COMMUNICATIONS ENGINEERING MODULE 1

PART 1 - TRANSMISSION FUNDAMENTAL SERIES

1. What is the opposition to the transfer of energy which is considered the dominant characteristic
of a cable or circuit that emanates from its physical structure?

 a. Conductance
 b. Resistance
 c. Reactance
 d. Impedance
2. When load impedance equals to Zo of the line, it means that the load _____ all the power.

 a. reflects
 b. absorbs
 c. attenuates
 d. radiates
3. Impedance matching ratio of a coax balun.

 a. 1:4
 b. 4:1
 c. 2:1
 d. 3:2
4. Which stands for dB relative level?

 a. dBrn
 b. dBa
 c. dBr
 d. dBx
5. Standard test tone used for audio measurement.

 a. 800 Hz
 b. 300 Hz
 c. 100 Hz
 d. 1000 Hz
6. When VSWR is equal to zero, this means

 a. that no power is applied

 b. that the load is purely resistive
 c. that the load is a pure reactance
 d. that the load is opened
7. _______ is the ratio of reflected voltage to the forward travelling voltage.

 a. SWR
 b. VSWR
 c. Reflection coefficient
 d. ISWR
8. Transmission line must be matched to the load to ______.

 a. transfer maximum voltage to the load

 b. transfer maximum power to the load
 c. reduce the load current
 d. transfer maximum current to the load
9. Which indicate the relative energy loss in a capacitor?

 a. Quality factor
 b. Reactive factor
 c. Dissipation factor
 d. Power factor
10. What is the standard test tone?

 a. 0 dB
 b. 0 dBW
 c. 0 dBm
 d. 0 dBrn
11. The energy that neither radiated into space nor completely transmitted.

 a. Reflected waves
 b. Captured waves
 c. Incident waves
 d. Standing waves
12. Micron is equal to _______ meter.

 a. 10-10
 b. 10-9
 c. 10-6
 d. 10-3
13. 1 Angstrom (A) is equal to _______.

 a. 10-3 micron
 b. 10-10 m
 c. 10-6 micron
 d. 10-6 m
14. Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low radio frequencies?

 a. Because of the size of the waveguide

 b. Due to severe attenuation
 c. Due to too much radiation
 d. All of these
15. ________ is the transmission and reception of information.

 a. Modulation
 b. Communications
 c. Radiation
 d. Emission
16. What is the loss of the circuit in dB if the power ration of output to input is 0.01?

 a. 20
 b. -20
 c. 40
 d. -40
17. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to

 a. Negative terminal
 b. Reference
  c. Ground
 d. Positive terminal
18. The standing wave ratio is equal to _______ if the load is properly matched with the
transmission line.

 a. Infinity
 b. 0
 c. -1
 d. 1
19. ________ is the advantage of the balanced transmission line compared to unbalanced line.

 a. Low attenuation
 b. Easy installation
 c. Low radiation loss
 d. Tensile strength
20. _______ is the method of determining the bandwidth of any processing system.

 a. Fourier series
 b. Spectral analysis
 c. Frequency analysis
 d. Bandwidth analysis
21. What causes the attenuation present in a waveguide?

 a. The air dielectric filling the guide

 b. The coating of silver inside
 c. Losses in the conducting walls of the guide
 d. Radiation loss
22. A device that converts a balanced line to an unbalanced line of a transmission line.

 a. Hybrid
 b. Stub
 c. Directional coupler
 d. Balun
23. What is the approximate line impedance of a parallel-strip line spaced 1 cm apart with the
length of 50 cm?

 a. 10 ohms
 b. 15 ohms
 c. 18 ohms
 d. 23 ohms
24. What is the average power rating of RG-58 C/u?

 a. 25 W
 b. 50 W
 c. 75 W
 d. 200 W
25. A coaxial cable used for high temperatures.

 a. RG-58C
 b. RG-11A
 c. RG-213
 d. RG-211
26. If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how many such
amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60dB?

 a. 2
 b. 3
 c. 4
 d. 5
27. You are measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73
dBm, convert the reading into dBrnCO.

 a. 12
 b. 16
 c. 18
 d. 21
28. The velocity factor for a transmission line

 a. depends on the dielectric constant of the material used

 b. increases the velocity along the transmission line
 c. is governed by the skin effect
 d. is higher for a solid dielectric than for air
29. Impedance inversion can be obtained by

 a. a short-circuited stub
 b. an open-circuited stub
 c. a quarter-wave line
 d. a half-wave line
30. Transmission lines when connected to antennas have

 a. capacitive load
 b. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of the line
 c. resistive load whose resistance is less than the characteristic impedance of the line
 d. resistive load at the resonant frequency
31. One of the following is not a bounded media.

 a. Coaxial line
 b. Two-wire line
 c. Waveguide
 d. Ocean
32. The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length is infinite.

 a. Input impedance
 b. Open circuit impedance
 c. Characteristic impedance
 d. Short circuit impedance
33. The following are considered primary line constants except

 a. conductance
 b. resistance
 c. capacitance
 d. complex propagation constant
34. The dielectric constants of materials commonly used in transmission lines range from about

 a. 1.2 to 2.8
  b. 2.8 to 3.5
 c. 3.5 to 5.2
 d. 1.0 to 1.2
35. Typically, the velocity factor (VF) of the materials used in transmission lines range from

 a. 0.6 to 0.9
 b. 0.1 to 0.5
 c. 1.0 to 0.9
 d. 0.6 to 0.8
36. For an air dielectric two-wire line, the minimum characteristic impedance value is

 a. 85 ohms
 b. 85 ohms
 c. 90 ohms
 d. 88 ohms
37. When a quarter-wave section transmission line is terminated by a short circuit and is
connected to an RF source at the other end, its input impedance is

 a. inductive
 b. capacitive
 c. resistive
 d. equivalent to a parallel resonant LC circuit
38. A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with 4 W output is connected via 10 m of RG-8A/u cable to
an antenna that has an input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the reflection coefficient.

 a. 0.71
 b. 0.77
 c. 0.97
 d. 0.76
39. A quarter wave transformer is connected to a parallel wire line in order to match the line to a
load of 1000 ohms. The transformer has a characteristic impedance of 316.23 ohms. The
distance between centers is 4 inches. What is the percentage reduction in the diameter of the
line?

 a. 85%
 b. 83%
 c. 86%
 d. 90%
40. The concept used to make one Smith chart universal is called

 a. ionization
 b. normalization
 c. rationalization
 d. termination
41. What are the basic elements of communications system?

 a. Source, transmission channel, transmitter

 b. Transmitter, receiver, transmission channel
 c. Information, transmission channel, receiver
 d. Sender and receiver
42. ________ is the transmission of printed material over telephone lines.

 a. Internet
  b. Data communication
 c. Telegraphy
 d. Facsimile
43. ________ is a continuous tone generated by the combination of two frequencies of 350 Hz
and 440 Hz used in telephone sets.

 a. DC tone
 b. Ringing tone
 c. Dial tone
 d. Call waiting tone
44. ________ are unidirectional amplifiers having 20-25 decibel gain that are placed about 75 km
apart used to compensate for losses along the telephone line.

 a. VF repeaters
 b. Loading coils
 c. Loop extenders
 d. Echo suppressors
45. ________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of interfacing the
handset to the local loop.

 a. Resistor
 b. Capacitor
 c. Varistor
 d. Induction coil
46. Pulse dialing has ________ rate.

 a. 20 pulses/min
 b. 10 pulses/min
 c. 10 pulses/sec
 d. 80 pulses/sec
47. ________ is a telephone wire that connects two central offices.

 a. 2-wire circuit
 b. Trunk line
 c. Leased line
 d. Private line
48. The central switching office coordinating element for all cell sites that has cellular processor
and a cellular switch. It interfaces with telephone company zone offices, control call processing
and handle billing activities.

 a. MTSO
 b. Cell site
 c. PTSN
 d. Trunk line
49. ________ in a cellular system performs radio-related functions for cellular site.

 a. Switching system
 b. Base station
 c. Operation and support system
 d. Mobile station
50. A technology used to increase the capacity of a mobile phone system.

 a. Frequency re-use
  b. Cell splitting
 c. TDM
 d. FDM

PART 2 - ACOUSTICS

1. An instrument designed to measure a frequency-weighted value of the sound pressure level.

 a. Sound-level meter
 b. Transducer
 c. Sound pressure meter
 d. Sound analyzer
2. A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise level

 a. Noy
 b. Sone
 c. dB
 d. phone
3. An agreed set of empirical curves relating octave-band osund pressure level to the center
frequency of the octave bands

 a. C-message weighting curves

 b. Psophometric weighting curves
 c. Noise rating curves
 d. F1A weighting curves
4. The frequency of free vibration

 a. Resonant frequency
 b. Natural frequency
 c. Center frequency
 d. Normal frequency
5. The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or
ceilings.

 a. Flanking transmission
 b. Refraction
 c. Reflection
 d. Reverberation
6. A measure of threshold hearing, expressed in decibels relative to a specifoed standard of
normal hearing.

 a. Hearing loss
 b. Sensation level
 c. Hearing level
 d. Sound pressure level
7. A certain machine with a slightly out-of-balance motor rotating at 1800/min is fixed on a
perfectly elastic mount with a static compression of 2.50 mm. Calculate the resonant frequency of
mount.

 a. 10 Hz
 b. 20 Hz
 c. 30 Hz
  d. 40 Hz
8. Calculate the lowest resonant frequency for a brick partition 120 mm thick, 4m by 2min area
with longitudinal wave velocity of 2350 m/s. (Assume that it is supported at its edges.)

 a. 10 Hz
 b. 20 Hz
 c. 30 Hz
 d. 40 Hz
9. Velocity of sound in air.

 a. 300 m/s
 b. 330 m/s
 c. 1130 m/s
 d. 344 m/s
10. What is the expected critical frequency for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume a longitudinal
wave velocity in brick of 2350 m/s and that the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s.

 a. 114.5 Hz
 b. 214.5 Hz
 c. 314.5 Hz
 d. 414.5 Hz
11. The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 dB (re10 -12W).
Find the maximum sound pressure level on the ground directly below the flight path assuming
that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions.

 a. 59.1 dB
 b. 69.1 dB
 c. 79.1 dB
 d. 89.1 dB
12. Speaker is a device that

 a. Converts sound waves into current and voltage

 b. Converts current variations into sound waves
 c. Converts elctrical energy to mechanical energy
 d. Converts elctrical energy to electromagnetic energy
13. Which type of microphone operates on the principle that the electrical resistance of carbon
granules varies as the pressure on the granules vary?

 a. Dynamic
 b. Crystal
 c. Carbon
 d. Ribbon-type
14. Bass response is

 a. Maximum high frequency response

 b. Emphasizing the high audio frequency
 c. Bypassing high audio frequencies
 d. Bypassing low audio frequencies
15. Pure tone of sound used as standard on testing

 a. 1 Hz
 b. 10 Hz
 c. 100 Hz
  d. 1000 Hz
16. ___________ is early reflection of sound.

 a. Echo
 b. Reverberation
 c. Pure sound
 d. Intelligible sound
17. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie.

 a. Dolby
 b. dBa
 c. dBx
 d. dBk
18. What is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit
time?

 a. Loudness
 b. Coherence
 c. Sound pressure
 d. Sound intensity
19. ________ is the unit of loudness level of a sound.

 a. Sone
 b. Decibel
 c. Mel
 d. Phon
20. ____________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction
through a cross-section area of 1 sqm at right angles to the direction.

 a. Sound pressure
 b. Loudness
 c. Sound intensity
 d. Pressure variation
21. What is the unit of pitch?

 a. Sone
 b. Phon
 c. Decibel
 d. Mel
22. A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity.

 a. Phon
 b. Decibel
 c. Pascal
 d. Watts
23. Sound wave has two main characteristics which are

 a. Highness and loudness

 b. Tone and loudness
 c. Pitch and loudness
 d. Rarefraction and compression
24. Which type of microphone operated by electromagnetic induction that generates an output
signal voltage?

 a. Carbon
 b. Dynamic
 c. Crystal
 d. Condenser
25. The exciter lamp in the optical sound part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10 V. How much
power in watts is this light consuming?

 a. 10 watts
 b. 20 watts
 c. 40 watts
 d. 50 watts
26. Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft/s. What frequency has a wavelength of 1 foot, 1.5
inches?

 a. 500 Hz
 b. 1000 Hz
 c. 1500 Hz
 d. 2000 Hz
27. The wire must bring 100 average watts to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must safely carry what rms
current?

 a. 2 A
 b. 4 A
 c. 5 A
 d. 6 A
28. A church has an internal volume of 90.05 ft3 (2550 m3). When it contains customary sabine
sof absorption (186 metric sabines), what will be its reverberation time in seconds.

 a. 2.0
 b. 2.2
 c. 2.5
 d. 3.0
29. If the RMs sound pressure is 5lb/ft2, what is the sound presure level?

 a. 7.6 dB
 b. 108 dB
 c. 88 dB
 d. 10 dB
30. Speed that is faster than speed of sound.

 a. Ultrasonic
 b. Supersonic
 c. Subsonic
 d. Transonic
31. Sound waves travel faster in water at a ______ speed.

 a. 12.4 miles/sec
 b. 5000 ft/sec
 c. 186,000 ft/sec
 d. 3141 ft/sec
32. What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5 m is 87 dB
assuming that it radiates sound unifomly?

 a. 0.15 W
 b. 0.21 W
 c. 0.24 W
 d. 0.18 W
33. Crest-to-crest distance along the direction to wave travel.

 a. Compression
 b. Wavelength
 c. Period
 d. Sound wave
34. Sound intensity level is _________.

 a. 10 log I/Iref
 b. 10 log P/Pref
 c. 20 log I/Iref
 d. 30 log P/Pref
35. Sound pressure level is _________.

 a. 20 log P/ Pref
 b. 30 log P/ Pref
 c. 10 log P/ Pref
 d. 20 log I/Iref
36. The most important specification of loudspeakers and microphones.

 a. Frequency response
 b. Field strength
 c. Power density
 d. Gain
37. Lowest fequency produced by a musical instrument.

 a. Midrange
 b. Harmonic
 c. Reflection
 d. Refraction
38. Tendency of a sound energy to spread.

 a. Diffraction
 b. Rarefraction
 c. Reflection
 d. Refraction
39. When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called _________.

 a. Reflection
 b. Diffraction
 c. Rarefraction
 d. Refraction
40. Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB.

 a. Echo time
  b. Delay time
 c. Reverberation time
 d. Transient time
41. The intensity needed to produce an audible sound varies with __________.

 a. Frequency
 b. Noise
 c. Amplitude
 d. Tone
42. Sound that vibrates too high for the human ear to hear (over 20 kHz).

 a. Subsonic
 b. Transonic
 c. Ultrasonic
 d. Stereo
43. Which microphone will be damaged if exposed to high temperature above 52°C?

 a. Dynamic
 b. Crystal
 c. Ribbon
 d. Capacitor
44. A thin springy sheet of bakelite or metal that permits the voice coil in a dynamic loudspeaker
to move back and forth salong the core of its magnet.

 a. Vibrator
 b. Diaphragm
 c. Hypex
 d. Spider
45. One hundred twenty µbars of pressure variation is equal to

 a. 120 dB SPL
 b. 57.78 dB SPL
 c. 115.56 dB SPL
 d. 41.58 dB SPL
46. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Find the
absorption effect of the materials used in metric sabines.

 a. 35.3
 b. 10.96
 c. 379.8
 d. 109.6
47. What is the microphone characteristic that results in a boost in bass frequencies for close
microphone spacing?

 a. Field effect
 b. P.A. effect
 c. Proximity effect
 d. Reverberation
48. What is the audio frequency range?

 a. 20 kHz to 20 MHz
 b. 0 Hz to 20 kHz
  c. 300 Hz to 400 Hz
 d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
49. What is the bass frequency range?

 a. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz
 b. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz
 c. 40 kHz to 160 kHz
 d. 10 Hz to 20 kHz
50. High frequency range of audio signals.

 a. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz
 b. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz
 c. 10 kHz to 20 kHz
 d. 20000 Hz to 30 kHz

PART 3 - MODULATION

1. ______ is the maximum sideband suppression value using filter system.

 A. 50 dB
 B. 60 dB
 C. 40 dB
 D. 30 dB
2. _______ determines the number of sideband components in FM.

 A. carrier frequency
 B. modulation frequency
 C. modulation index
 D. deviation ratio
3. One of the following transmits only one sideband.

 A. H3E
 B. R3E
 C. A3E
 D. B8E
4. What produces the sidebands on FM?

 A. signal amplitude
 B. carrier harmonics
 C. baseband frequency
 D. broadband frequency
5. Which test instrument displays the carrier and the sidebands amplitude with frequency to
frequency?

 A. oscilloscope
 B. spectrum analyzer
 C. frequency analyzer
 D. amplitude analyzer
6. Mixer is also known as a ________.

 A. modulator
 B. suppressor
  C. converter
 D. beater
7. Which one of the following emission transmits the lower sideband and half of the upper
sideband?

 A. A5C
 B. J3E
 C. A3J
 D. A3H
8. An FM receives signal ______.

 A. vary in amplitude with modulation

 B. vary in frequency with modulation
 C. vary in frequency and amplitude with wideband modulation
 D. is not immune to noise
9. The process of impressing intelligence on the carrier is called

 A. modulation
 B. detection
 C. mixing
 D. impression
10. ______ is an electronic instrument used to show both the carrier and the sidebands of a
modulated signal in the frequency domain.

 A. spectrum analyzer
 B. oscilloscope
 C. digital counter
 D. frequency counter
11. What part of the carrier is varied by the intelligence during modulation in an AM system?

 A. phase
 B. frequency
 C. amplitude
 D. both a and c
12. The difference between the RF carrier and the modulating signal frequencies is called the

 A. USB
 B. LSB
 C. Sideband
 D. Carrier frequency
13. What stage in a radio transmitter isolates the oscillator from the load?

 A. Oscillator
 B. Buffer
 C. Separator
 D. Mixer
14. The frequency of the unmodulated carrier in FM system is

 A. modulating frequency
 B. center frequency
 C. carrier frequency
 D. deviation frequency
15. The ratio of maximum deviation to the maximum modulating frequency is called

 A. carrier swing
 B. deviation ratio
 C. modulation factor
 D. modulation index
16. A carrier signal has

 A. constant amplitude
 B. a frequency of 20 kHz and above
 C. a varying amplitude
 D. the information content
17. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125 V and the unmodulated carrier value is 85 V.
What is the modulation index?

 A. 0.47
 B. 0.68
 C. 0.32
 D. 1.47
18. An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude of 80 V is modulated by a 4.5 kHz audio signal
having an amplitude of 45 V. The modulation factor is

 A. 0.56
 B. 0.65
 C. 1.78
 D. 1.25
19. What is the modulation index of an FM signal having a carrier swing of 75 kHz when the
modulating signal has frequency of 3 kHz?

 A. 25
 B. 12.5
 C. 0.04
 D. 0.08
20. In a FM system, if modulation index is doubled by having the modulating frequency, what will
be the effect on the maximum deviation?

 A. No effect
 B. Maximum deviation doubles
 C. Decreases by ½
 D. Increases by ¼
21. Which of the following is considered as an indirect method of generating FM?

 A. Reactance modulator
 B. Balanced modulator
 C. Varactor diode modulator
 D. Armstrong system
22. To generate an SSB or DSB signal one must use a circuit known as

 A. filter modulator
 B. ring modulator
 C. balanced modulator
 D. reactance modulator
23. Which is the first radio receiver?

 A. TRF receiver
 B. Superheterodyne receiver
 C. Crystal radio receiver
 D. Heterodyne receiver
24. An interfering signal with a frequency equal to the received signal plus twice the IF is called

 A. image frequency
 B. center frequency
 C. rest frequency
 D. interference frequency
25. Double sideband full carrier emission type

 A. A3J
 B. H3E
 C. R3A
 D. A3E
26. Single sideband reduced carrier emission type

 A. H3E
 B. R3E
 C. J3E
 D. B8E
27. A single sideband suppressed carrier emission type.

 A. H3e
 B. R3E
 C. J3E
 D. B8E
28. Independent sideband emission type

 A. H3E
 B. R3E
 C. J3E
 D. B8E
29. Vestigial sideband emission type

 A. C3F
 B. J3E
 C. R3E
 D. B8E
30. Single sideband full carrier emission type.

 A. R3E
 B. H3E
 C. J3E
 D. B8E
31. Phase modulation emission type.

 A. F3E
 B. F3C
  C. F3F
 D. G3E
32. Which one is not an advantage of SSB over AM?

 A. Power saving
 B. Requires half the bandwidth
 C. Wider area of reception
 D. Better fidelity
33. The advantage of a high level modulated AM transmitter is

 A. Less audio power required

 B. Better fidelity
 C. Higher value of operating power
 D. Less distortion
34. The advantage of a low-level modulated AM transmitter is

 A. Less audio power required

 B. Better fidelity
 C. Higher value of operating power
 D. Less distortion
35. _____ is the bad effect caused by overmodulation in AM transmission.

 A. Increase in noise
 B. Deviation in the operating frequency
 C. Interface to other radio services
 D. Decrease in the output power
36. Which characteristic of a radio receiver refers to its ability to reject an unwanted signal?

 A. Sensitivity
 B. Selectivity
 C. Fidelity
 D. Quality
37. What type of emission is frequency modulation?

 A. F3E
 B. G3E
 C. A3E
 D. B3E
38. AM transmission power increases with ________.

 A. Frequency
 B. Source
 C. Load
 D. Modulation
39. _______ locks the FM receiver to a stronger signal.

 A. Hall effect
 B. Capture effect
 C. Image frequency
 D. Homing
40. What is the highest percentage of modulation for AM?
  A. 50 %
 B. 75 %
 C. 100 %
 D. 80 %
41. In FM, the Carson’s Rule states that the bandwidth is equal to twice the sum of the
modulating frequency and ______.

 A. Carrier signal
 B. Modulating signal
 C. Frequency deviation
 D. Image frequency
42. What is the carrier swing of an FM transmitter when modified by 75%?

 A. 53.2 kHz
 B. 48 kHz
 C. 56.25 kHz
 D. 112.5 kHz
43. The modulation system inherently more resistant to noise

 A. Single sideband suppressed carrier

 B. Frequency modulation
 C. Pulse-position modulation
 D. Amplitude shift keying
44. Subcarriers that are arranged so that the channels occupying adjacent frequency bands with
some frequency space between them is known as

 A. Guard bands
 B. AM bands
 C. Band gap
 D. Void band
45. Modulation of an RF amplifier carrier results in

 A. Multiple channels
 B. Smaller antennas
 C. Directional propagation
 D. All of the above
46. A process which occurs in the transmitter

 A. Mixing
 B. Modulation
 C. Heterodyning
 D. Demodulation
47. A process which occurs in the receiver

 A. Beating
 B. Modulation
 C. Mixing
 D. Demodulation
48. One part of the transmitter that protects the crystal oscillator from “pulling”.

 A. Buffer amplifier
 B. Modulator
  C. Power amplifier
 D. Antenna coupler
49. What aspect of the carrier is changed by modulation?

 A. Frequency
 B. Phase
 C. Amplitude
 D. Depends on the type of modulation
50. The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a musical program will

 A. Be complex
 B. Contain fundamental frequencies
 C. Contain harmonic frequencies
 D. All of the above

PART 4 - NOISE

1. What is the non-continuous noise of irregular pulses or spikes of duration with high
amplitudes?

 A. Wander
 B. Jitter
 C. Hits
 D. Singing
2. What theorem sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level?

 A. Nyquist theorem
 B. Hartley law
 C. Shannon-Hartley theorem
 D. Shannon theorem
3. Quantizing noise occurs in

 A. PCM
 B. PLM
 C. PDM
 D. PAM
4. Noise always affects the signal in a communications systems at the ________.

 A. transmitter
 B. channel
 C. information source
 D. destination
5. _________ is the random and unpredictable electric signals from natural causes, both internal
and external to the system.

 A. Interference
 B. Attenuation
 C. Distortion
 D. Noise
6. Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal energy per cycle over a specified
total frequency band.
  A. Gaussian noise
 B. Whiter noise
 C. Thermal noise
 D. All of the above
7. Which causes a quantization noise in PCM system?

 A. Serial transmission errors

 B. The approximation of the quantized signal
 C. The synchronization between encoder and decoder
 D. Binary coding techniques
8. A particular circuit that rids FM of noise

 A. Detector
 B. Discriminator
 C. Phase Shifter
 D. Limiter
9. What is the reference noise temperature in degrees Celsius?

 A. 17
 B. 273
 C. 25
 D. 30
10. Unwanted radio signal on assigned frequency.

 A. Splatter
 B. RFI
 C. Noise
 D. EMI
11. What is the reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise characteristics?

 A. Thermal agitation noise

 B. Noise factor
 C. Noise margin
 D. Signal-to-noise
12. _________ is measured on a circuit when it is correctly terminated but does not have any
traffic.

 A. White noise
 B. Galactic noise
 C. Impulse noise
 D. Atmospheric noise
13. Which standard recommends crosstalk limits?

 A. CCIT G.152
 B. CCIT G.150
 C. CCIT G.151
 D. CCIT G.161
14. Which standard is utilized in intermodulation noise rates on PCM audio channels?

 A. CCIT Rec. G.151

 B. CCIT Rec. G.172
  C. CCIT Rec. G.190
 D. CCIT Rec. G.190
15. What is the reference frequency of CCIT phosphomeric noise measurement?

 A. 800 Hz
 B. 1000 Hz
 C. 1500 Hz
 D. 3400 Hz
16. Reference temperature use in noise analysis

 A. 75 K
 B. 250 K
 C. 290 K
 D. 300 K
17. Which noise is produced by lighting discharges in thunderstorms?

 A. White noise
 B. Extraterrestrial noise
 C. Industrial noise
 D. Atmospheric noise
18. Man-made noise is usually from _______.

 A. transmission over power lines and by ground wave

 B. sky-wave
 C. space-wave
 D. troposphere
19. nif stands for

 A. Non-intrinsic figure
 B. Noise improvement factor
 C. Narrow intermediate frequency
 D. Noise interference figure
20. Industrial noise frequency is between _____.

 A. 0 to 10 KHz
 B. 160 MHz to 200 MHz
 C. 15 to 160 MHz
 D. 200 to 3000 MHz
21. External noise fields are measured in terms of _______.

 A. rms values
 B. dc values
 C. average values
 D. peak values
22. Form of interference caused by rain or dust storms.

 A. Precipitation static
 B. Shot-noise
 C. Galactic noise
 D. Impulse noise
23. At 17˚ C, the noise voltage generated by 5kΩ resistor, operating over a bandwidth of 20KHz
is
  A. 1.3 nV
 B. 1.3 µV
 C. 1.3 pV
 D. 1.3 mV
24. ________ is an electric noise produced by thermal agitation of electrons in conductor and
semiconductor.

 A. External noise
 B. Internal noise
 C. Thermal noise
 D. Flicker
25. Three identical circuits having 10 dB signal noise-to-noise ratio each are connected in tandem
with each other, what is the overall S/N?

 A. 5.23 dB
 B. 14.77dB
 C. 30 dB
 D. 40 dB
26. The noise figure of the first circuit in tandem connection is 10.5 dB while its power gain is 15,
what is the over all noise figure if the second circuit has a noise figure of 11 dB?

 A. 11.59 dB
 B. 11.23 dB
 C. 10.79 dB
 D. 10.5 dB
27. Is the interference coming from other communications channels?

 A. Jitter
 B. Crosstalk
 C. RFI
 D. EMI
28. What is the reference noise level?

 A. 10 pW
 B. 0 dBm
 C. 1mW
 D. -90 dBm
29. What is the unit of noise power of psophometer?

 A. pWp
 B. dBa
 C. dBm
 D. dBrn
30. A large emission of hydrogen from the sun that affects communications.

 A. Solar flare
 B. Cosmic disturbance
 C. Ballistic disturbance
 D. Solar noise
31. Atmospheric noise is known as _______noise.

 A. static
  B. cosmic
 C. solar
 D. lunar
32. Standard design reference for environmental noise temperature.

 A. 300 K
 B. 290 K
 C. 32 ˚F
 D. 212˚F
33. Absolute temperature in Kelvin.

 A. ˚C + 273
 B. ˚C + 75
 C. ˚C + 19
 D. ˚C + 290
34. If bandwidth is doubled, the signal power is _________.

 A. not changed
 B. quadrupled
 C. tripled
 D. doubled
35. Name one or more sources of noise bearing on electronic communications.

 A. Steam boiler
 B. Galaxies
 C. Internal combustion engine
 D. Both B and C
36. The transmitter technique adopted to reduce the noise effect of the preceding question is
called

 A. noise masking
 B. anitnoise
 C. noise killing
 D. preemphasis
37. Deemphasis in the receiver in effect attenuates modulating signal components and noise in
what frequency range?

 A. dc
 B. low
 C. intermediate
 D. high
38. Atmospheric noise or static is not a great problem

 A. at frequencies below 20 MHz

 B. at frequencies below 5 MHz
 C. at frequencies above 30 MHz
 D. at frequencies above 1 MHz
39. What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile station?

 A. Apply shielding and filtering where necessary

 B. Insulate a all plain sheet metal surfaces from each other
 C. Apply anti-static spray liberally to all nonmetallic
  D. Install filter capacitors in series with all dc wiring
40. Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a VHF
(150MHz) marine-band receiver?

 A. Man-made noise
 B. In the atmosphere
 C. In the receiver front end
 D. In the ionosphere
41. The difference between signal strength at a given point and a reference level is________.

 A. power
 B. dBm
 C. level
 D. ratio
42. Interfering effect of noise, C message weighted, is _________.

 A. dBa
 B. dBm
 C. dBmc
 D. dB
43. F1A weighting refers to ___________.

 A. -90 dBm
 B. dBrnc0
 C. dBrnc
 D. F1A handset
44. Reading a 58 dBrnC on your Western Electric 3A test set at a +7 test point is equal to ______
dBrnc0.

 A. 58
 B. 51
 C. 65
 D. 27
45. Reading a 58 dBrn, at a +7 test point is equal to ________ dBa0.

 A. 26
 B. 65
 C. 51
 D. 46
46. A reading of -50 dBm on the disturbing pair, and -80 on the disturbed pair equals _____ dB of
crosstalk coupling.

 A. 20
 B. 30
 C. 60
 D. 25
47. Power is __________.

 A. actual amount of power reference to 1mW

 B. logarithmic ratio of two powers
 C. definite amount of energy per time period
 D. current flow per time period
48. 15 dBa F1A weighted, equals ___________.

 A. -90 dBm
 B. -82 dBm
 C. -85 dBm
 D. -70 dBm
49. You are measuring noise in a voice channel with a Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting network and
a flat meter. Your meter reads -47dBm. What is this reading in dBa?

 A. 77 dBa
 B. 35 dBa
 C. 38 dBa
 D. 32 dBa
50. You are measuring noise at a +3 dB level point, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting
network, and a flat meter. The meter reading is -57dBm. This is ________dBa0.

 A. 20
 B. 15
 C. 25
 D. 17

PART 5 - RADIATION AND WAVE PROPAGATION

1. ________ is the amount of voltage induced in wave by an electro magnetic wave.

 a. receive voltage
 b. magnetic induction
 c. field strength
 d. power density
2. An electro magnetic wave consists of ___________.

 a. both electric and magnetic fields.

 b. an electric field only
 c. a magnetic field only
 d. non-magnetic field only
3. What is the lowest layer of the ionosphere?

 a. F1
 b. F2
 c. E
 d. D
4. Who propounded electro magnetic radiation theory?

 a. Sir Edward Appleton

 b. James Clerk Maxwell
 c. Christian Huygens
 d. Sir Isaac Newton
5. The D, E and F layers are known as ____________.

 a. Mark – space Layers

 b. Davinson- Miller Layers
 c. Kennely – Heaviside Layers
  d. Appleton Layers
6. Different grouping of the electromagnetic spectrum.

 a. band
 b. bandwidth
 c. channel
 d. group
7. What is the relation in degrees of the electric and magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave?

 a. 180 degrees
 b. 90 degrees
 c. 270 degrees
 d. 45 degrees
8. A changing electric field gives rise to ________.

 a. a magnetic field
 b. sound field
 c. electromagnetic waves
 d. near and far fields
9. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by means of

 a. ground waves
 b. sky waves
 c. surface waves
 d. space waves
10. In electromagnetic waves, polarization __________.

 a. is caused by reflection
 b. is due to the transverse nature of the waves
 c. results from the longitudinal nature of the waves
 d. is always vertical in an isotropic medium
11. Electromagnetic Waves are refracted when they ___________.

 a. pass into a medium of different dielectric constants

 b. are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation
 c. encounter a perfectly conducting surface
 d. pass through a small slot in a conducting plane
12. What is the highest layer of the atmosphere?

 a. ionosphere
 b. stratosphere
 c. troposphere
 d. ozone layer
13. What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere?

 a. F2
 b. F1
 c. D
 d. E
14. Effective Earth radius to true earth radius ratio.

 a. index of refraction
  b. K factor
 c. Fresnel zone
 d. path profile
15. Fading due to interference between direct and reflected rays.

 a. atmospheric-multipath
 b. Fresnel zone
 c. reflection-multipath
 d. Rayleigh fading
16. The layer that reflects very low frequency waves and absorbs medium frequency waves.

 a. D Layer
 b. E Layer
 c. F1 Layer
 d. F2 Layer
17. What layer is used for high-frequency day time propagation?

 a. D Layer
 b. E Layer
 c. F1 Layer
 d. F2 Layer
18. What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be returned to earth?

 a. MUF
 b. skip frequency
 c. critical frequency
 d. gyro frequency
19. High frequency range is from?

 a. 0.3 to 3MHz
 b. 3 to 30MHz
 c. 30 to 300MHz
 d. 3to 30MHz
20. Medium frequency range is from

 a. 0.01 to 0.03 MHz

 b. 0.03 to 0.3MHz
 c. 0.3 to 3MHz
 d. 3 to 30 MHz
21. In tropospheric scatter propagation, the attenuation is dependent on

 a. scatter angle
 b. take-off angle
 c. antenna size
 d. the troposphere
22. If the transmitter power remains constant, an increase in the frequency of the sky wave will

 a. lengthen the skip distance

 b. increase the range of the ground wave
 c. reduce the length of the skip distance
 d. have no effect on the ground wave range
23. What is the unit of electric field strength?

 a. volts per square meter

 b. volt per square cm
 c. volts per meter
 d. millivolt per watt
24. Velocity of a radio wave in free space.

 a. 186,000 miles per sec

 b. 300x106 meters per sec
 c. 162,000 nautical mile per sec
 d. all of the above
25. Refers to the direction of the electric field vector in space.

 a. polarization
 b. directivity
 c. radiation
 d. ERP
26. An TEM wave whose polarization rotates.

 a. vertically polarized
 b. omnidirectional
 c. horizontally polarized
 d. circularly polarized
27. velocity of light in free space

 a. 300x106 m/s
 b. 300x106 km/s
 c. 186,000 km/s
 d. 186,000 m/s
28. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 200W transmitter power output, 4dB
feed line loss, 4dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10dB feed line antenna gain?

 a. 2000 W
 b. 126 W
 c. 317 W
 d. 260 W
29. Radio wave that is far from its sources is called

 a. Plane wave
 b. isotropic wave
 c. vertical wave
 d. horizontal wave
30. Light goes from medium A to medium B at angle of incidence of 40 degrees. The angle of
refraction is 30 degrees. The speed of light in B

 a. is the same as that in A

 b. is greater than that in A
 c. maybe any of these, depending on the specific medium
 d. is less than that in A
31. In a vacuum, the speed of an electromagnetic wave

 a. depends on its constant

  b. depends on its wavelength
 c. depends on its electric and magnetic fields
 d. is a universal constant
32. The depth of an object submerged in a transparent liquid

 a. always seems more that its actual depth

 b may seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the object
 c. always seems less than its actual depth
 d. may seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the transparent liquid
33. What is a wave front?

 a. a voltage pulse in a conductor

 b. a current in a conductor
 c. a fixed point in an electromagnetic wave
 d. a voltage pulse across a resistor
34. VHF ship station transmitters must have the capability of reducing carrier power to

 a. 1 W
 b. 10 W
 c. 25 W
 d. 50 W
35. Most of the effects an electro magnetic wave produces when it interacts with matter are due
to its

 a. magnetic field
 b. speed
 c. frequency
 d. electric field
36. A mobile receiver experiences “dead” areas of reception as a result of

 a. atmospheric absorption
 b. tropospheric scatter
 c. sporadic E
 d. shading of the RF signal by hills and trees
37. When the electric field is perpendicular in the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of
the TEM wave?

 a. elliptical
 b. vertical
 c. horizontal
 d. circular
38. When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization
of the TEM wave?

 a. circular
 b. horizontal
 c. vertical
 d. elliptical
39. When the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the
TEM wave?

 a. elliptical
  b. horizontal
 c. vertical
 d. circular
40. What are the two interrelated fields considered to make up an electromagnetic wave

 a. an electric field and a current field

 b. an electric field and voltage field
 c. an electric field and a magnetic field
 d. a voltage and current fields
41. How does the bandwidth of the transmitted signal affect selective fading?

 a. it is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths

 b. it is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths
 c. it is more pronounced at wide bandwidths
 d. the receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading
42. A wide-bandwidth communications systems in which the RF carrier varies according to some
predetermined sequence.

 a. amplitude compandored single sideband

 b. SITOR
 c. spread spectrum communication
 d. time-domain frequency modulation
43. A changing magnetic field gives rise to

 a. sound field
 b. magnetic field
 c. electric field
 d. nothing in particular
44. When a space-wave signal passes over a mountain ridge, a small part of the signal is
diffracted down the far side of the mountain. This phenomenon is called

 a. discontinuity scattering
 b. troposheric ducting
 c. knife-edge diffraction
 d. space-wave refraction
45. The index of refraction of a material medium

 a. is greater than 1
 b. is less than 1
 c. is equal to 1
 d. maybe any of the above
46. At what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space?

 a. approximately 468 million meters per second

 b. approximately 186300 ft/s
 c. approximately 300 million m/s
 d. approximately 300 million miles/s
47. What is the effective earth radius when surface refractivity, and N equals 300?

 a. 6370 km
 b.7270 km
 c.7950 km
  d. 8500 km
48. If N = 250, what is the earth radius K-factor?

 a. 1.23
 b. 1.29
 c. 1.33
 d. 1.32
49. Electric field that lies in a plane perpendicular to the earths surface

 a. vertical polarization
 b. horizontal polarization
 c. circular polarization
 d. elliptical polarization
50. Electric field that lies in a plane parallel to the earth’s surface

 a. vertical polarization
 b. horizontal polarization
 c. circular polarization
 d. elliptical polarization

PART 6 - ANTENNAS

1. What is the polarization of a discone antenna?

 A. Vertical
 B. Horizontal
 C. Circular
 D. Spiral
2. If the antenna increases 3.3 times how much does the radiated power increase?

 A. 3.3 times
 B. 10.89 times
 C. 9.9 times
 D. 6.6 times
3. When speaking of antennas. ______ is a section which would be a complete antenna by itself.

 A. image
 B. top loading
 C. bay
 D. quarterwave
4. In what range of frequencies are most omnidirectional horizontally polarized antennas used?

 A. VHF, UHF
 B. VLF, LF
 C. SH, EHF
 D. MF, HF
5. If the current ratios of the two or more elements must be held 5% and the phase angle to 3°
the antenna is called a

 A. end fire array

 B. critical phased array
 C. broadband array
  D. wideband array
6. A device that converts high frequency current into electromagnetic wave.

 A. Antenna
 B. Loudspeaker
 C. Microphone
 D. Transducer
7. Which is a non-resonant antenna?

 A. Rhombic antenna
 B. Folded dipole
 C. End-fire array
 D. Yagi-Uda antenna
8. Gain of a half-wave dipole antenna over isotropic.

 A. 2.15 dB
 B. 1.76 dB
 C. 1 dB
 D. 0dB
9. Very low signal strength in antenna.

 A. Minor lobes
 B. Null
 C. Antenna patterns
 D. Major lobes
10. What is the gain of the Hertzian dipole over isotropic antenna?

 A. 1.64 dB
 B. 2.15 dB
 C. 1.76 dB
 D. 1.55 dB
11. ______ is the measurement of a unilateral antenna properties of directivity

 A. Phase angle
 B. Antenna gain
 C. Beamwidth
 D. Bandwidth
12. In testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type of antenna must be
used?

 A. Void antenna
 B. Dummy antenna
 C. Hertzian antenna
 D. Isotropic antenna
13. The best solution to fading is _____.

 A. space diversity
 B. frequency diversity
 C. polarization diversity
 D. wavelength diversity
14. _____ is the amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols
  A. Bandwidth
 B. Enthalpy
 C. Entropy
 D. Quantum
15. If an antenna has a gain of 3 dB, it increases the output of the transmitter by

 A. 10,000 times
 B. 1000 times
 C. 100 times
 D. 1 million times
16. Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its ______.

 A. practical height
 B. beamwidth
 C. effective height
 D. input capacitance
17. A horizontal antenna is _____.

 A. vertically polarized
 B. horizontally polarized
 C. centrally polarized
 D. circularly polarized
18. All elements in a beam _____ antennas are in line

 A. collinear
 B. yagi
 C. broadside array
 D. log-periodic
19. Which does not use vertical polarization antenna?

 A. AM Broadcasting
 B. FM Broadcasting
 C. Mobile Communications
 D. Satellite Communications
20. Lightning rods must be mounted a top structure not less than ___ above the highest point.

 A. 10 cm
 B. 20 cm
 C. 30 cm
 D. 40 cm
21. _____ is an antenna with a number of half-wave antenna on it.

 A. Antenna array
 B. Tower
 C. Omni-directional
 D. Rhombic
22. Which antenna radiates an omnidirectional pattern in the horizontal plane with vertical
polarization?

 A. Marconi antenna
 B. Discone antenna
  C. Horn antenna
 D. Helical antenna
23. An antenna with very high gain and very narrow beamwidth.

 A. Helical antenna
 B. Discone antenna
 C. Horn antenna
 D. Parabolic dish antenna
24. What determines antenna polarization?

 A. The frequency of the radiated wave

 B. The direction of the radiated wave
 C. The direction of the magnetic field vector
 D. The direction of the electric field vector
25. _____ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna

 A. Azimuth
 B. Angle of elevation
 C. Right angle
 D. Beamwidth
26. A dipole antenna requires to be fed with 20 kW of power to produce a given signal strength to
a particular distant point. If the addition of a reflector makes the same field strength available with
an input power of 11kW. What is the gain in dB, obtained by the use if the reflector. (Gain referred
to this particular dipole).

 A. 4.75
 B. 2.6
 C. 1.81
 D. 4.24
27. What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna tower design?

 A. 300 kph
 B. 100 kph
 C. 200 kph
 D. 250 kph
28. Discone radiation pattern is ______.

 A. omnidirectional/vertical polarized
 B. unidirectional
 C. bidirectional
 D. figure of eight
29. _____ is an open-ended slot antenna

 A. Helical antenna
 B. Rhombic antenna
 C. Notch antenna
 D. Cassegrain antenna
30. Which antenna is a properly terminated?

 A. Marconi
 B. Rhombic
 C. Dipole
  D. Yagi-Uda
31. What is the radiation characteristic of a dipole antenna?

 A. Omnidirectional
 B. Bidirectional
 C. Unidirectional
 D. Hemispherical
32. What is the theoretical gain of a Hertzian dipole?

 A. 1.76 dB
 B. 2.15 dB
 C. 3 dB
 D. 0 dB
33. An antenna with unity gain

 A. Rhombic
 B. Half-wave dipole
 C. Isotropic
 D. Whip
34. How will you increase the gain of an antenna?

 A. By adding several antennas in parallel

 B. By focusing the radiated energy in one desired direction
 C. By making antenna rods thicker
 D. By making the antenna size larger
35. An antenna which is one-tenth wavelength long

 A. Hertzian dipole
 B. Loop antenna
 C. Marconi antenna
 D. Elementary doublet
36. What is the minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have?

 A. 3
 B. 5
 C. 4
 D. 6
37. What is the gain of isotropic antenna?

 A. 10
 B. 1
 C. 10
 D. 100
38. Which of the following improves antenna directivity?

 A. Driven element
 B. Reflector element
 C. Director element
 D. Parasitic element
39. The antenna radiates _____ polarized waves when the transmitter antenna is horizontally
installed.
  A. Vertically
 B. negatively
 C. horizontally
 D. circularly
40. The length of a Marconi antenna to operate with 985 kHz is ______.

 A. 200 ft
 B. 500 ft
 C. 250 ft
 D. 999 ft
41. What is the front-to-back ratio of an antenna which radiates 500 watts in a northernly direction
and 50 watts in a southernly direction?

 A. 25000 dB
 B. 10 dB
 C. 100 dB
 D. 20 dB
42. If 4 kW in antenna produces 50 μV/m in a receiving antenna, a 15 kW will produce _____.

 A. 200 μV/m
 B. 10 μV/m
 C. 100 μV/m
 D. 20 μV/m
43. If the radiated power increase 10.89 times, the antenna current increases by ______.

 A. 3.3 times
 B. 6.6 times
 C. 1.82 times
 D. 10.89 times
44. The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to a length of 3.4 m.

 A. 88 MHz
 B. 44 MHz
 C. 22 MHz
 D. 11 MHz
45. Comparing the signal strength arriving at the driven element from the desired direction to the
signal strength reaching the driver from the opposite direction.

 A. Directivity
 B. Sensitivity
 C. Beamwidth
 D. Front-to-back ratio
46. What is the capture area of a dipole operated at 75 MHz?

 A. 4 mm
 B. 2 m2
 C. 2.088 m2
 D. 4.088 m2
47. _____ of an antenna is a measure of how the antenna concentrates its radiated power in a
given direction.

 A. Efficiency
  B. Power
 C. Gain
 D. Polarization
48. Shortening effect of an antenna that makes it appear as if it were 5% longer.

 A. End effect
 B. Flywheel effect
 C. Skin effect
 D. Capture effect
49. Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna.

 A. Low-pass filter
 B. High-pass filter
 C. M-derived filter
 D. Constant-K
50. A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the strongest signal

 A. at 45 degrees to its axis

 B. parallel to its axis
 C. at right angles to its axis
 D. at 60 degrees to its axis

PART 7 - WIRE AND WIRELESS COMMUNICATIONS

1. Typical speech power

 A. 10 to 1000 µW
 B. 100 to 1000 mW
 C. 10 to 1000 nW
 D. 100 to 1000 pW
2. The maximum intelligibility for voice frequency is located between

 A. 250 and 500 Hz

 B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
 C. 500 and 1000 Hz
 D. 3000 and 5000 Hz
3. The maximum voice energy is located between

 A. 250 and 500 Hz

 B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
 C. 500 and 1000 Hz
 D. 3000 and 5000 Hz
4. A device used to measure speech volume.

 A. speech meter
 B. volume meter
 C. volume unit meter
 D. speedometer
5. By definition, for a sine wave

 A. 0 dBm = 0 V.U.
 B. 0 dBW = 0 V.U.
  C. 0 dBa = 0 V.U.
 D. 0 dBf = 0 V.U.
6. Presently, this is the “standard” frequency bandwidth for voice transmission.

 A. 0 to 4000 Hz
 B. 100 to 3400 Hz
 C. 300 to 3400 Hz
 D. 300 to 3000 Hz
7. Which of the following is commonly used wire for subscriber loop design?

 A. AWG # 19
 B. AWG # 18
 C. AWG # 30
 D. AWG # 33
8. The resistance limit for No. 2 Crossbar Exchange (US) is

 A. 1300 Ω
 B. 2000 Ω
 C. 1250 Ω
 D. 1200 Ω
9. AWG # 26 has a typical loss of

 A. 0.21 dB/1000 ft.

 B. 0.32 dB/1000 ft.
 C. 0.41 dB/1000 ft.
 D. 0.51 dB/1000 ft.
10. What is the standard voice channel spacing?

 A. 44 MHz
 B. 40 kHz
 C. 4 kHz
 D. 40 MHz
11. Which tester is used to measure SWR?

 A. Multimeter
 B. Oscilloscope
 C. Spectrum analyzer
 D. Reflectometer
12. What is singing?

 A. The result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies to produce a

tone having a frequency equal to the sum of the frequencies of the signals intermodulated.
 B. The result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies to produce a
tone having a frequency higher than that of the signal having the highest frequency.
 C. An undesired self-sustained oscillation in a system, generally caused by excessive
positive feedback.
 D. An art or form of entertainment that can make one rich.
13. Which stage increases the selectivity of the circuit in an AM receiver?

 A. Detector
 B. IF stage
 C. Modulator
  D. Mixer
14. The ________ of radio receiver amplify weak signal and produce a desirable intelligence at
the output speaker.

 A. sensitivity
 B. selectivity
 C. reliability
 D. fidelity
15. Full-duplex transmission means

 A. One-way transmission
 B. 24-hour transmission
 C. Broadcast transmission
 D. Two-way simultaneous transmission
16. What is a multidrop line?

 A. A piece of wire with a thick insulating material that serves to protect the conductive
materials from damage in the event the wire is dropped.
 B. A line designed to withstand high pressure.
 C. A line or circuit interconnecting several situations.
 D. A bus line
17. A passive _________ is an electronic device which reduces signal strength by a specified
amount in dB.

 A. Splitter
 B. Filter
 C. Trimmer
 D. Attenuator
18. The signal quality of the calls is constantly monitored by the base station, when the quality of
the calls drops below a certain specified level. The base request the MTSO to try and find a better
cell site.

 A. Hand-off
 B. Cell splitting
 C. Roaming
 D. Frequency reuse
19. A digital identification associated with a cellular system.

 A. SAT
 B. SID
 C. ESN
 D. MIN
20. How many seconds does facsimile transmit a stranded page?

 A. 5
 B. 10
 C. 20
 D. 25
21. A kind of recording used in facsimile.

 A. Electrolytic recording
 B. Electrothermal recording
 C. Electropercussive recording
  D. Electrostatic recording
22. A type of distortion a facsimile produce when it becomes out of synchronization?

 A. Pincushion
 B. Barrel
 C. Skewing
 D. Fattening
23. What is an acoustic coupler?

 A. A device that radiates audible signals via a transmitting antenna

 B. A device that converts electric signals into audio signals, enabling data to be
transmitted over the public telephone network via a conventional telephone handset
 C. A device that receives audible signals and retransmits them at VHF frequencies
 D. A transducer
24. Cause a herringbone pattern in facsimile

 A. Single-frequency interference
 B. Crosstalk
 C. Phase jitter
 D. Noise
25. The _______ in an FM receiver causes a stronger signal to dominate over a weaker signal on
the same frequency.

 A. Capture effect
 B. Flywheel effect
 C. Hall effect
 D. Skin effect
26. A device that converts a 2-wire circuit to a 4-wire circuit.

 A. RS-232 interface
 B. Hybrid circuit
 C. Balun
 D. Stub
27. ______ theory is deciding between a set of hypothesis when given a collection of imperfect
measurements.

 A. Estimation
 B. Traffic
 C. Decision
 D. Nyquist
28. ______ of a data reduction says that when reducing a set of data into the form of an
underlying mode, one should be maximally non-committal with respect to missing data.

 A. Jaynes maximum entropy principle

 B. Kullback principle of minimum discrimination
 C. Minimum discrimination\
 D. Maximum entropy
29. _______ is selecting the best value of a parameter from a continuum of possible values when
gives a collection if imperfect measurements

 A. Estimation
 B. Traffic
 C. Decision
  D. Nyquist
30. Combination of madulator, channel, and detector.

 A. Transceiver
 B. Transponder
 C. T/R channel
 D. Discrete channel
31. What is the frequency band of DECT?

 A. 1.88 – 1.90 GHz

 B. 1.68 – 1.70 GHz
 C. 1.48 – 1.50 GHz
 D. 1.28 – 1.30 GHz
32. How many simultaneous calls does each DECT system can support?

 A. 96
 B. 12
 C. 24
 D. 49
33. How many simultaneous calls does a DECT radio transceiver can assess at any given time?

 A. 120
 B. 240
 C. 480
 D. 960
34. The AGC voltage of a radio receiver is always _______.

 A. Present before adjustments can be made

 B. DC, but may have either polarity positive DC
 C. Positive DC
 D. Negative
35. What is a concentrator?

 A. A system that improves the signal-to-noise ratio by compressing the volume range of a
signal.
 B. A device that varies the characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with the
waveform of a modulating signal which contains useful information
 C. A switching system that lets a large number of telephone or data processing
subscribers use a lesser number of transmission lines or a narrow bandwidth
 D. Equipment in the central office.
36. If you find that an SAW filter output is 6 dB down from the input of a receiver during test,
______

 A. This is normal.
 B. The device if faulty
 C. The receiver is improperly terminated
 D. The filter is not resonating
37. A triple conversion superheterodyne receiver, diode mixer stages are

 A. Operated in the linear region

 B. Operated in the nonlinear region
 C. Operated as Class-A amplifiers
  D. Operated as Class-B amplifiers
38. What is a leased line?

 A. A piece of wire used in a local area network in one building

 B. A piece of wire connecting a telephone set to a PABX
 C. A temporary connection of one computer to a mainframe via a modern and a
telephone line
 D. A permanent circuit for a private use within a communication network
39. If two FM signals of different strengths are received on the same frequency

 A. One steady heterodyne will appear in the AM output

 B. Both will appear in the AF output
 C. Only the stronger will appear in the AF output
 D. Neither signal will be intelligence unless the weaker signal is at least 10 times
40. Cellular mobile system was first operated in

 A. 1979
 B. 1981
 C. 1983
 D. 1985
41. TACS is a cellular system with ______ channels.

 A. 666
 B. 1000
 C. 832
 D. 200
42. Supervisory Audio Tone (SAT) has _______ frequency.

 A. 5960 Hz
 B. 6000 Hz
 C. 6040 Hz
 D. 1004 z
43. What is the number of channels of a cellular system with an allocated spectrum of 25 MHz
and with a channel of 30 kHz bandwidth?

 A. 833
 B. 240
 C. 1000
 D. 666
44. GSM uses what digital modulation technique?

 A. QAM
 B. GFSK
 C. BPSK
 D. GMSK
45. What is the power output of Personal Communication System (PCS)?

 A. 10 mW
 B. 75 mW
 C. 150 mW
 D. 10 W
46. RG-B8 cable has a loss of about ______ dB at cellular frequencies up to 15 ft. length.
  A. 2
 B. 1
 C. 4
 D. 3
47. The signals designed to keep the receivers and transmitters aligned.

 A. Carrier frequencies
 B. Pilot carrier signals
 C. Synchronizing signals
 D. Reference signals
48. If the spacing of a two-wire open air transmission line is 12 inches and the conductor diameter
is 0.25 inch, the characteristic impedance is

 A. 547 Ω
 B. 357 Ω
 C. 273 Ω
 D. 300 Ω
49. The impedance of the quarterwave transformer used to match a 600 Ω line to a 300 Ω load is

 A. 382 Ω
 B. 424 Ω
 C. 565 Ω
 D. 712 Ω
50. When a line and a load are match the reflection coefficient is

 A. Unity
 B. Zero
 C. Positive infinity
 D. Negative infinity