Correct Answer: A Your Answer: A Explanation:: Exam Title: S 1: T 1 - Polity & Science Email Contact

Exam Title : S 1: T 1 - POLITY & SCIENCE
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1. According to the Constitution of India, the executive power of Union Government is vested in
a) The President
b) The Prime Minister
c) Council of Ministers
d) Cabinet Ministers
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation:
Solution (a)
The Constitution of India vests the executive power of the Union formally in the President . Article 53:
Executive power of the Union – The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and
shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this
Constitution.
In reality, the President exercises these powers through the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime
Minister.
President is the head of the State. The President has wide ranging executive, legislative, judicial and
emergency powers. In a parliamentary system, these powers are in reality used by the President only on
the advice of the Council of Ministers. The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers have support of
the majority in the Lok Sabha and they are the real executive. In most of the cases, the President has to
follow the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 4 ‘Executive’
2. Consider the following statements with regard to the President of India

1. the president is elected by elected MLAs and MPs only
2. the president is elected by the ordinary citizens of India
3. the election takes in accordance with the principle of territorial representation
Select the correct code
a) 1 Only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) 1 and 2 Only
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
The President is elected for a period of five years. But there is no direct election by the people for the
office of President. The President is elected indirectly. This means that the president is elected not by
the ordinary citizens but by the elected MLAs and MPs. This election takes place in accordance with the
principle of proportional representation with single transferable vote.
Difference between Territorial Representation (TR) and Proportional Representation (PR)-
PR is based on giving representation in proportion to population, whereas TR aims at giving

representation on the basis of territories irrespective of the population of that territory. In India PR is
followed in the Rajya Sabha (upper house) and TR in the Lok Sabha (lower house) and Legislative
Assemblies of the State.
3. Consider the following statements

1. The only ground for impeachment of President of India is violation of the Constitution
2. The advice of the Council of Ministers is not binding on the President
3. The President can be removed by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in the
House
4. In the history of India, no President has been impeached so far
a) 1 and 4 Only
b) 2 and 4 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
The President can be removed from office only by Parliament by following the procedure for
impeachment. This procedure requires a special majority - not less than two-thirds of the total
membership of the House (as per Article 61)
The only ground for impeachment is violation of the Constitution (Article 61).
42nd Amendment Act, 1976 made the aid and advice of Council of Ministers binding . 44th
Amendment Act, 1978 - the President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider its advice but, has
to accept the reconsidered advice of the Council of Ministers.
In the history of Indian Constitution, no President has been impeached so far.
To do: Go through different types of majority and instances of usage in the Indian Parliament - Absolute,
Effective, Simple, Special majority
4. When the President keeps a bill pending with him without any time limit. It is referred to as
a) Absolute veto
b) Pocket veto
c) Suspensive veto
d) Qualified veto
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
When the President can just keep the bill pending with him without any time limit. This gives the
President an informal power to use the veto in a very effective manner. This is referred to as ‘pocket
veto’ .
Absolute veto refers to the power of the President to withhold his assent to a bill passed by the
Parliament.
Suspensive Veto , the President exercises this veto when he returns a bill for reconsideration of the
Parliament. It can be overridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
Qualified veto , which can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority.
The President of India is vested with three - absolute veto, suspensive veto and
pocket veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President ; it is possessed by the
American President.
5. The Vice President of India can be removed from his office
a) By a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by a special majority and agreed to by the Rajya Sabha by a
simple majority
b) By a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha
c) By a resolution of the Parliament
d) By a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a
special majority
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (b)
The Vice President is elected for five years. His election method is similar to that of the President, the
only difference is that members of State legislatures are not part of the electoral college. The Vice
President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a
majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha . The Vice President acts as the exofficio Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha and takes over the office of the President when there is a vacancy by reasons of death,
resignation, removal by impeachment or otherwise.
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6. Consider the following regarding Carnivores, Herbivores and Omnivores animals

1. Carnivores have digestive enzymes in their saliva like herbivores
2. Small intestine of carnivores and omnivores are larger than herbivores
3. Herbivores and omnivores have simple stomach with one chamber
Select the correct statement/s
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 2
c) 1 and 3
d) None
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: Unanswered
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
Difference between Herbivores Carnivores and Omnivores
Diet
● Herbivores only eat plant materials.
● Carnivores only eat meat.
● Omnivores eat both meat and plant materials.
Incisors
● Herbivores have broad, flat, spade-shaped incisors.
● Carnivores have short, pointed incisors.
● Omnivores have short, pointed incisors.
Canines
● Herbivores have dull, short or long (for defense ) canines.
● Carnivores have extremely sharp, long and curved canines.
● Omnivores have sharp, long and curved canines.
Chewing Capacity
● Herbivores have a very high chewing capacity.
● Carnivores do not chew.
● Omnivores do not often chew, but may use simple crushing.
Detoxification of Vitamin A in Liver
● Herbivores can detoxify vitamin A.
● Carnivores cannot detoxify vitamin A.
● Omnivores cannot detoxify vitamin A.
Stomach Type
● Herbivores have either simple or with multiple chambers.
● Carnivores have a simple stomach with one chamber.
● Omnivores have a simple stomach with one chamber.
Length of the Small Intestine
● Herbivores have extremely longer intestines (10-12 times body length)
● Carnivores‘ intestines are 3-6 times of body length.
● Omnivores‘ intestines are 4-6 times of body length.
Examples
● Herbivores include Giraffe, goat, cow, deer, etc.
● Carnivores include lion, jaguar, tiger, hyena, leopard, etc.
● Omnivores include human, bear, dog, etc.
Source: NCERT Science- 6 th (Chapter 1)
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7. Consider the following

1. Beets
2. Broccoli
3. Brinjal
4. Onion
Which of the above plants have two or more edible parts?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 3, and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
Vegetable Common Edible Parts Other Edible Parts
Beans, snap pod with seeds leaves
Beans, lima seeds pods, leaves
Beets root leaves
Broccoli flower leaves, flower stem
Carrot root leaves
Cauliflower immature flower flower stem, leaves
Celery leaf stems leaves, seeds
young ears, unfurled tassel,

Corn, sweet seeds
young leaves
Cucumber fruit with seeds stem tips and young leaves
Eggplant fruit with seeds leaves edible but not flavorful
Kohlrabi swollen stem leaves
Okra pods with seeds leaves
Onions root young leaves
Source : NCERT Science- 6 th (Chapter 1)
8. Consider the following statements.

1. They are caused by germs.
2. They are caused due to lack of nutrients in our diet.
3. They can be passed on to another person through contact.
4. They can be prevented by taking a balanced diet.
Which pair of statements best describes a deficiency disease?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 1 and 4
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Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
Diseases that are caused by the lack of some particular nutrient in a person's diet are called deficiency
diseases.
Source : NCERT Science - 6 th (Chapter 2)
9. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Vitamin A Night Blindness
2. Vitamin D Beriberi
3. Vitamin C Scurvy
4. Vitamin B 1 Rickets
a) 1 and 2
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
10. Which part of the jute plant is used for getting jute fibre?
a) Flower
b) Stem
c) Fruit
d) Leaf
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Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Jute is a rain-fed crop with little need for fertilizer or pesticides, in contrast to cotton's heavy
requirements. Production is concentrated mostly in India's states of Assam, Bihar, and West Bengal and
Bangladesh. The jute fibre comes from the stem and ribbon (outer skin) of the jute plant.

1. The President allocates ranks and portfolios to the ministers
2. The ministers are given the ranks of Cabinet minister, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers based on
the seniority and political importance.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
The Prime Minister allocates ranks and portfolios to the ministers. Depending upon the seniority and
political importance, the ministers are given the ranks of cabinet minister, minister of State or deputy
ministers.

1. The size of the Council of Ministers is determined according to exigencies of time and requirements of
the situation
2. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
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Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Before the 91st Amendment Act (2003) , the size of the Council of Ministers was determined according
to exigencies of time and requirements of the situation. But this led to very large size of the Council of
Ministers. Besides, when no party had a clear majority, there was a temptation to win over the support of
the members of the Parliament by giving them ministerial positions as there was no restriction on the
number of the members of the Council of Ministers. This was happening in many States also. Therefore,
an amendment was made that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number
of members of the House of People (or Assembly, in the case of the States).
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha . This provision means that a
Ministry which loses confidence of the Lok Sabha is obliged to resign. The principle indicates that the
ministry is an executive committee of the Parliament and it collectively governs on behalf of the
Parliament. Collective responsibility is based on the principle of the solidarity of the cabinet . It
implies that a vote of no confidence even against a single minister leads to the resignation of the entire
Council of Ministers. It also indicates that if a minister does not agree with a policy or decision of the
cabinet, he or she must either accept the decision or resign. It is binding on all ministers to pursue or
agree to a policy for which there is collective responsibility.
The Council comes into existence only after the Prime Minister has taken the oath of office. The death
or resignation of the Prime Minister automatically brings about the dissolution of the Council of
Ministers but the demise, dismissal or resignation of a minister only creates a ministerial vacancy.
13. Which of the following States have a bicameral legislature?

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Bihar
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Karnataka
5. Telangana
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 4 Only
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (d)
States (7) having bicameral legislature are - Andhra Pradesh, Telangana , Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir,
Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh
Advantages of Bicameral Legislature:
● Countries with large size and much diversity usually prefer to have two houses of the national
legislature to give representation to all sections in the society and to give representation to all
geographical regions or parts of the country.
● A bicameral legislature makes it possible to have every decision reconsidered. Every decision taken
by one house goes to the other house for its decision.
● This means that every bill and policy would be discussed twice. This ensures a double check on every
matter.
● Even if one house takes a decision in haste, that decision will come for discussion in the other house
and reconsideration will be possible.
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 5 ‘Legislature’
14. Consider the following statements with regard to Rajya Sabha

1. It is an indirectly elected body
2. All members of the Rajya Sabha do not complete their terms at the same time
3. The Prime Minister advices the President to dissolve the Rajya Sabha and hold fresh elections after
every 6 years
a) 1 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation:
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Solution (c)
Each of the two Houses of the Parliament has different bases of representation. The Rajya Sabha
represents the States of India. It is an indirectly elected body. Residents of the State elect members to
State Legislative Assembly. The elected members of State Legislative Assembly in turn elect the
members of Rajya Sabha . Therefore, Rajya Sabha is an indirectly elected body.
Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of six years. They can get re-elected. All members
of the Rajya Sabha do not complete their terms at the same time. Every two years, one third
members of the Rajya Sabha complete their term and elections are held for those one third seats only.
Thus, the Rajya Sabha is never fully dissolved. Therefore, it is called the permanent House of the
Parliament. The advantage of this arrangement is that even when the Lok Sabha is dissolved and
elections are yet to take place, the meeting of the Rajya Sabha can be called and urgent business can
be conducted.
The Lok Sabha can be dissolved if no party or coalition can form the government or if the Prime
Minister advices the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha and hold fresh elections.

1. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal powers over approval of Constitutional Amendment Bill
2. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal powers in appointing President and Vice-President of
India
3. The Prime Minister appoints twelve members among those persons who have made their mark in the
fields of literature, arts, social service, science
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal powers in electing (and NOT appointing) President and
Vice-President of India.
Apart from the elected members, Rajya Sabha also has twelve nominated members. The President
nominates these members. These nominations are made from among those persons who have made
their mark in the fields of literature, arts, social service, science etc.
16. Consider the following statements with respect to Fiji

1. It is an archipelago in South Atlantic Ocean
2. Fiji won gold in Rugby Sevens at Rio Olympics 2016
3. Hindi is one of the official languages of Fiji
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation:
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Solution (c)
Fiji is an archipelago in South Pacific Ocean
Fiji won gold in Rugby Sevens at Rio Olympics 2016. The 2016 Summer Olympics marked the debut
for rugby sevens at the Summer Olympics
Official languages of Fiji – Fijian, Hindi and English
Source : In news http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=149194
17. Consider the following statements with respect to Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)
1. Airport Authority of India (AAI) is the implementing agency
2. Maharashtra is going to be the first state to develop 10 airports as part of the Centre’s Regional
Connectivity Scheme
3. The RCS route will include under-served airports and not un-served airports
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
Airport Authority of India will be the implementing Agency for the Scheme (RCS).
The RCS route would have to include un-served airports i.e. airports where there is no scheduled
commercial flight or under-served airports i.e. airports which have 7 or less scheduled
commercial flights per week. The RCS routes would cover a length between 200 to 800 km . But this
criteria would not apply to hilly areas, islands, North-east region and for helicopter operations.
The Central Government will support the RCS Scheme by levying an excise duty of only 2% on Aviation
Turbine Fuel (ATF) purchased at RCS Airports for a period of three years. The service tax will be levied
at only 10% of the taxable value of tickets for RCS seats for a period of one year. The operating Airline
will be free to enter into code sharing arrangement with domestic and international airlines.
The State Governments will charge Vat of 1% or less on ATF at RCS Airports for a period of 10 years. It
will also provide security and fire services free of cost, besides providing electricity, water and other
utility services at concessional rates.
Central Government will subsidise 80% of the cost for revival of airports, while the states will meet the
rest under the viability gap fund (VGF). In the case of the North-eastern states, the central subsidy will
be 90%.
The RCS also stipulates that the air tickets will be capped at Rs 2,500 under a one-hour flight and the
VGF will take care of the rest of the operational cost.
Besides, a Regional Connectivity Fund (RCF) will be created to subsidise the operation of the RCS.
A tripartite Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) was signed between the Ministry of Civil Aviation, the
Maharashtra government and the state-run Airports Authority of India
Source : In News
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-news-india/maharashtra-becomes-first-state-to-signs-mou-for-regional-air-
18. “Jaipur Declaration’ and ‘Udaipur Declaration’ is concerned with which of the following?
a) BRICS
b) Resurgent Rajasthan
c) Raisina Dialogue
d) Rajasthan Tourism
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: C
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Explanation:
Solution (a)
Jaipur Declaration –
● Women Parliamentarians from BRICS nations expressed commitment to work together in the field of
economic growth, social inclusion and environmental protection in the 'Jaipur Declaration' adopted by
them.
● The Declaration also called upon international financial institutions to extend support to developing
and least developed countries and help them gain easier access to new and affordable technologies as
envisaged under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change and the Paris Agreement.
● The Declaration mentions the need to address climate change and protection of ecological system
and forest as well as food security, expeditious parliamentary approval of SDG related legislation and
adequate budgetary resources.
● It also emphasises on plans for incorporating gender concerns and greater involvement of women
parliamentarians in integrating citizens in the development process.
Udaipur Declaration –
● BRICS nations to set up a dedicated Joint Task Force for Disaster Risk Management for regular
dialogue, exchange, mutual support and collaboration among them.
● The meeting was a new milestone in collaboration and cooperation among BRICS countries in the
field of disaster management.
● The roadmap for implementation of the three-year Joint Action Plan for BRICS emergency services
(2016-18) was also finalised.
Source: Jaipur Declaration in News -
http://www.business-standard.com/article/international/brics-women-parliamentarians-forum-adopts-jaipur-declaration
Udaipur Declaration in News - http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=149135
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19. Consider the following statements with respect to Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA)
1. It is a tax treaty signed between two or more countries and tax-payers in these countries can avoid
being taxed twice for the same income
2. Recently the cabinet approved a revised DTAA with Cyprus
3. DTAAs are limited to taxing of income from shipping, air transport and inheritance only
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
A DTAA is a tax treaty signed between two or more countries . Its key objective is that tax-payers in
these countries can avoid being taxed twice for the same income. A DTAA applies in cases where a
tax-payer resides in one country and earns income in another.
DTAAs can either be comprehensive to cover all sources of income or be limited to certain areas such
as taxing of income from shipping, air transport, inheritance, etc.
India has DTAAs with more than eighty countries , of which comprehensive agreements include
those with Australia, Canada, Germany, Mauritius, Singapore , UAE, the UK and US.
DTAAs are intended to make a country an attractive investment destination by providing relief on
dual taxation . Such relief is provided by exempting income earned abroad from tax in the resident
country or providing credit to the extent taxes have already been paid abroad. DTAAs also provide for
concessional rates of tax in some cases.
The Union Cabinet gave its nod for signing of revised double taxation avoidance agreement (DTAA)
with Cyprus , a popular tax haven. It has approved the removal of island nation as a non-cooperative
jurisdiction for income-tax purpose. Cyprus was the only country to have been blacklisted by India as a
non-cooperative jurisdiction, due to lack of effective exchange of information.
India and Cyprus had entered into a tax treaty in 1994, and are obliged to exchange information. On
November 1, 2013, the Finance Ministry had notified Cyprus as a non-cooperative jurisdiction following
failed discussions to secure the desired level of cooperation.
Source : In News -
http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/cabinet-okays-signing-of-revised-dtaa-with-cyprus/article9026109.ece
20. “Operation Euphrates Shield” has been launched in Syria by which country?
a) United States of America

b) Russia
c) Turkey
d) Israel and Jordan
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: B
Explanation:
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Solution (c)
Source: In News –
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/turkish-tanks-roll-into-syria/article9027597.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/40-dead-as-turkish-shelling-raids-hit-syrian-civilians/article9042898.ece
21. In case of a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha can

1. Approve the Bill
2. Make amendments to the Bill
3. Reject the Bill
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) 1 and 3 Only
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (a)
If it is a money bill, the Rajya Sabha can either approve the bill or suggest changes (RS cannot make
changes .. It can only Suggest changes/amend) but cannot reject it . If it takes no action within 14
days the bill is deemed to have been passed. Amendments to the bill, suggested by Rajya Sabha , may
or may not be accepted by the Lok Sabha .
22. The Indian Constitution has ensured the independence of the judiciary through a number of measures.
Which of the following measures are found in the Indian Constitution?
1. The Legislature is not involved in the process of appointment of judges
2. The judges hold office during the pleasure of the President
3. The judiciary is financially dependent on the legislature
4. The judiciary has the power to penalise those who are found guilty of contempt of court.
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 4 Only
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d) 4 Only
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
The Indian Constitution has ensured the independence of the judiciary through a number of measures.
The legislature is not involved in the process of appointment of judges . Thus, it was believed that
party politics would not play a role in the process of appointments.
The judges have a fixed tenure . They hold office till reaching the age of retirement. Only in exceptional
cases, judges may be removed. But otherwise, they have security of tenure. Security of tenure ensures
that judges could function without fear or favour. The Constitution prescribes a very difficult procedure for
removal of judges. The Constitution makers believed that a difficult procedure of removal would provide
security of office to the members of judiciary.
The judiciary is not financially dependent on either the executive or legislature. The Constitution
provides that the salaries and allowances of the judges are not subjected to the approval of the
legislature. The actions and decisions of the judges are immune from personal criticisms.
The judiciary has the power to penalise those who are found guilty of contempt of court. This
authority of the court is seen as an effective protection to the judges from unfair criticism. Parliament
cannot discuss the conduct of the judges except when the proceeding to remove a judge is being carried
out. This gives the judiciary independence to adjudicate without fear of being criticised.
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 6 ‘Judiciary’’
23. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls
under its
a) original jurisdiction
b) appellate jurisdiction
c) advisory jurisdiction
d) writ jurisdiction
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
Original jurisdiction means cases that can be directly considered by the Supreme Court without going
to the lower courts before that. The Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court establishes it as an
umpire in all disputes regarding federal matters . In any federal country, legal disputes are bound to
arise between the Union and the States; and among the States themselves. The power to resolve such
cases is entrusted to the Supreme Court of India. It is called original jurisdiction because the Supreme
Court alone has the power to deal with such cases. Neither the High Courts nor the lower courts can
deal with such cases . In this capacity, the Supreme Court not just settles disputes but also interprets
the powers of Union and State government as laid down in the Constitution.
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 6 ‘Judiciary’
24. Consider the following statement with regard to Indian Judiciary

1. The term judicial review is not mentioned in the Constitution
2. The Supreme Court is not bound by its own decisions and can review it anytime
3. Both Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to issue writs
Which of the above statement[s] is correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
25. Which of the following subjects are not included in the State List?
a) Public Health
b) Trade and Commerce
c) Education
d) Local Government
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (c)
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 6 ‘Judiciary’
26. Which out of the following is the most suitable method to separate the grains from the flour?
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a) Threshing
b) Sieving
c) Winnowing
d) Filtration
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (b)
In a flour mill, impurities like husk and stones are removed from wheat before grinding it. Usually, a
bagful of wheat is poured on a slanting sieve. The sieving removes pieces of stones, stalk and husk that
may still remain with wheat after threshing and winnowing.
27. Consider the following statements regarding landfill gas

1. Landfill gases are dominantly produced by evaporation of volatile organic compounds present in
waste
2. Gases are produced in landfills due to the aerobic digestion by microbes.
3. Landfill gas is mainly carbon dioxide with remainder being mostly methane.
Which of the statement/s is/are correct about Landfill gas?
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
In NCERT Science- 6 th chapter 16, there is mention about landfill. The hint of this question is taken from
there. One needs to prepare taking clue from basic books like this. Also, solid waste management is
something very common in news.
Landfill gases are the result of three processes
Evaporation of volatile organic compounds ( e.g solvents), chemical reactions between waste
components and microbial action , especially methanogenesis . The first two depend strongly on the
nature of the waste . The dominant process in most landfills is the third process whereby anaerobic
bacteria decompose organic waste to produce biogas which consists of methane and carbon dioxide
together with traces of other compounds
Landfill gas is approximately forty to sixty percent methane, with the remainder being mostly carbon
dioxide.
28. Compost is a key ingredient in organic farming. Consider the following regarding composting
1. Composting can be aerobic or anaerobic
2. Composting organisms require carbon for oxidizing the oxygen in the decomposition process
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both
d) None
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
Composting organisms require four equally important ingredients to work effectively
● Carbon -for energy; the microbial oxidation of carbon produces the heat, if included at suggested
levels. High carbon materials tend to be brown and dry.
● Nitrogen - to grow and reproduce more organisms to oxidize the carbon. High nitrogen materials tend
to be green (or colorful , such as fruits and vegetables) and wet.
● Oxygen - for oxidizing the carbon, the decomposition process.
● Water - in the right amounts to maintain activity without causing anaerobic conditions.
Please note that Carbon is a reducing agent and it will not oxidize oxygen but reduce it. Hence second
statement is wrong.
During composting, organic matter breaks down into nitrogen and carbon, and when these two are
balanced, you get compost. Too much nitrogen will make the matter rot; too much carbon makes the mix
dry and inert.
Nitrogen comes from the green waste — vegetable and fruit peels, flowers, leftover food. Carbon comes
from the brown waste — dry leaves that fall from trees, shredded cardboard, brown coconut shreds (not
the shell).
While composting can be aerobic or anaerobic, the simplest way to compost involves air, introduced into
the mix through vents in the composting bin and through an occasional stir.
29. Consider the following

1. Honey Bee
2. Monkey
3. Lizard
4. Humming Bird
5. Sun Birds
Which of the above are pollinators?
a) 1, 4 and 5
b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
c) 1 and 4
d) All
Correct Answer: D
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Your Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (d)
All are pollinators.
Insect pollinators include bees, (honey bees, solitary species, bumblebees); pollen-wasps ; ants; a
variety of flies including bee flies and hoverflies; lepidopterans , both butterflies and moths; and flower
beetles. Vertebrates, mainly bats and birds, but also some non-bat mammals (monkeys, lemurs,
possums, rodents) and some reptiles (lizards and snakes) pollinate certain plants. Among the pollinating
birds are hummingbirds, honeyeaters and sunbirds with long beaks; they pollinate a number of
deep-throated flowers.
30. Consider the following statements:

1. Shallow surface earthquakes are more destructive for humans than deep earthquakes.
2. Shallow surface earthquakes generally releases more energy than deep centered earthquakes.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: C
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
Earthquakes:
An earthquake is the perceptible shaking of the surface of the Earth, resulting from the sudden release of energy in the Earth's crust that creates seismic
waves.
An earthquake occurs when energy stored inside the earth gets released with great pressure. When this happens, earthquake waves transfer the
released energy to the surface of the earth. In the process, physical and chemical changes occur deep within the earth. The tremendous geological
forces acting upon the rocks and adjoining plates break the earth’s crust, thereby creating an earthquake with a sudden forceful impact.
They can be caused due to natural phenomenon like Plate tectonics or volcanism, or due to anthropogenic activities like mining, bombing, Reservoirs
etc.
The most destructive are the ones caused due to tectonic activity.
Significance of the Depth of Earthquakes:
Earthquakes occur at depths from near the Earth's surface to about 700 km deep. Below that depth, rocks are too hot and ductile, so they tend to bend
and flow rather than break in a brittle manner. The strength of shaking from an earthquake diminishes with increasing distance from the earthquake's
source, so the strength of shaking at the surface from an earthquake that occurs at 500km deep is considerably less than if the same earthquake had
occurred at 20 km depth.
Differences between shallow-focus earthquakes and deep-focus earth quakes:
● Shallow focus earthquakes are called crustal earthquakes as they exist in the earth’s crustal layer. Deep focus earthquakes are known as intra plate
earthquakes, as they are triggered off by collision between plates.
● Shallow-focus earthquakes occur at depths less than 70 km, while deep-focus earthquakes occur at greater focal depths of 300 – 700 km.
● Shallow focus earthquakes are found within the earth’s outer crustal layer, while deep focus earthquakes occur within the deeper subduction zones of
the earth.
● While shallow focus earthquakes are of wider spread along the earth’s crust, deep focus earthquakes typically occur across great expanses and
vertically as well.
● Shallow-focus earthquakes begin where the crustal plates of the earth are moving against one another. Whereas deep-focus earthquakes begin where
one tectonic plate moves under another or sub-ducts, at the boundary of oceanic and continental plates.
● Shallow focus earthquakes are of smaller magnitudes, of a range 1 to 5, while deep focus earthquakes are of higher magnitudes, 6 to 8 or more.
● Shallow focus earthquakes are best measured using the traditional Richter scale which can record minor tremors too. However, deep focus
earthquakes are best measured using the Moment Magnitude scale that has capacity to record earthquakes of magnitudes up to 10 on the scale.
● Less energy is released during a shallow focus earthquakes , while tremendous energy accumulates during a deep focus earthquake.However , the
annual total energy released from the frequent shallow focus earthquakes exceeds that released from fewer happening deep focus earthquakes.
● During shallow focus earthquakes, rocks and plates buckle, deform and fault. While in the deep focus earthquakes, the rocks being at greater depths
and extremely hot under high pressure, deform by flowing, rather than breaking and faulting.
● While shallow focus earthquakes happen frequently and at random within the earth’s crust, often going unrecorded, deep focus earthquakes occur
every 20 to 30 years along a given fault line.
Shallow quakes generally tend to be more damaging than deeper quakes. Seismic waves from deep quakes have to travel farther to the surface, losing
energy along the way.
Shaking is more intense from quakes that hit close to the surface like setting off “a bomb directly under a city,”
Source: In News -
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/difference-between-shallow-and-deep-earthquakes/article9036238.ece
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31. Which among the following is/are true with regard to Preamble
1. The Preamble is a source of power to legislature.
2. Its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
3. The Preamble can be amended
Choose the appropriate code
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of
legislature.
It is non-justiciable , that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
The preamble has been amended only once so far. During the Emergency in India, the Indira Gandhi
government pushed through several changes in the 42 nd Constitutional Amendment Act. Through this
amendment the words "socialist" and "secular" were added between the words "Sovereign" and
"democratic" and the words "unity of the Nation" were changed to "unity and integrity of the Nation
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 9 ‘Constitution as a living document’
32. The famous quote - "swaraj would mean wishes of the people as expressed through their freely chosen
representatives" was originally said by-
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Dadabhai Naoroji
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
Much before the Constituent Assembly finally came into being, the demand for such a constituent
assembly was first echoed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (in 1946).
Dr. Rajendra Prasad quoted Mahatma Gandhi’s words that " swaraj would mean wishes of the people as
expressed through their freely chosen representatives".
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 1 ‘Constitution – Why and How’
33. The category ‘Right to freedom’ in Fundamental Rights of our Constitution consists of
1. Right to form associations/union
2. Right to reside and settle in any part of India
3. Right to manage religious affairs
4. Right to life and liberty
Choose appropriate code:
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (c)
Right to Freedom: (Article 19-22)
●Protection of Right to:
• §freedom of speech and expression;

• §assemble peacefully;
• §form associations/unions;
• §move freely throughout the territory of India;
• §reside and settle in any part of India;
• §practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
●Protection in respect of conviction for offences
●Right to life and personal liberty
●Right to education
●Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
Freedom to manage religious affairs and Right of minorities to establish educational institutions belong to
Right to Freedom of Religion and Cultural and Educational Rights category respectively.
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 2 ‘Rights in the Indian Constitution’
34. List I consists of the provisions borrowed from constitutions of different countries and List II consists of
the names of different countries. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code
given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. First Past the Post 1. France
B. Lawmaking procedure 2. US
C. The idea of Residual Powers 3. Canada
D. Principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity 4. Irish
E. Directive Principles of State Policy 5. British
A-B-C-D-E
a) 5-2-3-1-4
b) 4-5-3-1-4
c) 5-5-3-1-4
d) 5-2-3-2-4
Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
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Explanation:
Solution (c)
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 1 ‘Constitution – Why and How’
35. Consider the following statements about Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Objective Resolutions’ which was moved by Nehru in 1946
2. DPSP includes Right to education
3. DPSP consists of certain rights that individuals should enjoy apart from the Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer:
a) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: C
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government
of India Act of 1935 .
The Directive principles are not legally enforceable this means that if a government did not implement
a particular guideline, we cannot go to the court asking the court to instruct the government to implement
that policy. Thus, these guidelines are ‘ non-justiciable’ i.e., parts of the Constitution that cannot be
enforced by the judiciary. Those who framed our Constitution thought that the moral force behind these
guidelines would ensure that the government would take them seriously.
The chapter on Directive Principles lists mainly three things:
1. The goals and objectives that we as a society should adopt;
2. Certain rights that individuals should enjoy apart from the Fundamental Rights; and
3. Certain policies that the government should adopt.
The governments from time to time tried to give effect to some Directive Principles of State Policy. They
passed several zamindari abolition bills, nationalised banks, enacted numerous factory laws, fixed
minimum wages, cottage and small industries were promoted and provisions for reservation for the uplift
of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes were made. Directive Principles include the right to
education , formation of panchayati raj institutions all over the country, partial right to work under
employment guarantee programme and the mid-day meal scheme etc.
36. Which of the following statements with respect to Chikungunya are correct?
1. It is transmitted by the Aedes mosquitoes
2. There is no vaccine/medicine to prevent/cure the infection
3. It attacks the nervous system and can even lead to paralysis
Select the correct code:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
Chikungunya is a mosquito-borne viral infection that causes fever, rashes and arthralgia or joint pain.
It is transmitted in humans by the Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquito species. It is
non-contagious.
There is no vaccine/medicine to prevent/cure the infection.
Patients suffer from sudden fever and severe joint pain.
Name derivation: derived from the Makonde (language of the ethnic people living in southern Tanzania
and northern Mozambique) word meaning “that which bends” in reference to the stooped posture
developed as a result of arthritic symptoms.
Source: In News –
http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/an-uneasy-buzz-understanding-the-chikungunya-scare-in-delhi/
37. Consider the following statements about Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
(DDU-GKY)
1. It is under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
2. It aims to skill rural youth who are poor and provide them with jobs having regular monthly wages or
above the minimum wages
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: A
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
(DDU-GKY) aims to skill rural youth who are poor and provide them with jobs having regular monthly
wages or above the minimum wages. It is one of the cluster of initiatives of the Ministry of Rural
Development, Government of India that seeks to promote rural livelihoods. It is a part of the National
Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) - the Mission for poverty reduction called Aajeevika . The scheme will
benefit more than 55 million poor rural youth who are ready to be skilled by providing sustainable
employment.
Source: http://ddugky.gov.in/content/about-us-0
38. Recently a few banks went live with unified payments interface (UPI) apps. Consider the following
statements
1. UPI is developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
2. Bank account number and IFSC code is not required during the financial transaction through the app
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect ?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
Both the statement are correct ..
Axis Bank Ltd, Union Bank of India, Federal Bank Ltd and Bank of Maharashtra on Thursday (25 August
2016) went live with National Payments Corporation of India’s (NPCI’s) UPI apps on the Google Play
Store.
UPI is a payment system that allows money transfer between any two bank accounts by using a
smartphone.
UPI allows a customer to pay directly from a bank account to different merchants, both online and offline,
without the hassle of typing credit card details, IFSC code, or net banking/wallet passwords.
It is safe as the customers only share a virtual address and provide no other sensitive information (Bank
Account number and IFSC Code).
Source: In News –
http://www.livemint.com/Industry/uzxn0ORTzqmUXLcoowGj9N/UPI-enabled-apps-coming-soon-to-Google-Play-Store
http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/what-is-unified-payment-interface/article9037034.ece
39. Recently, India successfully test fired ‘Scramjet Engine’. Consider the following statements regarding it
1. Scramjet engine carry both fuel and oxidiser.
2. The scramjet engine is used only during the atmospheric phase of the rocket’s flight.
3. It uses hydrogen as fuel and the oxygen as the oxidiser.
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
Very important to note:
In conventional rocket engines carrying fuel and oxidizer is a challenge both technically and
economically. Imagine, if one has to send rockets to distant space with supersonic speed, how long will it
be active? Fuel needs oxidisers for combustion.
And scramjet technology has abled to overcome this issue.
Scramjet engines designed by ISRO, uses hydrogen as fuel and the oxygen from the atmospheric air
(focus on atmospheric air) as the oxidiser.
Oxidiser (oxygen) will not have to be carried unlike conventional rocket engines. Scramjet will make use
of oxygen from atmospheric air.
Source: In News -
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/isro-successfully-testfires-scramjet-rocket-engine/article9042486.ece
40. Consider the following statements about ‘Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism’ (CCIT)
1. It was proposed by India in 1996 and is now adopted by the UNGA
2. It addresses the issue of Pakistan’s alleged support for cross-border terrorism in South Asia
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
It is a draft proposed by India in 1996 that is yet to be adopted by the UNGA
It addresses the issue of Pakistan’s alleged support for cross-border terrorism in South Asia
Source : In news -
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/india-plans-antiterror-drive-at-nam/article9043899.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/delhi-hopes-un-will-push-global-terror-convention/article8801696.ece
41. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State?
1. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws.
2. Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment.
3. The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
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c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation:
Solution (d)
All the given statements reveal the secular character of the Indian State.
42. With regard to Universal adult franchise, consider the following

1. It enhances the self-respect and prestige of the common people and opens up new hopes and vistas
for weaker sections.
2. The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act provided for Universal adult franchise.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: B
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
The Indian Constitution adopts universal adult franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha and the state
legislative assemblies.
Universal adult franchise means – ‘every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age has a right to vote without any
discrimination of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, wealth, and so on’.
Universal adult franchise was adopted on the day on which the Constitution of India was adopted, that is the 26th
January 1950, the Republic Day.
The voting age was reduced to 18 years from 21 years in 1989 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of
1988.
Universal adult franchise makes democracy broad-based, enhances the self-respect and prestige of the common
people, upholds the principle of equality, enables minorities to protect their interests and opens up new hopes and
vistas for weaker sections.
Source: Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 3 ‘Election and Representation’
The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
● The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42 nd Constitutional Amendment Act
of 1976.
● The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
● The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
● The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
● Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
● The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code* (Article 44).
Other articles: Article 25, 26, 27, 28, 29 and 30.
* Uniform Civil Code refers to replacing the personal laws (based on religious scriptures and customs) with a
common set of governing rules for all citizens of India.
Article 44 of the Constitution declares that the state shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code
throughout the territory of India.
P.S.: We added this question to introduce you about Uniform Civil Code, which is often in news recently. (Link: Why
not a Common Civil Code for all? )
Source: Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 2, 10 ; Value-add Notes; Current Affairs
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43. Consider the following statements in regard to local governments, which got a fillip after the 73rd and
74th Constitution Amendment Acts:
1. Local government is enumerated in concurrent list.
2. The amendment made a provision for the mandatory creation of the Gram Sabha.
3. One third of the positions in all panchayat institutions are reserved for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
Your Answer: B
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Local government is a State subject . States are free to make their own laws on this subject.
The amendment made a provision for the mandatory creation of the Gram Sabha . The Gram Sabha
would comprise of all the adult members registered as voters in the Panchayat area. Its role and
functions are decided by State legislation.
One third of the positions in all panchayat institutions are reserved for women . Reservations for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are also provided for at all the three levels, in proportion to
their population . If the States find it necessary, they can also provide for reservations for the backward
castes (OBCs).
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 8 ‘Local Governments’
44. Which among the following is not true in regard to First Past the Post (FPTP) system and Proportional
Representation (PR) system?
a) In India all key representatives, except President and Vice President are elected via FPTP system.
b) FPTP allows voters to choose between people rather than between parties.
c) PR ensures that smaller parties get representation in the legislature
d) PR encourages new parties to emerge and more women and minorities to contest for political power.
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
In India, all key representatives except President, Vice President, Members of Rajya Sabha and
Members of state legislative council are elected via FPTP system .
Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 3 ‘Election and Representation’
45. Which among the following writs is known as ‘bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention’?
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Prohibition
d) Quo-warranto
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: A
Explanation:
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Solution (a)
Habeas Corpus
It is a Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’ . It is an order issued by the court to a
person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it.
The court then examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained person free, if the
detention is found to be illegal. Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary
detention .
46. Which of the following statements about Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO)
is/are correct?
1. The Act defines a child as any person below 16 years of age
2. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) will monitor the implementation of the
Act
3. An online complaint box for reporting child sexual abuse, the POCSO e-Box was launched by the
Minister for Women and Child Development
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) Only 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
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Solution (b)
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012
The Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age .
It defines different forms of sexual abuse, including penetrative and non-penetrative assault, as well as
sexual harassment and pornography, and deems a sexual assault to be “aggravated” under certain
circumstances, such as when the abused child is mentally ill or when the abuse is committed by a
person in a position of trust or authority vis-à-vis the child, like a family member, police officer, teacher,
or doctor.
Under Section 44 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act and Rule 6 of
POCSO Rules, 2012, the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights , in addition to its
assigned functions, also mandated:
1. To monitor in the implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act,
2012
2. To monitor the designation of Special Courts by State Governments
3. To monitor the appointment of Public Prosecutors by State Governments
4. To monitor the formulation of the guidelines described in section 39 of the Act by the State
Governments, for the use of non-governmental organisations, professionals and experts or persons
having knowledge of psychology, social work, physical health, mental health and child development to
be associated with the pre-trial and trial stage to assist the child, and to monitor the application of these
guidelines
5. To monitor the designing and implementation of modules for training police personnel and other
concerned persons, including officers of the Central and State Governments, for the effective discharge
of their functions under the Act
6. To monitor and support the Central Government and State Governments for the dissemination of
information relating to the provisions of the Act through media including the television, radio and print
media at regular intervals, so as to make the general public, children as well as their parents and
guardians aware of the provisions of the Act
The POCSO e-box is an easy and direct medium for reporting any case of sexual assault under
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012. It is displayed prominently in the home
page of NCPCR website where the user has to simply press a button named, POCSO e-box which will
navigate to a page with the window having a short animation movie.
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1. It is dedicated towards Lord Shiva
2. It is also a part of UNESCO World Heritage Site as “Great Living Chola Temples”.
3. It is popularly known as ‘Big Temple’
a) Khajuraho Temple
b) Angkor Wat Temple
c) The Konark Sun Temple
d) Brihadeeswarar Temple
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: D
Explanation:
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Solution (d)
Peruvudaiyar Kovil , which is also famous as Brihadeeswarar Temple, Rajarajeswaram and

RajaRajeshwara Temple, is located at Thanjavur in Tamil Nadu state of India.
It is one Hindu temple, which they dedicate towards Lord Shiva. It is one luminous example of major
heights, which Cholas achieves within Tamil architecture .
This temple remains as India’s largest and Indian architecture’s one of greatest glories. It is also a part
of UNESCO World Heritage Site as “Great Living Chola Temples”.
This great temple is India’s one of most prized site for its architecture. It stands in middle of fortified walls
added probably in sixteenth century .
● There is one temple tower, which people call as Vimana . It is 216 feet or 66 meters high. It is also one
among tallest tower in whole world in its kind. Kumbam , Chikharam or Kalasha , which is bulbous, or
apex structure on top of temple, people believe that it is made out of a single stone carving.
● There is one statue of a sacred bull or Nandi at entrance of this temple measuring about thirteen feet
high and sixteen feet long. It is result of a single rock carving.
Entire structure of temple is made of granite, whose nearest source are near Tiruchchirapalli , which is
nearly 60 kms to Thanjavur’s west, where temple is.
Built by Raja Raja Chola I in 1010 AD in Thanjavur , Brihadeeswarar Temple is also popular by name
of ‘Big Temple’ and it turns 1000 years in 2010.
Source: In News -
http://www.thehindu.com/features/friday-review/dance/a-visit-to-thanjavur-quartets-house/article9031793.ece
48. The Home Ministry wants the Finance Ministry to surrender its powers to monitor non-governmental
organisations (NGOs) under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA). Which of the following
statements about FEMA Act is/are correct?
1. It replaced FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulations Act), 1973 as it became incompatible after
economic reforms and pro-liberalization policies of the Government of India
2. It makes offences related to foreign exchange civil offenses
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
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Correct Answer: C
Your Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (c)
Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA)
● It was passed in 1999
● It replaced FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulations Act), 1973 which had become incompatible after
economic reforms and pro-liberalization policies of the Government of India.
● It makes offenses related to foreign exchange civil offenses.
● It allows only the authorized people to deal with foreign security or foreign exchange.
Source: In news -
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/mha-oversight-for-all-ngos/article9043107.ece
49. Recently, Indonesian authorities have seized hundreds of pangolins found hidden in freezers. Consider
the following statements regarding Pangolins
1. They are Critically Endangered species
2. They are mammals
3. They are nocturnal in nature
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Your Answer: C
Explanation:
Solution (d)
All the statements are correct about Pangolins
Source: In News -
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/flora-fauna/Indonesia-seizes-hundreds-of-frozen-pangolins/artic
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50. India is signatory with which of the following agreements with U.S.?
1. Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA)
2. Communication Interoperability and Security Memorandum Agreement (CISMOA)
3. Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA)
Select the correct code:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Your Answer: C
Explanation:
Q.50) Solution (a)
India and US signed the bilateral Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) that will give
the militaries of both countries access to each other’s facilities for supplies and repairs.
It prohibits the US military from stationing its troops on the Indian soil. Also, India would not have to
support the US if it initiates military action against countries that maintain friendly ties with India. The
agreement will be country-specific for India and focus on providing support that will primarily include
food, fuel and stores.
CISMOA would allow the United States to supply India with its proprietary encrypted communications
equipment and systems, allowing secure peacetime and wartime communication between high-level
military leaders on both sides. CISMOA would extend this capability to Indian and U.S. military assets,
including aircraft and ships. Finally, BECA would set a framework through which the United States could
share sensitive data to aid targeting and navigation with India.
Communications and Information Security Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA) and Basic Exchange
and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) for Geospatial Intelligence are the two pending ones.
Source: In News -
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/india-us-sign-logistics-pact/article9049583.ece <o:p></o:p>
IASbaba

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Exam Title : S 1: T 1 - POLITY & SCIENCE

Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 4 ‘Executive’

2. Consider the following statements with regard to the President of India

Difference between Territorial Representation (TR) and Proportional Representation (PR)-

PR is based on giving representation in proportion to population, whereas TR aims at giving

Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 4 ‘Executive’

3. Consider the following statements

In the history of Indian Constitution, no President has been impeached so far.

Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 4 ‘Executive’

Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 4 ‘Executive’

5. The Vice President of India can be removed from his office

Source : Indian Constitution at Work - 11th NCERT- Chapter 4 ‘Executive’

6. Consider the following regarding Carnivores, Herbivores and Omnivores animals

Difference between Herbivores Carnivores and Omnivores

● Herbivores only eat plant materials.

● Carnivores only eat meat.

● Omnivores eat both meat and plant materials.

● Herbivores have broad, flat, spade-shaped incisors.

● Carnivores have short, pointed incisors.

● Omnivores have short, pointed incisors.

● Herbivores have dull, short or long (for defense ) canines.

● Carnivores have extremely sharp, long and curved canines.

● Omnivores have sharp, long and curved canines.

● Herbivores have a very high chewing capacity.

● Carnivores do not chew.

● Omnivores do not often chew, but may use simple crushing.

Detoxification of Vitamin A in Liver

● Herbivores can detoxify vitamin A.

● Carnivores cannot detoxify vitamin A.

● Omnivores cannot detoxify vitamin A.

● Herbivores have either simple or with multiple chambers.

● Carnivores have a simple stomach with one chamber.

● Omnivores have a simple stomach with one chamber.

Length of the Small Intestine

● Herbivores have extremely longer intestines (10-12 times body length)

● Carnivores‘ intestines are 3-6 times of body length.

● Omnivores‘ intestines are 4-6 times of body length.

● Herbivores include Giraffe, goat, cow, deer, etc.

● Carnivores include lion, jaguar, tiger, hyena, leopard, etc.

● Omnivores include human, bear, dog, etc.

Source: NCERT Science- 6 th (Chapter 1)

7. Consider the following

Vegetable Common Edible Parts Other Edible Parts

Beans, snap pod with seeds leaves

Beans, lima seeds pods, leaves

Beets root leaves

Broccoli flower leaves, flower stem

Carrot root leaves

Cauliflower immature flower flower stem, leaves

Celery leaf stems leaves, seeds

young ears, unfurled tassel,

Cucumber fruit with seeds stem tips and young leaves

Eggplant fruit with seeds leaves edible but not flavorful

Kohlrabi swollen stem leaves

Okra pods with seeds leaves

Onions root young leaves

Source : NCERT Science- 6 th (Chapter 1)

8. Consider the following statements.

Source : NCERT Science - 6 th (Chapter 2)

9. Which of the following are correctly matched?

1. Vitamin A Night Blindness

Select the correct code

Source : NCERT Science- 6 th (Chapter 2)