The Quakers, also called the Society of Friends, are a Christian group that arose in the mid-17th century

in England and the

American colonies. Quakerism came into being in England on or around 1652, when George Fox began to organize converts
to preach his doctrine of "God in every man". The Friends were silent at their meetings, waiting for the "inward light". They
believed people should sense God inside of themselves, without church buildings, appointed preachers, written liturgy, or
many of the outward trappings associated with Christianity.

The Society of Friends is part of the left wing of the 17th -century English Puritan movement; in America, Quakers were
persecuted by Puritans. Quakers experienced much official persecuted by Puritans. Quakers experienced much official
persecution, including imprisonment and execution, for their belief that worship of God should be very personal. The term
"Quaker" may refer to their penchant for "quaking" during religious services, or it may be a derogatory reference to supposed
Quaker cowardliness and belief in pacifism.

Quakerism in the American colonies existed mainly in the northeast. The American Quaker population surged after 1682
when Quaker William Penn founded the state of Pennsylvania as a haven for Quakers and a "holy experiment" in religious
toleration. Quakers were prominent and powerful in the Pennsylvania state government in the period before the American
Revolution. During and after the Revolution, Friends concerned themselves with the plight of Native Americans. They also
worked with escaped slaves and for the abolition of slavery. They continued to be known for their efforts at social reform.

1. In which of the following publications would this passage be most likely to appear?
(A) an anthology of English literature
(B) an introductory American history book
(C) a book about Eastern religions
(D) a basic math textbook

2. The word 'their' in line 4 refers to:

(A) trappings
(B) preachers
(C) religious services
(D) the Friends

3. The word 'persecuted' in line 10 in closest in meaning to:

(A) scrutinized
(B) lauded
(C) harassed
(D) believed

4. Where in the passage does the author give an example of Quaker involvement in social issues?
(A) lines 3 - 4
(B) lines 9 - 10
(C) lines 16 - 17
(D) lines 19 - 20

5. Which of the following would be an example of "the outward trappings associated with Christianity" referred to in lines 6
- 7?
(A) clergy
(B) silent, leaderless worship
(C) concern for social reform
(D) the doctrine of "God in every man"

6. It can be inferred from the passage that early Quakers experienced official persecution because:
(A) they were known for "quaking" during religious services
(B) they helped found the state of Pennsylvania
(C) they came to America from England
(D) their religious beliefs were considered subversive
7. Why does the author mention 'execution' in line 11?
(A) It is an example of the persecution Quakers faced
(B) It is an outward trapping of Christianity
(C) This serves as an example of William Penn's policies
(D) Many religions were concerned with this issue

8. The paragraph after this passage would most likely be about:

(A) the decline of the Quaker population since World War I
(B) The similarities and differences between Quakers and Puritans
(C) Ways in which Quakers today show concern for others
(D) Social reforms enacted by Quakers during American Revolution

9. From the passage, it can be inferred that the Puritans were:

(A) Friends
(B) persecuted
(C) intolerant
(D) executed

10. The word 'penchant' in the line 12 most nearly means:

(A) appreciation
(B) propensity
(C) disinclination
(D) proposition

11. Why did the American Quaker population surge after William Penn founded Pennsylvania?
(A) Pennsylvania tolerated the Quaker religion
(B) Pennsylvania forbade religions other than Quakerism
(C) The Pennsylvania government tried to help escaped slaves
(D) Social reform was important to most Americans

Europe is the smallest of planet Jupiter's four largest moons and the second moon out from Jupiter. Until 1979, it was just
another astronomy textbook statistic. Then came the close-up images obtained by the exploratory spacecraft Voyager 2, and
within days, Europe was transformed--in our perception, at least--into one of the solar system's most intriguing worlds. The
biggest initial surprise was the almost total lack of detail, especially from far away. Even at close range, the only visible features
are thin, kinked brown lines resembling cracks in an eggshell. And this analogy is not far off the mark.

The surface of Europe is almost pure water ice, but a nearly complete absence of craters indicates that Europe's surface ice
resembles Earth's Antarctic ice cap. The eggshell analogy may be quite accurate since the ice could be as little as a few
kilometers thick--a tree shell around what is likely a subsurface liquid ocean that, in turn, encases a rocky core. The interior of
Europe has been kept warm over the cons by tidal forces generated by the varying gravitational tugs of the other big moons as
they wheel around Jupiter. The tides on Europe pull and relax in an endless cycle. The resulting internal heat keeps what would
otherwise be ice melted almost to the surface. The cracklike marks on Europe's icy face appear to be fractures where water or
slush oozes from below.

Soon after Voyager 2's encounter with Jupiter in 1979, when the best images of Europe were obtained, researchers advanced
the startling idea that Europe's subsurface ocean might harbor life. Life processes could have begun when Jupiter was releasing
a vast store of internal heat. Jupiter's early heat was produced by the compression of the material forming the giant planet. Just
as the Sun is far less radiant today than the primal Sun, so the internal heat generated by Jupiter is minor compared to its former
intensity. During this warm phase, some 4.6 billion years ago, Europe's ocean may have been liquid right to the surface, making
it a crucible for life.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) The effect of the tides on Europe's interior
(B) Temperature variations on Jupiter's moons
(C) Discoveries leading to a theory about one of Jupiter's moons
(D) Techniques used by Voyager 2 to obtain close-up images

2. The word "intriguing" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) changing
(B) perfect
(C) visible
(D) fascinating

3. In line 7, the author mentions "cracks in an eggshell" in order to help readers

(A) visualize Europe as scientists saw it in the Voyager 2 images
(B) appreciate the extensive and detailed information available by viewing Europe from far away
(C) understand the relationship of Europe to the solar system
(D) recognize the similarity of Europe to Jupiter's other moons

4. It can be inferred from the passage that astronomy textbooks prior to 1979
(A) provided many contradictory statistics about Europe
(B) considered Europe the most important of Jupiter's moons
(C) did not emphasize Europe because little information of interest was available
(D) did not mention Europe because it had not yet been discovered

5. What does the author mean by stating in line 7 that "this analogy is not far off the mark"?
(A) The definition is not precise.
(B) The discussion lacks necessary information.
(C) The differences are probably significant.
(D) The comparison is quite appropriate.

6. It can be inferred from the passage that Europe and Antarctica have in common which of the following?
(A) Both appear to have a surface with many craters.
(B) Both may have water beneath a thin, hard surface.
(C) Both have an ice cap that is melting rapidly.
(D) Both have areas encased by a rocky exterior.

7. The word "endless" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) new
(B) final
(C) temporary
(D) continuous

8. According to the passage, what is the effect of Jupiter's other large moons on Europe?
(A) They prevent Europe's subsurface waters from freezing.
(B) They prevent tides that could damage Europe's surface.
(C) They produce the very hard layer of ice that characterizes Europe.
(D) They assure that the gravitational pull on Europe is maintained at a steady level.

9. According to the passage, what is believed to cause the thin lines seen on Europas surface?
(A) A long period of extremely high tides
(B) Water breaking through from beneath the surface ice
(C) The continuous pressure of slush on top of the ice
(D) Heat generated by the hot rocky cor
 Next to its sheer size, the profound isolation of its many small islands is the most distinctive feature of the Pacific Ocean.
Over 25,000 islands are scattered across the surface of the Pacific, more than in all the other oceans combined, but their
land area adds up to little more than 125,000 square kilometers, about the size of New York State, and their inhabitants
total less than two million people, about a quarter of the number that live in New York City. The oceanic islands of the
Pacific are some of the most isolated places on Earth. Many are uninhabitable, by virtue of their small size and particular
characteristics, but even the most favored are very isolated fragments of land, strictly circumscribed by the ocean, strictly
limited in terms of the numbers of people they can support. This basic fact of environmental circumstance has been the
most pervasive influence in determining the social arrangements, and cultural practices of the people that settled in the
Pacific Islands.

The peopling of the Pacific Islands has been described as the greatest feat of maritime colonization in human history.
Contrary to the conclusions of Thor Heyerdahl's Kon-Tiki expedition of 1946, the evidence of plant dispersal,
archaeology, linguistics, and genetics now shows quite conclusively that the Pacific Islands were not populated from
tile east by South Americans who drifted on balsa-wood rafts and the prevailing wind and current, but from the west, by
groups from mainland Asia who gradually spread from island to island out into the Pacific. The process began over
40,000 years ago and reached Easter Island the most isolated place on Earth-about 1.500 years ago. It ended about 1,000
years ago, when people first settled in Hawaii and New Zealand

Simply surviving those ocean crossings of indeterminate length, in open canoes, to arrive on the shores of uninhabited
and hitherto unknown islands, was a formidable achievement. But having found an oasis of land in a watery wilderness,
crossed its reef, and landed, on its shores, the survivors then faced a series of pressing problems for which solutions had
to be found quickly if the small group was to become a vigorous, self- sustaining island population.

10. The word "scattered" in line 2 is closest in meaning toD

(A) widely known
(B) usually estimated
(C) rarely inhabited
(D) irregularly distributed

11. Why does the author mention New population of the Pacific York City in line 5?
(A) To emphasize how small the Islands is
(B) To emphasize the extreme distances between the Pacific Islands and other regions
(C) To note the economic ties of the Pacific Islands to other regions
(D) To note the lack of urban environments on the Pacific Islands

12. The phrase "by virtue of" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) regarding
(B) because of
(C) taking advantage of
(D) in place of

13. The word "circumscribed" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) located
(B) flooded
(C) restricted
(D) pushed

14. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as evidence used to determine the origins of Pacific Islands people?
(A) Oral histories
(B) Plant dispersal
(C) Linguistics
(D) Archaeology
15. According to the-passage, where did the original inhabitants of the Pacific Islands come from?
(A) South America
(B) Hawaii
(C) New Zealand
(D) Asia

16. .The word "It in line 16 refers to

(A) Pacific
(B) process
(C) isolated place
(D) Earth

17. The word "indeterminate" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) undecided
(B) uncertain
(C) unacceptable
(D) increasing

18. The passage is most likely followed by a discussion of

(A) how settlers adapted to newly discovered Pacific Ocean Islands
(B) the design and construction of canoes used in the Pacific Islands
(C) the characteristics sties of reefs in the Pacific Islands
(D) how early explorers of the Pacific Ocean found their way from island to Island

The languages spoken by early Europeans are still shrouded in mystery. There is no linguistic continuity between the
languages of Old Europe (a term sometimes used for Europe between 7000 and 3000 B.C.) and the languages of the modem
world, and we cannot yet translate the Old European script, Scholars have deciphered other ancient languages, such as
Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian, which used the cuneiform script, because of the fortuitous discovery of bilingual
inscriptions, When cuneiform tablets were first discovered in the eighteenth century, scholars could not decipher them. Then
inscriptions found in baa at the end of the eighteenth century provided a link: these inscriptions were written in cuneiform
and in two other ancient languages, Old Persian and New Elamite--languages that had already been deciphered. It took several
decades, but scholars eventually translated the ancient cuneiform script via the more familiar Old Persian language.

Similarly, the hieroglyphic writing of the Egyptians remained a mystery until French troops unearthed the famous Rosetta
stone in the late eighteenth century. The stone carried the same message written in ancient Greek, Egyptian hieroglyphs, and
Egyptian hieratic, a simplified form of hieroglyphs. The Rosetta stone thwarted scholars' efforts for several decades until the
early nineteenth century when several key hieroglyphic phrases were decoded using the Greek inscriptions. Unfortunately,
we have no Old European Rosetta stone to chart correspondences between Old European script and the languages that
replaced it.

Tim incursions of Indo-European tribes into Old Europe from the late fifth to the early third millennia B.C. caused a linguistic
and cultural discontinuity. These incursions disrupted the Old European sedentary farming lifestyle that had existed for 3,000
years As the Indo-Europeans encroached on Old Europe from the east, the continent underwent upheavals. These severely
affected the Balkans, where the Old European cultures abundantly employed script. The Old European way of life deteriorated
rapidly, although pockets of Old European culture remained for several millennia, ~ new peoples spoke completely different
languages belonging to the Indo-European linguistic family. The Old European language or languages, and the script used to
write them, declined and eventually vanished.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
(A) Reasons for the failure to understand the written records of Old European culture
(B) Influences on the development of Old European script
(C) Similarities between Old European script and other ancient writing systems
(D) Events leading to the discovery of Old European script

2. According to the passage, New Elamite is

(A) a language that was written in the cuneiform script
(B) a modem language that came from Old Persian
(C) one of the languages spoken by the Old Europeans
(D) a language that was understood by the late eighteenth century

3. According to the passage, scholarswere able to decipher cuneiform script with the help of
(A) the Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian languages
(B) Old Persian
(C) tablets written in Old European
(D) a language spoken in eighteenth century Iran

4. The word fortuitous in line 5 is closet in meaning to

(A) important
(B) sudden
(C) early
(D) lucky

5. The word "them" in line 6 refers to

(A) Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian
(B) bilingual inscriptions
(C) cuneiform tablets
(D) scholars

6. When does the passage suggest that ancient Egyptian hieroglypttic script was finally deciphered?
(A) At around the same time as cuneiform script was deciphered
(B) Shortly before the Rosetta stone was unearthed
(C) As soon as additional bilingual inscriptions became available to scholars
(D) A few decades after the hieratic script was decoded

7. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Rosetta stone?
(A) It was found by scholars trying to decode ancient languages.
(B) It contains two versions of hieroglyphic script.
(C) Several of its inscriptions were decoded within a few months of its discovery.
(D) Most of its inscriptions have still not been decoded.

8. The word "thwarted" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) continued
(B) influenced
(C) encouraged
(D) frustrated

9. According to the passage, Indo-European incursions caused Old European populations to

(A) separate into different tribes
(B) move eastward
(C) change their ways of living obtaining food
(D) start recording historical events in Writing
10. The author mentions the Balkans in the passage in order to explain why
(A) Indo-European languages were slow to spread in Old Europe
(B) the inhabitants of Old Europe were not able to prevent Indo-European incursions
(C) the use of the Old European script declined
(D) the Old European culture survived for a time after the Indo-European incursions

The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions used by the United States
Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the nation's urban from its rural population for
the first time. Urban population was defined as persons living in towns of 8,000 inhabitants or more. But after 1900
it meant persons living in incorporated places having 2,500 or more inhabitants.

Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of urban to take account of the new vagueness of
city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of 2,500 or more, the census now included those
who lived in unincorporated units of that size, and also all persons living in the densely settled urban fringe, including
both incorporated and unincorporated areas located around cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit,
conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large population nucleus, was named a Standard
Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA).

Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or (b) two cities having shared
boundaries and constituting, for general economic and social purposes, a single community with a combined
population of at least 50,000, the smaller of which must have a population of at least 15,000. Such an area included the
county in which the central city is located, and adjacent counties that are found to be metropolitan in character and
economically and socially integrated with the county of the central city. By 1970, about two-thirds of the population of
the United States was living in these urbanized areas, and of that figure more than half were living outside the central
cities.

While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA (by 1969 there were 233 of them),
social scientists were also using new terms to describe the elusive, vaguely defined areas reaching out from what used
to be simple towns and cities. A host of terms came into use : metropolitan regions, polynucleated population
groups, conurbations, metropolitan clusters, megalopolises, and so on.

11. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) How cities in the United States began and developed
(B) Solutions to overcrowding in cities
(C) The changing definition of an urban area
(D) How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census

12. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural or urban in
(A) 1870
(B) 1900
(C) 1950
(D) 1970

13. The word distinguishedin line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) differentiated
(B) removed
(C) honored
(D) protected

14. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defined as urban?
(A) 2,500
(B) 8,000
(C) 15,000
 (D) 50,000

15. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of urban in 1950?
(A) City borders had become less distinct.
(B) Cities had undergone radical social change.
(C) Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition.
(D) New businesses had relocated to larger cities.

16. The word thosein line 9 refers to

(A) boundaries
(B) persons
(C) units
(D) areas

17. The word constituting in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) located near
(B) determined by
(C) calling for
(D) making up

18. The word which in line 18 refers to a smaller

(A) population
(B) city
(C) character
(D) figure

19. Which of the following is NOT true of an SMSA?

(A) It has a population of at least 50,000
(B) It can include a city's outlying regions.
(C) It can include unincorporated regions.
(D) It consists of at least two cities.

20. By 1970, what proportion of the population in the United States did NOT live in an SMSA?
(A) 3/4
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/2
(D) 1/3

21. The Census Bureau first used the term SMSA in

(A) 1900
(B) 1950
(C) 1969
(D) 1970

22. Where in the passage does the author mention names used by social scientists for an urban area?
(A) Lines 4-5
(B) Line 7-8
(C) Line 21-23
(D) Line 27-29
 The ability of falling cats to right themselves in midair and land on their feet has been a source of wonder for ages.
Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for physicists it bordered on the
miraculous. Newton's laws of motion assume that the total amount of spin of a body cannot change unless an external
torque speeds it up or slows it down. If a cat has no spin when it is released and experiences no external torque, it
ought not to be able to twist around as it falls.

In the speed of its execution, the righting of a tumbling cat resembles a magician's trick. The gyrations of the cat in
midair are too fast for the human eye to follow, so the process is obscured. Either the eye must be speeded up, or the
cat's fall slowed down for the phenomenon to be observed. A century ago the former was accomplished by means of
high-speed photography using equipment now available in any pharmacy. But in the nineteenth century the capture on
film of a falling cat constituted a scientific experiment.

The experiment was described in a paper presented to the Paris Academy in 1894. Two sequences of twenty
photographs each, one from the side and one from behind, show a white cat in the act of righting itself. Grainy and
quaint though they are, the photos show that the cat was dropped upside down, with no initial spin, and still landed on
its feet. Careful analysis of the photos reveals the secret ; As the cat rotates the front of its body clockwise, the rear and
tail twist counterclockwise, so that the total spin remains zero, in perfect accord with Newton's laws. Halfway down,
the cat pulls in its legs before reversing its twist and then extends them again, with the desired end result. The
explanation was that while no body can acquire spin without torque, a flexible one can readily change its orientation,
or phase. Cats know this instinctively, but scientists could not be sure how it happened until they increased the speed
of their perceptions a thousandfold.

23. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The explanation of an interesting phenomenon
(B) Miracles in modern science
(C) Procedures in scientific investigation
(D) The differences between biology and physics

24. The word processin line 10 refers to

(A) the righting of a tumbling cat
(B) the cat's fall slowed down
(C) high-speed photography
(D) a scientific experiment

25. Why are the photographs mentioned in line 16 referred to as an experiment?

(A) The photographs were not very clear.
(B) The purpose of the photographs was to explain the process.
(C) The photographer used inferior equipment.
(D) The photographer thought the cat might be injured.

26. Which of the following can be inferred about high-speed photography in the late 1800's ?
(A) It was a relatively new technology.
(B) The necessary equipment was easy to obtain.
(C) The resulting photographs are difficult to interpret.
(D) It was not fast enough to provide new information.

27. The word rotates in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) drops
(B) turns
(C) controls
 (D) touches

28. According to the passage, a cat is able to right itself in midair because it is
(A) frightened
(B) small
(C) intelligent
(D) flexible

29. The word readilyin line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) only
(B) easily
(C) slowly
(D) certainly

30. How did scientists increase the speed of their perceptions a thousandfold(lines 25-26)?
(A) By analyzing photographs
(B) By observing a white cat in a dark room
(C) By dropping a cat from a greater height
(D) By studying Newton's laws of motion

Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking, and salting
could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was
no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810 a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process
of canning. And in the 1850's an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk.
Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860's, but supplies remained low because cans had to
be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans
from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.

Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban
populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars
enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the
1890's, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for
a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables.
An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870's, and by 1900 the nation had more than two
thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and
remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920's and 1930's.

Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavy in starches
or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously
unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Causes of food spoilage
(B) Commercial production of ice
(C) Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
(D) Population movements in the nineteenth century

32. The phrase in season in line 2 refers to

(A) a kind of weather
(B) a particular time of year
(C) an official schedule
(D) a method of flavoring food
33. The word prevent in line 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) estimate
(B) avoid
(C) correct
(D) confine

34. During the 1860's, canned food products were

(A) unavailable in rural areas
(B) shipped in refrigerator cars
(C) available in limited quantities
(D) a staple part of the American diet

35. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
(A) before 1860
(B) before 1890
(C) after 1900
(D) after 1920

36. The word them in line 14 refers to

(A) refrigerator cars
(B) perishables
(C) growers
(D) distances

37. The word fixture in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) luxury item
(B) substance
(C) commonplace object
(D) mechanical device

38. The author implies that in the 1920's and 1930's home deliveries of ice
(A) decreased in number
(B) were on an irregular schedule
(C) increased in cost
(D) occurred only in the summer

39. The word Nevertheless in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) therefore
(B) because
(C) occasionally
(D) however

40. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
(A) Drying
(B) Canning
(C) Cold storage
(D) Chemical additives

41. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

(A) Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
(B) Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners.
(C) Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
(D) People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
 With Robert Laurent and William Zorach, direct carving enters into the story of modern sculpture in the United States.
Direct carving in which the sculptors themselves carve stone or wood with mallet and chisel must be recognized as
something more than just a technique. Implicit in it is an aesthetic principle as well: that the medium has certain qualities
of beauty and expressiveness with which sculptors must bring their own aesthetic sensibilities into harmony. For example,
sometimes the shape or veining in a piece of stone or wood suggests, perhaps even dictates, not only the ultimate form,
but even the subject matter.

The technique of direct carving was a break with the nineteenth-century tradition in which the making of a clay model
was considered the creative act and the work was then turned over to studio assistants to be cast in plaster or bronze or
carved in marble. Neoclassical sculptors seldom held a mallet or chisel in their own hands, readily conceding that the
assistants they employed were far better than they were at carving the finished marble.

With the turn-of-the-century Crafts movement and the discovery of nontraditional sources of inspiration, such as wooden
African figures and masks, there arose a new urge for hands-on, personal execution of art and an interaction with the
medium. Even as early as the 1880's and 1890's, nonconformist European artists were attempting direct carving. By the
second decade of the twentieth century, Americans Laurent and Zorach most notably had adopted it as their primary
means of working.

Born in France, Robert Laurent(1890-1970)was a prodigy who received his education in the United States. In 1905 he
was sent to Paris as an apprentice to an art dealer, and in the years that followed he witnessed the birth of Cubism,
discovered primitive art, and learned the techniques of woodcarving from a frame maker.

Back in New York City by 1910, Laurent began carving pieces such as The Priestess, which reveals his fascination with
African, pre-Columbian, and South Pacific art. Taking a walnut plank, the sculptor carved the expressive, stylized design.
It is one of the earliest examples of direct carving in American sculpture. The plank's form dictated the rigidly frontal
view and the low relief. Even its irregular shape must have appealed to Laurent as a break with a long-standing tradition
that required a sculptor to work within a perfect rectangle or square.

42. The word mediumin line 5 could be used to refer to

(A) stone or wood
(B) mallet and chisel
(C) technique
(D) principle

43. What is one of the fundamental principles of direct carving?

(A) A sculptor must work with talented assistants.
(B) The subject of a sculpture should be derived from classical stories.
(C) The material is an important element in a sculpture.
(D) Designing a sculpture is a more creative activity than carving it.

44. The word dictates in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) reads aloud
(B) determines
(C) includes
(D) records

45. How does direct carving differ from the nineteenth-century tradition of sculpture?
(A) Sculptors are personally involved in the carving of a piece.
(B) Sculptors find their inspiration in neoclassical sources.
(C) Sculptors have replaced the mallet and chisel with other tools.
(D) Sculptors receive more formal training.

46. The word witnessed in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) influenced
 (B) studied
(C) validated
(D) observed

47. Where did Robert Laurent learn to carve?

(A) New York
(B) Africa
(C) The South Pacific
(D) Paris

48. The phrase a break with in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) a destruction of
(B) a departure from
(C) a collapse of
(D) a solution to

49. The piece titled The Priestess has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
(A) The design is stylized.
(B) It is made of marble.
(C) The carving is not deep.
(D) It depicts the front of a person.

A distinctively American architecture began with Frank Lloyd Wright, who had taken to heart the admonition that form
should follow function, and who thought of buildings not as separate architectural entities but as parts of an organic whole
that included the land, the community, and the society. In a very real way the houses of colonial New England and some of
the southern plantations had been functional, but Wright was the first architect to make functionalism the authoritative
principle for public as well as for domestic buildings. As early as 1906 he built the Unity Temple in Oak Park, Illinois, the
first of those churches that did so much to revolutionize ecclesiastical architecture in the United States. Thereafter he turned
his genius to such miscellaneous structures as houses, schools, office buildings, and factories, among them the famous Larkin
Building in Buffalo, New York, and the Johnson Wax Company Building in Racine, Wisconsin.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The architecture of public buildings
(B) An architectural pioneer
(C) New England architecture
(D) principles of architecture

2. The phrase taken to heart in lines 1-2 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Taken seriously
(B) Criticized
(C) Memorized
(D) Taken offence

3. The word admonition in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) monition
(B) support
(C) discussion
(D) consideration

4. The word entities in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) principles
(B) existences
(C) subtractions
(D) properties
5. In what way did Wright's public buildings differ from most of those built by earlier architects?
(A) They were built on a larger scale.
(B) Their materials came from the southern United States.
(C) They looked more like private homes.
(D) Their designs were based on how they would be used.

6. The author mentions the Unity Temple because it

(A) was Wright's first building
(B) influenced the architecture of subsequent churches
(C) demonstrated traditional ecclesiastical architecture
(D) was the largest church Wright ever designed

7. Which of the following statements best reflects one of Frank Lloyd Wright's architectural principles?
(A) Beautiful design is more important than utility.
(B) Ecclesiastical architecture should be derived from traditional designs.
(C) A building should fit into its surroundings.
(D) The architecture of public buildings does not need to be revolutionary.

8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a type of structure Frank Lloyd Wright made ?
(A) houses
(B) factories
(C) southern plantations
(D) churches

Both in what is now the eastern and the southwestern United States, the peoples of the Archaic era (8,000-1,000 B.C) were,
in a way, already adapted to beginnings of cultivation through their intensive gathering and processing of wild plant foods.
In both areas, there was a well-established ground stone tool technology, a method of pounding and grinding nuts and other
plant foods, that could be adapted to newly cultivated foods. By the end of the Archaic era, people in eastern North America
had domesticated certain native plants, including sunflowers; weeds called goosefoot, sumpweed, or marsh elder; and squash
or gourds of some kind. These provided seeds that were important sources of carbohydrates and fat in the diet.

The earliest cultivation seems to have taken place along the river valleys of the Midwest and the Southeast, with
experimentation beginning as early as 7,000 years ago and domestication beginning 4,000 to 2,000 years ago. Although the
term Neolithic is not used in North American prehistory, these were the first steps toward the same major subsistence
changes that took place during the Neolithic (8,000-2,000 B.C.) period elsewhere in the world.

Archaeologists debate the reasons for beginning cultivation in the eastern part of the continent. Although population and
sedentary living were increasing at the time, there is little evidence that people lacked adequate wild food resources; the
newly domesticated foods supplemented a continuing mixed subsistence of hunting, fishing, and gathering wild plants,
Increasing predictability of food supplies may have been a motive. It has been suggested that some early cultivation was for
medicinal and ceremonial plants rather than for food. One archaeologist has pointed out that the early domesticated plants
were all weedy species that do well in open, disturbed habitats, the kind that would form around human settlements where
people cut down trees, trample the ground, deposit trash, and dig holes. It has been suggested that sunflower, sumpweed, and
other plants almost domesticated themselves, that is , they thrived in human disturbed habitats, so humans intensively
collected them and began to control their distribution. Women in the Archaic communities were probably the main
experimenters with cultivation, because ethnoarchaeological evidence tells us that women were the main collectors of plant
food and had detailed knowledge of plants

10. The passage mainly discusses which of the following aspects of the life of Archaic peoples?
(A) The principal sources of food that made up their diet
(B) Their development of ground stone tool technology
(C) Their development of agriculture
(D) Their distribution of work between men and women
11. The word these in line 13 refers to
(A) seeds
(B) river valleys
(C) the Midwest and the Southeast
(D) experimentation and domestication

12. According to the passage, when did the domestication of plants begin in North America?
(A) 7,000 years ago
(B) 4,000 to 2,000 years ago
(C) Long after the Neolithic period
(D) Before the Archaic periode

13. The word adequate in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) sufficient
(B) healthful
(C) varied
(D) dependable

14. According to the passage, which of the following was a possible motive for the cultivation of plants in eastern North
America?
(A) Lack of enough wild food sources
(B) The need to keep trees from growing close to settlements
(C) Provision of work for an increasing population
(D) Desire for the consistent availability of Food

15. The phrase rather than in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) in addition to
(B) instead of
(C) as a replacement
(D) such as

16. The plant sumpweed is mentioned in line 25 in order to

(A) contrast a plant with high nutritional value with one with little nutritional value
(B) explain the medicinal use of a plant
(C) clarify which plants grew better in places where trees were not cut down
(D) provide an example of a plant that was easy to domesticate

17. The word thrived in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) stayed
(B) originated
(C) grew well
(D) died laut

18. According to the passage, which of the following is true about all early domesticated plants?
(A) They were varieties of weeds.
(B) They were moved from disturbed areas.
(C) They succeeded in areas with many trees.
(D) They failed to grow in trampled or damaged areas.
19. According to the passage, it is thought that most of the people who began cultivating plants were
(A) medical workers
(B) leaders of ceremonies
(C) women
(D) hunters

Many ants forage across the countryside in large numbers and undertake mass migrations; these activities proceed because
one ant lays a trail on the ground for the others to follow. As a worker ant returns home after finding a source of food, it
marks the route by intermittently touching its stinger to the ground and depositing a tiny amount of trail pheromonea
mixture of chemicals that delivers diverse messages as the context changes. These trails incorporate no directional
information and may be followed by other ants in either direction.

Unlike some other messages, such as the one arising from a dead ant, a food trail has to be kept secret from members of
other species. It is not surprising then that ant species use a wide variety of compounds as trail pheromones. Ants can be
extremely sensitive to these signals. Investigators working with the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant Atta texana
calculated that one milligram of this substance would suffice to lead a column of ants three times around Earth.

The vapor of the evaporating pheromone over the trail guides an ant along the way, and the ant detects this signal with
receptors in its antennae. A trail pheromone will evaporate to furnish the highest concentration of vapor right over the trail,
in what is called a vapor space. In following the trail, the ant moves to the right and left, oscillating from side to side across
the line of the trail itself, bringing first one and then the other antenna into the vapor space. As the ant moves to the right,
its left antenna arrives in the vapor space. The signal it receives causes it to swing to the left, and the ant then pursues this
new course until its right antenna reaches the vapor space. It then swings back to the right, and so weaves back and forth
down the trail.

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The mass migration of ants
(B) How ants mark and follow a chemical trail
(C) Different species of ants around the world
(D) The information contained in pheromones

21. The word forage in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) look up
(B) walk toward
(C) revolve around
(D) search for Food

22. The word intermittently in live 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) periodically
(B) incorrectly
(C) rapidly
(D) roughly

23. The phrase the one in line 8 refers to a single

(A) message
(B) dead ant
(C) food trail
(D) spesies
24. According to the passage, why do ants use different compounds as trail pheromones?
(A) To reduce their sensitivity to some chemicals
(B) To attract different types of ants
(C) To protect their trail from other species
(D) To indicate how far away the food si

25. The author mentions the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant in line 11 to point out
(A) how little pheromone is needed to mark a trail
(B) the different types of pheromones ants can produce
(C) a type of ant that is common in many parts of the world
(D) that certain ants can produce up to one milligram of pheromone

26. According to the passage, how are ants guided by trail pheromones?
(A) They concentrate on the smell of food.
(B) They follow an ant who is familiar with the trail
(C) They avoid the vapor spaces by moving in a straight line.
(D) They sense the vapor through their antennae.

27. The word furnish in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) include
(B) provide
(C) cover
(D) select

28. The word oscillating in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) falling
(B) depositing
(C) swinging
(D) starting

29. According to the passage, the highest amount of pheromone vapor is found
(A) in the receptors of the ants
(B) just above the trail
(C) in the source of food
(D) under the soil along the trail