Radio Navigation and Meteorology Review

RADIO NAVEGACION
1. A DME is located at MSL.

An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight
level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
A 7 NM
B 11 NM
C 8 NM
D 6 NM *
2. A VOR and DME are co-located.

You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign.
Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds
the:
A VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with
the same pitch
B DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was
broadcast only once *
C DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information
is sufficient proof of correct operation
D DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was
broadcast several times
3. Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is

selected to 090.
From/To indicator indicates "TO".
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.
On what radial is the aircraft?
A 095
B 275 *
C 085
D 265
4. The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200.

Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle
will be:
A centred *
B left of centre
C right of centre
D centred with the 'fail' flag showing
5. What is the maximum number of usable Secondary

Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes?
A 760
B 4096 *
C 3600
D 1000
6. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to

maintain a 3 glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
A 950 FT/MIN
B 600 FT/MIN *
C 550 FT/MIN
D 800 FT/MIN
7. What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable
navigation information for a 3 ILS glide path out to a
distance of 10 NM?
A 3 above and below the glide path and 10 each side of the
localiser centreline
B 1.35 above the horizontal to 5.25 above the horizontal and
8 each side of the localiser centreline *
C 0.45 above the horizontal to 1.75 above the glide path and
8 each side of the localiser centreline
D 0.7 above and below the glide path and 2.5 each side of
the localiser centreline
8. What is the minimum number of satellites required by a

GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
A3
B5
C6
D4*
9. What is the minimum number of satellites required for a

Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to
carry out two dimensional operation?
A4
B5
C2
D3*
10. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3 ILS

glidepath, will require an approximate:
A increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
B decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
C increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
D decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN *
11. The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR

transponder indicates:
A entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has
not been required *
B unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
C an emergency
D transponder malfunction
12. Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance
Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering
airspace from an area where SSR operation has not
been required?
A 7000
B 0000
C 2000 *
D 5000
13. The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR
transponder indicates:
A radio communication failure
B unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight *
C an emergency
D transponder malfunction
14. The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S,
contains :
A two modes, each of 4096 codes *
B four modes, each 1024 codes
C four modes, each 4096 codes
D two modes, each 1024 codes
15. Which of the following will give the most accurate

calculation of aircraft ground speed?
A A DME station sited on the flight route *
B An ADF sited on the flight route
C A VOR station sited on the flight route
D A DME station sited across the flight route
16. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR

transponder the additional information transmitted is:
A altitude based on regional QNH
B aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
C height based on QFE
D flight level based on 1013.25 hPa *
17. Which of the following will give the most accurate

calculation of aircraft ground speed?
A A DME station sited on the flight route *
B An ADF sited on the flight route
C A VOR station sited on the flight route
D A DME station sited across the flight route
18. When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance

Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation
gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight
level that is accurate to within:
A + or - 25 FT
B + or - 50 FT *
C + or - 75 FT
D + or - 100 FT
19. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3 ILS

glidepath, will require an approximate:
A increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
B decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
C increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
D decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN *
METEO
20. Which of the following changes of state is known as

sublimation?
A Solid direct to liquid
B Liquid direct to solid
C Liquid direct to vapour
D Solid direct to vapour *
21. The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How

is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by
changes of the amount of water vapour in it?
A It decreases with increasing water vapour.
B It is only influenced by temperature.
C It increases with increasing water vapour. *
D It is not influenced by changing water vapour.
22. Relative humidity

A does not change when water vapour is added provided the
temperature of the air remains constant.
B changes when water vapour is added, even though the
temperature remains constant. *
C is not affected when air is ascending or descending.
D is not affected by temperature changes of the air.
23. What does dewpoint mean?

A The freezing level (danger of icing).
B The temperature at which the relative humidity and
saturation vapour pressure are the same.
C The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in
order to reach saturation. *
D The temperature at which ice melts.
24. Which of the following is the definition of relative

humidity ?
A Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric
pressure X 100
B Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100
C Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation
mixing ratio X 100 *
D Ratio between air temperature and dewpoint temperature X
100
25. Relative humidity

A increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour
pressure constant *
B is higher in warm air than in cool air
C is higher in cool air than in warm air
D decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour
pressure constant
26. During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is
adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is
1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading
during the resetting procedure ?
A It is not possible to give a definitive answer
B It will decrease *
C It will increase
D It will remain the same
27. You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000
FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the
standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ?
A ISA -20C *
B ISA +/-0C
C ISA +20C
D ISA +12C
28. The lowest assumed temperature in the International

Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is :
A -273C
B -44.7C
C -100C
D -56.5C *
29. Fallstreaks or virga are

A strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and
accompanied by heavy precipitation
B water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate
before reaching the ground *
C strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with
jet streaks
D gusts associated with a well developed Bora
30. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication

of the
A development of thermal lows
B presence of valley winds
C presence of mountain waves *
D risk of orographic thunderstorms
31. The QNH is equal to the QFE if

A the elevation = 0 *
B T actual = T standard
C T actual > T standard
D T actual < T standard
32. If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature

is -2C, at what altitude will the "freezing level" be?
A FL 150
B FL 90
C FL 110 *
D FL 130
33. The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to
A magnetic north
B the 0-meridian
C grid north
D true north *
34. If CAVOK is reported then

A low level windshear has not been reported
B any CB's have a base above 5000 FT
C no low drifting snow is present *
D no clouds are present
35. What is the boundary layer between troposphere and

stratosphere called?
A Tropopause. *
B Ionosphere.
C Stratosphere.
D Atmosphere
36. Which one of the following statements applies to the

tropopause?
A It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
B It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
C It is, by definition, a temperature inversion
D It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere *
37. How are high level condensation trails formed that are to
be found occasionally behind jet aircraft ?
A Through water vapour released during fuel combustion *
B Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated
adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips while flying
through relatively warm but humid air
C Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases
D In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot
contained in the exhaust gases
38. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of

unstable air conditions?
A SC, NS.
B CI, SC.
C CU, CB. *
D ST, CS.
39. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere

A has a fixed value of 2C/1000 FT
B varies with time *
C has a fixed value of 1C/100m
D has a fixed value of 0.65C/100m
40. Which of the following meteorological phenomena can

rapidly change the braking action of a runway?
A HZ
B +FZRA *
C MIFG
D FG
41. How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a
METAR valid?
A 1 hour.
B 30 minutes.
C 2 hours. *
D 9 hours
42. In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of
your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the
maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in
anyone instance ?
A 60 minutes. *
B 120 minutes.
C 10 minutes.
D 20 minutes
43. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500
FG VV001
What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean?
A Vertical visibility 100 m.
B Vertical visibility 100 FT. *
C RVR less than 100 m.
D RVR greater than 100 m.

FG VV001
What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
A 500 m. *
B 2000 m.
C Between 500 m and 2000 m.
D Between 0 m and 1000 m.

FG VV001
What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean?
A 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m.
B 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m.
C 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 FT. *
D 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 FT
46. What does the term SIGMET signify?

A A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual
weather report
B A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and
is generally issued at half-hourly intervals
C A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological
conditions *
D A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological
station several times daily
47. In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET
issued ?
A Marked mountain waves. *
B Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome.
C Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome.
D A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the
METAR
48. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of

conditions that could be potentially hazardous to
aircraft in flight ?
A SIGMET. *
B ATIS.
C SPECI.
D TAF.
49. Refer to TAF below.

EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822
29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO
1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KT
From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at
2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be :
A more than 10 km
B not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km. *
C a maximum 5 km.
D a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km.
50. What does the expression "Broken (BKN)" mean?

A 5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud covered *
B 3-4 Eights of the sky is cloud covered
C 3-5 Eights of the sky is cloud covered
D Nil significant cloud cover
51. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is

characterized predominantly by downdrafts?
A Anvil stage
B Dissipating stage *
C Cumulus stage
D Mature stage
52. How long does a typical microburst last?

A 1 to 2 hours.
B About 30 minutes.
C 1 to 5 minutes. *
D Less than 1 minute.
53. What is the approximate maximum diameter of a

microburst ?
A 20 km
B 50 km
C 4 km *
D 400 m
54. The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are
in the order of
A 8 km and 5-15 minutes
B 12 km and 5-10 minutes
C 4 km and 1-5 minutes *
D 4 km and 30-40 minutes
55. Altostratus clouds are classified as

A high level clouds
B convective clouds
C medium level clouds *
D low level clouds
56. How does freezing rain develop?

A Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0C *
B Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes
C Through melting of sleet grains
D Through melting of ice crystals
57. Freezing rain occurs when

A snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air
B rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0C *
C ice pellets melt
D water vapour first turns into water droplets
58. Supercooled droplets are always

A at a temperature below -60C
B at a temperature below freezing *
C small and at a temperature below freezing
D large and at a temperature below freezing
59. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.

FCFR31 281400
LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620
26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA =
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA
Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ?
A 10 or more km
B 8 km *
C 8 NM
D 10 NM
60. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT,

QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The
altimeter will indicate :
A 1375 FT. *
B 1200 FT.
C 1105 FT.
D 1280 FT.
61. Which of the following cloud types is a medium level
cloud ?
A ST
B SC
C AS *
D CS
62. For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is
1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is
A 120 metres
B 160 metres *
C 600 metres
D 540 metres
63. What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?

A Warm occlusion.
B Cold front. *
C Warm front.
D Cold occlusion
64. The 0 isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL

would you expect a temperature of -6 C?
A FL 80 *
B FL 20
C FL 100
D FL 110
65. Under what condition does pressure altitude have the

same value as density altitude ?
A At sea level when the temperature is 0C.
B When the altimeter has no position error.
C When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.
D At standard temperature *
66. Which of the following statements is true of the dew

point of an air mass?
A It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the
air mass *
B It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
C It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the
air mass's relative humidity
D It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity
even if the air temperature is unknown
67. Dew point is defined as

A the temperature below which the change of state in a given
volume of air will result in the absorption of latent heat
B the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to
become saturated at a given pressure *
C the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a
given pressure
D the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order
to reduce the relative humidity
68. Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation

between
A water vapour weight and humid air volume
B dew point and air temperature
C actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour
content *
D water vapour weight and dry air weight
69. A microburst
A occurs only in tropical areas
B has a diameter up to 4 km *
C has a life time of more than 30 minutes
D is always associated with thunderstorms
70. Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.

LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080
TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG
1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:
A 6 km. *
B 6 NM.
C 4 km.
D 10 km.
71. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication

of the
A development of thermal lows
B presence of valley winds
C presence of mountain waves *
D risk of orographic thunderstorms
72. What is a trend forecast?

A An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
B A route forecast valid for 24 hours
C A routine report
D A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2
hours *
73. A super-cooled droplet is

A a water droplet that is mainly frozen
B a small particle of water at a temperature below -50C
C a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent
D a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing *
74. A super-cooled droplet is one that

A is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air
B remains liquid at a below freezing temperature *
C has frozen to become an ice pellet
D has a shell of ice with water inside it
75. The temperature at FL 110 is -5C. What will the

temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate
is applied ?
A +3C
B 0C
C -3C
D +7C *
76. Vertical wind shear is

A vertical variation in the horizontal wind *
B vertical variation in the vertical wind
C horizontal variation in the horizontal wind
D horizontal variation in the vertical wind
77. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.
FCNL31 281500
EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA
BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW
BKN020 =
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At
ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast ?
A 120 / 15 kt gusts 25 kt *
B 140 / 10 kt
C 300 / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
D 250 / 20 kt
78. What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

A CS
B AC
C CB *
D NS
PRINCIPIOS DE VUELO
79. Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering

disconnected?
A Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of
VMCG.
B Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet
and/or slippery runways. *
C Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative
after an engine has failed.
D Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after
the nosewheel has already been lifted off the ground.
80. When "spoilers" are used as speed brakes:

A CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.
B they do not affect wheel braking action during landing.
C at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.
D at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is
decreased. *
81. How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation

and temperature ?
A increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is
necessary to generate the required rudder force
B increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and
those speeds increase if the density decreases
C decreases, because the engine thrust decreases. *
D decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the
IAS decreases with TAS constant and decreasing density
82. The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts.
The speed of sound is:
A 500 kts *
B 320 kts
C 480 kts
D 600 kts
83. The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:

A TAS. *
B weight.
C load factor.
D wind.
84. The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of

importance being constant)
A spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.
B pulling up from a dive. *
C weight decreases.
D minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.
85. After take-off the slats (when installed) are always
retracted later than the flaps. Why ?
A Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall
speed with relatively less drag.
B Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in
stall speed with relatively less drag. *
C Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from
the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED.
D Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more
favourable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED situation.
86. At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):

A increases *
B decreases
C remains the same
D decreases until the tropopause
87. The stall speed :

A does not depend on weight
B increases with the length of the wingspan
C increases with an increased weight *
D decreases with an increased weight
88. The following factors increase stall speed :

A a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting.
B an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in
thrust. *
C a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c
.g. shift.
D increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extensin
89. A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining

airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot
has to:
A increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.
B increase thrust and angle of attack. *
C increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.
D increase thrust and decrease angle of attack
90. The centre of gravity moving aft will:

A increase the elevator up effectiveness. *
B decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
C not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
D increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness,
depending on wing location
91. Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which:

A shockstall occurs.
B the critical angle of attack is reached.
C somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally. *
D Mach buffet occurs
92. When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back
wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept
back wing has the advantage of :
A Increased longitudinal stability
B Lower stalling speed
C Higher critical Mach number *
D Greater strength
93. What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least

sensitive to turbulence :
A winglets
B swept wings *
C straight wings
D wing dihedral
94. One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling

characteristics. At the stall :
A wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling
moment
B tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
C leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nosedown
moment
D tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment *
95. Floating due to ground effect during an approach to

land will occur :
A when a higher than normal angle of attack is used
B at a speed approaching the stall
C when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing
span above the surface *
D when the height is less than twice the length of the wing
span above the surface
96. What will happen in ground effect ?

A a significant increase in thrust required
B the induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases *
C the wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases
D an increase in strength of the wing tip vortices
97. If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect

A the lift is increased and the drag is decreased. *
B the effective angle of attack is decreased.
C the induced angle of attack is increased.
D drag and lift are reduced.
98. Ground effect has the following influence on the landing

distance :
A decreases.
B does not change.
C increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.
D increases. *
99. The centre of gravity moving aft will:
A increase the elevator up effectiveness. *
B decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
C not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
D increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness,
depending on wing location.
100. Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?

A Pitching and adverse yaw.
B Rolling and yawing. *
C Pitching and yawing.
D Pitching and rolling.
101. Rotation about the lateral axis is called :

A yawing.
B slipping.
C pitching. *
D rolling.
PROCEDIMIENTOS OPERACIONALES
102. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :

A 3 hours
B 24 hours *
C 12 hours
D 6 hours
103. Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first

to change its value when penetrating a windshear ?
A Pitch angle.
B Vertical speed.
C Groundspeed.
D Indicated airspeed. *
104. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their
safety belt fastened:
A from take off to landing.
B while at their station. *
C only during take off and landing.
D only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by
the commander in the interest of safety.
105. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is

the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy
aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy
aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?
A 3.7 km (2 NM)
B 7.4 km (4 NM) *
C 9.3 km (5 NM)
D 11.1 km (6 NM)
106. An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an

altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the
operating crew ?
A transmit a MAYDAY message
B place the seat belts sign to ON
C to put on oxygen masks *
D disconnect the autopilot
107. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an

approach which may be carried out with a runway visual
range of at least :
A 75 m *
B 150 m
C 250 m
D 200 m
108. A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a

SNOWTAM is :
A unreliable
B medium
C good
D poor *
109. A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :
A a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.
B a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.
C no decision height.
D a decision height equal to at least 200 ft. *
110. A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude

will have :
A increased Mach number stability
B reduced range *
C increased manoeuvring limits
D increased flight envelope
111. According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twinengined

aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off
mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved
seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must
be planned in such a way that on one engine an
appropriate aerodrome can be reached within :
A 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
B 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
C 60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative. *
D 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
112. When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM

aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time
approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO),
shall be :
A 1 MIN
B 2 MIN
C 4 MIN
D 3 MIN *
113. The time of useful consciousness in case of an

explosive decompression at an altitude of
40 000 ft is:
A 1 minute.
B 5 minutes.
C 12 seconds. *
D 30 seconds
114. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance

Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight
levels:
A 280 and 400.
B 280 and 390.
C 275 and 400.
D 285 and 420. *
115. In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM
and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or
parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in
approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied
a wake turbulence radar separation minima of :
A 4 NM
B 3 NM
C 2 NM
D 5 NM *
116. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is

the minimum separation time that is permitted when a
light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an
intermediate part of the same runway ?
A 3 minutes *
B 4 minutes
C 5 minutes
D 2 minutes
117. When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum

height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is :
A 600 m (2000 ft)
B 300 m (1000 ft) *
C 450 m (1500 ft)
D 150 m (500 ft)
118. A class B fire is a fire of:

A electrical source fire
B special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
C liquid or liquefiable solid *
D solid material usually of organic nature
119. One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :

A occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the
horizontal plane
B can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane
C can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal
planes *
D occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the
vertical plane
120. According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb

procedure B", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume
1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until
reaching :
A 1 500 ft
B 3 000 ft
C 1 000 ft *
D 500 ft
121. To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin
smoke is:
A useless because breathing oxygen would explode under
smoke conditions.
B possible and recommended.
C useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the
breathing oxygen. *
D useless because the oxygen units do not operate under
smoke conditions.
122. During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

A the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing
fluid is applied hot. *
B the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.
C the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.
D the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing
fluid is applied hot
123. A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an

approach which may be carried out with a runway visual
range of at least :
A 200 m *
B 100 m
C 250 m
D 50 m
124. For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the

ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light
aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium
aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg)
on the approach to landing ?
A 4 minutes
B 5 minutess
C 2 minutes
D 3 minutes *
125. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach

with :
A a decision height of at least 100 ft *
B a decision height of at least 200 ft
C a decision height of at least 50 ft
D no decision height
126. At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation

Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?
A Below FL290.
B Between FL290 and FL410. *
C Between FL275 and FL400.
D Between FL245 and FL410
127. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach
which may be carried out with a runway visual range of
at least :
A 500 m
B 550 m *
C 350 m
D 800 m
128. According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence nonradar

separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:
A LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
B MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft *
C MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from
an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760m
D LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an
intermediate part of the same runway
129. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence nonradar

separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied :
A to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from
an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less
760 m *
B to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft
arrival when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing
threshold
C to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft
departure when operating on a runway with a desplaced
landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected
to cross
D Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a
missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an
opposite-direction runway for take-off
130. According to the recommended "noise abatement takeoff

and climb procedure A" established in ICAO, DOC
8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to
climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft
reaches :
A 3 000 ft
B 2 000 ft
C 1 000 ft
D 1 500 ft *
131. Wind shear is:

A a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction
over a large distance
B a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction
over a short distance *
C a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
D a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
132. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence nonradar
separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
A LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft *
B LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a
parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole
runway)
C LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when
aircraft are using the same runway
D MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
133. When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for

some considerable time a small leak develops in the
cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be
seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will
indicate :
A a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential
pressure
B a rate of climb *
C a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
D zero
134. The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying

under icing conditions, occurs on :
A The aircraft front areas. *
B The upper and lower wingsurfaces.
C The upper and lower rudder surfaces.
D Only the pitot and static probes.
135. For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the

ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum
time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and
more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy
aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?
A 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
B 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes *
C 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes
D 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
136. In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:

A surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.
B it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
C it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
D its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not
give it a shiny appearance. *
137 In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a
bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding
any fuel considerations:
A you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need
the use of pressurization.
B you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated
cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration
until the final approach.
C you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated
cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take
preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach
configuration. *
D you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety
Altitude
138. During an explosive decompression at flight level 370

(FL 370), your first action will be :
A to warn the ATC
B to comfort your passengers
C to put on the oxygen mask *
D to set the transponder to 7700
139. An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while

making its way towards the centre of a microburst may
expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a
windshear of :
A 80 kt. *
B 40 kt.
C 60 kt.
D 20 kt.
140. For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than

44 passengers, it must be shown by actual
demonstration that the maximum seating capacity,
including the required number of crew members, can be
evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :
A 60 seconds
B 90 seconds *
C 132 seconds
D 120 seconds
INSTRUMENTOS
141. The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard

atmosphere is:
A 644 kt.
B 332 kt.
C 661 kt. *
D 1059 kt.
142. The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation

of the static pressure near the source is known as:
A position pressure error. *
B barometric error.
C instrument error.
D hysteresis effect
143. The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a

system working according to a height span ranging
from :
A the ground to 500 ft
B 50 ft to 2 500 ft *
C the ground to 1 000 ft
D 30 ft to 5 000 ft
144. If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked

during a descent the instrument will:
A continue to display the reading at which the blockage
occurred *
B gradually indicate zero
C under-read
D indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar
Subscale
145. The GPWS calculator receives the following signals :

1 - vertical speed
2 - radio altimeter height
3 - pressure altitude
4 - glidepath deviation
5 - gear and flaps position
6 - angle of attack
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is :
A 2,3,4,6
B 1,2,4,5 *
C 1,3,4,5,6
D 1,2,5,6
146. A stall warning system is based on a measure of :

A airspeed.
B attitude.
C groundspeed.
D aerodynamic incidente *
147. If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI)
becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
A continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time
of the blockage
B under-read
C over-read *
D read zero
148. A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the

display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision
Avoidance System) by a :
A red full circle.
B red full square. *
C blue or white full lozenge.
D blue or white empty lozenge.
149. The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance

Systems) is based on the use of :
A air traffic control radar systems
B transponders fitted in the aircraft *
C airborne weather radar system
D F.M.S. (Flight Management System)
150. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder
air, the altimeter will :
A underread.
B be just as correct as before.
C show the actual height above ground.
D overread. *
151. The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning

System), are:
1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical
Speed)
2- Radio Altimeter
3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
4- NAV/VOR
5- Flap (position)
6- Angle of Attack
7- Landing Gear (position)
The combination of correct statement is:
A 1,2,5,6,7
B 1,2,5,6,7
C 1,2,3,5,7 *
D 2,3,4,5,7
152. During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter

the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:
A height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
B altitude of the aircraft.
C height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any
time. *
D height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.
153. The stall warning system receives information about the
:
1- airplane angle of attack
2- airplane speed
3- airplane bank angle
4- airplane configuration
5- load factor on the airplane
is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 3, 5
D 1, 4 *
154. VLO is the maximum :

A flight speed with landing gear down.
B speed with flaps extended in a given position.
C cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with
caution.
D speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full
safety. *
155. A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain
hole with the static port open causes the airspeed
indicator to :
A freeze at zero.
B react like an altimeter. *
C read a little high.
D read a little low.
156. The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance

System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general.
TCAS uses for its operation :
A the replies from the transponders of other aircraft *
B the echos from the ground air traffic control radar system
C the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially
installed on board
D both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and
the ground-based radar echoes
157. The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information

dedicated to:
A systems.
B piloting.*
C weather situation.
D engines and alarms.
158. A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a
Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This
system will warn the crew in case of :
1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one
shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.
2 - dangerous ground proximity.
3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.
4 - wrong landing configuration.
5 - descent below glidepath, within limits.
is :
A 1,3,4
B 2,5
C 2,3,4,5 *
D2
159. The rate-of-turn is the:

A aircraft speed in a turn
B pitch rate in a turn
C change-of-heading rate of the aircraft *
D yaw rate in a turn
160. When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a

serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic
Collision Avoidance System) generates a :
A "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".
B "traffic advisory" only.
C "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".
D "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory". *
161. A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a nonpressurized

aircraft to an airspeed indicator would
cause it to:
A under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.
B under-read. *
C over-read.
D over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.
162. A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air
inlet will affect the following instrument (s) :
A airspeed indicator only. *
B altimeter only.
C vertical speed indicator only.
D airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.
163. With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the
aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a :
A decreasing speed. *
B constant speed.
C increasing speed.
D fluctuating Speedy
164. A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System)
provides:
A a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.
B the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a
collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and
horizontal planes.
C the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a
collision avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane
only.
D the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a
collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only. *
165. The stall warning system of a large transport airplane

includes:
1- an angle of attack sensor
2- a computer
3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer
4- an independent pitot probe
5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating system
is:
A 1, 2, 4, 5.
B 1, 2, 5. *
C 1, 2, 4.
D 1, 4.
166. The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active

for a height range from:
A 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
B 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
C 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter. *
D 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter
167. The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System)

releases a warning in the following cases :
1- excessive rate of descent
2- excessive ground proximity rate
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration
is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B 3, 4, 5, 6
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 *
D 2, 4, 5, 6
168. At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in

feet from indicated must not exceed :
A +/-70 feet
B +/-60 feet *
C +/-75 feet
D +/-30 feet
169. A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:
A Only works of there is a complete electrical failure
B Contains its own separate gyro *
C Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the
alternator fails
D Is fully independent of external energy resources in an
emergency situation
170. During a climb after take-off from a contaminated

runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed
indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated
airspeed :
A increases steadily *
B increases abruptly towards VNE
C decreases stadily
D decreases abruptly towards zero
171. A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates

automatically a distinct warning to the flight crew with
aural and/or light warning signals in the case of:
1- an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain
2- a dangerous proximity to the ground
3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around
4- an abnormal flight attitude
5- an abnormal landing configuration
6- an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slope
is:
A 1,2 and 4.
B 3, 4, 5 and 6.
C 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6. *
D 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
172. The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following

modes :
1- excessive descent rate
2- excessive rate of terrain closure
3- excessive angle of attack
4- too high descent attitude
5- loss of altitude after take-off
6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
7- excessive glidepath deviation
is:
A 2,3,5,7
B 1,2,5,6,7 *
C 1,2,4,6,7
D 3,4,5,6
173. When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a
transponder without altitude reporting capability, the
TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a :
A "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".
B "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".
C "traffic advisory" only. *
D "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory"
174. If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked

during a climb, the instrument will:
A gradually return to zero
B continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage
occurred *
C under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the
time that the instrument became blocked
D over-read
175. VNO is the maximum speed :

A at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
B with flaps extended in landing position.
C not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution. *
D which must never be exceded
176. After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud

which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the
airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent
and finds that the indicated airspeed :
A increases abruptly towards VNE
B increases steadily
C decreases abruptly towards zero
D decreases steadily *
177. The density altitude is :

A the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density
prevailing at this point
B the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this
point
C the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density
is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere *
D the temperature altitude corrected for the difference
between the real temperature and the standard temperature
SISTEMAS
178. The "cabin differential pressure" is:

A approximately 5 psi at maximum.
B approximately 15 psi at maximum.
C the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving
the cabin.
D cabin pressure minus ambient pressure. *
179. On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

A will wear at the shoulders *
B it's tread will deteriorate faster
C will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed
D will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway
180. If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the

differential pressure:
A decreases *
B increases
C remains constant
D may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless
immediate preventative action is taken.
181. In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen

regulator must be set to:
A 100% *
B normal.
C emergency.
D on demand
182. In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:

A rotor - rotor - stator
B stator - stator - rotor
C rotor stator *
D stator rotor
PERFORMANCE
183. Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by :

A VR and VMCG *
B V2 and VMCA
C VR and VMCA
D V2 and VMCG
184. With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the

following statements is correct?
A Screen height cannot be reduced.
B The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass
penalties. *
C When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to
maintain the same margins on the runway length.
D In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway
performance information can still be used
185. The first segment of the take-off flight path ends

A at completion of gear retraction. *
B at completion of flap retraction.
C at reaching V2.
D at 35 ft above the runway.
186. Balanced V1 is selected

A for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give
the highest mass.
B if it is equal to V2.
C if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out
take-off distance. *
D for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give
the highest mass.
187. ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight

conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is
within an area of
A 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise
speed.
B 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine
out cruise speed. *
C 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
D 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
188. If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to

290/.74 the new crossover altitude is
A unchanged.
B only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.
C lower. *
D higher.
189. How is V2 if T/O flaps 20 is chosen instead of
T/O flaps 10?
A V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are
set.
B V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a
function of runway length only.
C V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA. *
D V2 has the same value in both cases
190. Which statement regarding the influence of a runway

down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Downslope...
A increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance
required (ASDR).
B reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance
required (ASDR).
C increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required
(TODR).
D reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR). *
191. The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as

A take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft. *
B lift off speed.
C take-off decision speed.
D critical engine failure speed.
192. How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the

troposphere?
A TAS increases.
B TAS is constant.
C TAS is not related to Mach Number.
D TAS decreases. *
193. A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:

A The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off
distance available. * (ASD=TOD)
B The clearway does not equal the stopway.
C The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine takeoff
distance.
D The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all
engine take-off distance.
194. The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:

A 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
B 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes.
C 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs
for two or three-engine turboprop aeroplanes. *
D 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes
194. What is the effect of a head wind component, compared
to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the
speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
A Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb
angle speed decreases.
B Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle
speed increases.
C Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle
speed stays constant. *
D Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb
angle speed increases.
195. The speed V2 is

A that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not
the take-off in the case of an engine failure.
B the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall
problems.
C the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under
control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine
failure.
D the take-off safety speed. *
196. Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway

in take-off calculation is correct?
A The field length limited take-off mass will increase. *
B The usable length of the clearway is not limited.
C V1 is increased.
D V1 remains constant
197. Given that:

VEF= Critical engine failure speed
VMCG= Ground minimum control speed
VMCA= Air minimum control speed
VMU= Minimum unstick speed
V1= Take-off decision speed
VR= Rotation speed
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed
The correct formula is:
A 1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1
B 1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR
C V2min<= VEF<= VMU
D VMCG<=VEF < V1 *
198. Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway

is correct?
A In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway
performance information can still be used
B Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of
reduction in obstacle clearance.
C A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce
weight penalties *
D The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maitain the same
safety margins as for a dry runway
199. If the field length limited take off mass has been
calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, the
use of any additional clearway in take off performance
calculations may allow
A a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher
V1
B the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on
V1
C the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher
V1
D a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower
V1 *
200. Which statement regarding V1 is correct?

A V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG.
B When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to
be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines.
C The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.
D V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR. *
201. The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at

take-off is
A a higher V1.
B a longer take-off run.
C a shorter ground roll. *
D an increased acceleration
202. Which of the following statements is applicable to the

acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb
segment ?
A The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500
ft.
B There is no requirement for minimum climb performance
when flying at the acceleration height.
C The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be
maintained in case of all engines operating.
D The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum
time take-off thrust may be applied. *
203. In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35

ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is
A based on pressure altitudes.
B the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should
be completed.
C the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb
thrust.
D the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the
aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle corridor *
204. The take-off run is
A the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start
of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at
which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane
is 35 ft above the take-off surface. *
B 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a
point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is
reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a
height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative.
C 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the
point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the
critical engine at V1.
D the distance of the point of brake release to a point
equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and
the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft
above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at
V1.
205. Which statement is correct?

A VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1
V1.
B VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1. *
C VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
D VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1
206. Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance

during climb?
A The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and
forward speed is maximum. *
B V2 + 10 kt.
C The speed for maximum rate of climb.
D V2.
207. The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :

A the accelerate-stop distance available. *
B the take-off run available.
C the take-off distance available.
D the landing distance available
208. Which of the following statements with regard to the

actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd
climb segment is correct?
A The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.
B There is no legal minimum value, because this will be
determined from case to case during the calculation of the
net flight path.
C The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft. *
D A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special
circumstances e.g. noise abatement.
209. The take-off distance available is
A the total runway length, without clearway even if this one
exists.
B the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
clearway available. *
C the runway length minus stopway.
D the runway length plus half of the clearway.
210. Field length is balanced when

A one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance
between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.
B take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance. *
C calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG.
D all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for
rejected take-off are equal
211. Which of the following answers is true?

A V1 > VR
B V1 < VMCG
C V1 <= VR *
D V1 > Vlof
212. The Density Altitude

A is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
B is used to determine the aeroplane performance. *
C is equal to the pressure altitude.
D is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over
mountains.
213. What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event

of a climb limited take-off?
A The safety margin with respect to the runway length is
greatest. *
B The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is
the shortest.
C The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.
D The climb limited take-off mass is the highest
214. For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles

in the first segment may be avoided
A by banking not more than 15 between 50 ft and 400 ft
above the runway elevation. *
B by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50
ft above runway elevation.
C only by using standard turns.
D by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft
215. A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number

below the tropopause. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A IAS decreases and TAS decreases. *
B IAS increases and TAS increases.
C IAS decreases and TAS increases.
D IAS increases and TAS decreases
216. The speed VR
A must be higher than VLOF.
B must be equal to or lower than V1.
C is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is
initiated. *
D must be higher than V2.
217. The second segment begins

A when landing gear is fully retracted. *
B when flap retraction begins.
C when flaps are selected up.
D when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap
retraction.
218. VR cannot be lower than:

A 105% of V1 and VMCA.
B 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.
C 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.
D V1 and 105% of VMCA *
219. Given:
VS= Stalling speed
VMCA= Air minimum control speed
VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine
failure)
V1= take-off decision speed
VR= Rotation speed
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed
VLOF: Lift-off speed
The correct formula is:
A VR< VMCA< VLOF
B VMU<= VMCA< V1
C V2min< VMCA> VMU
D VS< VMCA< V2 min *
220. A higher outside air temperature (OAT)

A decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass. *
B increases the field length limited take-off mass.
C increases the climb limited take-off mass.
D decreases the take-off distance
221. In which of the following distances can the length of a

stopway be included?
A In the accelerate stop distance available. *
B In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
C In the all-engine take-off distance.
D In the take-off run available
222. At which minimum height will the second climb segment

end?
A 1500 ft above field elevation.
B 400 ft above field elevation. *
C 35 ft above ground.
D When gear retraction is completed
223. Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet
aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds)
A Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed,
maximum angle of climb speed.
B Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum
range speed. *
C Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.
D Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.
224. When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the

one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance:
A increases / increases.
B remains constant / remains constant.
C decreases / decreases.
D decreases / remains constant *
225. Density altitude is the

A altitude read directly from the altimeter
B height above the surface
C pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature *
D altitude reference to the standard datum plane
226. In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to
be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane
is to:
A apply wheel brakes.
B deploy airbrakes or spoilers.
C reduce the engine thrust. *
D reverse engine thrust.
227. An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other

things, the following consequences on landing
performance:
A a reduced landing distance and degraded go around
performance
B a reduced landing distance and improved go-around
performance *
C an increased landing distance and degraded go-around
performance
D an increased landing distance and improved go-around
Performance
228. A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum

control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be
maintainable after engine failure?
A Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
B Altitude
C Straight flight *
D Straight flight and altitude
229. The length of a clearway may be included in:

A the accelerate-stop distance available.
B the take-off run available.
C the distance to reach V1.
D the take-off distance available *
230. What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant
Mach number?
A IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
B The "1.3G" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start
immediately.
C The lift coefficient increases. *
D The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to
structural problems.
231. How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure

altitude?
A VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
B VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.
C VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude. *
D VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude
232. During take-off the third segment begins:

A when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started. *
B when landing gear is fully retracted.
C when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.
D when flap retraction is completed.
233. The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by

A selecting a lower VR.
B a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2. *
C selecting a lower V1.
D selecting a lower V2.
234. By what factor must the landing distance available (dry

runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied
to find the landing distance required? (planning phase
for destination).
A 115/100
B 1.67
C 60/115
D 0.60 *
235. The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at

the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing
distance plus
A 92% *
B 43%
C 70%
D 67%
236. With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be

flown at approximately:
A 1.2 Vs
B 1.1 Vs
C The highest CL/CD ratio. *
D The highest CL/CD ratio
237. A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number.
Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be
exceeded first?
A Maximum Operational Mach Number
B Maximum Operating Speed *
C Never Exceed Speed
D High Speed Buffet Limit
238. Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway

length to determine the take-off distance available ?
A Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the
aeroplane.
B Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the
runway.
C No. *
D No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the
runway.
239. Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?

A V1, VR, V2, VMCA.
B VMCG, V1, VR, V2. *
C V1, VMCG, VR, V2.
D V1, VR, VMCG, V2.
240. V1 has to be
A equal to or higher than VMCG. *
B equal to or higher than VMCA.
C higher than than VR.
D equal to or higher than V2.
241. Take-off run is defined as the

A Distance from brake release to V2.
B horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of
the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which
VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35
ft above the take-off surface. *
C distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.
D distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all
engine distance to 35 feet.
242. The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit
A increases the stalling speed.
B improves the longitudinal stabiity.
C decreases the maximum range.
D improves the maximum range. *
243. Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air

minimum control speed)?
A The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
B The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb
gradient
C VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes
D Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the
critical engine has failed *
244. Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on
directional control being maintained by:
A nosewheel steering only.
B primary aerodynamic control only. *
C primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel.
D primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and
differential braking.
245. What is the advantage of a balanced field length

condition ?
A For a balanced field length the required take-off runway
length always equals the available runway length.
B A balanced field length provides the greatest margin
between "net" and "gross" take-off flight paths.
C A balanced field length gives the minimum required field
length in the event of an engine failure. *
D A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force
requirement for rotation.
246. Which of the following distances will increase if you

increase V1?
A All Engine Take-off distance
B Take-off run
C Accelerate Stop Distance *
D Take-off distance
247. V2 has to be equal to or higher than

A 1.1 VMCA. *
B 1.15 VMCG.
C 1.1 VSO.
D 1.15 VR.
248. Which statement regarding V1 is correct ?

A When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on
the remaining symmetric engines
B The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative
C VR may not be lower than V1 *
D V1 may not be higher than Vmcg
249. A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other

things, the following consequences on take-off
performance:
A a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb
performance
B an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb
performance *
C a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb
performance
D an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb
Performance
250. The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and
the climb segments are only specified for:
A the failure of two engines on a multi-engined aeroplane.
B the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane. *
C the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane.
D 2 engined aeroplane
251. A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which

operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
A The Stalling speed.
B The Minimum control speed air.
C The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.
D The Maximum operating Mach number. *
252. Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2

value which is limited by VMCA?
A High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation.
B Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation. *
C Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation.
D High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation
253. Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?

A VMU
B VR
C VMCG *
D VLOF
254. The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes

at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated
landing distance plus
A 67%
B 70%
C 43%
D 92% *
255. The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in :

A The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
B The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven
aeroplane.
C The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane. *
D The maximum range for a jet aeroplane
256. In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited

and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank
angle should not exceed
A 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
B 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
C 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
D 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft. *
256. The one engine out take-off run is the distance between
the brake release point and:
A the point half way between V1 and V2.
B the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft *
point.
C the lift-off point.
D the point where V2 is reached
257. Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or

absence of stopway and/or clearway ?
A V2
B VMCG
C VMCA
D V1 *
258. The take-off mass could be limited by

A the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake *
energy and the climb gradient with one engine inoperative.
B the maximum brake energy only.
C the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only.
D the take-off distance available (TODA) only.

A VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated. *
B VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
C In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be
aborted.
D VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of
engine failure.
260. If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than

VMCG, which of the following is correct ?
A The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out takeoff
distance.
B The take-off is not permitted. *
C The one engine out take-off distance will become greater
than the ASDR.
D The VMCG will be lowered to V1.
261. The take-off decision speed V1 is:

A a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before
reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted. *
B not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
C a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after
reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.
D sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
262. The speed VLO is defined as

A lift off speed.
B landing gear operating speed. *
C design low operating speed.
D long distance operating speed.
263. The take-off distance required increases
A due to slush on the runway. *
B due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
C due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
D due to lower gross mass at take-off.
264. The take-off performance requirements for transport

category aeroplanes are based upon:
A failure of critical engine.
B failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever
gives the largest take off distance. *
C all engines operating.
D only one engine operating
265. May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off

and landing data ?
A Only for take-off.
B Only for landing.
C Yes. *
D No.
266. For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is

correct?
A When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at
destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into
account, if the runway is expected to be dry. *
B In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into
account when determining the required landing field length.
C An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the
required landing field length.
D The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to
the full stop point.
267. Which of the following statements is correct ?

A If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be
attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway
surface.
B A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able
to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off. *
C An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be
used for an aborted take-off.
D A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used
for an aborted take-off
268. Which of the following is true according to JAA

regulations for turbopropeller powered aeroplanes not
performing a steep approach?
A Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.
B Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.
C Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome
and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing
Distance Available). *
D Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA
(Landing Distance Available).
269. An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000
metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the
calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the
take-off distance available cannot be greater than:
A 6000 metres.
B 4000 metres.
C 5000 metres.
D 4500 metres *
270. Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway

length to determine the take-off distance available ?
A Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the
aeroplane.
B Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the
runway.
C No. *
D No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the
runway.
PLANIFICACION
271. On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as "H" for

"Heavy"
A has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136
000 kg
B has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140
000 kg
C requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum
certified take-off mass
D is of the highest wake turbulence category *
272. The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft

for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is:
A 7 000 kg *
B 2 700 kg
C 5 700 kg
D 10 000 kg
273. From which of the following would you expect to find

the dates and times when temporary danger areas are
active
A SIGMET
B RAD/NAV charts
C NOTAM and AIP (Air Information Publication) *
D Only AIP (Air Information Publication
274. On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector

altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation
facility. Without any particular specification on distance,
this altitude is valid to:
A 10 NM
B 25 NM *
C 20 NM
D 15 NM
FACTORES HUMANOS
275. Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in

the blood?
A Hemoglobin in the red blood cells. *
B White blood cells.
C Plasma.
D Blood fat.
276. The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by

the concentration of:
A water vapour in the alveoli
B oxygen in the cells
C carbon dioxide in the blood *
D nitrogen in the air
277. Early symptoms of hypoxia could be:

1. euphoria
2. decreased rate and depth of breathing
3. lack of concentration
4. visual disturbances
A 1,2 and 4 are correct
B 1,3 and 4 are correct *
C 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
D 1,2 and 3 are correct
278. The semicircular canals form part of the

A inner ear *
B middle ear
C ear drum
D external ear
279. What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on

performance ?
A It causes muscular spasms
B It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss
greater than 48 hours
C It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties,
the risk of sensory illusions and mood disorders *
D It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but
facilitates stress management by muscular relaxation,
280. A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:

A excecute the valsalva manoeuvre
B close the eyes and relax
C talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to
emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of breathing
simultaneously *
D don an oxygen mask
281. Hyperventilation causes
A acidosis
B hypochondria
C a lack of carbon dioxide in the blood *
D an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood
282. Hyperventilation is:

A an accellerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing
blood-pressure
B a reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain
C a normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in
partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when climbing a high mountain) *
D an accellerated heart frequency caused by an increasing
blood pressure
283. Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning

hyperventilation?
A Slow heart beat
B Slow rate of breathing
C Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)
D Dizzy Keeling *
284. The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:

A shortage of CO2 in the blood
B surplus of CO2 in the blood *
C surplus of O2 in the blood
D shortage of CO in the blood
285. Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk

of getting:
A hyperventilation
B hypoxia
C stress
D decompression sickness without having a decompression *
286. Which of the following could a pilot experience when he

is hyperventilating?
1. Dizziness
2. Muscular spasms
3. Visual disturbances
4. Cyanosis
A 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
B 1 is false, all others are correct
C 2 and 4 are false
D 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false *
287. After a decompression at high altitude

A automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabin
B temperature in the cockpit will increase
C pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin
D nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids
causing gas embolism, bends and chokes *
288. Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs,
following a decompression are called:
A creeps
B leans
C chokes *
D bends
289. Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a

decompression is called:
A chokes
B creeps
C leans
D bends *
290. The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin

following a decompression are called:
A bends
B chokes
C leans
D creeps *
291. After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you

have to wait a period of time before flying again. This
period is at least:
A 24 hours *
B 6 hours
C 12 hours
D 48 hours
292. In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba

diving, subsequent flights should be delayed
A 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been
made
B 24 hours *
C 3 hours after non decompression diving
D 36 hours after any scuba diving
293. Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed

gas mixtures, bottles) (>10 m depth)
A are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded
B should be avoided because hypoxia may develop
C are forbidden *
D can be performed without any danger
294. Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving

equipment (> 10 m depth)
A has no influence on altitude flights
B is forbidden for the flight crew, because it leads to hypoxia
C can cause decompression sicknesss even when flying at
pressure altitudes below 18 000 FT *
D prevents any dangers caused by aeroembolism
(decompression sickness) when climbing to altitudes not
exceeding 30 000 FT
A There is no relation between inadequate communication and
incidents or accidents.
B Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety.
C Problems in the personal relation between crew members
hardly hamper their communication process.
D Problems in the personal relation between crew members
very likely hamper their communication process *
296. After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of

useful consciousness is about:
A 10 minutes.
B 30 to 60 seconds*
C 15 seconds or less
D 5 minutes.
297. Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time

of useful consciousness would be about:
A 5 to 10 minutes
B 10 to 12 minutes *
C 1 to 2 minutes
D 3 to 5 minutes
298. The "Effective Performance Time" or "Time of Useful

Consciousness" after a decompression at 35 000 ft is:
A between 30 and 60 seconds *
B approximately 3 minutes
C approximately 5 minutes
D less than 20 seconds
299. After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT

the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be
approximately:
A 30 -90 seconds *
B 10-15 seconds
C 3-4 minutes
D 5 minutes or more
300. What is the "Time of Useful Consciousness" for a rapid

decompression at 25,000 ft ?
A Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
B About 30 seconds
C Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical
activities of the subjected pilot *
D About 18 seconds
301. What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after

a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft ?
A More than 1 minute
B About 12 seconds *
C Between 20 seconds and 1 minute
D About 40 secods
LEGISLACION
302. An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives

a series of red flashes from the control tower. This
signifies that the aircraft must :
A not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
B not land because the airport is not available for landing. *
C give way to another aircraft.
D return to land and that clearance to land will be
communicated in due course.
303. At what moment during the approach should the

reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
A When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL
B When passing the transition level *
C When passing the transition altitude
D Within the transition layer
304. The criterion which shall be used to determine that a

specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except
that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller
criterion):
A +/- 150 ft.
B +/- 250 ft.
C +/- 300 ft. *
D +/- 200 ft.
305. When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its

current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case :
A it is a deviation from the track.
B the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in
the flightplan. *
C of an emergency.
D the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes
306. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :

A Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
B Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for
the time being. *
C Come back and land.
D Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
307. We can distinguish two types of departure routes.

During a straight departure the initial departure track is
within :
A 5 of the alignment of the runway centre-line
B 10 of the alignment of the runway centre-line
C 25 of the alignment of the runway centre-line
D 15 of the alignment of the runway centre-line
308. The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft
established on the localizer course shall be:
A 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
B 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
C 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. *
D 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course
309. An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an
area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear
(free of clouds), when it totally loses
radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:
A adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
B continue flight onto destination, complying with last received
clearances then with filed flight plan.
C descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest
airfield open to IFR operations
D land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air
Traffic Services of landing *
310. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum

obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway
equals:
A 0 ft. *
B 3.3 % gradient.
C 35 ft.
D 0.8 % gradient.
311. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-

VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
A When seems possible to land
B When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and
with the runway lights in sight *
C When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
D When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with
the runway in sight yet
312. The runway edge lights shall be :

A white *
B blue
C green
D red
313. When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this

marking shall commence at :
A 450 m from threshold
B 600 m from threshold
C 300 m from threshold *
D 150 m from threshold
314. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS

authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall
be:
A 3.5 NM.
B 5.0 NM. *
C 3.0 NM.
D 10.0 NM.
315. "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
A The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
stopway (if stopway provided) . *
B The length of the runway plus the length of stopway
available (if stopway provided).
C The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
stopway and clearway (if provided) .
D The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
clearway.
316. Runway threshold lights shall be:

A Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
B Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of
approach to the runway. *
C Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of
approach to the runway.
D Fixed lights green colours.
317. For a category I precision approach, the decision height

cannot be lower than :
A 150 ft
B 100 ft
C 200 ft *
D 250 ft
318. Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in

VMC you have two way communication failure?
A Return to the aerodrome of departure.
B Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as
practicable. *
C Continue the flight at the assigned level and route; start
approach at your ETA.
D Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the
nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions.
319. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway

shall be:
A Fixed lights showing blue.
B Fixed lights showing yellow.
C Fixed lights showing white.
D Fixed lights showing green. *
320. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which

causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action
must be taken?
A Squawk 7700
B The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action
taken as soon as circumstances permit *
C Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
D Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
321. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft
receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The
aircraft :
A must give way to another aircraft.
B must come back to land and the landing clearance will be
sent in due time. *
C is cleared to land.
D must land immediately and clear the landing area.
322. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the

centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
A Flashing lights showing variable green.
B Fixed lights showing variable white. *
C Flashing lights showing variable white.
D Fixed lights showing variable green
323. What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing

between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft
A 6 NM *
B 3 NM
C 2 km
D 10 km
324. "TODA" take-off distance available is:

A The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
clearway available (if provided). *
B The length of the runway available plus the length of
clearway available (if provided).
C The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
stopway and clearway (if provided).
D The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
Stopway
325. A minimum radar separation shall be provided until

aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer
course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum
is, when independent parallel approaches are being
conducted :
A 1.0 NM
B 2.0 NM
C 3.0 NM *
D 5.0 NM
326. Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation

between aircraft on the same direction is:
A 3 000 feet.
B 1 500 feet.
C 4 000 feet. *
D 2 000 feet.
327. A flashing red light from control tower during an
approach to land means:
A The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
B Give way to other aircraft in emergency
C Continue circling and wait for further instructions
D The airport is unsafe, do not land *
328. An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have
crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level
information indicates that it has passed this level in the
required direction by:
A +/- 300 ft.
B More than 200 ft.
C More than 300 ft. *
D 300 ft.
329. A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument

runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for
operations down to:
A a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
B a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
C a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
D a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft. *
330. What is a "barrette"?

A a CAT II or III holding position.
B a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
C three or more groundlights closely spaced together to
appear as a bar of lights. *
D a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway
331. In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what

minimum separation should be applied when a medium
aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are
using the same runway ?
A 2 minutes *
B 3 minutes
C 4 minutes
D 1 minute
332. What action should be taken if contact is los with the

aerodrome on the down wind leg ?
A Request an amended clearance
B Initiate a missed approach *
C Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is
better at a lower altitude
D Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the
Aerodrome
333. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of

a controlled flight deviates from the track?
A Inform the ATC unit immediately
B If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC
instructions
C Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with
instructions
D Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as
Practicable *
334. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes,
the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest
obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall
be for an IFR flight :
A at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position *
B at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
C at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
D at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
335. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above

FL 140?
A 2 minutes 30 seconds.
B 1 minute 30 seconds. *
C 1 minute.
D 2 minutes.
336. What does the abbreviation DER mean?

A Distance end of route.
B Departure end of route.
C Distance end of runway.
D Depature end of runway. *
337. Taxiway edge lights shall be:

A Fixed showing blue. *
B Fixed showing green.
C Fixed showing yellow.
D Flashing showing blue.
338. While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport

controller the following light signal : a series of green
flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
A must return to its point of departure.
B is cleared for take-off.
C may continue to taxy towards the take-off area *
D must stop.
339. The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the

ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a
suitable area where:
A An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
B An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned takeoff. *
C A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of
runway.
D A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency
340. In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance

surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally
deviate from the centreline, after being established on
track, more than:
A Half a scale deflection. *
B One scale deflection.
C A quarter of scale deflection.
D One and a half of scale deflection
341. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic
pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to
indicate difficulties which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance?
A The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights *
B Switching on and off three times the landing lights
C Switching on and off four times the landing lights
D Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
342. Runway-lead-in lighting should consist :

A always of a straight row of lights towards the runway
B of flashing lights only;
C of an arbitrary amount of green lights;
D of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence
towards the runway *
343. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a

nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
A 0.8%.
B 3.3%.
C 5%.
D 2.5%. *
344. What is the length of an approach lighting system of a

precision-approach runway CAT II :
A 900m *
B 150m
C 300m
D 600m
345. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies

dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given
for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What
should be the length of this approach light system?
A 420 metres
B 1000 metres
C 1200 metres
D 900 metres *
346. A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be

used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each
aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on
track" way-point. This minimum is:
A 60 NM.
B 50 NM.
C 20 NM.
D 80 NM. *
347. The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not

below:
A 3.0 NM. *
B 5.0 NM.
C 2.0 NM.
D 1.5 NM.
348. While taxying an aircraft receives the following light
signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This
signal means that the aircraft :
A must vacate the landing area in use. *
B must stop.
C must return to its point of departure.
D may continue to taxi to the take-off area
349. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation

criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a
medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
A 3 minutes
B 1 minute
C 5 minutes
D 2 minutes *
350. Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft,

which will be the maximum speed ?
A 230 kt IAS. *
B 230 kt TAS.
C 240 kt IAS.
D 240 kt TAS.
351. You have received holding instructions for a radio fix.

The published holding procedure is: all turns to the
right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052. You are
approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232.
Select the available entry procedure.
A Either "off set" or "parallel". *
B Off set.
C Parallel.
D Direct.
352. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall

immediately attempt to establish radio communication
with the intercepting aircraft on the following
frequencies:
A 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
B 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
C 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
D 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz *
353. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in

the final approach segment to ensure the required
minimum obstacle clearance, is :
A 8%.
B 6,5%.
C 5%. *
D 7%.
354. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of
activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or
is expected to be of operational significance. This
information is provided using the volcano level of
colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or
volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash
plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to
rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
A ORANGE
B RED *
C YELLOW
D GREEN
355. "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to:

A Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.
B Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
C Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
D Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a
specific height. *
356. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided,

should be:
A Flashing white. *
B Fixed green.
C Flashing green.
D Fixed white.
357. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in

which alignment and descent for landing are made is
called:
A Initial approach segment.
B Intermediate approach segment.
C Arrival segment.
D Final approach segment *
358. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding

level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside
controlled airspace?
A 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of
course
B 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles
of course
C 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles
of course
D 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of
the estimated position of the Aircraft *
359. A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :

A Good
B Medium/poor
C Medium
D Poor *
360. An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned
level as long as the SSR mode C derived level
information indicated that it is within:
A +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
B +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
C +/- 300 ft of the assigned level. *
D +/- 200 ft of the assigned level
361. Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced

threshold shall be:
A Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
B Flashing white.
C Fixed lights showing variable white. *
D Fixed lights, white or yellow colour
362. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach

segment begins at the:
A IF.
B FAP. *
C FAF.
D MAP.
363. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you

experience a two-way radio communication failure. You
will :
A Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC
and inform ATC ; *
B Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to
destination ;
C Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
D Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
364. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by

the following signals:
A Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from
extended position inwards.
B Crossing arms extended above his head
C Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms
toward ground
D Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in
front of body , then clench fist *
365. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of

the aligment of the runway centre line within:
A 45.
B 12.5.
C 15. *
D 30.
366. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by
the following signals:
A Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers
extended then clenching fist. *
B Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from
extended position inwards.
C Crossing arms extended above his head.
D Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward
ground.
367. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to

FL 140?
A 2 minutes
B 1,5 minutes
C 30 secondes
D 1 minute *
368. What is meant when departure control instruct you to

"resume own navigation" after you have been vectored
to an airway?
A Radar Service is terminated.
B Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
C You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
D You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation
equipment. *
369. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to

parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone
(NTZ) of at least :
A 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines
and as is depicted on the radar display
B 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines
C 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines
D 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines
and as is depicted on the radar display *
370. The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by

ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
A 500 feet (150 m).
B 4000 feet (1200 m).
C 2000 feet (600 m). *
D 1000 feet (300 m).
371. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an

instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will
make an initial climbing turn towards the:
A Landing runway. *
B MAP.
C FAF.
D Final missed approach track
372. Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?
A Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound *
B Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
C Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound
D Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
373. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall

change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard
setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
A Transition level.
B The level specified by ATC.
C Transition altitude. *
D Transition layer.
374. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is

done:
A at transition level during climb and transition altitude during
descent.
B only at transition altitude.
C only at transition level.
D at transition altitude during climb and transition level during
descent. *
375. Runway end lights shall be:

A Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the
runway. *
B Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of
the runway.
C Fixed lights showing variable red.
D Fixed lights showing variable White
376. Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach

procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a
minimum climb gradient of:
A 5%
B 3.3%
C 2.5% *
D 2%
377. If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg

of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ?
A Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use,
maintaining circling alitude
B Initiate a missed approach *
C Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual
conctact
D If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact
378. A separation minimum shall be applied between a light
or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a
LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the
lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway
for take off, this minimum is :
A 2 minutes *
B 5 minutes
C 3 minutes
D 1 minute
CARGA Y CENTRADO
379. An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft

cargo compartment but is not entered into the load and
trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected
and calculated take-off safety speeds
A will give reduced safety margins. *
B will not be achieved.
C will be greater than required.
D are unaffected but V1 will be increased
380. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of

the following is to be expected?
A A decrease in the landing speed.
B A decrease of the stalling speed.
C A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.
D A decrease in range. *
381. Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain

unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the
forward to the aft limit will cause
A higher stall speed.
B lower optimum cruising speed.
C reduced maximum cruise range.
D increased cruise range. *
382. The centre of gravity is the

A centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a
datum line
B focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
C neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a
datum line
D point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be
Concentrated *
383. In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:

A decrease longitudinal static stability *
B increase longitudinal static stability
C does not influence longitudinal static stability
D not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal
384. The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is

normally computed along the:
A horizontal axis.
B longitudinal axis. *
C lateral axis.
D vertical axis.
385. The centre of gravity of a body is that point

A through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the
body is considered to act. *
B where the sum of the moments from the external forces
acting on the body is equal to zero.
C where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.
D which is always used as datum when computing moments
386. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass
when leaving the ramp.
B The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the
aeroplane excluding traffic load and useable fuel but
including the crew.
C The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by
structural limitations, performance limitations and the
strength of the runway. *
D The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of
gravity remains within limits after the uplift of fuel

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RADIO NAVEGACION

1. A DME is located at MSL.

2. A VOR and DME are co-located.

3. Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is

4. The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200.

5. What is the maximum number of usable Secondary

6. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to

8. What is the minimum number of satellites required by a

9. What is the minimum number of satellites required for a

10. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3 ILS

11. The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR

15. Which of the following will give the most accurate

16. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR

17. Which of the following will give the most accurate

18. When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance

19. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3 ILS

20. Which of the following changes of state is known as

21. The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How

22. Relative humidity

23. What does dewpoint mean?

24. Which of the following is the definition of relative

25. Relative humidity

28. The lowest assumed temperature in the International

29. Fallstreaks or virga are

30. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication

31. The QNH is equal to the QFE if

32. If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature

34. If CAVOK is reported then

35. What is the boundary layer between troposphere and

36. Which one of the following statements applies to the

38. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of

39. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere

40. Which of the following meteorological phenomena can

43. Refer to the following TAF extract:

44. Refer to the following TAF extract:

45. Refer to the following TAF extract:

46. What does the term SIGMET signify?

48. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of

49. Refer to TAF below.

50. What does the expression "Broken (BKN)" mean?

51. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is

52. How long does a typical microburst last?

53. What is the approximate maximum diameter of a

55. Altostratus clouds are classified as

56. How does freezing rain develop?

57. Freezing rain occurs when

58. Supercooled droplets are always

59. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.

60. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT,

63. What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?

64. The 0 isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL

65. Under what condition does pressure altitude have the

66. Which of the following statements is true of the dew

67. Dew point is defined as

68. Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation

70. Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.

71. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication

72. What is a trend forecast?

73. A super-cooled droplet is

74. A super-cooled droplet is one that

75. The temperature at FL 110 is -5C. What will the

76. Vertical wind shear is