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Question No.

Apply Maclaurin Series expansion to prove that



I. cos x 1 + + .
! ! !
Solution:
Let f (x) cos x f (0) cos (0) 1

f (x) cos x=sin x f (0) sin(0) 0


f (x) sin x)=cos x f (0) cos(0) 1


f (x) cos x) = sin x f (0) sin (0)


f (x) sin x)=cos x f (0) cos(0) 1


f (x) cos x=sin x f (0) sin (0) 0


f (x) sin x)=cos x f (0) cos(0) 1

Now by Maclaurin series
2 3 4
f (x) = f (0) + x f (0)+ f (0) + f (0) + f (0)
2! 3! 4!
2 3 4 5 6
cos x = 1 + x (0) + (-1) + (0) + (1) + (0) + (-1) +
2! 3! 4! 5! 6!
2 4 6
cos x = 1 +0 +0+ +0 +
2! 4! 6!
2 4 6
cos x = 1 + +
2! 4! 6!

II. ln (1+x) x + + .

Solution:
Let f (x) ln (1+x) f (0) ln (1+0) 0
1 1
f (x) ln (1+x)= f (0) 1+01
1+

f (x) x)-1=x)-2 f (0) 0)-2 1


f (x) x)-2 =x)-3 f (0) 0)-3


f (x) x)-3]=x)-4 f (0) 0)-4 -6

Now by Maclaurin series
2 3 4
f (x) = f (0) + x f (0)+ f (0) + f (0) + f (0)
2! 3! 4!
2 3 4
ln (1+x) = 0 + x (1) + (-1) + (2) + (-6) +
2! 3! 4!
2 3 4
ln (1+x) = x + (2) (6) +
2.1 3.2.1 4.3.2.1
2 3 4
ln (1+x) = x + + +
2 3 4

III. + 1+
+

+ .
Solution:
1
Let f (x) 1 + f (0) (1 + 0)2 1
1 1 1
1 1 1
f (x) (1 + )2 = (1 + ) 2 f (0) 2 (1 + 0) 2 2
2
1 3 3
1 1 1 1
f (x) [ (1 + ) 2 ]= (1 + ) 2 f (0) 4 (1 + 0) 2 4
2 4
3 5 5
1 3 3 3
f (x) [ (1 + ) ] = (1 + ) 2 2 f (0) 8 (1 + 0) 8 2
4 8
Now by Maclaurin series
2 3 4
f (x) = f (0) + x f (0)+ f (0) + f (0) + f (0)
2! 3! 4!
1 2 1 3 3
1 + = 1 + x ( ) + ( ) + ( ) +
2 2! 4 3! 8
1 2 1 3 3
1 + = 1 + x ( 2 ) + ( ) + ( ) +
2 4 6 8
2 3
1 + = 1+ 2 8
+
16
+ .

IV. 1+ + + + .
! !
Solution:
Let f (x) f (0) 0 1

f (x) = f (0) 0 1


f (x) = f (0) 0 1


f (x) = f (0) 0 1

Now by Maclaurin series
2 3 4
f (x) = f (0) + x f (0)+ f (0) + f (0) + f (0)
2! 3! 4!
2 3
= 1 + x ( 1 ) + ( ) + ( ) +
2! 3!
2 3
1+ + + + .
2! 3!

V. 1+ + + + .
! !
Solution:
Let f (x) 2 f (0) 2(0) 1

f (x) 2 2 =2 2 f (0) 2 2(0) 2


f (x) 2 2 =4 2 f (0) 4 2(0) 4


f (x) 4 2 =8 2 f (0) 8 2(0) 8

Now by Maclaurin series
2 3 4
f (x) = f (0) + x f (0)+ f (0) + f (0) + f (0)
2! 3! 4!
2 3
2 = 1 + x ( 2 ) + () + ( ) +
2! 3!
2 3
2 1+2 + 4 +8 + .
2! 3!

Question No.2

Show that cos ( x + h ) = cos x h sin x +
! !

Solution:

Let f (x) cos x



f (x) cos x=sin x


f (x) sin x)=cos x


f (x) cos x) = sin x

Now by Taylor series


2 3
f (x + h) = f (x) + h f (x)+ f (x) + f (x)+
2! 3!
2 3
cos (x + h) = cos x + h (sin x) + (cos x) + (sin x)+
2! 3!

2 3
cos (x + h) = cos x h sin x cos x + sin x+
2! 3!

Question No.3
() ()
Show that 2 x + h = 2 x [ 1 + (ln 2) h + + +
! !
]

Let f (x) 2 x

f (x) 2 x = 2 x (ln 2) As a x = a x (ln a)


f (x) 2 x (ln 2)=(ln 2) 2 x (ln 2)= 2 x (ln 2)2


f (x) 2 x (ln 2)2] =(ln 2) 2 x (ln 2)2=2 x (ln 2)3

Now by Taylor series


2 3
f (x + h) = f (x) + h f (x)+ f (x) + f (x)+
2! 3!

2 3
2 x + h = 2 x + h[ 2 x (ln 2)] + [ 2 x (ln 22)] + [ 2 x (ln 2)3] +
2! 3!

(2) 2 2 (2) 3 3
2 x + h = 2 x [ 1 + (ln 2) h + + + ]
2! 3!

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