SHEET METAL

1. If registration numbers are to be applied to an aircraft with a letter of 12 inches, what is the
minimum space required for the registration mark N 1683C?
Ans 52 inches

2. Which properly applied finish top coat is the most durable and chemical resistant?
Ans. Polyurethane

3. Aluminum-pigment in dope is used primarily to:

Ans. exclude sunlight from the fabric

4. A correct use for acetone is to:

Ans. remove grease from fabric

5. Which of the following is hazard associated with sanding or fabric covered surfaces during the
finishing process?
Ans. Static electricity buildup

6. What is likely to occur if unhydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then
about 30 to 40 minutes late a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?
Ans. Corrosion

7. Before spraying any finishing materials on unpainted clean aluminum:

Ans. Avoid touching the surface with bare hands.

8. What is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then
about 30 to 40 minutes late a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?
Ans. A glossy, blush-free finish.

9. What is the usual cause of runs and sags in aircraft finish?

Ans. Too much material applied in one coat

10. Which statement is true regarding paint system compatibility?

Ans. Old wash primer coats may be over coated directly with epoxy finishes

11. A well-designed rivet point will subject the rivets to:

Ans. shear loads

12. A main difference between Lockbolt / Huckbolt tension and shear fasteners (other than their
application) is in the:
Ans. Number of locking collar grooves

13. Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated:

Ans. By the manufacturer and do not require heat treatment before being driven

14. The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is:
Ans. Three times the thickness of the thickest sheet

15. The shop head of a rivet should be:

Ans. One and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank

16. One of the main advantages of Hi-Lock type fasteners over earlier generations is that:
Ans. They can be installed with ordinary hand tools

17. The markings on the head of a Dzus Fasteners identify the:

Ans. Body diameter, type of head, and length of the fastener

18. The Dzus tumlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet and receptacle. The stud length is
measured in:
Ans. Hundredths of an inch.
19. The Dzus tumlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet and receptacle. The stud diameter is
measured in:
Ans. Sixteenths of an inch

20. Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to:

Ans. attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal

21. Cherrymax ad Olympic-Lock rivets:

Ans. Utilize a pulling tool for installation

22. Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) should not used in composite structures
primarily because of the:
Ans. Possibility of causing delamination

23. Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite structures:

Ans. Must be constructed of material such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel

24. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used in high-speed aircraft
because this:
Ans. Has a high strength to-weight ratio and greater stiffness than a single sheet

25. (1) When performing a ring (coin tap) test on composite structures, a change in sound may be
due to damage or to transition to a different internal structure
(2) The extent of separation damage in composite structures is most accurately measured by a
ring (coin tap) test
Regarding the above statements:
Ans. Only No. 1 is true

26. Which of these methods may be used to inspect fiberglass/honeycomb structures for entrapped water?
1. acoustic emission monitoring.
2. X-ray
3. backlighting
Ans. 2 and 3

27. When balsa wood is used to replace a damage honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that:
Ans. The grain is perpendicular to the skin

28. When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal faced laminated honeycomb panel, he edges of the
Doublers should be tapered to:
Ans. 100 times the thickness of the metal
29. One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is to:
Ans. have mixed enough for a test sample

30. Composite inspections conducted by means of acoustic emission monitoring:

Ans. Pick up the noise of corrosion or other deterioration occurring

31. What precaution, if any, should be taken to prevent corrosion inside a repaired metal honeycomb
structure?
Ans. Prime the repair with a corrosion inhibitor and seal from the atmosphere

32. One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass structure that has been subjected to damage is to:
Ans. strip the damage area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure

33. When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tapping method, a dull thud may indicate:
Ans. Separation of the laminates

34. How many of the following are benefits of using micro balloons when making repairs to laminated
honeycomb panels?
1. Less filler shrinkage.
2. Greater flexibility.
3. Less density.
4. Lower stress concentrations. Ans. Three
35. The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a workable state is called the:
Ans. Pot life

36. A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is described as a:
Ans. Thermoplastic

37. The classification of high tensile strength fiberglass used in aircraft structures is:
Ans. S.

38. Which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic plastics?

Ans. Zinc chloride will have no effect

39 Superficial scars, scratches, surface abrasion, or main erosion on fiberglass laminates can generally be
repaired by applying:
Ans. One or more coats of suitable resin (room-temperature catalyzed) to the surface.

40. The classification for fiberglass reinforcement material that high resistivity and is the most common
is:
Ans. E.

41. A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damages less than:
Ans. 1 inch in diameter.

42. What reference tool is used to determine how the fiber is to be oriented for a particular ply of fabric?
Ans. warp clock (or compass)

43. The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed composite buildup depends primarily on:
Ans. The orientation of the plies to the load direction

44. Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advance composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the best
for strength?
Ans. 60:40

45. What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during
curing called?
Ans. Bleeder

46. Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally accomplished by:

1. Applying external heat.
2. Room temperature exposure.
3. Adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin.
4. Applying pressure.
Ans. 1 and 4.

47. When repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester resins, warping of the surfaces is likely to occur one
method of reducing the amount if war page is to:
Ans. Use short strips of fiberglass in the bonded repair

48. When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the area to repaired is essential for a good bond. The
final cleaning should be made using:
Ans. MEK (methyl ethyl ketone)

49. Fiberglass laminate damage not exceeding the first layer or ply can be repaired by:
Ans. Filling with a putty consisting of compatible resin and clean, short glass fibers

50. Fiberglass damage that extends completely through a laminated sandwich structure:
Ans. May be repaired

51. Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely through one facing and into the core:
Ans. Cannot be repaired
52. Repairing advanced composites using materials and techniques traditionally used for fiberglass repairs
is likely to result in:
Ans. Laminating on new repair plies

53. The preferred way to make permanent repairs on composites is by:

Ans. Laminating on new repair plies

54. Which of the following, when added to wet resins, provide strength for the repair of damage fastener
holes in composite panels:
1. Micro balloons.
2. Flax.
3. Chopped fibers.
Ans. 2 and 3.

55. Which of the following are generally characteristics of liver (Kevlar) composite?
1. High tensile strength.
2. Flexibility.
3. Stiffness.
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum.
5. Ability to conduct electricity.
Ans. 1 and 2

56. Which of the following generally characteristics of carbon/graphite fiber composites?

1. Flexibility.
2. Flexibility.
3. Stiffness.
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum.
5. Ability to conduct electricity.
Ans. 2, 3, and 5

57. If an aircraft transparent plastic enclosure exhibit fine crafts which may extent in a network over or
under the surface or through the plastic, the plastic is said to be:
Ans. crazing

58. When installing transparent plastic enclosure which are retained by bolts extending through the plastic
material and elastic stop nuts should be:
Ans. tightened to a firm fit then backed off full turn

59. If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft, the belt must conform to the strength requirements
in which document:
Ans. TSO C22

60. Which is considered good practice concerning the installation of acrylic plastic?
Ans. When rivets are used, adequate spacer or other satisfactory means to prevent excessive
tightening of the frame to the plastic should be provided

61. The coefficient of the expansion of most plastic enclosure materials is:
Ans. greater than both steel and aluminum

62. If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic enclosure materials have been cleaned, their surface
should be:
Ans. covered with a thin coat of wax

63. Cabin upholstery materials installed in current standard category airplanes must:
Ans. be at least frame resistant

64. What is the most common method cementing transparent plastic?

Ans. soak method

65. When holes are drilled completely to Plexiglas, a:

Ans. specially modified twist drill should be used
66. What is the purpose of a gusset or susset plate used in the construction and repair of aircraft
structures?
Ans. To join and reinforce intersecting structural members

67. Select the alternative, which best describes the function of the flute section of a twist drill.
Ans. Forms the cutting edges of the drill point

68. How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required to attach a 10x5 plate, using a single row of
rivets, minimum edge distance, and 4D spacing?
Ans. 56

69. Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a semi-monocoque fuselage are installed:
Ans. longerons and stringers

70. Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by:

Ans. burnishing

71. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals?
Ans. 90 degrees

72. When comparing the machining techniques for stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminum
alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to drill the stainless steel at a:
Ans. lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill

73. a single-lap splice is to be used to repair a section of damage aluminum skin., If a double row of 1/8-
inch rivets is used, the minimum allowable overlap will be:
Ans. 1 inch

74. Which statement is true regarding the inspection of a stressed skin metal wing assembly known top
have been critically loaded?
Ans. If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of consecutive rivet heads will tip in the same
direction

75. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle of:
Ans. 140 degrees and turn at a low speed

76. What is the minimum spacing for a single row of aircraft speed?
Ans. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank

77. Which is correct concerning the use of a file?

Ans. Apply pressure on the forward stroke only, except when filling very soft metals such as lead or
aluminum.

78. What is of the determining factors which permits machine countersinking when flush riveting?
Ans. Thickness of the material is greater than the thickness of the rivet head

79. When repairing small hole on a metal stressed skin, the major consideration in the design of the
greater than the thickness of the rivet head,
Ans. the shear strength of the rivet head

80. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct size?
Ans. Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction.

81. Repairs or splices involving stringers on the lower surface of stressed skin metal wings are usually:
Ans. permitted but are normally more critical in reference to strength in tension than similar repairs to
the upper surface
82. When strengthening members made of 2024-T4, you should:
Ans. straighten cold and reinforced

83. Clad alloys are used in aircraft because they:

Ans. are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminum alloys
84. Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing?
Ans. NO external bracing is needed

85. Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet
metal, are normally:
Ans. repairable, using approved methods

86. A factor which determines the minimum space between the rivets is the:
Ans. diameter of the rivets being used

87. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for lead metal?
Ans. 118 degrees

88. When fabricating parts from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum steel stock:
Ans. all scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must be held to a minimum.

89. Monoque fuselages derive their personal strength from:

Ans. the actual covering metal or plywood

90. Which part(s) of a semi-monoque fuselage prevent(s) tension and compression from bending the
fuselage?
Ans. Longerons and stringers

91. Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance between the:

Ans. centers of rivets in adjacent row

92. Rivet pitch is the distance between the:

Ans. centers of the adjacent rivets in the same row

93. The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum alloy rivets indicate the:
Ans. specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets

94. When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear strength is obtained:
Ans. only after a period of age hardening

95. Which of the following need not be considered when determining minimum rivet spacing?
Ans. Rivet length

96. What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment?
Ans. to retard age hardening

97. Under certain conditions, type A rivets are used because of their:
Ans. low strength characteristics

98. A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should:

Ans. have a slightly greater radius than the rivet head

99. Head-treated rivets in the D and DD series that are no driven within the prescribe time after heat
treatment or removal from refrigeration:
Ans. must be reheat treated before use

100. The dimensions of an MS 20430D-4-8 rivet are:

Ans. 1/8 inch in diameter, inch long

101. The primary alloying agent of 2024-T36 is indicated by the number:

Ans. 2

102. Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy designation indicates the primary alloying agent used in
its manufacture?
Ans. 2
103. A sheet metal repair is to be maid using two pieces of 0.040-inch aluminum riveted together. All
rivet holes are drilled for 3/32-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will be:
Ans. inch

104. Most rivets used in aircraft construction have:

Ans. dimples

105. MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet which has:

Ans. an overall length of 5.16 inch

106. Which rivet may be used as received without further treatment?

Ans. 2117-T3

107. Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of 0.032-inch aluminum?
Ans. MS20470AD-4-4.