BASIC MANAGEMENT

1. Person responsible for the work performance of group members

a. Analyst
b. Manager
c. Economist
d. CEO
2. Identify the sequence of different steps in controlling.

I. Measurement of performance.
II. Comparison of actual and standard.
III. Analysis of causes of deviation.
IV. Actual performance.
V. Corrective action plan.

(a) (III), (IV), (V), (I), (II)

(b) (II), (III), (IV), (V), (I)
(c) (I), (II), (IV), (III), (V)
(d) (IV), (I), (II), (III), (V)
(e) (V), (IV), (III), (II), (I).

3. Managers who supervise the work of employeesss engaged in specialized activities such as
accounting, engineering, information systems, and sales.
a. Specialized managers
b. General managers
c. Functional managers
d. First-level managers
4. Managers who are responsible for the work of several different groups that perform a variety of
functions.
a. General manager
b. Variety manager
c. Multifunctional manager
d. Functional manager
5. A person who founds and operates an innovative business.
a. Team leader
b. Administrator
c. Entrepreneur
d. Small-business owner
6. Which of the following are not included in the managerial functions:
a. Planning
b. Organizing and Staffing
c. Accounting
d. Leading
e. Controlling
7. The application of scientific methods to increase individual workers productivity
a. Administrative management.
b. Scientific management
c. Analysis management
d. Human resource management
8. An approach to management that emphasies improving management through an understanding
of the psychological makeup of people.
a. Human analysis management
b. Administrative management
c. Behavioral approach to management
d. Human resource management
9. The process of hiring an individual or another company outside the organization to perform work
a. Outsourcing
b. Intrasourcing
c. Intersourcing
d. Extrasourcing
10. A firms overall master plan that shapes its destiny.
a. Vision
b. Goals
c. Objectives
d. Strategic Planning
11. Planning that translates a firms strategic plans into specific goals by organizational unit.
a. Goals
b. Tactical Planning
c. Operational Planning
d. Planning by exception
12. What does SWOT in SWOT analysis stand for
Strength Weakness Oppurtunities Threats

13. These are general guidelines to follow when making decisions and taking action.
a. Plans
b. Policies
c. By-laws
d. Action plan
14. A firm with operating units in two or more countries in addition to its own.
a. Transnational corporation
b. Multinational corporation
c. National corporation
d. Parent corporation

15. A special type of MNC (multinational corporation) that operates worldwide without having single
national headquarters
a. Transnational corporation
b. International corporation
c. National corporation
d. Parent corporation

16. A systematic application of goal setting and planning to help individuals and firms be more
productive.
a. Management by exception
b. Management by objectives
c. Productive management
d. Production management
17. An unofficial network that supplements the formal channels in an organization
 a. GC (Group Chat)
b. Company radio network
c. Intramessaging network
d. Informal Communication channel
18. A type of control that monitors activities while they are carried out.
a. Feedback control
b. Concurrent control
c. Preventive control
d. Aggressive control
19. A control that evaluates an activity after it is performed.
a. Feedback control
b. Preventive control
c. Aggressive control
d. Passive control
20. A control that takes place prior to the performance of an activity.
a. Internal control
b. Preventive control
c. Aggressive control
d. Passive control
21. An approach to control based on the bellief that employees are motivated primarily by external
rewards and must be controlled by their managers.
a. External control Strategy
b. Internal control Strategy
c. Employee control strategy
d. Manager control strategy
22. A spending plan expresssed in numerical terms for a period of time.
a. Finance
b. Accounting
c. Budget
d. Economics
23. The motivation theory that arranges human needs into a pyramid-shaped model with basic
psychological needs at the bottom and self-actualizing needs at the top.
a. Hawthorne Theory
b. Maslows need Theory
c. Pyramid Theory
d. Pygmalion Theory
24. The idea that people live up to the expectations set for them.
a. Psychological need effect
b. Pressure effect
c. Pygmalion effect
d. Hawthorne effect
25. An alternative plan to be used if the original plan cannot be implemented of a crisis develops.
a. Strategy
b. Critical plan
c. Action plan
d. Contingency plan
26. An idealized picture of the future of an organization.
a. Corporate strategy
b. Functional strategy
 c. Mission
d. Vision
27. An experience-based way of knowing or reasoning in which weighing and balanccing evidence
are done unconsciously and automatically.
a. Guess
b. Feel
c. Intuition
d. Bounded rationality

KIND OF HARD QUESTIONS ONWARDS:

P.s. kinuha ko na to sa net yung sa taas puro terms sa book (fundamentals of management by dubrin)
28. Management By Objectives (MBO) is a system for achieving organizational objectives,
enhancement of employee commitment and participation. Which of the following is not an
advantage of MBO?
(a) Role clarity (b) Clarity in organizational action
(c) Personnel satisfaction (d) Basis for organizational change
(e) Flexibility.

29. Organizational culture is the collection of shared values, beliefs, rituals, stories, myths and
specialized language that foster a feeling of community among organization members. Which of
the following is not a characteristic of organization culture?
(a) It differentiates one organization from another
(b) It defines the internal environment of an organization
(c) It ensures consistency in the behavior of organization members
(d) It remains absolutely stable throughout the life of an organization
(e) It is perceived by the organization members as well as by outsiders.

30. Which of the following is not true with regard to functional authority?
(a) Functional authority is the authority staff members have over line members within the limits
of their functions
(b) Functional authority has the same effect as line authority but it doesnt have the right that line
authority has, to punish violations or deviations in order to ensure compliance
(c) Functional authority is limited to those areas where a staff member has some technical
competence
(d) The use of functional authority should be restricted to the procedural aspects of a function
(e) Functional authority is in sync with the principle of unity of command.

31. Creativity is an important factor in managing people. Which of the following is not true with
regard to the creative process?

(a) Creativity is the ability to develop new ideas

(b) The creative process starts with unconscious scanning
(c) Intuition connects the unconscious with the conscious
(d) Insight leads to intuition
(e) Insight is tested against organizational reality.

32. According to "expectancy theory", the probability of an individual acting in a particular way
depends on
a. The personality of the individual and the likelihood it will change.
b. The company and its potential to be moving in the right direction.
 c. The situation.
d. The strength of that individual's belief that the act will have a particular outcome and
on whether the individual values that outcome.

33. Which of the following techniques for improving productivity aims at reducing costs by analyzing
and improving individual operations of a product or service?
(a) Work simplification
(b) Time-event network
(c) Value engineering
(d) Total Quality Management

34. Span of control an important factor, which is to be taken into account when undertaking
organizational design. Maintaining a large span of control within an organization is most effective
in all except one of the following situations?
(a) When subordinates prefer autonomy
(b) When tasks are routine
(c) When jobs are similar but have varying performance measures
(d) When subordinates are highly trained
(e) When managers are competent.

35. Which of the following refers to the flow of information among persons at different levels, who
have no direct reporting relationships?
(a) Horizontal communication
(b) Diagonal communication
(c) Upward communication
(d) Downward communication
(e) Forward communication.

36. Every organization structure, even a poor one, can be charted. Which of the following
is false with respect to Organization Chart?
(a) It is a vital tool for providing information about organizational relationships
(b) It provides a visual map of the chain of command
(c) Charting an organization structure can show up the complexities and inconsistencies, which
can be corrected
(d) It shows authority relationships as well as informal and informational relationships
(e) It helps managers and new personnel to know how and where they fit into the organization
structure.

37. Which of the following information systems has low-volume data and analytical models as data
inputs?

(a) Management Information System

(b) Decision Support System
(c) Executive Support System
(d) Transaction Processing System
(e) Office Automation System.

38. An objective is the object or aim of an action. Management by Objectives (MBO) is a

management process that is popular in many organizations. It is the joint setting of goals and
 objectives by superiors and subordinates. A major difference between traditional objective setting
and MBO is
(a) In MBO, there are multiple objectives covering a range of organisational activities
(b) In traditional objective setting the objectives, once formulated, provide direction for
management decisions
(c) In traditional objective setting the objectives, once established, form the criteria against which
actual accomplishments can be measured
(d) In MBO, organisation members may actually pursue objectives other than the formal
organisational objectives
(e) Traditional objective setting is top down only, while MBO is both a top down and
bottom up process.

39. The strengths and weaknesses of each alternative become obvious in which step of the decision
making-process?

(a) Identifying the problem

(b) Identifying the decision criteria
(c) Analyzing the alternatives
(d) Implementing the alternative
(e) Obtaining the needed resources.

40. The recruitment procedure is initiated when a vacancy occurs and is reported to the HR
department. Which of the following is usually the first step followed in the recruitment procedure?
(a) Designing job description
(b) Developing a job specification
(c) Performing job analysis
(d) Attracting a pool of applicants
(e) Selecting best recruits.

ECONOMICS

1. Productivity can be increased by

a. improving the education of workers.
b. raising union wages.
c. raising minimum wages.
d. restricting trade with foreign countries.

2. Raising taxes and increasing welfare payments

a. reduces market power.
b. proves that there is such a thing as a free lunch.
c. improves efficiency at the expense of equity.
d. none of these answers
e. improves equity at the expense of efficiency.
3. Trade-offs are required because wants are unlimited and resources are
a. economical.
b. unlimited.
c. efficient.
d. marginal.
e. scarce.

4.. A. rational person does not act unless

a. the action is ethical.
b. the action produces marginal costs that exceed marginal benefits.
c. the action produces marginal benefits that exceed marginal costs.
d. the action makes money for the person.
e. none of these answers.

5. Which of the following situations describes the greatest market power?

a. Subarus impact on the price of cars
b. a farmer's impact on the price of corn
c. Microsoft's impact on the price of desktop operating systems
d. a student's impact on college tuition

LAW:

1. It is an obligation which is based on positive law and gives right to enforce its performance
a. Natural obligation c. Moral obligation
b. Civil obligation d. legal obligation

2. Which of the following is demand necessary to make the debtor in delay in the performance of his
obligation?
a. When the time of performance is of the essence
b. When the time of performance has been stipulated
c. When the law so provides
d. When demand would be useless

3. Liability for damages in the performance of an obligation arises from the following, except
a. Negligence c. Delay
b. Acts or omissions punished by law d. Fraud

4. Liability for damages arising from fraud is demandable and there can be a waiver of an action for
past fraud.

There can be a waiver of an action for future negligence but not fraud.

a. Both statements are false c. First is true, second is false

b. Both are true d. Second is true, first is false

5. The contract entered into by the persons who cannot give consent is
a. Void ab initio because actually there is no consent
b. Unenforceable only because the contract may be ratified
c. Rescissible because of the damage caused to the person incapacitated
d. Voidable as there is consent although vitiated or defective