Correct Answer: C Your Answer: D Explanation: Exam Title: 4) POLITY & SCIENCE Email Contact

Exam Title : 4) POLITY & SCIENCE
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QUESTION 1.
Consider the below given statements in regard to Panchayats and state governments:
1. The state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the panchayati raj system.
2. Neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depends on the will
of the state government.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (c)
The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 gave constitutional status to the panchayati raj institutions. It has brought
them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution.
In other words, the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj
system in accordance with the provisions of the act. Consequently, neither the formation of panchayats nor
the holding of elections at regular intervals depends on the will of the state government any more.
QUESTION 2.
Which of the following is not correct about a cantonment board?
a) It is created by an executive resolution.

b) It works under the administrative control of the Union Defence Ministry.
c) It is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
d) It is a statutory body.
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (a)
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A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment
area.
• It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006—a legislation enacted by the Central
government. (Hence, it is a statutory body.)
• It works under the administrative control of the defence ministry of the Central government. Thus, unlike
the above four types of urban local bodies, which are created and administered by the state
government, a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the Central government.
QUESTION 3.
Who among the following hold office during the pleasure of the President?
1. Attorney General
2. Prime Minister
3. Governor
4. Council of Ministers
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (d)
All the given authority holds office during the pleasure of the President. Hence, (d) is the correct answer.
QUESTION 4.
Who among the below given Viceroy of India has been hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local
self-government?
a) Lord Ripon
b) Lord Mayo
c) Lord Minto
d) Lord Lytton
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
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Solution (a)
In the year 1882, the viceroy of India Lord Ripon issued a resolution of Local Self-government.
Lord Ripon’s Resolution of 1882 has been hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government. Lord Ripon
is called the “Father of Local Self Government” in India.
QUESTION 5.
The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the:
a) President of the board

b) Defence Secretary
c) Chief Secretary of the state
d) President of India
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (d)
The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the president of India. He implements all the
resolutions and decisions of the board and its committees. He belongs to the central cadre established for
the purpose.
QUESTION 6.
With regard to OPEC, consider the following statements
1. Vienna is the Headquarters of OPEC
2. Iran is not a part of OPEC
3. OPEC members include countries from Middle East, Africa and South America
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
a) 2 only
b) None
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation
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Solution (c)
The Middle East is a transcontinental region cantered on Western Asia and Egypt.
The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent, intergovernmental

Organization, created at the Baghdad Conference on 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and
Venezuela. The five Founding Members
Headquartered since 1965 in Vienna. As of 2015, the 13 countries accounted for an estimated 40 %
percent of global oil production and 70% percent of the world's "proven" oil reserves, giving OPEC a major
influence on global oil prices that were previously determined by American-dominated multinational oil
companies.
The organization is also a significant provider of information about the international oil market. As of
December 2016, OPEC's members are Algeria, Angola, Ecuador, Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria,
Qatar, Saudi Arabia (the de facto leader), United Arab Emirates, and Venezuela. Two-thirds of OPEC's oil
production and reserves are in its six Middle Eastern countries that surround the oil-rich Persian Gulf.
The effect can be particularly strong when wars or civil disorders lead to extended interruptions in supply.
Economists often cite OPEC as a textbook example of a cartel that cooperates to reduce market
competition, but whose consultations are protected by the doctrine of sovereign immunity under
international law.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/business/%E2%80%98OPEC-output-cut-may-hike-petrol-diesel-prices-5-8%E2%80%99
QUESTION 7.
Consider the following statements
1. National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a non-statutory body
2. The Central Government has suo -moto powers to direct the agency (NIA) for investigation of any
scheduled offence
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (d)
National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a central agency established by the Indian Government to combat
terror in India. It acts as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency. The agency is
empowered to deal with terror related crimes across states without special permission from the states. The
Agency came into existence with the enactment of the National Investigation Agency Act 2008 by the
Parliament of India on 31 December 2008.
NIA was created after the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks as need for a central agency to combat terrorism
was realised
Various Special Courts have been notified by the Central Government of India for trial of the cases
registered at various police stations of NIA under Section 11 and 22 of the NIA Act 2008. Any question as
to the jurisdiction of these courts is decided by the Central Government. These are presided over by a
judge appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of the High Court
with jurisdiction in that region.
Under two circumstances the NIA takes up a case “to investigate and prosecute offences”. It could be on
reference from the State where a Scheduled offence has taken place. On receipt of report from the State
Government, the Central Government shall determine on the basis of information made available by the
State Government or received from other sources, within 15 days from the date of receipt of the report,
The Central Government may also, suo motu , direct the Agency to investigate a Scheduled offence if it is
of the opinion that the offence is required to be investigated under the NIA Act [Section 6(5)].
Although the Centre has suo mottu power to take up any case that falls within the stipulated eight laws, in
practice, it has ventured into cases only on the invitation of the States.
In other words, it was “not an Agency to deal with offences under all the laws”, but “with only eight laws”:
1. The Atomic Energy Act, 1962 (33 of 1962);
2. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (37 of 1967);
3. The Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 (65 of 1982);
Offences covered under the laws are known as "scheduled offences".
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Tamil Nadu government’s rejection of the services of the NIA to investigate the bomb blasts at the Chennai
Central Railway Station
Read More - http://www.idsa.in/idsacomments/NationalInvestigationAgency_nmanoharan_120514
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/NIA-brings-terror-suspect-to-Mysuru-court-complex/article16
QUESTION 8.
Recently, a high-Zinc variant of rice was released by a research team. This variant of rice helps in
a) strengthening the body’s immune system

b) building muscles
c) increasing the haemoglobin levels
d) colour blindness
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
The higher protein leads to a decrease in starch, benefiting diabetics. rice protein is easier to digest
compared to what comes from non-vegetarian sources. “It is particularly good for children and the elderly,
Also released high-zinc and high-iron types, which have double the normal level of the two elements.
The high zinc variant has about 50 parts per million of the element, nearly double that of normal rice, and
Dr. Shylaja says this rice helps strengthen the body’s immune system.
Iron which is, again, double the quantum in normal rice. This rice is particularly good for children, pregnant
women and those with low haemoglobin levels.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/A-more-muscular-rice-variety-takes-on-wheat/article16780643.ece
QUESTION 9.
The latitude that passes through Taiwan, also passes through which of the following countries?
1. Thailand
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2. India
3. Egypt
4. Brazil
Choose the appropriate code
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Hint: Tropic of Cancer
The Tropic of Cancer passes through the Bahamas, Mexico, Mauritania, Mali, Western Sahara, Algeria,
Niger, Libya, Egypt, Saudi Arabia, India, China, Abu Dhabi, Oman, Bangladesh, Burma and Taiwan. It also
passes through the United States in the Hawaiian region but it does not pass through any of the islands.
Taiwan officially the Republic of China (ROC), is a state in East Asia. Taiwan is the most populous state
that is not a member of the United Nations, and the one with the largest economy.
The Qing ceded Taiwan to Japan in 1895 after the Sino-Japanese War. While Taiwan was under Japanese
rule, the Republic of China (ROC) was established on the mainland in 1912 after the fall of the Qing
dynasty. Following the Japanese surrender to the Allies in 1945, the ROC took control of Taiwan.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/China%E2%80%99s-state-media-call-Trump-%E2%80%98naive%E2
QUESTION 10.
Boko Haram , an extremist group often in news is based in?
a) Iraq
b) Lebanon
c) Nigeria
d) Syria
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Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
It is an Islamic extremist group based in northeaster Nigeria, also active in Chad, Niger and northern
Cameroon. The group had alleged links to al-Qaeda, but in March 2015, it announced its allegiance to the
Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant (ISIL). It was ranked as the world's deadliest terror group by the Global
Terrorism Index in 2015
" haram ", or forbidden, for Muslims to take part in any political or social activity associated with Western
society. This includes voting in elections, wearing shirts and trousers or receiving a secular education.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-international/Niger-feels-ripple-effect-of-Boko-Haram-war/article16798
QUESTION 11.
Which of the below given statement(s) about Fifth Schedule areas is/are correct?
1. The provisions of Part IX of the constitution relating to the Panchayats are not applicable to the Fifth
Schedule areas.
2. Fifth Schedule areas deal with the administration of the tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Select appropriate code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
The provisions of Part IX of the constitution relating to the Panchayats are not applicable to the Fifth
Schedule areas.
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5 th Schedule deals with administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state
except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
6 th Schedule deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
QUESTION 12.
Which of the below given statements are true about Union Territories in India?
1. Their relationship with centre is unitary.

2. They share a distribution of power with the Centre.
3. They do not have any autonomy
4. There is no uniformity in their administrative set-up.
Choose the appropriate code from below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (c)
QUESTION 13.
Which of the below given statement(s) is/are not correct about State Election Commission?
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1. The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all
elections to the municipalities shall be vested in the state election commission.
2. The state legislature may make provision with respect to all matters relating to elections to the
municipalities.
Select the appropriate code from below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (d)
Both the given statements are correct, however question asks for not correct statements. Hence, (d) none
is the correct answer.
QUESTION 14.
The UTs have been created because:
1. Puducherry has been formed UT due to strategic importance of location.

2. Delhi and Chandigarh has been formed due to political and administrative considerations.
3. Andaman and Nicobar islands have been formed UT due to cultural distinctiveness.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
The union territories have been created for a variety of reasons. These are mentioned below:
1. Political and administrative consideration—Delhi and Chandigarh.
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2. Cultural distinctiveness—Puducherry, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu.
3. Strategic importance—Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.
4. Special treatment and care of the backward and tribal people—Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura and
Arunachal Pradesh which later became states.
QUESTION 15.
An administrator of a union territory is
1. an agent of the President

2. appointed by the President
3. head of state like a governor
Select the appropriate code:
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (b)
Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him.
Note: An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President and not head of state like a
governor.
The President can specify the designation of an administrator; it may be Lieutenant Governor or Chief
Commissioner or Administrator.
At present, it is Lieutenant Governor in the case of Delhi, Puducherry and Andaman and Nicobar Islands
and Administrator in the case of Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu and Lakshadweep.
QUESTION 16.
Rabindranath Tagore songs is/are adopted as national anthem[s] of
1. Bangladesh
2. Sri Lanka
3. Nepal
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4. Bhutan
Select the correct code
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (c)
His song ‘Amar Sonar Bangla’ was adopted as the National Anthem of Bangladesh and also the lyrics of
Sri Lanka’s National Anthem were given by him.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/society/A-panoramic-view-of-Tagore%E2%80%99s-world/article16693466.ece
QUESTION 17.
Match the following
Ports Country
1. Sittwe Myanmar
2. Hambantota Sri Lanka
3. Mogadishu Madagascar
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
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Solution (a)
Ports Country
1. Sittwe Myanmar
2. Hambantota Sri Lanka
3. Mogadishu Somalia
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/Kolkata-Mizoram-trade-route-to-open-via-Myanmar/article16790655
QUESTION 18.
With regard to Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following
1. It is a non-statutory body
2. The high courts and supreme courts also have the jurisdiction to order a CBI investigation
3. The Parliament has powers to extend the powers and jurisdiction of CBI
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
An executive order was, therefore, passed by the Government of India in 1941, setting up the Special
Police Establishment (SPE) under a DIG in the then Department of War with mandate to investigate cases
of bribery and corruption in transactions with which War and Supply Department of the Government of India
was concerned.
CBI derives power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. Section 2 of the
Act vests DSPE with jurisdiction to investigate offences in the Union Territories only. However, the
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jurisdiction can be extended by the Central Government to other areas including Railway areas and States
under Section 5(1) of the Act, provided the State Government accords consent under Section 6 of the Act.
As per Section 3 of the Act, Special Police Establishment is authorised to investigate only those cases,
which are notified by the Central Government from time to time.
After promulgation of the Act, superintendence of SPE was transferred to the Home Department and its
functions were enlarged to cover all departments of the Government of India. The jurisdiction of SPE was
extended to all the Union territories and the Act provided for its extension to States with the consent of the
State Government.
not only cases of bribery and corruption, but also violation of Central fiscal laws, major frauds relating to
Government of India departments, public joint stock companies, passport frauds, crimes on the high seas,
crimes on the Airlines and serious crimes committed by organised gangs and professional criminals.
Therefore, the Government of India set up Central Bureau of Investigation by a resolution dated 1st
April, 1963 with the following divisions:
The High Courts and the Supreme Court have the jurisdiction to order a CBI investigation into an
offence alleged to have been committed in a state without the state's consent, according to a
five-judge constitutional bench of the Supreme Court (in Civil Appeals 6249 and 6250 of 2001) on 17
Feb 2010. The bench ruled:
Being the protectors of civil liberties of the citizens, this Court and the High Courts have not only
the power and jurisdiction but also an obligation to protect the fundamental rights, guaranteed by
Part III in general and under Article 21 of the Constitution in particular, zealously and vigilantly.
— Five-judge constitutional bench of the Supreme Court of India,
The court clarified this is an extraordinary power which must be exercised sparingly, cautiously
and only in exceptional situations
Can CBI take over the investigation of a criminal case registered by the State Police?
Yes, it can, in the following situations
(i) The concerned State Government makes a request to that effect and the Central Government agrees to
it (Central Government generally seeks comment of CBI before deciding upon the request of the State)
(ii) The State Government issues notification of consent under section 6 of the DSPE Act and the Central
Government issues notification under section 5 of the DSPE Act
(iii) The Supreme Court or High Courts orders CBI to take up such investigations.
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Who exercises supervision over CBI?
The superintendence of CBI related to investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption
Act, 1988 lies with the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) and in other matters with the
Department of Personnel & Training (DOPT) in the Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Grievances of
the Government of India.
Source:
http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ani/sc-to-hear-plea-against-asthana-s-appointment-as-cbi-inter
QUESTION 19.
Koushal judgement is related to
a) Disability community
b) Women Harassment
c) Child Labour
d) LGBT community
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (d)
The Supreme Court in 2013 overruled the Delhi HC judgement on Section 377, and homosexuals had once
again become criminals in their own country
Delhi high court judgement, which had held that Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code did not criminalize
adult same-sex consensual sexual relations
The Delhi high court judgement was overruled and homosexuals had once again become criminals in their
own country.
Source:
http://www.livemint.com/Opinion/LvCeh4ERpJAIl6G5UMZqRK/Koushal-judgement-and-three-years-later.html
QUESTION 20.
Consider the following statements with reference to India Meteorological Department ( IMD )
1. It is responsible for forecasting, naming and distribution of warnings for tropical cyclones in the Northern
Indian Ocean region, including Malacca Strait and Persian Gulf
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2. It also operates seismic monitoring centres for earthquake monitoring and measurements in India
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (c)
The India Meteorological Department (IMD), also referred to as the Met Department, is an agency of the
Ministry of Earth Sciences of the Government of India. It is the principal agency responsible for
meteorological observations, weather forecasting and seismology. IMD is headquartered in New Delhi and
operates hundreds of observation stations across India and Antarctica.
IMD is also one of the six Regional Specialised Meteorological Centres of the World Meteorological
Organization. It has the responsibility for forecasting, naming and distribution of warnings for tropical
cyclones in the Northern Indian Ocean region, including the Malacca Straits, the Bay of Bengal, the Arabian
Sea and the Persian Gulf.
It is regional nodal agency for forecasting, naming and disseminating warnings about tropical cyclone in the
Indian Ocean north of the Equator.
The IMD launched System of Aerosol Monitoring and Research (SAMAR) in January 2016 to study the
concentration of Black carbon, radiative properties of aerosols, environmental visibility and their
climatological impacts.
IMD also operates seismic monitoring centres at key locations for earthquake monitoring and
measurements.
Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/cyclone-vardah-name-updates-explained-severity-chennai-tamil-nadu-and
QUESTION 21.
Which of the below given statements is/are true about Union Territories of Puducherry and Delhi?
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1. The Union Territories of Puducherry and Delhi are provided with a legislative assembly and a council of
ministers headed by a chief minister.
2. The power of Parliament to make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the
union territories do not extend to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislatures.
Select the appropriate code from below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
The Union Territories of Puducherry and Delhi are provided with a legislative assembly and a council of
ministers headed by a chief minister.
The remaining five union territories do not have such popular political institutions.
But, the establishment of such institutions in the union territories does not diminish the supreme control of
the president and Parliament over them. (Note this, very important)
• Full power of Parliament: The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including
the State List) for the union territories.
• This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislatures.
(Note this, very important)
• Please note: But, the legislative assembly of Puducherry can also make laws on any subject of the
State List and the Concurrent List.
• Similarly, the legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on any subject of the State List (except public
order, police and land) and the Concurrent List.
QUESTION 22.
Consider the statements given below about Fifth and Sixth schedule areas:
1. The governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the
state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
2. The President enjoys the same power with respect to tribal areas (autonomous districts) in Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Constitution places certain restrictions on the plenary territorial jurisdiction of the Parliament. In other
words, the laws of Parliament are not applicable in the following areas:
(i) The President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the four Union
Territories—the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and
Diu. A regulation so made has the same force and effect as an act of Parliament. It may also repeal or
amend any act of Parliament in relation to these union territories.
(ii) The governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the
state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
(iii) The Governor of Assam may likewise direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area
(autonomous district) in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions. The President
enjoys the same power with respect to tribal areas (autonomous districts) in Meghalaya, Tripura and
Mizoram.
In (iii) Governor of Assam direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a tribal area (autonomous
district) in the state, so not President, hence statement (2) is wrong.
QUESTION 23.
Consider the below given statements about ‘scheduled areas’ and select the correct statement/s from the
codes given below:
1. The Parliament is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area.

2. The scheduled areas are treated differently from the other areas in the country because they are
inhabited by ‘aboriginals’
3. Governor has to submit a report to the president regarding the administration of such areas, annually or
whenever so required by the president.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 3 only
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Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (b)
Declaration of Scheduled Areas: The president (not Parliament) is empowered to declare an area to be a
scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such
designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the
state concerned.
The scheduled areas are treated differently from the other areas in the country because they are inhabited
by ‘aboriginals’ who are socially and economically rather backward, and special efforts need to be made to
improve their condition.
Governor has a special responsibility regarding scheduled areas. He has to submit a report to the president
regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the president.
QUESTION 24.
The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991
1. Provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi

2. Redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi
3. Designated the administrator of Delhi as the lieutenant (lt.) governor
4. It created a legislative assembly and a council of ministers for Delhi.
Choose the appropriate code from below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (d)
The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991
Ø provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi;
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Ø redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi;
Ø designated the administrator of Delhi as the lieutenant (lt.) governor.
Ø It created a legislative assembly and a council of ministers for Delhi.
QUESTION 25.
Which among the below given statement is not special provisions for Delhi?
a) Delhi’s legislative assembly can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List.
b) The chief minister of Delhi is appointed by the President (not by the lt. governo
c) The other ministers are appointed by the president on the advice of the chief minister.
d) The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president.
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
The Delhi legislative assembly can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List
except the three matters of the State List, that is, public order, police and land. But, the laws of Parliament
prevail over those made by the Assembly.
Remaining statements are correct.
QUESTION 26.
1. Austria is a landlocked country of Europe
2. Austria is a member of European Union
3. IAEA has its Headquarters in Vienna, which is the capital city of Austria
a) 2 only
b) None of the above
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
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Explanation
Solution (c)
QUESTION 27.
After India’s demonetization, country X’ has followed suit but for a different reason. The oil rich country has
decided to take out its currency, bolivar’ out of the market. The country X’ here refers to
a) Libya
b) Nigeria
c) Venezuela
d) Kuwait
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Venezuela-warns-about-cybercrime/article16801504.ece
QUESTION 28.
With regard to Zardozi crafts, consider the following statements
1. It has been in existence in India since the time of Rig Veda
2. The Mughals encouraged Zardozi , especially Akabr
3. Zardozi from Lucknow, has got GI tag
Select the correct answer
a) 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (d)
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Zardozi - work is a type of embroidery in Iran, Azerbaijan, Iraq ,[ 1] Kuwait, Turkey, Central Asia, India,
Pakistan and Bangladesh.
Zardozi embroidery is beautiful metal embroidery, which once used to embellish the attire of the Kings and
the royals in India. . Zardozi embroidery work involves making elaborate designs, using gold and silver
threads.
Today, craftsmen make use of a combination of copper wire, with a golden or silver polish, and a silk
thread.
Zardozi embroidery has been in existence in India from the time of the Rig Veda There are numerous
instances mentioning the use of zari embroidery as ornamentation on the attire of gods.
It prospered during the Mugal Emperor, Akbar, but later a loss of royal patronage and industrialization led
to its decline. Today, it is popular in the Indian cities of Lucknow, Farrukhabad , Chennai and Bhopal. In
2013 the Geographical Indication Registry (GIR) accorded the Geographical Indication (GI) registration to
the Lucknow Zardozi – the world-renowned textile embroidery from Lucknow.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/Zardozi-craftsmen%E2%80%99s-livelihood-hangs-by-a-thr
QUESTION 29.
Recently, three new products were launched under the name Shishu , Kishor and Tarun . The new
products were launched by which of the following bank?
a) Mahila Bank
b) Cooperative Banks
c) Regional Rural Banks (RRB
d) None
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Under the scheme, Pradhaan Mantri Mudra Yojana three categories of interventions has been named
which includes
Shishu :- Loan up to ■50,000 (US$740)
Kishore :- Loan ranging from ■50,000 (US$740) to ■5 lakh (US$7,400)
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Tarun :- Loan above ■5 lakh (US$7,400) and below ■10 lakh (US$15,000)
These three categories will signify the growth, development and funding needs of the beneficiaries as well
as it will assure the loan amount to be allotted by Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Bank.
QUESTION 30.
Doyang Lake, famous as a roosting site for longest travelling raptors Amur Falcons is located in which
state?
a) Nagaland
b) Manipur
c) Meghalaya
d) Arunachal Pradesh
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (a)
Pangti village in Nagaland as the world's Amur Falcon capital,
Centre to develop Doyang lake( in Wokha district of Nagaland )every year, during their flight from Mongolia
to Africa., famous for Amur falcons, as an eco-tourism spot
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/Nagaland-Manipur-cheer-as-Amur-falcons-arrive/art
QUESTION 31.
Consider the following differences between 5th Schedule and 6th Schedule Areas:
1. While executive powers of the union extend in Scheduled areas with respect to their administration in
5th schedule; the 6th schedule areas remain within executive authority of the state.
2. While 5th schedule envisages creation of Tribal Advisory Council, 6th schedule provides for District
Councils and Regional Councils with certain legislative and judicial powers.
Which of the above given differences is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
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Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (c)
Difference between 5th Schedule and 6th Schedule Areas:
1. While both the areas under 5th schedule and 6th schedule have dominance of the tribal people,
constitution calls them with different names viz. Scheduled Area under 5th schedule while Tribal areas
under 6th schedule.
2. While executive powers of the union extend in Scheduled areas with respect to their administration in
5th schedule; the 6th schedule areas remain within executive authority of the state.
3. While 5th schedule envisages creation of Tribal Advisory Council , 6th schedule provides for District
Councils and Regional Councils with certain legislative and judicial powers.
QUESTION 32.
Consider the following statements about Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners
(ECs) :
1. The President of India appoints the CEC and ECs

2. CEC shall be appointed for a term of 6 years or till he attain an age of 65 years.
3. ECs are appointed by the President and the President need to consult Chief Election Commissioner in
this regard.
4. Election Commissioners will only be removed on the recommendation of Chief Election Commissioner.
Which of the above given statements are correct?
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (b)
The President of India appoints the CEC and ECs. The Election Commissioners are appointed by the
President and the President need not have to consult Chief Election Commissioner in this regard. However,
the Election Commissioners will only be removed on the recommendation of Chief Election Commissioner.
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CEC shall be appointed for a term of 6 years or till he attain an age of 65 years.
QUESTION 33.
Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President of India.

2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He can be removed by impeachment process by the Parliament.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Attorney General is appointed by the President. He should be qualified to be a Judge of Supreme Court i.e.
must be citizen of India and
• Should have been Judge of some High court for at least 5 years
• Or should have been an advocate of some High court for at least 10 years
• Or eminent jurist in the eyes of the President
Under article 76, impeachment procedure of Attorney-General is not provided. He shall hold office during
the pleasure of the President. He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.
QUESTION 34.
Consider the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor-General(CAG) of India:
1. CAG is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal for a period of six years.
2. CAG can only be removed from office in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme
Court.
3. CAG is not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government
of any State after he has ceased to hold his office.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
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Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (d)
CAG
• Is appointed by President
• Holds the office for 6 years or up to the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.
• Can resign anytime from his office addressing letter to President.
• Can be removed by President on same grounds and in same manner as a judge of S.C. i.e on the basis
of the resolution passed by both the houses with special majority, either on the grounds of proved
misbehaviour or incapacity.
QUESTION 35.
Consider the following statements about the Central Vigilance Commission:
1. Central Vigilance Commission consists of chairperson and not more than two members.
2. Salary, allowances and other conditions of services of the Central Vigilance Commissioner are similar to
those of chairperson of UPSC.
3. The jurisdiction of the CVC does not extend to managers and above in general insurance companies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement (3) is incorrect. The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to managers and above in general insurance
companies.
QUESTION 36.
With reference to Hydrogen fuel, consider the following statements
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1. It is a Zero-emission fuel
2. It can be used in propulsion of spacecraft
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (c)
Zero emission refers to an engine, motor, process, or other energy source, that emits no waste products
that pollutes the environment or disrupts the climate.
H2 fuel cells run on compressed Hydrogen fed into fuel cell tht produces electricity to power the vehicles.
A cell producing an electric current direct from a chemical reaction.
Hydrogen is a versatile fuel that can power almost anything. Fuel cells – an energy conversion device that
can harness the power of hydrogen – are key to making it happen.
A fuel cell produces electricity through a chemical reaction, but without combustion. It converts hydrogen
and oxygen into water, and in the process also creates electricity. It’s an electro-chemical energy
conversion device that produces electricity, water, and heat.
Cars, buses, power plants, buildings etc.
Source:
http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/national/pilot-project-for-hydrogenpowered-3wheelers-to-be-run-in
QUESTION 37.
Consider the following statements about International Chamber of Commerce (ICC)
1. ICC was designated as the official business representative in the processes that lead to the creation of
the UN’s 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development
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2. ICC is the only business organisation that has been admitted as an Observer at the UN General
Assembly
3. ICC was the first organization granted general consultative status with the United Nations Economic and
Social Council
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (d)
ICC is the largest, most representative business organization in the world .[ 1] Its hundreds of thousands of
member companies in over 130 countries have interests spanning every sector of private enterprise.
ICC has three main activities: rule setting, dispute resolution, and policy advocacy. Because its member
companies and associations are themselves engaged in international business, ICC has unrivalled
authority in making rules that govern the conduct of business across borders. Although these rules are
voluntary, they are observed in countless thousands of transactions every day and have become part of
international trade.
ICC lobbies the United Nations, the World Trade Organization, and many other inter-governmental bodies,
both international and regional, on behalf of international business. ICC was the first organization granted
general consultative status with the United Nations Economic and Social Council.
The United Nations (UN) General Assembly has granted Observer Status to the International Chamber of
Commerce (ICC). It is the first time that a business organisation has been admitted as an Observer at the
UN General Assembly. The list of UN observers is highly restricted and features principally
intergovernmental organisations. This paves way for the business will have direct voice in the UN system
for the first time.
Source:
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/world-news/united-nations-general-assembly-grants-o
QUESTION 38.
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Exercise Ekuverin is a joint military exercise between
a) Seychelles
b) Maldives
c) Indonesia
d) Laos
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (b)
Source:
http://www.business-standard.com/article/government-press-release/opening-ceremony-indo-maldives-joint-mi
QUESTION 39.
Which one of the following was a journal brought out by Abul Kalam Azad?
a) Al- Hilal
b) Comrade
c) The Indian Sociologist
d) Zamindar
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/education/national-education-day-why-is-it-celebrated-on-november-11/
QUESTION 40.
Global Terrorism Index (GTI) is released by
a) Institute for Economics & Peace

b) Centre for Land Warfare Studies
c) RAND Corporation
d) Brookings Institution
Correct Answer: A
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Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
India was ranked seventh in the list of countries most impacted by terrorism in 2015, according to the
Global Terrorism Index (GTI), 2016, released by the Institute for Economics & Peace, a think-tank based in
Sydney, Australia.
India is one of six Asian countries ranked in the top ten nations most impacted by terrorism.
Source:
http://www.business-standard.com/article/current-affairs/india-ranked-7-among-countries-hit-most-by-terrorism
QUESTION 41.
Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with
land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system?
a) Schedule Eight
b) Schedule Nine
c) Schedule Eleventh
d) Schedule Twelfth
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (b)
Ninth Schedule deals with Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and
abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters.
This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial
scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.
However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are
now open to judicial review.
QUESTION 42.
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Finance Commission
1. Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body.
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2. It is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier.

3. It is required to make recommendations to the Parliament on the distribution of the net proceeds of
taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states, the
respective shares of such proceeds.
4. The Constitution envisages the Finance Commission as the balancing wheel of fiscal federalism in
India.
Choose the correct codes from below options:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President
every fifth year or even earlier. It is required to make recommendations to the President on the following
matters:
• The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the
allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds.
• The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the
Consolidated Fund of India).
• The measures needed to augment the Consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the
panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State
Finance Commission.
• Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.
The Constitution envisages the Finance Commission as the balancing wheel of fiscal federalism in India.
QUESTION 43.
The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 added
1. Part-IX to the Constitution of India
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2. Articles 243 to 243ZG
3. 11th Schedule to the Constitution
Select the appropriate code:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (c)
The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 added –
· Part-IX to the Constitution of India i.e., The Panchayats and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to
243 O.
· In addition, the act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution.
QUESTION 44.
Which of the following are not the concerns of the UPSC?
1. Classification of services
2. Promotion
3. Training
4. Disciplinary matters
5. Talent hunting
a) 2, 4 and 5
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: A
Explanation
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Solution (c)
Among the powers and functions of the UPSC, only classification of services and training are not the
concerns of the UPSC.
Powers and functions of UPSC:
1. Conduction of exams for All India services, Central services and public services of centrally
administered territories
2. If two or more states request to hold Joint Public Service Exam, it assists them in doing so
3. Serves all need of States on request of Governor and with the permission of President
4. Consulted by government regarding
a) Methods of recruitment to above stated services
b) Principles to be followed during recruitment, promotions and transfer of such services
c) Suitability of the candidates for recruitment, transfers and promotions in such services
d) Disciplinary matters including censure or severe disapproval, withholding of increments and promotions,
demotions, compulsory retirement, removal from service etc.
e) Any claims for pensions due to injuries sustained while working under Government of India
f) Any claims of legal expenses in legal cases concerning his duties
g) Matters of temporary appointments more than a year
h) Matters of granting extension of civil service and re-employment of retired civil servants
i) Any other matter related to personnel management of any authority, corporate body etc. can be conferred
on the UPSC by Parliament
QUESTION 45.
Which of the following are the functions of the National Development Council?
1. The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of state in order to supplement resources of
panchayats and municipalities in State.
2. To make an assessment of the resources required to implement the plan and the way to augment the
resources.
3. To review the working of the Plan from time to time.
4. To consider important questions of social and economic policy affecting development.
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Choose appropriate code:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Functions
To meet its objectives, the NDC has been assigned below functions:
1. To prescribe guidelines for the formulation of the National Plan, including the assessment of resources
for the Plan
2. To consider the National Plan as formulated by the Planning Commission
3. To make an assessment of the resources required to implement the plan and the way to augment the
resources.
4. To consider important questions of social and economic policy affecting national development
5. To review the working of the Plan from time to time
6. To recommend such measures that are necessary for achieving the aims and targets set out in the
National Plan.
Statement (1) is a function of Finance Commission, not NDC.
QUESTION 46.
Consider the following pairs
Vitamin Deficiency diseases
1. Vitamin D Rickets
2. Vitamin B Beriberi
3. Vitamin E Night blindness
4. Vitamin B1 Blood clotting
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Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1,2 and 3
d) None
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Source – Previous year questions + value added notes
QUESTION 47.
Which of the following gland produces Insulin?
a) Pancreas
b) Adrenal
c) Pituitary
d) Thyroid
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Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
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Source – Previous year questions
QUESTION 48.
The fats present below the skin surface of snow bear and penguins helps them from –
a) Loss of essential body fluids

b) Loss of the heat from the body
c) Loss of salts from the body
d) Entry of harmful micro-organisms from the environment
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Fat present below the skin surface in our body, is called subcutaneous fat depot. It acts as insulator of
body. It acts against loss of heat from the body
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QUESTION 49.
Consider the following statements about LPG and CNG
1. Both emits greenhouse gases.
2. Methyl mercaptan is added to both the gases for easy gas detection.
3. Greater amount of space is required for storage in LPG than CNG.
a) All of the above

b) None of the above
c) 2 only
d) 1 only
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
· It is ethyl mercaptan or simply mercaptan and not methyl mecrcaptan .
· Methyl mercaptan is a colorless flammable gas with unpleasant odor described as rotten cabbage. It is
easily ignited.
· It is a natural substance found in the blood and brain of humans and animals, as well as in plant tissues.
CNG
· CNG is mainly methane compressed. It’s cheaper and cleaner but LPG has a higher calorific value
· (Heat produced by combustion of fuel).
· Production- oil deposit, landfill or wastewater treatment plants(biogas)
· Advantages-
o Store & distribution-hard containers at a pressure of 20-25 MPa
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o Cleaner than gasoline
o 80% less ozone-forming emissions v/s gasoline
o No lead so no fouling of spark plugs
o CNG powered vehicles lower maintenance + safer
o Sealed so no loss from spill or evaporation
o Increase life of lubricating oils as no contamination n dilution of crankcase oil
o Gaseous fuel but easily + evenly mixes with air
· Drawbacks-
o Greater amount of space required for storage v/s gasoline
LPG
· LPG is mix. of propane and butane.
· Some variants of LPG are primarily propane so often informally called as propane.
QUESTION 50.
1. Silver is the most ductile metal.
2. Gold is most malleable metal.
3. Most metals produce acidic oxide when dissolved in water.
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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (b)
Physical properties of metals
· Metallic lustre – shining surface of metals when they are in a pure state.
· Hard
· Malleable – property of metal by which it can be beaten into sheets
· Gold and silver most malleable
· Ductility – property of metal by which it can be drawn into thin wires.
· Gold – most ductile metal (1gm gold = 2km length wire)
· Because of malleability and ductility metals are used for making cooking vessels.
· Good conductors of HEAT & ELECTRICITY – have high melting points
· Best conductors of heat – silver and copper
· Poor conductors of heat – lead and mercury
· Wires that carry current are coated with polyvinylchloride (PVC) or rubber like material so person
doesn’t gets shock from current.
· Sonorous – produce sound when strike with a hard surface.
· Most metals produce basic oxide when dissolved in water i.e. metallic oxides are basic in nature.
Source – value added notes
QUESTION 51.
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Consider the following statements about CVC and CBI:
1. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established by an executive resolution of the Central
government.
2. CVC establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
3. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
4. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of
Corruption.
Which of the above given statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (d)
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central
government. It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its
establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home
Affairs. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of
Corruption (1962 -1964).
QUESTION 52.
Which of the following are Constitutional bodies?
1. UPSC
2. Finance Commission
3. CAG
4. CIC
5. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
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a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (c)
Constitutional Bodies
• Election Commission
• Union Public Service Commission
• State Public Service Commission
• Finance Commission
• National Commission for SCs
• National Commission for STs
• Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
• Comptroller and Auditor General of India
• Attorney General of India
• Advocate General of the State
QUESTION 53.
Consider the following statements:
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by the
Constitution (73 rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX–A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243–Q
envisages two types of municipalities – a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
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Explanation
Solution (a)
74TH AMENDMENT ACT OF 1992 added a new Part IX-A to the Constitution of India. It is entitled ‘The
Municipalities’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
The act provides for the constitution of the following three types of municipalities in every state. (Article 243
Q)
1. A nagar panchayat (by whatever name called) for a transitional area, that is, an area in transition from a
rural area to an urban area.
2. A municipal council for a smaller urban area.
3. A municipal corporation for a larger urban area
QUESTION 54.
The functions of the UPSC can be extended by:
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Ministry of Personnel
d) Parliament
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (d)
The functions of the UPSC can be extended by Parliament.
QUESTION 55.
Which of the following statements with regard to the CAG are correct?
1. He is responsible only to the Parliament.

2. He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as
the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state.
3. He compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments.
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
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Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (d)
All the statements are correct.
The duties and functions of the CAG as laid down by the Parliament and the Constitution are:
1. He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund
of each state and consolidated fund of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly.
2. He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as
the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state.
3. He audits all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts, balance sheets and other subsidiary
accounts kept by any department of the Central Government and state governments.
4. He audits the receipts and expenditure of the Centre and each state to satisfy himself that the rules and
procedures in that behalf are designed to secure an effective check on the assessment, collection and
proper allocation of revenue.
5. He compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments.
QUESTION 56.
1. Periscope is used in submarines, tanks, and soldiers in bunkers.
2. Kaleidoscope and periscope, both uses only 1 mirror.
Select the correct statements
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
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Solution (a)
Periscope
· A periscope is an instrument for observation over, around or through an object, obstacle or condition that
prevents direct line-of-sight observation from an observer's current position.
· The uses of a periscope include observation around barriers and at times when viewing a location
directly would be dangerous. Periscopes are typically used in submarines to see above the water, in tanks
to see above and around the vehicle and by people attending parades and other events to see over the
crowd.
Kaleidoscope
· A kaleidoscope operates on the principle of multiple reflection , where several mirrors are placed at an
angle to one another.
· Typically, there are three rectangular mirrors set at 60° to each other so that they form an equilateral
triangle, but other angles and configurations are possible.
· You would have got the answer for 2 nd option that both uses more than 1 mirror.
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Source – Value added notes
QUESTION 57.
Which of the following phenomena takes place in raindrop?
1. Dispersion
2. Refraction
3. Total internal reflection
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
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Dispersion
· The separation of white light into colours or of any radiation according to wavelength.
Refraction
· It is the bending of a wave when it enters a medium where its speed is different. The refraction of light
when it passes from a fast medium to a slow medium bends the light ray toward the normal to the boundary
between the two media.
Total internal reflection
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n1 and n2 are two different mediums. Critical angle is the angle of incidence beyond which rays of light
passing through a denser medium to the surface of a less dense medium are no longer refracted but totally
reflected.
· Total internal reflection is the phenomenon which occurs when a propagated wave strikes a medium
boundary at an angle larger than a particular critical angle with respect to the normal to the surface.
QUESTION 58.
Consider the following figure given below
In the figure OA and AP are 2 plane mirror perpendicular to each other. S is the direction of a beam of light
falling on mirror AP. The direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OA will be –
a) Perpendicular to the direction S

b) At 45° to the direction S
c) Opposite and parallel to the direction S
d) At 60° to the direction S.
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
· The ray which will reflect from AP will be at the right angle to incident ray S.
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· After falling on OA, it will be reflected again and will be parallel to S and in opposite direction.
QUESTION 59.
Which of the following method is used in Diagnostic laboratories for blood and urine tests and Washing
machines to squeeze out water from wet clothes?
a) Chromatography
b) Sublimation
c) Centrifugation
d) Distillation
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Chromatography
· Chromatography – Kroma in Greek means color and so it is the technique used for separation of those
solutes that dissolve in the same solvent.
· Usually, a dye is a mixture of two or more colors . The colored component that is more soluble in
water, rises faster and in this way the colors get separated.
· Applications –
To separate
• colors in a dye
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• Pigments from natural colors
• Drugs from blood.
Sublimation
· Sublimation is the transition of a substance directly from the solid to the gas phase without passing
through the intermediate liquid phase.
Centrifugation
· Centrifugation is a process which involves the application of the centripetal force for the sedimentation of
heterogeneous mixtures with a centrifuge, and is used in industrial and laboratory settings.
Distillation
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· Separation of components of a mixture containing two miscible liquids that boil without decomposition and
have sufficient difference in their boiling points .
Uses
· Laboratory scale, food processing, herbal, medicinal and industrial.
· Commercial processes include the production of gasoline, kerosene and several other liquids.
Source – value added notes
QUESTION 60.
Which of the following activity/activities help/helps in increasing the acid rain?
1. Use of coal for electrical power generation
2. Lightning
3. Volcano emissions.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: A
Explanation
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Solution (d)
Note - Acid rain is an important topic. Till date UPSC had asked this topic 4 times in prelims exam.
Acid rain
· Acid rain refers to a mixture of deposited material, both wet and dry, coming from the atmosphere
containing more than normal amounts of nitric and sulfuric acids.
· Normal rain water is slightly acidic with a pH range of 5.3-6.0, because carbon dioxide and water present
in the air react together to form carbonic acid, which is a weak acid. When the pH level of rain water falls
below this range, it becomes acid rain.
Forms of Acid Rain
2 forms in which acid deposition occurs – wet and dry.
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Wet Deposition
· When the wind blows the acidic chemicals in the air to the areas where the weather is wet, the acids fall to
the ground in the form of rain, sleet, fog, snow or mist. It removes acid from the atmosphere and deposit
them on the earth’s surface.
· When this acid flows through the ground, it affects large number of plants, animals and aquatic life. The
water from drain flows into rivers and canals which is them mixed up with sea water, thereby affecting
marine habitats.
Dry Deposition
· If the wind blows the acidic chemicals in the air to the areas where the weather is dry, the acidic pollutants
slip into dust or smoke and fall to the ground as dry particles. These stick to the ground and other surfaces
such as cars, houses, trees and buildings. Almost 50% of the acidic pollutants in the atmosphere fall back
through dry deposition . These acidic pollutants can be washed away from earth surface by rainstorms.
Causes of Acid Rain
Both natural and man-made sources are known to play a role in the formation of acid rain.
But, mainly caused by - combustion of fossil fuels which results in emissions of sulfur dioxide (SO2) and
nitrogen oxides (NOx).
1. Natural Sources
· Major natural causal agent for acid rain - volcanic emissions.
· Volcanoes emit acid producing gases to create higher than normal amounts of acid rain or any other form
of precipitation such as fog and snow to an extent of affecting vegetation cover and health of residents
within the surrounding. Decaying vegetation, wildfires and biological processes within the environment also
generate the acid rain forming gases. Dimethly sulfide is a typical example of a major biological
contributor to sulfur containing elements into the atmosphere.
· Lightning strikes also naturally produces nitric oxides that react with water molecules via electrical
activity to produce nitric acid, thereby forming acid rain.
2. Man-made sources
· Human activities leading to chemical gas emissions such as sulfur and nitrogen are the primary
contributors to acid rain.
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· The activities include air pollution sources emitting sulfur and nitrogen gases like factories, power
generations facilities, and automobiles .
· In particular, use of coal for electrical power generation is the biggest contributor to gaseous
emissions leading to acid rain.
· Automobiles and factories also release high scores of gaseous emissions on daily basis into the air,
especially in highly industrialized areas and urban regions with large numbers of car traffic.
· Sulfur and nitrogen gases react in the atmosphere with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form
various acidic compounds such as sulfuric acid, ammonium nitrate, and nitric acid . As a result, these
areas experience exceedingly high amounts of acid rain.
The existing winds blow these acidic compounds over large areas across borders and they fall back to the
ground in the form of acid rain or other forms of precipitation. Upon reaching the earth, it flows across the
surface, absorbs into the soil and enters into lakes and rivers and finally gets mixed up with sea water.
Further reading – click here
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Correct Answer: C Your Answer: D Explanation: Exam Title: 4) POLITY & SCIENCE Email Contact

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Exam Title : 4) POLITY & SCIENCE

Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?

a) It is created by an executive resolution.

a) President of the board

1. Vienna is the Headquarters of OPEC

2. Iran is not a part of OPEC

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent, intergovernmental

1. National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a non-statutory body

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

1. The Atomic Energy Act, 1962 (33 of 1962);

2. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (37 of 1967);

3. The Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 (65 of 1982);

Offences covered under the laws are known as "scheduled offences".

Read More - http://www.idsa.in/idsacomments/NationalInvestigationAgency_nmanoharan_120514

a) strengthening the body’s immune system

Choose the appropriate code

Hint: Tropic of Cancer

1. Their relationship with centre is unitary.

1. Puducherry has been formed UT due to strategic importance of location.

1. Political and administrative consideration—Delhi and Chandigarh.

1. an agent of the President

Select the correct code

2. Hambantota Sri Lanka

Choose the appropriate code

2. Hambantota Sri Lanka

Choose the appropriate code

— Five-judge constitutional bench of the Supreme Court of India,

Yes, it can, in the following situations

Who exercises supervision over CBI?

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

1. The Parliament is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area.

1. Provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi

The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991

Ø provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi;

Ø redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi;

Ø designated the administrator of Delhi as the lieutenant (lt.) governor.

Ø It created a legislative assembly and a council of ministers for Delhi.

Remaining statements are correct.

1. Austria is a landlocked country of Europe

2. Austria is a member of European Union

Choose the appropriate code

1. It has been in existence in India since the time of Rig Veda

2. The Mughals encouraged Zardozi , especially Akabr

3. Zardozi from Lucknow, has got GI tag

Select the correct answer

Shishu :- Loan up to ■50,000 (US$740)

Kishore :- Loan ranging from ■50,000 (US$740) to ■5 lakh (US$7,400)

Pangti village in Nagaland as the world's Amur Falcon capital,

Difference between 5th Schedule and 6th Schedule Areas:

1. The President of India appoints the CEC and ECs

1. He is appointed by the President of India.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

2. It can be used in propulsion of spacecraft

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

A cell producing an electric current direct from a chemical reaction.

Cars, buses, power plants, buildings etc.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Exercise Ekuverin is a joint military exercise between

a) Institute for Economics & Peace

1. Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body.

2. It is constituted by the President every fifth year or even earlier.

1. Part-IX to the Constitution of India