Correct Answer: D Your Answer: D Explanation: Exam Title: 3) ENVIRONMENT Email Contact

Exam Title : 3) ENVIRONMENT
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QUESTION 1.
Consider the following statements
1. Bio-accumulation is increase in concentration of a substance in a food chain.
2. Bio-magnification is increase in concentration of a substance in an organism.
Select the correct statements
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
· Bioaccumulation refers to the accumulation of substances, such as pesticides, or other chemicals in an

organism.
· Bioaccumulation occurs when an organism absorbs a - possibly toxic - substance at a rate faster than
that at which the substance is lost by catabolism and excretion.
· Bioaccumulation, for example in fish, can be predicted by models.
· Coastal fish (such as the smooth toadfish) and seabirds (such as the Atlantic puffin) are often monitored
for heavy metal bioaccumulation.
· Bio-magnification , also known as bio-amplification or biological magnification , is the increasing

concentration of a substance, such as a toxic chemical, in the tissues of organisms at successively higher
levels in a food chain.
· This increase can occur as a result of:
o Persistence – where the substance cannot be broken down by environmental processes
o Food chain energetics – where the substance concentration increases progressively as it moves up a
food chain
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o Low or non-existent rate of internal degradation or excretion of the substance – often due to
water-insolubility
· Example – Diclofenac is a common anti-inflammatory drug administered to livestock and is used to treat
the symptoms of inflammation, fevers and/or pain associated with disease or wounds. When the vultures
consume the livestock’s dead body, treated with diclofenac, vulture died. Diclofenac is lethal for vultures.
· DDT accumulation in food chain.
· Difference between Bioaccumulation and Biomagnification.
Bioaccumulation Biomagnification
Increase in
Not in organism but in food chain
concentration of a
Definition
substance in an
Also called as bioamplification or Biological
organism or a part
amplification.
of organism
Lead POPs (persistent organic pollutant) - chemical

substances that persists in environment,
Example bioaccumulates and have adverse impacts on all
Mercury
living organism. E.g. Pesticide(DDT),industrial
chemicals and industrial processes(dioxin and
DDT furans)
Source – Value added notes + Wikipedia
QUESTION 2.
1. Newly cooled lava and bare rock are the areas where primary succession can occur.
2. Secondary succession can take place in abandoned farm land or forest after fire.
3. Generally primary succession is faster because of availability of soil.
a) Only 1 and 3
b) Only 2
c) Only 1 and 2
d) All of the above
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Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation
Solution (c)
Primary succession
· Primary succession takes place an over a bare or unoccupied areas such as rocks outcrop, newly
formed deltas and sand dunes, emerging volcano islands and lava flows as well as glacial moraines
(muddy area exposed by a retreating glacier) where no community has existed previously.
· The first inhabitants are lichens or plants—those that can survive in such an environment.
· Over hundreds of years these “ pioneer species ” convert the rock into soil by secreting acids to dissolve
rock, helping in weathering and soil formation that can support simple plants like bryophytes, which are
able to take hold in the small amount of soil.
· These plants further modify the soil, which is then colonized by other types of plants.
· Each successive stage modifies the habitat by altering the amount of shade and the composition of the
soil.
· The final stage of succession is a climax community , which is a very stable stage that can endure for
hundreds of years.
· In primary succession in water, the pioneers are the small phytoplanktons, they are
replaced with time by free-floating angiosperms, then by rooted hydrophytes, sedges, grasses and finally
the trees.
· The climax again would be a forest. With time the water body is converted into land.
Secondary succession
· Secondary succession follows a major disturbance , such as a fire or a flood.
· The stages of secondary succession are similar to those of primary succession ; however, primary
succession always begins on a barren surface, whereas secondary succession begins in environments that
already possess soil.
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· In addition, through a process called old-field succession , farmland that has been abandoned may
undergo secondary succession.
· An example of Secondary Succession by stages:
1. A stable deciduous forest community.
2. A disturbance, such as a wild fire, destroys the forest
3. The fire burns the forest to the ground
4. The fire leaves behind empty, but not destroyed, soil
5. Grasses and other herbaceous plants grow back first
6. Small bushes and trees begin to colonize the area
7. Fast growing evergreen trees develop to their fullest, while shade-tolerant trees
develop in the understory
8. The short-lived and shade intolerant evergreen trees die as the larger deciduous trees overtop them.
The ecosystem is now back to a similar state to where it began
Statement 3
· Primary succession is not faster. Soil is necessary for a new biotic community. Initially there is no soil in
primary succession and so it took hundreds to thousands years to produce fertile soil on bare rock.
· While in case of secondary succession the soil is there and so secondary procession is faster.
Source – Value added notes + 12 th Biology ncert (Ecosystem)
QUESTION 3.
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1. Oligotrophic has clear water as there are negligible algae.
2. In Eutrophication, the productivity or fertility of an ecosystem increases as the amount of organic material
that can be broken down into nutrients decreases.
3. Oxygen and nitrogen are in large amounts in lakes during eutrophication.
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1
c) Only 1 and 3
d) Only 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Statement 1
· Oligotrophic -
• Low nutrient so low primary productivity.

• Low algal production so very clear waters (high drinking water quality).
• Bottom waters has ample oxygen and so support many fish.
• Found - mostly in cold regions under igneous rocks.
· Mesotrophic -
• Medium level nutrients and so Intermediate productivity.

• Clear water with beds having submerged aquatic plants.
Statement 2 and 3
• Eutrotrophication
• The gradual increase in the concentration of phosphorus, nitrogen, and other plant nutrients in an
aging aquatic ecosystem such as a lake.
• The productivity or fertility of such an ecosystem increases as the amount of organic material that
can be broken down into nutrients increases .
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• This material enters the ecosystem primarily by runoff from land that carries debris and products of
the reproduction and death of terrestrial organisms.
• Blooms, or great concentrations of algae and microscopic organisms, often develop on the surface,
preventing the light penetration and oxygen absorption necessary for underwater life.
o Cultural eutrophication occurs when man speeds up the aging process by allowing excessive amounts
of nutrients in such forms as sewage, detergents, and fertilizers to enter the ecosystem.
o If aquatic plants dominate water tends to be clear
o If algae dominate water tends to be darker
o Excess of algae can result in death of fishes (generally algae engages in photosynthesis which supply
oxygen to fishes but in case of excessive algae whole of oxygen is consumed (in respiration) by algae and
bottom living bacteria + decomposers decomposes dead and requires oxygen)
o This process is called as ' eutrophication '
· Hypereutrophic
o Very nutrient rich and so frequent or severe algal bloom and low transparency
o Large algal blooms cause biodilution (opposite of biomagnification) which is decrease in concentration of
pollutant with increase in trophic level.
Source – Value added notes + Britannica Encyclopaedia
QUESTION 4.
1. National wetland policy consists of Conservation and Sustainable management of wetlands.
2. Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 1991 is part of conservation effort of wetlands.
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3. Central Government is responsible for management of wetlands and implementation of the NWCP
(National Wetland Conservation Programme ) for ensuring their wise-use.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (a)
Statement 1
· National wetland strategy should encompass (i) Conservation and collaborative management, (ii)
Prevention of loss and promotion of restoration and (iii) Sustainable management.
· These include Protection of the existing wetlands. Of the many wetlands in India, only around 68 wetlands
are protected. But there are thousands of other wetlands that are biologically and economically important
but have no legal status.
· Planning, Managing and Monitoring of Wetlands comes under the Protected Area Network have
management plans but others do not.
· It is important for various stakeholders along with the local community and the corporate sector to come
together for an effective management plan.
· Active monitoring of these wetland systems over a period of time is essential.
· Although several laws protect wetlands there is no special legislation pertaining specially to these
ecosystems.
Statement 3
· It is the responsibility of state governments because lands are under state governments.
Statement 2
· Some of the key legislations are the –
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o Indian Fisheries Act, 1857
o Indian Forest Act, 1927
o Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 1991
o Water (Prevention and Control of Pol1ution) Act, 1974
o Territorial Water, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and other, Marine Zones Act, 1976
o Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1977
Must read – click here
Source – PIB news + Previous year questions
QUESTION 5.
Consider the following about coral reefs
1. Coral growth and reef growth are two different things.
2. Great Barrier Reef in Australia is example of barrier reef and coral reef in Lakshadweep is example of
Fringing reef.
3. Coral reefs are found on the central east and west coasts of India.
4. 180000 years ago corals were there along the west coast.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Only 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
If you have read this web page in value added notes then you would have definitely corrected this. Those
who hadn’t, please read it. It’s really helpful.
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Statement 1 – yes they are 2 different things. See web page for more details.
Statement 2 - coral reef in Lakshadweep is example of atoll reef.
Statement 3 - coral reefs are not found on the central east and west coasts of India. Reason - Most major
rivers of India, like the Ganges, flow into the sea on the east coast, bringing in lots of sediments that would
not allow the corals to grow. On the west coast, the monsoon is intense from June to August. The fresh
water flow into the sea at this time reduces salinity to less than half of the normal and the sea water
becomes murky brownish with the sediments.
Statement 4 - 18000 years ago (not 1,80,000) corals were there along the west coast.
Source – Previous year questions + web page
QUESTION 6.
Which of the following is/are UNESCO World Heritage Sites?
1. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus
2. Neral-Matheran Railway
3. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway
4. Nilgiri Mountain Railway
5. Maharaja Railways
6. Kalka-Shimla Railway
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
b) 1, 3, 4 and 6
c) 2, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
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There are two UNESCO World Heritage Sites on IR viz. the Chatrapati Shivaji Terminus and the Mountain
railways of India. Mountain railways of India consist of three separate railway lines located in different parts
of the country viz.
1. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway
2. Nilgiri Mountain Railway
3. Kalka-Shimla Railway
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/printrelease.aspx?relid=151497
QUESTION 7.
Which of the following countries is/are island countries?
1. Bahrain
2. Guam
3. Cyprus
4. Jamaica
5. Georgia
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
All the countries except for Georgia are island countries.
Georgia is a country in the Caucasus region of Eurasia. Located at the crossroads of Western Asia and
Eastern Europe, it is bounded to the west by the Black Sea, to the north by Russia, to the south by Turkey
and Armenia, and to the southeast by Azerbaijan.
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Source - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=151892
QUESTION 8.
The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) will traverse through which of the following states
1. Punjab
2. Haryana
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Bihar
5. Jharkhand
6. West Bengal
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
c) 2, 3, 4 and 6
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (d)
Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/business/economy/india-inks-loan-pact-with-world-bank-for-eastern-freight-cor
QUESTION 9.
Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAA)?
a) Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements provide for allocation of taxation rights to source State and
residence State in respect of business profits.
b) Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements aim to avoid the burden of double taxation on the income of
residents belonging to the two treaty countries only.
c) It also simulates flow of investment, technology and services between the countries.
d) DTAAs should be comprehensive to cover all sources of income and not be limited to certain areas
such as taxing of income from shipping, air transport, inheritance, etc.
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Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (d)
A DTAA is a tax treaty signed between two or more countries. Its key objective is that tax-payers in these
countries can avoid being taxed twice for the same income. A DTAA applies in cases where a tax-payer
resides in one country and earns income in another.
DTAAs can either be comprehensive to cover all sources of income or be limited to certain areas such as
taxing of income from shipping, air transport, inheritance, etc. India has DTAAs with more than eighty
countries, of which comprehensive agreements include those with Australia, Canada, Germany, Mauritius,
Singapore, UAE, the UK and US.
Further reading:
http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/all-you-wanted-to-know-aboutdtaa/article8607732.ece
QUESTION 10.
Crevasses form because _________
a) the glacial surface partially melts, leaving holes and cracks

b) glacial meltwater erodes small valleys as glacial rivers flow
c) low confining pressure at the surface causes cracks as the ice flows
d) a glacial calving process has not been completed
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
What: it is a fissure, or deep open crack in glacial ice
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How formed: As a result of the movement and resulting stress associated with the stress generated when
two semi-rigid pieces above a plastic substrate have different rates of movement.
Crevasse size often depends upon the amount of liquid water present in the glacier.
In news: A US climate scientist died after his snowmobile hit the crevasse in Antarctica.
For more information on crevasse, visit http://www.mountainprofessor.com/crevasses.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crevasse
QUESTION 11.
1. National Lake Conservation Programme (NLCP) considers lakes as standing water bodies which have a
minimum water depth of 3 m with water spread of more than 10 hectares, and have aquatic vegetation.
2. Lakes are more important than wetlands from the viewpoint of biodiversity.
3. Lakes are usually rich in nutrients with abundant growth of aquatic macrophytes and also support high
densities and diverse fauna.
Select the correct statements –
a) Only 1 and 3
b) Only 1
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (d)
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Statement 1 to 3
· Lakes are generally less important when compared to wetland from the viewpoint of ecosystem and
biodiversity conservation.
· There is no clear distinction between lakes and wetlands. Wetlands are shallow water bodies whereas
lakes can be deep or shallow.
· National Lake Conservation Programme (NLCP) considers lakes as standing water bodies which have a
minimum water depth of 3 m, generally cover a water spread of more than ten hectares, and have no or
very little aquatic vegetation .
· Wetlands (generally less than 3 m deep over most of their area) are usually rich in nutrients (derived
from surroundings and their sediments) and have abundant growth of aquatic macrophytes .
· They support high densities and diverse fauna , particularly birds, fish and macro invertebrates, and
therefore, have high value for biodiversity conservation.
· Excessive growth of macrophytes (both submerged and free-floating; macrophytes –aquatic plant large
enough to be seen by the naked eye) in wetlands affects the water quality adversely and interfere with the
utilization of the water body.
· However, marginal aquatic vegetation is desirable as it checks erosion, serves habitat for wildlife and
helps improve water quality .
Source – Value added notes
QUESTION 12.
1. Particulate matter (PM) includes soot, smoke, aerosols, fumes, mists and condensing vapors.
2. Particulate matter cannot cause premature death.
3. India is at 2 nd place in case of premature deaths due to particulate matter.
Select the correct code
a) Only 1
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 1 and 2
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Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (b)
· Fine particulate matter from industries, cars and biomass is causing premature mortality as observed by
WHO.
· A study conducted by the World Health Organisation and made public in September 2016 revealed that
air pollution could have killed at least 600,000 Indians in 2012.
· This is about a fifth of the 3 million who died worldwide because they were exposed to fine particulate
matter (PM2.5).
· India comes just behind China which witnessed an estimated 800,000 deaths in same period, according
to study.
· The detailed study for India suggested the reason for deaths in absolute number as shown below.
o 2,49,388 Deaths due to Ischemic heart disease
o 1,95,001 deaths due to stroke
o 1,10,500 deaths due to Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
o 26,334 deaths due to lung cancer
· According to study, all regions of the world are affected; however, populations in low-income cities are the
most impacted.
· As per the study, of all of pollutants, fine particulate matter has the greatest impact on health. PM 2.5 is
responsible for aggravating or is directly responsible for many cardiovascular diseases and lung cancer.
QUESTION 13.
DMH-11 was recently in news. This term is
a) Component which is recently discovered and that reduces the emissions in vehicles
b) Variety of genetically modified cotton by Monsanto
c) A variety of mustard
d) Protein gene derived from commonly occurring non-pathogenic bacteria.
Correct Answer: C
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Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (c)
· Technical sub-committee of India’s genetic engineering regulator has concluded that the genetically
modified variety DMH-11 (Dhara Mustard Hybrid 11) did not “raise any public health or safety concerns for
human beings or animals”.
· Regarding this a report was released by the regulator, Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC),
which sought suggestions from the public over the next 30 days.
· The introduced proteins i.e. Barnase and Barstar are expressed at negligible to non-detectable levels in
the edible parts and have been derived from commonly occurring non-pathogenic bacteria. (Barnase and
Barstar genes are used for engineering male sterility in plants. Targets the TA29 gene)
· None of the three proteins has been shown to be toxic or allergenic through bioinformatics and acute
toxicity studies in experimental animals.
· Suggestions from the public will have to be evaluated by GEAC to see if evidence on bio-safety has been
ignored.
· If there are no such concerns, the GEAC will have to decide whether to recommend DMH-11 for
commercial cultivation.
· The GEAC’s recommendation will then have to be approved by the environment minister whose decision
will be final.
Source – Previous year questions + September current affairs
QUESTION 14.
1. Pranhita
2. Son
3. Kosi
4. Chambal
Which of the following is/are right tributary/tributaries of Ganga?

a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 4 Only
d) 1, 2,3 and 4 only
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Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (b)
Tributaries
· Left - Ramganga, Gomti, Ghaghara, Gandaki, Bagmati, Koshi, Mahananda
· Right - Yamuna, Tamsa, Son, Punpun
Pranhita is tributary of Godavari.
The Chambal is the chief tributary of the Yamuna River and rises in the Vindhya Range just south of
Mhow, western Madhya Pradesh state.
· The Union Cabinet under the chairmanship of PM Narendra Modi has cleared the River Ganga
(Rejuvenation, Protection and Management) Authorities Order, 2016.
· The Order enforces an institutional structure for policy and implementation and empowers National
Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) to discharge its functions in an independent and accountable manner.
· A mission status will be granted to the Authority with corresponding power under the Environment
(Protection) Act (1986).
· The new council for River Ganga will replace the existing National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)
for pollution prevention and rejuvenation of Ganga.
· Setting of an Empowered Task Force that will ensure the existence and implementation of an action plan
under various Departments, Ministries and States.
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· The NMCG will have a two tier structure with a Governing Council and an Executive Committee.
· The NMCG will comply to the decisions of the National Ganga Council.
· At the state level, State Ganga Committees would be formed for proper implementation.
· Similarly, District Ganga Committees would be formed in each Ganga Bank District and they shall be
monitored by the State Committees.
· The special focus of the revamped structure would be to maintain ecological flows in Ganga with an aim
to ensure water quality and environmentally sustainable development.
· An innovative model based on Hybrid Annuity has also been approved for fast track creation of sewerage
and treatment infrastructure in the Ganga basin.
· The NMCG will now have the power to issue orders and also exercise the powers under the Environment
Protection Act. It can now fine polluters.
· NMCG will only take action in case of non-compliance when CPCB (Central Pollution Control Board) does
not do so.
· CPCB can also take action jointly with NMCG.
· The said infrastructure will ensure ecological flows, abatement to pollution and rejuvenation of the river.
· The authority will also be able to impose restrictions on polluting industries and carry out inspections to
ensure compliance.
Source – PIB news + Atlas
QUESTION 15.
1. National waterway 1 project is threat to the survival of the Gangetic dolphins
2. Gangetic River Dolphin is found in the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.
3. River dolphins have been classified as “Critically endangered” by IUCN.
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 3 Only
d) All of the above
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Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (a)
· Scientists and wildlife conservationist feel that the development of the Ganga under the National
Waterway 1 project is threat to the survival of the gangetic dolphins .
· Ganges River Dolphin is a sub-species of river dolphins , found in the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.
· The Centre has planned to develop a 1600-km waterway between Allahabad and Haldia for inland
transportation under a Rs. 4200-crore World Bank-aided project.
· The first phase of the project from Haldia to Varanasi (1300 km) is now underway.
· The NW1 is seen as a logistics gateway for northern India with the potential to reduce traffic congestion.
· The stretch that covers that NW1 is also home to river dolphins.
· There are almost 2500 river dolphins in Ganga and their population is diminishing.
· River dolphins have been classified as “endangered” by IUCN (International Union for Conservation of
Nature) in 1966.
· These species are practically blind and rely on bio-sonar waves to move around.
You can read the news here
Source – Previous year questions + September current affairs
QUESTION 16.
‘Give It Up’ campaign is concerned with which of the following?
a) LPG Subsidy
b) Alcohol Use
c) Tobacco Use
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
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Solution (a)
Government has launched the ‘GiveItUp’ campaign which is aimed at motivating LPG users who can afford
to pay the market price for LPG to voluntarily surrender their LPG subsidy.
QUESTION 17.
Consider the following statements about Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)
1. It is administered by United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
2. Egypt, North Korea and South Sudan have neither signed nor acceded to the treaty
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (b)
The Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) is an arms control treaty which outlaws the production,
stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons and their precursors. The full name of the treaty is the
Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical Weapons
and on their Destruction and it is administered by the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons
(OPCW), an intergovernmental organization based in The Hague, Netherlands. The treaty entered into
force in 1997. The parties' main obligation under the convention is to prohibit the use and production of
chemical weapons, as well as the destruction of all current chemical weapons. The destruction activities
are verified by the OPCW.
192 states have given their consent to be bound by the CWC. Israel has signed but not ratified the
agreement, while three other UN member states (Egypt, North Korea and South Sudan) have neither
signed nor acceded to the treaty.
Source:
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/us-condemns-assads-defiance-on-chemical-weapons-use/a
QUESTION 18.
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Global Gender Gap Report is released by
a) United Nations Development Programme

b) World Economic Forum
c) Oxfam
d) Clinton Foundation
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (b)
Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/india-ranked-at-lowly-87-in-terms-of-gender-equality-310
QUESTION 19.
The scheme ‘Urja Ganga’ is related with:
a) Gas Pipeline Project

b) River Ganga Rejuvenation
c) Hydro Electric Projects in Ganga Basin
d) Mekong Ganga Cooperation
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (a)
Source:
http://www.financialexpress.com/economy/urja-ganga-gas-pipeline-project-varanasi-eastern-india-details-highli
QUESTION 20.
Which of the following countries is not a part of Borneo Island?
a) Indonesia
b) Philippines
c) Brunei
d) Malaysia
Correct Answer: B
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Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (b)
It is the third-largest island in the world and the largest island in Asia.
The island is politically divided among three countries: Malaysia and Brunei in the north, and Indonesia to
the south.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/the-helmeted-hornbill-is-being-hunted-to-extinction
QUESTION 21.
Which one of the following is the best description of the term “Biome”?
a) A community of organisms interacting with one another

b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live.
d) A formation of plants and animals that have common characteristics due to similar climates and can be
found over a range of continents.
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (d)
Statement 1
· It was just to confuse you. There is no specific term for this sentence.
Statement 2
· That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms – Biosphere
· The biosphere is the global sum of all ecosystems. The two joined words are "bio" and "sphere".
· If we imagine an orange as earth, then its thin cover would be biosphere.
· Life in the biosphere is abundant between 200 metres below the surface of the ocean and about 6,000
metres above sea level.
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· Biosphere is absent at extremes of the North and South poles, the highest mountains and deepest
oceans, since existing hostile conditions there do not support life.
Statement 3
· A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live – ecosystem.
· An ecosystem is a community of living organisms in conjunction with the nonliving components of their
environment (things like air, water and mineral soil), interacting as a system.
· Example – see image
· By this example we can understand the concept of ecosystem. It performs all the
· Processes of an ecosystem i.e. productivity, decomposition, energy flow and nutrient recycling.
o Abiotic component – water with dissolved organic and inorganic substances and rich soil deposit.
Sunlight, temperature, day-length and other climatic conditions regulate the functioning of entire period.
o Autotrophic components – Phytoplankton, algae, floating, submerged and marginal plants.
o Consumers – zooplankton, free swimming and bottom dwelling forms.
o Decomposers – fungi, bacteria and flagellates
o This system also performs all the functions of any ecosystem and of a biosphere as a whole i.e.
conversion of inorganic material into organic with the help of energy of sun by autotrophs. Consumption of
heterotrophs by autotrophs. Decomposition and mineralization of dead matter for nutrient recycling.
Statement 4
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· Biosphere, which is one of the levels of organizations in ecology, has many divisions and each division is
known as Biome.
· Each biome has different climate, vegetation, animals and soil type. No 2 biomes are same.
· Climate, vegetation, animals decide the boundaries of biomes.
· Most important climatic factors are – temperature and precipitation.
· Please revise value add for different biomes.
Source– Previous year question
QUESTION 22.
Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also
its functional role in the community of organisms?
a) Ecotone
b) Ecological niche
c) Habitat
d) Home range
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (b)
Ecotone – zone of transition between two ecosystems. E.g. grasslands, mangroves etc.
Habitat – surroundings in which an organism lives (home).
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Home Range – A home range is the area in which an animal lives and moves on a daily or periodic basis
(a little bigger than habitat – home → office → home).
Ecological niche –
· The function or position of a species within an ecological community OR it is the role the species plays,
and includes the type of food it eats, where it lives, where it reproduces, and its relationships with other
species.
· A species’ niche includes the physical environment to which it has become adapted as well as its role as
producer and consumer of food resources.
· A niche is unique for a species, which means no two species have exact identical niches. Niche plays an
important role in conservation of organisms.
· If we have to conserve species in its native habitat we should have knowledge about the niche
requirements of the species and should ensure that all requirements of its niche are fulfilled.
· Types of Niche –
1. Habitat niche - where it lives
2. Food niche - what is eats or decomposes & what species it competes with
3. Reproductive niche -how and when it reproduces.
4. Physical & chemical niche - temperature, land shape, land slope, humidity & other requirement.
Source – Previous year questions + value added notes
QUESTION 23.
Which of the following can be example of Mutualism relationship?
a) Algae and bacteria

b) Algae and fungi
c) Bacteria and fungi
d) Fungi and mosses
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (b)
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· Except b rest all options are just to confuse you.
+ + Mutualism
· This interaction confers benefits to both the interacting species. Example –
· Lichens have mutual relationship between fungus and photosynthesizing algae or cyanobacteria. (
want to know more about these terms click here )
· Mycorrhizae are associations between fungi and the roots of higher plants. The fungi help the plant in the
absorption of essential nutrients from the soil while the plant in turn provides the fungi with energy-yielding
carbohydrates.
Figure 1 Mycorrhizae
· Example of pollination between plants and animal agent is most fascinating. Plants needs help of animals
for pollination and dispersal of seeds. Animals are paid ‘fees’ for their service in form of pollen and nectar
(to pollinators) and juicy and nutritious foods (to seed dispersers).
Figure 2 Pollination process
· But this mutually beneficial system must be safeguarded against cheaters. For example – Mediterranean
orchid Ophrys employs ‘sexual deceit’ to get pollination done by a species of bee. One of the petals of
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flower bears similar size, markings and color of female bee. The male bee is attracted to it perceiveing it as
a female bee and tried to pseudocopulate. In this process bee is dusted with pollen from the flower and
when this same bee pseudocopulate with other flower it transfers the pollen and thus, pollinates the flower
Source – Previous year questions + Value added notes
QUESTION 24.
Match the following
Ecosystem Features
1. Tropical rainforest A. Fir, spruce, rhododendron
2. Alpine forests B. Stratification of Vegetation
3. Subtropical C. broad leaves, Jamun, tamarind, neem
4. Tropical dry evergreen D. Chestnuts, ash, beech, sals and pines
a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4

b) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
c) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
d) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (c)
Tropical Rain Forest Biome
· Also known as ‘ The Hot, Wet Equatorial Climate ’, ‘ Equatorial Rainforest Climate ’.
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· The regions are generally referred as ‘Equatorial Rainforests’, ‘Equatorial Evergreen Forests’,
‘Tropical Moist Broadleaf Forest’, ‘Lowland Equatorial Evergreen Rainforest’.
Temperature
· Temperature is uniform throughout the year.
· The mean monthly temperatures are always around 27° C with very little variation.
· There is no winter . [Typical to Equatorial Rainforest Climate]
Precipitation
· Precipitation is heavy and well distributed throughout the year .
· Annual average is always above 150 cm . In some regions the annual average may be as high as 250 –
300 cm.
Equatorial Vegetation
· High temperature and abundant rainfall support a luxuriant tropical rain forest .
· In the Amazon lowlands, the forest is so dense that it is called ‘selvas' . [selvas: A dense tropical
rainforest usually having a cloud cover ( dense canopy )]
· Unlike the temperate regions, the growing season here is all the year round -seeding, flowering,
fruiting and decaying do not take place in a seasonal pattern.
· The equatorial vegetation comprises a multitude of evergreen trees that yield tropical hardwood, e.g.
mahogany, ebony, dyewoods etc.
· In the coastal areas and brackish swamps, mangrove forests thrive.
· All plants struggle upwards (most ephiphytes ) for sunlight resulting in a peculiar layer arrangement
[Canopy].
Epiphyte
· (Commensalism – Epiphyte benefits without troubling the host) - An epiphyte is a
plant that grows harmlessly upon another plant (such as a tree) and derives its moisture and nutrients from
the air, rain, and sometimes from debris accumulating around it.
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Alpine Forests
· Altitudes ranging between 2,900 to 3,500.
· These forests can be divided into: (1) sub-alpine; (2) moist alpine scrub and (3) dry alpine scrub.
· The sub-alpine forests occur lower alpine scrub and grasslands.
· It is a mixture of coniferous and broad-leaved trees in which the coniferous trees attain a height of about
30 m while the broad leaved trees reach only 10 m.
· Fir, spruce, rhododendron , etc. are important species.
· The moist alpine scrub is a low evergreen dense growth of rhododendron, birch etc. which occurs from
3,000 metres and extends up to snowline.
· The dry alpine scrub is the uppermost limit of scrub xerophytic, dwarf shrubs, over 3,500 metres above
sea level and found in dry zone. Juniper, honeysuckle, artemesia etc. are important species.
Sub-tropical Broad-leaved Hill Forests
Climatic conditions
· Mean annual rainfall is 75 cm to 125 cm.
· Average annual temperature is 18°-21°C.
· Humidity is 80 per cent.
Distribution
· Eastern Himalayas to the east of 88°E longitude at altitudes varying from 1000 to 2000 m.
Characteristics
· Forests of evergreen species .
· Commonly found species are evergreen oaks, chestnuts, ash, beech, sals and pines .
· Climbers and epiphytes [a plant that grows non-parasitically on a tree or other plant] are common.
· These forests are not so distinct in the southern parts of the country. They occur only in the Nilgiri and
Palni hills at 1070-1525 metres above sea level.
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· It is a "stunted rain-forest" and is not so luxuriant as the true tropical evergreen.
· The higher parts of the Western Ghats such as Mahabaleshwar, the summits of the Satpura and the
Maikal Range, highlands of Bastar and Mt. Abu in the Aravali Range carry sub-types of these forests.
Tropical Dry Evergreen Forests
Distribution
· Along the coasts of Tamil Nadu.
Climatic Conditions
· Annual rainfall of 100 cm [mostly from the north-east monsoon winds in October – December].
· Mean annual temperature is about 28°C.
· The mean humidity is about 75 per cent.
· The growth of evergreen forests in areas of such low rainfall is a bit strange.
Characteristics
· Short statured trees, up to 12 m high, with complete canopy.
· Bamboos and grasses not conspicuous.
· The important species are jamun, tamarind, neem , etc.
· Most of the land under these forests has been cleared for agriculture or casuarina plantations.
Casuarina plantation ■
· It resembles feathery conifer in general appearance.
· They are rapid-growing, carefree species for sites and climates as varied as coastal sand dunes, high
mountain slopes, hot humid tropics, and semi-arid regions.
· They have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen . It grows 15 to 25 metres in height on an average.
Distribution
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· Casuarina is the most popular farm forestry in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal,
Odisha, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Karnataka.
Benefits
· Reduces damage in the event of natural calamities.
· Line planting in the coastal areas helps in controlling the wind force.
· It is also used for tourism promotion in view of its ornamental appearance.
· It provides top quality firewood.
· The wood is suitable for paper pulp and useful raw material for the manufacture of paper for writing,
printing, and wrapping.
· It is got some serious medicinal values as well.
QUESTION 25.
1. Neem seeds can be used for biofuels.
2. Purchase of power by the Distribution Companies from any city generating power from waste is now
mandatory.
3. Fuel cells are highly efficient power generating systems that produce electricity by combining fuel
(hydrogen) and oxygen in an electrochemical reaction.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Neem Oil as a Biofuel
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· Formulations made of neem oil also find wide usage as a biopesticide for organic farming, as it repels a
wide variety of pests including the mealy bug, beet armyworm, aphids, the cabbage worm, thrips,
whiteflies, mites, fungus gnats, beetles, moth larvae, mushroom flies, leafminers, caterpillars, locust,
nematodes and the Japanese beetle.
· Neem oil is not known to be harmful to mammals, birds, earthworms or some beneficial insects such as
butterflies, honeybees if it is not concentrated directly into their area of habitat or on their food source.
· A recently released study (2016) by the National University of Singapore that a compound derived from
Neem oil holds promise in shrinking prostate tumors.
· Its seed can also be used for bio fuel.
o Government planned – 20% of diesel requirement by 2020 fulfilled by biodiesel (wild plants – jatropha,
Neem, mahua, karnaj, simarouba etc.)
Statement 2
· Hope you have read this in topic waste to energy. It was in news for long period of time.
· Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change recently reviewed the MSW (Management and
Handling) Rules 2000, and issued the draft Solid Waste Management Rules 2015.
· It envisages facilitation, construction, operation and maintenance of solid waste processing facilities and
associated infrastructure in-house or with private sector participation.
· Current Municipal Waste processing practices are ‘contract-driven’ and not subject to proper assessment
with regard to technology and processes.
· Department of Science and Technology, Govt. of India, has established a separate cell, which, with the
network of all the scientific establishments will verify, check, assess the appropriate technologies for
processing the waste.
· ‘responsible’ waste management is the need of the hour
· The Government of India has set a target of generating 700 MW energy from waste by
· 2019. For this, many concrete steps have been taken by the government. These are as follows:
1. Purchase of power by the Distribution Companies from any city generating power from waste is now
mandatory.
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2. The Ministry of Fertilizers has made it mandatory for co-marketing of city compost by the fertilizer
marketing companies and they would be entitled for an incentive
3. Rs.1500 per tonne ($22 per tonne) of compost, the notification of which has been made on 10 Feb 2016.
4. All companies marketing urea to verify how much composting has been done by them. This was notified
on 22 January 2016.
5. Thermal plants located within an 80 km radius of a sewage treatment plant should compulsorily use the
treated waste water for their plant.
Fuel cells –
· A fuel cell is a device that generates electricity by a chemical reaction.
· Every fuel cell has two electrodes, one positive and one negative, called, respectively, the anode and
cathode. The reactions that produce electricity take place at the electrodes.
· Every fuel cell also has an electrolyte, which carries electrically charged particles from one electrode to
the other, and a catalyst, which speeds the reactions at the electrodes.
· Hydrogen is the basic fuel, but fuel cells also require oxygen. One great appeal of fuel cells is that they
generate electricity with very little pollution–much of the hydrogen and oxygen used in generating electricity
ultimately combine to form a harmless byproduct, namely water.
· Must watch animation image of fuel cell – click here
QUESTION 26.
ExoMars, a two-part Martian astrobiology project to search for evidence of life on Mars is a joint mission of
the European Space Agency (ESA) and ______________
a) NASA
b) ISRO
c) SpaceX
d) ROSCOMOS
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
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ExoMars (Exobiology on Mars) is a two-part Martian astrobiology project to search for evidence of life on
Mars, a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Russian space agency Roscosmos.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/all-about-the-mission-ecomars/article9258969.ece
QUESTION 27.
Recently the city of Mosul was in news. It is located in which of the following countries?
a) Syria
b) Yemen
c) Iran
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Mosul is a city in northern Iraq.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/islamic-state-slaughtered-scores-near-mosul-un/article9281036.ec
QUESTION 28.
The Foreign exchange reserves of India consists of
1. Foreign Currency Assets
2. Gold
3. SDRs
4. Loans from World Bank & foreign countries
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) All of the above
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Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
The Foreign exchange reserves of India are mainly composed of US dollar in the forms of US government
bonds and institutional bonds.
The Foreign exchange reserves of India consists of below four categories. (a) Foreign Currency Assets (b)
Gold (c) SDRs (d) Reserve Tranche Position in the IMF
Source:
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/finance/indias-forex-reserves-rise-1-billion-to-367-14-billio
QUESTION 29.
Consider the following statements about National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)
1. It was an outcome of Indra Sawhney & Ors. Vs. Union of India and Ors (1992)
2. The Chairperson of the commission is retired judge of Supreme Court
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (a)
The Supreme Court in its Judgment – Indra Sawhney & Ors. Vs. Union of India and Ors., reported in (1992)
directed the Govt. of India, State Governments and Union Territory Administrations to constitute a
permanent body in the nature of a Commission or Tribunal for entertaining, examining and recommending
upon requests for inclusion and complaints of over-inclusion and under-inclusion in the list of OBCs.
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Pursuant to the direction of the Supreme Court, the Government of India enacted the National Commission
for Backward Classes Act, 1993 (Act No. 27 of 1993) for setting up a Commission at National Level viz.
“National Commission for Backward Classes” as a permanent body.
The Act came into effect on the 2nd April, 1993. Section 3 of the Act provides that the Commission shall
consist of five Members, comprising of a Chairperson who is or has been a judge of the Supreme Court or
of a High Court; a social scientist; two persons, who have special knowledge in matters relating to
backward classes; and a Member-Secretary, who is or has been an officer of the Central Government in
the rank of a Secretary to the Government of India.
Source:
http://www.financialexpress.com/india-news/high-court-issues-notices-on-pleas-on-income-limit-hike-for-obc-q
QUESTION 30.
Consider the following statements about Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living
Resources (CCAMLR)
1. It is part of the Antarctic Treaty System (ATS)
2. India has ratified the convention
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (c)
The Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources, also Commission on the
Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources, and CCAMLR, is part of the Antarctic Treaty System.
The Convention was opened for signature on 1 August 1980 and entered into force on 7 April 1982 by the
Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources, headquartered in Tasmania,
Australia. The goal is to preserve marine life and environmental integrity in and near Antarctica.
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It was established in large part to concerns that an increase in krill catches in the Southern Ocean could
have a serious impact on populations of other marine life which are dependent upon krill for food. It was
signed by 14 states and has been ratified by 35 states and the European Community. As of May 2013, the
states that have ratified the convention are: Argentina, Australia, Belgium, Brazil, Bulgaria, Canada, Chile,
China, Cook Islands, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, India, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Mauritius,
Namibia, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Pakistan, Panama, Peru, Poland, Russia (ratified as the
Soviet Union), South Africa, Spain, Sweden, Ukraine, United Kingdom, United States, Uruguay, and
Vanuatu. East Germany is a former state party.
Source:
https://www.theguardian.com/world/2016/oct/28/worlds-largest-marine-park-created-in-ross-sea-in-antarctica-in
QUESTION 31.
Which of the following is/are Geothermal Sites in India?
1. Puga Valley, J&K
2. Tatapani, Chattisgarh
3. Jalgaon, Maharashtra
4. Godavari Basin, Manikaran
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (d)
All of them are geothermal sites of India
It has been estimated from geological, geochemical, shallow geophysical and shallow drilling data it is
estimated that India has about 10,000 MWe of geothermal power potential that can be harnessed for
various purposes.
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Rocks covered on the surface of India ranging in age from more than 4500 million years to the present day
and distributed in different geographical units.
The rocks comprise of Archean, Proterozoic, the marine and continental Palaeozoic, Mesozoic, Tertiary,
Quaternary etc., More than 300 hot spring locations have been identified by Geological survey of India.
The surface temperature of the hot springs ranges from 35 C to as much as 98 C. These hot springs have
been grouped together and termed as different geothermal provinces based on their occurrence in specific
geo-tectonic regions, geological and structural regions such as occurrence in orogenic belt regions,
structural grabens, deep fault zones, active volcanic regions etc.,
Different orogenic regions are – Himalayan geothermal province, Naga-Lushai geothermal province,
Andaman-Nicobar Islands geothermal province and non-orogenic regions are – Cambay graben,
Son-Narmada-Tapi graben, west coast, Damodar valley, Mahanadi valley, Godavari valley etc.
· Puga Valley (J&K)
· Tatapani (Chhattisgarh)
· Godavari Basin Manikaran (Himachal Pradesh)
· Bakreshwar (West Bengal)
· Tuwa (Gujarat)
· Unai (Maharashtra)
· Jalgaon (Maharashtra)
QUESTION 32.
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Which form of coal is having highest energy content?
a) Peat
b) Lignite
c) Anthracite
d) Bituminous
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Energy content is highest in anthracite coal and lowest in lignite
QUESTION 33.
1. Estuaries are usually deeper than lagoons
2. In lagoons, the water flows fast and strong, while in estuaries the water is shallower and flows sluggishly
3. Lagoons are formed due to fall in sea levels whereas estuaries are mostly formed due to rise in sea
levels
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (c)
· The main difference between lagoons and estuaries is in the flow dynamics of the water bodies:
in estuaries, the water flows fast and strong, while in lagoons the water is shallower and flows sluggishly.
· Estuaries are usually deeper than lagoons. Also, lagoons mostly don’t have any fresh water source while
the estuaries have at least one. Lagoons more saline than estuaries.
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· Lagoons are formed due to fall in sea levels (coastline of emergence. E.g. Kerala Coast) whereas
estuaries are mostly formed due to rise in sea levels (coastline of submergence. E.g. Konkan coast)
Source - VAN
QUESTION 34.
Consider the following statements regarding E-Waste Management Rules, 2016
1. The rules are not applicable to micro enterprises.
2. Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and other mercury containing lamp brought under the purview of
rules.
Select the correct statement/s
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both
d) None
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (c)
Read this - http://pibphoto.nic.in/documents/rlink/2016/mar/p201632302.pdf
Source- VAN and PIB
QUESTION 35.
Consider the following
1. Wetlands
2. Mountains
3. Coastal Areas
4. Deserts
Which of the above comes under ‘Fragile Ecosystem’?
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (d)
http://www.bsienvis.nic.in/Database/FragileEcosystems_23603.aspx
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/fragile-wetland-ecosystem-a-guardian-of-ap-coastline/article818
QUESTION 36.
Which of the following countries is/are members of New Agenda Coalition (NAC)
1. Brazil
2. New Zealand
3. South Africa
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) Al of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
The New Agenda Coalition (NAC), composed of Brazil, Egypt, Ireland, Mexico, New Zealand and South
Africa, is a geographically dispersed group of middle power countries seeking to build an international
consensus to make progress on nuclear disarmament, as legally called for in the nuclear NPT.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/narendra-modijohn-key-bilateral-talks-india-gets-constructive-promise-
QUESTION 37.
Which of the following is a UNESCO World Heritage Mixed Site?
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a) Khangchendzonga National Park

b) Ajanta Caves
c) Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka
d) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (a)
Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) in Sikkim is the only ‘mixed’ heritage site from India.
A ‘mixed site’ exhibits qualities of both natural and cultural significance.
India now has 35 sites, including 27 cultural properties, seven natural sites and one mixed site, notified as
World Heritage Sites.
Sikkim's Khangchendzonga National Park , Chandigarh's Capitol Complex and the ruins of Nalanda
Mahavira in Bihar were added to World Heritage Sites.
Source:
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/why-monuments-would-be-worse-off-without-the
QUESTION 38.
Living Planet Index is released by
a) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)

b) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
c) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
d) IUCN
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Living Planet Index - http://wwf.panda.org/about_our_earth/all_publications/living_planet_index2/
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-international/twothirds-of-wild-animals-may-go-extinct-by-2020-warns
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QUESTION 39.
Consider the following statements about National Academic Depository (NAD)
1. It will register educational institutions/boards/eligibility assessment bodies, students and other

users/verifying entities like banks, employer companies, government agencies and academic institutions.
2. It would be operationalised by NSDL Database Management Limited (NDML) and CDSL Ventures,
Limited (CVL)
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (c)
The NAD would be operationalised by NSDL Database Management Limited (NDML) and CDSL Ventures,
Limited (CVL) – two of the wholly owned subsidiaries of the Depositories registered under Securities
Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Act, 1992.
Academic institutions would be responsible for the authenticity of data digitally uploaded by them into the
system. The depositories will ensure the integrity of the data in the NAD. The NAD will register educational
institutions/boards/eligibility assessment bodies, students and other users/verifying entities like banks,
employer companies, government agencies and academic institutions.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=153035
QUESTION 40.
The folk art of Alpana is from which of the following states?
a) Rajasthan
b) Maharashtra
c) West Bengal
d) Assam
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
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Explanation
Solution (c)
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/reviving-a-vanishing-folk-art-form-in-bengal/article9277490
QUESTION 41.
Which of the following are classified as ‘Lotic Ecosystem’?
1. Brooks
2. Springs
3. Lakes
4. Rivers
a) 1 and 3
b) 1,2 and 4
c) Only 3
d) 2 and 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
A Lotic Ecosystem has flowing waters . Examples include: creeks, streams, runs, rivers, springs, brooks
and channels.
A Lentic Ecosystem has still waters . Examples include: ponds, basin marshes, ditches, reservoirs,
seeps, lakes, and vernal / ephemeral pools.
QUESTION 42.
Which of these pairs are correctly matched?
1. Basel convention : Lead
2. Minamata convention : Mercury
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3. Stockholm convention : Persistant organic pollutants (PoPs)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
The Basel Convention is for the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their
Disposal. It was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, and specifically
to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs). It does not,
however, address the movement of radioactive waste.
The Minamata Convention on Mercury is an international treaty designed to protect human health and the
environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds.
Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is an international environmental treaty that aims to
eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs).
QUESTION 43.
Which of the following regions in India is/are a biodiversity hotspot?
a) Western Ghats
b) Eastern Ghats
c) Eastern Himalayas
d) Both ( and (
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
The British biologist Norman Myers coined the term "biodiversity hotspot" in 1988 as a biogeographic
region characterized both by exceptional levels of plant endemism and by serious levels of habitat loss. In
1990 Myers added a further eight hotspots, including four Mediterranean-type ecosystems. Conservation
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International (CI) adopted Myers’ hotspots as its institutional blueprint in 1989, and in 1996, the
organization made the decision to undertake a reassessment of the hotspots concept. Three years later an
extensive global review was undertaken, which introduced quantitative thresholds for the designation of
biodiversity hotspots.
According to CI, to qualify as a hotspot a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 1,500
species of vascular plants (> 0.5% of the world’s total) as endemics, and it has to have lost at least 70% of
its original habitat. In 1999, CI identified 25 biodiversity hotspots in the book “Hotspots: Earth’s Biologically
Richest and Most Endangered Terrestrial Ecoregions”.
Collectively, these areas held as endemics about 44% of the world’s plants and 35% of terrestrial
vertebrates in an area that formerly covered only 11.8% of the planet’s land surface. The habitat extent of
this land area had been reduced by 87.8% of its original extent, such that this wealth of biodiversity was
restricted to only 1.4% of Earth’s land surface. In 2005 CI published an updated titled “Hotspots Revisited:
Earth's Biologically Richest and Most Endangered Terrestrial Ecoregions”.
Biodiversity hotspots in India -

http://bsienvis.nic.in/files/Biodiversity%20Hotspots%20in%20India.pdf
QUESTION 44.
The energy flow in an ecosystem is
1. Unidirectional
2. Non-cyclic
3. Cyclic
4. Bidirectional
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (a)
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The flow of energy in the ecosystem is unidirectional. The energy enters the plants (from the sun) through
photosynthesis during the making of food. This energy is then passed on from one organism to another in a
food chain.
Energy given out by the organisms as heat is lost to the environment, it does not return to be used by the
plants again. This makes the flow of energy in ecosystem 'unidirectional'. Thus, the flow of energy in the
ecosystem is said to be unidirectional because the energy lost as heat from the living organisms of a food
chain cannot be reused by plants in photosynthesis.
During the transfer of energy through successive trophic levels in an ecosystem, there is a loss of energy
all along the path. No transfer of energy is 100 per cent. The energy available at each successive trophic
level is 10 per cent of the previous level. Thus, there is a progressive decline (gradual reduction) in the
amount of energy available as we go from producer level to the higher trophic levels of organisms.
The nutrient movement is a cyclic movement where the nutrients revolve round with an ecosystem, hence
cyclic. Nutrients pass from abiotic nutrient stores, such as the soil and the atmosphere, into biotic, plant
and animal stores (the biomass). The nutrients are then recycled, within the ecosystem, following death
and decomposition.
QUESTION 45.
Consider the following statements concerning wetlands
1. Wetlands does not include rivers
2. Montreux Record and Ramsar Convention is concerned with the wetlands
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
It includes all lakes and rivers, underground aquifers, swamps and marshes, wet grasslands, peatland,
oases, estuaries, deltas and tidal flats, mangroves and other coastal areas, coral reefs, and all
human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs and salt pans.
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The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance
where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of
technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar
List.
QUESTION 46.
Consider the following
1. Soil
2. Nutrients
3. Amount of oxygen dissolved in Water
4. Non-Green Plants
Which of the above are abiotic components?
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (b)
Non-Green Plants-Biotic
QUESTION 47.
1. A species with large area requirements for which protection of the species offers protection to other
species that share the same habitat
2. Can be used to help select the locations of potential reserves
Based on the above statements, select the best suited answer
a) Keystone species
b) Indicator species
c) Umbrella species
d) Edge species
IASbaba
Contact :
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
The term ‘umbrella species’ is most commonly used by conservationists discussing a species selected for
making conservation decisions. An umbrella species generally shares a lot of living requirements with other
organisms in its range – therefore making its preservation beneficial to many species. Meanwhile, a
keystone species more specifically refers to a species that dramatically shifts an ecosystem if it were
removed, even though that species may be only a small portion of the ecosystem
Tiger is an example of Umbrella Species
QUESTION 48.
Biofuels are an important source of alternative energy. Consider the following regarding ‘Biofuels’
1. Second generation biofuels are obtained from sugar, starch and vegetable oils
2. Biofuels do not contribute to air pollution
3. Production of biofuels will release more nitrous oxide than the fossil fuels they replace
Select the incorrect code
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (a)
First generation biofuels are obtained from sugar, starch and vegetable oils
Biofuels are different from fossil fuels in regard to greenhouse gases but are similar to fossil fuels in that
biofuels contribute to air pollution. Burning produces airborne carbon particulates, carbon
monoxide and nitrous oxides
IASbaba
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In 2008, the Nobel-prize winning chemist Paul J. Crutzen published findings that the release of nitrous
oxide (N2O) emissions in the production of biofuels means that overall they contribute more to global
warming than the fossil fuels they replace
QUESTION 49.
Consider the following diseases
1. Blue baby Syndrome
2. Minamata Disease
3. Itai-itai Disease
4. Emphysema
5. Pneumoconiosis
Which of the above are caused by environmental degradation?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Blue baby Syndrome- Nitrate contamination
Minamata disease- Mercury contamination
Itai-itai disease- Calcium contamination
Emphysema- Air pollution
Pneumoconiosis- Coal mine pollution
QUESTION 50.
An Energy Pyramid is
a) Always inverted
b) Always upward
c) Can be upward or inverted
d) Neither upward not inverted
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Q.50) Solution (b)
· Energy Pyramid reflects the law of thermodynamics as it reflects the conversion of solar energy into
chemical energy and heat energy (lost) at each trophic level.
· This is the reason that it is always upward (large energy base at bottom) and no inversion.
IASbaba

Correct Answer: D Your Answer: D Explanation: Exam Title: 3) ENVIRONMENT Email Contact

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Exam Title : 3) ENVIRONMENT

1. Bio-accumulation is increase in concentration of a substance in a food chain.

2. Bio-magnification is increase in concentration of a substance in an organism.

Select the correct statements

· Bioaccumulation refers to the accumulation of substances, such as pesticides, or other chemicals in an

· Bioaccumulation, for example in fish, can be predicted by models.

· Bio-magnification , also known as bio-amplification or biological magnification , is the increasing

· This increase can occur as a result of:

o Persistence – where the substance cannot be broken down by environmental processes

· DDT accumulation in food chain.

· Difference between Bioaccumulation and Biomagnification.

Lead POPs (persistent organic pollutant) - chemical

Source – Value added notes + Wikipedia

3. Generally primary succession is faster because of availability of soil.

Select the correct statements

· Secondary succession follows a major disturbance , such as a fire or a flood.

· An example of Secondary Succession by stages:

1. A stable deciduous forest community.

2. A disturbance, such as a wild fire, destroys the forest

3. The fire burns the forest to the ground

4. The fire leaves behind empty, but not destroyed, soil

5. Grasses and other herbaceous plants grow back first

6. Small bushes and trees begin to colonize the area

develop in the understory

Source – Value added notes + 12 th Biology ncert (Ecosystem)

1. Oligotrophic has clear water as there are negligible algae.

3. Oxygen and nitrogen are in large amounts in lakes during eutrophication.

Select the correct statements

• Low nutrient so low primary productivity.

• Medium level nutrients and so Intermediate productivity.

o If aquatic plants dominate water tends to be clear

o If algae dominate water tends to be darker

o This process is called as ' eutrophication '

Source – Value added notes + Britannica Encyclopaedia

1. National wetland policy consists of Conservation and Sustainable management of wetlands.

2. Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 1991 is part of conservation effort of wetlands.

Select the correct statements

· Active monitoring of these wetland systems over a period of time is essential.

· Some of the key legislations are the –

o Indian Fisheries Act, 1857

o Indian Forest Act, 1927

o Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 1991

o Water (Prevention and Control of Pol1ution) Act, 1974

o Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1977

Must read – click here

Source – PIB news + Previous year questions

1. Coral growth and reef growth are two different things.

Select the correct statements

Statement 2 - coral reef in Lakshadweep is example of atoll reef.

Source – Previous year questions + web page

1. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus

3. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway

4. Nilgiri Mountain Railway

Select the correct code:

1. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway

2. Nilgiri Mountain Railway

Select the correct code:

All the countries except for Georgia are island countries.

Select the correct code:

a) the glacial surface partially melts, leaving holes and cracks

What: it is a fissure, or deep open crack in glacial ice

For more information on crevasse, visit http://www.mountainprofessor.com/crevasses.html

Select the correct statements –