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Important Instructions:

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1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of Test Booklet with only Blue / Black Ball Point Pen
provided by the Board.
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2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
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3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
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5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C, consisting of Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
6. Candidates will be awarded ,marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each
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question. (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response for each question. No
deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
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7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will
be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6
above.
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8. For writing particulars/marking responses on Side -1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet use only Blue / Black
Ball Point Pen provided by the Board.
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9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/hall.
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10. Rough work is not to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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12. The CODE for this booklet is F. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side 2 of the Answer Sheet and
also tally the serial number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are the same as that on this booklet. In case of
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discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the
Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
13. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.

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PART-A CHEMISTRY

1. A stream of electrons from a heated filament was passed between two charged plates kept at a potential

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h
difference V esu. If e and m are charge and mass of an electron, respectively, then the value of (where is

wavelength associated with electron wave) is given by :

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(1) 2 meV (2) meV (3) 2meV (4) meV

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h h 1 P2 h
1.(3) de-Broglie wavelength, P and eV P 2meV

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P 2 m
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2. 2-chloro-2-methylpentane on reaction with sodium methoxide in methanol yields :
CH3
|

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C2 H5 CH 2 C CH 2 C2 H5 CH C CH3
(a) C2 H5 CH 2 C OCH3 (b) (c)
| |
|
CH3 CH3
CH 3

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(1) (a) and (c) (2) (c) only (3) (a) and (b) (4) All of these
CH3 CH3 CH3
| CH3 O Na
| |
2.(4) CH3 C CH 2 CH 2 CH3
|
Cl
CH 3OH

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CH3 C CH 2 CH 2 CH3 CH3 C CH CH 2 CH3

OCH3 (SN 1 product) (E1 and E2 product)


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CH3
|
CH 2 C CH 2 CH 2 CH3
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3. Which of the following compounds is metallic and ferromagnetic ?


(1) CrO2 (2) VO2 (3) MnO2 (4) TiO2
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3.(1) CrO2 is metallic and ferromagnetic substance (fact).


Read NCERT (XIIth) - Chapter-1/The Solid State-Page-28
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4. Which of the following statements about low density polythene is FALSE ?


(1) It is a poor conductor of electricity
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(2) Its synthesis requires dioxygen or a peroxide initiator as a catalyst


(3) It is used in the manufacture of buckets, dust-bins etc
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(4) Its synthesis requires high pressure


4.(3) Low density polythene is chemically inert and tough but flexible and a poor conductor of electricity. Hence, it is
used in the insulation of electricity carrying wires and manufacture of squeeze bottles, toys and flexible pipes.
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5. For a linear plot of log (x/m) versus log p in Freundlich adsorption isotherm, which of the following statements is
correct ? (k and n are constants)
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(1) 1/n appears as the intercept (2) Only 1/n appears as the slope
(3) log (1/n) appears as the intercept (4) Both k and 1/n appear in the slope term
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x 1
5.(2) log log k log P (NCERT (XIIth-Chapter-5/Surface Chemistry-Page-125)
m n

6. The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are 393.5 and 283.5 kJ mol1 , respectively. The
heat of formation (in kJ) of carbon monoxide per mole is :
(1) 676.5 (2) 676.5 (3) 110.5 (4) 110.5

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C O2 CO2 [i]
1
6.(3) 1 C O2 CO f H CO (H (i) H (ii) ) 393.5 (283.5) 110.0
CO O 2 CO2 [ii] 2
2

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7. The hottest region of Bunsen flame shown in the figure below is :

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(1) region 2 (2) region 3 (3) region 4 (4) region 1

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7.(1)

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8. Which of the following is an anionic detergent?
(1) Sodium lauryl sulphate (2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
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(3) Glyceryl oleate (4) Sodium stearate
NaOH aq
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H SO
8.(1) 2 4
CH3 CH 2 10 CH 2 OH CH3 CH 2 10 CH 2OSO3 Na
CH3 CH 2 10 CH 2OSO3H

Sodium lauryl sulphate (Anionic detergent)


(Read NCERT-XIIth-Chapter 16-Chemistry in Every day life/Page-452)
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9. 18 g glucose C6 H12O6 is added to 178.2 g water. The vapor pressure of water (in torr) for this aqueous
solution is:
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(1) 76.0 (2) 752.4 (3) 759.0 (4) 7.6


18 178.2
9.(2) nC H O 0.1, n n 20 9.9
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6 12 6 180 18
0.1 0.1 p p
C6 H12 O6 0.01, Now B 0.01 P 7.6 torr
0.1 9.9 10 PA 760
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P Pwater P 760 7.6 752.4 torr
soln
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10. The distillation technique most suited for separating glycerol from spent-lye in the soap industry is:
(1) Fractional distillation (2) Steam distillation
(3) Distillation under reduced pressure (4) Simple distillation
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10.(3) Steam distillation is preferred for separation of substances which are steam volatile and are immiscible with
water.
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Fractional distillation is used if the difference in boiling points of two liquids is not much. This technique is used
to separate different fractions of crude oil in petroleum industry.
Distillation under reduced pressure is used to purify liquids having very high boiling points and those, which
decompose at or below their boiling points. Glycerol can be separated from spent-lye in soap industry by using
this technique

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Simple distillation This technique is used to separate volatile liquids from nonvolatile impurities or liquids
having sufficient difference in their boiling points.

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11. The species in which the N atom is in a state of sp hybridization is :

(1) NO2 (2) NO3 (3) NO2 (4) NO2

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11.(4)

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12. Decomposition of H 2 O2 follows a first order reaction. In fifty minutes the concentration of H 2 O2 decreases
from 0.5 to 0.125 M in one such decomposition. When the concentration of H 2 O2 reaches 0.05 M, the rate of
formation of O2 will be:

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(1) 6.93 10 4 mol min 1 (2) 2.66 L min 1 at STP

1.34 102 mol min 1 6.93 10 2 mol min 1

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(3) (4)
12.(1) In fifty minutes the concentration of H2O2 decreases from 0.5 to 0.125 M.
It means two half lives must have passed
2t1/ 2 50 minutes
t1/ 2 25 minutes
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0.693
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1
k min
25
d[H 2 O2 ] 0.693
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Also k[H 2 O2 ] (0.05)mol min 1


dt 25
As per reaction
2H 2O 2
2H 2 O O2

d[O 2 ] 1 d[H 2 O2 ] 1 0.693


m,

1 4 1
2 25 0.05 mol min 6.93 10 mol min
dt 2 dt
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13. The pair having the same magnetic moment is : At. No. : Cr 24, Mn 25, Fe 26, Co 27
2 2 2 2
(1) Cr H 2 O and Fe H 2 O 6 (2) Mn H 2 O and Cr H 2 O 6
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6 6
2 2
(3) CoCl4 2 and Fe H 2 O 6

(4) Cr H 2 O
6
and CoCl 4
2
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13.(1) [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ]2 Cr 2 , [Ar] 3d 4


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[Fe(H 2O) 6 ]2 Fe2 , [Ar]3d 6


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[Mn(H 2 O) 6 ]2 Mn 2 , [Ar]3d5
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[CoCl4 ]2 Co 2 , [Ar]3d 7

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14. The absolute configuration of

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(1) (2S, 3R) (2) (2S, 3S) (3) (2R, 3R) (4) (2R, 3S)

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14.(1) Order of priority of substituent of C-2 is OH > CH(Cl)(CH3) > COOH

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(Z)

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Order of priority is in anti-clockwise direction hence, its configuration is S.
Order of priority of substituent of C-3 is Cl > CH(OH)COOH > CH3
(Z)

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Order of priority is in clockwise direction hence, its configuration is R.


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15. C D is 100. If the initial concentration of all the


The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction A B

four species were 1M each, then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L1 ) will be :
(1) 0.818 (2) 1.818 (3) 1.182 (4) 0.182
15.(2) Initially at equilibrium
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A B C
D K eq 100
1 1 1 1 Q 1
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(1 x) (1 x) 1 x 1 x

[C][D] (1 x)(1 x) (1 x) 2
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K eq
[A][B] (1 x)(1 x) (1 x)2
1 x
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10
1 x
9
On solving x
11
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[D] 1.818
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16. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth floatation method ?
(1) Siderite (2) Galena (3) Malachite (4) Magnetite
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16.(2) Sulphide ores are concentrated by forth floatation process


Galena PbS Siderite FeCO3 Malachite CuCO3 . Cu(OH)2 Magnetite Fe3 O4

17. At 300 K and 1 atm, 15 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon requires 375 mL air containing 20% O2 by volume for
complete combustion. After combustion the gases occupy 330 mL. Assuming that the water formed is in liquid
form and the volumes were measured at the same temperature and pressure, the formula of the hydrocarbon is :

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(1) C3H8 (2) C4H8 (3) C4H10 (4) C3H6
y y
17.(None) Cx H y (g) x O2 (g)
xCO 2 (g) H 2O(l)
4 2

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y
15 ml 15 x ml 15 x ml
4
O2 used = 20% of 375 = 75 ml

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Inert part of air = 80% of 375 = 300 ml

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Total volume of gases = CO2 + Inert part of air = 330 ml
Vol of CO2 = 30 ml

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Two equations are x = 2, y = 12

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None of the option matches.

18. The pair in which phosphorous atoms have a formal oxidation state of +3 is :

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(1) Pyrophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids (2) Orthophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids
(3) Pyrophosphorous and pyrophosphoric acids (4) Orthophosphorous and pyrophosphorous acids

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O
||
18.(4) H 3 PO3 is orthophosphorous acid : HO P OH
|
H
O O
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|| ||
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H 4 P2 O5 is pyrophosphorous acid : HO P O P OH
| |
H H
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Read NCERT (XIIth)-Chapter-7/p-Block Elements-Page-179

19. Which one of the following complexes shows optical isomerism ?


(1) cis [Co(en)2Cl2 ]Cl (2) trans [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
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(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]


(en = ethylenediamine)
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19.(1)
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[Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl can exist in both cis and trans form and both are optically inactive.
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Read NCERT (XIIth)-Chapter-9/Co-ordination Compounds-Page-259


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trans cis
[Co(NH3 )3 Cl3 ] exist in fac and Mer forms and both are optically inactive.

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20. The reaction of zinc with dilute and concentrated nitric acid, respectively, produces:
(1) NO 2 and NO (2) NO and N2 O (3) NO2 and N 2 O (4) N 2 O and NO 2

20.(4) Zn 4HNO3
Zn(NO3 )2 2H 2 O 2NO 2

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conc.

4Zn 10 HNO3
4Zn(NO3 )2 N 2 O 5 H 2 O
dil

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21. Which one of the following statements about water is FALSE?
(1) Water can act both as an acid and as a base
(2) There is extensive intramolecular hydrogen bonding in the condensed phase

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(3) Ice formed by heavy water sinks in normal water

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(4) Water is oxidized to oxygen during photosynthesis
21.(2) Water shows only intermolecular H-bond in the condensed phase

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22. The concentration of fluoride, lead, nitrate and iron in a water sample from an underground lake was found to be
1000 ppb, 40 ppb, 100 ppm and 0.2 ppm, respectively. This water is unsuitable for drinking due to high

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concentration of :
(1) Lead (2) Nitrate (3) Iron (4) Fluoride
22.(2) In drinking water maximum permissible concentration of
Lead about 50 ppb
Nitrate about 50 ppm
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Iron about 0.2 ppm
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Fluoride about < 1 ppm
High concentration of nitrate in drinking water can cause disease such as methemoglobinemia.
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Read NCERT (XIth)-Chapter-14/Environmental Chemistry-Page-412

23. The main oxides formed on combustion of Li, Na and K in excess of air are, respectively:
(1) LiO2 , Na 2 O 2 and K 2 O (2) Li2O2, Na2O2 and KO2
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(3) Li2 O, Na 2 O2 and KO2 (4) Li 2 O, Na 2 O and KO2


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23.(3) Li mainly forms Li2 O Na mainly forms Na 2 O 2 K mainly forms KO 2


24. Thiol group is present in:
(1) Cystine (2) Cysteine (3) Methionine (4) Cytosine
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24.(2) Cysteine is amino acid having thiol group


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HS CH 2 CH COOH
|
NH 2
Read NCERT (XIIth)-Chapter-14/Biomolecules-Page-413
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25. Galvanization is applying a coating of:


(1) Cr (2) Cu (3) Zn (4) Pb
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25. (3) Galvanization means applying a coating of zinc metal to prevent corrosion.
26. Which of the following atoms has the highest first ionization energy?
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(1) Na (2) K (3) Sc (4) Rb

26.(3) IE Na 496 kJ / mol ; IESc 633 kJ / mol


It is relatively difficult to remove on e from 4s orbital of Sc as compared to 3S of Na due to poor shielding of
d-orbital.

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27. In the Hofmann bromamide degradation reaction, the number of moles of NaOH and Br2 used per mole of
amine produced are:
(1) Four moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2 (2) Two moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2

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(3) Four moles of NaOH and one mole of Br2 (4) One mole of NaOH and one mole of Br2

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27.(3) RCONH 2 4NaOH Br2 RNH 2 Na 2 CO3 2NaBr 2H 2 O
Read NCERT (XIIth)-Chapter-13/Amines-Page-386

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28. Two closed bulbs of equal volume (V) containing an ideal gas initially at pressure pi and temperature T1 are
connected through a narrow tube of negligible volume as shown in the figure below. The temperature of one of

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the bulbs is then raised to T2 . The final pressure p f is:

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ms
T1 T2 TT TT
(1) 2 pi (2) 2 pi (3) 2 pi 1 2 (4) pi 1 2
T1 T2 T1 T2 T1 T2 T1 T2

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28.(2)

Number of mol of gases in each container


piV
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RT1
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piV
Total mol of gases in both containers 2
RT1
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pf V pf V
In left chamber n1 and In right chamber, n2
RT1 RT2
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2 pi V pf V pf V T2
Total moles of gases should remain constant p f 2 pi
RT1 RT1 RT2 T1 T2
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29. The reaction of propene with HOCl (Cl2 H2 O) proceeds through the intermediate:
CH3 CH CH 2 Cl CH3 CH(OH) CH 2
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(1) (2)
(3) CH3 CHCl CH 2 (4) CH3 CH CH 2 OH
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HO Cl OH
29.(1) CH3 CH CH 2 CH3 C H CH 2 Cl CH3 CH CH 2 Cl
Electrophilic addition
Intermediate |
OH
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30. The product of the reaction given below is:


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(1) (2) (3) (4)

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30.(1)

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PART-C MATHEMATICS

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31. Two sides of a rhombus are along the lines, x y 1 0 and 7 x y 5 0 . If its diagonals intersect at
1, 2 , then which one of the following is a vertex of this rhombus ?

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1 8 10 7
(1) 3, 8 (2) , (3) , (4) 3, 9
3 3 3 3
31.(2)
3, 6 D
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1 8
C ,
3 3
7 x y 15 0 P
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7x y 5 0
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A B(1, 2)
x y 1 0

32. If the 2nd, 5th and 9th terms of a non-constant A.P. are in G.P., then the common ratio of this G.P. is :
4 7 8
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(1) (2) 1 (3) (4)


3 4 5
32.(1) a d , a 4d , a 8d
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a 4d 2 a d a 8d
a 2 16d 2 8ad a 2 9ad 8d 2
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8d 2 ad
a 8d , d 0
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a 4d 12d 4
r
a d 9d 3
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33. Let P be the point on the parabola, y 2 8 x which is at a minimum distance from the centre C of the
2
circle, x 2 y 6 1 . Then the equation of the circle, passing through C and having its centre at P is:
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x
(1) x 2 y 2 x 4 y 12 0 (2) x2 y 2 2 y 24 0
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4
(3) x 2 y 2 4 x 9 y 18 0 (4) x 2 y 2 4 x 8 y 12 0
33.(4) 2t 2
, 4t 0, 6
2
F t 4t 4 4t 6

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= 4 t 4 4t 2 9 12t
= 4 t 4
4t 2 12t 9

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F ' t 4 4t 3 8t 12 0
3
t 2t 3 0

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t 1
x 2 y 2 4 x 8 y 12 0

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34. The system of linear equations

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x y z 0
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x y z 0
x y z 0

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has a non-trivial solution for :
(1) exactly one value of (2) exactly two values of
(3) exactly three values of (4) infinitely many values of

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1 1
34.(3) 1 1 0
1 1

1 2 1 1 0
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1 1 1 1 0
1 or 0 or 1
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1
35. If f x 2 f 3 x, x 0 and S x R : f x f x ; then S :
x
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(1) contains exactly one element (2) contains exactly two elements
(3) contains more than two elements (4) is an empty set
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35.(2) f x 2 f 3 x, x 0
x
1 3
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f 2 f x
x x
6
3 f x 3x
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x
2
f x x
x
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2 2
f x f x x x
x x
4
2x
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x
x2 2 x 2
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1
36. Let p lim 1 tan 2 x
x 0
2x then log p is equal to :

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1 1
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4) 2
2 4
1
1
tan 2 x e 12

p lim 1 tan 2 x

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36.(2) 2x lim e 2 x
x 0 x 0

1
log e p

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2

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2 3i sin
37. A value of for which is purely imaginary, is :
1 2i sin

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3 1

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(1) (2) sin 1 (3) sin 1 (4)
6 4 3 3

37.(3) Re 2 3i sin 1 2i sin 2 6 sin 2 0

ms
1
sin 2
3

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38. The eccentricity of the hyperbola whose length of the latus rectum is equal to 8 and the length of its
conjugate axis is equal to half of the distance between its foci, is :

(1)
4
3
(2)
2
3
(3) 3 (4)
4
3
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2b 2
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38.(2) 8
a
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2b ae

4b 2 a 2 e 2


4 a 2 e2 1 a 2 e2

3e2 4
m,

2
e
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39. If the standard deviation of the numbers 2, 3, a and 11 is 3.5, then which of the following is true :
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(1) 3a 2 32a 84 0 (2) 3a 2 34a 91 0


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(3) 3a 2 23a 44 0 (4) 3a 2 26 a 55 0


2
xi2 xi 4 9 a 2 121 16 a
2
39.(1) Variance
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n n 4 4



4 134 a 2 256 a 2 32a
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16
2
7
3a 2 32a 280 16 4 49
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2
3a 2 32 a 84 0

2 x12 5 x9
40. The integral 3
dx is equal to :
x5 x3 1
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(Where C is an arbitrary constant)
x10 x5
(1) 2
C (2) 2
C
2 x5 x3 1
2 x5 x3 1

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10 5
x x
(3) 2
C (4) 2
C

2 x5 x3 1 x 5
x3 1

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2 x12 5 x9

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40. (1)
3
dx
x5 x3 1

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2 x12 5 x9
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x15 1 x2 x5 3 dx

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2 x 3 5 x 6
dx

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3
x 5 x 2 1
x 5 x 2 1 t

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5x6 2 x3 dx dt

dt t 2
t3 2 C 2t 2 C 2
1


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x10
x5 x3 1
2
C
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x 3 y2 z 4
41. If the line, lies in the plane, lx my z 9 , then l 2 m 2 is equal to:
2 1 3
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(1) 18 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 26

41.(3) 3 m 2 4 9
3 2m 5 (i)
m,

2 m 3 0
2 m 3 (ii)
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4 2 m 6 (iii)
(iii) (i)
ms

m 1 2 m 2 2
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42. If 0 x 2 , then the number of real values of x, which satisfy the equation cosx + cos2x + cos3x +
cos4x = 0, is :
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(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 3


42.(2) cos x cos 4 x cos 2 x cos3 x 0
5x 3x 5x x
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2 cos cos 2 cos cos 0


2 2 2 2
5x 3x x
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2 cos cos cos 0


2 2 2
5x x
2 cos 2 cos x cos 0
2 2
3
cos x 0 x ,
2 2

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x
cos 0 x
2
5x 3 7 9 5
cos 0 x , , , 5 is repeated

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2 5 5 5 5

43. The area (in sq. units) of the region x, y : y 2



2 x and x 2 y 2 4 x, x 0, y 0 is :

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8 4 2

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(1) (2)
3 3
2 2 4

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(3) (4)
2 3 3
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43.(1) x2 y 2 4 x 0

y2 2x

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x2 2 x 4 x 0

x2 2 x 0

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x x 2 0
x 0, x 2

Area
2


0
4 x x 2 2 x dx

2


0
2
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2 2 x 2 2 x dx

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2
x2 4 x2 2 3 2 2 8
4 x x 2 sin 1 2 x 2 2 2 2
2 2 2 3 3
0 2 3

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3
44. Let a , b and c be three unit vectors such that a b c
2

b c . If b is not parallel to c , then

m,

the angle between a and b is:


2
(1) (2)
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2 3
5 3
(3) (4)
6 4
ms

3
44.(3)
a bc 2

b c
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3 3
a . c b
ab c 2
b
2
c

3 3
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ac and ab
2 2
Angle between a & c 30
5
a & b 150
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6
ww

45. A wire of length 2 units is cut into two parts which are bent respectively to form a square of side = x
units and a circle of radius = r units. If the sum of the areas of the square and the circle so formed is
minimum, then:
(1) 4 x r (2) x 2r
(3) 2x = r (4) 2 x 4 r
45.(2) 4 x 2 r 2 2x r 1

13
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1 2x
r

f x x2 r 2

om
= x2
1 2x2
2
1 2x 2

.c
f x x2

on
2 1 2 x 2
f ' x 2x 0

ti
2 1 2x
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olu

x 2 4x
1 r
x 2 4

ms

2
x 2 2 1 r
x 2 2 2 r

exa
x 2 r .

The distance of the point 1, 5 , 9 from the plane x y z 5 measured along the line x = y = z is :
46.

(1) 10 3
ezy (2)
10
3
w.
20
(3) (4) 3 10
3
ww

x 1 y 5 z 9
46.(1) Equation of line:
1 1 1
Any point is 1, 5 , 9
It lies on plane
1 5 9 5
m,

1 5 9 5
10 0
.co

10
Point is 9, 15, 1 , another is 1, 5, 9
ms

Distance = 100 100 100 10 3


47. If a curve y = f (x) passes through the point 1, 1 and satisfies the differential equation,
exa

1
y (1 + xy) dx = xdy, then f is equal to :
2
4 2 4 2
ezy

(1) (2) (3) (4)


5 5 5 5
47.(3) y 1 xy dx xdy
dy y dy y
w.

y2 y2
dx x dx x
Bernaullis DE
ww

n2

1 1
1 2 x dx x dx x , Solution y1 2 x
I.F
1 2 x 1 dx
e e

14
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x x2
C
y 2
Given f 1 1

om
1 1 1
C C
1 2 2
x2 1

.c
x
equation
y 2 2

on
1 1 1 1
When x , we have
2 2y 42 2

ti
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1 5 4

olu
y
y 4 5

ms
2 4
48. If the number of terms in the expansion of 1 2 , x 0 , is 28, then the sum of the coefficients
x x
of the terms in this expansion, is :

exa
(1) 2187 (2) 243 (3) 729 (4) 64
n
2 4
48.(3) 1 2
x x
Assuming all dissimilar terms ezy
n2
C2 28
w.
n6

Sum of all coefficients 36 729


ww

1 sin x
49. Consider f x tan 1 . A normal to y f x at also passes through the
1 sin x , x 0 , 2 6

point :
m,

2
(1) 0, (2) , 0 (3) , 0 (4) (0, 0)
3 6 4
.co

1 sin x
49.(1) f x tan 1 ; x 0, 2
1 sin x
ms

1 1 1 sin x cos x 1 sin x cos x


f x
1
1 sin x 1 sin x 1 sin x 2
exa

2
1 sin x 1 sin x

At x
6
ezy



1 1 2 3 / 2 1 1 3 1 1
f 4 3
w.

1 2
1 1 1 3 2 3 1
6 1 4 2 3 2
1
1 2 2 2 4
1 2
1
ww

1 1
2 2
Slope of normal 2
1
1
1 2 tan 1 3
Point at x f tan
6 6 1 3
1
2

15
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2
equation y 2 x y 2x y 2x
3 6 3 3 3

For x R , f x | log 2 sin x | and g x f f x , then :

om
50.
(1) g' 0 cos log 2
(2) g' 0 cos log 2

.c
(3) g is differentiable at x = 0 and g' 0 sin log 2

on
(4) g is not differentiable at x = 0

ti
g x f f x
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50.(1)

olu
g x f f x f x

g 0 f f 0 f 0

ms
For x 0, log 2 sin x
f x log 2 sin x f x cos x f 0 1

exa
Also, x log 2, log 2 sin x f x log 2 sin x
f x cos x f log 2 cos log 2

ezy
g 0 cos log 2 1 cos log 2
w.
51. Let two fair six-faced dice A and B be thrown simultaneously. If E1 is the event that die A shows up four,
E2 is the event that die B shows up two and E3 is the event that the sum of numbers on both dice is odd,
ww

then which of the following statements is NOT true ?


(1) E2 and E3 are independent (2) E1 and E3 are independent
(3) E1 , E2 and E3 are independent (4) E1 and E2 are independent
1
m,

51.(3) P E1
6
1
P E2
.co

6
24642 1
P E3
ms

36 2
1 1
P E2 E3 P E2 P E3
6 2
exa

1 1
P E1 E3 P E1 P E3
6 2
ezy

P E1 E2 E3 0 P E1 P E2 P E3

5a b
w.

52. If A and A adj A AAT , then 5a b is equal to :


3 2
ww

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 13 (4) 1


T
52.(1) A adj A A I n AA [Given]
A 10a 3b

5a 3
AT
b 2

16
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5a b 5a 3 10a 3b 0
AAT b 2 0
3 2 10 a 3b
25a 2 b 2 15a 2b 10a 3b 0

om

15a 2b 13 0 10a 3b

2b 13 3b
15a 2b 0 a & 10a 3b 13 a

.c
15 10
2b 13 3b

on
4b 39 9b 13b 39 b3
15 10
2 6 2

ti
a 3 5a 2
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15 15 5

olu
5a b 2 3 5

ms
53. The Boolean Expression p q q p q is equivalent to :
(1) pq (2) p q (3) p q (4) pq

exa
53.(2) p q q p q
p q q q p q

p q t p q

p q p q
ezy
w.
p q p p q q

t q p q t p q p q
ww

x 2 4 x 60
54. The sum of all real values of x satisfying the equation x 2 5 x 5 1 is :

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 3


m,

2
x 4 x 60
54.(4) x2 5 x 5 1
.co

Case I
x 2 4 x 60 0
ms

x 10
x6
exa

Case II
x2 5 x 5 1

x2 5 x 4 0
ezy

x 1
x4
w.

Case III
x2 5 x 5 1
ww

x2 5 x 6 0
x 2 or 3
For x2

x 2 4 x 60 48
For x3

17
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x 2 4 x 60 39
x2
Sum of all real value 3

om
55. The centres of those circles which touch the circle, x 2 y 2 8 x 8 y 4 0 , externally and also touch

.c
the x-axis, lie on :

on
(1) an ellipse which is not a circle. (2) a hyperbola
(3) a parabola (4) a circle

ti
55.(3) x2 y2 8x 8 y 4 0
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olu
C 4, 4 r6
Let centre be (x1, y1)
Radius = |y1| C1 C2 = r 1 + r2

ms
x1 4 2 y1 4 2 6 | y1 |
2 2
x1 4 y1 4 36 y12 12| y1 |

exa
x12 8 x1 8 y1 4 12| y1 |
y1 0 x12 8 x1 8 y1 4 12 y1
x12 8 x1 4 20 y1 ezy
x1 4 2 20 20 y1
w.
2
x1 4 20 y1 1 Parabola
y1 < 0 x12 8 x1 8 y1 4 12 y1
ww

x12 8 x1 4 4 y1
x1 4 2 2
20 4 y1 x1 4 4 y 5 parabola

56. If all the words (with or without meaning) having five letters, formed using the letters of the word
m,

SMALL and arranged as in a dictionary ; then the position of the word SMALL is :
(1) 59th (2) 52nd (3) 58th (4) 46th
.co

4
56.(3) A 12
2
ms

L 4 24
4
M 12
exa

2
3
SA 3
2
ezy

SL 36
Total 57
w.

Next word is SMALL.


ww

1/ n
n 1 n 2 .........3n
57. lim is equal to :
n
n2n
27 9 18
(1) 2
(2) (3) 3 log 3 2 (4)
e e2 e4

18
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1/ n
n 1 n 2 n 3 n 2n
57.(1) . . . .........
n n n n
1 n 1 n 2 n 2n
log log

om
log ........ log
n n n n
2
log log 1 x dx 1+x=t

.c
0
3

on
log log t dt
1

ti
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1
log t log t . t dt

olu
t
log t log t 1
log 3 log 3 1 1 log 1 1

ms
= 3 log 3 2
= log 27 log e2

exa
27
= log log
e2
27

e2 ezy
2 2 2 2
w.
3 2 1 4 16
58. If the sum of the first ten terms of the series 1 2 3 4 2 4 ..., is m , then
5 5 5 5 5
ww

m is equal to :
(1) 101 (2) 100 (3) 99 (4) 102
2 2 2 2
8 12 16 20
58.(1) Sn
5 5 5 5
1 2
Sn 8 122 16 2 202 ......
m,

25
10
1 2
Sn 25 4n 4
.co

n 1

10
16
= n 12
ms

n 1 25
10
16 2
= n 2n 1 35.11
exa

n 1 25

16 10 .11 . 21 10 .11
= 10
25 6 2
ezy

16
= 385 110 10
25
16 16
= 505 101 m 101
w.

25 5
ww

59. If one of the diameters of the circle, given by the equation, x 2 y 2 4 x 6 y 12 0 is a chord of a
circle S, whose centre is at 3, 2 , then the radius of S is :
(1) 5 3 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 5 2

19 JEE Entrance Examination


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om
60. A man is walking towards a vertical pillar in a straight path, at a uniform speed. At a certain point A on
the path, he observes that the angle of elevation of the top of the pillar is 30 . After walking for 10

.c
minutes from A in the same direction, at a point B, he observes that the angle of elevation of the top of the

on
pillar is 60 . Then the time taken (in minutes) by him, from B to reach the pillar, is :
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 5 (4) 6

ti
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olu
60.(3) Let speed be v

ms
30 60
A B
x y

exa
b
tan 60 3
y
b 3y

tan 30
b
ezy (i)

x y
w.
1 b

3 x y
ww

x yb 3 (ii)
10v vt1 3 y . 3
10v vt1 3 y
10v vt1 3v t1
m,

10 t1 3t1
2t1 10
.co

t1 = 5.
ms
exa

PART-A PHYSICS
ezy

61. A uniform string of length 20 m is suspended from a rigid support. A short wave pulse is introduced at its lowest
end. It starts moving up the string. The time taken to reach the support is: (Take g = 10 ms2)
(1) 2s (2) 2 2s (3) 2s (4) 2 2 s
w.

Mgx
61.(2) T
ww

L
Mgx
T L gx
V
M
L
dx
gx
dt

20
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L
dx
x
gt
0
20

om
2 x 10t
0
2 20 10t

.c
t 2 2s

on
62. A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000 times. Assume that
the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated. How much fat will he use up considering the
work done only when the weight is lifted up? Fat supplies 3.8107 J of energy per kg which is converted to

ti
mechanical energy with a 20 % efficiency rate. Take g = 9.8 ms2 .
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olu
(1) 6.45 10 3 kg (2) 9.89 103 kg (3) 12.89 103 kg (4) 2.45 103 kg
62.(3) PE = mgh 1000 10 9.8 1 1000

ms
PE 10 4 9.8 J
If mass lost is m, then

exa
2
Energy = m 3.8 107 J
10
1 5
So, 9.8 104 m . 3.8 107 m 103 9.8 1.289 102 kg
5
ezy 3.8

63. A point particle of mass m, moves along the uniformly rough track PQR as shown in the figure. The coefficient
w.
of friction, between the particle and the rough track equals . The particle is released, from rest, from the point
P and it comes to rest at a point R. The energies, lost by the ball, over the parts, PQ and QR, of the track, are
ww

equal to each other, and no energy is lost when particle changes direction from PQ to QR. The values of the
coefficient of friction and the distance x (=QR) , are, respectively close to :
m,
.co
ms
exa

(1) 0.2 and 3.5 m (2) 0.29 and 3.5 m (3) 0.29 and 6.5 m (4) 0.2 and 6.5 m
2 2mg
63.(2) WPQ mg cos . 2mg 3
ezy

sin tan
WQR mg .x x 2 3 3.5m
P.E. lost = mgh 2mg
w.

2 mg 4mg 3
ww

1
0.29
2 3

21
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64. Two identical wires A and B, each of length l carry the same current I. Wire A is bent into a circle of radius R
and wire B is bent to form a square of side a. If BA and BB are the values of magnetic field at the centres of the
BA
circle and square respectively, then the ratio is:

om
BB

2 2 2 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
16 2 16 8 2 8

.c
64.(3) 2 R

on

R
2

ti
I I
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Ba 0 0

olu
2R
0 I
BB 4 sin 45 sin 45
a
4

ms
2
8 2 0 I
BB

exa
BA 2

BB 8 2

65.
ezy
A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 100 gives a full scale deflection, when a current of 1 mA is passed
through it. The value of the resistance, which can convert this galvanometer into ammeter giving a full scale
w.
deflection for a current of 10 A, is :
(1) 2 (2) 0.1 (3) 3 (4) 0.01
ww

65.(4)
m,
.co

1mA100 10 1mA .x
101 10x
ms

1
x 0.01
100
exa

66. An observer looks at a distant tree of height 10 m with a telescope of magnifying power of 20. To the observer
the tree appears:
ezy

(1) 10 times nearer (2) 20 times taller (3) 20 times nearer (4) 10 times taller.

66.(2) 20 times taller as the angular magnification is 20 and we observe angular magnification.
w.

Option (3) would not be very correct as the telescope can be adjusted to form image anywhere between infinity
and least distance for distinct vision. Suppose that the image is formed at infinity. Then the observer will have to
ww

focus the eyes at infinity to observe the image. Hence it is incorrect to say that the image will appear nearer to
the observer.

67. The temperature dependence of resistances of Cu and undoped Si in the temperature range 300-400K, is best
described by:
(1) Linear increase for Cu, exponential increase for Si

22
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(2) Linear increase for Cu, exponential decrease for Si
(3) Linear decrease for Cu, linear decrease for Si
(4) Linear increase for Cu, linear increase for Si

om
67.(2) Resistance of conductor increases and resistance of a semiconductor decreases with increase in temperature
68. Choose the correct statement:

.c
(1) In amplitude modulation the frequency of the high frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion
to the amplitude of the audio signal

on
(2) In frequency modulation the amplitude of the high frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion
to the amplitude of the audio signal

ti
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(3) In frequency modulation the amplitude of the high frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion

olu
to the frequency of the audio signal
(4) In amplitude modulation the amplitude of the high frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion
to the amplitude of the audio signal

ms
68.(4) Fact

exa
69. Half lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20 minutes and 40 minutes, respectively. Initially the
samples have equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed numbers of A and B nuclei will be :
(1) 4:1 (2) 1:4 (3)
ezy 5:4 (4) 1 : 16

69.(3) For A: Number of half lives = 80/20 = 4


w.
x0
A
24
ww

1 15
A x0 1 x0
16 16
For B : Number of half lives = 80/40 = 2
x
B 02
m,

2
3 x0
B
.co

4
A 15 /16
5: 4
B 3/ 4
ms

70. n mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process A B as shown in the figure.


The maximum temperature of the gas during the process will be :
exa

3P0V0 9 P0V0
(1) (2)
2 nR 2nR
ezy

9P0V0 9 P0V0
(3) (4)
nR 4nR
P0
70.(4) P V 3P0
w.

V0
PV nRT
ww

1 P0 2
T V 3P0V
nR V0
dT
For Tmax , 0
dV
P0 3
2V 3 P0 0 V V0
V0 2

23
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1 P0 9 2 3 9 P0V0
I max V0 3P0 V0
nR V0 4 2 4 nR
Alternate :

om
Directly by using isotherms we can see that highest temperature will occur at the midpoint.

.c
71. An arc lamp requires a direct current of 10 A at 80 V to function. If it is connected to a 220 V (rms), 50 Hz AC

on
supply, the series inductor needed for it to work is close to :
(1) 0.08 H (2) 0.044 H (3) 0.065 H (4) 80 H

ti
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80

olu
71.(3) R 8
10
Vrms
irms 10 A

ms
64 X L2

222 64 X L2 X L 420

exa
2 50 L 420
420
L 2 10

42 6.5
100
L 0.065 H
ezy
72. A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f in air. The pipe is dipped vertically in water so that half
w.
of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the air column in now :
3f f
ww

(1) (2) 2f (3) f (4)


4 2
72.(3)
m,
.co

Fundamental freq remains same


ms

73. The box of a pin hole camera, of length L, has a hole of radius a, It is assumed that when the hole is illuminated
exa

by a parallel beam of light of wavelength the spread of the spot (obtained on the opposite wall of the camera)
is the sum of its geometrical spread and the spread due to diffraction. The spot would then have its minimum size
say bmin when :
ezy

2 2
(1) a L and bmin (2) a L and bmin 4 L
L

w.

2 2 2 2
(3) a and bmin 4 L (4) a and bmin
L L L

ww

73.(None) Geometrical spread = a



Diffraction spread = L L
2
a 2 a
L
Sum (b) = a
2a JEE Entrance Examination
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For b to be minimum
db L L
0 1 2 0 a
da 2a 2

om
L L
and bmin 2 L
2 2
No answer is correct.

.c
on
74. A combination of capacitor is set up as shown in the figure. The magnitude
of the electric field, due to a point charge Q (having a charge equal to the

ti
sum of the sum of the charges on the 4 F and 9 F capacitors), at a
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olu
point distant 30 m from it, would equal :
(1) 360 N/C (2) 420 N/C
(3) 480 N/C (4) 240 N/C

ms
74.(2)

exa
ezy
w.
ww

Q = 3 8
Q = 24 C
The charges on 4 F and 9 F capacitors are 24 C and 18 C respectively.

9 109 24 18
Hence, E 420 N / C
m,

30 30
75. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations per quantum in the order of increasing energy :
.co

A : Blue light B : Yellow light C : X-ray D : Radiowave


(1) A, B, D, C (2) C, A B, D (3) B, A, D, C (4) D, B, A, C
ms

75.(4) Energy of one quantum = hv


C A B D D B A C
exa

76. Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials A and B are given below:
ezy
w.
ww

These materials are used to make magnets for electric generators, transformer core and electromagnet core. Then
it is proper to use:
(1) A for electromagnets and B for electric generators.
(2) A for transformers and B for electric generators.
(3) B for electromagnets and transformers.
25
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(4) A for electric generators and transformers.

76.(3) For electromagnets and transformers, energy loss should be low.

om
Thin hysteris curves.
Also, B 0 when H = 0 and H should be small when B 0.
So option fulfills.

.c
77. A pendulum clock loses 12 s a day if the temperature is 40C and gains 4 s a day if the temperature is 20C. The

on
temperature at which the clock will show correct time, and the co-efficient of linear expansion ( ) of the metal
of the pendulum shaft are respectively:

ti
(1) 60C ; 1.85 104 / C (2) 30C; 1.85 103 / C
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olu
(3) 55C ; 1.85 102 / C (4) 25C ; 1.85 10 5 / C

ms

77.(4) Time loss per day = 86400
2

exa
1
40 86400 12
2
1
20 86400 4
2
40
ezy
3
20
w.
25C , 1.85 105 / C
ww

78. The region between two concentric spheres of radii 'a' and 'b',
A
respectively (see figure), has volume charge density , where A is
r
a constant and r is the distance from the centre. At the centre of the
m,

spheres is a point charge Q. The value of A such that the electric field in
the region between the spheres will be constant, is: .
.co

Q 2Q 2Q Q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2
2 b a 2
2
b a
2
a2 2a 2
ms

78.(4) Charge in the region between a and r is calculated as follows :


exa

r
A
Q1 4 r 2 dr .
r

and Q1 2 A r 2 a 2
a
ezy

K K KQ 2 Aa 2
E( r )
r 2
Q Q1
r 2

Q 2 A r 2 a 2 K 2 A
r2

r2
K

For uniform E1 last two terms should cancel


w.

KQ 2 A .a 2 K
Q
ww

A
2 a 2
79. In an experiment for determination of refractive index of glass of a prism by i , plot, it was found that a ray
incident at angle 35, suffers a deviation of 40 and that it emerges at angle 79. In that case which of the
following is closest to the maximum possible value of the refractive index? .
(1) 1.6 (2) 1.7 (3) 1.8 (4) 1.5

26
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79.(4) i e A
40 35 79 A

om
A 74
Let us put 1.5 and check.
A min

.c
sin
2
1.5

on
sin A
2
74 min

ti
sin
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3
1.5

olu

sin 37


0.9 sin 37 m

ms
2
m
Using calculator, 37 64
2

exa
m 54
This angle is greater than the 40 deviation angle already given. For greater , deviation will be even higher.

ezy
Hence of the given prism should be less than 1.5. Hence the closest option will be 1.5.
Upon solving the given case we get 1.31 .
Note : Upon solving with calculator the exact equations for the given case we get 1.31 .
w.
80. A student measures the time period of 100 oscillations of a simple pendulum four times. The data set is 90s, 91s,
95 s and 92 s. If the minimum division in the measuring clock is 1 s, then the reported mean time should be :
ww

(1) 92 5.0 s (2) 92 1.8 s (3) 92 3s (4) 92 2 s

80.(4)

X
X i = 92
N
m,

2
2
(Standard dev ) =
Xi X =
1 4 9 0
= 1.8
.co

N 4
But since LC of clock is 1s, rounding off to the correct sign : Time : 92 2s
ms

81. Identify the semiconductor devices whose characteristics are given below, in the order (1), (2), (3), (4):
exa
ezy

(1) Zener diode, Simple diode, Light dependent resistance, Solar cell
w.

(2) Solar cell, Light dependent resistance, Zener diode, Simple diode
(3) Zener diode, solar cell, Simple diode, Light dependent resistance
ww

(4) Simple diode, Zener diode, Solar cell, Light dependent resistance

81.(4) Fact based question (From NCERT)


82. Radiation of wavelength , is incident on a photocell. The fastest emitted electron has speed . If the
3
wavelength is changed to , the speed of the fastest emitted electron will be:
4

27
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1 1 1 1
4 2 4 2 3 2 3 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 4 4

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2 hc
82.(4) V0
m

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2 4hc
V

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m 3

4 hc 4 hc 3

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V
3 3 4
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V hc hc


hc 3

ms
4 4
We can see that 1 V V
hc 3

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83. A particle performs simple harmonic motion with amplitude A. Its speed is trebled at the instant that it is at a
2A
distance from equilibrium position. The new amplitude of the motion is: .

(1) 3A
3

(2) A 3 (3)
7A ezy(4)
A
41
3 3
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1/ 2
83.(3)
V A2 x 2
1/ 2
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2A 4 5 A2
At x , V1 A2 A2
3 9 9
A
V1 5
3
m,

Vnew 3V1 A 5
1/ 2
2
Now Vnew Anew x2 A 5
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An2 x 2 5 A2
ms

4 A2
An2 5 A2
9
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7A
An
3
84. A particle of mass m is moving along the side of square of side 'a', with a uniform speed in the x-y plane as
ezy

shown in the figure:


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28
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Which of the following statements is false for the angular momentum L about the origin?
R
(1) L m a k when the particle is moving from C to D.
2

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R
(2) L m a k when the particle is moving from B to C.
2
m

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(3) L R k when the particle is moving from D to A.
2

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m
(4) L R k when the particle is moving from A to B.
2

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84.(1, 3) Angular momentum of a particle moving in a straight line is L m r v

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Hence, 1 and 3 are false.
85. An ideal gas undergoes a quasi static, reversible process in which its molar heat capacity C remains constant. If

ms
during this process the relation of pressure P and volume V is given by PV n constant, then n is given by (Here
CP and CV are molar specific heat at constant pressure and constant volume, respectively):

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C CP CP C C CV CP
(1) n (2) n (3) n (4) n
C CV C CV C CP CV
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85.(1) C Cv
1 n
C p Cv
ezy
C Cv
1 n
w.
C p Cv
1 n
C Cv
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C p Cv C Cv C p Cv C C p
n 1
C Cv C Cv C Cv

86. A screw gauge with a pitch of 0.5 mm and a circular scale with 50 divisions is used to measure the thickness of a
m,

thin sheet of Aluminium. Before starting the measurement, it is found that when the two jaws of the screw gauge
are brought in contact, the 45th division coincides with the main scale line and that the zero of the main scale is
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barely visible. What is the thickness of the sheet if the main scale reading is 0.5 mm and the 25th division
coincides with the main scale line?
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(1) 0.80 mm (2) 0.70 mm (3) 0.50 mm (4)


0.75 mm
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0.5
86.(1) L.C. = 0.01 mm
50
Zero error 0.5 45 0.01 0.05 mm
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Measured reading = 0.5 25 0.01 0.75 mm


Actual reading = Measured reading - Z,E.
0.75mm 0.05 0.80 mm
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87. A roller is made by joining, together two cones at their vertices O. It is kept on
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two rails AB and CD which are placed asymmetrically (see figure), with its axis
perpendicular to CD and its centre O at the centre of line joining AB and CD (see
figure). It is given a light push so that it starts rolling with its centre O moving
parallel to CD in the direction shown. As it moves, the roller will tend to:
(1) turn right. (2) go straight.
(3) turn left and right alternately. (4) turn left.

29
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87.(4) As the wheel rolls forward the radius of the wheel decreases along AB hence for the same number of rotations it
moves less distance along AB, hence it turns left.

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88. If a, b, c, d are inputs to a gate and x is its output, then, as per the following time graph, the gate is:

.c
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(1) AND (2) OR (3) NAND (4) NOT

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88.(2) Since x 1 if either
a, b, c or d = 1

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x a bc d
The gate is OR
89. For a common emitter configuration, if and have their usual meanings, the incorrect relationship between
and ezy
2 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
w.
1 1 2
1
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89.(1,3) We know that
1
1 1
So 1 and are correct
1
90. A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a height h from the earths surface (radius or earth R; h<<R). The
m,

minimum increase in its orbital velocity required, so that the satellite could escape from the earths gravitational
field, is close to : (Neglect the effect of atmosphere)
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(1) gR (2) gR / 2 (3) gR 2 1 (4) 2gR


ms

GM
90.(3) V0
Rh
2GM
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Ve
Rh
GM
Increase required = Ve V0
2 1 2 1 gR
ezy

Rh
w.
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30
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JEE MAINS 2016
Questionwise Topic & Complexity Analysis

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CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS PHYSICS
Q.No Topic Q.No Topic Q.No Topic
Topic: Atomic Structure Topic: Straight Lines Topic: Wave motion

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Q.No. 1 Q.No.31 Q.No.61
Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Medium

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Topic: Alkyl Halides Topic: Sequence and Series Topic: Energy & Momentum
Q.No. 2 Q.No.32 Q.No.62
Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy
Topic: Transition Metals (D-Block) / Solid State Topic: Application of Derivatives Topic: Energy & Momentum
Q.No. 3 Q.No.33 Q.No.63
Difficulty level: Difficult Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Medium

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Topic: Polymers Topic: Matrices Topic: Magnetic Effect of Current
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Q.No. 4 Q.No.34 Q.No.64

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Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy
Topic: Surface Chemistry Topic: Functions Topic: DC Circuit
Q.No. 5 Q.No.35 Q.No.65
Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy
Topic: Thermochemistry Topic: Limits Topic: Light-1 & 2
Q.No. 6 Q.No.36 Q.No.66

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Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy
Topic: Practical Chemistry Topic: Complex Number Topic: Semiconductor
Q.No. 7 Q.No.37 Q.No.67
Difficulty level: Difficult Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy
Topic: Chemistry in Everyday Life Topic: Hyperbola Topic: Communication

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Q.No. 8 Q.No.38 Q.No.68
Difficulty level: Difficult Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy
Topic: Solutions Topic: Statistics Topic: Modern Physics
Q.No. 9 Q.No.39 Q.No.69
Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy
Topic: Practical Organic Chemistry Topic: Indefinite Integration Topic: Gaseous state & Thermodynamics
Q.No. 10

Q.No. 11
Difficulty level: Difficult
Topic: Chemical Bonding
Q.No.40

Q.No.41
Topic: 3-D
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Difficulty level: Easy
Q.No.70

Q.No.71
Difficulty level: Medium
Topic: AC Circuit
Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Medium
Topic: Chemical Kinetics Topic: Trignometric Equation Topic: Wave motion
w.
Q.No. 12 Q.No.42 Q.No.72
Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Easy
Topic: Coordination Compounds Topic: Area under Curve Topic: Light-1 & 2
Q.No. 13 Q.No.43 Q.No.73
Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Difficult
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Topic: Stereochemistry Topic: Vector Topic: Capacitor


Q.No. 14 Q.No.44 Q.No.74
Difficulty level: Difficult Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Medium
Topic: Chemical Equllibrium Topic: Application of Derivatives Topic: EM Wave
Q.No. 15 Q.No.45 Q.No.75
Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy
Topic: Extractive Metallurgy Topic: 3-D Topic: Magnetism & Matter
Q.No. 16 Q.No.46 Q.No.76
Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy
m,

Topic: States of Matter (Eudiometry) Topic: Differential Equation Topic: Properties of Matter
Q.No. 17 Q.No.47 Q.No.77
Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Medium
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Topic: P-Block Elements Topic: Binomial Therorem Topic: Electrostatics


Q.No. 18 Q.No.48 Q.No.78
Difficulty level: Difficult Difficulty level: Difficult Difficulty level: Medium
Topic: Coordination Compounds (Isomerism) Topic: Trignometric Inverse Topic: Light-1 & 2
Q.No. 19 Q.No.49 Q.No.79
Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Difficult
ms

Topic: P-Block Elements (Group 15) Topic: Limits Continuity and Differential Topic: Error
Q.No. 20 Q.No.50 Q.No.80
Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Medium
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Topic: Hydrogen & Its Compunds Topic: Probability Topic: Semiconductor


Q.No. 21 Q.No.51 Q.No.81
Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy
Topic: Enviornmental Chemistry Topic: Matrices Topic: Modern Physics
Q.No. 22 Q.No.52 Q.No.82
Difficulty level: Difficult Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Medium
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Topic: S-block Elements Topic: Logical Reasoning Topic: SHM


Q.No. 23 Q.No.53 Q.No.83
Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Medium
Topic: Biomolecules (Amino Acids) Topic: Quadratic Equation Topic: Rotation
Q.No. 24 Q.No.54 Q.No.84
Difficulty level: Difficult Difficulty level: Difficult Difficulty level: Medium
w.

Topic: Electrochemisty Topic: Circle Topic: Gaseous state & Thermodynamics


Q.No. 25 Q.No.55 Q.No.85
Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Medium
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Topic: Periodic Properties of Elements Topic: P & C Topic: Error


Q.No. 26 Q.No.56 Q.No.86
Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Medium

Topic: Nitrogen Containing Compounds (Amines) Topic: Definite Integral Topic: Rotation
Q.No. 27 Q.No.57 Q.No.87
Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Medium

Topic: States of Matter Topic: Sequences and Series Topic: Semiconductor


Q.No. 28 Q.No.58 Q.No.88
Difficulty level: Difficult Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Easy
Topic: Hydrocarbons Topic: Circles Topic: Semiconductor
Q.No. 29 Q.No.59 Q.No.89
Difficulty level: Medium Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy
Topic: Alkyl Halides Topic: Heights and Distances Topic: Gravitation
Q.No. 30 Q.No.60 Q.No.90
Difficulty level: Difficult
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Difficulty level: Easy Difficulty level: Easy

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