SSC CGL Tier I Model Paper

SSC CGL Tier I Model Paper

General Intelligence and Reasoning

1. In the following question, stands for any of the mathematical signs at different places

which are given as choice with the correct sequence of signs which when is substituted,

makes the question as correct equation.

498 * 28 * 7 * 5 * 35 * 483

1) ÷ + x - = 2) + - ÷ x = 3) + ÷ x - = 4) + x ÷ - =

Directions (2-6): Select the option which is different from other three alternatives.

2. 1) Dancer 2) Singer 3) Doctor 4) Magician

3. 1) Commander 2) Commodore 3) Brigadier 4) Admiral

4. 1) UL9 2) VH16 3) RM5 4) YF19

5. 1) Dispur 2) Chandigarh 3) Bhopal 4) Agartala

6. 1) ADGJM 2) HKNQT 3) PSVYB 4) SVXAD

7. M, G, B, S1, S2 and S3 are standing in a row. G is between S3 and S1. S2 is between M and B. M

does not stand next to either S3 or S1. B does not stand next to S1. S3 is between which of the

following persons?

1) B and S1 2) M and B 3) M and G 4) G and B

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8. In a row of children, P is fifteenth from the left end of the row. If he/she is shifted towards

the right end of the row by four places, she becomes eighth from the right end. How many

children are there in the row?

1) 24 2) 28 3) 26 4) None of these

Directions (9-10): Fill in the blanks to complete the following series.

9. m_nm_n_an_a_ma_

1) amammn 2) aamanm 3) aamman 4) aammnn

10. _op_mo_n__pnmop_

1) mnpomn 2) mpnmop 3) mnpmon 4) mnompn

11. Which figure represents the relation among married, women and teachers?

1) 2)

3) 4)

Directions (12): One or two statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to

consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly

known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given

statements.

12. Statement:

A retail store announced fifty percent reduction on all food items during the weekend.

Conclusions:

I. People may still prefer buying food items from other stores.

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SSC CGL Tier I Model Paper

II. Large number of customers may visit the retail store and buy food items.

1) Only conclusion I implicit 2) Only conclusion II is implicit

3) Neither conclusion I nor II is implicit 4) Both conclusions I and II are implicit

13. Statement:

I. All cities are towns.

II. Some cities are villages

Conclusions:

I. No village is a town.

II. Some villages are towns

1) Only conclusion II follows 2) Only conclusion I follows

3) Both conclusions I and II follow 4) None of these

14. In a certain code ‘BORN’ is written as ‘APQON’ and ‘LACK’ is written as ‘KBBLK’. How is

‘GRID’ written in that code?

1) FQHCD 2) FSHED 3) HSJED 4) FSHCD

15. In a certain code ‘ACNE’ is written as ‘372911’. How is ‘BOIL’ written in that code?

1) 53212125 2) 5311925 3) 5291925 4) 5291927

16. A, walks 4 km towards north, then he turns his left and walks 6 kms. Again he turns his

right and walks 4 kms. How far is he from his starting point?

1) 14km 2) 8km 3) 10km 4) Data inadequate

17. Which of following word can be made by using word given below.

‘IMMEDIATELY’

1) DIALECT 2) DIAMETER

3) LIMITED 4) DICTATE

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18. If in the year 1950, Republic Day was celebrated on Wednesday. In the year 1951, this day

would be celebrated on-

1) On Monday 2) On Tuesday

3) On Friday 4) On Thursday

19. Which of the given answer figures will be the correct mirror reflection?

Question figure

Answer figures:

20. D is K's brother M is K's sister. T is R's father who is M's brother, F is K's mother. How many

sons do T and F have?

1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) None of these

21. How many triangles are there in the figure given below?

1) 22 2) 23 3) 19 4) 21

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22. Which answer figure will complete the question figure?

Question figure:

Answer figures:

23. In the following questions sign 'X' is assigned to the open state of a dice. Find the figure

from the given options which can be obtained after closing the figure (X). Dice

1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only D 4) None of these

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24. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given

answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened

Question Figures:

Answer Figures:

25. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as

in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4

and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be

represented first by its row and next by its column. e.g., 'E' can be represented by 01, 13, 20,

32, 44 etc, and 'R' can be represented by 57, 69, 76, 88, 95 etc. Similarly, you have to identify

the set for the word given below: "TIDES"

Matrix I

0 1 2 3 4

0 D E F I N

1 I N D E F

2 E F I N D

3 N D E F I

4 F I N D E

Matrix II

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SSC CGL Tier I Model Paper

5 6 7 8 9

5 O P R S T

6 S T O P R

7 P R S T O

8 T O P R S

9 R S T O P

1) 66,22,03,85,67 2) 78,43,23,42,57

3) 85,03,00,01,58 4) 97,34,22,34,97

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SSC CGL Tier I Model Paper

Quantitative Aptitude

26. A passenger sitting in a train of a certain length, which is running with a speed of 60 km/hr

passing through two bridges. He notices that he crossed the first bridge and second bridge

in time intervals which are in the ratio of 7 : 4 respectively . If the length of the first bridge

be 280m, then the length of second bridge is-

1) 490m 2) 220m 3) 160m 4) Cannot be determined

27. If √2 tan 2θ = √6 and 00 < θ < 450, then the value of sinθ + √3 cosθ – 2tan2θ is
2 4 8
1) 2) 3) 2 4)
3 3 3

28. A motor boat can travel at 10km/hr in still water. It travelled 91 km downstream in a river

than returned to the same place, taking altogether 20 hours. Find the rate of flow of river

1) 3 km/ hr 2) 4km/hr 3) 2km/hr 4) 5 km/hr

29. The height of a cone and the radius of its base are respectively 9 cm and 3 cm. The cone is

cut by a plane parallel to its base so as to divide it into two parts. The volume of the frustum

(i.e. the lower part) of the cone is 44 cm3. Then find the radius of the upper circular surface of
22
the frustum taking
7
3 3 3 3
1) 12 cm 2) 13cm 3) 6cm 4) 20cm

30. A tank is connected with 8 pipes, some of pipes are inlets and rest work as outlets. Each of

the inlet pipes can fill the tank in 8 hours individually, while each of outlet pipes can empty

it in 6 hours individually. If all the pipes are kept opened when the tank is full, it will take

exactly 6 hours for the tank to empty. How many of these are inlet pipes?

1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6

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31. Three spherical balls of radius 1cm , 2cm and 3cm are melted to form a single spherical ball.

In the process the loss of material is 25%, then the radius of new ball is-

1) 6 cm 2) 5cm 3) 3 cm 4) 2 cm

32. A batsman, in his 12th innings, makes a score of 63 run's and there by increased his average

score by 2 runs. The average of his score after 12th innings is-

1) 41 2) 42 3) 34 4) 35

Directions (33-37): Study the following pie chart given below and the table and answer the

questions based on them.

Population of seven towns in 2014.

Z, 11%
R, 16%

Y, 15%
S, 11%

X, 16%
T, 21%

V, 10%

Town X Y Z R S T V

Population 38 52 42 51 49 46 58

Below poverty line (%)

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33. If town X has 12160 people below poverty in 2014, then total population of town S are -

1) 18500 2) 22000 3) 20500 4) 26000

34. Ratio of population of town T below poverty line to town Z below poverty line in 2014 is

1) 11:23 2) 23:11 3) 13:11 4) 11:13

35. If the population of town R in 2014 is 32000, then what will be the population of town Y

below poverty line in that year?

1) 14100 2) 15600 3) 16500 4) 17000

36. If in 2015, the population of towns Y and V increase by 10% each and the percentage of

population below poverty line remains unchanged for all the towns. Then find the

population of town V below poverty in 2015, given that the population of town Y in 2014

was 30000

1) 11250 2) 12760 3) 13140 4) 13780

37. If in 2016, the population of town R increase by 10% while population of town Z reduces by

5% compared to that in 2014 and the percentage of the population below poverty line

remains unchanged for all the towns. Then ratio of population of town R below poverty line

to the ratio of population of town Z below poverty line for the year 2016 is

1) 299 : 399 2) 272 : 133 3) 133:272 4) 399:299

38. The value of k, for which the system of equations 3x – ky – 20 = 0 and 6x – 10y + 40 = 0 has

no solution is

1) 10 2) 6 3) 5 4) 3

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39. A cloth merchant buys cloth from a weaver and cheats him by using a scale which is 10 cm

longer than a normal metre scale. He claims to sell cloth at the cost price to his customers,

but while selling uses a scale which is 10 cm shorter than a normal metre scale. What is his

gain?

1) 20% 2) 21% 3) 22 2/9% 4) 22 1/3%

40. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 60 minutes and 75 minutes respectively. There is also an

outlet C. If A, B and C are opened together, the tank is full in 50 minutes. How much time

will be taken by C to empty the full tank?

1) 100 minutes 2) 110 minutes

3) 120 minutes 4) 125 minutes

41. A truck moves along a circular path and describes 100 m when it has traced out 36 0 at the

centre. The radius of the circle is equal to

1) 100/π metre 2) 250/π metre

3) 500/π metre 4) 600/π metre

42. Two poles are placed at P and Q on either side of a road such that the line joining P and Q is

perpendicular to the length of the road. A person moves x metre away from P parallel to the

road and places another pole at R. Then the person moves further x metre in the same

direction and places another pole at S, then turns left and moves a distance y metre away

from the road perpendicularly, where he finds himself, Q and R on the same line. The

distance between P and Q (i.e., the width of the road) in metre is

1) x 2) x/2 3) y 4) 2y

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43. Suppose ABC is a triangle with AB of unit length. D and E are the points lying on AB and

AC respectively such that BC and DE are parallel. If the area of triangle ABC is twice the

area of triangle ADE, then the length of AD is

1) 1/2 units 2) 1/3 units 3) 1/ 2 units 4) 1/ 3 units

44. A rhombus is formed by joining midpoints of the sides of a rectangle in the suitable order. If

the area of the rhombus is 2 square units. Then the area of the rectangle is

1) 2 2 square units 2) 4 square units

3) 4 2 square units 4) 8 square units

45. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 1400, then the number of vertices of the

polygon is equal to

1) 10 2) 9 3) 8 4) 7

46. The number of rounds that a wheel of diameter 7/11 metre will make in traversing 4 km will

be

1) 500 2) 1000 3) 1700 4) 2000

47. The base of an isosceles triangle is 300units and each of its equal sides is 170 units then the

area of the triangle is

1) 9600 square units 2) 10000 square units

3) 12000 square units 4) None of the above

48. If 29 tanθ = 31, then the value of (1+2sinθ cosθ) / (1-2sinθ cosθ) is equal to

1) 810 2) 900 3) 540 4) 490

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49. The categories of qualitative variables are represented by bars where the height of each bar

is

1) Class Frequency 2) Class Percentage

3) Class relative Frequency 4) All of the above

50. From a point 20m away from the foot of a tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the

tower is 300. The height of the tower is

1) 10 √3 m 2) 20 √3 m 3) 10/ √3 m 4) 20/√3 m

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SSC CGL Tier I Model Paper

English language

Directions (51-55): In the following questions, a sentence/part of the sentence is printed in bold.

Below are given alternatives to the bold sentence/part of the sentence which may improve the

sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvements is needed, your answer is (4),

i.e., No Improvement

51. The police accused him for the theft

1) with 2) in 3) of 4) No improvement

52. His is to certify that I know Mr. J. Mathews since 1970

1) am knowing 2) had known

3) have known 4) No improvement

53. It was the mother of the girl of whose voice I had recognized

1) whose voice 2) the voice of who

3) voice whose 4) No improvement

54. The Executive Council is consisted of ten members

1) consists of 2) comprise of

3) constituted of 4) No improvement

55. We have so arranged the matters and one of us is always on duty

1) that one of us 2) so that one of us

3) such that one of us 4) No improvement

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SSC CGL Tier I Model Paper

Directions (56-60): In the following items each passage consists of six sentences. The first and

the sixth sentence are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each

have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find

out the proper sequence of the four sentences.. Para Jumbles

56. S1 Once upon a time there was a king who had a wonderfully nice garden.

S6. In the trees lived a nightingale that sang so sweetly that all who passed by stood still and

listened.

P. In the middle of the garden there was a lovely forest with tall trees and deep lakes.

Q. In this garden were to be seen the most wonderful flowers with silver bells tied to them.

R. The garden was so large that even the gardener himself did not know where it began and

know where it began and where it ended

S. These bells always sounded so that nobody should pass by without noticing the flowers.

The proper sequence should be

1) QPRS 2) SPQR 3) QSRP 4) QPSR

57. S1. One of the first things the learning of a new language teaches you is that language comes

from the region of the unconscious.

S6. The test of how much you know is: how much can you say without having to think how

you are going to say it?

P. What is often meant by ‚thinking in a language‛ is really the ability to use it without

thinking about it.

Q. We grown-up people have to filter it through our minds-a much more laborious process.

R. That is why children learn a new language so effortlessly: it comes straight from their

instincts.

S. But we cannot say that we know a language, or know what we have studied of it, until we

can use it instinctively.

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SSC CGL Tier I Model Paper

The proper sequence should be

1) SQRP 2) RPSQ 3) PQSR 4) RQSP

58. S1. For seventeen years she led a sheltered life in the convent.

S6. Two years later she left the Loreto Convent where she had spent many happy and useful

years.

P. Her heart went out to the people living there.

Q. In 1946 she asked for permission to work in the slums.

R. Then one day, while she was returning from an errand, she saw the slums of Calcutta.

S. She felt she had found her second vocation, her real calling.

The proper sequence should be

1) PRSQ 2) RPSQ 3) RPQS 4) QRPS

59. S1. Good memory is so common that we regard a man who does not possess it as eccentric.

S6. She wheeled away the perambulator, picturing to herself his terror when he would come

out and find the baby gone.

P. I have heard of a father who, having offered to take the baby out in a perambulator, was

tempted by the sunny morning to pause on his journey and slip into a public house for a

glass of beer.

Q. A little later, his wife had to do some shopping which took her past the public house

where to her horror, she discovered her sleeping baby.

R. Leaving the perambulator outside, he disappeared into the drink shop.

S. Indignant at her husband’s behavior, she decided to teach him a lesson.

The proper sequence should be

1) PQRS 2) PRQS 3) PSQR 4) PQSR

60. S1. Human way of life have steadily changed.

S6. Even if we try to do nothing, we cannot prevent change.

P. Ancient Egypt – Greece – The Roman Empire – The Dark Ages and the Middle Ages – the

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SSC CGL Tier I Model Paper

Renaissance – the age of modern science and of modern nations one has succeeded the

other; the history has never stood still.

Q. About ten thousand years ago, man lived entirely by hunting.

R. A settled civilized life only began when agriculture was discovered.

S. From that time to this civilization has always been changing.

The proper sequence should be

1) QRSP 2) QPSR 3) QSRP 4) PRSQ

Directions (61-65): In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filed in

with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the

correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

61. The mounting pressure was so overwhelming that he ultimately _______ to her wish.

1) yielded in 2) gave in 3) cowed in 4) agreed in

62. Authority ________ when it is not supported by the moral purity of its user.

1) prevails 2) entails 3) crumbles 4) waits

63. Gandhiji conceived of the idea of channelizing the powerful currents of the untied mass

movement so as to give the utmost impetus to the national ___________ for independence.

1) struggle 2) conflict 3) onslaught 4) march

64. Because of his ____ habits, he could not save much money.

1) extravagant 2) frugal 3) unsavoury 4) bad

65. The robbers fell ______ amongst themselves over the sharing of the loot.

1) out 2) through 3) off 4) across

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Directions (66-68): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which

best expresses the meaning of the given word.

66. AMBIGUOUS

1) contrasting 2) connivance 3) vague 4) willful

67. ELUCIDATE

1) clarify 2) calculate 3) summarise 4) update

68. STRICTURE

1) strictness 2) stinging 3) discipline 4) censure

Directions (69-70): In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the

given word.

69. PUNCTILIOUS

1) irregular 2) fussy 3) careless 4) curious

70. CAPRICIOUS

1) dual 2) shaky 3) firm 4) unreliable

Directions (71-75): In each of the following questions, four alternatives are given for the

Idiom/phrases printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the

meaning of the Idiom/phrase as your answer.

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71. To cut the crackle

1) to be happy 2) to please someone

3) to act in an unfriendly way 4) to stop talking and start

72. To take somebody for a ride

1) to provide entertainment 2) to keep company

3) to deceive or humiliate 4) to exploit a person

73. To cool one’s heels

1) to rest for sometime 2) to give no importance to someone

3) to remain in a comfortable position 4) to be kept waiting for sometime

74. By the rule of thumb

1) by the use of force 2) by the use of trickery

3) by cheating and deception 4) by practical experience which is rather rough

75. A fool’s errand

1) a blunder 2) a tough task

3) a useless undertaking 4) None of these

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General Awareness

76. Besides CO2, the other green house gas is

1) CH4 2) N2N2 3) Ar Ar 4) O2

77. National Income of India is complied by

1) Finance Commission 2) Indian Statistical Institute

3) National Development Council 4) Central Statistical Organization

78. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the

States falls under its

1) Advisory jurisdiction 2) Original jurisdiction

3) Appellate jurisdiction 4) Juriprudence

79. The word ‘Satyameva Jayate’ have been derived from which Upanishad?

1) Akshi Upanishad 2) Mundaka Upanishad

3) Garuda Upanishad 4) Mahavakya Upanishad

80. When Granite rocks get metamorphosed, they form

1) Quartzite 2) Gneiss 3) Marble 4) Slate

81. Which of the following is a commercial source of energy

1) Agricultural waste 2) Dried dung

3) Sun 4) Natural gas

82. Backward bending supply curve belongs to which market?

1) Capital 2) Labour 3) Money 4) Inventories

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83. In IT, associative memory is called as

1) Virtual memory 2) Cache memory

3) Content addressable memory 4) Main memory

84. Addition of suitable impurities into semiconductor, is called

1) Doping 2) Mixing 3) Forming 4) Diluting

85. Kyoto Protocol is associated with

1) Species conservation 2) Climate change

3) Wetland Conservation 4) Medicinal plants

86. Ebraham Alkazi is an eminent personality in which one of the following area?

1) Heart surgery 2) Civil aviation

3) Theatre 4) Painting

87. Skoda, which launched sedan ‘Rapid’, is an automobile manufacturer based in

1) Japan 2) France

3) South Korea 4) Czech Republic

88. Sattriya is a classical dance from of _______

1) Manipur 2) Uttar Pradesh

3) Assam 4) Andhra Pradesh

89. P. V Sindhu defeated Wang Yihan to enter the semi final of Womens’ singles of badminton

at the Rio Olympics. Wang Yihan belongs to ______

1) Indonesia 2) Taiwan 3) China 4) Japan

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90. If a budget is defeated in the legislature of a state then

1) The Finance Minister alone has to resign

2) The Finance Minister concerned has to be suspended

3) The council of Ministers along with the Chief Minister has to resign

4) Reelection have to be ordered

91. Which one of the following papers was edited by Gandhiji in South Africa?

1) Indian Opinion 2) Harijian

3) Young India 4) Indian Mirror

92. In which of the following cities India’s first water metro project was recently launched?

1) Kolkata 2) Kochi

3) Vishakhapatnam 4) Mumbai

93. Meibomian glands are located in

1) Eye 2) Ear 3) Nose 4) Skin

94. In which city is India’s first Post Office ATM opened

1) Chennai 2) New Delhi

3) Hyderabad 4) Mumbai

95. Arsenic problem in India is primarily due to

1) Overexploitation of coal in Bihar and Bengal

2) Overexploitation of arsenopyrite in the hinterland

3) Overexploitation of ground water in the affected areas

4) Overexploitation of surface water in the affected areas

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96. Men’s Single Wimbledon Championship 2016, is bagged by

1) Andy Murray 2) Milos Ravnic

3) Roger Federer 4) Novak Dijokovic

97. Which of the following vitamins are water soluble?

1) Vit.A and Vit. B 2) Vit. B and Vit. C

3) Vit.C and vit. D 4) Vit. A and Vit. K

98. In terms of economics , if it is possible to make someone better off without making someone

worse off, then the situation is

1) Inefficient 2) Efficient

3) Optimal 4) Pareto superior

99. Green House Effect’ means

1) Pollution in houses in tropical region

2) Prevention of ultraviolent radiation by the ozone layer

3) Trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric gases

4) Damage to green painted buildings

100. General Dyer, who was responsible for Jallianwalan Bagh massacre, was shot dead by?

1) Harsat Mohini 2) Vir Savarkar

3) Udham Singh 4) Jatin Das

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Answer Key

1.3 2.3 3.3 4.2 5.2 6.4 7.4 8.3 9.4 10.3

11.1 12.2 13.1 14.2 15.2 16.2 17.3 18.4 19.3 20.3

21.1 22.2 23.3 24.1 25.3 26.3 27.2 28.1 29.4 30.2

31.3 32.1 33.2 34.2 35.2 36.2 37.2 38.3 39.3 40.1

41.3 42.3 43.3 44.2 45.2 46.4 47.3 48.2 49.3 50.4

51.3 52.3 53.1 54.1 55.1 56.3 57.4 58.2 59.2 60.1

61.2 62.3 63.1 64.1 65.1 66.3 67.1 68.4 69.3 70.3

71.4 72.3 73.4 74.4 75.3 76. 1 77. 4 78. 2 79. 2 80. 2

81. 4 82. 2 83. 3 84. 1 85. 2 86. 3 87. 4 88. 3 89. 3 90. 3

91. 1 92. 2 93. 1 94. 1 95. 3 96. 1 97. 2 98. 1 99. 2 100. 3

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