ANATOMY

FOUNDATION MODULE
Embryology

1. Downs syndrome:
a. Occurs as a result of non-disjunction of chromosomes
b. Occurs as a result of non-disjunction of meiosis
c. 70 75% cases occur in maternal non-disjunction of chromosome 21 in first meiosis division
d. Occurs equally in both paternal and maternal non-disjunction of chromosome 21

2. Caudal dysgenesis or Sirenomelia is a result of:

a. Deficient induction of neural tube by the notochord in the region
b. Deficiency of connective tissue in the region
c. Inadequate formation of neuroectoderm in the region
d. Insufficient formation of mesoderm in the region
e. Deficiency of ectoderm in the region

3. Which of the following is responsible for the prevention of polyspermy?

a. Resumption of the first meiotic division
b. Resumption of the second meiotic division
c. Capacitation
d. The zona reaction
e. The release of enzymes from the sperm acrosome

4. Spermiogenesis include all the changes except:

a. Formation of acrosome
b. Condensation of nucleus
c. Formation of neck, middle piece and tail
d. Shedding of most of the cytoplasm
e. The release of enzymes from the sperm acrosome

5. A 23-year-old woman with a natural menstrual cycle is nearing ovulation. The oocyte of a mature follicle will be
induced to undergo the first meiotic division as a result of which of the following hormonal stimuli?
a. The cessation of progesterone secretion
b. The gradual elevation of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) titres
c. The low oestrogen titres associated with the maturing follicle
d. The slow elevation of progesterone produced by luteal cells
e. The surge of luteinizing hormone (LH)

6. Trophoblastic lacunae are in open connection with maternal sinusoid by day:

a. 10
b. 12
c. 13
d. 14
e. 16

7. Heusers membrane:
a. Is present in bilaminar blastocyst
b. Lies just outside cytotrophoblast
c. Lies inside extra embryonic splanchnic mesoderm
d. Divides extra embryonic mesoderm into two layers
e. Is important for foetal nourishment

8. In mature Graafian follicle:

a. There are usually 2 oocytes
b. Theca cell make corpus luteum
c. Corona radiata cells make corpus albicans
d. Largest cells are of cumulus oophorous
e. No fluid is present
9. Deletion:
a. Means breaking of a piece of chromosome
b. Means breaking and loss of chromosome
c. Can lead to Cri-du-chat syndrome
d. Cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by partial deletion of short arm of chromosome 5
e. Children with Cri-du-chat syndrome are mentally retarded

10. Neurenteric canal:

a. Links amniotic cavity with yolk sac at primitive node
b. Is permanent opening
c. Causes spina bifida
d. Causes myeloschisis
e. Links neural tube with GIT

11. Number of oogonia:

a. 6 to 8 million at puberty
b. 6 to 8 million at birth
c. About 40 thousand at puberty
d. About 40 thousand at birth
e. About four thousand at puberty

12. A young married woman has just missed her period comes to OPD with severe abdominal pain. The gynaecologist
suspects ectopic pregnancy. Most common site:
a. Cervix of uterus
b. Fundus of uterus
c. Ovaries
d. Peritoneum
e. Uterine Tube

13. If the outer cell mass does not develop what will not be formed?
a. Amnion
b. Epiblast
c. Trophoblast
d. Yolk sac
e. Yolk stalk

14. Progenitor cells that differentiate into primary spermatocytes are:

a. Primitive germ cells
b. Spermatogonium
c. Type A-light spermatogonia
d. Type A-dark spermatogonia
e. Type B spermatogonia

15. Genetic chromosomal anomalies can occur in:

a. Mitosis prior to meiosis
b. Meiosis I
c. Meiosis II
d. Fertilization
e. Cleavage

16. In Turners syndrome, all are seen except:

a. Amenorrhea
b. Webbing of neck
c. Multiple ovarian follicles
d. Sterility
e. 45, X karyotype

17. Term Ploidy means:

a. Multiple of 23 in humans
b. Number of polar bodies formed in oogenesis
c. Amount of DNA
 d. Number of cells in early cleavage
e. Abnormal number of chromosomes

18. Umbilical cord contains

a. 2 veins
b. 1 artery
c. Allantois
d. Connective tissue
e. Part of definitive yolk sac

19. Term Capacitation means:

a. Formation of acrosomal cap
b. Biochemical changes in sperms as they remain in female genital track
c. Abnormal cell division
d. Loss of cytoplasm during spermatogenesis
e. Formation of polar bodies in female

20. Exchange of chromatin takes place:

a. In prophase of Meiosis I
b. Before chiasma formation
c. During fertilization
d. In early cleavage
e. During ovulation

21. Mosaicism:
a. Occurs when some extra chromosomes 21 cells are lost during cleavage
b. Occurs as result of mixing of normal and trisomy 21 cells
c. A high percentage of all Downs syndrome are mosaics
d. Seemingly normal individuals can produce Downs syndrome children with mosaicism
e. Very few Downs syndrome are mosaic

22. The acrosome in sperm:

a. Contains enzymes
b. Is required for penetration of Corona Radiata
c. Covers the caudal half of nucleus
d. Is rich in carbohydrates

23. Implantation:
a. Starts on 10th day of development
b. Takes place in stratum spongiosum
c. Is completed by end of 3rd week
d. Takes place in stratum compactum
e. Usually takes place in uterine tube

24. Rickets is a disease caused by:

a. Deficiency of calcium and Vitamin D
b. Disuse atrophy of muscles
c. Deficiency of Vitamin C
d. Sedentary habits
e. Deficiency of Vitamin A

Histology

25. Mitochondria:
a. Are rods up to 10mm in length
b. Have inner and outer membrane
c. Inner membrane contains enzymes for electron transport chain
d. Change ADP to ATP
e. Inter-cristae is the space enclosed by the membrane
26. In a systemic disease, all resident cells of connective tissue were damaged. Which of the following cells will
continue to function properly?
a. Fibroblast
b. Macrophages
c. Mast cells
d. Adipose cells
e. Lymphocytes

27. In the electron microscope, each A band in muscles is bisected by a lighter transverse region known as the:
a. A band
b. I band
c. M line
d. H zone
e. Z line

28. Pseudo-stratified epithelium:

a. Nuclei lie at the same level
b. All cells rest on basement membrane
c. All cells reach the surface
d. All cells are tall columnar
e. Absent in respiratory tract

29. Which cell type is responsible for the phagocytosis?

a. B-lymphocytes
b. Monocytes
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophil
e. Platelets

30. Which of the following junctions allow the formation of two functional compartments; an apical and a basal
compartment?
a. Zonula occludens
b. Zonula adherens
c. Connexon
d. Macula adherens
e. Hemi-desmosomes

31. Connective tissue cells resembling fibroblasts & often present along capillaries are:
a. Plasma cells
b. Lymphocytes
c. Macrophages
d. Pericytes
e. Adipocytes

Gross Anatomy

32. A bone which is not included in the category of irregular bones is:
a. Maxilla
b. Parietal bone
c. Hip bone
d. Mandible
e. Vertebra

33. Cartilaginous joints present in the median plan of the body are called:
a. Synchondrosis
b. Synostosis
c. Syndesmosis
d. Symphysis
e. Sutures

34. Following are true about plane synovial joints except:

 a. Both articulate surfaces are flat
b. It allows sliding and gliding movement
c. It is a uniaxial joint
d. Acromioclavicular joint is an example of this type
e. It is not covered by capsule

35. Which of the following movements are permitted at the hinge joints?
a. Gliding/Sliding movements
b. Multiaxial
c. Uniaxial
d. Biaxial
e. Rotatory

36. The nutrient foramen of all long bones is directed:

a. Downwards
b. Upwards
c. Transversely
d. Upwards in upper limb and down wards in lower limb bones
e. Towards the elbow & away from the knee

37. Mark the correct statement.

a. Prime mover is the muscle which initiates and maintains a movement
b. Fixators provide mobile base for prime movers to act efficiently
c. Red skeletal muscles contract rapidly
d. Skeletal muscles are supplied by neighbouring arteries
e. Tonic contraction makes the muscles week

38. All of the following are pneumatic bones except:

a. Maxilla
b. Parietal
c. Ethmoid
d. Mastoid
e. Tegmen tympani

39. The elbow is to wrist.

a. Distal
b. Lateral
c. Ventral
d. Proximal
e. Medial

40. An example of muscle with bipennate arrangement of fibres is:

a. Sartorius
b. Rectus femoris
c. Flexor pollicis longus
d. Digastric
e. Tibialis anterior
 MS MODULE
Embryology

1. The terminal portion of the limb buds becomes flattened to form the hand plates and foot plates in:
a. 4-week-old embryos
b. 6-week-old embryos
c. 8-week-old embryos
d. 10-week-old embryos

2. The smooth muscle develops from:

a. Somatopleuric mesoderm
b. Splanchnic mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Neural crest cells

3. At the end of the fourth week of development, limb buds become visible as out-pocketing from the:
a. Ventrolateral body wall
b. Posterolateral body wall
c. Superolateral body wall
d. Inferolateral body wall

4. During development of muscle, Myoblasts of the epimers were congenitally absent. Which muscle group will be
absent in the new born foetus?
a. Extensor muscles of the vertebral column
b. Extensor muscles of the arm
c. Extensor muscles of the forearm
d. Flexor muscles of the arm
e. Flexor muscles of the vertebral column

5. Ectoderm at the distal border of the limb thickens and forms the apical ectodermal ridge. This ridge forms:
a. Bone and cartilage
b. Dermis and epidermis
c. Cartilage and muscle
d. Bone and dermis

6. The limb bud appears at the end of which week of foetal life?
a. 4th
b. 5th
c. 6th
d. 7th
e. 8th

7. Sphincter and dilator muscles of the pupil, muscle tissue in the mammary gland and sweat glands originate from
which of the following:
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Mesoderm
d. Neural crest cells

8. Poland anomaly is due to absence of:

a. Pectoralis major
b. Teres major
c. Rhomboid major
d. Pectoralis minor
e. Trapezius

9. During the course of development lower limb rotates approximately:

a. 90 medially
b. 80 medially
c. 70 medially
 d. 60 medially
e. 50 medially

10. An epiphyseal plate is found on each extremity during development of which type of bones?
a. Long bones
b. Short
c. Irregular
d. Sesamoid

Histology

11. In the cardiac muscle transverse portions of intercalated discs contain:

a. Fasciae adherents and gap junctions
b. Maculae adherents and gap junctions
c. Fasciae adherents and Maculae adherents
d. Gap junctions only

12. In a slide the cartilage contained chondrocyte occurring singly or in isogenous groups, usually arranged in long rows
separated by coarse collagen type I fibres and the matrix is acidophilic. The tissue was taken from which of the
following regions of body?
a. intervertebral disc
b. Auditory tube
c. Epiglottis
d. Ear
e. Larynx

13. The type of cartilage found in intervertebral disks of the vertebral column is:
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Elastic cartilage
c. Yellow cartilage
d. Fibrocartilage

14. Which muscle tissue is multinucleate, voluntary and bears striations?

a. Skeletal muscle
b. Smooth muscle
c. Multiunit smooth muscle
d. Cardiac muscle

15. What cell is involved in bone resorption?

a. Osteoclast
b. Osteon
c. Osteocyte
d. Osteoblast
e. Osteoid

Gross Anatomy

16. Regarding the clavicle, all are correct except:

a. It is an example of the short bones
b. It is the first bone to ossify in the foetal life
c. It ossifies in membrane
d. It is the commonly fractured bone
e. It has no medullary cavity

17. The pectoralis major is inserted to which of the following?

a. Lateral lip of bicipital groove
b. Floor of bicipital groove
c. Greater tuberosity
d. Lesser tuberosity
e. Medial lip of bicipital groove
18. Which of the following best describes the relations of muscle with walls of axilla?
a. Anterior wall Pectoralis major, subclavius, and pectoralis minor muscles
b. Posterior wall Subclavius, serratus anterior, coracobrachialis
c. Medial wall Subscapularis, latissimus dorsi, and teres major
d. Lateral wall Trapezius, subscapularis, subclavius

19. Which of the following muscles attaches to the medial border of the scapula?
a. Rhomboid minor
b. Triceps brachii
c. Brachialis
d. Pectoralis major
e. Subclavius

20. In order to do the overhead abduction of the arm, which of following muscles comes in action first:
a. Supraspinatus
b. Deltoid
c. Serratus anterior
d. Pectoralis major
e. Teres major

21. In a crushing injury, a sixteen years old boy muscles present in floor of bicipital groove on humerus were crushed.
Which of following muscles were involved in injury?
a. Deltoid and biceps
b. Latissimus dorsi and biceps
c. Pectoralis major and teres major
d. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
e. Teres minor and teres major

22. Which muscle performs abduction at the shoulder joint?

a. Teres minor
b. Deltoid
c. Trapezius
d. Latissimus dorsi
e. Serratus anterior

23. In a crushing injury of arm the radial nerve is damaged. Which muscle is likely to lose its action?
a. Triceps brachii
b. Brachialis
c. Coracobrachialis
d. Biceps brachii
e. Supinator

24. Which muscle assists in extension of the forearm and resists abduction of the ulna during pronation of the forearm?
a. Anconeus
b. Triceps brachii
c. Coracobrachialis
d. Brachialis
e. Biceps brachii

25. To pronate the forearm, which of the following must occur?

a. The pronator quadratus initiates pronation, assisted later by the pronator teres
b. The pronator teres initiates pronation, assisted later by the pronator quadratus
c. The anconeus initiates pronation, assisted later by the pronator teres
d. The pronator quadratus initiates pronation, assisted later by the anconeus

26. Which of the following is correctly paired with its nerve?

a. Flexor pollicis longus and anterior interosseous nerve
b. Flexor digitorum profundus and anterior interosseous nerve
c. Extensor carpi radialis longus and posterior interosseous nerve
d. Brachioradialis and posterior interosseous nerve
e. Abductor pollicis longus and anterior interosseous nerve
27. Which of the following parts of the humerus is matched correctly with the nerve with which it is in direct contact?
a. Surgical neck Musculocutaneous nerve
b. Radial groove Median nerve
c. Medial epicondyle Ulnar nerve
d. Lateral epicondyle Axillary nerve

28. Winging of the scapula is caused by lesion of which of the following?

a. Long thoracic nerve
b. Thoracodorsal nerve
c. Suprascapular nerve
d. Dorsal scapular nerve
e. Lower subscapular nerve

29. Which of the following muscles is included in rotator cuff group?

a. Deltoid
b. Supraspinatus
c. Teres major
d. Serratus anterior
e. Levator scapulae

30. A patient tries to make a fist, but index and middle fingers remain partially extended. What nerve is injured?
a. Ulnar nerve
b. Radial nerve
c. Median nerve
d. Musculocutaneous nerve
e. Axillary nerve

31. Which of the following joints is paired correctly with its type?
a. Distal radioulnar joints Condyloid type
b. Radiocarpal joint Pivot type
c. Elbow joint Hinge type
d. Metacarpophalangeal joints Ball and socket type
e. Interphalangeal joints Condyloid type

32. A patient presents to the doctor in a condition in which he tries to make a fist, the index and to a lesser extent the
middle fingers tend to remain straight, whereas the ring and little fingers flex. This indicates injury to which of the
following nerve?
a. Median nerve
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Ulnar nerve

33. A patient presents to the doctor in a condition in which the muscles of the thenar eminence are paralyzed and wasted
so that the eminence is flattened. The hand looks flattened and apelike. Which of the following nerve is injured?
a. Median nerve
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Ulnar nerve

34. A patient presents to the doctor in a condition in which he is unable to make a tightly clenched. This indicates injury
to which of the following nerves?
a. Median nerve
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Ulnar nerve

35. A patient presents to the doctor in a condition in which he is unable to extend the elbow joint, the wrist joint, and
the fingers of his left hand. He explains that he took sleeping pills and slept with one left arm over the back of a
chair. This indicates injury to which of the following nerves?
a. Median nerve
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
 c. Radial nerve
d. Ulnar nerve

36. Extension at the knee joint is performed by which muscle?

a. Rectus femoris
b. Pectineus
c. Sartorius
d. Gracilis

37. The axillary artery begins at the lateral border of the first rib as a continuation of which of the following artery?
a. Subclavian
b. Vertebral
c. External carotid
d. Lateral thoracic
e. Subscapular

38. Which of the following branches is correctly paired with part of axillary artery from which these originate?
a. First part: Anterior circumflex humeral artery
b. First part: The thoracoacromial artery
c. Second part: The lateral thoracic artery
d. Second part: The subscapular artery

39. The extensor compartment of arm is supplied by which nerve?

a. Median
b. Ulnar
c. Radial
d. Anterior interosseous
e. Axillary

40. Which of the following nerve is correctly paired with cords of the brachial plexus?
a. Dorsal scapular nerve Posterior cord
b. Musculocutaneous nerve Lateral cord
c. Axillary nerve Medial and lateral cords
d. Long thoracic nerve Medial cord

41. In an injury to the posterior cord of brachial plexus which of following muscles will fail to act normally?
a. Long and medial heads of triceps muscle
b. Long and lateral heads of triceps muscle
c. Medial head of triceps only
d. Medial and lateral heads of triceps muscle

42. The surgeon wanted to explore cubital fossa. The contents of cubital fossa from medial to lateral are:
a. Bifurcation of the brachial artery, biceps muscle, deep branch of the radial nerve
b. Biceps muscle, bifurcation of the brachial artery, deep branch of the radial nerve
c. Deep branch of the radial nerve, bifurcation of the brachial artery, biceps muscle
d. Bifurcation of the brachial artery, deep branch of the radial nerve, biceps muscle

43. The rectus femoris muscle is attached to the:

a. Ischial tuberosity
b. Adductor tubercle
c. Linea aspera
d. Anterior inferior iliac spine
e. Ischial spine

44. The floor of the femoral triangle is formed by which one of the following muscles?
a. The pectineus
b. The sartorius
c. The rectus femoris
d. The gluteus maximus
e. The adductor brevis
45. A 47-year-old woman is unable to invert her foot. Which of the following nerves are most likely injured?
a. Superficial and deep peroneal
b. Deep peroneal and tibial
c. Superficial peroneal and tibial
d. Medial and lateral plantar
e. Obturator and tibial

46. Adductor canal contains:

a. Saphenous nerve
b. Saphenous vein
c. Femoral artery
d. Anterior tibial nerve
e. Femoral nerve

47. In an injury of lower limb femoral sheath was destroyed. Which of the following structure will be intact?
a. Femoral artery
b. Femoral vein
c. Genitofemoral nerve
d. Femoral nerve

48. A 21-year-old man falls from the attic and is brought to the emergency room. Examination and radiograph reveal
that the lateral longitudinal arch of his foot is flattened. Which of the following bones is displaced?
a. Talus
b. Third metatarsals
c. Navicular
d. Cuneiform
e. Cuboid

49. One of the muscle in third layer of sole of foot is:

a. Flexor digiti minimi
b. Tibialis posterior
c. Tibialis anterior
d. Adductor hallucis
e. Adductor brevis

50. Which of the following structures passes through the saphenous opening?
a. Femoral artery
b. Femoral vein
c. Femoral nerve
d. Saphenous nerve
e. Great saphenous vein

51. The adductor tubercle is located on which of the following bones?

a. Femur
b. Tibia
c. Fibula
d. Ischium
e. Ilium

52. Which of the following bones articulates with the fibula, tibia, calcaneus, and navicular?
a. Talus
b. Lateral cuneiform
c. Intermediate cuneiform
d. Medial cuneiform
e. Cuboid

53. Which One of the following can be classified as parallel muscle in body;
a. Biceps brachii
b. Brachioradialis
c. Flexor pollicis longus
d. Supinator
 e. Flexor digitorum longus

54. To prevent unwanted movements in an intermediate joint, groups of muscles contract and stabilize the intermediate
joints. These are known as
a. Synergists
b. Prime movers
c. Fixators
d. Antagonists

55. Deep palmer arch is deep to:

a. Tendons of flexor digitorum profundus
b. Palmar aponeurosis
c. Tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis
d. Ulnar bursa
e. Radial bursa

56. Musculocutaneous nerve:

a. Crosses the lower triangular space
b. Arises from the lateral cord of brachial plexus
c. Winds around the surgical neck of humerus
d. Supplies the triceps brachii muscles
e. It is only nerve in the limb to supply both muscles and skin

57. Flexor retinaculum is attached to:

a. Pisiform & hamate
b. Scaphoid & trapezium
c. Styloid processes of radius & ulna
d. Scaphoid, trapezium, pisiform & hook of hamate
e. Styloid processes, scaphoid & pisiform

58. A 20-year-old man suffers an injury to the ulnar nerve above the wrist causing loss of innervation to the hand
muscles. Select the muscle likely to be affected.
a. Abductor pollicis longus
b. Flexor pollicis brevis
c. Adductor pollicis
d. Radial two lumbricals
e. 2nd and 3rd lumbrical

59. Which of the following muscles has intra-capsular tendon?

a. Brachialis
b. Subscapularis
c. Long head of triceps
d. Biceps brachii
e. Supraspinatus

60. The shoulder joint:

a. Is highly stable joint
b. Is bi-axial joint
c. Is most commonly dislocated inferiorly
d. Has one intra capsular ligament
e. Is extended by trapezius

61. Most important muscles for overhead abduction include:

a. Levator scapulae & trapezius
b. Deltoid & trapezius
c. Deltoid & serratus anterior
d. Serratus anterior & trapezius
e. Deltoid, serratus anterior & trapezius

62. Thenar muscle inserted at 1st metacarpal:

a. Abductor pollicis brevis
 b. Flexor pollicis brevis
c. Opponens pollicis
d. Transverse head of adductor pollicis
e. Oblique head of adductor pollicis

63. Bursa opening in shoulder joint:

a. Supraspinatus
b. Infraspinatus
c. Sub-acromial
d. Subscapular
e. Radial

64. Vein piercing clavipectoral fascia is:

a. Basilic
b. Axillary
c. Cephalic
d. Acromiothoracic
e. Subscapular

65. Vincula tendinum:

a. Are fibrous bands for attachment of tendons
b. Are present outside the fibrous flexor sheaths
c. Provide nutrition to phalanges
d. Provide nutrition to tendons
e. Carry blood vessels to tendons and are of two types

66. Axial lines of dermatomes:

a. Separate discontinuous dermatomes
b. Demarcate the axis of limb
c. Are important parameters to determine carryings angle
d. Are 3 in number
e. Can be dissected in cadaver

67. Suspensory ligament of the axilla is:

a. Formed by axillary tail of breast
b. Pierced by cephalic vein
c. Part of cervicoaxillary sheath
d. Part of clavipectoral fascia
e. Called so as it supports the nerves and vessels in the axilla

68. Branches of radial artery in hand include:

a. First dorsal metacarpal, princeps pollicis & radialis indicis
b. Princeps pollicis & radialis indicis
c. All dorsal metacarpals, princeps pollicis & radialis indicis
d. Palmar metacarpals
e. Recurrent & dorsal metacarpals

69. A patient comes to OPD with itching, pain and vesicle formation in the pulp of ring finger. Diagnosed as a case of
whitlow. The pain sensation is carried by:
a. Radial nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Median & ulnar nerves
e. Median, ulnar & radial nerves

70. In sharp cut of deep palmar arch, blood spurts from both ends. Best emergency measure to stop bleeding is:
a. Compress the radial artery as the arch is continuation of same
b. Compress ulnar artery as it gives a branch to complete the arch
c. Place ice or pour cold water on the injured vessel for vasoconstriction
d. Compress radial and ulnar arteries
e. Compress brachial artery in mid arm against humerus
71. The median cubital vein:
a. Lies in cubital fossa
b. Joins cephalic & basilic veins
c. Joins cephalic & basilic veins & is usual site for intravenous injections
d. Lies deep to bicipital aponeurosis
e. Is connected to deep veins by perforating veins

72. Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb:

a. Is between first metacarpal and trapezoid
b. Being multi axial, is ball and socket type
c. Is bi-axial
d. Is synovial joint of saddle variety
e. Is atypical synovial joint

73. Anatomical snuff box is related to:

a. Radial artery, cephalic vein and superficial branch of radial nerve
b. Radial artery and cephalic vein
c. Radial artery and superficial branch of radial nerve
d. Radial artery, superficial branch of radial nerve and basilic vein
e. Cephalic vein and superficial branch of radial nerve

74. Circumduction can take place at:

a. Wrist and shoulder joints
b. Shoulder and carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
c. Shoulder joint only
d. Carpometacarpal joint of thumb only
e. 1st carpometacarpal, wrist & shoulder joints

75. Radial artery in hand:

a. Passes between 2 heads of 1st dorsal interosseous and 2 heads of adductor pollicis
b. Crosses the wrist superficial to flexor retinaculum
c. Passes superficial to tendons of anatomical snuff box
d. Gives four dorsal metacarpal arteries
e. Terminates on dorsum of hand

76. Wrist drop is due to injury to the:

a. Superficial branch of radial nerve
b. Articular branches of radial nerve
c. Branch of radial nerve to brachialis
d. Anterior interosseous nerve
e. Radial nerve in spiral groove

77. Anastomosis around scapula is between:

a. Subscapular & axillary arteries
b. Circumflex scapular & axillary arteries
c. Subclavian & brachial arteries
d. Subclavian & axillary arteries
e. Subclavian & circumflex humeral arteries

78. In Klumpkes palsy there is damage to:

a. C5, C6 fibres
b. C5, C6, C7 fibres
c. C8, T1 fibres
d. T1 fibres
e. C8 fibres

79. The aperture in lower part of interosseous membrane is for passage of:
a. Profunda brachii vessels
b. Anterior interosseous vessels
c. Posterior interosseous vessels
d. Radial and ulnar vessels
 e. Radial and ulnar nerves

80. A patient comes to the OPD with injury in the palm leading to flexion of ring and little fingers. Diagnosed as a case
of Dupuytrens contracture which is a localized thickening of:
a. Palmar aponeurosis
b. Fibrous flexor sheaths
c. Flexor retinaculum
d. Deep fascia of forearm
e. Extensor expansions

81. Sub acromial bursa is between sub-acromial arch and:

a. Tendon of subscapularis
b. Tendon of supraspinatus
c. Tendon of infraspinatus
d. Anterior fibres of deltoid
e. Posterior fibres of deltoid

82. A 6-year-old boy, running along a concrete path with a glass jar in his hand, slipped and fell. The glass from the
broken jar pierced the skin on the front of his left wrist. There was loss of skin sensation over the lateral half of the
palm and the palmar aspect of the lateral three and a half fingers. Which nerve was damaged?
a. Median nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Superficial branch of radial nerve
e. Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve

83. The sensory innervation of the medial side of the palm is the:
a. Palmar cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve
b. Dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve
c. Superficial branch of radial nerve
d. Deep branch of branch of the radial nerve

84. Which of the following muscle tendons is most likely to be damaged due to destruction of the groove in the medial
cuneiform bone?
a. Flexor hallucis longus
b. Peroneus brevis
c. Peroneus longus
d. Tibialis anterior
e. Tibialis posterior

85. A 27-year-old baseball player is hit on his forearm by a high-speed ball, and the muscle that form the lateral
boundary of the cubital fossa appears to be torn. Which of the following muscles may lose its functions?
a. Brachioradialis
b. Brachialis
c. Pronator teres
d. pronator quadratus
e. Supinator

86. A 42-year-old woman presents to an outpatient clinic with a 6-month history of numbness and tingling on the palmar
aspect of her lateral three and one-half fingers, loss of pronation, and flattening of the thenar eminence. Injury to
which of the following nerves could cause such a condition?
a. Axillary nerve
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
c. Median nerve
d. Radial nerve
e. Ulnar nerve

87. A 38-year-old homebuilder was involved in an accident and is unable to supinate his forearm. Which of the
following nerves are most likely to be damaged?
a. Suprascapular and axillary
b. Musculocutaneous and median
 c. Axillary and radial
d. Radial and musculocutaneous
e. Median and ulnar

88. A 31-year-old patient complains of sensory loss over the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial third of the
hand and the medial one and one-half fingers. Which of the following nerves is injured?
a. Axillary
b. Radial
c. Median
d. Ulnar
e. Musculocutaneous

89. A man is unable to hold typing paper between his index and middle fingers. Injury to which nerve can produce this
feature?
a. Radial nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Musculocutaneous nerve

90. The victim of an automobile accident sustained an injury of the proximal row of carpal bones. Which of the
following bones is spared?
a. Scaphoid
b. Lunate
c. Triquetral
d. Pisiform
e. Hamate

91. A patient has a torn rotator cuff of the shoulder joint as the result of an automobile accident. Which of the following
muscle tendons will remain intact and retain normal function?
a. Supraspinatus
b. Subscapularis
c. Teres major
d. Teres minor
e. Infraspinatus

92. Which of the following bones articulates with the fibula, tibia, calcaneus and navicular?
a. Talus
b. Lateral cuneiform
c. Intermediate cuneiform
d. Medial cuneiform
e. Cuboid

93. Which of the following is classified as bipennate muscles in the body?

a. 1st palmar interosseous
b. Brachioradialis
c. Flexor pollicis longus
d. Supinator
e. Flexor digitorum longus

94. The muscles which contract isometrically to stabilize the origin of the prime movers are known as:
a. Synergists
b. Prime movers
c. Fixators
d. Antagonists

95. The inferior ulnar collateral artery is a branch of the:

a. Superior thoracic
b. Radial
c. Brachial
d. Axillary
e. Thoracoacromial
96. One of the muscles in third layer of sole of foot is:
a. Flexor digiti minimi
b. Tibialis posterior
c. Tibialis anterior
d. Adductor hallucis
e. Adductor brevis

97. In the scapula, Deltoid is attached to the:

a. Acromion
b. Coracoid process
c. Spine
d. Inferior angle
e. Suprascapular notch

98. Which of the following nerves leaves the cubital fossa between the two heads of pronator teres?
a. Median
b. Ulnar
c. Radial
d. Musculocutaneous

99. Which of the following muscles traverses the greater sciatic foramen?
a. Gluteus medius
b. Gluteus minimus
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Quadratus femoris
e. Piriformis

100. Which of the following structures forms the floor of femoral triangle?
a. Iliopsoas
b. Sartorius
c. Adductor longus muscle
d. Ilioinguinal nerve
e. femoral artery

101. Adductor canal contains:

a. Saphenous nerve
b. Saphenous vein
c. Femoral artery
d. Anterior tibial nerve
e. Femoral nerve

102. In an injury of lower limb, femoral sheath was destroyed. Which of the following structures will remain intact?
a. Femoral artery
b. Femoral vein
c. Genitofemoral nerve
d. Femoral nerve

103. A victim of an automobile accident is unable to abduct her left arm. This indicates damage to which of the
following parts of the brachial plexus?
a. Middle trunk and posterior cord
b. Middle trunk and lateral cord
c. Lower trunk and lateral cord
d. Upper trunk and posterior cord
e. Lower trunk and medial cord

104. A 14-year-old boy falls on his outstretched hand and has a fracture of the scaphoid bone. The scaphoid bone is
in the floor of anatomical snuff box. The fracture is most likely accompanied by a rupture of which of the following
arteries?
a. Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar artery
b. Ulnar artery
c. Deep palmar arterial arch
 d. Radial artery
e. Princeps pollicis artery

105. A 12-year-old boy walks in emergency department. he had fallen off a tree and fractured the shaft and medial
epicondyle of humerus. All nerves intimately related to the humerus are most likely to be injured by such a fracture.
Which of the following nerves is spared?
a. Musculocutaneous
b. Ulnar
c. Radial
d. Median

106. A man injures his wrist on broken glass. Which of the following structures entering the palm deep to the flexor
retinaculum may be damaged?
a. Flexor digitorum superficialis
b. Palmaris longus
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Ulnar artery
e. Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve

107. After a major abdominal operation, a patient was given a course of antibiotics by intramuscular injections. The
nurse was instructed to give the injections into the right buttock. In order to avoid injury to sciatic nerve the ideal
site for injection on the right buttock should be:
a. Upper outer quadrant
b. Upper inner quadrant
c. Lower inner quadrant
d. Lower outer quadrant

108. Which structure prevents dislocation of the femur backward at the knee joint?
a. Posterior cruciate ligament
b. Anterior cruciate ligament
c. Medial collateral ligament
d. Lateral collateral ligament
e. Tendon of the popliteus muscle

109. The radial artery lies just lateral to the tendon of:
a. Pronator teres
b. Flexor carpi radialis
c. Palmaris longus
d. Flexor carpi ulnaris
e. Flexor digitorum superficialis

110. The palmaris longus tendon is a useful guide to which nerve at the wrist?
a. Anterior interosseous nerve
b. Posterior interosseous nerve
c. Median nerve
d. Ulnar nerve
e. Radial nerve

111. Which of the following is derived from the radial artery?

a. Dorsal carpal artery
b. Common interosseous artery
c. Anterior interosseous artery
d. Posterior interosseous artery
e. Ulnar recurrent artery

112. Which of the following joints is paired correctly with its type?
a. Proximal and distal radioulnar joints Condyloid
b. Atlantoaxial joint Pivot
c. Shoulder joint Ellipsoid
d. Metacarpophalangeal joints Hinge type
e. Interphalangeal joints Cartilaginous
113. The suprascapular nerve originates from which part of the brachial plexus?
a. Medial cord
b. Lower trunk
c. Posterior cord
d. Lateral cord
e. Upper trunk

114. The trapezius attaches to which of the following regions of the clavicle?
a. Lateral one-third of the clavicle
b. Conoid tubercle
c. Subclavian groove
d. Trapezoid line
e. Quadrangular tubercle

115. Which of the following describes the correct order of the distal row of carpals from lateral to medial?
a. triquetrum, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
b. trapezoid, trapezium, capitate, hamate
c. trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
d. trapezium, triquetrum, capitate, hamate
e. scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform

116. Which of the following muscles attaches to the coracoid process of the scapula?
a. pectoralis minor
b. triceps brachii
c. brachialis
d. pectoralis major
e. subclavius

117. Which of the following arteries passes through the gap between the fibula and tibia at the upper end of the
interosseous membrane?
a. Popliteal
b. Posterior tibial
c. Anterior tibial
d. Peroneal
e. Lateral inferior genicular

118. An infection of adductor canal will lead to damage the enclosed structures. Which of the following structures
will not be affected?
a. Femoral artery
b. Femoral vein
c. Saphenous nerve
d. Great saphenous vein
e. Nerve to the vastus medialis

119. The median nerve originates from which part of the brachial plexus?
a. Medial and lateral cord
b. Medial cord
c. Posterior cord
d. Upper and lower trunk
e. Lateral cord

120. Which nerve lies between the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis and flexor digitorum superficialis, overlapped
by the palmaris longus at the level of wrist?
a. Median
b. Ulnar
c. Radial
d. Axillary
e. Long thoracic

121. A 21-year-old man was involved in a motorcycle accident, resulting in destruction of the groove in the lower
surface of the cuboid bone. Which of the following muscle tendons is most likely to be damaged?
 a. Flexor hallucis longus
b. Peroneus brevis
c. Peroneus longus
d. Tibialis anterior
e. Tibialis posterior

122. A woman experiences weakness when abducting and medially rotating the thigh after an accident. Which of the
following muscles is most likely to be damaged?
a. Piriformis
b. Obturator internus
c. Quadratus femoris
d. Gluteus maximus
e. Gluteus minimus

123. An elderly woman fell at home and fractured the greater trochanter of her femur. Which of the following muscles
would continue to function normally?
a. Piriformis
b. Obturator internus
c. Gluteus medius
d. Gluteus maximus
e. Gluteus minimus

124. In walking, the hip bone of the suspended leg is raised by which of the following muscles acting on the supported
side of the body?
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Obturator internus
c. Gluteus medius
d. Obturator externus
e. Quadratus femoris

125. Which of the following muscles dorsiflexes the foot at the ankle joint?
a. Peroneus longus
b. Extensor digitorum brevis
c. Tibialis posterior
d. Extensor hallucis brevis
e. Tibialis anterior

126. A patient was admitted in a hospital with right shoulder joint injury. He was unable to perform extension at the
shoulder joint. Which of the following group of muscles was damaged?
a. Deltoid, latissimus dorsi, teres major
b. Pectoralis major, biceps, coracobrachialis
c. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, teres minor
d. Subscapularis, teres major, deltoid
e. Rhomboid major, teres major, deltoid

127. A patient comes in with a gunshot wound and requires surgery in which his thoracoacromial trunk needs to be
ligated. Which of the following arterial branches would maintain normal blood flow?
a. Acromial
b. Pectoral
c. Clavicular
d. Deltoid
e. Superior thoracic

128. A 29-year-old man comes in with multiple stab wounds at the level of axilla. He is unable to raise his arm above
horizontal, and exhibits a condition known as winged scapula. Which of the following structures of the brachial
plexus are most likely to be damaged?
a. Medial cord
b. Posterior cord
c. Lower trunk
d. Roots
e. Upper trunk
129. A 12-year-old boy walks in the emergency department. he has fallen off a tree and fractured the upper portion
of his humerus. Which of the following nerves are intimately related to the humerus and are most likely to be injured
by such a fracture?
a. Axillary and musculocutaneous
b. Radial and ulnar
c. Radial and axillary
d. Median and musculocutaneous
e. Median and ulnar

130. A 31-year-old patient complains of sensory loss over the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial third of
the hand and the medial one and one-half fingers. Which of the following nerves is injured?
a. Axillary
b. Radial
c. Median
d. Ulnar
e. Deep branch of radial

131. A man is unable to hold typing paper between his index and middle fingers. Injury to which nerve can produce
this feature?
a. Radial nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Musculocutaneous nerve

132. A patient is unable to flex the arm and forearm. Where is the lesion likely to be?
a. Ventral rami of C3, C4
b. Ventral rami of C5, C6, C7
c. Dorsal rami of C6, C7, C8
d. Ventral rami of C8, T1
e. Dorsal rami of T1

133. The radial nerve innervates muscles in the extensor compartment of the forearm, but it also innervates the
following muscle:
a. Brachioradialis
b. Pronator teres
c. Palmaris longus
d. Pronator quadratus
e. Flexor digitorum superficialis

134. The medial and lateral malleoli articulate with which of the following bones?
a. Cuneiform
b. Calcaneus
c. Talus
d. Cuboid
e. Fibula

135. The medial compartment of leg is supplied by which nerve?

a. Femoral
b. Deep peroneal
c. Obturator
d. Common peroneal
e. Superficial peroneal

136. An injury to the thoracodorsal nerve will affect the strength of which of the following movements?
a. Adduction of the scapula
b. Elevation of the scapula
c. Abduction of the arm
d. Extension of the arm
e. Lateral rotation of the arm

137. The adductor longus attaches to which of the following regions of the femur?
 a. Linea aspera
b. Greater trochanter
c. Lesser trochanter
d. Neck

138. Which of the following best describes the relations of muscle with walls of axilla?
a. Anterior wall Pectoralis major
b. Posterior wall Subclavius
c. Medial wall Pectoralis minor
d. Lateral wall Trapezius

139. Which of the following muscles attaches to the coracoid process of the scapula?
a. Pectoralis minor
b. Triceps brachii
c. Brachialis
d. Pectoralis major
e. Subclavius

140. In order to do the overhead abduction of the arm many muscles participate. The muscle which ends the event:
a. Serratus anterior
b. Deltoid
c. Supraspinatus
d. Teres minor
e. Rhomboid major

141. Which muscle assists in flexion of knee and plantar flexion of foot?
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Tibialis anterior
c. Flexor hallucis longus
d. Flexor digitorum longus
e. Tibialis posterior

142. A patient tries to make a fist, but digits 2 and 3 remain partially extended. What nerve is injured?
a. Ulnar nerve
b. Radial nerve
c. Median nerve
d. Musculocutaneous nerve
e. Axillary nerve

143. A 25-year-old gladiator sustains a penetrating injury that severs the superficial peroneal nerve. This will cause
paralysis of which of the following muscles?
a. Peroneus tertius
b. Peroneus brevis
c. Flexor hallucis longus
d. Tibialis anterior
e. Tibialis posterior

144. An orthopaedic surgeon ligates the posterior tibial artery at its origin. Which of the following arteries has no
blood flow immediately after the ligation?
a. Peroneal
b. Dorsalis pedis
c. Superior medial genicular
d. Anterior tibial
e. Descending genicular

145. The obturator nerve and the sciatic (tibial portion) nerve of a 15-year-old boy are transacted as a result of a
motorcycle accident. This injury will result in complete paralysis of which of the following muscles?
a. Rectus femoris
b. Biceps femoris
c. Pectineus
d. Adductor magnus
 e. Sartorius

146. A fracture of the head and neck of the fibula will lead to damage of which of the following nerves?
a. Sciatic
b. Tibial
c. Common peroneal
d. Deep peroneal
e. Superficial peroneal

147. An elderly woman fell at home and fractured the gluteal tuberosity of her femur. Which of the following muscles
would lose its function?
a. Piriformis
b. Obturator internus
c. Gluteus medius
d. Gluteus maximus
e. Gluteus minimus

148. A 34 Years old man suffered a humeral fracture and now is unable to abduct his arm and loss of sensation over
upper lateral aspect of arm, which nerve is damaged?
a. Median nerve
b. Radial nerve
c. Musculocutaneous
d. Ulnar nerve
e. Axillary nerve

149. The weight of appendicular Skelton (upper limb) is transmitted to axial skeleton by the help of which of
following ligament?
a. Coracoacromial ligament
b. Coracoclavicular ligament
c. Costoclavicular ligament
d. Coracohumeral ligament
e. Glenohumeral ligament

150. Which of the following muscle crosses the wrist joint?

a. Extensor digitorum
b. Brachioradialis
c. Pronator teres
d. None of above

151. Regarding interosseous membrane all of the following are true except:
a. Provide attachments to muscles
b. Joins interosseous borders of radius and ulna
c. Fibres run obliquely downward and medially
d. Fibres are taut when the forearm is pronated
e. Transmit forces from lower end of ulna at wrist to upper end of radius

152. A patient has torn his rotator cuff as a result of and RTA (road traffic accident). Which of the following muscle
is intact and has normal function?
a. Supraspinatus
b. Subscapularis
c. Teres major
d. Teres minor
e. Infraspinatus

153. A mountain climber falls on his shoulder result in chipping of the arrowed structure of the bone. Which of the
following Structure would most likely to be damaged?
a. Supraspinatus muscle
b. Coracohumeral ligament
c. Subscapularis muscle
d. Teres minor muscle
e. Infraspinatus muscle
154. Generally, all the extensors of arm and forearm are supplied by the radial nerve. Which of the following muscle
is not the extensor and yet has radial nerve innervation?
a. Supinator muscle
b. Pronator teres muscle
c. Brachialis muscle
d. Brachioradialis muscle
e. Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle

155. A 10 years old boy falls off his bike, has difficulty in moving his shoulder and is brought to an emergency
department. His radiogram and angiogram reveal fracture of surgical neck of his humerus and bleeding from the
point of fracture. This accident most likely leads to damage of which of the following arteries?
a. Axillary artery
b. Brachial artery
c. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
d. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
e. Superior ulnar collateral artery

156. In the same scenario (given in last question), following the accident, the boy has weakness in rotating arm
laterally. Which of the following muscles are paralyzed?
a. Teres major and teres minor
b. Teres minor and deltoid
c. Infraspinatus and deltoid
d. Supraspinatus and Subscapularis
e. Teres minor and infraspinatus

157. A 21-year-old man injures his arm in RTA. Radiographic examination reveals a fracture of the medial
epicondyle of the humerus. Which of the following muscle is most likely paralyzed as a result of this accident?
a. Extensor pollicis brevis
b. Abductor pollicis longus
c. Abductor pollicis brevis
d. Adductor pollicis
e. Opponens pollicis

158. An 18-year-old patient has been improperly fitted with axillary-type crutches, which have put pressure on the
posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Which of the following terminal nerves would most likely be affected?
a. Axillary nerve
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
c. Median nerve
d. Radial nerve
e. Ulnar nerve

159. A 23-year-old accountant trips over a briefcase and falls onto his outstretched hand. A carpal bone fracture is
suspected. Which of the following bones is most likely fractured?
a. Scaphoid
b. Lunate
c. Triquetrum
d. Pisiform
e. Capitate

160. A 24-year-old male slips on a banana peel and falls onto his outstretched hand. Which of the following structures
transmits the force from the radius to the ulna?
a. Triangular fibrocartilage
b. Interosseous membrane
c. Scaphoid bone
d. Ulnar collateral ligament
e. Radial collateral ligament

161. A patient with a severe tear of the medial collateral ligament of the wrist would likely display which of the
following increased wrist movements?
a. Flexion
b. Extension
 c. Abduction
d. Adduction
e. Pronation

162. If the median nerve were severed in an industrial accident at the wrist, which of the following muscles would
still retain their function?
a. Flexor pollicis brevis
b. Abductor pollicis brevis
c. Opponens pollicis
d. Lumbricals of the index and middle fingers
e. Lumbricals of the ring and little fingers

163. As you are explaining carpal tunnel syndrome to a woman who has the condition, shown where the median
nerve is located just as it is about to enter the tunnel. Where is the median nerve located?
a. Just lateral to the flexor carpi radialis tendon
b. Must medial to the flexor carpi radialis tendon
c. Just medial to the flexor palmaris longus tendon
d. Just lateral to the flexor carpi ulnaris tendon
e. Just medial to the flexor carpi ulnaris tendon

164. A college baseball pitcher has shoulder discomfort and you suspect a rotator cuff tear. You will most likely see
damage to the tendon of which of the following muscles?
a. Supraspinatus
b. Infraspinatus
c. Subscapularis
d. Teres major
e. Teres minor

165. The inferior surface of the clavicle gives attachment to all of the following except:
a. Conoid ligament
b. Trapezoid ligament
c. Costoclavicular ligament
d. Pectoralis major muscle
e. Subclavius muscle

166. One of the following is a branch of the second part of the axillary artery.
a. Lateral thoracic artery
b. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
c. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
d. Superior thoracic artery
e. Subscapular artery

167. The anterior wall of the axilla is formed by all of the following except:
a. Pectoralis major
b. Teres major
c. Pectoralis minor
d. Subclavius
e. Clavipectoral fascia

168. A 42-year-old visits his doctor with complaint of tingling sensation in the 1st, 2nd & 3rd digits of the right hand
& loss of coordination & strength of the right thumb. Which of the following nerves has most likely been affected?
a. Anterior interosseous nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Musculocutaneous nerve
d. Radial nerve
e. Ulnar nerve

169. A patient complains to his physician that his thumb doesnt work right. The physician notes weakness of the
thumb in extension, although rotation, flexion, abduction, adduction and opposition are normal. Which of the
following nerves is most likely involved?
a. Median & radial
 b. Median & ulnar
c. Median only
d. Radial only
e. Ulnar only

170. In walking, the hip bone of the suspended leg is raised by which of the following muscles acting on the supported
side of the body?
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Obturator internus
c. Gluteus medius
d. Obturator externus
e. Quadratus femoris

171. Which of the following arteries provides the main blood supply for the hip joint?
a. Obturator
b. Medial circumflex
c. Lateral circumflex
d. Common iliac
e. Internal iliac

172. Which one of the following muscle in the powerful push-off muscle?
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Soleus
c. Tibialis anterior
d. Flexor hallucis longus
e. Plantaris

173. Muscles that evert the foot include which of the following muscles?
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Soleus
c. Tibialis posterior
d. Fibularis brevis
e. Flexor digitorum longus

174. Which of the following muscles contract to assist the posterior cruciate ligament in preventing anterior
displacement of the femur on the tibia?
a. Plantaris
b. Popliteus
c. Soleus
d. Gastrocnemius
e. Tibialis posterior

175. The oblique popliteal ligament is an expansion of the tendon of which of the following muscles?
a. Popliteus
b. Plantaris
c. Adductor magnus
d. Semimembranosus
e. Gastrocnemius

176. A 15-year-old girl suffers numerous pelvic injuries, including tearing of the sarcotuberous ligament. The
damage to this ligament will not likely cause direct trauma to which of the following muscles?
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Gluteus medius
c. Gluteus minimus
d. Germelli
e. Obturator externus

177. When standing upright, the femur moves into the locked position by slightly hyperextending, gliding posteriorly
and medially rotating on the tibial planteaus. Which of the following muscles acts to initiate the unlocking of the
knee?
a. Biceps femoris
 b. Gastrocnemius
c. Popliteus
d. Sartorius
e. Plantaris

178. A young man suffers dislocation of the right hip. During recovery, his developed an abnormal gait in which his
left hip sinks when he lifts that foot to take a step. The problem may be the result of damage to which of the following
structures?
a. Right gluteus maximus and inferior gluteal nerve
b. Left gluteus maximus and superior gluteal nerve
c. Left gluteus medius and inferior gluteal nerve
d. Right gluteus medius and superior gluteal nerve
e. Right gluteus minimus and inferior gluteal nerve

179. A man working in a junkyard trips and falls into the pile of scrap metal, suffering a deep cut immediately
posterior to lateral malleolus. Which of the following is most likely to be injured?
a. Saphenous nerve
b. Tendon of the fibularis (peroneus) tenuis
c. Tendon of the fibularis (peroneus) longus
d. Posterior tibial artery
e. Great saphenous vein
 RESPIRATORY MODULE
Embryology

1. The respiratory system is an outgrowth of:

a. Lateral wall of foregut
b. Ventral wall of foregut
c. Sixth pharyngeal arch
d. Fourth pharyngeal arch
e. Lateral walls of pharynx

2. Which of the following describes development of the lungs, in order?

a. Pseudo-glandular period, canalicular period, terminal sac period, alveolar period
b. Canalicular period, pseudo-glandular period, terminal sac period, alveolar period
c. Alveolar period, pseudo-glandular period, canalicular period, terminal sac period
d. Pseudo-glandular period, terminal sac period, alveolar period, canalicular period
e. Terminal sac period, alveolar period, pseudo-glandular period, canalicular period

3. During its early development, the septum transversum grows dorsally from the ventrolateral body wall and forms a
semi-circular shelf, which separates liver from the:
a. Heart
b. Lungs
c. Pancreas
d. Gall bladder
e. Oesophagus

4. Fusion of Pleuroperitoneal Membranes with the dorsal mesentery of the oesophagus and the septum transversum
completes the partition between:
a. The thoracic and abdominal cavities
b. Abdominal and pericardial cavities
c. Abdominal and pleural cavities
d. Pericardial and peritoneal cavities
e. Abdominal and mediastinal cavities

5. During development, the phrenic nerves move:

a. Caudally
b. Ventrally
c. Proximally
d. Medially
e. Laterally

6. On microscopic examination of developing lung which structure confirms that it corresponds to canalicular period
of lung maturation?
a. Presence of respiratory bronchioles
b. Close proximity of capillaries with alveoli
c. Presence of alveoli
d. Presence of alveolar ducts
e. Presence of terminal bronchioles

7. Myoblasts that grow into the dorsal mesentery of the oesophagus contribute to which part of developing diaphragm?
a. Crura
b. Central tendon
c. Right dome
d. Left dome
e. Posterior half

8. Laryngeal cartilages develop from the mesoderm of:

a. 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal pouch
b. 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch
c. 3rd and 6th pharyngeal pouch
d. 4th and 6th pharyngeal pouch
 e. 5th and 6th pharyngeal pouch

9. Before the development of lungs diaphragm lies at the level of:

a. Cervical 2, 3 and 4 segments
b. Cervical 3, 4 and 5 segments
c. Cervical 4, 5 and 6 segments
d. Cervical 5, 6 and 7 segments
e. Cervical 6, 7 and 8 segments

10. Laryngeal atresia is the result of failure of recanalization during:

a. 7th week of development
b. 8th week of development
c. 9th week of development
d. 10th week of development
e. 11th week of development

11. Development of ribs:

a. Develop from mesenchyme
b. Develop from costal process
c. Chondrification occurs in the embryonic period
d. Primary centres of ossification appear in the shaft
e. Two secondary centres of ossification appear at the head and tubercle

12. Laryngo-tracheal groove:

a. Appears in the 3rd week
b. Appears in the floor the pharynx
c. Appears distal to the tongue
d. Appears in the medial part of 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches
e. Appears in the 4th week in the pharynx

13. Pleura is derived from:

a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Parietal from body wall mesoderm and visceral from mesoderm covering lung buds
d. Somatic mesoderm
e. Splanchnic mesoderm

14. A child is born at 34 weeks with rapid and shallow respiration. Diagnosed as a case of respiratory distress syndrome.
What is the cause?
a. Cystic disease of lungs
b. Hypoplasia of lungs
c. Surfactant deficiency
d. Injured pulmonary epithelium

15. For an infant to be viable, divisions of bronchial tree are completed by:
a. 26 weeks
b. 7th week
c. Just before birth
d. Just after birth
e. 36 weeks

16. On microscopic examination of developing lung which structure confirms that it corresponds to canalicular period
of lung maturation?
a. Presence of respiratory bronchioles
b. Close proximity of capillaries with alveoli
c. Presence of alveoli
d. Presence of alveolar ducts
e. Presence of terminal bronchioles

17. The respiratory system is an outgrowth of:

a. Lateral wall of foregut
 b. Ventral wall of foregut
c. Sixth pharyngeal arch
d. Fourth pharyngeal arch
e. Lateral walls of pharynx

Histology

18. The most abundant cells in respiratory epithelium are:

a. Ciliated columnar cells
b. Mucous goblet cells
c. Basal cells
d. Small granule cells
e. Cells of diffuse neuro endocrine system

19. Epithelium of trachea is:

a. Simple columnar
b. Cuboidal
c. Pseudostratified columnar
d. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
e. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar with goblet cells

20. Respiratory bronchioles:

a. Have alveoli forming part of their walls
b. Are part of conducting system
c. Contain columnar cells in their walls
d. Contain goblet cells in their walls
e. Do not allow gaseous exchange

21. The respiratory division of respiratory tract includes all except:

a. Respiratory bronchiole
b. Alveolar sac
c. Alveolar duct
d. Terminal bronchioles
e. Alveoli

22. The recoil capacity of whole lung including alveoli is best served by:
a. Elastic fibres
b. Reticular fibres
c. Collagen fibres
d. Clara cells
e. Cilia

23. Which of the following is present in the wall of a respiratory bronchiole?

a. Cartilage
b. Submucosal glands
c. Pseudostratified epithelium
d. Smooth muscles
e. Type II pneumocytes

24. The trachea contains all of the following, except:

a. Serous glands
b. Pseudostratified epithelium
c. Cartilage
d. Dust cells
e. Smooth muscles

25. The primary function of type II pneumocytes is to:

a. Produce mucus
b. Give support to alveoli
c. Secrete surfactant
d. Transport of gases
26. While describing the histology of trachea, teacher tells the student that its posterior wall is deficient and the cartilage
is replaced by:
a. Epithelium
b. Smooth muscle
c. Connective Tissue
d. Mucus glands

27. Histologically, a transition of epithelium is observed in moving from conducting to respiratory part of the lung. It
is from simple cuboidal to:
a. Simple columnar
b. Simple squamous
c. Pseudostratified columnar
d. Stratified cuboidal

Gross Anatomy

28. Thoracic walls are lined inside by:

a. Parietal pleura
b. Pericardium
c. Peritoneum
d. Supra-pleural membrane
e. Visceral pleura

29. The imaginary plane demarcating the superior from the inferior mediastinum passes through the sternal angle and
lower border of:
a. 1st thoracic vertebra
b. 2nd thoracic vertebra
c. 3rd thoracic vertebra
d. 4th thoracic vertebra
e. 5th thoracic vertebra

30. A thoracic surgeon has entered the right pleural cavity and excised two suspicious lymph nodes at the hilum of the
right lung. These nodes belong to which of the following lymph node groups?
a. Parasternal
b. Paratracheal
c. Superior tracheobronchial
d. Inferior tracheobronchial
e. Bronchopulmonary

31. Which of the following structures belongs to the conducting portion of the respiratory system?
a. Terminal bronchiole
b. Alveolar duct
c. Respiratory bronchiole
d. Alveolar sac
e. Alveolar pore

32. Trachea begins at the lower border of which of the following cartilages?
a. Cricoid
b. Thyroid
c. Arytenoid
d. Coarticulate
e. Cuneiform

33. In contrast with the left one, the right primary bronchus is:
a. Shorter, wider and straight
b. Longer, wider and straight
c. Shorter, narrow and straight
d. Longer, narrow and straight

34. The right bronchial artery may arise from aorta or:
a. Posterior superior intercostal artery
 b. Costocervical trunk
c. Brachiocephalic trunk
d. Third part of subclavian artery
e. Thyrocervical trunk

35. Location of cardiac notch is in the:

a. Superior lobe of the right lung
b. Middle lobe of the right lung
c. Inferior lobe of the right lung
d. Superior lobe of the left lung
e. Inferior lobe of the left lung

36. Stab injury to a patient injured a vein which opens directly into superior vena cava. This vein is:
a. Coronary vein
b. Middle cardiac vein
c. Azygos vein
d. Great cardiac vein
e. Hemizygous vein

37. Which of the following structures articulates with articular tubercle of a rib:
a. Body of the vertebra
b. Costal cartilage
c. Adjacent rib
d. Sternum
e. Transverse process

38. The groove on the clavicle for the subclavian artery is located:
a. Posterior to the scalene tubercle
b. On the inferior surface of clavicle
c. Anterior to scalene tubercle
d. At the sternal angle
e. At the angle of the 1st rib

39. Which of the following passes through the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm?
a. Least thoracic splanchnic nerve
b. Thoracic duct
c. Branches of right gastric vessels
d. Sympathetic trunks
e. Terminal branches of the left phrenic nerve

40. The oesophageal opening in the diaphragm lies at the level of the:
a. 10th thoracic vertebra
b. 12th thoracic vertebra
c. 8th thoracic vertebra
d. 6th thoracic vertebra
e. 4th thoracic vertebra

41. The lower margin of the left lung in mid respiration crosses:
a. The 6th, 8th and 10th ribs
b. The 7th, 8th and 9th ribs
c. The 10th, 11th and 12th ribs
d. The 8th rib only
e. The 6th, 11th and 12th ribs

42. The supra-pleural membrane is attached laterally to the margins of:

a. The 1st rib
b. 2nd rib
c. Clavicle
d. Acromion process
e. Coracoids process
43. A patient of asthma is given sympathomimetic drugs. Why?
a. To relax the smooth muscles of the respiratory tract
b. To relax the smooth muscles of the bronchial walls
c. To relax the smooth muscles of the bronchiolar walls
d. To decrease the air way resistance
e. To increase the bronchiolar diameter

44. Root of right lung is related posteriorly to:

a. Phrenic nerve
b. Hemizygous vein
c. Vagus nerve
d. Costo cervical trunk
e. Sympathetic chain

45. In forced expiration, which of the following muscles has no role?

a. Diaphragm
b. External oblique
c. Internal oblique
d. Rectus abdominis
e. Transverses abdominis

46. During thoracentesis procedure, the physician is careful to avoid the intercostals neurovascular bundle, which is
particularly susceptible to injury from a fractured rib because it lies:
a. Behind the superior border of the rib
b. Beneath the inferior border of the rib
c. Between external and internal intercostals layers
d. Directly behind the midpoint of the rib
e. Halfway between the two adjacent rib

47. Mediastinal surface of the left lung is deeply grooved:

a. By arch & descending aorta
b. By left ventricle
c. By sympathetic chains
d. By vagus & phrenic nerves
e. By vertebral column

48. Quiet expiration is function of:

a. Diaphragm
b. Pectoralis major
c. Serratus anterior
d. Elasticity of thoracic wall & lungs
e. Serratus posterior superior

49. The diaphragm:

a. Is a powerful inspiratory muscle
b. Is supplied by upper six intercostal nerves
c. Is only supplied by phrenic nerves
d. Is lined by serous membranes on both surfaces
e. Is also supplied by vagus nerve

50. Fascial origin of diaphragm includes:

a. Ant. layer of thoraco-lumber fascia
b. Psoas fascia
c. Middle layer of thoraco-lumber fascia
d. c + psoas fascia
e. Median arcuate ligament

51. Structures related to lateral arcuate ligament:

a. Subcostal nerve and vessels
b. Sympathetic chains
c. Azygos vein
 d. Hemizygous vein
e. Superior epigastric vessels

52. Which of the following passes through the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm?
a. Least thoracic splanchnic nerve
b. Thoracic duct
c. Branches of right gastric vessels
d. Sympathetic trunks
e. Terminal branches of the left phrenic nerve

53. The articular part of a rib tubercle articulates with which of the following structures?
a. Body of the vertebra
b. Costal cartilage
c. Adjacent rib
d. Sternum
e. Transverse process

54. The oesophageal opening in the diaphragm lies at the level of the following vertebrae:
a. 4th
b. 6th
c. 8th
d. 10th
e. 12th

55. The lateral arcuate ligaments are formed from thickenings from which of the following muscular fasciae?
a. Psoas major
b. Quadratus lumborum
c. Transversus abdominis
d. Rectus abdominis
e. Sternalis
 CVS MODULE
Embryology

1. A new born male infant had a right sided haemangioma on the side of head and scalp. The cells contributing to
haemangiomas are the derivative of which one of the following layer?
a. Ectoderm and mesoderm
b. Endoderm only
c. Endoderm and mesoderm
d. Mesoderm only
e. Ectoderm

2. Which of the following structures is derived from neural crest cells?

a. Endocardium
b. Cardiac skeleton
c. Myocardium
d. Cardiac jelly
e. Pericardium

3. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital anomaly which occurs in infants due to malformation of which of the following
septa?
a. Atrioventricular septum
b. Atrial septum
c. Aorticopulmonary septum
d. Interventricular septum
e. Septum spurium

4. Ductus arteriosus:
a. Is part of left 6th arch artery
b. Is branch of right 6th arch artery
c. Is independent artery
d. Joins ascending aorta with pulmonary artery
e. Joins arch of aorta with right pulmonary artery

5. The crista terminalis is derived from:

a. Right horn of sinus venosus
b. Left horn of sinus venosus
c. Atrioventricular canal
d. Right cusp of valve of sinus venosus
e. Primitive atrium

6. Epicardium:
a. Develops from splanchnic mesoderm
b. Develops from mesothelial cells
c. Develops from mesothelial cells of sinus venosus
d. Develops from mesocardium
e. Develops from cardiac jelly

7. Interventricular septum:
a. Develops from anterior ventricular wall
b. Develops from two different sources
c. The membranous part develops from bulbar ridges and post. endocardial cushion
d. The muscular part develops from myocytes
e. Development is completed in 5 weeks

8. Medial umbilical ligaments:

a. Develop from umbilical arteries
b. Develop from obliterated distal part of the umbilical arteries
c. Develop from obliterated proximal part of the umbilical arteries
d. Develop from the urachus
e. Develop from the allantois
9. Left subclavian artery:
a. Develops from a segmental artery
b. Develops from three different segments
c. Develops partially from the dorsal aorta
d. Develops from the left seventh segmental artery
e. Develops from the left fourth aortic arch artery

10. A 40 years old woman comes to the OPD with a complaint of feeling of weakness in the legs. On examination BP
in her right arm is much higher than the left. Further it is noticed that BP of the legs is also reduced. What is the
cause?
a. Patent ductus arteriosus
b. Overriding of aorta
c. Coarctation of aorta
d. Preductal coarctation of aorta
e. Post ductal coarchtation of aorta

11. On examination of a neonate, a faint cardiac murmur is auscultated by the physician. Echocardiography is preformed
and shunting of blood is noted from the left atrium to the right atrium. An abnormality is embryonic development
of which of the following structures has most likely occurred in this neonate?
a. Ductus arteriosus
b. Endocardial cushions
c. Atrioventricular valves
d. Sinus venosus
e. Truncus arteriosus

12. A physician monitoring a new born infants heat sound hears a murmur characteristic of patent ductus arteriosus.
This murmur normally disappears after:
a. 1-2 months
b. 1-2 weeks
c. 1-2 days
d. 1-2 hours
e. Immediately after birth

13. Presence of patent ductus arteriosus is due to persistence of which one of the following embryonic structure?
a. Umbilical artery
b. Vitelline artery
c. Left sixth aortic arch
d. Right third aortic arch
e. Left third aortic arch

14. The most common cause of patent ductus arteriosus is:

a. Anoxia
b. Viral infection
c. Drug toxicity
d. Familial
e. Prematurity

15. Lesion of the conus cordis will result in all of the following except:
a. ASD
b. Cyanotic congenital heart disease
c. VSD
d. Stenosis of the pulmonary trunk
e. Right ventricular hypertrophy

16. Which structure is involved in formation of outflow track of the two ventricles and maintaining the aortic and
pulmonary blood flow?
a. Aorticopulmonary septum
b. AV cushion
c. Bulbous cordis
d. Septum secundum
e. Septum primum
17. Inferior vena cava develops partly from:
a. Supra cardinal vein
b. Posterior cardinal vein
c. Sub cardinal vein
d. Sacrocardinal vein

18. Fallots tetralogy include all of the following except:

a. Atrial septal defects
b. Pulmonary stenosis
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Overriding of aorta
e. Right ventricular hypertrophy

19. Which of the following congenital cardiovascular mal formations is most commonly associated with maternal
rubella infections?
a. Isolated dextrocardia
b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Coarctation of aorta
d. Double aortic arch

20. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve recurves around the:

a. Left primary bronchus
b. Left subclavian artery
c. Left subclavian vein
d. Ductus arteriosus
e. Left common carotid artery

21. The cardiac jelly formed around the heart tube during early development contributes to the formation of:
a. Pericardium
b. Mesocardium
c. Myocardium
d. Endocardium

22. Oval foramen is closed soon after birth because of sudden increase in pressure of:
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Pulmonary trunk
d. Aorta
e. Left ventricle

23. In primitive atrium, right and left venous value fuse to form:
a. Septum spurium
b. Septum primum
c. Septum secundum
d. Crista terminalis
e. Atrioventricular septum

Gross Anatomy

24. Right branch of AV bundle of His travels through which one of following structures?
a. Interatrial septum
b. Interventricular septum
c. Papillary muscles
d. Septomarginal trabeculae
e. Chordae tendinae

25. A vein drain into right atrium between openings of inferior vena cava and AV valve is:
a. Anterior cardiac vein
b. Great cardiac vein
c. Coronary sinus
d. Middle cardiac vein
 e. Oblique vein of left atrium

26. A 35-year-old man came to the medical OPD with complains of fever and chest pain. He was a known case of
rheumatic fever. On examination, the consultant heard a pericardial rub. ECG confirmed the diagnosis of
pericarditis. Which one of the following nerves is responsible for chest pain?
a. Lower intercostal
b. Subcostal
c. Sympathetic
d. Parasympathetic
e. Phrenic

27. Which one of the following vein is located in posterior mediastinum and empties into superior vena cava?
a. Azygous vein
b. Right brachiocephalic vein
c. Left brachiocephalic vein
d. Internal jugular vein
e. Posterior intercostal vein

28. A 45-year-old woman presents with a tumour confined to posterior mediastinum. This could result in compression
of which one of the following structures?
a. Trachea
b. Descending aorta
c. Arch of aorta
d. Arch of azygous vein
e. Phrenic nerve

29. The aortic opening in the diaphragm lies at the level of:
a. 12th thoracic vertebra
b. 10th thoracic vertebra
c. 4th thoracic vertebra
d. 6th thoracic vertebra
e. 8th thoracic vertebra

30. A 32-year-old patient who weighs 275 pounds comes to the doctor's office. On the surface of the chest, the physician
is able to locate the apex of the heart:
a. At the level of the sternal angle
b. In the left fourth intercostal space
c. In the left fifth intercostal space
d. In the right fifth intercostal space
e. At the level of the xiphoid process of the sternum

31. A 27-year-old cardiac patient with an irregular heartbeat visits her doctor's office for examination. Where should
the physician place the stethoscope to listen to the sound of the mitral valve?
a. Over the medial end of the second left intercostal space
b. Over the medial end of the second right intercostal space
c. In the left fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
d. In the left fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
e. Over the right half of the lower end of the body of the sternum

32. A 37-year-old patient with palpitation was examined by her physician, and one of the diagnostic records included a
posterior-anterior chest x-ray film. Which of the following comprises the largest portion of the sternocostal surface
of the heart seen on the radiograph?
a. Left atrium
b. Right atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Right ventricle
e. Base of the heart

33. A 7-year-old boy has a damaged interventricular septum. Which of the following valves is most likely defective?
a. Pulmonary valve
b. Mitral valve
 c. Valve of coronary sinus
d. Tricuspid valve
e. Aortic valve

34. A 54-year-old patient is implanted with an artificial cardiac pacemaker. Which of the following conductive tissues
of the heart had a defective function that required the pacemaker?
a. Atrioventricular (AV) bundle
b. AV node
c. Sinoatrial (SA) node
d. Purkinje fibre
e. Moderator band

35. An 8-year-old boy with atrial septal defect presents to a paediatrician. This congenital heart defect shunts blood
from the left atrium to the right atrium and causes hypertrophy of the right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary
trunk. Which of the following veins opens into the hypertrophied atrium?
a. Middle cardiac vein
b. Small cardiac vein
c. Oblique cardiac vein
d. Anterior cardiac vein
e. Right pulmonary vein

36. A 6-year-old boy with tetralogy of Fallot shows pulmonary stenosis and right ventricular hypertrophy in addition to
other symptoms. Which of the following structures is likely to be found in the hypertrophied heart chamber?
a. Sinus venarum
b. Crista terminalis
c. Pectinate muscles
d. Septomarginal trabecula
e. Valve of the coronary sinus

37. A 56-year-old patient recently suffered a myocardial infarction in the area of the apex of the heart. The occlusion
by atherosclerosis is in which of the following arteries?
a. Marginal artery
b. Right coronary artery at its origin
c. Anterior interventricular artery
d. Posterior interventricular artery
e. Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery

38. A 12-year-old boy was admitted to a local hospital with a known history of heart problems. His left ventricular
hypertrophy could result from which of the following conditions?
a. A constricted pulmonary trunk
b. An abnormally small left atrioventricular (AV) opening
c. Improper closing of the pulmonary valves
d. An abnormally large right AV opening
e. Stenosis of the aorta

39. A radiologist examines posterior-anterior chest radiographs of a 27-year-old victim of a car accident. Which of the
following structures forms the right border of the heart?
a. Arch of the aorta
b. Pulmonary trunk
c. Superior vena cava
d. Ascending aorta
e. Left ventricle

40. The attending faculty in the coronary intensive care unit (ICU) demonstrates to his students a normal heart
examination. The first heart sound is produced by near-simultaneous closure of which of the following valves?
a. Aortic and tricuspid
b. Aortic and pulmonary
c. Tricuspid and mitral
d. Mitral and pulmonary
e. Tricuspid and pulmonary
 BLOOD, IMMUNOLOGLY & HOST DEFENCE MODULE
1. The lymphatic system begins to develop at the end of the:
a. Sixth week
b. Fifth week
c. Fourth week
d. Third week
e. Second week

2. Which of the Lymph sacs develop close to the root of the mesentery?
a. Jugular
b. Ileal
c. Retroperitoneal
d. Cisterna chili
e. Thoracic

3. Which of the following is composed of Epithelioreticular cells?

a. Spleen
b. Thymus
c. Bone marrow
d. Lymph node
e. Tonsil

4. The random distribution of collections of lymphocytes found in the respiratory tract and gastrointestinal tract is
known as?
a. Lymph follicles
b. lymph nodules
c. Germinal centres
d. Peyer's patches in the mucosa
e. Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue

5. Red and white pulp are a characteristic of the:

a. Lymph node
b. Bone marrow
c. Thymus
d. Spleen
e. Tonsil

6. Sub capsular sinus is a characteristic feature of:

a. Lymph node
b. Bone marrow
c. Thymus
d. Tonsil
e. Spleen

7. Absence of Lymph follicles with germinal centres is a feature of:

a. Lymph node
b. Bone marrow
c. Thymus
d. Spleen
e. Tonsil

8. Regarding the structure of the spleen, the invaginations of the capsule into the splenic parenchyma form the:
a. Malpighian corpuscle
b. Trabeculae
c. White pulp
d. Red pulp
e. Germinal centre

9. Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains the gut associated lymphatic tissue?
a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Adventitia