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Mathematics: Algebra, Trigonometry, Statistics, Analytic 1
Geometry, Differential Calculus and Integral Calculus
20 items and Quick Tips
B Mechanics, Thermodynamics, and Engineering Economics 20
36 items
C Differential Equations and Advanced Math 35
20 items and Quick Tips
D Vector Analysis and Electromagnetics 51
20 items and Quick Tips
E Electrical Circuits and DC Machines 64
20 items
F Analog Electronics 72
36 items
G Digital Electronics 82
40 items
H Industrial Electronics 92
30 items
I Computer Networks and Data Communications: Part 1 97
40 items
J Wave Propagation 105
20 items
K Analog Communications and Broadcast Engineering 109
20 items
L Digital and Data Communications: Part 2 114
40 items
GUIDELINES
The answer that cant be a solution is simply done in a complete sentence.
*Solutions are gathered in one particular section separately from the
chapter test with multiple choices. Rare solutions are shown in units. Brief
explanations are inserted to give you an information as possible. However,
there are some lacking algorithms of the mathematical solution; so it is up
to you if you would expand it until the final answer is attained. Anyway, the
calculator will compute for that case.
Please read Quick Tips where you can learn to manipulate.
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risk, students. (c) Dec 2015
A
1
Mathematics
A character after each problem is indicated on what major mathematics belongs with:
A Algebra
T Trigonometry
SP Statistics and Probability
AG Analytic Geometry
DC Differential Calculus
IC Integral Calculus
1 In a pile of logs, each layer contains one more log than the layer above and the top contains just one
log. If there are 105 logs in the pile, how many layers are there? A
a. 12 c. 11
b. 14 d. 10
2 Find the sum of all integers between 84 and 719 which are exactly divisible by 5. A
a. 50 800
b. 30 400
c. 23 780
d. 45 680
3 A swimming pool is constructed in the shape of two partially overlapping circles, each of radius
9 m. If the center of each circle lies on the circumference of the other, find the perimeter of the
swimming pool. AG
a. 56.5 m c. 85.7 m
b. 96.8 m d. 75.4 m
4 A receiver in a parabolic television dish antenna is 3 feet from the vertex and is located at the focus.
Assuming that the dish is directed upward and the vertex is at the origin, find the equation of the
cross section of the reflector. AG
a. x2 = 12y c. y2 = 12x
b. x2 = 8y d. y2 = 8x
5 How many members between 3 000 and 5 000 can be formed from the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
of repetition is not allowed? SP
a. 160 c. 512
b. 420 d. 240
6 A sample of 5 is to be chosen from a batch of 6 resistors and 9 transistors. If the selection is made
randomly, what is the probability that the sample consists of 3 resistors and 2 transistors? SP
a. 240/1 001 c. 270/1 200
b. 480/1 000 d. 510/1 100
7 An organization has 25 members, 4 of whom are ECE. In how many ways can a committee of 3 be
formed so as to include at one ECE? SP
a. 970 c. 850
b. 350 d. 325
2 Mathematics
8 A snowball is being made so that its volume is increasing at the rate of 8 ft3/min. Find the rate of
change at which the radius is increasing when the snowball is 4 ft in diameter. DC
a. 0.159 ft/min c. 0.259 ft/min
b. 0.325 ft/min d. 0.015 ft/min
9 In a deck of 52 playing cards, what is the probability of drawing a number card or a club? SP
a. 9/13
b. 1/26
c. 21/52
d. 43/52
10
In a certain party, each of the group drinks coke or beer or whisky or all. Also 400 drink coke, 500
drink beer and 300 drink whisky, 100 drink coke and beer and 200 drink beer and whisky. One
who drinks whisky does not drink coke. How many are in the group? A
a. 900 c. 600
b. 300 d. 500
11 A man is riding his car at rate of 30 km/hr towards the foot of a pole 10 m high. At what rate is he
approaching the stop at 40 m from the foot of the pole? DC
a. 6.78 m/s c. 8.08 m/s
b. 5.60 m/s d. 4.08 m/s
12 A hut has a parabolic cross-section whose height is 30 m and whose base is 60 m. If a ceiling 40 m
wide is to be placed inside the hut, how high will it be above the base? AG
a. 19.85 m c. 14.47 m
b. 16.67 m d. 15.48 m
13 Find the area of a regular five-pointed star inscribed in a circle of radius 20 cm. AG
a. 559 cm2
b. 349 cm2
c. 449 cm2
d. 459 cm2
14
From a point on a level ground, the angles of elevation of the top and bottom of a PLDT tower,
situated on the hill and measured as 48 and 40, respectively. Find the height of the hill if the height
of the tower is 116 feet. T
a. 347.56 ft c. 258.96 ft
b. 368.36 ft d. 358.49 ft
15 Find the area of a region bounded by y = x2 5x + 6, the x-axis and the vertical lines x = 0 and
x = 4. IC
a. 16/3 c. 17/3
b. 5/7 d. 9/2
17 An urn contains 5 white and 7 black balls. Another urn contains 3 white and 9 black balls. If one ball
from the first urn is selected at random and is transferred to the second urn, what is the probability
that the ball drawn from the second urn gives a black? SP
Mathematics 3
a. 125/326 c. 151/216
b. 115/126 d. 115/156
18 A fruit vendor goes to the market to buy fruits for resale at her store. She spend half her money for
mangoes, and one-third of what she had remains for bananas. She spent 150 for other fruits and
still has 200 left from the amount she originally had. How much money she have at the start? A
a. 1 050 c. 1 250
b. 1 500 d. 5 100
19 A sphere of radius 5 cm and a right circular cone of base radius 5 cm and height 10 cm, stands
on the table. How far from the table should the two solids be cut in order to have equal circular
sections? T
a. 2 cm c. 5 cm
b. 4 cm d. 7 cm
Answers
1 (b) Hint: Sum of an Arithmetic Progression
n
Sn = [2a1 + (n 1)d]
2
Eq.A1
where a1 = first term; d = common difference; n = number of terms; Sn = sum of n terms. Eq.A1 is
used for the sum of a certain number of an arithmetic sequence.
Given: Sn = 105 (total logs in pile); a1 = 1 (first pile); d = 1 (each layer of the pile is incremented
by 1)
Required: n (number of layers)
n
105 = [2(1) + (n 1)(1)]
2
210 = 2n + n2 n
0 = n2 + n 210
Apply the quadratic formula and choose a positive integer.
n = 14
an = a1 + (n 1)d and
n
Sn = (a1 + an)
2
Eqs.A2 & A3
where an is an n term (and can be referred as a last term). Eq.A2 is used if there is a part of n term
without summing that sequence. Eq.A3 is definitely the same with Eq.A1 by simply substituting an
from Eq.A2.
Given: a1 = 85; d = 5; an = 715
Required: Sn
Find first the value of n.
715 = 85 + (n 1)(5)
n = 127
Finally,
127
Sn = (85 + 715) = 50 800
2
s = 9(120)(/180) = 6
r r s
r=9m 60
r
(a) (b)
Fig.A1
To get the perimeter, the one that does not overlap, subtract the arc length from the circumference.
P = C s = 2(9) 6 = 12
Doing the other circle is same, so add the total perimeter.
PT = 12 + 12 = 24 m or 75.4 m
nPr =
n!
(n r)!
Eq.A7
where the symbol ! is a factorial. Eq.A7 is used when the situation is arranged in order.
Given: numbers 3 000 and 5 000
Required: possible numbers between 3 000 and 5 000 having the digits 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 without repetition
Two solutions are as follows:
1) These numbers consist of 4 digits. The first place starting at the left may be filled in 2 ways, that
is by digits 3 and 4. The remaining 6 digits, which are 0 1 3 4 5 6, may be arranged in the 3 other
places writing 6P3. The solution will be formed as
2(6P3) = 240
2) By not using Eq.A7, have four blanks to fill the numbers as to follow the rules. This solution is
called a simple probability. Again, the first place starting at the left is filled in 2 ways: 3 and 4.
2___
The second place is filled with 6 which is considered as the highest number given.
26__
The third place is filled with 5 because the rule is not repeating.
265_
6 Mathematics
The last place is 4 as the same reason from the previous step.
2654
Multiply all digits.
2(6)(5)(4) = 240
where PE = probability that the event will happen, S = successful outcomes, T = total number of
possible outcomes. Eq.A8 is used when the situation does not matter the order; in other words, it is
a group of random. Eq.A9 is the numerical measure of the likelihood of an event to occur.
Given: 6 resistors and 9 transistors
Required: chance to pick 3 resistors and 2 transistors
The two kinds of object with the number of picks are expressed in combination and multiplied.
6C3 9C2
Importantly the total objects and picks are also expressed in combination.
15C5
With S = 6C3 9C2, and T = 15C5, then:
6C3 9C2
= 720/3 003 = 240/1 001
15C5
The derivative is applied when the function deals about the rate of change. Most common cases of
the rate of change are affected by time t.
Given: d (diameter) = 4 ft; r = 2 ft; dV/dt = 8 ft3/min (rate of change of the volume)
Radius is half of a diameter.
Mathematics 7
beer
200
100 200 whisky
coke
300 100
Fig.A2
Add the groups.
300 + 100 + 200 + 200 + 100 = 900
8 Mathematics
40
x = 40 m
Fig.A3
Solve the hypotenuse c.
c2 = 402 + 102
c = 402 + 102 = 41.23
To apply the derivative in Eq.A10, let x varies where the car is displaced.
d
(c2 = x2 + 102)
dt
The derivative of constant is zero.
dc dx
2c = 2x + 0
dt dt
dc x dx 40
= = (8.33) = 8.08 m/s
dt c dt 41.23
origin
x
30 m 30 h
ceiling 30
40 m 20
h
base
y 30
60 m
(a) (b)
Fig.A4
Mathematics 9
In Eq.A6, x is squared. The two similar shapes (Fig.A4b) are selected to solve the height h.
30 30 h
=
302 202
400(30) = 900(30 h)
h = 16.67 m
13 (c) Hint: Sine Law and Area of a Triangle, and Area of a Five-Pointed Star (Another Solution)
a b c
= = and = =
sin A sin B sin C
sin A sin B sin C
a b c
Eqs.A14 & A15
where a, b and c are the sides of a triangle, and A, B and C are the angles. These formulas are used
if the triangle is a not right triangle.
1 Eq.A16
A = (shortest side)(base) sin
2
Eq.A16 is an area of a triangle in terms of an angle. If there is a height, the shortest side and sin
are substituted into it.
Eq.A17
A = 1.123 r2
where r = radius. The most efficient solution is the area of a five-pointed star itself (Eq.A17).
Given: Fig.A5a shows the problem.
Required: area of the star
Two solutions are as follows:
1) The star is sliced into 10 triangles symmetrically; however the circle is insignificant. One triangle
in enlarged scale is selected, and labeled as a model-based (Fig.A5b). It does not matter where
the sides of a triangle are labeled as long as the angles are followed accordingly.
(a) (b)
0 cm C
r=2
a b
B A
c=r
Fig.A5
A revolution around 10 triangles (or of a circle) is 360. Divide it by 10 triangles to get the angle B.
B = 360/10 = 36
Notice that the angle A is half of the angle B due to symmetry; so A = 18. To find the angle C,
the total angle of a triangle is always 180 and subtract it from the known angles.
C = 180 36 18 = 126
Use sine laws to solve the unknown sides:
a 20
=
sin 18 sin 126
10 Mathematics
a = 7.64
and
b 20
=
sin 36 sin 126
b = 14.53
The area of a star is 10 times the area of that triangle.
A = 10A = 10(1/2)(ac sin B)
= 10(1/2)(7.64)(20) sin 36 = 449 cm2
From the solution above, the angle B is the angle that meets the shortest side a and base c.
2) Using Eq.A17,
A = 1.123(20)2 449 cm2
116 ft
116 + h
h h
40 48 40 48
point
x x
x
(a) (b)
Fig.A6
Finding the hypotenuse is not necessary, The tangent is a ratio of the opposite and adjacent side,
and is expressed of two triangles on Fig.A6b:
116 + h h
tan 48 = and tan 40 =
x x
Equate two solutions above as one, since both x are the same.
116 + h h
x==
tan 48 tan 40
(tan 40)(116 + h) = (tan 48)h
h = 358.49 ft
where f(x) is a function, and a and b are the boundary values (or limits); the boundary value b must
be greater than a.
Given: function y = x2 5x + 6 with vertical lines at x1 = 0 and x2 = 4
Required: area of all regions
Predicting and drawing a graph of a function (Table A1 and Fig.A7) are needed for easy to find out
the boundary values and the areas.
y y = x2 5x + 6
x 0 1 2 3 4
y 6 2 0 0 2 A2
A1
A3
x
0 1 2 3 4
Table A1 Fig.A7
Three shaded parts are the areas bounded by the curve, two vertical lines and x-axis. Identify the
boundary values of each area. Integrating A1 yields:
2 2
y dx = (x2 5x + 6) dx
0 0
2
x3 5x2
= + 6x
3 2 0
2 5(2)2
3
03 5(0)2
= + 6(2) + 6(0)
3 2 3 2
= 14/3
From the solution above, the steps are as follows: (1) Integrate the function and set aside the limits at
the right; (2) substitute the upper limit and lower limit; (3) and subtract the second result from the first
result.
Integrating also A2 and A3 at different limits yields:
3 3
y dx = (x2 5x + 6) dx = |1/6| = 1/6
2 2
and
4 4
y dx = (x2 5x + 6) dx = 5/6
3 3
From the solved A2, area does not occur negative integer.
Add the total area.
AT = 14/3 + 1/6 + 5/6 = 17/3
To solve the area as an alternative way, this short method below is wrong because the area A2 is
located on the negative y-axis (fourth quadrant). If ever all areas are located on the positive quadrant
depending of the function, that alternative way may be used.
4 4
y dx = (x2 5x + 6) dx = 16/3
0 0
12 Mathematics
5 cm 10 cm
h
surface level
5 cm
Fig.A9
Create a triangle in the sphere (Fig.A9a) and get the radius x of the cut using Pythagorean Theorem.
In the cone, create two triangles (Fig.A9b) and get the radius x of the cut using proportion.
5 10 10 h
5h
x
5 x
(a) (b)
Fig.A9
a2 = c2 b2
x2 = 52 (5 h)2
x = 10h h2
and
14 Mathematics
10 10 h
=
5 x
10 h
x=
2
Equate them as one.
2 10 h
x= 10h h =
2
2
10 h
10h h2 =
2
(10 h)(10 h)
(10 h)h =
4
h = 2 cm
Quick Tips
Welcome to this section! In normal mode, solving an engineering problem is spent less than or within two
minutes. Very proficient you are if you solve a hard and challenging problem on the said time. Because time
is counting on you and becomes your worst enemy, be alert especially when you take a licensure exam. Of
course, your best buddy is the calculator.
Modern scientific calculators have so many functions and operations that help to eliminate of some memorized
formulas and/or to shorten the solution. One of the common brand scientific calculators is Casio with a
model: fx-991ES PLUS (or fx-991ES which is the previous one). So we are going to use it for the rest of this
document. Be familiar with it as usual.
2) To solve x, press qr which is the shift-solve. A command appears as Solve for X. Then finally
press p.
16 Mathematics
Math Format Equation
1) If you want a precise and neat format, follow these consecutive keys:
Q)-aQ)R2$-a1R3$(Q)
-aQ)R2$)-150Qr200
The screen below is provided.
Note: Math format equation is used in COMP (Compute) mode; the keys are w1. However, CMPLX
(Complex) mode is not applicable with this technique.
2) Do the shift-solve.
Disadvantages of Shift-Solve
For some reasons, getting the output takes a few seconds to wait, or the calculator cant solve.
1) The variable is placed on the denominator using math format equation.
2) The variable has a power (or degree) in a polynomial term.
3) Handles more mathematical functions (such as trigonometric, logarithmic, exponential form, etc.)
4) Other than a linear equation such as quadratic and quartic equation, one root will exist. The calculator
cant solve if the root would be a complex number (not real number).
5) The calculator cant solve inseparable variables (commonly non-linear equation), and expressions with
complex numbers.
Quadratic Equation
Here, do not apply the quadratic formula to extract the roots of the quadratic equation. The calculator is ready-
to-go for you to save time and effort.
The general form of the quadratic equation is
ax2 + bx + c = 0
where a, b and c are coefficients. Lets choose an equation in Item 1, that is
Mathematics 17
n2 + n 210 = 0
1) Go to w5 (EQN, Equation). Then press 3 for the general form of the quadratic equation. You see
that the zeroes place on each coefficient respectively.
2) Since n is a variable, let x2 + x 210 = 0, where a = 1, b = 1, c = 210. To input these coefficients, press
1p1p-210
and you have this process as shown below.
3) Press p to get the roots. The root x1 is first shown up; for root x2, press R. The arrowhead on the upper
screen indicates that there is a previous and/or next output. (Its purpose is known also as history.)
Definite Integral
You dont need to integrate manually such as integration by parts, trigonometric substitution, integration
by substitution, etc. The calculator can solve definite integral. However, do not expect that you are going to
input integrals without limits here. We are going to create a math format equation for it. Lets choose the first
definite integral in Item 15, that is
2
(x2 5x + 6) dx
0
Storing of Data
This technique helps you to collect the outputs and then to use them for the another math expression. This is
also important if the outputs value is a large number, (terminating or non-terminating) decimal number, and
fractional number.
1) Lets choose the output in the Definite Integral Section. We store it by replacing a variable. Press qJ
for STO (storage), and then z for replacing it with variable A.
2) Do it for the remaining definite integrals:
3 4
(x 5x + 6) dx
2
and (x2 5x + 6) dx
2 3
Arithmetic Progression
Aside from using Eq.A2, you calculate either the number of terms n, or the nth term an in a statistical way.
Lets choose the given in Item 2 as which they will form an arithmetic progression. Recalling a1 = 85, d = 5,
and an = 715.
1) Press w3 (STAT, statistics). Then press 2 for linear function. We use that because the arithmetic
progression becomes a linear function.
Mathematics 19
2) Since 85 is the first term, then n = 1. Because d = 5, 85 is next to 90, and 90 is the second term, so n = 2.
Input them as shown below.
That symbol appears alone at the upper-left, and then type 715 before it. Then press p.
B
20 20
Mechanics, Thermodynamics,
and Engineering Economics
Mechanics (Pretest: 15, Post-test: 613)
1 A railroad flatcar of mass 2 000 kg, rolls to the right at 10 m/s and collides with a flatcar of mass
3 000 kg which is rolling to the left at 5 m/s. The flatcars couple together. Their speed after the
collision is _____.
a. 1 m/s c. 5 m/s
b. 2.5 m/s d. 7 m/s
2 A boy is standing on an elevator which is traveling downward with a constant velocity of 30 m/s.
He throws a ball vertically upward with a velocity of 10 m/s, relative to the elevator. What is the
velocity of the ball, magnitude and direction, relative to the elevator shaft the instant the boy releases
the ball?
a. 20 m/s, down c. 40 m/s, down
b. 20 m/s, up d. 40 m/s, up
5
A machine perform 8 joules of work in 2 seconds. How much power is delivered by this machine?
a. 4 W c. 8 W
b. 6 W d. 12 W
6
A train is traveling 20 km/hr. It is 0.5 km behind you. You want to beat the train to a crossing that
is 0.5 km away. How fast must you run?
a. 4 km/hr c. 15 km/hr
b. 5 km/hr d. 10 km/hr
7 From the speed of 100 km/hr, a car decelerates at the rate of 15 m/min/sec along a straight road.
Which of the following gives the distance traveled at the end of 40 sec?
a. 94.111 m c. 455.56 m
b. 911.11 m d. 3 800 m
8 A person pushes a box across a horizontal surface at a constant speed of 0.5 m/s. The box has a
mass of 40 kg and the coefficient of sliding friction is 0.25. The power supplied to the box by the
person is _____.
a. 0.2 W c. 100 W
b. 50 W d. 5 W
9 A fighter plane flies over the ocean in level flight at an altitude of 19.6 meters. How long does it take
a bomb dropped from its wing to impact the water?
Mechanics, Thermodynamics, and Engineering Economics 21
a. 1 sec c. 2 sec
b. 0.5 sec d. 2.83 sec
10 An artillery is launched upward at an angle of 44 with a muzzle velocity of 40 m/s. What is the
time that the artillery would reach the highest point of its flight?
a. 6.28 sec c. 5.66 sec
b. 3.82 sec d. 2.83 sec
12 Three forces that act on a particle are given by F1 = 20i 36j + 73k N, F2 = 17i + 21j 46k N,
and F3 = 12k N. Find the magnitude of the resultant force.
a. 16.7 N c. 30.2 N
b. 21.4 N d. 15.5 N
13 A 5-meter uniform plank of mass 100 kilograms rests on the top of a building with 2 meters extended
over the edge. How far can a 50-kg person venture past the edge of the building on the plank before
the plank just begins to tip?
a. 0.67 m c. 0.5 m
b. 1 m d. 2 m
15 The maximum efficiency of a heat engine that operates between temperature of 1 500 K in the
firing chamber and 600 K in the exhaust chamber is mostly nearly _____.
a. 33% c. 60%
b. 40% d. 70%
17 An ideal gas confined in a box initially has pressure p. If the absolute temperature of the gas is
doubled and the volume of the box is quadrupled, the pressure p is _____.
a. p/8 c. p/2
b. p/4 d. p
18 On a day when the barometer reads 755 mmHg, a tire pressure gauge reads 205 kPa. The absolute
pressure of the tire is _____.
a. 100 kPa c. 1.54 mmHg
b. 204 kPa d. 2.29 mHg
22 Mechanics, Thermodynamics, and Engineering Economics
19 The volume of a gas under constant pressure increases or decreases with temperature is called _____.
a. Charless Law
b. Boyles Law
c. Gay-Lussacs Law
d. Ideal Gas Law
20 At one atmosphere, a cylinder with movable piston contains 2 000 mL of gas. If the pressure is
increased to 5 atmospheres and the temperature remains unchanged, what is the new volume of the
gas?
a. 10 000 mL c. 4 000 mL
b. 400 mL d. 1 000 mL
21 At what point is the temperature the same on the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales?
a. absolute zero
b. negative 40
c. zero
d. never
22 Which of the laws of thermodynamics is often invoked to discredit attempts at perpetual motion?
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b. Third Law of Thermodynamics
c. First Law of Thermodynamics
d. Second Law of Thermodynamics
23 At STP, the volume of the gas is 1 000 mL. If the temperature is increased to 25C and the pressure
is doubled, what is the new volume of the gas?
a. 500 mL c. 546 mL
b. 273 mL d. 1 000 mL
26 2 000 is borrowed for 105 days at 12% per annum simple interest. How much will be due at the
end of 105 days?
a. 2 070 c. 2 270
b. 2 170 d. 2 370
27 The amount of 20 000 was deposited in a bank and was earning an interest of 6.5% per annum.
Determine the total amount at the end of 17 years if the principal and interest were not withdrawn
during this period.
a. 53 480.93 c. 58 403.93
b. 54 830.93 d. 58 340.93
28 What nominal rate, compounded semiannually, yields the same amount as 25% compounded
quarterly?
a. 25.78% c. 28.57%
b. 27.58% d. 24.78%
Mechanics, Thermodynamics, and Engineering Economics 23
29 Find the present worth of a future payment of 290 000 to be made in 4 years with an interest of
9% compounded annually?
a. 254 043.31 c. 205 344.31
b. 245 403.31 d. 205 443.31
30 A sum of 15 000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is withdrawn.
The interest has accrued and is left for another eight years. If the effective annual interest rate is 15%,
what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th year?
a. 94 487.97 c. 94 748.97
b. 94 478.97 d. 98 447.97
31
How many years will take money to quadruple if it earns 10% compounded annually?
a. 12 c. 14
b. 13 d. 15
32 What is the present worth of a 3 year annuity paying 3 000 at the end of each year, with interest
at 8% compounded annually?
a. 7 654.04 c. 7 420.89
b. 7 731.29 d. 7 590.12
33 An amount of 2 340 is deposited in a bank paying an annual interest rate of 3.1%, compounded
continuously. Find the balance after 3 years.
a. 2 568.06 c. 2 586.06
b. 2 658.06 d. 2 685.06
34 _____ is the series of equal payment made at the equal intervals of time.
a. Loss
b. Sunk cost
c. Liability
d. Annuity
35 What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of 20 000? Assume i = 6%
annually.
a. 1 205.74 c. 1 290.34
b. 1 185.54 d. 1 107.34
36 A loan of 170 000 is to be paid in three years at the amount of 185 000 compounded annually.
What is the effective rate of money?
a. 5.859% c. 3.859%
b. 2.859% d. 4.859%
B
24 24
Answers
1 (a) Hint: Completely Inelastic Collision
m1v1 + m2v2 = (m1 + m2)vf Eq.B1
where m1 = mass of the first object, m2 = mass of the second object, v1 = velocity of the first object,
v2 = velocity of the second object, vf = final velocity after the collision. Eq.B1 is a collision in which
the total kinetic energy after the collision is less than before the collision.
Given: m1 = 2 000 kg; v1 = 10 m/s; m2 = 3 000 kg; v2 = 5 m/s (opposite direction)
Required: vf
2 000(10) + 3 000(5) = (2 000 + 3 000)vf
vf = 1 m/s
0.5 km 0.5 km
Fig.B1
The two velocities are expressed as:
0.5 + 0.5 0.5
vtrain = 20 = and vyou =
t t
You and the train travel at the same time, so equate two solutions above.
0.5 + 0.5 0.5
t==
20 vyou
vyou = 10 km/hr
8 (b) Hint: Power and Relationship of Other Quantities such as Work and Frictional Force
W = Fs
where W = work, F = force, s = displacement. The work done by a constant force on a particle that
Eq.B5
where F is a force vector. When particle is at rest or moving with constant velocity in an inertial frame
of reference, the net force (that is, the vector sum of all forces) acting on it must be zero (Eq.B6a).
Fx = 0 and Fy = 0 Eqs.B6b & B6c
The equation in component form is often used (Eq.B6b and Eq.B6c).
Common types of force are normal force, friction force, and weight.
w = mg Eq.B7
f = n Eq.B8
where w = weight, m = mass, g = acceleration of gravity, f = friction force, = coefficient of friction,
n = normal force. Weight is the gravitational force that the earth exerts on the particle; it is directly
proportional to its mass (Eq.B7). Friction force is a force exerted on a particle by a surface that acts
parallel to the surface, in the direction that opposes sliding; it is about proportional to the normal
force (due to the type of surfaces material) (Eq.B8).
Given: Fig.B2a shows the situation with the following given quantities: m = 40 kg; g = 9.8 m/s2
(constant) or 10 m/s2 (round-off); v = 0.5 m/s (constant); = 0.25 (unitless)
Required: power applied by the boy
v y
n
m
f Fa
x
w
(a) (b)
Fig.B2
Fig.B2b illustrates free-body diagram for box. Deriving the power yields:
W Fad
P== = Fav = nv = mgv
t t
The y-acceleration is downward in negative y-direction, so ay = g. Eq.B9a is used if the particle acts
up-and-down motion while Eq.B9b is used if the initial velocity and initial position are zero.
Given: y = 19.6 m (height h is at negative y-direction); g = 9.8 m/s2 (constant)
Required: t
Select Eq.B9b.
19.6 = (1/2)(9.8)t2
t=2s
to refer Eq.B11a, a vector consists of component vectors showing an expanded form; the terms are
arranged in x, y and z dimensions. To get its magnitude, Eq.B11b is used and derived from Pythagorean
Theorem.
Given: F1 = 20i 36j + 73k N; F2 = 17i + 21j 46k N; F3 = 12k N
where i, j, k are unit vectors similar with x-, y- and z-axis respectively.
Required: RF
RF = (20i 36j + 73k) + (17i + 21j 46k) + (12k)
= (20i 17i) + (36j + 21j) + (73k 46k 12k)
= 3i 15j + 15k N
The magnitude is:
RF = 32 + (15)2 + 152 = 21.4 N
3m 2m
edge of a building
Fig.B3
There are no applied forces, so his and planks weight will be used. Imagine that the plank acts as a
seesaw, and the edge acts as a fulcrum. Because the axis of rotation is at the edge, the plank has two
weights even though the 3 m part of plank would not rotate downward on this situation. Get first the
two separated masses of plank by using ratios:
(3/5)100 = 60 kg and (2/5)100 = 40 kg
The weights (using Eq.B7) including the person are 588 N, 392 N and 490 N. Then the center of
gravity is introduced. The center of gravity of a linear body is located at the center. Solving x using
the net moment yields:
0 = 588(1.5) 392(1) 490x
0 = 60(1.5) 40(1) 50x
x=1m
From the solution above, let other forces negative based on the direction of rotation and the axis of
rotation. The gravity is canceled since there are no applied forces. Thus in this case, Eq.B12a can
be changed into M = md where m is mass.
From Eq.B14 for a constant mass (or constant n) of an ideal gas the product nR is constant, the
30 Mechanics, Thermodynamics, and Engineering Economics
quantity pV/T is also constant. If the subscripts 1 and 2 refer to any two states of the same mass of
a gas, then Eq.B15 forms.
Given: p1 = p; V1 = V; T1 = T; V2 = 4V; T2 = 2T
Let the first state be a multiple to the second state.
Required: p2
pV (p2)(4V)
=
T 2T
p2 = p/2
19 (a) Charles Law states that the volume of a gas under constant pressure increases or decreases
with temperature.
Set F = C to solve.
C = [(9/5)C] + 32
C = 40
or
F = (F 32)(5/9)
F = 40
22 (d) Perpetual motion violates the laws of thermodynamics but in most cases, it violates specifically more
on the second law of thermodynamics on which a kind of perpetual motion requires a spontaneous
heat into mechanical work without any side effects (such as cold temperature or surroundings).
Mechanics, Thermodynamics, and Engineering Economics 31
1 Eq.B22
32 Mechanics, Thermodynamics, and Engineering Economics
where i = effective rate for specified time period, r = nominal interest rate for same time period,
m = number of times interest is compounded per stated time period.
ERI deals when cash flows involve frequencies and compounding periods other than one year with
the nominal rate r. The nominal rate r/m is actually the interest per a year.
Say, the nominal rate is 12% monthly, so the ERI is 12.68%. Thus, additional interest on interest
results in an annual effective return that is larger than 12%. The ERI is almost given as an annual
rate at which it provides a means of comparing interest rates of different compounding frequencies.
Given: r1 = 0.25; m1 = 4 (compounded quarterly); m2 = 2 (compounded semiannually)
Required: r2
In this problem, there are two different nominal rates with equal ERI. So equate the two expressions.
m1 m2
r r
1 + 1 1 = 1 + 2 1
m1 m2
4 2
0.25 r
1 + = 1 + 2
4 2
r22
1.2744 = 1 + r2 +
4
5.0976 = 4 + 4r2 + r22
0 = 1.0976 + 4r2 + r22
Apply quadratic formula and choose a positive integer.
r2 = 0.2578 = 25.78%
F1
i = 15% i = 15%
year
0 8 16
P1 = 15 000
P = F1 P1
Fig.B4
Cash flow digram is a graphical representation on cash flows drawn on the y-axis with a time scale
Mechanics, Thermodynamics, and Engineering Economics 33
on the x-axis. The present worth is drawn in arrow down to determine that its value is lower than
the future worth as the cash flow increases at the certain time.
Analyze Fig.B4. 15 000 was deposited at the beginning. After eight years, the savings has increased;
however it was withdrawn with 15 000. The deducted savings which is considered as a new present
worth P continues to raise within another 8 years with the same interest. Solving P directly yields:
P = F1 P1 = P1(1 + i)n P1 = P1[(1 + i)n 1]
= 15 000[(1 + 0.15)8 1] = 30 885.34
Finally the new future worth is:
F = P(1 + i)n = 30 885.34(1 + 0.15)8 = 94 478.97
Eq.B23
The annual worth A is a series maintaining equal end-of-period cash flows (or investments). An
expression for the present worth can be determined by considering each A value as future worth F
until it simplifies as shown in Eq.B24.
Given: A = 3 000; n = 3 years; i = 0.08
Required: P
(1 + 0.08)3 1
P = 3 000 3 = 7 731.29
0.08(1 + 0.08)
infinite.
Given: P = 2340; i = 0.031; n = 3
Required: F
F = 2 340 e3(0.031) = 2 568.06
34 (d) Annuity is the series of equal payments made at the equal intervals of time.
A=F
i
(1 + i)n 1
Eq.B26
Eq.B26 is used to determine sinking funds. To derive Eq.B26, the P/F equation is substituted into
P/A equation (from Eq.B24).
Given: F = 20 000; n = 12 years; i = 0.06
Required: A
0.06
A = 20 000 = 1 185.54
(1 + 0.06)12 1
36
(b) Hint: F/P Equation within Term (See Eq.B23) and ERI (See Eq.B22)
Given: P = 170 000; F = 185 000 n = 3 years; m = 1 (compounded annually)
Required: ERI
Solve r first.
185 000 = 170 000(1 + r/1)1(3)
r = 0.02859
Then the ERI is:
ERI = (1 + 0.02859)1 1 = 0.02859 = 2.859%
C
35
Differential Equation and
Advanced Mathematics
Pretest and Post-test Items
1 Newtons law of cooling states that the time of change in temperature of an object varies as the
difference in temperature between the object and surroundings. If an object cools from 100C and
50C in 10 minutes, what is the temperature of the object in 5 minutes if the surrounding temperature
is 30C?
a. 54.4C c. 64.4C
b. 67.4C d. 50.4C
4
Evaluate e x
dx .
a. 2e
x
+k
c. 2 1 x e x
+k
b. 2 x 1 e x
+k
d. 2 x +1 e x
+k
11 22 32
11 Evaluate 0
a. 0
22
0
32
0 .
11
c. 0.32
b. 10 d. 2.2
13 A radioactive material decays at a rate proportional to its amount. If the material has a half-life of
30 minutes, what percent of the original mass is expected to remain after 0.8 hours?
a. 22% c. 28%
b. 38% d. 33%
14 A certain bacteria culture is known to grow at a rate proportional to the number of bacteria present.
After one hour, 1 000 strands of bacteria are seen in the culture. After three hours, this number has
tripled. Find the number of strands of bacteria originally in the culture?
a. 688 c. 694
b. 646 d. 628
15 An object is thrown vertically upward from the ground with initial velocity of 19.6 m/s. Neglecting
air resistance, find the time when maximum height is reached.
a. 4 minutes c. 4 seconds
b. 2 seconds d. 2 minutes
19
Which of the following is the Maclaurin series expansion of sin x?
a. x x3/6 + x5/120 x7/4 048 + c. 1 x2/2 + x4/24 x6/780 +
b. x x3/6 + x5/120 x7/5 040 + d. x x2/2 + x4/24 x6/720 +
Differential Equation and Advanced Mathematics 37
20 A container holds 200 gallons of brine solution containing 50 lbs of salt. Initially, a freshwater is
poured into the tank at a rate of 10 gal/min, while the well stirred mixture leaves the tank at the
same rate. What is the amount of salt in the tank after 5 minutes?
a. 38.94 lbs c. 36.33 lbs
b. 32.88 lbs d. 44.51 lbs
C
38 38
Answers
Solutions with footnotes provide explanations.
Before identifying the given and requirement, take the Newtons law of cooling into an equation.
dT
= k(T Ts) Eq.C1a
dt
where dT/dt = rate of change of temperature, k = proportionally constant, T Ts = temperature of
an object that affects the temperature of the surroundings.
Apply variable separable to solve for T.
dT
= k dt
T Ts
dT
= k dt
T Ts
a) ln |T Ts| = kt + K
b) eln |T Ts| = ekt + K
c) T Ts = ekt eK = Cekt
d) T = Cekt + Ts Eq.C1b
a) ln |T Ts| is based on the integral of (1/x) dx = ln |x|. For the constant of integration, let it as
K because the solution is not yet finalized; that is called an implicit general solution.
b) To drop |T Ts| and cancel the natural logarithm, exponentiate on both sides.
c) Substitute eK into C since both are constant.
d) That is called an explicit general solution.
Given: T at initial time = 100C; T at 10 minutes = 50C; Ts = 30C
Based on the function y(x) or T(t), you can simplify the term as T(0) = 100C, and T(10) = 50C.
Required: T in 5 minutes, or T(5)
Since there are initial conditions in a domain, the initial value problem (IVP) is introduced. Then
the value of the constant of integration can be solved. If there is a second IVP, there is unknown
constant of that general solution.
Differential Equation and Advanced Mathematics 39
3) Multiply the equation in standard form by (x) and, yielding that the left-hand side is just
d/dx [(x)y], obtain
dy
(x) + P(x)(x)y = (x)Q(x)
dx
d
[(x)y] = (x)Q(x) Eq.C2c
dx
That left-hand side is shortened because it is a derivative. If you want to verify d/dx [(x)y],
use the product rule.
4) Integrate the last equation.
dy dx
(2x + 10y3) + y = 0
dx dy
dx
(2x + 10y3) + y = 0
dy
dx 2x + 10y3
+=0
dy y
dx 2
+ x = 10y2
dy y
The dependent variable is now x, and Eq.C2a inverses into dx/dy + P(y)x = Q(y). The integrating
factor (y) is:
(y) = e (2/y) dy = e2 ln |y| = eln |y2| = y2
Multiply (y) both sides until the implicit solution exists.
dx 2x
+ = 10y2 y2
dy y
dx
y2 + 2xy = 10y4
dy
d
(xy2) = 10y4
dy
a) d(xy2) = 10y4 dy
10y5
xy2 = + C
5
a) Integrating without dx or dy is neglected.
to be substituted.
[w = x(1/2)] d/dx
dw = (1/2)x (1/2) dx
dx = 2w dw
Differential Equation and Advanced Mathematics 41
2wew dw
c) 2wew dw = 2 wew ew dw
a1 b1 c1 a1 b1
a2 b2 c2 a2 b2
a3 b3 c3 a3 b3
which is a table of Laplace transform is better to be memorized the functions. Based on the given,
Table 1 is provided.
Time domain Frequency domain
f(t) F(s)
u(t) 1
1
eat
s+a
sin t
s + 2
2
eat sin t
(s + a)2 + 2
2
Table 1
Therefore,
10
{e2t sin (10t) u(t)} =
(s + 2)2 + 100
ln [e3k = 3]
ln 3
k = = 0.3662
3
From 1 000 = C e , the value of C is:
k
side of the equation is employed of guessing with the variety of standard forms.
Given: d2y(x)/dx2 + 5 dy(x)/dx + 6y(x) = 2x2 + 2 sin x,
Required: its trial solution
The first procedure in the trial solution is called a particular solution yp(x). Here, there are two terms:
2x2 and 2 sin x.
Guessing 2x2 in a standard form with coefficients are as follows in different degrees of polynomial:
ax + b
ax + bx + c
2
ax3 + bx2 + cx + d
and so on. Thus, it suits with ax2 + bx + c because of the power (or degree) which is 2.
Guessing trigonometric functions like sin x would be A sin x but this will fail because the derivatives
introduce cosine terms:
A sin x + B cos x
Add the particular solution.
yp(x) = ax2 + bx + c + A sin x + B cos x
If the particular solution yp(x) is determined in the trial solution the complementary solution yc(x)
is next. To solve complementary solution, let the right-hand side of the equation zero. It is derived
from the second-order DE and turned into Eq.C9.
Given: d2y/dx2 y = 0
Required: its complementary solution
The derivatives can be expressed from Leibnizs notation to Lagranges notation such that d2y/dx2 =
y and dy/dx = y. Let y = D2 and y = 1 to be such an algebraic form and then solve the roots.
y 1 = 0
D2 1 = 0
(D + 1)(D 1) = 0
where D is a del operator. The roots are D1 = 1 and D2 = 1. Following Eq.C9 becomes:
yc(x) = A ex + B ex Eq.C9
Notice that in the fourth derivative, the function returns back from the original, so f(x) = f 4(x) = sin x.
Following Eq.C8 becomes:
x x3 x5 x7
sin x = 0 + + 0 + 0 + + 0 +
1! 3! 5! 7!
x 3
x 5
x7
=x++
6 120 5 040
20 (a) Hint: Variable Separable (Same concept of the rest of word problems using this method)
This word problem is a compartment analysis involving mixing problems. Equating a basic one-
compartment system suggests
dQ/dt = input rate output rate Eq.C10
where Q is the amount of the specific material.
Given: Fig.C1 shows the problem (or model).
Required: the output rate of salt Q leaving the tank in 5 minutes
a tank with 200 gallons
of brine
freshwater
10 gal/min
Q(t)
Q(5 min) = ?
Q(0) = 50 lbs 10 gal/min
Fig.C1
Determine the amount of salt in the freshwater and the brine. Of course, the freshwater contains no
salt while the brine contains 50 lbs of salt as given. So calculating the input and output rate will be:
(10 gal/min)(0 lbs/gal) = 0 lbs/min
and
Q
(10 gal/min) lbs/gal = 0.05Q lbs/min
200
Following Eq.C10 becomes:
dQ/dt = 0.05Q
Applying variable separable for the general equation yields:
Q = C e0.05t
There is only one condition here. Solving C where Q(0) = 50 yields:
50 = C e0.05(0)
C = 50
The general equation above becomes:
Q = 50 e0.05t
At t = 5,
Q(5) = 50 e0.05(5) = 38.94 lbs
C
47
Quick Tips
Another encountered session that we are going to calculate. There are some unique techniques that will make
your step convenient. Good if you have been familiarized the keys of the calculator.
2) The x-column is for time t (which is the independent variable) and the y-column is for A. Input them as
the screen below is shown.
48 Differential Equation and Advanced Mathematics
Caution: Do not press W because everything that you have inputted will be lost. If happens, then you
input again.
You will see that symbol alone and type 48 before it. Then press p.
We need to add Ts = 30 with that case because the two IVPs have been subtracted by 30. So you have to
recover the value of T by Ts at any time t.
Note: This technique is not same with heating in DE where the equation is T + Ts = C ekt. However you can
manipulate it in the calculator, and one of it is to change from the operation of subtraction to addition.
Determinant
In a matrix function of the calculator, we can calculate a determinant. Of course, the determinant must be in
the form of square of elements such as 2 2, and 3 3. Lets consider a new example of 3 3 determinant
1 2 1
3 2 4
3 5 6
1) Press w6 for MATRIX. It asks what the item of matrix you are going to select. Lets work with
Matrix A, so press 1. It asks again by how many elements; since we are dealing about 3 by 3 matrix,
press 1. After that, you see 9 zeroes in Matrix A.
Differential Equation and Advanced Mathematics 49
2) Input all the elements.
3) Press C to exit. Press q1 for MATRIX controls. Press 7 for determinant. Press again q1
and 3 for your inputted Matrix A. Lastly, press p.
The Reverse Engineering on Indefinite Integrals
Doing a reverse engineering is not stupid at all, but we intentionally manipulate shortcut and wise solution on
which we are basing the choices. For some ways, it can waste your time.
If you dont know how to evaluate indefinite integral, do the reverse engineering. Lets choose in Item 4, that is
e x
dx
1) Remove the integral sign of e x
dx . Let x = 0.1. Creating a math format equation, press
50 Differential Equation and Advanced Mathematics
qhs0.1p
and we obtain
2) Differentiate the choices for which the opposite of derivative is an integral. Let also x = 0.1. We have
(a) qy2qhsQ)$$$0.1p
(b) qy2(sQ)$-1)qhsQ)$$$0.1p
Notice that (b) has equal output which is approximately equal to 1.37. Therefore, (b) is the answer. We
know that the remaining choices including (a) are clearly failed.
Note: If you evaluate a derivative, the manipulation is just an inversion from our technique using the calculator.
D
51
Electromagnetics
Pretest and Post-test Items
1 If the work done around a closed path is not zero, then the field is a/an _____.
a. non-conservative field
b. electrically charged
c. conservative field
d. electrically neutral
2 Find the distance between (5, 3/2, 0) and (5, /2, 10) in cylindrical coordinates.
a. 5 10
b. 2 10
c. 10 2
d. 3 10
3 Find the unit vector directed from (2, 5, 2) toward (14, 5, 3).
a. a = 2a y + a z
b. a = (13/12)a x + (5/13)a y
c. a = (12/13)a x + (5/13)a y
d. a = a x
5 Two identical uniform line charges of L = 4 nC/m are parallel to the z-axis at x = 0, y = 4 m.
Determine the electric field E at (4, 0, z) m.
a. 10a x V/m c. 18a x V/m
b. 20a x V/m d. 30a x V/m
6 Find the distance between (1, /4, 0) and (1, 3/4, ) where the points are given in spherical
coordinates.
a. 3 c. 7
b. 2 d. 5
7 _____ is the formation of electric dipoles in a material upon exposure to an external electric field.
a. Displacement current
b. Induction
c. Magnetism
d. Polarization
8 Charge lies on the circular disk r 4 m, z = 0 with the density S = (104/r) C/m2. Determine the
electric field E at r = 0, z = 3 m.
a. 1.51 106 a z V/m c. 7.82 106 a z V/m
b. 2.55 10 a z V/m
6
d. 6.21 106 a z V/m
13 A directional derivative indicating the max space rate of change of a scalar quantity is _____.
a. Laplacian
b. curl
c. divergent
d. gradient
14 A point charge Q = 0.4 nC is located at (2, 3, 3) m in Cartesian coordinates. Find the potential
difference VAB where point A is (2, 2, 3) and B is (2, 3, 3) m.
a. 3.50 V c. 2.99 V
b. 6.70 V d. 2.70 V
Answers
1 (a) If the work done around a closed path is not zero, then the field is a non-conservative.
P2
z2 1 = 2
d
P1 2 1
Fig.D1
Using the Pythagorean Theorem where the two radii and one azimuth are used yields:
d2 = (5 + 5)2 + 102
d = 2 10
2) This solution is not Requiredd to draw as Fig.D1. The coordinates are converted using Eq.D1.
P1(x = 0, y = 5, z = 0) and P2(x = 0, y = 5, z = 10)
Calculating the magnitude instead of vector yields:
P12 = (0 0)2 + [5 (5)]2 + (10 0)2 = 2 10
In vector of P12, subtract from P2 to P1 as shown inside the square root.
54 Electromagnetics
a=
A
A
Eq.D2
where E = electric field intensity, L = line charge density, 0 = vacuum permittivity, = radial
distance between a portion of the line charge and a field point, a = unit vector of radial distance.
Eq.D3 is used in the concept when the electric field produces from the uniform and infinite line
charge density to a field point (not charge). Note that Eq.D3 represents on the cylindrical coordinate
system because the radial distance is manipulated in terms of cylindrical coordinates.
Given: Fig.D2a shows the problem.
Required: E at (4, 0, z) meters
EB
Pb(4, 0, z)
Eb Eb
Pb 4
4
Pa(4, 0, z)
4 +4 4 +4
+4
L = 4 nC/m Pa +4
(a) (b) Ea Ea
EA
Fig.D2
Electromagnetics 55
Saying that the field point at (4, 0, z) is PA and second one is PB. Focus first on the subscript a. In
Fig.D2b, the coordinate system faces on the top view to be clearly seen the radial distances and the
electric fields.
Two solutions are as follows:
1) Each radial distance is equal magnitude. Despite the fact that the radial distance does not mean
exclusively for cylindrical coordinates. For this case, let be R, and a be a R to avoid confusion.
Using the Pythagorean Theorem,
R = 42 + (4)2 = 4 2 5.657
Recognize the fact that not all line charges are located along the z-axis. For the two electric
fields Ea, the vectors are taken from the magnitude of R will be 4a x, not 4a x + 4a y and 4a x 4a y
because it matters the location of the field point relative to the line charge. Solve the two electric
fields Ea where 0 = 8.854 1012 farad/meter, F/m.
L L L L
Ea + Ea = a R + a R = a R = 2 R
20R 20R 0R 0R
4 109
= (4a x) = 18a x V/m
(8.854 1012)(5.6572)
The Eb is equal magnitude with Ea but the direction opposes. Thus,
Eb = 18a x V/m
For the conclusion,
E = 18a x V/m
2) The two electric fields Ea are the vector components of EA because they are intersecting each
other perpendicularly. It becomes a resultant electric field. So
L
EA = R EA
0R2EA
Subtracting the vectors where the two line charges are at (0, 4, z) and Pa(4, 0, z), will be:
(4 0)a x + [0 (4)]a y = 4a x + 4a y
and
(4 0)a x + (0 4)a y = 4a x 4a y
So the resultant vector and its magnitude of the radial distance of EA are REA = 8a x and REA = 8.
Finally,
4 109
EA = (8a x) = 18a x V/m
(8.854 1012)(82)
and
EB = 18a x V/m
where REB = 8a x and REB = 8. Then,
E = 18a x V/m
6 (d) Hint: Possible Math Techniques or Formulas of Spherical to Rectangular Coordinate Systems
x = r sin cos
y = r sin sin Eq.D4
z = r cos
where the spherical coordinates are r = radius of a sphere, = angle between the z-axis and the line
56 Electromagnetics
drawn from the origin to the point, = angle between the x-axis and the projection in the z = 0
plane of the line drawn from the origin to the point. The angle here is exactly same as the cylindrical
coordinates.
In spherical coordinate system, the Pythagorean Theorem might be inconvenient to solve the distance
depending on the location of the points. Other tools such as analytical geometry or trigonometry
can be provided yet it might take time as to solve manually. Eq.D4 would be suggested.
Given: (1, /4, 0) and (1, 3/4, )
Required: distance between, say, P1 and P2
Setting up the coordinates of the given points shows:
P1(r = 1, = 45, = 0) and P2(r = 1, = 135, = 180)
Make sure that the radians are changed to degrees.
Two ways to solve the distance:
1) Draw the spherical coordinate system and place the two points. The coordinates of point P2
exceeds over the solid, so the curve is imaginarily drawn at the back portion (Fig.D3a). Notice
that the radius of two points meet linearly and form a distance. Simply add two radii:
d = r1 + r2 = 2
Fig.D3b shows the side view from Fig.D3a at which the angles of are opposite each other in
order to be faced a two-dimensional surface.
+z-axis to x-axis
curve
P1
r1
P1
1 1 2
2
r1
1 r2
P2 d r2
x-axis to z-axis
P2
curve
(a) (b)
Fig.D3
2) Use Eq.D4 to convert the coordinates.
P1(x = 0.707, y = 0, z = 0.707) and P2(x = 0.707, y = 0, z = 0.707)
where 0.707 = 2/2. Calculating the magnitude yields:
d = (0.707 0.707)2 + (0 0)2 + (0.707 0.707)2 = 2
7 (d) Polarization is the formation of electric dipoles in a material upon exposure to an external
electric field.
where Q = point charge, R = radial distance. The electric field E gives a force per unit charge. The
force between two charges is stated according to the Coulombs law, and then applied in the definition
of E. If the charge becomes a differential, the E is affected; Eq.D5 will change depending on what
kind of charge density.
Eq.D5 is an electric field in a point charge. This will not be used for the solution. So you are going
to derive another equation because you do not deal with infinite surface charge in this problem.
Given: Reread the problem, or refer directly to Fig.D4.
Required: E at r = 0, z = 3 meters
S = (104/r) C/m2
Fig.D4
The solution in Item 5 refers with a line charge density L. Here, the surface charge density S is the
concern. The circular disk in Fig.D4 is not an ellipse which is because of the perspective. Selecting
a piece of area somewhere on the S considers a differential surface charge dS.
Fig.D4 is actually not a spherical coordinate system but a cylindrical because a cylinder has planes.
The tricky part here is the coordinates used for which and r are both called radius. Taking the
differential of the coordinates, the radius r becomes dr, and the other part becomes r d (not d
because it is not a length). Thus,
dS = r d dr
Any charge Q is selected on the dS from the S considers a differential. So,
dQ = S dS = S r d dr
Eq.D5 transforms into:
dQ
dE = 2 a R
40R
Integrating both sides yields:
dQ S r d dr
E= 2 aR = R Eq.D6
40R 40R3
Two integral signs with a ring is called a surface integral. Eq.D6 is now an electric field in a surface
charge. Since Eq.D6 is a definite integral, the limits are 0 r 4, and 0 2 (because the
disk is a circle). The limits of the angle must be in radian. The unit vector a R is the vector of the
field point relative to dS over the magnitude of the radial distance R.
58 Electromagnetics
2 4 2 4
(104/r) r d dr 3(104) dr
E= 3 (3a z) = a z d
0 0
40 0 0 (r2 + 9) 3/2
40 r2 + 9
Take out the constants and unit vector from the integral at the left. Arrange the functions and limits
with respect to d and dr.
2 4
3(104) r 3(104)(4/45)
= az = az
40 0 9 r2 + 9 0 20
Integrating [1/(r + 9) ] dr can be solved via trigonometric substitution but it takes more time for
2 3/2
9 (d) Silver (6.17 107 siemens/meter, S/m) has the highest conductivity among aluminum (3.82
107 S/m), gold (4.10 107 S/m), and copper (5.80 107 S/m).
10
(d) The value of the permeability of free space 0 is 4 107 henry/meter, H/m.
aA
O aB B
A cos = A aB
Fig.D5
To take the scalar projection of A on B, the dot product will be A and the unit vector of B.
AB AB
A cos = A = = A a B
AB B
Electromagnetics 59
Then,
A B (4a y + 10a z) (2a x + 3a y) 12
= =
B 22 + 32 13
13 (d) A directional derivative indicating the max space rate of change of a scalar quantity is gradient.
where V = potential of a charge from one (field) point, VAB = potential difference. Eq.D8 defines the
potential at the radial distance R from a point charge Q at the origin. If a point charge encounters
with two points, a potential difference occurs at which a point charge tends to move (Eq.D9). Both
formulas are scalar.
Given: Q = 0.4 nC at (2, 3, 3) meters; point A at (2, 2, 3); point B at (2, 3, 3) meters
Required: VAB
Determining the radial distances based on the two points, PA and PB, that is, from PA to Q and from
PB to Q, respectively, shows:
RA = (2 2)2 + (2 3)2 + (3 3)2 = 1 and RB = (2 2)2 + (3 3)2 + (3 3)2 = 4
Solving the potential of the two points yields:
0.4 109 0.4 109
VA = = 3.6 V and VB = = 0.9 V
4(8.854 1012)(1) 4(8.854 1012)(4)
Then,
VAB = 2.7 V
16 (b) The value of the vacuum permittivity 0 is 8.854 1012 F/m (or 1/36 109 F/m).
18 (d) Lines drawn to indicate the direction of a vector field are flux lines.
Quick Tips
This is the last section of Quick Tips. We will encounter the vector and scalar calculations. Here, the techniques
are simply shortened the solution.
2) Input the coordinates for Vector A.
62 Electromagnetics
Caution: For the second vector, do not press w after inputting the first vector because your data will
be lost. Thats why you should go to q52 (or go to Cq221).
3) Press C. Then for dot product, simply follow these consecutive keys:
q53q57q54p
Cross Product
With the same input vectors A and B, simply follow these consecutive keys:
q53Oq54p
Other Applications of Scalar and Vector
Scalar Projection
Lets choose in Item 12, with the following given A = 4a y + 10a z and B = 2a x + 3a y. We require to get the
scalar projection of A on B. Make sure you are now familiar the keys and controls of VECTOR.
1) For vectors A and B, we input their coordinates such that
(q53q57q54)Pqcq54p
1 Three resistors with resistance 10, 20 and 50 ohms are connected in parallel across a 120-V source.
Find the power dissipated by the 10-ohm resistor.
a. 288 W c. 180 W
b. 720 W d. 1 440 W
3 The load at 0.866 lagging power factor takes a power per phase of 3 000 W. Determine the total
reactive power drawn.
a. 3 289 VARs c. 1 732 VARs
b. 8 232 VARs d. 1 021 VARs
5 A three-phase induction runs at 290-rpm on full-load. If the line frequency is 50-Hz, calculate the
number of poles and its slip.
a. 10, 6.33% c. 30, 4.33%
b. 20, 3.33% d. 40, 7.33%
6 A heater draws 3 amperes at 12 V dc. How many joules does it consume in 10 minutes?
a. 10 800 J
b. 21 600 J
c. 720 J
d. 12 000 J
7 This is the part of a dc generator that converts the ac generated emf to dc.
a. field
b. rectifier
c. commutator
d. rotor
8 If a 12-V car battery has a 0.1 ohm resistance, what terminal voltage causes a 4-amp current to flow
into the positive terminal?
a. 14.2 V c. 12.4 V
b. 10.2 V d. 13.6 V
9 This refers to the rotating field produced by the coils of three-phase inductor motor.
a. actual speed
b. field speed
c. synchronous speed
d. rotor speed
10 If the waveform of the voltage in a given equation v = 200 sin (377t + 60) volts is shifted to the
right by 60, its phase angle is _____.
a. 0 c. 240
b. 180 d. 120
Electrical Circuits and DC Machines 65
13 What is j2 + j + 1 + j3 + j4?
a. j 2
b. j 4
c. j 3
d. 1
14 A resistor R consumes 100 watts if connected across a 200-volt source. What power will it consume
if the input voltage is doubled?
a. 100 W c. 400 W
b. 200 W d. 75 W
15 A 120-volt, 60-watt lamp is to be connected to a 220-volt, 50-Hz source. Determine the value of a
pure inductor required in order for the lamp to operate on a correct voltage.
a. 2.97 H c. 5.67 H
b. 1.17 H d. 4.11 H
17 The following are the methods in starting large inductor motor except one.
a. compensator
b. phase shifting
c. wye-delta
d. direct on line
20 Two resistors Ra = 1.95 ohm and Rb = 0.05 ohm are connected in parallel and take a total of 50 A.
What is the current through each resistor?
a. 2 A, 48 A c. 1.75 A, 48.25 A
b. 2.75 A, 47.25 A d. 1.25 A, 48.75 A
E
66 Electrical Circuits and DC Machines
66
Answers
1 (d) Hint: (Electric) Power in the Relationship of Voltage and Resistance
P=
V2
R
Eq.E1
V2
Q = I 2X = Eq.E3
X
S = VI = P2 + Q2 Eq.E4
P
pf = = cos Eq.E5
S
where P = real power (in watt, W)
I = ac root-mean-square (rms) current (in ampere, A)
V = ac rms voltage (in volt, V)
R = resistance (in ohm, )
Q = reactive power (in voltage-amp reactance, VAR)
X = load reactance (in )
S = apparent power (in voltage-amp, VA)
pf = power factor (unitless)
For ac sinusoidal voltages and currents, the real power dissipated in an ac circuit is dissipated in the
resistance only, the resistor (Eq.E2).
There is no real power dissipation in a reactive element such as inductor or capacitor. So the power
in a reactive element is called a reactive power (Eq.E3).
When an ac load has an ac rms voltage V across it and an ac rms current I, the apparent power is
the product of the voltage and current (Eq.E4). It must be no resistance or reactance.
A power triangle (Fig.E1) can be determined where P, Q and S are labeled. Pythagorean Theorem
formulates the three powers together. By applying trigonometry, cos is defined as the power factor
Electrical Circuits and DC Machines 67
and a ratio of the real power divided by the apparent power (Eq.E5).
S
Q
P
Fig.E1
Given: pf = 0.866 (lagging); P = 3 000 W
Required: Q
The word lagging comes from an inductor but do not mind it because determining the value of
the inductor is not part of the solution. Solve the angle of the power factor.
= cos1 0.866 = 30
Use the power triangle and trigonometry to get Q.
tan = Q/P
Q = P tan = 3 000 tan 30 = 1 732 VARs
where Ns = synchronous speed (in revolutions per minute, rpm), f = frequency (in hertz, Hz), p =
number of poles per phase winding, S = normalized slip, Nr = actual rotational speed (in rpm). Eq.E6
is a synchronous speed of the three-phase inductor motor based on the supply frequency and the
number of poles in the motor winding. Actual rpm for an inductor motor will be less than this
calculated Ns by an amount known as slip, that increases with the torque produce; the slip is expressed
in percentage (Eq.E7).
68 Electrical Circuits and DC Machines
6 (b) Hint: Power in Relationship of Voltage and Current, and in Relationship of Work and Time
W
P = VI =
t
Eq.E8
7 (c) The commutator is a part of dc generator that converts the ac generated emf to dc.
I=4A
E = 12 V
VT
r = 0.1
Fig.E2
Actual sources or emfs like batteries have an internal resistance r. In this problem, there are two
sources: the terminal voltage VT and the battery. This is a basic example of charging a battery. Here,
VT which is a voltage supply must be greater than the voltage of a battery. The polarities of the sources
and elements are important in solving a loop.
There is one loop in this circuit. Applying Kirchoffs voltage law have:
VT E Ir = 0
VT = E + Ir = 12 + 4(0.1) = 12.4 V
Electrical Circuits and DC Machines 69
In the rule of conventional flow, the first source starts at the positive polarity as the current
travels at the positive direction of it. After that, the battery and the voltage of a resistor (by using
Ohms law) go to the negative polarity until it drops to zero. To determine what sign of the polarity
will be, always check out the last terminal except the first source which is the first terminal.
9 (c) The synchronous speed refers to the rotating field produced by the coils of three-phase inductor
motor.
j2 = 1 +1
180 0
j3 = j
270
Fig.E3
As it goes successive, it can be expressed in power. Every power of the imaginary number has the
value of: j1 = j; j2 = 1; j3 = j; j4 = 1. In each successive rotation (or co-terminal angles), the values
remain the same.
Given: j2 + j + 1 + j3 + j4
1 + j + 1 + (j) + 1 = 1
70 Electrical Circuits and DC Machines
If the power is much larger, for example j23, just divide 23 by 4 since there are four quadrants, and
the remainder will be the smallest power. Therefore, j23 = j3 = j. Another example j157, which is not
enough to divide it by 4, is required to select a number less than and near 157 that can be divisible
by 4; then it is 156. Divide 157 by 156 and the remainder is 1. Therefore, j157 = j1 = j.
100 W PR2 = ?
200 V 400 V
R R
Fig.E4
The two resistors are the same resistance (Fig.E4). Using Eq.E1 in terms of R equates:
V12 V22
R= =
PR1 PR2
Then,
2
440
PR2 = 100 = 400 W
200
Vac = 220 V
f = 50 Hz VR I
(a) (b)
Fig.E5
In dc circuit in a loop, KVL is used. In ac circuit in a loop, observe first if the values of the source
and elements have a given complex number or phasor; otherwise do not use KVL. Fig.E5a cannot
be able to apply KVL, so draw a phasor diagram. Since both elements travel with the same phasor of
current, identify where the phasors of voltage will predict. Knowing that in the resistor, the phasors
of voltage and current are in-phase while in the inductor, the phasor of voltage leads the phasor of
Electrical Circuits and DC Machines 71
current by 90. The sum of the phasors of voltage is the phasor of the ac source. Fig.E5b is provided.
Fig.E5b can be drawn into a triangle. Using Pythagorean Theorem obtains:
Vac2 = VR2 + VL2
Then,
VL = 2202 1202 184.39 V
The lamp acts as a resistive element. Getting the current of the circuit, based on the power and voltage
of the lamp, obtains:
I = PR/VR = 60/120 = 0.5 A
Finally for the value of pure inductor L,
184.39
L = = 1.17 H
2(50)(0.5)
17 (b) The phase shifting is not operated initially such a large inductor motor.
Ix = IT
Req
Rx + Req
Eq.E13
where Ix = current concerned flowing through resistor Rx, IT = total current of the circuit, Req =
equivalent resistance of the parallel circuit expect Rx. Eq.E13 is used only in parallel connection.
Given: Fig.E6 shows the problem.
Required: current through each resistor
IT = 50 A
Ia Ib
Ra = 1.95 Rb = 0.05
Fig.E6
Solving the two currents yields
50(0.05) 50(1.95)
Ia = = 1.25 A and Ib = = 48.75 A
1.95 + 0.05 1.95 + 0.05
F
72 Analog Electronics
72
Analog Electronics
Pretest Items
2 Once the BJT is in saturation, a further increase in the base current will _____.
a. cause the collector current to increase
b. not affect the collector current
c. cause the collector current to decrease
d. turn the transistor off
4 If one of the diodes in a bridge full-wave rectifier opens, the output is _____.
a. 0 V
b. 1/4 amplitude of the input voltage
c. a half-wave rectified voltage
d. a 120-Hz voltage
7 In a voltage-divider biased npn transistor, if the lower voltage-divider resistor (the one connected
to ground) opens, _____.
a. the transistor is not affected c. the transistor may be driven to saturation
b. the transistor may be driven to cutoff d. the supply voltage is too high
8 For an op-amp integrator circuit, the rate of change of the output voltage in response to a step input
is set by _____.
a. the RC time constant c. the current through the capacitor
b. the amplitude of the step input d. All of these
9 If the load resistance of a capacitor-filtered full-wave rectifier is reduced, the ripple voltage _____.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. is not affected
d. has a different frequency
a. 220 c. 1 000
b. 10 d. 180
11 The output voltage of a zener regulator is 8.23 V at no-load and 7.98 V at full-load. Determine the
regulation expressed as a percentage _____.
a. 3.132% c. 3.037%
b. 25% d. 96.962%
12 A certain inverting amplifier has a closed loop gain of 25. The op-amp has an open loop gain of
100 000. If another op-amp with an open loop gain of 200 000 is substituted in the configuration,
the closed loop gain _____.
a. doubles c. drops to 12.5
b. remains at 25 d. increases slightly
13
When you apply a triangular waveform to the input of an op-amp differentiator, the output is _____.
a. a dc level c. an inverted triangular waveform
b. a square waveform d. first harmonic of the triangular waveform
14 When a low-pass and a high-pass filter are cascaded to get a band-pass, the critical frequency of the
pass-filter must be _____.
a. equal to the critical frequency of the high- c. greater than the critical frequency of the
pass filter high-pass filter
b. less than the critical frequency of the high- d. doubled of the critical frequency of the
pass filter high-pass filter
15 If the emitter current is 50 times larger than the base current, the alpha is _____.
a. 50
b. 0.98
c. 1
d. 0.96
16
The operation of a relaxation oscillator is based on _____.
a. the charging and discharging of a capacitor c. a highly selective resonant circuit
b. a very stable supply voltage d. low power consumption
19 The average value of a half-wave rectified voltage with a peak value of 200 V is _____.
a. 63.7 V
b. 127.3 V
c. 141 V
d. 0 V
20 The positive lead of an ohmmeter is connected to the cathode of a diode, and the negative lead is
connected to the anode. The diode is _____.
74 Analog Electronics
a. reverse-biased c. forward-biased
b. open d. faulty
Post-test Items
21 Related from Item 7: In a voltage-divider biased npn transistor, if the upper voltage-divider resistor
(the one connected to VCC) opens, _____.
a. the transistor burns out c. the transistor goes into saturation
b. the supply voltage is too high d. the transistor goes into cutoff
22 Related from Item 19: the average value of a full-wave rectified voltage with a peak value of 200 V
is _____.
a. 63.7 V c. 0 V
b. 141 V d. 127.3 V
26 Related from Item 20: The anode of the diode is connected to the positive source and the cathode
to the negative source. The diode is _____.
a. open c. forward-biased
b. reverse-biased d. faulty
27 Related from Item 9: If the capacitor of a capacitor-filtered full-wave rectifier is increased, the ripple
voltage _____.
a. has a different frequency c. is not affected
b. increases d. decreases
29 Related from Item 10: A common-emitter amplifier is driving a 15 k load. If RC = 3.3 k and
re = 8 , the voltage gain is approximately _____.
a. 338 c. 412.5
b. 500 d. 188
30 Related from Item 4: If two of the diodes in a bridge full-wave rectifier opens, the output _____.
a. can be a half-wave rectified voltage
b. is 1/4 amplitude of the input voltage
c. is a 120-Hz voltage
d. is 0 V
Analog Electronics 75
32 Related from Item 14: When a low-pass and a high-pass filter area cascaded so that the critical
frequency of the low-pass is lower than the high-pass, it will create what type of filter.
a. band-pass filter c. second order high-pass filter
b. notch filter d. second order low-pass filter
33 Related from Item 13: When you apply a square waveform to the input of an op-amp diffferentiator,
the output is _____.
a. voltage spikes c. a triangular waveform
b. an inverted triangular waveform d. a dc level
35 Related from Item 3: The low-frequency response of an amplifier is determined in part by _____.
a. the bypass capacitor
b. the internal transistor capacitances
c. the gain-bandwidth product
d. the roll-off
36
Related from Item 6: A 60 V peak full-wave rectified voltage is applied to a capacitor-input filter.
If f = 60 Hz, RL = 10 k, C = 10 F, the ripple voltage is_____.
a. 5.0 V c. 10 V
b. 6 mV d. 0.6 V
F
76 Analog Electronics
76
Answers
1 (b) The MOSFET (metal-oxide semiconductor field-effect transistor) differs from a JFET (junction
field-effect transistor) mainly because the JFET has a pn junction.
2 (b) Once the BJT (bipolar junction transistor) is in saturation, a further increase in the base current
will not affect the collector current.
It is because to do a forward bias of npn BJT, the current from the base always flows to the emitter.
3 (b) The high frequency response of an amplifier is determined in part by the internal transistor
capacitances.
Actual transistors have internal capacitances which can cause their behavior to depart from that of
ideal transistor. It is located in each between-terminal junctions of the transistor.
4 (c) If one of the diodes in a bridge full-wave rectifier opens, the output is a half-wave rectified
voltage.
Bridge full-wave rectifier contains four diodes with the configuration as Fig.F1a. The ac input voltage
vi has a time-varying function such as a sinusoidal wave (Fig.F1b). To get the output voltage vo, just
analyze the circuit on the operation. Observe the current flow between the positive and negative
region of the input together with the forward bias of the ideal diodes and the polarity of the load,
that is at vo (Figs.F1c and F1d). Both regions result equally positive output voltages (Fig.F1e).
Configuration
vi
D1 D2
R
vi t
D3 D4
(a) (b)
Operation
vo
D2 D1
vo vo
vi vi t
D3 D4
(c) (d) (e)
Fig.F1
Analog Electronics 77
If one of the diodes is removed, either positive or negative region of the input will not conduct and
that voltage distorts at zero (Fig.F2). These are called half-wave rectified voltage which is the same
output with the half-wave rectifier.
vo vo
t t
Fig.F2
5 (a) When a differential amplifier is operated in differential-mode, opposite polarity signals are
applied to the inputs.
Vr(pp) = Vm
1
fRLC
Eq.F1
where Vr(pp) = ripple peak-to-peak voltage, Vm = maximum peak voltage, RL = resistance of the load,
C = capacitance. Eq.F1 is used for the circuit having a capacitor-input filter.
Given: Vm = 60 V; f = 120 Hz; RL = 10 ; C = 10 F
Required: Vr(pp)
60
Vr(pp) = =5V
120(10 103)(10 106)
7 (c) In a voltage-divider biased npn transistor, if the lower voltage-divider resistor (the one connected
to ground) opens, the transistor may be driven to saturation.
There are two resistors, denoted as R1 and R2, connected in parallel network in the voltage-divider
configuration. Focusing at the base current, it flows first through R1, and then it divides to the R2
and to the base terminal of the transistor. If R2 opens, the base current instantly flows through R1
to the base terminal as the base current much increases.
8 (a) For an op-amp integrator circuit, the rate of change of the output voltage in response to a step
input is set by the RC time constant.
9 (a) If the load resistance of a capacitor-filtered full-wave rectifier is reduced, the ripple voltage
increases.
You can test Eq.F1 to determine Vr(pp) with the assigned values of the quantities.
where AV = voltage gain, RC = resistor connected to the collector terminal of the transistor, ro =
transistor output resistance, re = transistor emitter resistance. Eq.F2 is derived based on the transistor
modeling, construction of the ac equivalent circuit of the amplifier, and dc biasing.
78 Analog Electronics
Given: RC = 2.2 k; ro = 10 k; re = 10
Required: AV
The RC and ro are connected in parallel.
(10 103)(2.2 103)
RC ||ro = 1803
10 103 + 10 106
Then,
AV = 1803/10 180
where VNL = no-load voltage, VFL = full-load voltage. Eq.F3 is a factor (in a power supply) for which
the amount the dc output voltage changes over a range of circuit operation.
Given: VNL = 8.23 V; VFL = 7.98 V
Require: VR
8.23 7.98
VR = = 0.03132 = 3.132%
7.98
12 (b) Hint: Closed Loop Gain with an Open Loop Gain of an Inverting Amplifier
Aclosed =
Rf
Ri + R f
Eq.F4
Ri +
Aopen
where Rf = feedback resistor, Ri = resistor connected to input voltage. Eq.F4 is derived based on the
same input voltage of the closed loop and open loop of an inverting amplifier. The difference of the
two loops is that the closed loop has a feedback. Because the open loop is so easily saturated, the
gain is too high. So, Eq.F4 becomes:
R
Aclosed = f
Ri
Concluding that the closed loop gain will not affect with the open loop gain. Open loop op-amp
circuits are not very useful. Based on the given, the answer is the closed loop gain remains at 25.
13 (b) When you apply a triangular waveform to the input of an op-amp differentiator, the output is a
square waveform.
This can be also proven mathematically by applying Fourier series and derivative.
14 (c) When a low-pass and a high-pass filter are cascaded to get a band-pass, the critical frequency of
the pass-filter must be greater than the critical frequency of the high-pass filter.
15 (b) Hint: Alpha and Beta of the npn BJT Transistor, and Single Node
= IC/IE
= IC/IB
Eq.F5
Eq.F6
IE = IC + IB Eq.F7
Analog Electronics 79
where IC = collector current, IE = emitter current, IB = base current. In the dc mode under the condition
of the common-base configuration, the levels of IE due to the majority carriers are related by
a quantity called alpha (Eq.F5). In the dc mode under the condition of the common-emitter
configuration, the levels of IC and IB are related by a quantity called beta (Eq.F6). All configurations
are applied with Kirchhoffs current law to the transistor as if it were a single node. (Eq.F7).
Given: IE = 50 A; IB = 1 A
Required:
Letting IC = IE, the Eq.F6 becomes:
IE = IE + IB
Then,
50 1
= = 0.98
50
16 (a) The operation of a relaxation oscillator is based on the charging and discharging of a capacitor.
20 (c) The diode is forward-biased when the positive lead of an ohmmeter is connected to the cathode,
and the negative is connected to the anode.
21 (d) In a voltage-divider biased npn transistor, if the upper voltage-divider resistor (the one connected
to VCC) opens, the transistor goes into cutoff.
The collector resistor RC, not R1, is now disconnected. Supposedly IC must be greater than IB; however
the problem makes IC not to flow off and IB still has a very low current. The transistor is not enough
to saturate and is considered to be part in a cutoff region.
Required: Vave
2(200)
Vave = = 127.3 V
25 (b) For operation as an amplifier, the base of an npn transistor must be positive with respect to the
emitter.
This condition is relevant concept in Item 2.
26 (b) The diode is reverse-biased when the anode of the diode is connected to the positive source and
the cathode to the negative source.
27 (d) If the capacitor of the capacitor-filtered full-wave rectifier is increased, the ripple voltage
decreases.
30 (a) & (d) If two of the diodes in a bridge full-wave rectifier opens, the output can be a half-wave
rectified voltage, or it is 0 V.
Just analyze in Fig.F1. If D2 and D3, or D1 and D4 are removed, the output is a half-wave rectified
voltage. If D2 and D3, or D2 and D4 are removed, the circuit does not conduct at all and the voltage
is zero.
31 (b) One condition for oscillation is a phase shift around the feedback loop of 180.
32 (b) That is a notch filter when a low-pass and a high-pass filter are cascaded so that the critical
frequency of the low-pass is lower than the high-pass.
33 (a) When you apply a square waveform to the input of an op-amp differentiator, the output is voltage
spikes.
35 (a) The low-frequency response of an amplifier is determined in part by the bypass capacitor.
Analog Electronics 81
Very less or less internal transistor capacitances activate in a low frequency. Instead the bypass (or
coupling) capacitors enact on the operation. They are usually active filters which help to get rid of
ac signal or ac noise by passing freely the dc signal through the load.
Digital Electronics
Pretest Items
2 What is a group of circuits that provide timing and signals to all operations in the computer?
a. output unit
b. memory unit
c. control unit
d. input unit
5 A gate that produces an output only if pulses are sent through both wires the same time.
a. NAND gate
b. AND gate
c. NOR gate
d. OR gate
6 A solid-state logical device which only gives a 1 output if all inputs are 0 is called a _____.
a. NOT gate
b. NOR gate
c. NAND gate
d. OR gate
9 When used with an IC, what does the term quad indicate?
a. 2 circuits
b. 4 circuits
c. 6 circuits
d. 8 circuits
10 The devices that provide the means for a computer to communicate with the user or other computers
are referred to as _____.
a. CPU c. I/O
b. ALU d. None of the above
11 The time required for a gate or inverter to change its state is called _____.
a. rise time
b. delay time
c. propagation time
d. charging time
Digital Electronics 83
13 Which of the following will give the sum of full adders as output?
a. 3-point majority circuit
b. 3-bit parity circuit
c. 3-bit comparator
d. 3-bit counter
14
Which of the following statements is wrong?
a. Propagation delay is the time required for a c. Fan-in of a gate is always equal to fan-out of
gate to change its state. the same gate.
b. Noise immunity is the amount of noise d. Operating speed is the maximum frequency
which can be applied to the input of the gate at which digital data can be applied to a
without causing the gate to change state. gate.
15 A one-to-four demultiplexer is to be implemented using a memory. How many bits must each word
have?
a. 1 bit c. 4 bits
b. 2 bits d. 8 bits
16 Which table shows the logical state of a digital circuit output for every possible combination of logical
states in the inputs?
a. function table c. routing table
b. truth table d. ASCII table
18
How many full adders are required to construct an m-bit parallel adder?
a. m/2 c. m
b. m 1 d. m + 1
19 To make the following circuit in Fig.G1, a tautology ? marked box should be _____.
x x+y
f = (x + x ) + (y + y )
Fig.G1
a. OR gate c. NAND gate
b. AND gate d. XOR gate
20 If A B = C, then _____.
84 Digital Electronics
a. A C = B c. A B C = 0
b. B C = A d. Both a and b
Post-test Items
21 Which of the following set of gates are best suited for parity checking and parity generation?
a. NAND gates
b. AND, OR, NOT gates
c. XNOR or XOR gates
d. NOR gates
22 The digital multiplexer is basically a combinational logic circuit to perform the operation.
a. OR-AND
b. OR-OR operation
c. AND-AND gates
d. AND-OR gates
23 If a logic gates has four inputs, then the total number of possible input combinations is _____.
a. 32
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
24 A combinational logic circuit which generates a particular binary word or number is _____.
a. decoder
b. demultiplexer
c. multiplexer
d. encoder
26 The box in Fig.G2 consists of a minimum complexity circuit that uses only AND, OR, and NOT
gates. The function f(x, y, z) = 1 when x, y are different and 0 otherwise. In addition, the 3 inputs
x, y, z are never all the same value. Which of the following equations lead to the correct design for
the minimum complexity circuit?
x
y f(x, y, z)
z
Fig.G2
a. xyz + xyz c. xy + xy
b. x + yz d. xy + yz + z
28 What is the largest number of data inputs which data selector with two control inputs can have?
a. 16
b. 2
c. 8
d. 4
30 Adder _____.
a. is called so because a full adder involves two c. needs two inputs and generates two outputs
half-adders d. All of these
b. adds 2 bits
33
The function of a multiplexer is _____.
a. to transmit data on N lines c. to perform serial to parallel conversion
b. to decode information d. to select 1 out of N input data sources and to
transmit it to single channel
34 Which combination of gates does not allow the implementation of an arbitrary Boolean function?
a. NAND gates only
b. OR gates and NOT gates only
c. OR gates and XOR gates only
d. OR gates and AND gates only
36 In which of the following adder circuits, the carry look ripple delay is eliminated?
a. half adder
b. carry look ahead adder
c. parallel adder
d. full adder
37 What is the minimum number of 2-input NAND gates required to implement the function F = (x +
y)(z + w)?
a. 5 c. 6
b. 4 d. 3
38 How many truth tables can be made from one function table?
a. any numbers
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
40 A comparison between serial and parallel adder reveals that serial order _____.
a. is faster
b. operates at the same speed as parallel
c. is more complicated
d. is slower
G
86 Digital Electronics
86
Answers
1 (a) The size of an IC (integrated circuit) is the major contribution in the invention.
The materials matter the cost to form an IC. The manufacturer minimizes the size to produce more
ICs where the patterns inside are measured in nanometers that cannot be seen on the naked eye.
The thickness of a pattern on each layer is even lesser than the diameter of a one red blood cell.
2 (c) The control unit is a group of circuits that provide timing and signals to all operations in the
computer.
3 (d) Register is a group of cascaded flip-flop used to store related bits of information.
Fig.G3
NOT (or inverter) gate has only one input; then the output is opposite from it.
Input Output Y
AND OR NAND NOR
A B
AB = Y A+B=Y AB = Y A+B=Y
0 0 0 0 1 1
0 1 0 1 1 0
1 0 0 1 1 0
1 1 1 1 0 0
Table G1
In the problem, the condition states that only one logic gate produces an output if the pulses are sent
through both inputs the same time. A pulse refers to an input binary 1. Doing a short connection
with one input of each gate, Fig.G4a shows the correct output which is AND gate.
OR gate can generate 1, however its output produces a 1 from other input combinations which
does not follow the condition.
The condition states that only one logic gate gives an output of 1 if all inputs are 0; that is NOR
gate as shown in Fig.Gd. NAND gate can generate 1, however its output produces a 1 from other
input combinations which does not follow the condition.
pulse, 1
1 1 0 0
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Fig.G4
9 (b) The term quad indicates that there are 4 circuits in an IC.
One of the example here is the Quad 2-input AND gate with a code name of 7408. Fig.G5 shows
the structure and the connection diagram of that IC where four circuits of AND gate are indicated.
pin
Fig.G5
10 (c) I/O (input/output) refers to the devices that provide the means for a computer to communicate
with the user or other comunicate with the user or other computers.
11 (c) The time required for a gate or inverter to change its state is called propagation time.
Parity means that the two input conditions are equal; otherwise, if one condition is opposed, it is
an odd parity. Only XOR gate gives an output 1 from the input combinations of 01 and 10 which
is an input odd parity.
13 (d) Among three choices, 3-bit counter gives the sum of full adders as output.
Counters are used for counting a sequence of binaries. Full adders are cascaded to be a counter in
order to implement an addition operation by how many bits can produce. The disadvantage is when
the cascade increases, the process overloads to obtain the output.
16 (b) The truth table shows the logical state of a digital circuit output for every possible combination
of logical states in the inputs.
17 (c) A demultiplexer is used to route the data from single input to one of the many outputs, and/
or to perform series to parallel conversion.
20 (d) If A B = C, then A C = B or B C = A.
The binary operation of XOR gate can be a commutative law. The trials test arbitrarily as follows:
1) Let A = 0 and B = 1; therefore C = 1.
2) So if A = 0 and C = 1, then B = 1.
3) Also if B = 1 and C = 1, then A = 0.
Digital Electronics 89
21 (c) XNOR or XOR gates are the best suited for parity checking and parity generation.
22 (d) Digital multiplexer is basically a combinational logic circuit that performs AND-OR operation.
This can be interpretted through a logic equation. For example, having the output equation of AB +
CD, you have to solve first AND operation and then OR operation.
24 (a) The decoder is a combinational logic circuit which generates a particular binary word or number.
In the rule of sum-of-products (or SoP) each loop must represent a product; this will be found
out on the preceding steps.
31 (d) The output of NOR gate is high if all of its inputs are low.
33 (d) The function of a multiplexer is to select one out of the number of input data sources and to
transmit it to single channel.
34 (d) OR and AND gates are not allowed the implementation of an arbitrary Boolean function.
The logic gate(s) might be reversible between the input and the output itself using the arbitrary
Boolean function as a tautological condition.
One of the better implementation is NAND gate. Let A = 0 and B = 1 arbitrarily, then the output Y =
AB = 1. Storing our assumed case, we reverse it in any manner, and say: YB = A; then A = 0.
When two logic gates are connected, this is suggested to use MOS transistor network either in parallel
Digital Electronics 91
35 (c) AND circuit gives an output when all input signals are present simultaneously.
36 (c) The parallel adder eliminates the carry look ripple delay.
39 (a) A combination circuit is one in which the output depends on the input combination at the time.
40 (d) A comparison between serial and parallel adder reveals that serial order is slower.
Industrial Electronics
Pretest Items
1 In a TRIAC full-wave phase control circuit, power is delivered to the load _____.
a. during both half-cycles when the TRIAC is c. for the positive half-cycle only
conducting d. continuously
b. during the positive half-cycle when the
TRIAC is conducting
4 An SCR is a _____.
a. common emitter transistor
b. normal rectifier
c. normal diode
d. thyristor
5 A UJT is a _____.
a. resistance controlled device
b. voltage controlled device
c. None of the above
d. current controlled device
7 The minimum emitter voltage needed to cause the UJT to fire is the _____.
a. phase retard
b. peak-point emitter voltage or peak voltage
c. intrinsic standoff ratio
d. gate-turn
12 The only junction of an SCR that measures like a normal diode is the _____.
a. anode-cathode junction
b. cathode-gate junction
c. gate-anode junction
d. gate-drain junction
13 The anode current of an SCR is limited by the _____ (constant voltage source).
a. current source
b. power source
c. anode resistor
d. gate to cathode bias voltage
17 Specific SCR holding current can be determined from the value of _____.
a. VAK and the anode resistor
b. the gate resistor
c. the anode resistor voltage (just before SCR
turns-off) divided by the anode resistor value
d. the gate voltage divider resistor
18 The amount of time an SCR conducts in electrical degrees is described as the _____.
a. phase retard
b. conduction phase
c. conduction angle
d. phase angle
21 The TRIAC turns on when a proper gate trigger voltage is applied. The TRIAC turns off when the
_____.
a. conduction angle is maximum c. gate trigger is removed
b. gate is reverse triggered from decreasing d. load signal drops below the voltage needed
signal at the gate to supply holding current IH to the TRIAC
22 For an SCR to turn on, the _____. (Assume forward bias voltage is applied.)
a. gate has to be more positive than the
cathode
c. anode has to be more positve than the
cathode
b. gate has to be more positive than the anode d. anode has to be more positive than the gate
23
Parameters unique to a particular thyristor can be found on the manufacturers _____.
a. schematic c. specification sheet
b. label d. price list
24
For an SCR to turn off, the gate _____.
a. must be more negative than the anode c. must be more negative than the cathode
b. has nothing to do with SCR to turn-off d. must be more positive than the anode
30
In how many triggering modes can a TRIAC operate?
a. four c. two
b. three d. one
H
95
Answers
1 (a) In a TRIAC (triode for alternating
current) full-wave phase control circuit,
power is delivered to the load during
13 (c) The anode current of an SCR is limited
by the anode resistor if the voltage source
is constant.
both half-cycles when the TRIAC is
conducting.
14 (d) The three terminals of an SCR are A
(anode), K (cathode), and G (gate).
11 (a), (b), (c) & (d) All choices the forward bias voltage is applied.
3 The protocol that automates the assignment of IP addresses, subnet masks, gateways, and other IP
networking parameters.
a. FTP c. HTTP
b. DHCP d. TCP/IP
4 _____ are inbound mail delivery protocols and are typical client or server protocols. They deliver
email from the email server to the client.
98 Computer Networks and Data Communications: Part 1
a. POP c. HTTP
b. SMTP d. TCP/IP
6
When two devices transmit at the same time on the same channel, this is called _____.
a. error c. boom
b. collision d. medium problem
7 Physical addresses are codes placed on the LAN adapter by the manufacturer, it is also known as
_____.
a. frame c. application
b. MAC address d. PDU
8 To ensure that the content of the received frame at the destination matches that of the frame that
left the source node, a transmitting node creates a logical summary of the contents of the frame.
This is known as _____.
a. hamming code c. CRC
b. error-trapping d. parity system
9 _____ is a message sent from one host to all other hosts on the network.
a. Information
b. Packet
c. Data
d. Broadcast
14 A type of network used to connect networking devices that are in a very close geographic area such
as floor of a building itself, or a campus environment.
a. server c. LAN
b. WAN d. MAN
17 _____ is the router interface that is connected to the same network as the host, and is needed to
send a packet out of a local network.
a. Subnet c. Bridge
b. MAC address d. Default gateway
19 A network of interconnected computers belonging to one organization but insulation from the
Internet.
a. Ethernet c. MAN
b. Intranet d. LAN
20 This cable has a single coated copper wire center and an outer metal mesh that acts as both a
grounding circuit and an electromagnetic shield to reduce interference.
a. AWG 22 copper cable c. coaxial cable
b. UTP cable d. RJ-46
22 To prevent complete chaos on the media, a _____ process is used to first detect whether the media
is carrying a signal.
a. IETF c. TCP
b. RFC d. CSMA
26 T_____ is the actual transfer rate of data over the medium in a period of time.
a. Download time
b. Throughput
c. Frequency
d. Bandwidth
29 _____ is an application layer protocol developed to allow file transfers between a client and a server.
a. POP
b. FTP
c. TCP/IP
d. SMTP
31 The transport layer has to break the data into smaller pieces called _____.
a. headers
b. segments
c. PDU
d. information
32 Who translate an entered web address name on a web browser into a numeric IP address?
a. IP
b. browser
c. ISP
d. DNS
33 The process of adding control information as data passes through the layered OSI model is called
_____.
a. PDU c. header
b. encapsulation d. TCP/IP
34 A type of cable which uses light pulses conducted through special glass conductors to carry data.
a. coaxial cable
b. fiber optic cable
c. UTP cable
d. crystal ball
35 Which layers of the OSL model are combined into other layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose all
that apply.) A. Network; B. Presentation; C. Internet; D. Data link; E. Application; F. Physical;
G. Session; H. Network access; I. Transport
a. B, D, F, G c. C, D, G, I
b. C, D, H, I d. A, D, H, I
36 A protocol that governs the way that a web server and a web client interact.
a. Network Access Protocols
b. Transport Protocol
c. HTTP
d. IP
37 Which term describes a specific set of rules that determine the formatting of messages and the process
Computer Networks and Data Communications: Part 1 101
40 An end device or equipment which is either the source or destination of information on a network.
a. terminal
b. computer
c. host
d. workstation
I
102 102
Answers
1 (c) The UTP cable shall be twisted the
pairs very consistently to avoid crosstalk. 13 (d) Bandwidth is the capacity of a medium
to carry data in a given amount of time.
IP networking parameters.
15 (a) UTP stands for Unshielded Twisted
Pair.
collision.
18 (d) The statement is true that IP is the
most common network layer protocol.
11 (b) NIC is another name for LAN adapter. detect whether the media is carrying a
signal.
31 (b) The transport layer has to break the data at the transport layer, and IP operates at the
into smaller pieces called segments. Internet layer.
The data link and physical layers of the OSI
33
(b) The process of adding control Exploration Companion Guide: Dye, M.A;
information as data passes through the McDonald, R.; Rufi, A.W.
layered OSI model is called encapsulation. To solve the problem, identify the
combined layers from OSI model into
37
the OSI model and is now more practical (c) The protocol describes a specific set
in describing network communication of rules that determine the formatting of
functions. The OSI model described in messages and the process of encapsulation
detail functions that occur at the upper used to forward data.
layers on the hosts, while networking is
38
largely a function of the lower layers. Fig.I1 (d) The network layer is associated with IP
shows the two models addressing.
104 Computer Networks and Data Communications: Part 1
Wave Propagation
Pretest and Post-test Items
2
With tan 1, what is the medium of propagation?
a. good conductor c. lossy dielectric
b. lossless dielectric d. free space
10 In a good conductor, the fields tend to concentrate within the initial distance of from the conductor
surface.
a. Poyntings theorem c. skin effect
b. phase matching conditions d. loss tangent
11 It describes how the path of a light ray changes when it moves into a material with a different index
of refraction.
106 Wave Propagation
12 The light travels the path which takes the least time.
a. Snells law
b. Brewsters angle
c. Fermats principle
d. Fresnels equations
15 Given E = 10 e0.1z cos (1 000 t 0.2 z) a x V/m, what is the velocity of propagation of the wave in a
good conductor?
a. 1 000 a x m/s c. 1 000 a x m/s
b. 159.155 a z m/s d. 159.155 a z m/s
16 Given E = 10 e0.1z cos (1 000 t 0.2 z) a x V/m, what is the direction of the magnetic field intensity?
a. a z
b. a x
c. a y
d. a x
17 Given E = 10 e0.1z cos (1 000 t 0.2 z) a x V/m, what is the amplitude of the electric field intensity
10 meters away from the source?
a. 3.679 c. 2
b. 2 d. 3.679
18 Given E = 10 e0.1z cos (1 000 t 0.2 z) a x V/m, what is the phase difference between E and H in
a lossless dielectric?
a. zero c. indeterminate
b. d. 45
Answers
1 (a) The statement in Letter a is not a
criterion for circular polarization.
for a good conductor is known as surface
resistance.
angle (or polarization angle). Here, the phenomenon is called skin effect.
4
tan is used to determine, if the medium
of propagation is either a conductor or a
dielectric, by the ratio of the incident and
reflected ray of the propagated light.
11 (a) Snells law describes how the path of
a light ray changes when it moves into a
material with a different index of refraction.
showing with different inequalities. These V/m comes from the format of E(z, t) =
are originality derived from the current E0 ez cos (t z) a x; in polarization, the
18
along z-axis, and the amplitude heads at
x-axis.
7 (b) If = 0, = 0r, and = 0 r, then the phase of the wave propagates in space.
the medium for the wave propagation is Eq.J1 is given in terms of the waves
lossless dielectric. angular frequency and wavenumber.
Given: = 1 000 rad/s (radian per second)
20
(EM) waves, this affects only in the (a) Hint: Determining the Angular
magnetic field based on the principle: Frequency using Tangent
electric field E leads magnetic field H.
Given: E = cos a x sin a y
16
(c) Hint: Right-Hand Rule The given electric field is circular
The direction of propagation of EM waves polarization where the components of
is given by the right-hand rule. To point electric field, |Ex| = |Ey| = 1, and AR = 1.
the fingers of your right hand toward the Since the components are perpendicular,
E, curl your fingers towards the H, and the tangent is given by Eq.J3.
the thumb will the point the direction of E
tan1 y Eq.J3
propagation. Ex
We represent the vector of electric field along With trigonometric identity, we obtain:
x-axis, the vector of magnetic field along sin
tan1 = tan1 (tan ) =
y-axis, and the direction of propagation cos
along z-axis. Since the rotation of the wave
Be careful that here represents the
is counterclockwise in Item 15, we conclude
angular frequency. Based on the solution,
that the E is positive unit vector a x while
the angular frequency is negative; so the
the H is positive unit vector a y.
wave is left-hand circular polarization
because it rotates counterclockwise in the
7 In a standard single-tone AM signal with 100% modulation at 1 W total output power, how much
power is in the lowest frequency generated?
a. 125 mW c. 166.67 mW
b. 62.5 mW d. 55.56 mW
9 For efficient radiation of EM wave, the antenna must be at least _____ of the wavelength of the
highest signal transmitted.
a. one-twentieth c. one-tenth
b. one-hundredth d. one-half
11 In a standard single-tone AM signal with 50% modulation at 1 W total output power, how much
power is in the highest frequency generated?
110 Analog Communications and Broadcasting
a. 166.67 mW c. 62.5 mW
b. 55.56 mW d. 125 mW
13 What are the information given during station identification announcement of a TV broadcast station?
a. channel and location
b. call letters, channel and location
c. call letters and channel
d. call letters and location
14
The peak difference between instantaneous of the modulated wave and the carrier signal.
a. frequency deviation c. bandwidth
b. maximum frequency d. sideband
17 Which component of radiation is taken as reference in circular or elliptical polarizaed antenna for
FM broadcasting?
a. elliptical c. horizontal
b. circular d. vertical
19 The band of frequencies from 23 kHz to 99 kHz containing sound subcarriers and their associated
sidebands.
a. sound sub-channel c. sub-channel
b. crosstalk d. stereophonic sound sub-channel
Answers
1
(c) The regularity of zero crossings is not words, the frequency band of Channel 14
a property of FM (frequency modulation) (VHF) to the UHF is straightly designated
signals. for TV broadcast band.
Instead, this allows in PM (phase Let the quantities a1 = 470 MHz, n = (29
modulation). 14) + 1 = 16 (meaning Channel 29 is at the
16th term), d = 6 MHz. Then,
6
470 MHz, and this will be used as the first (b) A signal known only in terms of
term a1. It is so-called good because the probabilistic description is random signal.
sequence does not break off. In other
112 Analog Communications and Broadcasting
10
2 (c) In direct FM, fi(t) = fc + km(t) and k is
where Pt = the total average power, Pc = known as frequency sensitivity.
power of the carrier (frequency), m =
modulation index.
The modulated AM signal for a single-
tone is shown in Fig.K1 which is basically
11 (b) Hint: Total Average Power of a Single-
Tone AM Signal (See Eq.K1)
Given: Pt = 1 W; m = 50% or 0.5
visualized on the frequency domain. The Require: power of the upper sideband
three terms represent the carrier, upper The method is the same as Item 7. Solving
sideband (or upper-side frequency band) Pc yields 8/9 W. Then Pt Pc = 1/9 W. For
and lower sideband. When the carrier is the power of each sideband, it is 55.56 mW.
modulated, its amplitude is higher than the
12
two sidebands. (c) The radio emission code designation of
carrier ITU for single-sideband voice is J3E.
13
lower upper (b) The call letters, channel and location
sideband sideband are the information given during the station
identification announcement of a TV
broadcast station.
f
Fig.K1
Given: Pt = 1 W; m = 100% or 1
14 (a) Frequency deviation is the peak
difference between instantaneous of the
modulated wave and the carrier signal.
Required: power of the lower sideband
Solve Pc first.
12
1 = Pc 1 +
15 (d) The range from 108 MHz to 170 MHz
is not part of a TV broadcast band.
Due to standards, this range is used for
2
other modulations including FM.
Pc = 2/3 W
The Pt is the total of the Pc, power of the
lower sideband, and power of the upper
sideband. Since Pt > Pc, subtract Pc from Pt
16 (c) To achieve pre-emphasis in FM, the
signal frequencies above cut-off increase in
level by 6 dB per octave.
to get the total power in the two sidebands.
Pt Pc = 1 2/3 = 1/3 W
Notice that two sidebands have equal power,
so the lower and upper sideband will be
17 (d) The vertical component of radiation is
taken as reference in circular or elliptical
polarized antenna for FM broadcasting.
18
(1/3)/2 = 166.67 mW
(a) Hint: nth Term of an Arithmetic
8
Sequence and Median Value
(d) The mathematical functions (1/2) =
The FM broadcast band has a frequency
g(t), and (t) = g(2t) describe a time
spectrum from 88 MHz to 108 MHz. There
scaling.
are 100 channels with a frequency band
allocation of 200 kHz. For the first channel,
2 One character or a sequence of characters forming a part, or the whole of a message with a specific
meaning.
a. identifier c. code
b. signs d. call sign
3 The standard that specifies a balanced interface cable that will operate bit rates up to 10 Mbps with
a span distance up to 1 200 m.
a. RS-449A c. RS-423A
b. RS-422A d. RS-550A
5 What is the transmission rate of a system for transmitting the output of a microcomputer to a line
printer operating at a speed of 30 lines/minute? Assume that the line printer has 8 bits of data per
character and prints out 80 characters/line.
a. 400 bps c. 320 bps
b. 800 bps d. 640 bps
13 A source code whose average word length approaches the fundamental limit set by the entropy of
a discrete memoryless source.
a. source code c. Huffman code
b. entropy code d. prefix code
14 In _____ transmission, a unique SYN character is transmitted at the beginning of each message.
a. digital
b. synchronous
c. asynchronous
d. analog
15 For a sample rate of 40 kHz, determine the maximum analog input frequency.
a. 10 kHz
b. 20 kHz
c. 30 kHz
d. 40 kHz
16 Which of the following described the very early standard that defines binary digits as space per mark
line conditions and voltage levels?
a. V.1 c. V.4
b. V.2 d. V.5
17 All bits in a character are sent and received _____ in a serial port.
a. simultaneously
b. in groups of 2 bits
c. one at a time
d. in groups of 3 bits
19 When one Boolean operation has a result which is negative of another, the two operations are said
to be _____.
a. inverse c. supplementary
b. complementary d. adjunct
20 Mode of communication system where both sides of the system wait for their turn to transmit at a time.
a. full-duplex
b. half-duplex
c. telephone
d. CB Radio
27 Highest theoretical frequency that can be processed at a sampling rate without aliasing.
a. critical frequency
b. natural frequency
c. resonant frequency
d. folding frequency
29 12 voice channels are sampled at 8 000 sampling rate and encoded into 8-bit PCM word. Determine
the rate of the data stream.
a. 750 kbps c. 640 kbps
b. 345 kbps d. 768 kbps
Digital and Data Communications: Part 2 117
30 A device that connects two dissimilar networks and performs the protocol conversion.
a. converter
b. gateway
c. coupler
d. transformer
31 The total useful information processed or communicated over a specified amount of time.
a. throughput
b. information technology
c. bit rate
d. baud rate
32 Determine from the following the basic mode of transmission system in the public data network in
which data are transferred from the source to the network and from the network to the destination
in the frame format.
a. packet mode c. asynchronous mode
b. voice mode d. synchronous mode
36 An indication signal for a handshake from the DTE in response to an active condition request to
send a signal.
a. data ready c. clear to send
b. receive data d. data transmission
37 Main basic components of a data communication system are composed of the following.
a. transmitter, computer and modem
b. transmitter, channel and receiver
c. computer, modem and router
d. computer, modem and gateway
38 Refers to an address that identifies a server on the network and a particular document on the server.
a. URL
b. digital emission
c. key transmission
d. cycle transmission
39 Who is responsible in the correctness and accuracy of transmitted information content over a data
communication?
a. bridge c. channel
b. modem d. transmitter and receiver
40 Device that complies with the ISDN interface and can be connected directly to the digital network.
a. Modem
b. TE2 (Non-ISDN terminal)
c. TE1 (ISDN terminal)
d. TA (Terminal Adapter)
L
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Answers
1 (b) A word in telegraphy consists of 7 and
1/2 characters plus a word space.
Hint: Input Combinations in Binary
Recalling Eq.G1 in Digital Electronics is:
m = 2n
9
meaning. (d) Polling is an invitation from the primary
to a secondary to transmit a message.
12
data in synchronous transmission. (c) Modem is a device in data transmission
to interface a DTE to an analog
13
requirement, is bit per second (bps). (c) Huffman code is a source code whose
Though there is a formula for bit rate, average word length approaches the
the given in the problem is useless; so the fundamental limit set by the entropy of a
solution is to set the units of the given until discrete memoryless source.
the unit of bit rate is attained. Conversions
14
might be also necessary. (b) In synchronous transmission, a
Given: operating speed of the system = unique SYN character is transmitted at the
30 lines/minute or 0.5 lines/second; number beginning of each message.
of characters per line = 80 characters/line;
number of bits containing in a character =
8 bits/character
Require: bit rate (or transmission rate)
15 (b) Hint: Nyquist frequency
fN 2fs
where fN = maximum (or Nyquist)
As the units are settled, the bit rate is: frequency, fs = sampling (or input)
(0.5 lines/second)(80 characters/line) frequency. Nyquist frequency (known as
(8 bits/character) = 320 bps a folding frequency) is twice the highest
frequency present in a signal. (See