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When designing a storage platform, which of the following should be considered as part of the
overall design?
A. Capacity
B. I/O requirements of the applications to be supported
C. Disk latency tolerance
D. Growth rate
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Explanation:
A storage platform logical design requires in-depth analysis of factors that can affect applications.
In the case of storage, aspects that relate to the physical layer—such as the amount of usable
space required for services; the size, number, and speed of disks; and how fast the data is being
produced—could have a substantial impact to the storage platform.
Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches
QUESTION NO: 2
You are the technical designer for a vSphere platform transformation project. After conducting
SME interviews and using various platform information-gathering methods, you have created a
high-level design document.
Requirements:
R2. Production applications must not have an outage of more than 10 seconds.
R5. Applications should support existing and developing workloads for the next 3 years’ growth.
Spec of servers:
At a late stage in the software development life cycle of a production application developed in-
house, an unfortunate issue was identified when the application was deployed to the production
vSphere cluster. The production core stacked switch has capacity issues, and this is having a
serious impact on all applications for which the switch is providing network services. Within the
test system, the application works as intended in the single test VLAN and with a single-host
configuration.
Which of the following could be tried to help in this situation, from a vSphere perspective? (Choose
two)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
If you limit the application traffic to a specific dedicated network (that is, a separate VLAN) and
using enforced DRS affinity rules, the application traffic will not traverse the ESXi host’s physical
network interfaces. This will ensure that the impact of the application is minimized, while also
ensuring that the application itself is not limited.
The application servers already have vCPU settings. This suggests that the system has already
being virtualized in both types of environments. Network I/O control could be useful in the event of
contention, but the role of a designer would be to plan to prevent contention where possible; other
options would be more beneficial. In addition, Requirement 5 specifies that the system should
work with workloads over the next 3 years. Network I/O control would suggest contention very
early in the platform history.
Chapter 4, NetWork - Logical and Physical Design to allow applications to flow
QUESTION NO: 3
Based on the information in the high-level design extract you have created a high-level design
document.
R2. Production applications must not have an outage of more than 10 seconds.
R5. Applications should support existing and developing workloads for the next 3 years’ growth.
Spec of servers:
At a late stage in the software development life cycle of a production application developed in-
house, an unfortunate issue was identified when the application was deployed to the production
vSphere cluster. The production core stacked switch has capacity issues, and this is having a
serious impact on all applications for which the switch is providing network services. Within the
test system, the application works as intended in the single test VLAN and with a single-host
configuration.
A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. FC
Answer: A
Explanation:
The requirements state that the application uptime requirements would not be met if using
vSphere HA alone. vSphere HA would invoke a restart of guest virtual machines after at least 10
seconds.
VMware fault tolerance would meet the uptime requirements; a failover would result in zero
downtime of the application. This technology can be used only with VMFS; therefore, NFS cannot
be used in this design.
Chapter 4, NetWork - Logical and Physical Design to allow applications to flow
Based on the information in the high-level design extract for question 2, which type of data store
would be required?
A. VMFS
B. NFS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Because fault tolerance would be the only VMware technology that would meet the technical
requirements, VMFS is the only choice here.
Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following vSphere cluster technologies would meet the application requirements
specified in the high-level design extract you have created a high-level design document.
Requirements:
R2. Production applications must not have an outage of more than 10 seconds.
R5. Applications should support existing and developing workloads for the next 3 years’ growth.
Spec of servers:
At a late stage in the software development life cycle of a production application developed in-
house, an unfortunate issue was identified when the application was deployed to the production
A. FT
B. HA
Answer: A
Explanation:
vSphere HA would need to wait at least 10 seconds before a restart would be possible. This would
not meet requirements. In the event of a restart, it could be possible to be without the application
feed database for about 15 minutes. VMware FT would enable the service to be provided without
additional redevelopment.
Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches
QUESTION NO: 6
A. must be achieved
B. can be set as aspirational but may never be achieved
Answer: A
Explanation:
A project requirement is a specific deliverable that the business has said must be provided at the
end of a project. It must always be achieved.
Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches
QUESTION NO: 7
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches
QUESTION NO: 9
Storage DRS can be enabled and can balance I/O levels based on _______________
A. real-time stats
B. historical stats
Answer: B
Explanation:
Storage DRS can balance I/O by using storage vMotion. This would be based on historical values
for a period of time. Storage DRS would make decisions based on these figures. If the system
were using realtime stats, the machines could potentially migrate a lot more. This could have an
effect on the latency figures for some systems. The larger historical sampling in storage DRS
allows the system to make a decision with limited risk of impacting I/O—unlike moving a virtual
machine over and over again.
Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches
The vCenter database is powered off ungracefully, along with a three cluster nodes in a separate
cluster. Will the failed existing ESXi host nodes restart correctly using Auto Deploy?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Explanation:
Auto Deploy enables an untrained IT professional to increase capacity while ensuring quality and
consistency within a cluster. However, there is a dependency on the vCenter server and Auto
Deploy server roles at different times. In this case, the ESXi hosts have already booted
successfully. This means that all subsequent reboots will be controlled using configuration from
the Auto Deploy server, not vCenter. If the vCenter database is impacted, the ESXi hosts will
automatically restore. Even in the event of no vCenter availability, hosts will use the last-known
copy of a distributed switch or the configured vSphere switch.
Chapter X, Putting it all together
QUESTION NO: 11
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will have limited
best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based recommendations. The
longer a technology is used in a community, the more potential success; therefore, best practices
can change over time.
Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
QUESTION NO: 12
Answer: B
Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will have limited
best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based recommendations. The
longer a technology is used in a community, the more potential success; therefore, best practices
may be recommended by non-vendor-related people. It is up to a designer to validate this
information rather than ignore it straightaway.
Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
QUESTION NO: 13
A. BIOS settings
B. Data flow
C. Key component relationships
D. High-level diagrams
E. Server host names
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
A logical diagram can be used to show service components and how they relate to each other. A
logical diagram is high level in nature and is independent of the hardware used for a solution.
Chapter 2, Presenting the Data Gathered
QUESTION NO: 14
You are a VMware architect employed to design and build application environments and the
underlying platform for a software development company. The company is using a “devops”
approach and has engaged with you at the beginning of the first planning meeting/pre-sprint.
The software has yet to be written. However, you have some high-level specifications that are
subject to change at each of the early meetings.
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are two types of scaling approaches in virtual platforms: adaptive and predictive. Both
approaches are usable; however, a designer must work out which is the best approach for each
project.
The adaptive approach to guest virtual machine design is a major advantage that virtualization
technology brings to a datacenter. It allows a guest virtual machine to be created initially on a few
metrics or high-level requirements (such as a limited budget) and scaled (that is, grown, not
shrunk) through the virtual machine life cycle. In many cases, this scaling can be performed
hot/live without outage/downtime to the running applications.
The predictive approach, on the other hand, requires more planning and research, and you must
know the metrics before deployment. The advantage here is that once the virtual machine has
been deployed, only application maintenance is required. The application requirements are known.
Chapter 5, Design Approaches
QUESTION NO: 15
You are working on a hybrid cloud project, where production applications (yet to be fully
developed) are to be deployed. Which of the following is a project requirement?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A requirement is a definable and measurable project item. It must be part of the delivery, and its
removal cannot be justified.
Chapter 2, Definitions of Key Terms
QUESTION NO: 16
A. IT architect
B. software vendor
C. business
Answer: C
Explanation:
By reviewing the current configuration of a system and mapping the final status of components as
described in the vision, the business identifies the gap between the two. A gap state analysis is a
review of the items or tasks that are required to progress between the stages. Such an analysis is
useful in creating milestone plans, implementation orders, and so on.
Chapter 2, Gathering Information and Spotting the Gaps
QUESTION NO: 17
A(n) _____________ is an item that is taken to be true in the design phases but has not been
tested prior to execution.
A. requirement
B. constraint
C. assumption
D. risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
An assumption could impact your design. It is good to ensure that project team and wider business
are aware of assumptions and that they are agreed and validated as part of the design
consideration process.
Chapter 2, Gathering Information and Spotting the Gaps
QUESTION NO: 18
You are a virtualization consultant working on a DR project. You have proposed a solution that
uses SAN replication technology to replicate production virtual machine files. This meets the cold
standby requirement.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An item from the current state analysis that would restrict or change a design choice is potentially
a constraint. Such factors can limit a design and in some cases prevent the realization of a project
vision.
Chapter 2, Gathering Information and Spotting the Gaps
QUESTION NO: 19
You are a technical consultant designing a solution for an online retail company. The project vision
is to deploy a hybrid cloud, with the internal team developing the website on internal infrastructure
and migrating production-ready applications to a hosting provider. The project is expected to ease
deployment and require less infrastructure capital expenditure—without lowering application
quality.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The technical design process enables the platform designer to work in a methodical way and with
others who have similar objectives. A risk is that a project item could potentially prevent the vision
or aspects of it (requirements) from being created.
Chapter 1, The Technical Design Process
A DR project requires a recovery time objective (RTO) of 4 hours and has a recovery point
objective (RPO) of 2 hours. The system fails at 8 p.m. on a Sunday evening. At what time is the
application expected to be available to the end users?
A. Midnight
B. 10 p.m.
C. 2 a.m.
D. 11 p.m.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO)—also known as the return to operation—is the amount of time
it takes to restore a service after a failure has taken place. The recovery point objective (RPO) is
the point in time to which the system needs to be restored following a failure.
Chapter 3, RTO, RPO, and All That Stuff?
QUESTION NO: 21
A project vision in some cases may not be achieved due to constraints, risks, and other project
factors. However, a project vision is required to guide a project throughout the life cycle.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
The technical design process enables a platform designer to work in a methodical way and with
others who have similar objectives. The vision is the endpoint—the environment or situation
whereby the business would ideally like to be following the process.
Chapter 1, The Technical Design Process
QUESTION NO: 22
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will have limited
best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based recommendations. The
longer a technology is used in a community, the more potential success; therefore, best practices
may change over time.
Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
QUESTION NO: 23
An application has an SLA whereby the service must be restored in 4 hours, with 15-minute data
loss. Which of the following statements is valid?
A. The platform must provide the application with RTO of 15 minutes and RPO of 4 hours.
B. The platform must provide the application with RTO of 4 hours and RPO of 15 minutes.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO)—also known as the return to operation—is the amount of time
it takes to restore a service after a failure has taken place. The recovery point objective (RPO) is
the point in time to which the system needs to be restored following a failure.
Chapter 3, RTO, RPO, and All That Stuff?
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following type of discovery methods used in state-analysis techniques is more likely
to affect application or server performance.
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Both A and B
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following diagrams which may be included in project documentation shows a
system’s components and how they could affect/depend on each other?
A. Logical diagram
B. Entity relationship diagram
C. Physical diagram
Answer: B
Explanation:
An entity relationship diagram is a form of logical diagram than can be used to map service
component dependencies. It is independent of the hardware used for a solution.
Chapter 2, Presenting the Data Gathered
QUESTION NO: 26
Infrastructure qualities are guiding design considerations that can be used ___________. (Choose
two)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Good design should meet the project requirements and consider the properties of assumed
platform design. Protecting data requires that a system be available and manageable, that it have
QUESTION NO: 27
A. The vCenter has a direct impact in the event of an outage of this component.
B. The Auto Deploy server has a direct impact in the end of an outage of this component.
C. Both of the above statements are correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Auto Deploy feature is an excellent design choice for managing a mass installation of ESXi.
The vCenter is required for implementation; however, the requirement is independent of vCenter
version.
Chapter 4, Management/Platform Design
QUESTION NO: 28
VMware HA can reduce the requirement for disaster recovery planning and documentation.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
VMware HA can satisfy the majority of RTO scenarios. In general, a business can tolerate small
outages of less than a few minutes. When designed correctly, HA can satisfy this requirement
while providing hardware-level protection.
Chapter 4, The Importance of vMotion, VMware HA, and Fault Tolerance
QUESTION NO: 29
You are tasked with ensuring that a multitier application will restart correctly during an HA event.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A vApp is a logical container for guest virtual machine objects. When you use a container, you
have the ability to use key management functionality, which can dramatically help a virtualized
platform.
Automation allows a small number of staff to manage lots of virtual machines. Chapter 5, vApps
QUESTION NO: 30
Before the implementation phase of a project, all design choices should be ______________.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best validation is to place a platform under a typical test of what it will be faced with in the
field—for example, having a simulated number of users go through a workflow (perhaps a
website). A lot of these tasks vary with the type of application and are primarily application
functionality based. In addition, platform or infrastructure metrics are key for validation and for
information to be used within the operational documentation (for example, troubleshooting guide,
monitoring recommendations).
Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
QUESTION NO: 31
You have been asked to review a vSphere HA design. The admission control policy is set to "The
number of host failures tolerated." The virtual machines vary in size, and use of VM-based
reservations is common. Which of the following should be recommended? (Choose three)
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
An admission control policy tells VMware HA how to calculate the resources it needs to reserve for
a cluster. It uses a combination of memory and CPU reservation configuration or, if no
configuration exists, a default low reservation.
Chapter 4, The Importance of vMotion, VMware HA, and Fault Tolerance
QUESTION NO: 32
When given a project requirement for RTO to be satisfied, VMware HA can be used with
admission control enabled.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
An admission control policy tells VMware HA how to calculate the resources it needs to reserve for
a cluster. It uses a combination of memory and CPU reservation configuration or, if no
configuration exists, a default low reservation.
Chapter 4, The Importance of vMotion, VMware HA, and Fault Tolerance
QUESTION NO: 33
DRS rules can help satisfy availability concerns within a cluster; however, if used extensively, they
may cause a performance issue with vCenter.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 34
You are reviewing a VMware vSphere 5 cluster design. The system is designed to run DPM in fully
automated mode. DPM in fully automated mode ____ evacuate all templates when placed into
standby mode.
A. will
B. will not
Answer: B
Explanation:
DPM will not move powered-off virtual machines or templates. A real-life workaround is to turn off
fully automated DRS for these machines on a case-by-case basis and register them to a specific
host in the cluster for deployment usage.
Chapter 4, Management/Platform Design
QUESTION NO: 35
Has the configurable option "Failure Detection Time" in VMware HA has been removed in vSphere
5?
Answer: B
Explanation:
vSphere 5 will use datastore heartbeats in a disaster. Thus, this setting is no longer available or
supported in VMware vSphere 5.
Chapter 4, The Importance of vMotion, VMware HA, and Fault Tolerance
QUESTION NO: 36
You are considering the correct option for a VMware HA cluster admission control policy. The
system is a hosted platform, and for business reasons, reservations will not be used. Which of the
following statements is correct?
Answer: B
Explanation:
An admission control policy tells VMware HA how to calculate the resources it needs to reserve for
a cluster. It uses a combination of memory and CPU reservation configuration or, if no
configuration exists, a default low reservation.
Chapter 4, The Importance of vMotion, VMware HA, and Fault Tolerance
QUESTION NO: 37
You are designing a VMware HA cluster. In vSphere 5, VMware HA will take cluster resource
fragmentation into account and ask DRS to defragment the cluster, if required.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
In VMware vSphere 5, this HA functionality is fully automated and does not use any specific
custom settings with regard to reservations or slot sizes. VMware HA functions can request DRS
to migrate workloads across the system in multiple rounds of vMotion tasks. This can help
defragment the cluster and restart VMs that have been affected by a failed host.
Chapter 4, The Importance of vMotion, VMware HA, and Fault Tolerance
You are designing a VMware HA cluster. Due to project requirements, it has been agreed that the
admission control policy is based on the number of host failures tolerated per cluster. However,
because there are a number of small web servers and one large database server with large
reservations, the slot size has been manually configured. What is the impact of this configuration?
A. DRS will not automatically defragment the resources in the event of a failure.
B. DRS will automatically defragment the resources in the event of a failure.
C. DPM cannot be used in this configuration.
Answer: A
Explanation:
With the rebuild of vSphere 5 HA functionality, it is possible for VMware HA to ask DRS to
defragment a cluster if systems are not going to restart correctly. However, this functionality is
disabled if the default or automatic slot size calculation is changed using the override setting. In
situations like this, from a design perspective, a percentage-based admission control policy would
be more beneficial.
Chapter 4, The Importance of vMotion, VMware HA, and Fault Tolerance
QUESTION NO: 39
You are designing a vSphere 5 HA cluster. One of the requirements is to ensure full collection of
log files in the event of an issue. Which of the following is correct? (Choose two)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
By default, ESXi hosts do not store logs persistently through reboots. To ensure full visibility of
logs, a syslog and/or vCenter dump collector is required for compliance and root cause analysis.
Chapter 4, Management/Platform Design
QUESTION NO: 40
You are designing a VMware HA cluster as part of a solution for a large enterprise. One of the
Answer: C
Explanation:
The vCenter can be protected by VMware HA but is a requirement for HA configuration. The
vCenter is also a requirement for DRS, DPN, network vMotion, and vMotion. For cases in which
functionality such as this cannot tolerate outages of several minutes in the event of a major event,
VMware has a product called vCenter heartbeat. It can give true application protection without an
outage to the vCenter application.
Chapter 4, The Importance of vMotion, VMware HA, and Fault Tolerance
QUESTION NO: 41
You are designing a VMware HA platform based on vSphere converged network hardware– and
softwarebased iSCSI storage. Which of the following is true?
A. vSphere 5 can provide protection for workloads in this design, using datastore heartbeats and
management networks.
B. vSphere 5 datastore heartbeats may not provide additional protection in this design if a physical
card containing the management and storage networks fails.
Answer: B
Explanation:
VMware HA will check storage heartbeats or a lock file (NFS v3) on datastores in the event that
the management network is impacted. By using a CNA and slicing the 10 GB up into smaller
chunks, it could be possible perspective to have a smaller number of physical NICs but with
multiple logical networks defined.
As a CNA can define network and storage configuration, it could be a major outage if the NIC
failed, and this would remove the extra protection the network storage heartbeats provide.
Chapter 4, The Importance of vMotion, VMware HA, and Fault Tolerance
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
DRS can be configured for fully automated mode and can review performance statistics on hosts.
Assuming that all workloads will not have the same peak period of time, you can load balance
workloads across the hosts and reuse resources in different scenarios through the working day to
increase consolidation ratios.
Chapter 4, The Importance of vMotion, VMware HA, and Fault Tolerance
QUESTION NO: 43
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Allocated resources are shown in the guest operating system and are not guaranteed. The amount
depends on the unreserved resources available at the time. Assuming no functionality issues, you
can configure a production application to be guaranteed its projected workload, and the system
should deliver. Without a reservation, there is potential for a performance impact if there is
contention.
Chapter 5, Virtual Machines—From the Design Perspective
QUESTION NO: 44
You are a VMware architect designing a solution for a client with an existing site who wishes to
build a disaster recovery site. The operations manager has presented some information in the
kickoff meeting. The company has 1,000 VMs, and the average VM has the following specs:
2 vCPU
100 GB
The company already has an existing vendor relationship with a hardware vendor and would like
to keep the existing storage solution roadmap in place. The following requirements are stated:
RTO: 15 minutes
RPO: 15 minutes
Uptime: 99.99%
Answer: B
Explanation:
An assumption could impact your design. It is good to ensure that project team and wider business
are aware of assumptions and that they are agreed and validated as part of the design
consideration process.
Chapter 2, Gathering Information and Spotting the Gaps
QUESTION NO: 45
The RTO and RPO objectives can be achieved using VMware HA.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
The majority of applications do not require 100% uptime. VMware HA can be configured to restart
workloads within a few seconds. The software can be configured to produce a fully automated DR
and BC system. It is, however, not completely application aware and will depend on application
requirements to be proved useful. From a VMware admin point of view, VMware HA is very
QUESTION NO: 46
You are a VMware consultant working at a small managed services company. The company has
won a contract with a large company, Company A, to host its test and dev platform, with the
chance on annual review to host the production platform.
Although you have been engaged early in the project due to business requirements, the budget for
the project has already been combined with that for another DR project for another company,
Company B. The thought process for this decision is that, if needed, the test systems from
Company A have a lower requirement in the unlikely event of Company B having a DR event.
All the items have been bought and are to be delivered. Your role is to take the equipment
provided and construct, develop, and implement a scalable working vSphere platform. The
following requirements are stated:
- Company A test machines must be provided with sufficient resources for BAU.
- Company B systems can be made available with minimum impact to Company A.
- For Company A, RTO is 7 days, and RPO is 1 month.
- For company B, RTO is 1 hour, and RPO is 15 minutes.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
The technical design process enables the platform designer to work in a methodical way and with
others with similar objectives. A risk is an object that could prevent the delivery of the project
requirements.
Chapter 1, The Technical Design Process
QUESTION NO: 47
You are a VMware consultant working at a small managed-services company that has won a
Although you have been engaged early in the project, because of business requirements, the
budget for the project has already been combined with another DR project for another Company
B. The thought process for this decision is that, if needed, the test systems from Company A have
a lower requirement in the unlikely event of Company B having a DR event.
All the items have been bought and are to be delivered. Your role is to take the equipment
provided and construct, develop, and implement a scalable working vSphere platform.
- Company A test machines must be provided with sufficient resources for BAU.
- Company B systems must be made available with minimum impact to Company A.
- The RTO for Company A is seven days, with an RPO of one month.
- Company B's RTO is 1 hour, and its RPO is 15 minutes.
The use of a shared infrastructure used in this way is a constraint to the project.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
An item from the current state analysis that would restrict or change a design choice is potentially
a constraint. These factors can limit the design and in some cases prevent the realization of the
project vision.
QUESTION NO: 48
You are a VMware consultant who has been hired to take over a mismanaged VMware vSphere 5
platform estate. You are presented with the vCenter administrator password and given the
following information.
2. The platform has been suffering from performance problems for two weeks.
3. No documentation exists.
Your role is to design and implement a platform that meets the following requirements:
A. Active discovery
B. Passive discovery
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are two types of discovery methods:
Active discovery can run processes which are detrimental and can impact a system, and normally
requires an agent.
With passive discovery, data is obtained in a non-impactful, non-intrusive manner with no agents.
Data such as this normally needs more experience to obtain and interpret/present.
QUESTION NO: 49
You are a VMware consultant who has been hired to take over a mismanaged VMware vSphere 5
platform estate. You are presented with the vCenter administrator password and given the
following information.
The platform has been suffering from performance problems for two weeks.
No documentation exists.
Your role is to design and implement a platform that meets the following requirements:
The preferred method for information gathering in this case should be a passive discovery.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two types of discovery methods:
Active discovery can run processes which are detrimental and can impact a system, and normally
QUESTION NO: 50
You are a VMware consultant who has been hired to take over a mismanaged VMware vSphere 5
platform estate. You are presented with the vCenter administrator password and given the
following information.
The platform has been suffering from performance problems for two weeks.
No documentation exists.
Your role is to design and implement a platform that meets the following requirements:
The performance problem mentioned in the initial project information can be classified as:
A. A constraint
B. An assumption
Answer: A
Explanation:
An assumption is an item which could more than likely impact your design. It is good to ensure
that the project time and wider business are aware of these assumptions, and that they are agreed
upon and validated as part of the design consideration process.
VCAP5-DCD Practice Exam #2
QUESTION NO: 51
A. True
Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two types of discovery methods: active and passive.
Active discovery methods can run processes that are detrimental and can impact a system. They
normally require an agent.
With passive discovery methods, data is obtained in a non-impact, non-intrusive manner, with no
agents. Obtaining and interpreting/presenting data such as this normally requires more
experience.
QUESTION NO: 52
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two types of discovery methods: active and passive.
Active discovery methods can run processes that are detrimental and can impact a system. They
normally require an agent.
With passive discovery methods, data is obtained in a non-impact, non-intrusive manner, with no
agents.
Obtaining and interpreting/presenting data such as this normally requires more experience.
QUESTION NO: 53
Passive discovery methods may impact the platform used for monitoring.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
Active discovery methods may impact the platform used for monitoring.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two types of discovery methods: active and passive.
Active discovery methods can run processes that are detrimental and can impact a system. They
normally require an agent.
With passive discovery methods, data is obtained in a non-impact, non-intrusive manner, with no
agents.
Obtaining and interpreting/presenting data such as this normally requires more experience.
QUESTION NO: 55
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
An entity relationship diagram is a form of logical diagram than can be used to map service
component dependencies. It is independent of the hardware used for the solution.
QUESTION NO: 56
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
An entity relationship diagram is a form of logical diagram than can be used to map service
component dependencies. It is independent of the hardware used for the solution.
QUESTION NO: 57
If a vendor best practice details configuration that would not meet a project requirement, a solution
should ignore that requirement.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
A requirement is a definable and measurable project item. It must be part of the delivery, and its
removal cannot be justified.
QUESTION NO: 58
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A requirement is a definable and measurable project item. It must be part of the delivery, and its
QUESTION NO: 59
A current state analysis is a project phase that is carried out to ensure that an architect
understands the complete environment at the beginning of a project.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A current state analysis gives an architect a way to examine the road ahead. Any oversights at this
stage could have major implications for the project later on. By ensuring that the current state
analysis is completed thoroughly, you can prevent many potential problems.
QUESTION NO: 60
A current state analysis is a project phase that is carried out to validate the end of a project.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
A current state analysis gives an architect a way to examine the road ahead. Any oversights at this
stage could have major implications for the project later on. By ensuring that the current state
analysis is completed thoroughly, you can prevent many potential problems.
QUESTION NO: 61
A. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
You should always be sure to include your justifications and selection criteria in your logical design
documents. These justifications are useful when you explain your approach during design and
milestone meetings, and they ensure that you are aware of the impact of the technical approach
and the components of the platform or solution you are building.
QUESTION NO: 62
The difference between the beginning of a project and the vision is also known as the
____________.
Answer: B
Explanation:
By reviewing the current configuration of a system and mapping the final status of components as
described in the vision, the business identifies the gap between the two. A gap state analysis is a
review of the items or tasks that are required to progress between the stages. Such an analysis is
useful in creating milestone plans, implementation orders, and so on.
QUESTION NO: 63
The analysis of the difference between the beginning of a project and the vision is also known as
the current state analysis.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
By reviewing the current configuration of a system and mapping the final status of components as
QUESTION NO: 64
An upstream relationship is a logical object or component that has dependency on other items in a
solution.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
In an upstream relationship, a logical object or component has a dependency on other items in the
solution. For example, a service running on an application server requires an Active Directory user
account to be authenticated. The application service must be started after the Active Directory
service. Therefore, the application server has an upstream relationship with the Active Directory
service.
In an downstream relationship, a logical object or component does not have a dependency on
other items in the solution. For example, say that a multisite web server crashes. The web tier
hosting multiple websites will crash; however, the downstream objects such as the database
server will continue to function. Backend processes that are dependent on the downstream objects
from the web servers can continue to function.
QUESTION NO: 65
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
In an upstream relationship, a logical object or component has a dependency on other items in the
solution. For example, a service running on an application server requires an Active Directory user
QUESTION NO: 66
A gap state analysis is a review of the items or tasks required to progress from the current
environment to the vision.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
By reviewing the current configuration of a system and mapping the final status of components as
described in the vision, the business identifies the gap between the two. A gap state analysis is a
review of the items or tasks that are required to progress between the stages. Such an analysis is
useful in creating milestone plans, implementation orders, and so on.
QUESTION NO: 67
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
In an upstream relationship, a logical object or component has a dependency on other items in the
solution. For example, a service running on an application server requires an Active Directory user
account to be authenticated. The application service must be started after the Active Directory
QUESTION NO: 68
A. active
B. passive
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are two types of discovery methods: active and passive.
Active discovery methods can run processes that are detrimental and can impact a system. They
normally require an agent.
With passive discovery methods, data is obtained in a non-impact, non-intrusive manner, with no
agents.
Obtaining and interpreting/presenting data such as this normally requires more experience.
QUESTION NO: 69
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A logical diagram can be used to show service components and how they relate to each other. A
logical diagram is a high-level diagram that is independent of the hardware used for the solution.
QUESTION NO: 70
A. relationship information
B. Data flow information
C. IP addresses
D. vendor information
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A logical diagram can be used to show service components and how they relate to each other. A
logical diagram is a high-level diagram that is independent of the hardware used for the solution.
QUESTION NO: 71
A. active
B. passive
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are two types of discovery methods: active and passive.
Active discovery methods can run processes that are detrimental and can impact a system. They
normally require an agent.
With passive discovery methods, data is obtained in a non-impact, non-intrusive manner, with no
agents.
Obtaining and interpreting/presenting data such as this normally requires more experience.
QUESTION NO: 72
Answer: A
Explanation:
You should always be sure to include your justifications and selection criteria in your logical design
documents. These justifications are useful when you explain your approach during design and
milestone meetings, and they ensure that you are aware of the impact of the technical approach
and the components of the platform or solution you are building.
QUESTION NO: 73
Answer: C
Explanation:
The information-gathering stage gives an architect a way to examine the road ahead. It is a time to
validate requirements and current documentation. This should involve technical discovery and
interviews with users of all levels to ensure that information is not missed at this early stage.
QUESTION NO: 74
Answer: C
Explanation:
The project vision indicates the final state the platform should be in. It is the business-led
QUESTION NO: 75
Which of the following is not a vSphere component to consider from a design perspective?
Answer: B
Explanation:
From a design perspective, the vSphere platform consists of five components, all of which are
highly linked. Good design is needed to aggregate these five components into a stable and
scalable platform.
QUESTION NO: 76
Answer: C
Explanation:
A best practice is normally based on experience with a successful implementation. By using these
configurations, known issues could possibly be avoided. Best practices should not replace project
requirements but can be used as a starting point, as long as the project requirements are satisfied.
QUESTION NO: 77
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
A best practice is normally based on experience with a successful implementation. By using these
configurations, known issues could possibly be avoided. Best practices should not replace project
requirements but can be used as a starting point, as long as the project requirements are satisfied.
QUESTION NO: 78
You are planning a vSphere 4.1 to 5.0 upgrade. The production datastores are 6 TB. Each
datastore consist of thee extents of 2 TB and is currently 65% full. The operations team would like
to keep the system as close to the current configuration as possible. The upgrade process also
requires as little service impact as possible. In addition, you wish to use storage I/O control as
soon as possible, due to a mission-critical business application requirement. Which of the
following would be the correct approach?
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a datastore with VMFS v3 is upgraded with extents to VMFS v5, the logical attributes and
extents are not changed. Storage I/O control cannot be used with datastores composed of extents.
QUESTION NO: 79
Answer: B
Explanation:
A logical diagram can be used to show service components and how they relate to each other. A
logical diagram is a high-level diagram that is independent of the hardware used for the solution. It
shows components and relationships. In this example, the diagram would should the number of
datastores, size, and logic, such as replication and other settings.
QUESTION NO: 80
You develop a physical storage design after you develop a logical storage design.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A logical design is used to create a physical design. The logic and relationships should be capable
of being deployed using any vendor.
QUESTION NO: 81
Which of the following VMware vSphere functionality can help control real-time storage issues?
A. Storage DRS
B. Storage I/O control
Answer: B
Explanation:
Storage I/O control can be used to monitor and ensure the amount of I/O at contention time. This
is based on real-time stats and requires a support storage system. Storage DRS uses an average
of I/O usage.
You are working as a platform designer for a large hosting provider. You are considering the
scalability of a solution that is projected as 50 hosts and 1,500 virtual machines. A VCSA is a
project requirement. Which of the following is true?
A. The VCSA will scale to 5 hosts and 50 VMs and thus is a risk to project scalability.
B. The VCSA can be configured to use a remote SQL database to meet project scalability.
C. The VCSA should be configured to use a remote DB2 or Oracle database.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83
A host has four dual-port network cards. What is the maximum number of vSwitches that can be
integrated with the physical network, assuming that network redundancy is not a requirement?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 64
D. 512
Answer: A
Explanation:
An ESXi physical NIC can be assigned to only one vSwitch at a time. For example, a host with five
NICs can have a maximum of five vSwitches that can link to the outside world.
QUESTION NO: 84
How do you understand and predict the resources available for VMware HA to meet specific
project requirements?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
The admission control policy “Host failure the cluster tolerates” calculates slot size using the
combination of the ______________.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An admission control policy tells VMware HA how to calculate the resources it needs to reserve for
a cluster. It uses a combination of memory and CPU reservation configuration or, if no
configuration exists, a default low reservation.
QUESTION NO: 86
You are considering the use of the VCSA. Which of the following use cases would invalidate
VCSA as a design choice?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The simplicity of VCSA makes it a compelling design choice for deployments. However, items that
are not supported—such as linked mode and linked clones—are showstoppers if they are
declared project requirements.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Auto Deploy feature is an excellent design choice for managing a mass installation of ESXi.
The vCenter is required for implementation; however, the requirement is independent of vCenter
version.
QUESTION NO: 88
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Auto Deploy feature requires the vCenter for the original deployment and configuration.
Following the first boot, unless a change has been added in the Auto Deploy rules, the subsequent
reboots have a dependency on the Auto Deploy server, not the vCenter.
QUESTION NO: 89
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 90
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
VM monitoring is the function whereby a virtual machine is restarted when the virtual machine
heartbeat has stopped (such as with a blue screen of death on a Windows machine). The machine
is simply restarted on the same host (that is, not migrated). However, the system would lose data
from the point of corruption.
QUESTION NO: 91
Answer: B
Explanation:
An admission control policy tells VMware HA how to calculate the resources it needs to reserve for
a cluster. It uses a combination of memory and CPU reservation configuration or, if no
configuration exists, a default low reservation.
QUESTION NO: 92
During a vCenter outage caused by a host power issue, a member of the operations team created
an emergency guest VM by connecting directly to one of the hosts. The cluster was enabled for
VMware HA at the time of the vCenter outage. In the event of further problems in the datacenter,
is the newly created VM protected by HA?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation:
The vCenter manages the update of the VMware HA protected list. When you add a machine
while the vCenter is out of service, the list will not be updated.
QUESTION NO: 93
When designing a system for VMware HA functionality, which of the following considerations is not
an impact to the design?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The simplicity of VMware HA is one of the many design benefits. If an application or guest virtual
machine is running on a vSphere platform, the system is compatible from a high level with
VMware HA. It is purely an automated restart from a functionality perspective.
QUESTION NO: 94
VMware fault tolerance requires a cluster-aware application within the guest workload.
A. True
B. False
QUESTION NO: 95
A. configuration management
B. change management
C. both these answers are correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Host profiles are an enterprise plus feature which allows a configuration to be applied to a host of
group of hosts. Following scanning, the systems can be automatically repaired or reported in
terms of status when compared to the scan reference point.
QUESTION NO: 96
The method of guest VM backup can have an effect on the size of datastores used in a vSphere
platform.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
The RTO and RPO requirements and available hardware used in a solution can impact the size of
datastores by limiting the amount of data that can be practically restored. This amount of data is
the max size of the datastore.
QUESTION NO: 97
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are no reason a virtual vCenter should not be used from an operations management
perspective. There should, however, be a process for managing the handling of a virtual vCenter
outage (for example, DRS VM-to-host affinity rules and lockdown mode behavior).
QUESTION NO: 98
You have been sent a query regarding a platform you have just designed and implemented.
Following a maintenance window where VMware HA was disabled, the VMware HA settings were
lost. How would you prevent this issue?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Disabling the vSphere HS cluster settings will change the entire configuration of the cluster from
the HS perspective. If the Host Monitoring checkbox is selected, it will allow the configuration to
remain; however, the isolation response or outage response will not occur.
QUESTION NO: 99
VMware HA in vSphere 5.0 cannot survive more than five primary host failures. Thus, hosts
should be physically placed in different racks, where possible, to avoid substantial impact.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
The size of a host can affect the business impact in the event of a VMware HA event.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
The size and number of VMs running on a system can affect the impact of a system failure. For
example, a larger per-host configuration with a smaller number of hosts per cluster would normally
have a larger consolidation ratio; however, in the event of a failure, more guest VMs would be
restarted, and this would be more likely to impact more applications.
A guest VM has a 8 GB allocated to it. What is the size of the swap file?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The size of the swap space is the maximum amount of allocated memory that could be reallocated
to another VM in the event of contention. This is expressed as the size of configured memory
minus the reservation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The size of the swap space is the maximum amount of allocated memory that could be reallocated
to another VM in the event of contention. This is expressed as the size of configured memory
minus the reservation.
Which of the following settings could be utilized when performing a performance test on an
application server?
A. CPU Limits
B. Share Values
C. Reservations
Answer: C
Explanation:
To accurately understand the resource allocation , and compare against other tests in a virtual or
physical platform, an administrator can guarantee resources.
A. 1
B. 64
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: A
Explanation:
A vApp is a logical container of guest virtual machine objects. The use of a container provides the
ability to use key management functionality, which can dramatically help a virtualized platform.
Automation allows lots of VMs to be managed by fewer staff. Although vApps can be nested, a
You are a VMware technical contact for an application development project. The system consists
of a multitier application. In addition to you, the project team consists of three developers and a
project manager. You are required to create various environments for different stages of the
SDLC. The developers will be developing in silos on various hardware (laptops, Windows 7
desktops, vSphere hosted). Which of the following delivery methods would be the easiest to
manage and deploy?
A. Create the virtual servers using an in-house template and export each VM and present the
server OVFs to each developer for copying and importing.
B. Create servers for an environment and place them within a vApp object, export the vApp object
as OVF files, and present the OVF files to the dev team for editing and importing.
C. Create servers for an environment and place them within a vApp object, export the vApp object
as an OVF file, and present the file to the dev team for copying and importing.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A vApp is a logical container of guest virtual machine objects. The use of a container provides the
ability to use key management functionality, which can dramatically help a virtualized platform.
Automation allows lots of VMs to be managed by fewer staff.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
A vApp is a logical container of guest virtual machine objects. The use of a container provides the
ability to use key management functionality, which can dramatically help a virtualized platform.
Automation allows lots of VMs to be managed by fewer staff. Although the objects have startup
and shutdown automation features, VMware HA does not currently understand this feature;
vApp startup order can be configured to work with VMware Heartbeat status.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A vApp is a logical container of guest virtual machine objects. The use of a container provides the
ability to use key management functionality, which can dramatically help a virtualized platform.
Automation allows lots of VMs to be managed by fewer staff. The virtual machine Heartbeat is part
of the VMware tools service. Other application services can be made a high priority or a parent of
the VMware Tools service; in this case, on startup, waiting for the VMware tools service to start
before starting the next guest virtual machine in the vApp would assume that the application
service has started successfully.
A vApp can be created with its own resource settings and requirements.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A vApp is a logical container of guest virtual machine objects. The use of a container provides the
ability to use key management functionality, which can dramatically help a virtualized platform.
Automation allows lots of VMs to be managed by fewer staff. A vApp can have resource
allocations applied at the vApp level, outside the resource pool configuration.
Answer: B
Explanation:
OVF (Open Virtualization Format) files are prepackaged virtual machines that can be created with
attributes such as EULA, IP settings, and so on. They can be imported into most modern
virtualization hypervisors, not just VMware, thus enabling businesses to deploy and share
applications simply by importing and exporting files, as opposed to going through a long,
complicated installation process. The OVF export has a number of files, while an OVA file is the
same logical product but exists as a single file.
A guest VM has 50 GB allocated to it and a 2 GB reservation. What is the size of the swap file?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The size of the swap space is the maximum amount of allocated memory that could be reallocated
to another VM in the event of contention. This is expressed as the size of configured memory
minus the reservation.
You are working on a virtual guest design for the deployment of a critical business application. The
software vendor has provided you with detailed application requirements for the projected
workloads. Which of the following scaling approaches does this describe?
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are two types of scaling approaches in virtual platforms: adaptive and predictive. Both
approaches are usable; however, a designer must work out which is the best approach for each
project.
The adaptive approach to guest virtual machine design is a major advantage that virtualization
technology brings to a datacenter. It allows a guest virtual machine to be created initially on a few
metrics or high-level requirements (such as a limited budget) and scaled (that is, grown, not
shrunk) through the virtual machine life cycle. In many cases, this scaling can be performed
hot/live without outage/downtime to the running applications.
The predictive approach, on the other hand, requires more planning and research, and you must
know the metrics before deployment. The advantage here is that once the virtual machine has
been deployed, only application maintenance is required. The application requirements are known.
You are working on a virtual guest design for the deployment of a critical business application. The
software vendor has provided you with very few application requirements for projected workloads.
Which of the following scaling approaches does this describe?
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two types of scaling approaches in virtual platforms: adaptive and predictive. Both
approaches are usable; however, a designer must work out which is the best approach for each
project.
The adaptive approach to guest virtual machine design is a major advantage that virtualization
technology brings to a datacenter. It allows a guest virtual machine to be created initially on a few
metrics or high-level requirements (such as a limited budget) and scaled (that is, grown, not
shrunk) through the virtual machine life cycle. In many cases, this scaling can be performed
hot/live without outage/downtime to the running applications.
The predictive approach, on the other hand, requires more planning and research, and you must
know the metrics before deployment. The advantage here is that once the virtual machine has
been deployed, only application maintenance is required. The application requirements are known.
You are a VMware technical consultant for an application development project. The system
consists of a multitier application. The team consists of you, five developers, and a project
manager. At the project kickoff meeting, you are tasked with creating the servers for each stage of
the development life cycle the team is using: development, testing, staging, and production. During
the meeting, you come to the conclusion that the technical specifications have yet to be defined or
will likely change. Which of the following scaling approaches for guest workload design would be
most appropriate?
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two types of scaling approaches in virtual platforms: adaptive and predictive. Both
approaches are usable; however, a designer must work out which is the best approach for each
project.
The adaptive approach to guest virtual machine design is a major advantage that virtualization
technology brings to a datacenter. It allows a guest virtual machine to be created initially on a few
metrics or high-level requirements (such as a limited budget) and scaled (that is, grown, not
shrunk) through the virtual machine life cycle. In many cases, this scaling can be performed
hot/live without outage/downtime to the running applications.
The predictive approach, on the other hand, requires more planning and research, and you must
know the metrics before deployment. The advantage here is that once the virtual machine has
been deployed, only application maintenance is required. The application requirements are known.
You are working on a virtual guest design for the deployment of a critical business application. The
software vendor has provided you with some projected workloads. One of the project requirements
is to ensure that business application performance is guaranteed. Which of the following would be
the best approach for guest configuration?
A. Configure the virtual guest with a reservation, as specified, as the minimum requirement for the
application to run.
B. Configure the virtual guest with a reservation, as specified, as the projected initial workload
Answer: B
Explanation:
Allocated resources are shown in the guest operating system and are not guaranteed. The amount
depends on the unreserved resources available at the time. Assuming no functionality issues, you
can configure a production application to be guaranteed its projected workload, and the system
should deliver.
Without a reservation, there is potential for a performance impact if there is contention.
The VMware hot add and hot plug functionality is most useful for a(n) __________ scaling
approach.
A. adaptive
B. predictive
Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two types of scaling approaches in virtual platforms: adaptive and predictive. Both
approaches are usable; however, a designer must work out which is the best approach for each
project.
The adaptive approach to guest virtual machine design is a major advantage that virtualization
technology brings to a datacenter. It allows a guest virtual machine to be created initially on a few
metrics or high-level requirements (such as a limited budget) and scaled (that is, grown, not
shrunk) through the virtual machine life cycle. In many cases, this scaling can be performed
hot/live without outage/downtime to the running applications.
The predictive approach, on the other hand, requires more planning and research, and you must
know the metrics before deployment. The advantage here is that once the virtual machine has
been deployed, only application maintenance is required. The application requirements are known.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best validation is to place a platform under a typical test of what it will be faced with in the
field—for example, having a simulated number of users go through a workflow (perhaps a
website). A lot of these tasks vary with the type of application and are primarily application
functionality based. In addition, platform or infrastructure metrics are key for validation and for
information to be used within the operational documentation (for example, troubleshooting guide,
monitoring recommendations).
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
An installation guide provides engineers a detailed reference and process to install and verify a
solution. All relevant components and processes are detailed. It is also useful to include
troubleshooting or known issues, if any were experienced during the development and test
phases.
A. a milestone plan
B. risks, assumptions, and dependencies on the activities in the implementation plan
C. order
Answer: A
Explanation:
You are a VMware consultant for a large enterprise running VMware vSphere 4.1. You are
reviewing the upgrade documentation created to take the company to version 5.X of the software.
The upgrade has several requirements, including the following:
You notice in the documentation that the upgrade to VMFS 5 is mentioned as being nondisruptive
and having zero impact on the technical solution. Is this technically correct?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation:
In this example, a VMFS 5 upgrade cannot be rolled back without extra scratch space and without
using storage vMotion. These things could add extra I/O load on the systems and affect the first
requirement.
During an upgrade of VMware vSphere 4.1 to vSphere 5.0, several virtual machines appeared to
have lost network configuration. What is the possible cause of the issue?
Answer: C
Explanation:
This can be experienced when migrating from a virtual machine hardware level and have an old
version of VMware tools installed. The guest operating system may not understand the hardware
An implementation plan is a set of instruction that provide sufficient detail for an engineer to
configure or install a platform according to a physical design.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
An implementation plan gives all members of a project team a level of understanding of the
technical approach of a project, the number of phases, the major tasks in each phase, and the
correct order for completing the tasks. This documentation can be used to bring in skilled people
and to judge the project stability and progress throughout the implementation. The plan should be
detailed enough for technical personnel to understand the tasks being completed but without
detailing specific configuration and installation processes.
A validation plan is a set of processes which prove that a project or a function of a platform has
been configured correctly and behaves as designed.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A validation plan can range from a detailed test plan to high-level statements. It should not be
subjective. The best validation is to place a platform under a typical test of what it will be faced
with in the field —for example, having a simulated number of users go through a workflow
(perhaps a website). A lot of these tasks vary with the type of application and are primarily
application functionality based. In addition, platform or infrastructure metrics are key for validation
and for information to be used within the operational documentation (for example, troubleshooting
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
A validation plan can range from a detailed test plan to high-level statements. It should not be
subjective. The best validation is to place a platform under a typical test of what it will be faced
with in the field —for example, having a simulated number of users go through a workflow
(perhaps a website). A lot of these tasks vary with the type of application and are primarily
application functionality based. In addition, platform or infrastructure metrics are key for validation
and for information to be used within the operational documentation (for example, troubleshooting
guide, monitoring recommendations).
A platform validation plan is primarily concerned with guest VM settings and application delivery
rather than VMware platform functionality.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
A validation plan can range from a detailed test plan to high-level statements. It should not be
subjective. The best validation is to place a platform under a typical test of what it will be faced
with in the field —for example, having a simulated number of users go through a workflow
(perhaps a website). A lot of these tasks vary with the type of application and are primarily
application functionality based. In addition, platform or infrastructure metrics are key for validation
and for information to be used within the operational documentation (for example, troubleshooting
guide, monitoring recommendations).
For effective VMware platform validation to take place, that platform should be _____________.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A validation plan can range from a detailed test plan to high-level statements. It should not be
subjective. The best validation is to place a platform under a typical test of what it will be faced
with in the field —for example, having a simulated number of users go through a workflow
(perhaps a website). A lot of these tasks vary with the type of application and are primarily
application functionality based. In addition, platform or infrastructure metrics are key for validation
and for information to be used within the operational documentation (for example, troubleshooting
guide, monitoring recommendations).
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Good design should meet the project requirements and consider the properties of assumed
platform design. Protecting data requires that a system be available and manageable, that it have
good performance, and that it be easy to recover and be secure.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
Good design should meet the project requirements and consider the properties of assumed
platform design. Protecting data requires that a system be available and manageable, that it have
good performance, and that it be easy to recover and be secure. In this example, if an application
is not supported by the vendor, the business may be unable to meet SLAs.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Good design should meet the project requirements and consider the properties of assumed
platform design. Protecting data requires that a system be available and manageable, that it have
good performance, and that it be easy to recover and be secure.
You are VMware designer working at a company where a new business application is being rolled
out. The SLA requirements are RTO of 2 hours and RPO of 10 minutes. During a project team
meeting, the business user misunderstands this requirement. To illustrate the situation, you give
an example where the system becomes unavailable at 4 p.m. To meet the project SLA,
_____________. (Choose two)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO)—also known as the return to operation—is the amount of time
it takes to restore a service after a failure has taken place. The recovery point objective (RPO) is
the point in time to which the system needs to be restored following a failure.
You are a VMware architect working at a company where a new business application is being
rolled out. Based on a conversation with the business, you establish that the RTO requirement is 1
hour, and the RPO requirement is 10 minutes. After months of successful use, the system crashes
at 3 p.m. To meet the project SLA, ______________. (Choose two)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO)—also known as the return to operation—is the amount of time
it takes to restore a service after a failure has taken place. The recovery point objective (RPO) is
the point in time to which the system needs to be restored following a failure.
You are a VMware architect working at a company where a business application is being rolled
out. Based on conversations with the business, you establish that the RTO requirement is 2 hours,
and the RPO requirement is 3 hours. Consider a situation in which the VMware platform is out of
service following multiple hardware issues. The application dropped from service at 2 p.m. To
meet the application business SLA, which of the following is true?
A. When the application is brought online, the data must be from a version as of 4 p.m.
B. When the application is brought online, the data must be from a version as of 11 a.m.
You are a VMware designer working on virtualizing a business application. The SLA specifies that
the RTO requirement is 4 hours, and the RPO requirement is 9 hours. After months of successful
use, the system crashes at 1 p.m. To meet the project SLA, which of the following is true?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO)—also known as the return to operation—is the amount of time
it takes to restore a service after a failure has taken place. The recovery point objective (RPO) is
the point in time to which the system needs to be restored following a failure.
You are VMware architect working at a large enterprise where a new VMware platform is being
installed.
Based on conversations with the business, you establish that the RTO requirement is 8 hours, and
the RPO requirement is 15 minutes. After months of successful use, the system crashes at 4 p.m.
To meet the project SLA, _____________. (Choose two)
Answer: A,C
The recovery time objective is the point in time to which a system needs to be restored following a
failure.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO)—also known as the return to operation—is the amount of time
it takes to restore a service after a failure has taken place.
The recovery point objective is the point in time to which a system needs to be restored following a
failure.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
The recovery point objective (RPO) is the point in time to which the system needs to be restored
following a failure.
When considering incorporating redundancy into design, which of the following should be
Answer: D
Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO)—also known as the return to operation—is the amount of time
it takes to restore a service after a failure has taken place. The recovery point objective (RPO) is
the point in time to which the system needs to be restored following a failure. In some cases a
business may be interested in functionality and just assume items such as redundancy. The
infrastructure qualities help consider aspects considered as good design.
Which of the following factors should influence the decision of whether to virtualize an application?
(Choose three)
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Good design should meet the project requirements and consider the properties of assumed
platform design. Protecting data requires that a system be available and manageable, that it have
good performance, and that it be easy to recover and be secure.
Which of the following describes the anticipated time until a solution component may fail?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO)—also known as the return to operation—is the amount of time
it takes to restore a service after a failure has taken place. The recovery point objective (RPO) is
the point in time to which the system needs to be restored following a failure. The MTBF is the
amount of time a component is predicted to fail and can be used with operational management or
design concepts.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
An implementation plan gives all members of a project team a level of understanding of the
technical approach of a project, the number of phases, major tasks in each phase, and the correct
order for completing the tasks.
You are a VMware platform designer at a large service provider reviewing a network design.
The current design involves software-based iSCSI storage with teamed 1 GB network cards for
the storage network. The iSCSI network has a uniqiue vLAN and network ID. The design ensures
that a different password is used for each LUN.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
By using NIC teaming, iSCSI is configured in a fault-tolerant manner. However, it is not encrypted
but is separated; therefore R001 and R002 are satisfied.
The use of software-based iSCSI storage allows encryption to be used in logical designs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
iSCSI traffic is not encrypted by default. However, CHAP can be used with software-based
iSCSI.
You are reviewing a vSphere platform design. The system is planning to use a virtual vCenter
server. Which of the following is not true if the vCenter fails when using this design?
A. DRS is unaffected.
B. VMware HA can protect and restart the vCenter.
C. The VCSA cannot be used.
D. vCenter must be configured in Linked mode.
Answer: A
Explanation:
DRS is controlled by the vCenter. vCenter invokes vMotion based on metrics. During the period
where the vCenter is out of action, DRS is not functional.
You are reviewing a vSphere platform design. The system is planning to use a virtual vCenter
server. Which of the following is true if the vCenter fails when using this design?
A. DRS is unaffected.
B. VMware HA can protect and restart the vCenter.
C. The VCSA cannot be used.
D. vCenter must be configured in Linked mode.
Answer: B
Explanation:
DRS is controlled by the vCenter. vCenter invokes vMotion based on metrics. During the period
where the vCenter is out of action, DRS is not functional. VMware HA can mitigate against issues
by restarting the vCenter in the event of an outage.
A. Cluster
B. vDC
C. Folder
D. Resource Pool
Answer: B
Explanation:
By design, vMotion is possible from a logical perspective between the vDC. It is possible,
however, to have a stretched cluster and to not satisfy vMotion requirements. The logical
boundary is limited to vDCs.
You have been asked to design a system with the following VMware functionality enabled:
Answer: B
Explanation:
The VCSA can function with VMware SRM. However, for SRM functionality, both sites require a
vCenter installation. This would limit the choice of single-glass-pane management to Linked mode.
A Linked mode installation requires Microsoft technology in the ADAM instance, and thus
eliminates the VCSA choice.
When using VMware HA, the larger the consolidation ratio, the smaller the potential impact to the
business in the event of a VMware HA event.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
VMware HA can satisfy the majority of RTO scenarios. In general, businesses can tolerate small
outages of shorter than a few minutes. Designed correctly, HA can satisfy this requirement while
providing hardware-level protection. Some design considerations are the restart time and impact
of the outage; the fact that the more VMs per host, the higher the consolidation ratio; and the
possibly longer time to restart along with its larger impact to the business.
In a platform with two vCenters configured with Linked mode, one vCenter can be configured
using the VCSA.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Linked mode installation requires Microsoft technology in the ADAM instance, and thus
eliminates the VCSA choice.
When considering scalability, the VCSA is not as effective as the vCenter installed on a Windows
platform.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
The VCSA can scale to the same size of the Windows-based platform when using a remote
database based on Oracle or DB2. Microsoft SQL, however, is not supported. The built-in
database is a DB2 version, which is only supported for small platforms.
When deploying a vCenter solution for a vSphere design, continuous uptime is stated as a
requirement.
The use of vCenter heartbeat has been agreed upon and budgeted. The design consists of two
VCSAs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
vCenter heartbeat requires a Windows-based vCenter installation, rather than the appliance.
You are a platform designer reviewing a colleague's design. Based on vSphere 5, the platform is
designed to be scalable and provide continuous availability of the vCenter. The proposed design
utilizes VMware FT.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation:
VMware FT currently only supports 1vCPU. The vCenter requires 2vCPU and above, depending
on the location of the Microsoft SQL database.
A. Vision
B. Scope
C. Conceptual design
D. Assumptions
Answer: C
Explanation:
The basic components of a good design are vision, scope, requirements, constraints,
assumptions, and risks.
Which component of a good design is described as the quantitative statement of what the project
does and does not include?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The scope is the quantitative statement of what is included in a project, or, more pertinently, what
is not included in the project.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A functional requirement states something the system should do (for example, the system should
process transactions). A nonfunctional requirement states how the system should behave (for
example, the system should update its performance metrics every 5 seconds). An assumption is a
detail that happens to be true but has not been tested or verified is an assumption, and a risk is an
attribute that can prevent ta project from being completed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. constraint
B. best practice
C. logical design
D. design methodology
Answer: D
Explanation:
A design methodology is an iterative process used to create a technical design.
A. conceptual
B. physical
C. logical
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
A conceptual design is a high-level overview of the suggested system. Logical designs show how
subsystems interconnect or communicate. No attempt is made to select vendors or map out
physical products; rather, the logical design shows how the suggested components align together.
A physical design puts specific components and settings into place. It lists items such as vendor
products, IP addresses, and specific communication protocols. A physical design is a blueprint of
an architecture.
A. Conceptual design
B. Physical design
C. Logical design
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
A conceptual design is a high-level overview of the suggested system. The conceptual design is
created first and is usually the starting point for the logical design.
A logical design includes basic subsystems that the design will use and data flow directions, but it
does not include specific hardware or settings details.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A logical design shows a high-level overview of the design without going through the details of the
design such as hardware and software selections and storage and network settings. The logical
design is usually the starting point for the physical design.
A. constraint
B. functional requirement
Answer: A
Explanation:
A constraint is an attribute that may limit a design choice. A nonfunctional requirement is a
behavior of the system, which may also limit design choices. A functional requirement is
something the system must do. An assumption is something that is decided to be true, without
testing or verification. A risk is an attribute that can prevent a project from being completed.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
Best practices are recommendations based on practical standards collected by VMware and
should always be used unless company business rules or functional requirements prevent their
use.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
Over time best practices can change. For example, in older versions of vSphere, it was a best
practice to install vCenter Server on a physical host. Today, VMware recommends installing
vCenter Server in a virtual machine.
A. Save money
B. Improve system performance
C. Save time
D. Make disaster recovery easier
Answer: B
Explanation:
Administrators often feel compelled to virtualize their server infrastructure for reasons such as the
following:
Which of the following tools can be used to gather information for a current state analysis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
VMware Capacity Planner records performance metrics over time to give a clear picture of the
current architecture’s performance. This information can be used to help build a current state
analysis that can be used to help build the new virtual architecture.
Information gathered during the current state analysis include the number of sites, servers, or
devices; a list of applications and their dependencies; current usage; and known issues.
A. True
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data such as the following may be gathered for a current state analysis:
Number of sites, servers, or devices
A list of applications and their dependencies
Current use and capacity
Known issues (for example, a specific piece of software is not supported in a virtualized platform,
an application requires certain hardware to run)
Forthcoming projects and future growth plan (for example, Will extra capacity be needed soon? Is
a critical point in the business year approaching?)
Licensing, support, and maintenance information
Business standards, policies, and compliance information
If the design specifies an RTO of 3 hours and an RPO of 2 hours, and the system crashes at 8:00
p.m., the application be back online _______________.
A. by 10:00 p.m
B. ASAP
C. by 11:00 p.m
D. by 9:00 p.m
Answer: C
Explanation:
The RTO is the amount of time until a crashed application should be back online. The RPO is the
tolerated amount of data loss.
An application has an SLA which states that the application must be restored within 12 hours, with
no more than 10 minutes of data loss. This means the application has an RTO of 12 hours and an
RPO of 10 minutes.
A. True
Answer: A
Explanation:
The RTO is the amount of time until a crashed application should be back online. The RPO is the
tolerated amount of data loss.
An application has an SLA which states that the application must be restored within 12 hours, with
no more than 10 minutes of data loss. This means the application has an RTO of 10 minutes and
an RPO of 12 hours.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
The RTO is the amount of time until a crashed application should be back online. The RPO is the
tolerated amount of data loss.
The _____________ shows the system components and how they interact with each other.
A. logical design
B. implementation plan
C. statement of work
D. entity relationship diagram
Answer: D
Explanation:
An entity relationship diagram shows how a system’s components relate to each other.
A. backup administrator
B. project sponsor
C. key application owners
D. data center manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
Key stakeholders should include the following:
Project sponsor
Key application owners
Server architecture leads
LAN/WAN architecture leads
Data center managers
A. constraint
B. risk
C. nonfunctional requirement
D. functional requirement
Answer: B
Explanation:
A risk is an issue that can affect the overall success of a project. A constraint is a limiting factor in
a design, based on current system behavior. A nonfunctional requirement is a system behavior,
and a functional requirement is what the system should do.
The customer has decided that it will use the NAS it has in-house as its storage solution. What
type of design factor is this?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The customer is stating that NFS must be used in the design. This is a form of a nonfunctional
requirement. Often, nonfunctional requirements are similar to constraints.
Answer: B
Explanation:
RTO is the amount of time it must take to recover a system from failure.
Answer: A
Explanation:
RPO is the point in time to which the system must be restored after a failure.
Answer: D
Explanation:
MTBF is the agreed upon amount of time it takes to recover a system from failure.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
HA restarts virtual machines when an ESXi host crashes. HA can reduce downtime, but it cannot
prevent it.
VMware Fault Tolerance can prevent virtual machine downtime in the event of an application
failure.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
Fault Tolerance can only prevent virtual machine downtime in the event of an ESXi host crash.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
The infrastructure qualities of a good design are availability, manageability, performance,
recoverability, and security.
A. Availability
B. Manageability
C. Performance
D. Recoverability
Answer: D
Explanation:
Recoverability deals with recovering from a component or system outage with minimal data loss,
in accordance with an organization’s RTO and RPO.
Which quality of a good design does NIC teaming and storage multipathing help achieve?
A. Recoverability
B. Performance
C. Availability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Availability in a design permits the system to always be available, even in the event of outages.
NIC teaming, redundant hardware, and clustering applications are examples of availability options.
Which design quality is concerned with creating an architecture that is easy to maintain and
operate?
A. Recoverability
B. Security
C. Availability
D. Manageability
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a system is manageable, the infrastructure is easy to maintain and operate.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
SLAs are written to give the designer an idea about how the architecture is expected to perform
The design process involves creating a conceptual design, using the conceptual design to aid in
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A conceptual design brings forth the scope of the project. A logical design starts to show the
relationship between components, without selecting specific equipment. The physical design is the
exact drawing of the design, as intended.
A. BIOS settings
B. Key component relationships
C. Data flow diagrams
D. High-level diagrams
Answer: A
Explanation:
A logical design shows the relationship between components, without selecting specific
equipment. It shows the basic flow of data between components, key component relationships,
and high-level diagrams.
A. compute layer
B. resource layer
C. network layer
D. storage layer
Answer: B
A. Fibre Channel
B. local storage
C. VMFS
D. shared storage
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
From a VMware platform design perspective, the storage is agnostic. Logically, there are two
types of storage: local and shared.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Storage tiering categorizes LUNs by the performance they can provide to enable architects to
place workloads on the appropriate storage tiers to ensure that the workloads are within the SLA
standards.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If the organization uses only NFS datastores, raw device mappings cannot be created. A NAS
creates shares that accesses storage at the file level, rather than LUNs that access storage at the
block level.
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is a good idea to keep the storage network physically isolated from all other networks. If this
cannot be done, at least consider logically separating the storage network via a VLAN.
An active–passive storage array should be configured with the fixed multipathing policy.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
What multipathing options can be configured with an active–passive array? (Choose two)
A. Fixed
B. MRU
C. SATP
D. Round-robin
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
An active–passive array will have only one active path at a time. An array like this should be
configured with the MRU multipathing policy. An active–active array has multiple active paths and
should be configured with round-robin or fixed-multipathing policies.
Which of the following could be considered a single point of failure for storage?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Using a dual-port HBA can result in a single point of failure if the HBA malfunctions, taking out
both ports. It is better to use two single-port HBAs.
When selecting a storage device, you do not need to consider _______ metrics.
A. vendor
B. throughput
C. IOPS
D. capacity
Answer: A
Explanation:
IOPS, throughput, and capacity all have profound effects on how workloads will perform on a
storage array. Although vendor is an important decision, it typically has no effect on workload
performance.
To balance IOPS and capacity within a datastore cluster, which of the following technologies
should be implemented?
A. vMotion
B. High Availability
C. Storage I/O control
D. Storage DRS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Storage DRS will automatically migrate powered-on VMs to datastores within a storage cluster in
order to balance the capacity and IOPS among member datastores.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A physical adapter can be assigned to only one virtual switch. Once it is assigned, it no longer
shows up on the available adapter list.
Answer: C
Explanation:
About 20% of a datastore should be left unused to provide space for swap files, snapshots,
storage overhead, and future growth.
A. IP storage
Answer: C
Explanation:
vSphere network traffic includes VM network, vMotion, IP storage, FT traffic, and management
network traffic.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
Storage DRS is used to balance IOPS and capacity among member datastores within a storage
cluster. By default, it is disabled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
External switch tagging applies to VLANs that are created on physical switches only. The
vSphere environment is not aware of the VLANs.
In which type of VLAN does adding and removing the VLAN tag occur at the virtual switch?
Answer: A
Explanation:
When VLANs are configured on a virtual switch, the VLAN tag is added to outbound traffic and
removed on inbound traffic.
A network design has a requirement to have five total networks that are physically separated from
one another.
The design requires that there be no single points of failure on the network. Based on this
information, how many network adapters are needed?
A. 5
B. 2, with the use of VLANs
C. 1
D. 10
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since there is a requirement that physical separation is required for the five different networks,
VLANs will not satisfy the design. To ensure that there is no single point of failure, each virtual
switch will require 2 adapters per virtual switch—for a total of 10.
In which type of VLAN does adding and removing the VLAN tag occur at the virtual switch?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Virtual guest tagging occurs when the guest operating systems inside the virtual machines adds
the VLAN tags the network traffic.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When creating a storage design, you have to ensure that the architecture can tolerate the
application storage requirements. This includes providing the proper IOPS, limiting latency, and
being able to adjust to growth over time.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A functional requirement is an operation the design must perform. All functional requirements must
be accounted for in the design.
A physical design includes specific vendor information, IP addresses, IQN addresses, and exact
wiring connections.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A physical design is an exact diagram of how the system is intended to be built. The technical
design should answer all technical questions.
Private VLANs are required for the design. Which vSphere licensing edition is required?
A. Essentials
B. Enterprise Plus
C. Enterprise
D. Standard
Answer: B
Explanation:
Private VLANs require distributed virtual switches, which are available only with the Enterprise
Plus licensing edition.
A functional requirement in a design requires management, IP-based storage, vMotion, and virtual
machine traffic to be physically separated. Which option best fulfills the functional requirement?
A. Using a single virtual switch, applying VLANS for each traffic type, and configuring the physical
adapters to use different physical switches
B. Using distributed virtual switches
Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs can be used to logically separate network traffic. Separate virtual switches will physically
separate the traffic on the ESXi host, but using a single physical switch introduces a single point of
failure. The best answer is D: Using different physical switches will allow for redundancy.
The vCenter Server should be deployed as a virtual machine and should be configured with fault
tolerance.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
Fault tolerance works only with a virtual machine that uses a single virtual CPU. One of the
requirements of vCenter Server is to use at least two virtual CPUs. Using fault tolerance with the
vCenter Server is not supported.
A number of factors determine how many physical adapters are needed in a host design. Which of
the following is not one of them?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Virtual machine size has no effect on the network.
It is a best practice to physically separate storage networks from the rest of the network traffic.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
From a security standpoint, it is a risk to mix storage traffic with user traffic. Users can attempt to
interrogate the storage traffic. A separate storage network helps prevent oversubscribing of the
network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Jumbo frames provide a larger MTU (maximum transmission unit) that enables a typical frame to
hold more actual payload data, which can result in better storage performance.
____________ can be configured to ensure that a type of traffic receives priority for bandwidth
when bandwidth is congested?
A. SIOC
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network I/O Control (NIOC) allows you to assign shares to different types of network traffic. The
more shares a type of network traffic has, the higher percentage of the available bandwidth the
traffic type will get when network bandwidth is completely congested.
Which of the following needs to be considered when determining the amount and size of the hosts
required for a virtual design?
Answer: D
Explanation:
When attempting to determine the host requirements of a virtual design, you need to determine
aggregate CPU and memory requirements, number of virtual CPUs, number of cores available,
maximum utilization, socket and core availability, and future growth.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Scaling up involves building your architecture using a few hosts that have large amounts of CPU
Answer: B
Explanation:
Scaling out involves building your architecture using more hosts that have smaller amounts of
CPU cores and memory than what you would use in a scaled-up architecture.
When selecting a compute server, the architecture should use servers that are identical in every
way possible, including components and the slots the components are installed in.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
Using identical servers ensures fewer issues with vMotion and aids in managing resource
utilization among servers.
When considering server consolidation, plan on running ___________ vCPUs per core.
A. 1 to 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
VMware best practices recommend running 4 to 6 virtual CPUs per core.
When planning on resource use for the servers, you should plan on leaving resources available for
all the following except __________.
A. patching
B. maintenance mode
C. future growth
D. log file space
Answer: D
Explanation:
Consider leaving extra capacity for items such as maintenance mode, upgrades, patching, and
short-term surges in resource usage.
A. HA
B. DRS
C. FT
D. Storage DRS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Although all the options listed require the vCenter Server for configuration, HA will work even if the
vCenter Server crashes. For this reason, VMware recommends running the vCenter Server in a
virtual machine so HA can provide the vCenter Server availability.
Answer: D
Explanation:
All of the listed options are supported.
vCenter Server Linked mode allows you to view up to 10 vCenter Servers in a single window.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
vCenter Server will allow you to view up to 10 vCenter Servers and up to 30,000 virtual machines
in a single view.
An organization is trying to determine whether it should use the Windows version of the vCenter
Server or use the vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA). The organization will be using an external
Oracle database, and it will manage about 30 ESXi hosts and about 200 virtual machines on 1
vCenter Server, but it would also like to see another group’s vCenter Server from the same
vSphere client window. Which type of vCenter Server should it use, and why?
A. The vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA) because it can be used with Oracle
B. The VCSA because it can support 30 ESXi hosts
C. The Windows version because it can support Oracle
D. The Windows version because it can support Linked mode
Answer: D
Explanation:
The VCSA does not support Linked mode, so it cannot be used in this instance, based on the
requirement that the user should be able to see multiple vCenter Servers in a single vSphere client
window.
The VCSA can be configured with a small internal Oracle database that can be used to manage
up to 5 ESXi hosts or 50 virtual machines.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
The VCSA comes with an internal IBM DB2 database that supports up to 5 ESXi hosts or 50
virtual machines.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In a scaled-out architecture, the cluster is configured with many smaller hosts rather than fewer
large hosts. Because of this, when an ESXi host crashes in a scaled-out cluster, you lose a
smaller percentage of your cluster, which translates to fewer virtual machines crashing, which
translates to faster recovery times.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a scaled-up architecture, Fewer servers are needed because each server can handle more
virtual machines that what a typical scaled-out server can handle. So the cluster will require fewer
servers.
An organization is considering buying hosts that have one three-port NIC rather than buying hosts
A. This is a good idea; one three-port NIC means fewer PCI slots.
B. This is a good idea; one card is cheaper than three.
C. This is not a good idea; one card translates to a single point of failure.
D. This is not a good idea; three-port NICs are expensive
Answer: C
Explanation:
If the one three-port NIC fails, you will usually lose all three ports on the NIC. It would be a better
solution to use three one-port NICs instead. You lose one card, and you lose only one port.
During the design phase, one of the constraints listed is that because the organization is already
using SQL Server 2008 in-house, a SQL Server database would have to be used for the vCenter
Server. Because of the constraint, ______________.
A. the organization would have to use VCSA since it supports SQL Server
B. the organization would have to use the Windows versions of the vCenter Server, but the
database would have to be internal to the vCenter Server
C. either the VCSA or the vCenter Server can be used
D. the Windows version of vCenter Server would have to be used because VCSA does not
support SQL Server
Answer: D
Explanation:
The VCSA is a Linux appliance and at this time does not support SQL Server. The Windows
version of the vCenter Server would have to be used because it does support SQL Server.
A design calls for 10 virtual machines, each with 2 GB of RAM, to be located on a single VMFS
datastore. Only 5 virtual machines will be powered on at one time. If the virtual machines are using
default resource settings, how much space on the datastore will be utilized by swap files?
A. 20 GB
B. 10 GB
Answer: B
Explanation:
By default, the swap file is the same size as the available memory of a VM. The swap file is
created when you power on a virtual machine and removed when you power it off. With 5 virtual
machines powered on and with each virtual machine having an available memory setting of 2 GB,
10 GB of space will be used for the swap files.
You have a requirement to create a three-tiered application as part of a virtual machine’s design.
The requirement includes the ability to start up and shut down the tiers in a given order and to be
able to ensure that the three-tiered application gets the resources it needs. Which would be the
best option?
A. Put all the tiers in a resource pool and manage resources via the resource pool settings
B. Create a vApp and place the three tiers in it. Configure the startup/shutdown options and
configure resources via the vApp
C. Ensure that all three tiers are on the same vSwitch and use the ESXi host VM startup and
shutdown options
D. Manage the three tiers as three separate virtual machines
Answer: B
Explanation:
Of all these options, only a vApp can offer startup, shutdown, and resource control options.
You have been tasked with creating a new domain controller in the vSphere environment to
replace the physical domain controller. You are trying to determine how much memory to give the
virtual machine. What is your best option?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Viewing the memory performance data of the physical host can give you a solid understanding of
how memory is used on the host and gives a good indication of the amount of memory you should
set up for the replacement virtual machine.
It is a best practice to give a virtual machine a single virtual CPU unless there is a compelling
reason to give a virtual machine more than one virtual CPU.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A majority of your virtual machines can run with a single vCPU. Unless the application specifically
requires multiple vCPUs, try to start with one.
When is it appropriate for a virtual machine to use the virtual machine swap file?
A. Always
B. Never
C. When you’re trying to save memory
D. When the swap file is on fast storage
Answer: B
Explanation:
A virtual machine using the swap file as memory is usually an indication that there is not enough
memory on the ESXi host to provide memory resources to all the virtual machines on the host.
Steps should be taken to alleviate the problem.
The swap file must always be stored with the other virtual machine files.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
A virtual machine’s swap file can be stored separately on a local or shared datastore. This is a
good option if you are replicating storage to another location and do not wish to replicate files that
are not needed at the replicated site.
The ________ virtual machine scaling approach allows a VM to be created initially on a few
metrics or highlevel requirements and scaled through the virtual machine’s life cycle.
A. comprehensive
B. predictive
C. adaptive
D. literal
Answer: C
Explanation:
The adaptive approach is used when a virtual machine is built with only a few requirements and
then can be scaled once the application is in place and performance is measured based on the
few requirements. Then the VM can be scaled according to what the performance indicates.
Which virtual machine scaling approach requires the most planning and research before the VM is
actually created?
A. Comprehensive
Answer: B
Explanation:
The predictive approach requires you to have a full understanding of how the application will utilize
resources before the virtual machine is created. There will be no actions taken to scale once the
VM is complete. The advantage of this is that once the VM is complete, only periodic application
maintenance is required.
As a designer, you must either use a predictive or adaptive approach to creating virtual machines.
You cannot use a combination of the two approaches.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
In some instances, a combination of the two approaches might be best.
Part of your design includes updating VMware tools and virtual hardware to a newly updated
vSphere 5.1 architecture. What is the best method for updating tools and hardware?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Using Update Manager is the best way to upgrade multiple virtual machines in an automated
fashion. You would not want to update them all at once because it would be time-consuming and
A. Use reservations on all virtual machines to ensure that they are all guaranteed memory.
B. Set a reservation to a virtual machine’s available memory to avoid creating a swap file.
C. Never set a reservation on a virtual machine.
D. Set a reservation only on a critical virtual machine, with the reservation set to the minimum
amount of memory needed for acceptable performance.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Setting reservations should be the exception and not the rule. The reservation should be set to the
minimum amount required for acceptable performance.
While viewing the ESXi host resource tab, you notice that you have 1 GB of available memory.
You attempt to turn on a virtual machine with a 1 GB reservation, and the virtual machine will not
power on. What is preventing the virtual machine from powering on?
Answer: B
Explanation:
All virtual machines require some memory to use as overhead to handle virtualization. Even if a
virtual machine did not have a reservation, real memory would still be required for the overhead.
Which type of virtual disk takes the longest to create but performs the best?
A. Thin provisioned
B. Eager-zero
C. Lazy-zero
D. Flat
Answer: B
Explanation:
An eager-zero disk allocates and zeros out all the block at once. While this type of disk takes
significantly longer to create, the disk performs better than the others because the other disks
require the block to be zeroed out before writing to the block. Since the blocks have already been
zeroed with eager-zero, that is not necessary.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
Some applications require different types of performance on the multiple disks they require. If this
is the case, it is acceptable to put virtual disks on two different datastores that have different
performance and RAID features.
Which metric displays the amount of time, in milliseconds, it takes for a virtual CPU to get
processing time on a physical CPU?
A. CPU Wait
B. Ballooning
C. CPU Ready
Answer: C
Explanation:
CPU Ready is a metric that can be viewed using performance charts on the Web client or the
vSphere client that shows how long a virtual CPU had to wait for a physical CPU to become
available.
A(n) _______ is a set of processes which proves that a design has been properly configured and
that the design works as planned.
A. validation plan
B. implementation plan
C. design blueprint
D. none of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
A validation plan is used to ensure that a design is implemented and configured properly and to
ensure that the design functions as intended.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Implementation plans should provide detailed steps on how the designer expects the architecture
to be built. The plan should provide the engineers enough detail to build the system without
architect assistance.
A. the design
B. system functionality
C. that system requirements match the functionality of the design
D. topics outside the scope of the design
Answer: D
Explanation:
A validation plan should validate the design, should verify that the system operates in accordance
with the functional requirements, and should ensure that all requirements are met.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
Documentation requirements can vary based on the customer, the customer requirements, or the
design.
A. Ballooning
B. Compression
C. Swap In/Swap Out
Answer: D
Explanation:
Monitoring Ballooning, Compression, and Swap In/Swap Out memory metrics during testing will
verify to the designer that sufficient memory is in place. If any of the listed metrics shows
significant usage, there may be a memory issue somewhere in the design.
A. VMMEMCTL
B. VSS
C. VLance
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
VMMEMCTL is the balloon driver. It is installed on any virtual machine that has VMware tools
installed.
A. provides an acceptable user experience and meets or exceeds expectations from all
stakeholders
B. verifies that scripts work
C. ensures C-level sign-off of the project
D. ensures that hardware passes stress tests
Answer: A
Explanation:
Operational testing ensures that the user experience meets or exceeds the user’s expectation and
that the design system operates as all stakeholders expect it to.
A. The IT architect
B. The software vendor
C. The business
Answer: C
Explanation:
You are a VMware architect attending a project kickoff meeting. The project vision is to
“consolidate all existing physical workloads to a vSphere 5 platform.”
The high-level requirements are defined during the design kickoff meeting. Which of the following
is true?
A. You should make design choices based on current best practices and case studies from
previous vendor implementations.
B. You should review the current server estate to ensure the viability of the project in relation to
the requirements and establish the tasks required to achieve the vision.
C. You should construct a logical and physical design, based on requirements and guide best
practices from previous implementations in the community.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A. The vision
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which of the following type of discovery methods is least likely to impact the platform it is
discovering?
A. Active
B. Passive
Answer: B
Explanation:
A component relationship diagram can be used to establish the order of component change or
impact analysis.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which of the following tools would enable a Windows administrator to complete a state analysis of
a virtual Windows 2008 Server guest machine without requiring access to the vSphere platform?
Answer: A
Which of the following is a list of attributes that can be used as a checklist for ensuring good
design thoughts?
Answer: A
Explanation: The project requirements are always paramount to a design. Infrastructural qualities
are secondary and can be changed to meet the project requirements.
Which of the following could prevent a physical system from being converted to a virtual workload?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The infrastructure qualities are attributes you can use to ensure that major aspects are considered
to help with good design processes. What are the infrastructure qualities?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A platform has an RPO of 4 hours. The platform crashes at 2 p.m. Which of the following is
correct?
A. The platform must be ready for users to access by 6 p.m., with data versions from at least from
10 a.m.
B. The platform must be ready for users ASAP, with data versions from at least 10 a.m.
C. The platform must be ready for users to access by 6 p.m., and the data age is unknown from
the RTO.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A multitier website has an RTO of 4 hours and an RPO of 15 minutes. The database crashes at 5
p.m. and causes the website to be unavailable. Which of the following is true? (Select all that
apply.)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
You are the VMware consultant at a large enterprise. A senior manager is in charge of a project
that needs new infrastructure for its application. The application will be used by 3,200 users. Three
virtual machines are requested via the help desk. One of the three is a virtual machine with 32
vCPUs allocated for processing. The notes of the request say that the large number of vCPUs (the
company template is 2 vCPUs) is justified by the senior manager. The notes also reference the
following details from the application manual:
- For every 100 users in the workload, the processing tier of the application requires one agent
A. Configure the 32-vCPU box as requested and talk to the users during the rest of the project to
understand the application as much as possible for ease of support and to understand the impact.
B. Create a proof of concept server with 2 vCPUs and engage with the user/application vendor to
understand actual resources required for the company workload and support requirements.
Suggest other deployment strategies, such as scaling out the processing tier with a lower number
of vCPUs per guest virtual machine but more virtual machines within the tier.
C. Deny the virtual machine request and suggest that the processing tier be physical.
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to HA best practices, which of the following admission control policies is most
appropriate for a cluster of hosts with virtual machines of very different memory and CPU
reservations?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A requirement in a server consolidation project states: “The consolidation ratio must be as high as
possible.” This has resulted in a lower number of larger-capacity hosts in the vSphere HA cluster.
Which of the following is true?
A. The restart time of a VM could be greater than when using smaller hosts.
B. The restart time of a VM could be lower than when using smaller hosts.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A host has three dual-port network cards. What is the maximum number of vSwitches that can be
integrated with the physical network, assuming that network redundancy is not a requirement?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 256
D. 512
Answer: B
Explanation:
As a platform designer, you have been asked to create a design for a vSphere 5 platform. Based
on existing capacity state analysis, the platform will require 30 hosts and 250 guest VMs. Due to
an existing vendor relationship with the enterprise, the preferred database for all datacenter
systems is Microsoft SQL 2008. Which of the following vCenter deployments can be used based
on this constraint?
Answer: B
Explanation:
RTO and RPO requirements can have a direct impact on the size and number of virtual datastores
used in a vSphere platform.
A. True
B. False
You are a platform designer constructing a physical design from an existing approved logical
design. Out of the vendor proposals, there are two proposed solutions that could be used. Which
of the following options is the most important factor when making a decision?
Answer: C
Explanation:
You have been asked to design a virtual machine for a new application developed in-house. The
application will be load tested before it is finally made production ready. The application
developers have created documentation based on data flow and entity dependency. The
functionality of the application is critical to the business for a defined project with a client base of a
maximum of 12,000 users. Which of the following scaling approaches would best suit this
scenario?
A. Predictive
B. Adaptive
Answer: A
Explanation:
You are a virtualization consultant at a company that develops its own inhouse website trading
systems. The new website will be deployed in a vSphere 5 platform, which consists of two clusters
and four ESXi hosts (one for each project—the SDLC hosts—for all levels of testing and
development prior to production deployment).
Following a successful midweek, the new application starts to show signs of latency. Suddenly
several applications across the cluster are being impacted by network latency issues. Metrics are
collected and show that the amount of network traffic between the database and application
servers of the new website platform are at 96% utilization on the physical switch links between
ESXi hosts in the production cluster. What should you do?
A. Recommend that the website platform be fixed and removed from the production system.
B. Create a DRS affinity rule to ensure that the database and applications servers stay on the
same ESXi host and do not traverse the physical network when communicating.
C. Configure Network I/O Control to ensure that the network latency is alleviated between the
database and applications servers.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You are working on a project to deploy a critical multitier web application. The application is as
follows:
In the scenario described, the SAN space is limited. Which of the following options would help
save space while still providing the infrastructure shown above?
A. Confirm that 80 GB is actually used on the servers in each tier and configure thin provisioning
to save space.
B. Reduce the amount of memory in each web server by 2 GB to reduce the amount of swap
space created.
C. Create a resource pool hierarchy for the web, processing, and database tiers in the application
Answer: A
Explanation:
You are working on a project to deploy a critical multitier web application. The application is as
follows:
In the scenario described, which of the following would be a good design choice for memory
management in the vSphere platform?
Answer: B
Explanation:
You are working on a project to deploy a critical multitier web application. The application is as
follows:
In the scenario described, which of the following would be a good alternate design choice to
discuss with the vendor/web development team?
A. Consider consolidating the database servers into one large server for ease of management,
backup, and licensing costs.
B. Consider creating a file server with UNC file shares presenting the read-only data for web
servers. This would reduce the amount of space required from approximately 3 TB to
approximately 150 GB.
C. Reduce the specifications of each web server and increase the number of servers to distribute
the load more widely across the cluster.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Entry criteria should be included in all areas of documentation designed for implementation and
validation.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
A validation plan is used to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
vSphere cluster functionality such as DRS and HA does not need to be part of a validation plan.
This kind of documentation is only concerned with guest VM workload validation, not platform-wide
validation.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
The technical approach and order of delivery can have an impact on which of the following?
(Select all that apply.)