

a. The fuel tanks.


b. In the line between the main fuel tanks and
the engine.
c. Low pressure side of the engine.
d. High-pressure side of the engine.
6. In a fuel cooled oil cooler the________ is
maintained________ than the ____________.

a. Fuel pressure - higher - oil pressure


b. Oil pressure - lower - fuel
c. Fuel pressure - same - oil pressure
d. Oil pressure - higher - fuel pressure
7. In a high by pass engine fuel pumps
are driven by:
a. High pressure turbine.
b. High pressure compressor.
c. Low pressure compressor.
d. Intermediate compressor.
8. The effect of the high pressure compressor outlet
pressure exceeding its maximum value would be:
a. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU)
FCU reduce fuel, reduce RPM.
b. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU)
FCU increase fuel, increase RPM.
c. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU).
Bleed valve open, bleed off excess volume of air.
d. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU).
Bleed valve open, bleed off excess pressure.
9. Which of the following is a normal
stopping device for a gas turbine?

a. LP shut off valve close.


b. Fuel tank booster pumps select off.
c. HP shut off valve close.
d. Isolate electrics from engine.
10. Which of the following is a correct
statement?
a. When an engine is running, the combustion chamber
drain is closed by a pressure operated NRV.
b. When an engine is running, the combustion chamber
drains tank is opened by a pressure operated NRV.
c. When the engine is shut down the drains tank closes
to minimise fuel losses.
d. When the engine is shut down, residual fuel is
syphoned directly back to the fuel tanks to minimise
fuel losses.
11. The fuel flow-meter is situated:

a. Between LP pump and the FCOC.


b. Between LP pump and HP pump.
c. Just after FCU.
d. Between HP shut off valve and fuel nozzles.
12. An overheat in the turbine will result in:
a. An electrical signal from the thermocouple sent
directly to the FCU and fuel being reduced.
b. An electrical signal from the thermocouple
amplified then sent directly to the FCU and fuel
being reduced.
c. Pilot observing overheat on temperature gauge
then subsequently throttling back the engine,
therefore reducing fuel.
d. Pilot observing overheat on temperature gauge
then subsequently increasing RPM to increase
airflow, to increase cooling air, to decrease
turbine temperature.
13. Aircraft flying at FL 420. If the booster
pumps feeding the engine cease to work:
a. The engine would close down immediately.
b. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may
be a possibility of cavitation due to the low pressure and
low boiling point of the fuel.
c. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may
be a possibility of cavitation due to the low pressure and
higher boiling point of the fuel.
d. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may
be a possibility of cavitation due to the higher pressure
and higher boiling point of the fuel.
14. The fuel cooled oil cooler:

a. Heats the oil and cools the fuel.


b. Heats the fuel only.
c. Cools the oil only.
d. Heats the fuel and cools the oil.
1. The low energy ignition system would be used:

a. Only for starting the engine on the ground.


b. During take off from wet runways.
c. For re-light at high altitude.
d. During a blow out (motoring over) cycle.
2. A typical APU can provide:

a. Air for air conditioning on the ground.


b. Air for engine starting.
c. Electrical power for ground or in flight use.
d. All of the above.
3. The advantage of an air starter system is that:

a. It is safer in operation than other systems,


and no fire risk.
b. It is light, simple and economical.
c. It provides a more rapid start.
d. It is totally self contained and needs no
external source of power.
4. A Hung Start is indicated by:

a. High E.G.T. - high fuel flow - low R.P.M.


b. Low E.G.T. - idle fuel flow - low R.P.M.
c. Low E.G.T. - high fuel flow - high R.P.M.
d. High E.G.T. - idle fuel flow - low R.P.M.
5. If a gas turbine engine fails to light up
within the specified time:
a. It must be motored over with the H.P. fuel cock shut.
b. The fuel system must be drained.
c. No further attempt to start may be made until
the fuel has evaporated.
d. It must be motored over with the H.P. fuel cock shut
and no igniters selected.
6. A Re-light is:

a. The action of re-starting a flamed out


engine, usually while airborne.
b. What occurs when the engine drain valve is
stuck open.
c. The initiation of the after-burning system.
d. What must be prevented after a wet start.
7. Precautionary use of igniters may be
necessary during:

a. Flight through heavy tropical rainstorm.


b. Ground running.
c. Flight through sandy conditions.
d. Flight through very dry air.
8. A Hung Start occurs when:

a. The engine accelerates but does not light up.


b. The engine stabilises above self sustaining
speed.
c. The engine lights up but does not accelerate to
self sustaining speed.
d. There is a double igniter failure.
9. After engine start, the engine igniters are
normally deactivated by:

a. An electric interlock system.


b. A speed switch.
c. The time switch.
d. Centrifugal force.
10. Failure of the engine to light up is shown by:

a. The failure of the engine to turn and no


T.G.T.
b. Low R.P.M. fuel flow indication, and no
T.G.T.
c. T.G.T. increasing but no R.P.M.
d. No R.P.M. and no T.G.T.
11. The term Self Sustaining Speed means that:

a. The aircraft can roll forward with no further


opening of the throttles.
b. The speed from which the engine can accelerate
to full power within 5 seconds.
c. The engine will run independently of external
help.
d. The speed from which the engine can accelerate
to idle without the help of the starter motor.
12. A high energy ignition system works on
the principle of:

a. Obtaining power from a step up transformer


from the aircrafts A.C. power system.
b. Magneto static induction.
c. Flemings Right Hand Rule.
d. Obtaining energy from the discharge of a
capacitor.
13. Before opening the high-pressure fuel shut
off valve during the engine start:
a. The compressor must be turning at the
correct RPM in the right direction.
b. The Low-Pressure compressor must be
stationary.
c. The Low Pressure fuel cock must be shut.
d. The Low Pressure compressor must be
rotating faster than the High-Pressure
compressor.
14. A gas turbine engine which has both high and
low energy ignition systems uses the high energy
system for (i), and the low energy system for (ii):
(i) (ii)
a. Engine starting High altitude relighting
b. High altitude relighting Take off from contaminated
runways
c. Take off from snowy Engine start
runways
d. Take off from flooded Take off from snowy runways
runways
15. The air supply to operate an air starter
usually comes from:

a. An external installation.
b. Storage bottles carried in the aircraft.
c. The auxiliary power unit.
d. A cross bleed start.
16. In a High Energy Igniter Unit, the
discharge resistors:

a. Allow sufficient energy to be stored in the


capacitor to provide re-light facilities up to
55 000 ft.
b. Protects the unit from excessive voltages.
c. Allow the capacitor to discharge when the
unit is switched off.
d. Prolong the discharge.
17. In a High Energy Igniter Unit, the choke:

a. Protects the unit from excessive voltages.


b. Prolongs the discharge to the plug.
c. Prolongs the life of the igniter
d. Protects the unit from excessive current.
18. The rate of discharge of a High Energy
Ignition Unit is:

a. 60 - 100 times per minute.


b. 4 discharges per revolution.
c. 60 - 100 per second.
d. Governed by the resistance of the igniter plug.
19. The air supply for an air start system is:

a. At a relatively low pressure, but high volume.


b. Filtered to prevent damage to the starter
motor.
c. Preheated to avoid icing in the starter nozzle
guide vanes.
d. At a high pressure but low volume.
20. The starter motor is disengaged from the
engine start system:

a. As soon as the engine lights up.


b. Just above self-sustaining speed.
c. At 26% H.P. R.P.M.
d. Just below self-sustaining speed.
21. The power supply for the spark
in the combustion chamber is:
a. Low volts high current
b. Low volts low current
c. High volts low current
d. High volts high current
22. In a twin spool engine self sustaining
speed is normally reached at:

a. 60% N2
b. 60% N1
c. 30% N2
d. 30% N1
23. In a twin spool engine the typical idle
speeds are:

a. 60% N2 25% N1
b. 25% N2 60% N1
c. 40% N2 30% N1
d. 80% N2 45% N1
Thank You for Your Attention !

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