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Explanation. Increase in temperature is an indication of Q. 14. A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to
internal leaks. relieve pressure in system when no services are being used?.
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11.11 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29) 11.12 Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) 11.13 Landing Gear (ATA 32)
C. ACOV. B. gears.
Correct Answer is. ACOV. C. servo pressure.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 12.2. Correct Answer is. regulators.
Explanation. Constant delivery is constant flow rate.
Q. 15. The control of hydraulically powered emergency
electrical generator frequency is by.
A. restriction valve. Q. 23. A variable angled pump starts at.
B. angle of swashplate. A. half way position.
C. IDG. B. minimum stroke.
Correct Answer is. angle of swashplate. C. maximum stroke.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. maximum stroke.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23.
Q. 16. Hydraulic systems normally operate at. Q. 24. A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents.
A. 1800 PSI.
B. 3000 PSI. A. pump cavitation.
C. 300 PSI. B. reverse flow.
Correct Answer is. 3000 PSI. C. overpressure.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Correct Answer is. reverse flow.
Pages 7-5 & 7-7. Explanation. NIL.
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11.11 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29) 11.12 Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) 11.13 Landing Gear (ATA 32)
Q. 29. What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?. Correct Answer is. control the rate of system operation.
A. Variable swashplate pump. Explanation. AL/3-21 6.2.
B. Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter.
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B. control the rate of system operation. Q. 44. Constant delivery hydraulic pumps.
C. limit the maximum pressure. A. require an automatic cut-out valve in the system.
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11.11 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29) 11.12 Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) 11.13 Landing Gear (ATA 32)
B. require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the Q. 52. A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system.
system.
C. are self idling. A. to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator.
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Correct Answer is. require an automatic cut-out valve and B. relieve excessive pressure to return.
accumulator in the system. C. to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event
Explanation. NIL. of system failure.
Correct Answer is. to ensure a supply of fluid to essential
services in the event of system failure.
Q. 45. Mechanical sequence valves are operated by. Explanation. NIL.
A. a striker pin.
B. the pilot. Q. 53. A thermal relief valve.
C. the operation of a NRV. A. senses fluid temperature change.
Correct Answer is. a striker pin. B. senses fluid pressure.
Explanation. NIL. C. provides cooling for the fluid.
Correct Answer is. senses fluid pressure.
Q. 46. Pressure relay valves are fitted. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-14
A. before a pressure gauge. Q. 54. Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with.
B. before a pressure sequence valve. A. methylated spirits.
C. before a pressure relief valve. B. the same type of fluid as used in the system.
Correct Answer is. before a pressure gauge. C. any clean hydraulic fluid.
Explanation. AL/3-21 13.3.2. Correct Answer is. the same type of fluid as used in the
system.
Q. 47. Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic Explanation. NIL.
accumulator.
A. the reservoir must be checked for correct level.
B. the fluid pressure must be released. Q. 55. Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of
C. all air must be bled from the system. seals?.
Correct Answer is. the fluid pressure must be released. A. Butyl Rubber.
Explanation. NIL. B. Synthetic Rubber.
Q. 48. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to. C. Natural Rubber.
A. provide a reserve of stored energy. Correct Answer is. Butyl Rubber.
B. maintain a constant fluid level. Explanation. AL/3-21 3.3.
C. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation.
Correct Answer is. minimize the possibility of pump
cavitation. Q. 56. A RAT hydraulic pump is for.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 15 Page 7. A. landing gear and auto-brake systems.
B. nose wheel steering.
C. flying controls if hydraulic power lost.
Q. 49. In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to Correct Answer is. flying controls if hydraulic power lost.
use. Explanation. NIL.
A. only the specified fluid.
B. any fluid of the same specific gravity.
C. any hydraulic fluid available. Q. 57. Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from.
Correct Answer is. only the specified fluid. A. a tap into a convenient return line.
Explanation. NIL. B. a stack pipe higher than the normal level.
C. the bottom of the reservoir.
Correct Answer is. the bottom of the reservoir.
Q. 50. The essential components of a hydraulic system of the Explanation. AL3-21 8.1.
constant delivery type are an.
A. accumulator and automatic cut-out valve. Q. 58. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally.
B. accumulator and shuttle valve. A. single acting.
C. accumulator and relay valve. B. low pressure.
Correct Answer is. accumulator and automatic cut-out C. double acting.
valve. Correct Answer is. double acting.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. Jeppeson A & P technician Airframe P8-23.
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11.11 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29) 11.12 Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) 11.13 Landing Gear (ATA 32)
C. pressure * stroke.
Correct Answer is. area * pressure. Q. 5. On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper
Explanation. NIL. system is.
A. one system for both sides but with the same power
Q. 61. A tandem PFCU. source.
A. has two control surfaces under its control. B. independent on each side but with the same power
B. has the rams parallel. source.
C. has the actuator rams co-axial. C. independent on each side with different power sources.
Correct Answer is. has the actuator rams co-axial. Correct Answer is. independent on each side with different
Explanation. NIL. power sources.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett, Page 178.
Q. 62. The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose
during installation, is a flexible hose under pressure.
A. expands in length and diameter. Q. 6. Prior to securing a leading edge de-icing boot you
B. contracts in length and diameter. must.
C. contracts in length and expands in diameter. A. remove all paint.
Correct Answer is. contracts in length and expands in B. paint the surface.
diameter. C. shave rivet to prevent further abrasion.
Explanation. A&P Mechanics General Handbook page 115. Correct Answer is. remove all paint.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-1 4.2.2.
Q. 63. An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic
system with.
A. a fixed volume pump. Q. 7. On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector, it is switched on.
B. pressures above 3000 PSI.
C. a variable volume pump. A. all the time.
Correct Answer is. a fixed volume pump. B. when selected by the crew.
Explanation. NIL. C. when in the air.
Correct Answer is. when selected by the crew.
Explanation. AL/11-6 3.2.1.
11.12. Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) (25)
Q. 8. Ice formation on wings is due to.
Q. 1. How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?. A. suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing
A. Screwdriver torque test. and instantly re-freezing.
B. By a motor load test. B. ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing.
C. Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement. C. supercooled water changing state on contact with the
Correct Answer is. Screwdriver torque test. wing.
Explanation. Retard rotation [of the detector] with slight Correct Answer is. supercooled water changing state on
thumb pressure using a torque screwdriver.' Ref: CAIPs AL/11- contact with the wing.
6. Explanation. AL/11-6 2
Q. 9. When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the
Q. 2. Windshield heating provides. warning lamp on the flight deck.
A. thermal expansion for a tighter fit. A. goes out immediately.
B. impact resistance enhancement. B. goes out after one more cycle.
C. increases strength to resist cabin pressure. C. goes out after a set period of time.
Correct Answer is. impact resistance enhancement. Correct Answer is. goes out after a set period of time.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-6 3.4.1.
Page 13-6 (last paragraph).
Q. 10. De-misting of passenger windows is provided by.
Q. 3. At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid A. sealed window.
applied?. B. an electrical heating element.
A. 7F at 100 PSI. C. air from the cabin.
B. 70C at 100 PSI. Correct Answer is. air from the cabin.
C. 70F at 10 PSI. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 1.
Correct Answer is. 70C at 100 PSI.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-3 5.2.2. Q. 11. A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading
edge to.
Q. 4. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is. A. provide smoother airflow over leading edge.
A. less of a fire hazard. B. prevent electrical static build up.
B. aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. C. provide more efficient deicer cycles.
Page
C. more efficient. Correct Answer is. prevent electrical static build up.
Correct Answer is. aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-1 3.4 (unless they mean 'bonded' as
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11.11 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29) 11.12 Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) 11.13 Landing Gear (ATA 32)
in cemented. In which case the answer is b). stabilise before taking ammeter readings.
Correct Answer is. they must only be switched on for the
Q. 12. In a cockpit window heater system, the minimum time required to check serviceability.
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required to check serviceability. Correct Answer is. use water as lubricant when operating.
C. they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-8 para 5.1.2.
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11.11 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29) 11.12 Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) 11.13 Landing Gear (ATA 32)
11.13. Landing Gear (ATA 32) (68) Q. 8. A tyre specification 32 x 10.75-14. What does the 10.75
refer to.
A. Section Width.
Q. 1. Spongy brakes are usually a result of. B. Bead diameter.
A. internal leakage. C. Overall diameter.
B. air in the system. Correct Answer is. Section Width.
C. external leakage. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-18 3.1.
Correct Answer is. air in the system.
Explanation. CAAIPs 5-8 Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Q. 9. When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve
Textbook Page 9-31. when the leg is depressurised?.
A. The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed.
B. Leaking air/oil seals.
Q. 2. Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the. C. Separator plate stuck open.
A. brake drum. Correct Answer is. The leg is serviceable - the separator has
B. wheel hub. bottomed.
C. wheel flange. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-6.
Correct Answer is. wheel flange.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Q. 10. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon.
Page 1-32.
A. type of fluid most readily available.
Q. 3. A brake debooster valve is provided for. B. the type of seal material.
A. applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes C. heat generated in operation of the system.
quickly. Correct Answer is. heat generated in operation of the
B. increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly. system.
C. decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes. Explanation. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend
Correct Answer is. applying brake pressure slowly and upon heat generated in operation of the system.
releasing the the brakes quickly.
Explanation. NIL. www.adtl.army.mil/cgi-bin/atdl/fm/1- Q. 11. A restrictor valve.
509/ch10.html A. speed up the flow in one direction.
B. may be used to slow down undercarriage extension.
Q. 4. Tubeless tyres are stored. C. restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage.
A. at 15 to 20 P.S.I. Correct Answer is. may be used to slow down undercarriage
B. horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter extension.
tyre on top. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-6 Page 7&8.
C. vertically.
Correct Answer is. vertically. Q. 12. The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook A. ensure the separator does not bottom.
Page 9-47 CAIPs AL/3-18 15.1. B. damp the rebound.
C. absorb the landing shock.
Q. 5. On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is when the. Correct Answer is. damp the rebound.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook
A. bottom of the wheels are closer together. Page 9-5.
B. top of the wheels are closer together.
C. front of the wheels are closer together. Q. 13. The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is
Correct Answer is. bottom of the wheels are closer to.
together. A. permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook oil during extension.
Page 9-13. B. restrict the compression of the air.
C. separate the oil from the air.
Q. 6. A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will. Correct Answer is. permit free flow of oil during compression
A. wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced. and restriction of oil during extension.
B. be serviceable, and provide better grip. Explanation. NIL.
C. produce a loss of fluid.
Correct Answer is. wear brake pads too quickly, and should
Page
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11.11 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29) 11.12 Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) 11.13 Landing Gear (ATA 32)
B. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge. Q. 22. If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging, this
C. horizontal no more than 4 high. is.
Correct Answer is. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge. A. caused by a leaky seal.
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11.11 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29) 11.12 Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) 11.13 Landing Gear (ATA 32)
B. tubed tyres. Correct Answer is. brakes are modulated to give most
C. tubed and tubeless tyres. efficient braking.
Correct Answer is. tubed and tubeless tyres. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
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B. brakes release on rising torque. Correct Answer is. tyre bursts due to high temperatures
C. brakes release on falling torque. created by excessive braking.
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11.11 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29) 11.12 Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) 11.13 Landing Gear (ATA 32)
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-8 para 3.1.3 and A&P retraction and landing, a.
Technician Airframe Textbook 9-6. A. castoring damper is used.
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B. snubber is used.
C. hop damper is used.
Q. 43. If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position. Correct Answer is. hop damper is used.
Explanation. NIL.
A. neither system will be available.
B. emergency braking will not be available.
C. normal braking will not be available. Q. 51. On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are
Correct Answer is. emergency braking will not be normally inflated with.
available. A. nitrogen.
Explanation. NIL. B. an argon and CO2 mixture.
C. nitrogen and not more than 5% of air.
Correct Answer is. nitrogen and not more than 5% of air.
Q. 44. The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted. Explanation. CAR 25.733 (e).
A. between the apex strip and the casing piles.
B. between the bead and the casing piles. Q. 52. Brake deboosters.
C. between the tread rubber and the casing piles. A. increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes.
Correct Answer is. between the tread rubber and the casing B. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes.
piles. C. assist the operation of the anti-skid unit.
Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 5-7 fig 1. Correct Answer is. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering
the brakes.
Q. 45. Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by. Explanation. NIL.
A. rudder pedals.
B. the control column. Q. 53. A modulator is fitted in conjunction with.
C. a separate pilot operated control. A. brake control valves.
Correct Answer is. a separate pilot operated control. B. non-return valve.
Explanation. NIL. C. anti-skid units.
Correct Answer is. anti-skid units.
Q. 46. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel Explanation. AL/3-21 6.6.
will. Q. 54. In the case of pressurized aircraft, the nose-wheel
A. facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly. bay.
B. melt at a specified elevated temperature. A. is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than
C. eliminate the need to check air pressure cabin pressure.
Correct Answer is. melt at a specified elevated B. is subject to cabin pressure.
temperature. C. is not pressurized.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. is not pressurized.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 47. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre
is an indication of.
A. under-inflation. Q. 55. An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly
B. over-inflation. onto the shock absorber is of which type.
C. excessive toe-in. A. Articulated.
Correct Answer is. under-inflation. B. Hydro Mechanical.
Explanation. NIL. C. Direct Acting.
Q. 48. Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to. Correct Answer is. Direct Acting.
Explanation. NIL.
A. the top of the tie bar.
B. the base of the tie bar. Q. 56. The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is.
C. 1 mm from the rib base. A. 9.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi.
Correct Answer is. the top of the tie bar. B. 8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi.
Explanation. NIL. C. 8.6 times the tyre pressure in bar.
Correct Answer is. 8.6 times the root square of the tyre
pressure in psi.
Q. 49. On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used Explanation. http://www.gremline.com/page13.html
to.
A. spread the weight over a large area. Q. 57. Tubed tyres are stored.
B. absorb increased landing shock. A. horizontally, up to 4 in total staggering them to prevent
C. prevent skidding. distortion of beads.
Correct Answer is. spread the weight over a large area. B. horizontally, up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes
Explanation. NIL. so each tyre is supported at 2 points.
C. horizontally, up to 4 in total with the smallest at the
Page
top.
Q. 50. To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for Correct Answer is. horizontally, up to 4 in total in a rack with
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11.11 Hydraulic Power (ATA 29) 11.12 Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) 11.13 Landing Gear (ATA 32)
supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points. B. assist the wheel to castor.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 15.2.1 and 15.2.2. C. allow the wheel to shimmy.
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Q. 62. When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve
stem.
A. heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch.
B. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation.
C. carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem.
Correct Answer is. wait for ice to melt before carrying on
with inflation.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 65. With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the
Page
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