You are on page 1of 25

TEST

 –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  


 

1. Consider the following statements:


1. Amrita Bazar Patrika, one of the oldest newspapers in India, was launched in
Bengali.
2. Mahratta was launched by B.G. Tilak in English.

Which of the above is/are true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.

Answer: c.

Explanation:

Bal Gangadhar Tilak used to run his two newspapers, Kesari, in Marathi and Mahratta
in English from Pune.

Amrita Bazar Patrika was one of the oldest newspapers in India; it was launched in
Bengali. It debuted on 20 February 1868. It was started by Sisir Ghosh and Moti Lal
Ghosh, sons of Hari Naryan Ghosh, a rich merchant from Magura, in District Jessore, in
Bengal Province of British Empire in India. Amrita Bazar Patrika, which used to be a
nationalist newspaper during the British rule, discontinued its publication from 1986.

2. Consider the following statements:


1. At its Delhi session in 1919, the Congress demanded India’s representation at
the Peace Conference through its elected representatives.
2. At its Calcutta session in 1920, the Congress asked the people of India not to
join the army to fight in West Asia.
3. In May 1921, Gandhiji declared that the Indian people would oppose any
attack on Afghanistan.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 3.
d) All.

Answer: d.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

Explanation:

After the First World War, the nationalists developed their foreign policy in the
direction of opposition to political and economic imperialism and Cooperation of all
nations in the cause of world peace. As part of this Policy, at its Delhi session in 1919,
the Congress demanded India’s representation at the Peace Conference through its
elected representatives.

Indians also continued to voice their sympathy for the freedom fight of other countries.
The Irish and Egyptian people and the Government of Turkey were extended active
support. At its Calcutta session in 1920, the Congress asked the people not to join the
army to fight in West Asia.

In May 1921, Gandhiji declared that the Indian people would oppose any attack on
Afghanistan. The Congress branded the Mandate system of the League of Nations as a
cover for imperialist greed. In 1921, the Congress congratulated the Burmese people on
their struggle for freedom. Burma was at that time a part of India, but the Congress
announced that free India favoured Burma’s independence from India. In 1924, the
Congress asked the Indian settlers in Burma to demand no separate rights at the cost of
the Burmese people.

3. Who moved an adjournment motion in the Central Legislative Assembly to


protest against Indian troops being used to suppress the Chinese people in
January 1927?
a) Maharaja of Harihar
b) B.G. Tilak.
c) L. Ramaswamy.
d) S. Srinavasa Iyengar.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

In January 1927, S. Srinavasa Iyengar moved an adjournment motion in the Central


Legislative Assembly to protest against Indian troops being used to suppress the
Chinese people. The strong Indian feelings on the question were also repeatedly
expressed by the Congress during 1927 (including it Its Madras session). The Madras
Congress advised Indians not to go to China to fight or work against the Chinese people
who were fellow fighters in the struggle against imperialism. It also asked for the
withdrawal of Indian troops from Mesopotamia and Iran and all other foreign counties.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

In 1928, the Congress assured the people of Egypt, Syria, Palestine, Iraq, and
Afghanistan of its full support in their national liberation struggles.

4. Consider the following statements:


1. Jawaharlal Nehru participated in the International Congress against colonial
Oppression and Imperialism as a representative of the Congress.
2. The International Congress against colonial Oppression and Imperialism was
held in Moscow in February 1927.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.

Answer: b

Explanation:

In 1926-27, Jawaharlal Nehru travelled to Europe and came into contact with left-wing
European political workers and thinkers. This had an abiding impact on his political
development, including in the field of foreign affairs.

The highlight of Jawaharlal’s European visit was his participation as a representative of


the Congress in the International Congress against colonial Oppression and Imperialism
held in Brussels in February 1927. The basic objective of the Conference was to bring
together the colonial people of Africa, Asia and Latin America struggling against
imperialism and the working people of the capitalist countries fighting against
capitalism.

5. Who established Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College?


a) Syed Ahmad Khan
b) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
c) Maulana Azad
d) S.C. Bose

Answer: a.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

Explanation:

Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College was established by Syed Ahmad Khan at Aligarh.


It was specially founded to fight the bias against modern education among Muslims,
received financial support from moneyed Hindus; and its faculty and students had a
large Hindu component.

6. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Indian National Congress was established
in 1885?
a) Lord Dufferin
b) A.O. Hume
c) Lord Irwin
d) Lord Minto

Answer: a.

Explanation:

Lord Dufferin was the Viceroy of India when the Indian National Congress was founded
in 1885.

7. Consider the following statements regarding Badruddin Tyabji:


1. He never served as the President of the Indian National Congress
2. He was the first Indian to hold the post of Chief Justice in Mumbai.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.

Answer: b)

Explanation:

Badruddin Tyabji (10 October 1844 – 19 August 1906) was an Indian lawyer who served
as the third President of the Indian National Congress. Badruddin Tyabji presided over
the Congress session in 1887. He became the first Indian Barrister in Mumbai in April,
1867. He accepted a Judgeship of the Bombay High Court in 1895. In 1902, he became
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

the first Indian to hold the post of Chief Justice in Mumbai. He was also active in
women's emancipation and worked to weaken the zenana system. He was considered
among the moderate Muslims during the freedom movement of India.

8. Consider the following statements:


1. The Punjab Hindu Sabha , founded in 1909 was instrumental in spreading
communalism
2. The first session of the All-India Hindu Mahasabha was held in April 1915
under the presidentship of the Maharaja of Travancore.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.

Answer: a.

Explanation:

The Punjab Hindu Sabha was founded in 1909. Its leaders, U.N. Mukherji and Lal
Chand, were to lay down the foundations of Hindu communal ideology and politics.
They directed their anger primarily against the National Congress for trying to unite
Indians into a single nation and for ‘sacrificing Hindu interests’ to appease Muslims.

The first session of the All-India Hindu Mahasabha was held in April 1915 under the
presidentship of the Maharaja of Kasim Bazar. But it remained for many years a rather
sickly child compared to the Muslim League.

9. A large number of Muslim communal leaders met at Delhi in December 1927 and
evolved basic demands known as the Delhi Proposals. The Delhi Proposal
includes which of the following?
1. Sind should be made a separate province.
2. The North-West Frontier Province should be treated constitutionally on the
same footing as other provinces.
3. Muslims should have 50% representation in the central legislature.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a) Only 1.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 3.
d) Only 1 & 2.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

A large number of Muslim communal leaders met at Delhi in December 1927 and
evolved four basic demands known as the Delhi Proposals. These proposals were: (1)
Sind should be made a separate province; (2) the North-West Frontier Province should
be treated constitutionally on the same footing as other provinces; (3) Muslims should
have 33 1/3 per cent representation in the central legislature; (4) in Punjab and Bengal,
the proportion of representation should be in accordance with the population, thus
guaranteeing a Muslim majority, and in other provinces, where Muslims were a
minority, the existing reservation of seats for Muslims should continue.

10. Consider the following statements:


1. The Nehru Report was put up for approval before an All-Party Convention at
Calcutta in 1928.
2. The Nehru Report recommended that India should be a federation on the
basis of linguistic provinces and provincial autonomy.
3. The Nehru Report recommended the separation of Sind from Bombay and
constitutional reform in the North-West Frontier Province.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 3.
d) All.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

The Congress proposals came in the form of the Nehru Report drafted by an all-parties
committee. The Report was put up for approval before an All-Party Convention at
Calcutta at the end of December 1928. Apart from other aspects, the Nehru Report
recommended that India should be a federation on the basis of linguistic provinces and
provincial autonomy, that elections be held on the basis of joint electorates and that
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

seats in central and provincial legislatures be reserved for religious minorities in


proportion to their population. The Report recommended the separation of Sind from
Bombay and constitutional reform in the North-West Frontier Province. The Report
could not be approved unanimously at the Calcutta Convention.

11. Consider the following statements regarding the Communal Award:


1. It was announced by Prime Minister MacDonald In August 1932.
2. It expanded the separate-electorate formula reserved for Muslims to other
minorities, including Sikhs.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.

Answer: c.

Explanation:

In August 1932 Prime Minister MacDonald announced his Communal Award. It was
Great Britain’s unilateral attempt to resolve the various conflicts among India’s many
communal interests. The award, which was later incorporated into the act of 1935,
expanded the separate-electorate formula reserved for Muslims to other minorities,
including Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans. The Award was
highly controversial and opposed by Mahatma Gandhi, who was in Yerveda jail, and
fasted in protest against it.

12. Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian provincial
elections held in 1937:
1. Elections were held in eleven provinces.
2. The Indian National Congress emerged in power in eight of the provinces.
3. The All-India Muslim League failed to form the government in any province.

Which of the above statements are true?


TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 2.
d) All.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

Provincial elections were held in British India in the winter of 1936-37 as mandated by
the Government of India Act 1935. Elections were held in eleven provinces - Madras,
Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, United Provinces, Bombay Presidency, Assam, NWFP,
Bengal, Punjab and Sindh.

The final results of the elections were declared in February 1937. The Indian National
Congress emerged in power in eight of the provinces - the three exceptions being
Bengal, Punjab, and Sindh. The All-India Muslim League failed to form the government
in any province.

The Congress ministries resigned in October and November 1939, in protest against
Viceroy Lord Linlithgow's action of declaring India to be a belligerent in the Second
World War without consulting the Indian people.

13. Who gave Muhammad Ali Jinnah the title of “the Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim
Unity”?
a) Sarojini Naidu
b) B.R. Ambedkar
c) Dadabhai naoraoji
d) Annie Besant

Answer: a.

Explanation:

After the unpopular partition of Bengal, Jinnah approached the Muslim League to make
it more popular among the Muslim masses. Due to the reconciliation brought about by
Jinnah between the Congress and the League, the Nightingale of India, Sarojini Naidu,
gave him the title of “the Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim Unity”.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

14. Consider the following statements with reference to the Individual Satyagraha:
1. Individual Satyagraha was limited, symbolic and non-violent in nature.
2. It was left to Mahatma Gandhi to choose the Satyagrahis.
3. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first Individual Satyagraha.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1 & 2
b) Only 1 & 3
c) Only 2 & 3.
d) All.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

During the course of the Second World War in order to secure the cooperation of the
Indians, the British Government made an announcement on 8 August 1940, which came
to be known as the ‘August Offer’. The August Offer envisaged that after the War a
representative body of Indians would be set up to frame the new Constitution.

Gandhi was not satisfied with this offer and decided to launch Individual Satyagraha.
Individual Satyagraha was limited, symbolic and non-violent in nature and it was left to
Mahatma Gandhi to choose the Satyagrahis. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first to offer
Satyagraha and he was sentenced to three months imprisonment. Jawaharlal Nehru was
the second Satyagrahi and imprisoned for four months. The individual Satyagraha
continued for nearly 15 months.

15. Which of the following were the recommendations made by Sir Stafford Cripps?
1. The promise of Dominion Status to India.
2. Protection of minorities.
3. Setting up of a Constituent Assembly in which there would be representatives
from the Princely States along with those of the British Provinces.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 3.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

d) All.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

In the midst of worsening wartime international situation, the British Government in its
continued effort to secure Indian cooperation sent Sir Stafford Cripps to India on 23
March 1942.

This is known as Cripps Mission. The main recommendations of Cripps were:

• The promise of Dominion Status to India,


• Protection of minorities
• Setting up of a Constituent Assembly in which there would be representatives
from the Princely States along with those of the British Provinces,
• There would be provision for any Province of British India not prepared to accept
this Constitution, either to retain its present constitutional position or frame a
constitution of its own.

The major political parties of the country rejected the Cripps proposals. Gandhi called
Cripp’s proposals as a “Post-dated Cheque”. They did not like the rights of the Princely
States either to send their representatives to the Constituent Assembly or to stay out of
the Indian Union. The Muslim League was also dissatisfied as its demand for Pakistan
had not been conceded in the proposal.

16. Indian and China have declared 2014 as the Year of Friendly Exchanges to
commemorate the 60th anniversary of the:
a) Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence (Panchsheel).
b) Non Alignment Movement.
c) Tripartite agreement involving Japan.
d) Cultural Exchange Programme.

Answer: a.

Explanation:

Indian and China have declared 2014 as the Year of Friendly Exchanges to
commemorate the 60th anniversary of the Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence
(Panchsheel).
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

17. Consider the following statements with reference to “Japan Plus”:


1. It was set up by the Ministry of External Affairs.
2. It was set up to facilitate and fast track investment proposals from Japan.
3. It will comprise representatives from Government of India and METI
(Ministry of Economy, Trade and Industry), Government of Japan.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1 & 3
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 2.
d) All.

Answer: b.

Explanation:

The Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP) has set up a special
management team to facilitate and fast track investment proposals from Japan. The
team, known as “Japan Plus”, will comprise representatives from Government of India
and METI (Ministry of Economy, Trade and Industry), Government of Japan.

The mandate of the “Japan Plus” team runs through the entire spectrum of investment
promotion – research, outreach, promotion, facilitation and aftercare. The team will
support the Government of India in initiating, attracting, facilitating, fast tracking and
handholding Japanese investments across sectors. The team will also be responsible for
providing updated information on investment opportunities across sectors, in specific
projects and in industrial corridors in particular. In addition, the “Japan Plus” team will
identify prospective Japanese companies, including, Small and Medium Enterprises
(SMEs) and facilitate their investments in India.

The “Japan Plus” team will also provide assistance to DIPP in undertaking regular
benchmarking studies, identifying bottlenecks and areas of concern in sectors of interest
to Japanese companies, and analyzing their impact on industrial development
production in India.

18. Consider the following statements with reference to the United Nations
Convention to Combat Desertification:
1. It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and
development to sustainable land management.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

2. It is the first and only internationally legally binding framework set up to


address the problem of desertification.
3. Only countries having deserts are members to this convention.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1 & 2
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 3.
d) All.

Answer: a

Explanation:

Desertification, along with climate change and the loss of biodiversity, were identified as
the greatest challenges to sustainable development during the 1992 Rio Earth Summit.
Established in 1994, UNCCD is the sole legally binding international agreement linking
environment and development to sustainable land management. The Convention
addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the
drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found. In
the 10-Year Strategy of the UNCCD (2008-2018) that was adopted in 2007, Parties to
the Convention further specified their goals: "to forge a global partnership to reverse
and prevent desertification/land degradation and to mitigate the effects of drought in
affected areas in order to support poverty reduction and environmental sustainability".
It is the first and only internationally legally binding framework set up to address the
problem of desertification.

The Convention’s 195 parties work together to improve the living conditions for people
in drylands, to maintain and restore land and soil productivity, and to mitigate the
effects of drought. The UNCCD is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach,
encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification and land
degradation. The UNCCD secretariat facilitates cooperation between developed and
developing countries, particularly around knowledge and technology transfer for
sustainable land management.

19. Consider the following statements with reference to the Arctic Council:
1. Only states with territory in the Arctic can be members of the Council.
2. Chairmanship of the Council rotates every two years and the current chair is
Canada, which serves until the Ministerial meeting in May 2015.
3. Observer status is open to non-Arctic states approved by the Council at the
Ministerial Meetings.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

4. Only permanent observers have voting rights in the Council.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only2, 3 & 4.
c) Only 1 & 4.
d) Only 1, 2 & 3.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

The Arctic Council is a high-level intergovernmental forum that addresses issues faced
by the Arctic governments and the indigenous people of the Arctic. It has eight member
countries: Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden, and the United
States.

Only states with territory in the Arctic can be members of the Council. All eight
countries are members making the Arctic Council a circumpolar forum. The Council also
has permanent and ad hoc observer countries and "permanent participants".

Chairmanship of the Council rotates every two years. The current chair is Canada, which
serves until the Ministerial meeting in May 2015. Observer status is open to non-Arctic
states approved by the Council at the Ministerial Meetings that occur once every two
years. Permanent observers have no voting rights in the Council. As of May 2013, twelve
non-Arctic states have Permanent Observer status. Observer states receive invitations
for most Council meetings. Their participation in projects and task forces within the
Working Groups is not always possible, but this poses few problems as few Observer
States want to participate at such a detailed level.

Ad hoc observer states need to request permission for their presence at each individual
meeting; such requests are routine and most of them are granted. There are six ad hoc
members, not including the European Union. At the 2013 Ministerial Meeting in
Kiruna, Sweden, the EU requested full observer status. It was not granted, mostly
because the members do not agree on the EU ban on hunting seals. Approved
intergovernmental and interparliamentary organizations (both global and regional) and
non-governmental organizations can also obtain Observer Status.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

20. Consider the following statements regarding the Research and Information
System RIS) for Developing Countries:
1. It is an autonomous think-tank under the Ministry of External Affairs,
Government of India.
2. The focus of the work programme of RIS is to promote South- South
Cooperation and assist developing countries in multilateral negotiations in
various forums.
3. It is an advisory body to the Government of India.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) All.
d) None.

Answer: c.

Explanation:

Research and Information System for Developing Countries (RIS), a New Delhi based
autonomous think-tank under the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India, is
an organization that specializes in policy research on international economic issues and
development cooperation. RIS is envisioned as a forum for fostering effective policy
dialogue and capacity-building among developing countries on international economic
issues. The focus of the work programme of RIS is to promote South- South Cooperation
and assist developing countries in multilateral negotiations in various forums. RIS is
engaged in the Track II process of several regional initiatives. RIS is providing analytical
support to the Government of India in the negotiations for concluding comprehensive
economic cooperation agreements with partner countries. Through its intensive network
of policy think tanks, RIS seeks to strengthen policy coherence on international
economic issues.

RIS is mandated to function as an advisory body to the Government of India on matters


pertaining to multilateral economic and social issues, including regional and sub-­‐‑
regional cooperation arrangements and innovation policies. RIS functions in close
association with various governmental bodies, research institutions, academicians,
policy-­‐‑makers, and business and industry circles in India and abroad. RIS has a
consultative status with UNCTAD, NAM and the WTO and has conducted policy
research and other activities in collaboration with agencies including UN-­‐‑ESCAP,
UNCTAD, UNU, Group of 77, SAARC Secretariat, Asian Development Bank (ADB), The
World Bank, and the South Centre.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

21. Consider the following statements with reference to the Pravasi Bharatiya
Samman Awards:
1. It is the highest honour conferred on overseas Indians.
2. Only on a Non-Resident Indian is eligible for this award.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.

Answer: a.

Explanation:

The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA) is the highest honour conferred on
overseas Indians. PBSA is conferred by the President of India as a part of the Pravasi
Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Conventions organized annually since 2003 on a Non-Resident
Indian, Person of Indian Origin or an organization or institution established and run by
the Non-Resident Indians or Persons of Indian Origin, who has made significant
contribution in any one of the following fields:

• Better understanding abroad of India;


• Support to India’s causes and concerns in a tangible way;
• Building closer links between India, the overseas Indian community and their
country of residence;
• Social and humanitarian causes in India or abroad;
• Welfare of the local Indian community;
• Philanthropic and charitable work;
• Eminence in one’s field or outstanding work, which has enhanced India’s prestige
in the country of residence; or
• Eminence in skills which has enhanced India’s prestige in that country (for non-
professional workers).
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

22. Which of the following categories of Industries require compulsory industrial


license in India?
1. Coal and Lignite
2. Petroleum (other than crude) and its distillation products
3. Distillation and brewing of alcoholic drinks
4. Sugar
5. Cigars and cigarettes of tobacco and manufacture tobacco substitutes

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2, 4 & 5.
c) Only 1, 4 & 5.
d) All.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

The list of industries requiring compulsory industrial licence will be reduced to the
following nine categories:

• Coal and Lignite


• Petroleum (other than crude) and its distillation products
• Distillation and brewing of alcoholic drinks
• Sugar
• Cigars and cigarettes of tobacco and manufacture tobacco substitutes
• Electronic aerospace and defence equipment; all types
• Industrial explosives, including detonating fuse, safety fuse, gun powder,
nitrocellulose and matches.
• Hazardous chemicals
• Drugs and Pharmaceuticals (according to Drug Policy)

23. Which of the following sectors are reserved for Public Sector?
1. Atomic energy.
2. Railway transport.
3. Port Constructions.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:


TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

a) Only 1.
b) Only 1 & 2.
c) Only 3.
d) All.

Answer: b.

Explanation:

List of industries reserved for the public sector and where private companies cannot
enter

• Atomic energy.
• The substances specified in the scheduled to the notification of the Government
of India in the Department of Atomic Energy number S.O.212(E), dated the 15th
March, 1995.
• Railway transport.

24. Consider the following statements with reference to the Index of Industrial
production (IIP):
1. It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation
(CSO).
2. Mining and Manufacturing sectors are not included in the Index.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) Both.
d) None.

Answer: a.

Explanation:

The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index which details out the growth of
various sectors in an economy such as mining, electricity and manufacturing. The all
India IIP is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume
of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

that in a chosen base period. It is compiled and published monthly by the Central
Statistical Organisation (CSO) six weeks after the reference month ends.

The level of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an abstract number, the
magnitude of which represents the status of production in the industrial sector for a
given period of time as compared to a reference period of time.

25. The Eight Core Industries of India include:


1. Crude Oil
2. Natural Gas
3. Fertilizers
4. Cement
5. Electricity
6. Textiles

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a) Only 1, 2, 3 & 5
b) Only 2, 3, 4 & 6.
c) Only 1, 3, 5 & 6.
d) Only 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

The Eight Core Industries are:

1. Coal
2. Crude Oil
3. Natural Gas
4. Petroleum Refinery Products (0.93% of Crude Throughput)
5. Fertilizers
6. Steel (Alloy + Non-Alloy)
7. Cement
8. Electricity

26. Consider the following statements with reference to the Khadi & Village Industies
Commission (KVIC):
1. It is a statutory body.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

2. It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium


Enterprises.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2.
c) None
d) Both.

Answer: c.

Explanation:

Khadi & Village Industies Commission (KVIC):

The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is a statutory body established by
an Act of Parliament (Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956). In April
1957, it took over the work of former All India Khadi and Village Industries Board.

Function: It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India, which seeks to –
“plan, promote, facilitate, organise and assist in the establishment and development of
khadi and village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies
engaged in rural development wherever necessary.”

The Commission has three main objectives which guide its functioning. These are –

• The Social Objective – Providing employment in rural areas


• The Economic Objective – Providing salable articles
• The Wider Objective – Creating self-reliance amongst people and building up a
strong rural community spirit.

The commission seeks to achieve these objectives by implementing and monitoring


various schemes and programs.

27. Central Public Sector Enterprises fulfilling which of the following criteria are
eligible to be considered for grant of Maharatna status?
1. Having Navratna status
2. Listed on the Indian stock exchange, with a minimum prescribed public
shareholding under SEBI regulations
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

3. An average annual turnover of more than Rs. 20,000 crore during the last
three years
4. An average annual net worth of more than Rs.10,000 crore during the last
three years

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a) Only 1 &3.
b) Only 2 & 4.
c) Only 1, 2 & 3.
d) All.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

Maharatna Scheme was introduced for Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), with
effect from 19th May, 2010, in order to empower mega CPSEs to expand their
operations and emerge as global giants. The objective of the scheme is to delegate
enhanced powers to the Boards of identified large-sized Navratna CPSEs so as to
facilitate expansion of their operations, both in domestic as well as global markets.

CPSEs fulfilling the following criteria are eligible to be considered for grant of
Maharatna status:

• Having Navratna status


• Listed on the Indian stock exchange, with a minimum prescribed public
shareholding under SEBI regulations
• An average annual turnover of more than Rs. 20,000 crore during the last three
years
• An average annual net worth of more than Rs.10,000 crore during the last three
years
• An average annual net profit of more than Rs. 2,500 crore during the last 3 years
• Significant global presence or international operations

28. Who can make laws on matters not included in the state List or Concurrent List?
a) Parliament alone.
b) State Legislature alone.
c) Both Parliament and State Legislature.
d) Council of Ministers.

Answer: a.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

Explanation:

The Parliament of India is competent to legislate on all matters that are enumerated in
the Union List and the Concurrent List of the Constitution. In the Concurrent List, the
Parliament and the State Legislatures have joint jurisdiction. However, in case of
conflict over any law made under the Concurrent List, the Union Law will prevail upon
the State Law provided the State Law has not received the earlier assent of the
President. Parliament alone has power to make laws on matters not included in the state
list or concurrent list.

29. The Supreme Court of India has original jurisdiction in any dispute arising:
1. Between the Government of India and one or more States.
2. Between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one
or more States on the other.
3. Between two or more States.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 2.
d) All.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. Its exclusive
original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or
more States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and
one or more States on the other or between two or more States, if and insofar as the
dispute involves any question (whether of law or of fact) on which the existence or
extent of a legal right depends. In addition, Article 32 of the Constitution gives an
extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of
Fundamental Rights. It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including
writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and
certiorari to enforce them. The Supreme Court has been conferred with power to direct
transfer of any civil or criminal case from one State High Court to another State High
Court or from a Court subordinate to another State High Court. The Supreme Court, if
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

satisfied that cases involving the same or substantially the same questions of law are
pending before it and one or more High Courts or before two or more High Courts and
that such questions are substantial questions of general importance, may withdraw a
case or cases pending before the High Court or High Courts and dispose of all such cases
itself. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, International Commercial
Arbitration can also be initiated in the Supreme Court.

30. Consider the following statements with reference to the Gram Nyayalayas:
1. The Gram Nyayalayas are presided over by a Nyayadhikari, who will have the
same power, enjoy same salary and benefits of a Judicial Magistrate of First
Class.
2. A Gram Nyayalaya have jurisdiction over an area specified by a notification by
the State Government in consultation with the respective High Court.
3. The Gram Nyayalayas have only civil jurisdiction over the offences.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) Only 1 & 2
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 2.
d) All.

Answer: a

Explanation:

Gram Nyayalayas:

Gram Nyayalayas or village courts are established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008
for speedy and easy access to justice system in the rural areas of India. The Act came
into force from 2 October 2009.

• However, the Act has not been enforced properly, with only 194 functional Gram
Nyayalayas in the country against a target of 5000 such courts.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

• The major reason behind the non-enforcement includes financial constraints,


reluctance of lawyers, police and other government officials.

Important features of Gram Nyayalayas:

• Gram Nyayalayas are established generally at headquarter of every Panchayat at


intermediate level or a group of contiguous panchayat in a district where there is
no panchayat at intermediate level.
• The Gram Nyayalayas are presided over by a Nyayadhikari, who will have the
same power, enjoy same salary and benefits of a Judicial Magistrate of First
Class. Such Nyayadhikari are to be appointed by the State Government in
consultation with the respective High Court.
• A Gram Nyayalaya have jurisdiction over an area specified by a notification by the
State Government in consultation with the respective High Court. The Court can
function as a mobile court at any place within the jurisdiction of such Gram
Nyayalaya, after giving wide publicity to that regards.
• The Gram Nyayalayas have both civil and criminal jurisdiction over the offences.
The pecuniary jurisdiction of the Nyayalayas are fixed by the respective High
Courts.
• Both the Central and the State Government can add or remove items in the
Schedule. While the Central Government can amend the list in Schedule I and II,
by notifying them and thereafter laying it in the Parliament, the State
Government can amend the items in Part III of Schedule I or II, in the areas of
law which the state is competent to enact law after due consultation with the
respective High Court and notifying it. Such notification has to be laid in the
State Legislature.
• Gram Nyayalayas can follow special procedures in civil matters, in a manner it
deem just and reasonable in the interest of justice.
• Gram Nyayalayas allow for conciliation of the dispute and settlement of the same
in the first instance.
• Gram Nyayalayas has been given power to accept certain evidences which would
otherwise not be acceptable under Indian Evidence Act.
• Appeals in criminal matter can be made to the Sessions Court in the respective
jurisdiction and in civil matters to the District Court within a period of one
month from the date of judgment.

31. Consider the following statements with reference to the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima
Yojana (RSBY):
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

1. RSBY was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government


of India.
2. Beneficiaries under RSBY are entitled to hospitalization coverage up to Rs.
30,000/- for most of the diseases that require hospitalization.
3. Under the Scheme, Beneficiaries can avail loan upto 1 lakh from local RRBs.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1.
b) Only 2 & 3.
c) Only 1 & 2.
d) Only 3.

Answer: c.

Explanation:

Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY):

RSBY was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India to
provide health insurance coverage for Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.

Objective: To provide protection to BPL households from financial liabilities arising out
of health shocks that involve hospitalization.

Details:

• Beneficiaries under RSBY are entitled to hospitalization coverage up to Rs.


30,000/- for most of the diseases that require hospitalization.
• Government has even fixed the package rates for the hospitals for a large number
of interventions.
• Pre-existing conditions are covered from day one and there is no age limit.
• Coverage extends to five members of the family which includes the head of
household, spouse and up to three dependents.
• Beneficiaries need to pay only Rs. 30/- as registration fee while Central and State
Government pays the premium to the insurer selected by the State Government
on the basis of a competitive bidding.
• The scheme has won plaudits from the World Bank, the UN and the ILO as one of
the world’s best health insurance schemes.

Unique Features of RSBY:

The RSBY scheme differs from other schemes in several important ways.
TEST  –  20  (25  QUESTIONS)   INSIGHTS  TEST  SERIES  -­‐  2015   WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM  
 

• Empowering the beneficiary – RSBY provides the participating BPL household


with freedom of choice between public and private hospitals and makes him a
potential client worth attracting on account of the significant revenues that
hospitals stand to earn through the scheme.
• Business Model for all Stakeholders – The scheme has been designed as a
business model for a social sector scheme with incentives built for each
stakeholder.
• Hospitals – A hospital has the incentive to provide treatment to large number of
beneficiaries as it is paid per beneficiary treated.
• Intermediaries – The inclusion of intermediaries such as NGOs and MFIs which
have a greater stake in assisting BPL households.
• Information Technology (IT) Intensive – For the first time IT applications are
being used for social sector scheme on such a large scale. Every beneficiary family
is issued a biometric enabled smart card containing their fingerprints and
photographs. All the hospitals empanelled under RSBY are IT enabled and
connected to the server at the district level. This will ensure a smooth data flow
regarding service utilization periodically.
• Safe and foolproof – The use of biometric enabled smart card and a key
management system makes this scheme safe and foolproof. The key management
system of RSBY ensures that the card reaches the correct beneficiary and there
remains accountability in terms of issuance of the smart card and its usage. The
biometric enabled smart card ensures that only the real beneficiary can use the
smart card.
• Portability – The key feature of RSBY is that a beneficiary who has been enrolled
in a particular district will be able to use his/ her smart card in any RSBY
empanelled hospital across India. This makes the scheme truly unique and
beneficial to the poor families that migrate from one place to the other. Cards can
also be split for migrant workers to carry a share of the coverage with them
separately.
• Cash less and Paperless transactions – A beneficiary of RSBY gets cashless
benefit in any of the empanelled hospitals.