FOROUZAN 72pages PDF

DATA COMMUNICATIONS and NETWORKING
3rd Edition by BEHROUZ A. FOROUZAN

Chapter 1: Introduction
1. The __________ is the physical path over 8. In a network with 25 computers, which
which a message travels topology would require the most extensive
a. Protocol cabling?
b. Medium a. Mesh
c. Signal b. Star
d. All of the above c. Bus
d. Ring
2. The information to be communicated in a
data system is the ___________. 9. A television broadcast is an example of
a. Medium ______________ transmission.
b. Protocol a. Simplex
c. Message b. Half-duplex
d. Transmission c. Full-duplex
d. Automatic
3. Frequency of failure and network recovery
time after a failure are measures of the 10. A ______________ connection provides a
__________ of a network. dedicated link between two devices.
a. Performance a. Point-to-point
b. Reliability b. Multipoint
c. Security c. Primary
d. Feasibility d. Secondary
4. An unauthorized user is a network 11. In a _______________ connection, more than

__________ issue. two devices can share a single link.
a. Performance a. Point-to-point
b. Reliability b. Multipoint
c. Security c. Primary
d. All of the above d. Secondary
5. Which topology requires a central controller 12. In _______________ transmission, the

or hub? channel capacity is shared by both
a. Mesh communicating devices at all times.
b. Star a. Simplex
c. Bus b. Half-duplex
d. Ring c. Full-duplex
d. Half-simplex
6. Which topology requires a multipoint
connection? 13. A cable break in a _____________ topology
a. Mesh stops all transmission.
b. Star a. Mesh
c. Bus b. Bus
d. Ring c. Star
d. Primary
7. Communication between a computer and a
keyboard involves _________________ 14. Which organization has authority over
transmission. interstate and international commerce in the
a. Simplex communications field?
b. Half-duplex a. ITU-T
c. Full-duplex b. IEEE
d. Automatic c. FCC
d. ISO
Chapter 2: Network Models
1. The Internet model consists of _________ 8. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and
layers. the _____________ layer.
a. Three a. Network
b. Five b. Data link
c. Seven c. Transport
d. Eight d. None of the above
2. The process-to-process delivery of the entire 9. When data are transmitted from device A to
message is the responsibility of the ___________ device B, the header from A’s layer 4 is read by
layer. B’s ___________ layer.
a. Network a. Physical
b. Transport b. Transport
c. Application c. Application
d. Physical d. None of the above
3. The __________ layer is the layer closest to 10. The ____________ layer changes bits into
the transmission medium. electromagnetic signals.
a. Physical a. Physical
b. Data link b. Data link
c. Network c. Transport
d. Transport d. None of the above
4. Mail services are available to network users 11. The physical layer is concerned with the
through the __________ layer. transmission of _____________ over the physical
a. Data link medium.
b. Physical a. Programs
c. Transport b. Dialogs
d. Application c. Protocols
d. Bits
5. As the data packet moves from the lower to
the upper layers, headers are ________. 12. Which layer functions as a liaison between
a. Added user support layers and network support
b. Subtracted layers?
c. Rearranged a. Network layer
d. Modified b. Physical layer
c. Transport layer
6. As the data packet moves from the upper to d. Application layer
the lower layers, headers are __________.
a. Added 13. What is the main function of the transport
b. Removed layer?
c. Rearranged a. Node-to-node delivery
d. Modified b. Process-to-process delivery
c. Synchronization
7. The __________ layer lies between the network d. Updating and maintenance of routing
layer and the application layer. tables
a. Physical
b. Data link 14. Which of the following is an application
c. Transport layer service?
d. None of the above a. Remote log-in
b. File transfer and access
c. Mail service
d. All of the above
Chapter 3: Signals
1. Before data can be transmitted, they must be 8. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is
transformed to _____________. a measure of _______________.
a. Periodic signals a. Signal amplitude
b. Electromagnetic signals b. Frequency
c. Aperiodic signals c. Phase
d. Low-frequency sine waves d. Time
2. A periodic signal completes one cycle in 9. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 kHz and the
0.001 seconds. What is the frequency? lowest frequency is 52 kHz, what is the highest
a. 1 Hz frequency?
b. 100 Hz a. 5 kHz
c. 1 kHz b. 10 kHz
d. 1 MHz c. 47 kHz
d. 57 kHz
3. Which of the following can be determined
from a frequency-domain graph of a signal? 10. What is the bandwidth of a signal that
a. Frequency ranges from 40 kHz to 4 MHz?
b. Phase a. 36 MHz
c. Power b. 360 kHz
d. All of the above c. 3.96 MHz
d. 396 kHz
4. Which of the following can be determined
from a frequency-domain graph of a signal? 11. When one of the components of a signal has
a. Bandwidth a frequency of zero, the average amplitude of
b. Phase the signal ____________.
c. Power a. Is greater than zero
d. All of the above b. Is less than zero
c. Is zero
5. In a frequency-domain plot, the vertical axis d. A or B
measures the _____________.
a. Peak amplitude 12. A periodic signal can always be decomposed
b. Frequency into ______________.
c. Phase a. Exactly an odd number of sine waves
d. Slope b. A set of sine waves
c. A set of sine waves, one of which must
6. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal have a phase of 0o
axis measures the _____________. d. None of the above
a. Peak amplitude
b. Frequency 13. As frequency increase, the period
c. Phase ____________.
d. Slope a. Decreases
b. Increases
7. In a time-domain plot, the vertical axis is a c. Remains the same
measure of _______________. d. Doubles
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency 14. Given two sine waves A and B, if the
c. Phase frequency of A is twice that of B, then the
d. Time period of B is ______________ that of A.
a. One-half
b. Twice
c. The same as
d. Indeterminate from
Chapter 3: Signals
15. A sine wave is _______________. 21. The ____________ has units of

a. Periodic and continuous meters/second or kilometers/second.
b. Aperiodic and continuous a. Throughput
c. Periodic and discrete b. Propagation speed
d. Aperiodic and discrete c. Propagation time
d. B or C
16. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is
2 V, the minimum amplitude is ____________ V. 22. ___________ has units of bits/second.
a. 2 a. Throughput
b. 1 b. Propagation speed
c. -2 c. Propagation time
d. Between -2 and 2 d. B or C
17. A signal is measured at two different points. 23. The ___________ has units of second.
The power is P1 at the first point and P2 at the a. Throughput
second point. The dB is 0. This means b. Propagation speed
_______________. c. Propagation time
a. P2 is zero d. B or C
b. P2 equals P1
c. P2 is much larger than P1 24. When propagation speed is multiplied by
d. P2 is much smaller than P1 propagation time, we get the _____________.
a. Throughput
18. _______________ is a type of transmission b. Wavelength of the signal
impairment in which the signal loses strength c. Distortion factor
due to the resistance of the transmission d. Distance a signal or bit has traveled.
medium.
a. Attenuation 25. Propagation time is ____________
b. Distortion proportional to distance and ___________
c. Noise proportional to propagation speed.
d. Decibel a. Inversely; directly
b. Directly; inversely
19. _______________ is a type of transmission c. Inversely; inversely
impairment in which the signal loses strength d. Directly; directly
due to the different propagation speeds of each
frequency that makes up the signal. 26. Wavelength is __________ proportional to
a. Attenuation propagation speed and __________ proportional
b. Distortion to period.
c. Noise a. Inversely; directly
d. Decibel b. Directly; inversely
c. Inversely; inversely
20. ______________ is a type of transmission d. Directly; directly
impairment in which an outside source such as
crosstalk corrupts a signal. 27. The wavelength of a signal depends on the
a. Attenuation ______________.
b. Distortion a. Frequencies of the signal
c. Noise b. Medium
d. Decibel c. Phase of the signal
d. A and B
Chapter 3: Signals
28. The wavelength of green light in air is

_________ the wavelength of green light in fiber-
optic cable.
a. Less than
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
d. None of the above
29. Using the Shannon formula to calculate the

data rate for a given channel, if C = B, then
__________.
a. The signal is less than the noise
b. The signal is greater than the noise
c. The signal is equal to the noise
d. Not enough information is given to
answer the question
Chapter 4: Digital Transmission
1. Unipolar, bipolar and polar encoding are 8. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum
types of _______ encoding sampling rate to be _______.
a. Line a. Equal to the lowest frequency of a signal
b. Block b. Equal to the highest frequency of a
c. NRZ signal
d. Manchester c. Twice the bandwidth of a signal
d. Twice the highest frequency of a
2. If a symbol is composed of 3 bits, there are signal
__________ data levels.
a. 2 9. One factor in the accuracy of a reconstructed
b. 4 PCM signal is the __________.
c. 8 a. Signal bandwidth
d. 16 b. Carrier frequency
c. Number of bits used for quantization
3. Pulse rate is always ______ the bit rate d. Baud rate
a. Greater than
b. Less than 10. Which encoding type always has nonzero
c. Greater than or equal to average amplitude
d. Less than or equal to a. Unipolar
b. Polar
4. ________ encoding has a transition at the c. Bipolar
middle of each bit. d. All the above
a. RZ
b. Manchester 11. Which of the following encoding methods
c. Differential Manchester does not provide for synchronization?
d. All the above a. NRZ-L
b. RZ
5. ________ encoding has a transition at the c. NRZ-I
beginning of each 0 bit. d. Manchester
a. RZ
b. Manchester 12. Which encoding method uses alternating
c. Differential Manchester positive and negative values for 1s?
d. All the above a. NRZ-I
b. RZ
6. PCM is an example of ______ conversion. c. Manchester
a. Digital-to-digital d. AMI
b. Digital-to-analog
c. Analog-to-analog 13. In PCM, an analog-to-____________
d. Analog-to-Digital conversion occurs.
a. Analog
7. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has b. Digital
bandwidth of 500 Hz with the highest frequency c. QAM
at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate, d. Differential
according to the Nyquist theorem?
a. 200 samples/s 14. If the maximum value of a PCM signal is 31
b. 500 samples/s and the minimum value is -31, how many bits
c. 1000 samples/s were used for conding?
d. 1200 samples/s a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
Chapter 4: Digital Transmission
15. RZ encoding involves _________ signal levels. 22. In asynchronous transmission, the gap time
a. Two between bytes is ________.
b. Three a. Fixed
c. Four b. Variable
d. Five c. A function of the data rate
d. Zero
16. Which quantization level results in a more
faithful reproduction of the signal 23. Synchronous transmission does not have
a. 2 __________.
b. 8 a. A start bit
c. 16 b. A stop bit
d. 32 c. Gaps between bytes
d. All the above
17. Which encoding technique attempts to solve
the loss of synchronization due to long strings
of 0s.
a. BnZS
b. NRZ
c. AMI
d. (a) and (b)
18. Block coding can help in __________ at the

receiver.
a. Synchronizations
b. Error detection
c. Attenuation
d. (a) and (b)
19. In ____________ transmission, bits are

transmitted simultaneously, each across its
own wire.
a. Asynchronous serial
b. Synchronous serial
c. Parallel
d. (a) and (b)
20. In ________ transmission, bits are

transmitted over a single wire, one at a time.
c. Parallel
d. (a) and (b)
21. In __________ transmission, a start bit and

stop bit frame a character byte.
c. Parallel
d. (a) and (b)
Chapter 5: Analog Transmission
1. ASK, PSK, FSK nad QAM are examples of 8. If the bit rate for a QAM signal is 3000 bps
__________ modulation. and a signal unit is represented by a tribit,
a. Digital-to-analog what is the baud rate?
b. Digital-to-analog a. 300
c. Analog-to-analog b. 400
d. Analog-to-digital c. 1000
d. 1200
2. AM and FM are examples of ___________
modulation. 9. If the baud rate for a QAM signal is 3000 and
a. Digital-to-analof a signal unit is represented by a tribit, what is
b. Digital-to-analog the bit rate?
c. Analog-to-analog a. 300
d. Analog-to-digital b. 400
c. 1000
3. In QAM, both phase and ____________ of a d. 9000
carrier frequency are varied.
a. Amplitude 10. If the baud rate for a QAM signal is 1800
b. Frequency anf the bit rate is 9000, how many bits are
c. Bit rate there per signal unit?
d. Baud rate a. 3
b. 4
4. Which of the following is most affected by c. 5
noise? d. 6
a. PSK
b. ASK 11. In 16-QAM, there are 16 __________.
c. FSK a. Combination of phase and amplitude
d. QAM b. Amplitudes
c. Phases
5. If the baud rate is 400 for a 4-PSK signal, the d. Bps
bit rate is _________ bps.
a. 100 12. Which modulation technique involves
b. 400 tribits, eight different phase shifts, and one
c. 800 amplitude?
d. 1600 a. FSK
b. 8-PSK
6. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, c. ASK
the baud rate is __________. d. 4-PSK
a. 300
b. 400 13. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth
c. 600 of 10 KHz and the highest-frequency
d. 1200 component at 705 KHz, what is the frequency of
the carrier signal?
7. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, a. 700 KHz
the baud rate is __________. b. 705 KHz
a. 300 c. 710 KHz
b. 400 d. Cannot be determined from given
c. 600 information
d. 1200
14. A modulated signal is formed by ________. 20. For a telephone line, the bandwidth for
a. Changing the modulating signal by the voice is usually _________ the bandwidth for
carrier wave data.
b. Changing the carrier wave by the a. Equivalent to
modulating signal b. Less than
c. Quantization of the source data c. Greater than
d. Sampling at the Nyquist frequency d. Twice
15. If FCC regulations are followed, the carrier 21. For a given bit rate, the minimum
frequencies of adjacent AM radio station are bandwidth for ASK is ______ the minimum
_________ apart. bandwidth for FSK.
a. 5 KHz a. Equivalent to
b. 10 KHz b. Less than
c. 200 KHz c. Greater than
d. 530 KHz d. Twice
16. If FCC regulations are followed, ___________ 22. As the bit rate of an FSK signal increases,
potential FM stations are theoretically possible the bandwidth ___________.
in a given area. a. Decreases
a. 50 b. Increases
b. 100 c. Remains the same
c. 133 d. Doubles
d. 150
23. For FSK, as the difference between the two
17. When an ASK signal is decomposed, the carrier frequencies increases, the bandwidth
result is _____________. ________.
a. Always one sine wave a. Decreases
b. Always two sine waves b. Increases
c. An infinite number of sine waves c. Remains the same
d. None of the above d. Halves
18. The bandwidth of an FM signal requires 10 24. Which ITU-T modems standard uses trellis
times the bandwidth of the __________ signal. coding
a. Carrier a. V.32
b. Modulating b. V.33
c. Bipolar c. V.34
d. Sampling d. (a) and (b)
19. Modulation of an analog signal can be 25. In trellis coding the number of data bits is
accomplished through changing the ______ of _________ the number of transmitted bits.
the carrier signal. a. Equal to
a. Amplitude b. Less than
b. Frequency c. More than
c. Phase d. Double that of
d. Any of the above
26. What is the object of trellis coding?
a. To narrow the bandwidth
b. To simplify modulation
c. To increases the data rate
d. To reduce the error rate
27. The bit rate always equal the baud rate in

which type of signal?
a. FSK
b. QAM
c. 4-PSK
d. All the above
28. A modulator converts a(n) _________ signal

to a(n) ____________ signal.
a. Digital; analog
b. Analog; digital
c. PSK; FSK
d. FSK; PSK
29. A 56K modem can download at a rate of

___________ Kbps and upload at a rate of
______________ Kbps.
a. 33.6; 33.6
b. 33.6; 56.3
c. 56.6; 33.6
d. 56.6; 56.6
Chapter 6: Multiplexing
1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two 7. In AT&T’s FDM hierarchy, the bandwidth of
more devices is called ______. each group type can be found by multiplying
a. Modulation ______ and adding extra bandwidth for guard
b. Encoding bands.
c. Line Encoding a. The number of voice channels by 4000
d. Multiplexing Hz
b. The sampling rate by 4000 Hz
2. Which multiplexing technique transmits c. The number of voice channels by 8 bits/
analog signals? sample
a. FDM d. The sampling rate by 8 bits/sample
b. TDM
c. WDM 8. DS-1 through DS-4 are __________ while T-1
d. (a) and (c) through T-4 ___________.
a. Services; multiplexers
3. Which multiplexing technique transmits b. Services; signals
digital signals? c. Services; lines
a. FDM d. Multiplexers; signals
b. TDM
c. WDM 9. In a T-1 line, ____________ interleaving
d. None of the above occurs.
a. Bit
4. Which multiplexing technique shifts each b. Byte
signal to a different carrier frequency? c. DS-0
a. FDM d. Switch
b. TDM
c. Both (a) and (b) 10. Guard bands increase the bandwidth for
d. None of the above ____________.
a. FDM
5. In TDM, for n signal sources of the same b. TDM
data rate, each frame contains __________ slots. c. Both (a) and (b)
a. n d. None of the above
b. n + 1
c. n – 1 11. Which multiplexing technique involves
d. 0 to n signals composed of light bemas?
a. FDM
6. In TDM. The transmission rate of the b. TDM
multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of c. WDM
the transmission rate of the signal sources. d. None of the above
a. Greater than
b. Less than
c. Equal to
d. 1 less than
Chapter 7: Transmission Media
1. Transmission media are usually categorized 8. Which of the following primarily uses guided
as _____. media?
a. Fixed or unfixed a. Cellular telephone system
b. Guided or unguided b. Local Telephone System
c. Determinate and indeterminate c. Satellite communications
d. Metallic and nonmetallic d. Radio Broadcasting
2. Transmission media are closest to the ______ 9. Which of the following is not a guided
layer medium?
a. Physical a. Twisted-pair cable
b. Network b. Coaxial cable
c. Transport c. Fiber-Optic Cable
d. Application d. Atmosphere
3. Category 1 UTP cable is most often used in 10. In an environment with many high-voltage
_____ networks. devices, the best transmission medium would
a. Fast Ethernet be _____.
b. Traditional Ethernet a. Twisted-pair cable
c. Infrared b. Coaxial cable
d. Telephone c. Optical cable
d. The Atmosphere
4. BNC connectors are used by _____ cables.
a. UTP 11. What is the major factor that makes
b. STP coaxial-cable less susceptible to noise than
c. Coaxial twisted-pair cable?
d. Fiber-Optic a. Inner conductor
b. Diameter of cable
5. _____ cable consists of an inner copper and a c. Outer conductor
second conducting outer sheath. d. Insulating material
a. Twisted pair
b. Coaxial 12. The RG number gives us information about
c. Fiber-Optic _____.
d. Shielded twisted pair a. Twisted pairs
b. Coaxial cable
6. In fiber optics, the signal source is _____ c. Optical fibers
waves. d. All of the above
a. Light
b. Radio 13. In an optical fiber, the inner core is _____
c. Infrared the cladding.
d. Very low-frequency a. Denser than
b. Less dense than
7. Smoke signal are example of communication c. The same density as
though _____. d. Another name for
a. A guided medium
b. An unguided medium 14. The inner core of an optical fiber is _____ in
c. A refractive medium composition.
d. A small or large medium a. Glass or plastic
b. Copper
c. Bimetalic
d. Liquid
Chapter 7: Transmission Media
15. Optical fibers, unlike wire media, are highly 21. When we talk about unguided media,
resistant to _____. usually we are referring to _____.
a. High-frequency transmission a. Metallic wires
b. Low-frequency transmission b. Nonmetallic wires
c. Electromagnetic interference c. The air
d. Refraction d. None of the above
16. When a beam of light travels through media 22. Radio wave and microwave frequencies
of two different densities, if the angle of range from ______.
incidence is greater than the critical angle, a. 3 to 300 KHz
_____ occurs. b. 300 KHz to 300 GHz
a. Reflection c. 3 KHz to 300 GHz
b. Refraction d. 3 KHz to 3000 GHz
c. Incidence
d. Criticism 23. In _____ propagation, low frequency radio
waves hug the earth.
17. When the angle of incidence is _____ the a. Ground
critical angle, the light beam bends along the b. Sky
interface. c. Line of sight
a. More than d. Space
b. Less than
c. Equal to 24. The VLF and LF bands use _____
d. None of the above propagation for communications.
a. Ground
18. In _____ propagation, the beam of b. Sky
propagated light is almost horizontal, and the c. Line of sight
low-density core has a small diameter d. Space
compared to the cores of the other propagation
modes. 25. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _____
a. Multimode step-index antenna.
b. Multiple graded-index a. Omnidirectional
c. Multimode single-index b. Bidirectional
d. Single-mode c. Unidirectional
d. Horn
19. _____ is the propagation method subject to
the greatest distortion.
a. Multimode step-index 26. The _____ is an association that sponsors
b. Multimode Graded-index the use of infrared waves.
c. Multiple single-index a. IrDA
d. Single-mode b. EIA
c. FCC
20. In _____ propagation, the core is varying d. PUD
densities.
a. Multimode step-index
b. Multimode graded-index
c. Multimode single-index
d. Single-mode
Chapter 8: Circuit Switching and Telephone
Networks
1. The _____ is a device that connects n inputs 7. Which of the following is a time-division
to m outputs. switch ?
a. Crosspoint a. TSI
b. Crossbar b. TDM bus
c. Modem c. Crosspoint
d. RAM d. (a) and (b)
2. How many crosspoints are needed in a 8. In a time-division switch a _____ governs the
single-stage switch with 40 inputs and 40 destination of a packet stored in RAM.
outputs? a. TDM Bus
a. 40 b. Crosspoint
b. 50 c. Crosbar
c. 90 d. Control Unit
d. 2000
9. A telephone network is an example of _____
3. In a crossbar with 1000 crosspoints, network.
approximately how many are in use at any a. Message Switch
time? b. Packet Switched
a. 100 c. Circuit Switched
b. 250 d. None of the above
c. 500
d. 1000 10. The local loop has _____ cable that
connects the subscriber telephone to the
4. The _____ of a TSI controls the order of nearest end office.
delivery of slot values that are stored in RAM. a. Twisted-Pair
a. Crossbar b. Coaxial
b. Crosspoint c. Fiber-Optic
c. Control unit d. (b) and (c)
d. Transceiver
11. Trunks are transmission media such as
5. In _____ circuit switching, delivery of data is _____ the handle the telephone communication
delayed because data must be stored and between offices.
retrieved from RAM. a. Twisted-pair cable
a. Space-division b. Fiber-optic cable
b. Time-Division c. Satellite links
c. Virtual d. (b) and (c)
d. Packet
12. The established telephone company that
6. To create a _____, combine crossbar switches provided services in a LATA before 1966 and
in stages. owns the cabling system is called _____.
a. Multistage switch a. An ILEC
b. Crosspoint b. A CLEC
c. Packet Switch c. An IXC
d. TSI d. A POP
Chapter 8: Circuit Switching and Telephone
Networks
13. A new telephone company that provides

services in a LATA after 1966 is called _____.
a. An ILEC
b. A CLEC
c. An IXC
d. A POP
14. The telephone service handled between two

LATAs is called _____.
a. An ILEC
b. A CLEC
c. An IXC
d. A POP
15. If the end office receives two bursts of

analog signals with frequencies of 697 and
1477 Hz, then the number _____ has been
punched.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
16. Data from a computer are _____: the local

loop handles _____ signals.
a. Analog; analog
b. Analog; digital
c. Digital; digital
d. Digital; analog
17. A traditional telephone line has bandwidth

of _____.
a. 2000 Hz
b. 4000 Hz
c. 2000 MHz
d. 4000 Mhz
Chapter 9: High Speed Digital Access
1._____ has a higher transmission rate in the 7. _____ is a device at the telephone company
downstream direction than in the upstream site that can packetize data to be sent to the
direction. ISP Server.
a. VDSL a. A DSLAM
b. ADSL b. An ADSL modem
c. SDSL c. A filter
d. (a) and (b) d. A splitter
2. _____ is suitable for businesses that require 8. ______ was designed as an alternative to the
comparable upstream and downstream data T-1 line.
rates. a. VSL
a. VDSL b. ADSL
b. ADSL c. SDSL
c. SDSL d. HDSL
d. (a) and (b)
9. HDSL encodes data using _______
3. _____ limit the bandwidth of the local loop to a. 4B/5B
4 KHz. b. 2B1Q
a. Fiber Nodes c. 1B2Q
b. Filters d. 6B/8T
c. Repeaters
d. Hubs 10. _____ encoded signal is more susceptible to
attenuation than _____ encoded signal.
4. DMT is a modulation technique that a. An AMI; a 2B2Q
combines elements of _____ and _____. b. A 2B1Q; an AMI
a. FDM; TDM c. An AMI; a 2B1Q
b. QDM; QAM d. None of the above
c. FDM; QAM 11. Another name for the cable TV office is the
d. PSK; FSK _____.
a. Splitter
5. The largest portion of the bandwidth for b. Fiber node
ADSL carries _____. c. Combiner
a. Voice Communication d. Head end
b. Upstream data
c. Downstream data 12. A traditional Cable TV network transmits
d. Control data signals _____.
a. Upstream
6. The actual bit rate of ADSL downstream data b. Downstream
is _____. c. Upstream and Downstream
a. 64 Kbps to 1 Mbps d. None of the above
b. 6 to 30 Kbps
c. 31 Kbps to 225 Mbps 13. An HFC network uses _____ as the medium
d. 500 Kbps to 8 Mbps from the switch to the fiber node.
a. Optical Fiber
b. Coaxial Cable
c. UTP
d. STP
Chapter 9: High Speed Digital Access
14. In an HFC network, the distribution hub 21. SONET in an acronym for _____ Network.
handles the _____ of signals. a. Synchronous Optical
a. Modulation b. Standard Optical
b. Distribution c. Symmetric Open
c. Splitting d. Standard Open
d. (a) and (b)
22. In a SONET system, _____ can remove
15. A TV channel in an HFC network needs a signals from a path.
_____- MHz bandwidth. a. An STS multiplier
a. 6 b. A regenerator
b. 100 c. An Add/Drop multiplier
c. 250 d. A repeater
d. 369
23. The synchronous payload envelope of an
16. _____ data go from the subscriber to the STS-1 frame contains _____.
Internet. a. Pointers
a. Upstream b. User data
b. Downstream c. Overhead
c. Midstream d. (b) and (c)
17. In an HFC network, the upstream are

modulated using the _____ modulation
technique.
a. QAM
b. QPSK
c. PCM
d. ASK
18. The standard for data transmission over an

HFC network is called _____.
a. MCNS
b. DOCSIS
c. CMTS
d. ADSL
19. The _____ is an HFC network device

installed inside the distribution hub that
receives data from the Internet and passes
them to the combiner.
a. CM
b. CMTS
c. DOCSIS
d. MCNS
20. SONET is a standard for _____ networks.

a. Twisted-pair cable
b. Coaxial Cable
c. Ethernet
d. Fiber-Optic cable
Chapter 10: Error Detection And Correction
1. Which error detection method consists of a 7. If the ASCII character H is sent and the
parity bit for each data unit as well as an entire character I is received, what type of error is
data unit of parity bits? this?
a. Simple parity check a. Single-bit
b. Two-dimensional parity check b. Multiple-bit
c. CRC c. Burst
d. Checksum d. Recoverable
2. Which error detection method uses ones 8. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the
complement arithmetic? CRC?
a. Simple parity check a. The divisor
b. Two-dimensional parity check b. The quotient
c. CRC c. The dividend
d. Checksum d. The remainder
3. Which error detection method consists of just 9. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is
one redundant bit per data unit? _______ the CRC.
a. Simple parity check a. The same size as
b. Two-dimensional parity check b. 1 bit less than
c. CRC c. 1 bit more than
d. Checksum d. 2 bits more than
4. Which error detection method involves 10. If the data unit is 111111, the divisor 1010,
polynomials? and the remainder 110, what is the dividend at
a. Simple parity check the receiver?
b. Two-dimensional parity check a. 111111011
c. CRC b. 111111110
d. Checksum c. 1010110
d. 110111111
5. Which of the following best describes a
single-bit error? 11. If the data unit is 111111 and the divisor
a. A single bit is inverted. 1010, what is the dividend at the transmitter?
b. A single bit is inverted per data unit. a. 111111000
c. A single bit is inverted per transmission. b. 1111110000
d. Any of the above c. 111111
d. 1111111010
6. If the ASCII character G is sent and the
character D is received, what type of error is 12. If odd parity is used for ASCII error
this? detection, the number of 0s per 8-bit symbol is
a. Single-bit _______.
b. Multiple-bit a. Even
c. Burst b. Odd
d. Recoverable c. Indeterminate
d. 42
Chapter 10: Error Detection And Correction
13. The sum of the checksum and data at the 20. At the CRC generator, _______ added to the
receiver is _______ if there are no errors. data unit before the division process.
a. -0 a. 0s are
b. +0 b. 1s are
c. The complement of the checksum c. The polynomial is
d. The complement of the data d. The CRC remainder is
14. The Hamming code is a method of _______. 21. At the CRC generator, _______ added to the
a. Error detection data unit after the division process.
b. Error correction a. 0s are
c. Error encapsulation b. 1s are
d. (a) and (b) c. The polynomial is
d. The CRC remainder is
15. In CRC there is no error if the remainder at
the receiver is _______. 22. At the CRC checker, _______ means that the
a. Equal to the remainder at the sender data unit is damaged.
b. Zero a. A string of 0s
c. Nonzero b. A string of 1s
d. The quotient at the sender c. A string of alternating 1s and 0s
d. A nonzero remainder
16. In CRC the quotient at the sender _______.
a. Becomes the dividend at the receiver
b. Becomes the divisor at the receiver
c. Is discarded
d. Is the remainder
17. Which error detection method involves the

use of parity bits?
a. Simple parity check
b. Two-dimensional parity check
c. CRC
d. (a) and (b)
18. Which error detection method can detect a

single-bit error?
a. Simple parity check
c. CRC
d. All of the above
19. Which error detection method can detect a

burst error?
a. The parity check
c. CRC
d. (b) and (c)
Chapter 11: Data Link Control And Protocols
1. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 8. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for n data packets
63, what is the range of sequence numbers? sent, _______ acknowledgments are needed.
a. 0 to 63 a. n
b. 0 to 64 b. 2n
c. 1 to 63 c. n - 1
d. 1 to 64 d. n + 1
2. Flow control is needed to prevent ________. 9. HDLC is an acronym for _______.

a. Bit errors a. High-duplex line communication
b. Overflow of the sender buffer b. High-level data link control
c. Overflow of the receiver buffer c. Half-duplex digital link combination
d. Collision between sender and receiver d. Host double-level circuit
3. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are 10. The address field of a frame in HDLC
received successfully, the receiver may send an protocol contains the address of the _______
ACK _______ to the sender. station.
a. 5 a. Primary
b. 6 b. Secondary
c. 7 c. Tertiary
d. Any of the above d. (a) or (b)
4. For a sliding window of size n - 1 (n sequence 11. The HDLC _______ field defines the
numbers), there can be a maximum of _______ beginning and end of a frame.
frames sent but unacknowledged. a. Flag
a. 0 b. Address
b. n – 1 c. Control
c. n d. FCS
d. n + 1
12. What is present in all HDLC control fields?
5. In _______ ARQ, if a NAK is received, only the a. P/F bit
specific damaged or lost frame is retransmitted. b. N(R)
a. Stop-and-Wait c. N(S)
b. Go-Back-N d. Code bits
c. Selective Repeat
d. (a) and (b) 13. The shortest frame in HDLC protocol is
usually the _______ frame.
6. ARQ stands for _______. a. Information
a. Automatic repeat quantization b. Supervisory
b. Automatic repeat request c. Management
c. Automatic retransmission request d. None of the above
d. Acknowledge repeat request
14. When data and acknowledgment are sent
7. A timer is set when _______ is (are) sent out. on the same frame, this is called _______.
a. A data frame a. Piggybacking
b. An ACK b. Backpacking
c. A NAK c. Piggypacking
d. All the above d. A good idea
Chapter 12: Point-to-Point Access (PPP)
1. According to the PPP transition state 7. In the PPP frame, the _______ field has a
diagram, exchange of user control and data value of 11111111 to indicate the broadcast
packets occurs in the _____________ state. address of HDLC.
a. Establishing a. Address
b. Authenticating b. Control
c. Networking c. Protocol
d. Terminating d. FCS
2. According to the PPP transition state 8. In the PPP frame, the ________ field is for
diagram, options are negotiated in the _______ error control.
state. a. Flag
a. Establishing b. Control
b. Authenticating c. Protocol
c. Networking d. FCS
d. Terminating
9. What is the purpose of LCP packets?
3. According to the PPP transition state a. Configuration
diagram, verification of user identification b. Termination
occurs in the _______state. c. Option negotiation
a. Establishing d. All of the above
b. Authenticating
c. Networking 10. ___________ is a three-way handshake for
d. Terminating user verification.
a. PPP
4. According to the PPP transition state b. CHAP
diagram, the link is disconnected in the c. PAP
__________ state. d. (b) and (c)
a. Establishing
b. Authenticating 11. A PAP packet and a CHAP packet can be
c. Networking distinguished by the value of the ________ field
d. Terminating of the PPP frame.
a. Address
5. In the PPP frame, the ________ field defines b. Control
the contents of the data field. c. Protocol
a. Flag d. FCS
b. Control
c. Protocol 12. PAP requires __________ and ___________
d. FCS from the user.
a. A password; a calculated value
6. In the PPP frame, the ________ field is similar b. Authentication identification; a
to that of the U-frame in HDLC. password
a. Flag c. A challenge value; a password
b. Control d. Authentication identification; a
c. Protocol calculated value
d. FCS
Chapter 12: Point-to-Point Access (PPP)
13. For CHAP authentication, the user takes

the system’s ______ and its own _______to
create a result that is then sent to the system.
a. Authentication identification; password
b. Password; challenge value
c. Password; authentication identification
d. Challenge value; password
14. ___________, an (a) __________ protocol,

establishes and terminates a network layer
connection for IP packets.
a. NCP; IPCP
b. CHAP; NCP
c. IPCP; NCP
d. SLIP; PPP
Chapter 13: Multiple Access
1. The most primitive random access method is 8. ____________ is a random-access protocol.

______________. a. MA
a. ALOHA b. Polling
b. CSMA c. FDMA
c. Channelization d. CDMA
d. Token passing
9. ___________ is a controlled-access protocol.
2. In the ___________ random-access method a. Reservation
there is no collision. b. FDMA
a. ALOHA c. TDMA
b. CSMA/CD d. CSMA
c. CSMA/CA
d. Token-passing 10. _____________ is (are) a channelization
protocol.
3. In the ___________ random-access method, a. FDMA
stations do not sense the medium. b. TDMA
a. ALOHA c. CDMA
b. CSMA/CD d. All the above
c. CSMA/CA
d. Ethernet 11. _______ is the access protocol used by
traditional Ethernet.
4. In the 1-persistent approach, when a station a. CSMA
finds an idle line, it _______. b. CSMA/CD
a. Waits 0.1 s before sending c. CSMA/CA
b. Waits 1 s before sending d. Token ring
c. Waits a time equal to 1 - p before
sending 12. When a collision is detected in a network
d. Sends immediately using CSMA/CD, _________.
a. The frame is immediately resent
5. In the p-persistent approach, when a station b. A jam signal is sent by the station
finds an idle line, it _______. c. The backoff value is set to 0
a. Waits 1 s before sending d. The backoff value is decremented by 1
b. Sends with probability 1 – p
c. Sends with probability p 13. In the reservation access method, if there
d. Sends immediately are 10 stations on a network, then there are
_______ reservation minislots in the reservation
6. A network using the CSMA random-access frame.
method with p equal to 0.25 will send _______ a. 5
percent of the time after accessing an idle line. b. 9
a. 25 c. 10
b. 50 d. 11
c. 75
d. 100 14. _______ requires one primary station and
one or more secondary stations.
7. The 1-persistent approach can be considered a. Reservation
a special case of the p-persistent approach with b. Polling
p equal to _______. c. Token ring
a. 0.1 d. CSMA
b. 0.5
c. 1.0
d. 2.0
Chapter 13: Multiple Access
15. When a primary device asks a secondary

device if it has data to send, this is called
_______.
a. Polling
b. Selecting
c. Reserving
d. Backing off
16. If an FDMA network has eight stations, the

medium bandwidth has _______ bands
a. 1
b. 2
c. 8
d. 16
17. If a TDMA network has eight stations, the

medium bandwidth has _______ bands.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 8
d. 16
18. If a CDMA network has eight stations, the

medium bandwidth has _______ bands.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 8
d. 16
19. A Walsh table for 16 stations has a chip

sequence of _______ chips.
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
Chapter 14: Local Area Networks (Ethernet)
1. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the 8. A _______-station Ethernet LAN uses a four-
Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 port bridge. Each station has an effective
01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111? average data rate of 1.25 Mbps.
a. 5A-88-AA-18-55-F0 a. 32
b. 5A-81-BA-81-AA-0F b. 40
c. 5A-18-5A-18-55-0F c. 80
d. 5A-11-55-18-AA-0F d. 160
2. If an Ethernet destination address is 07-01- 9. Forty stations are on an Ethernet LAN. A 10-
02-03-04-05, then this is a ______ address. port bridge segments the LAN. What is the
a. Unicast effective average data rate of each station?
b. Multicast 1.0 Mbps
c. Broadcast 2.0 Mbps
d. Any of the above a. 2.5 Mbps
b. 5.0 Mbps
3. If an Ethernet destination address is 08-07-
06-05-44-33, then this is a ______ address. 10. An 80-station traditional Ethernet is divided
a. Unicast into four collision domains. This means that a
b. Multicast maximum of _______ stations contend for
c. Broadcast medium access at any one time.
d. Any of the above a. 320
b. 80
4. Which of the following could not be an c. 76
Ethernet source address? d. 20
a. 8A-7B-6C-DE-10-00
b. EE-AA-C1-23-45-32 11. What is the efficiency of 4B/5B block
c. 46-56-21-1A-DE-F4 encoding?
d. 8B-32-21-21-4D-34 a. 20 percent
b. 40 percent
5. Which of the following could not be an c. 60 percent
Ethernet unicast destination? d. 80 percent
a. 43-7B-6C-DE-10-00
b. 44-AA-C1-23-45-32 12. What is the efficiency of a frame in half-
c. 46-56-21-1A-DE-F4 duplex Gigabit Ethernet carrying 46 bytes of
d. 48-32-21-21-4D-34 data?
a. 97 percent
6. Which of the following could not be an b. 70 percent
Ethernet multicast destination? c. 56 percent
a. B7-7B-6C-DE-10-00 d. 12 percent
b. 7B-AA-C1-23-45-32
c. 7C-56-21-1A-DE-F4 13. Which of the following is a four-wire Gigabit
d. 83-32-21-21-4D-34 Ethernet implementation?
a. 1000Base-SX
7. A 10-station Ethernet LAN uses a _______- b. 1000Base-LX
port bridge if the effective average data rate for c. 1000Base-CX
each station is 2 Mbps. d. 1000Base-T
a. 1
b. 2 14. What is the efficiency of 8B/10B encoding?
c. 5 a. 20 percent
d. 10 b. 40 percent
c. 60 percent
d. 80 percent
Chapter 15: Wireless Lans
1. A wireless LAN using FHSS hops 10 times 7. In an ESS the _____ station is not mobile.
per cycle. If the bandwidth of the original signal a. AP
is 10 MHz, the spread spectrum is _____ MHz. b. Server
a. 10 c. BSS
b. 100 d. None of the above
c. 1000
d. 10,000 8. In an ESS the _____ stations are part of a
wired LAN.
2. A wireless LAN using FHSS hops 10 times a. AP
per cycle. If the bandwifth of the original signal b. Server
is 10 MHz and 2 GHz is the lowest frequency, c. BSS
the highest frequency of the system is _____ d. All of the above
GHz.
a. 1.0 9. A station with _____ mobility can move from
b. 2.0 one BSS to another.
c. 2.1 a. No-transition
d. 3.0 b. BSS-transition
c. ESS-transition
3. An FHSS wireless LAN has a spread d. B and C
spectrum of 1 GHz. The bandwidth of the
original signal is 250 MHz, and there are _____ 10. A station with _____ mobility can move from
hops per cycle. one ESS to another.
a. 1 a. No transition
b. 2 b. BSS-transition
c. 3 c. ESS-transition
d. 4 d. B and C
4. A wireless LAN using DSSS with an 8-bit 11. A station with _____ mobility is either
chip code needs _____ MHz for sending data stationary or moving only inside a BSS.
that originally required a 10-MHz bandwidth. a. No-transition
a. 2 b. BSS
b. 8 c. ESS
c. 20 d. A and B
d. 80
12. A _____ frame usually precedes a CTS
5. A wireless LAN using DSSS with _____-bit frame.
chip code needs 320 MHz for sending data that a. DIFS
originally required a 20-MHz bandwidth. b. SIFS
a. A 2 c. RTS
b. An 8 d. Any of the above
c. A 16
d. A 32 13. A _____ frame usually precedes an RTS
frame.
6. A wireless LAN using DSSS with a 4-bit chip a. DIFS
code needs 10-MHz for sending data that b. CIFS
originally required a _____-MHz bandwidth. c. CTS
a. 2.5 d. None of the above
b. 20
c. 25
d. 40
Chapter 15: Wireless Lans
14. Stations do not sense the medium during 21. A wireless LAN uses ______ frames for
_____ time. acknowledgement.
a. RTS a. Management
b. CTS b. Control
c. SIFS c. Data
d. NAV d. None of the above
15. Wireless transmission is _____ prone to 22. A wireless LAN uses ______ frames for the
error than/as wired transmission. initial communication between stations and the
a. More access points.
b. Less a. Management
c. Half as b. Control
d. None of the above c. Data
16. Which MAC sublayer does IEEE 802.11
define? 23. A Bluetooth network can have ______
a. LLC meter(s).
b. PCF a. One
c. DCF b. Two
d. B and C c. Three
d. Eight
17. What is the basic access method for
wireless LANs as defined by IEEE 802.11? 24. ______ combine to form a scatternet.
a. LLC a. BSSs
b. DCF b. ESSs
c. PCF c. APs
d. BFD d. Piconets
18. The access method for wireless LANs as 25. Bluetooth uses _____ in the physical layer.
defined by IEEE 802.11 is based on ______. a. FHSS
a. CSMA b. DSSS
b. CSMA/CD c. DHSS
c. CSMA/CA d. OFDM
d. Token passing
26. A bluetooth frame needs ______ μs for
19. FHSS, DSSS, and OFDM are ______ layer hopping and control mechanisms.
specifications. a. 625
a. Physical b. 259
b. Data link c. 3
c. Network d. a multiple of 259
d. Transport
20. In the ______ method, the sender hops from

frequency to frequency in a specific order.
a. FHSS
b. DSSS
c. OFDM
d. HR-DSSS
Chapter 16: Connecting LANS, Backcbone
Networks and Virtual LANS
1. Which of the following is a connecting 8. A bridge has access to the _______ address of
device? a station on the same network.
a. Bridge a. Physical (MAC)
b. Repeater b. Network
c. Hub c. Service access point
d. All of the above d. All of the above
2. A bridge forwards or filters a frame by 9. A system redundant bridges might have a

comparing the information in its address table problem with _____ in the system.
to the frame’s _______ a. Loops
a. Layer 2 source address b. Filters
b. Source node's physical address c. Spanning tress
c. Layer 2 destination address d. All of the above
d. Layer 3 destination address
10. A _________ bridge has the smallest ID.
3. A bridge can ______ a. Root
a. Filter a frame b. Designated
b. Forward a frame c. Forwarding
c. Extend a lan d. Blocking
d. Do all of the above
11. The bridge with the least-cost path between
4. Repeaters function in the ______ layer(s) the LAN and the root bridge is called the ____
a. Physical (MAC) bridge.
b. Data link a. Designated
c. Network b. Forwarding
d. A and b c. Blocking
d. A and b
5. A _______ is actually a multiport repeater.
a. Bridge 12. A bridge never forwards frames out of the
b. Router ____ port.
c. VLAN a. Root
d. Hub b. Designated
c. Forwarding
6. Bridges function in the _______________ d. Blocking
layer(s)
a. Physical (MAC) 13. Which type of bridge builds and updates its
b. Data link tables from address information in frames?
c. Network a. Simple
d. A and b b. Transparent
c. A and b
7. A repeater takes a weakend or corrupted d. None of the above
signal and ____________ it.
a. Amplifies 14. VLAN technology divides a lab into _____
b. Regenerates groups.
c. Resamples a. Physical
d. Reroutes b. Logical
c. Multiplexed
d. Framed
Chapter 16: Connecting LANS, Backcbone
Networks and Virtual LANS
15. Which station characteristics can be used

to group stations into a vlan?
a. Port numbers
b. MAC addresses
c. IP addresses
d. All of the above
16. In a VLAN, stations are seperated into

groups by ____________.
a. Physical methods
b. Softwarre methods
c. Locations
d. Switches
Chapter 17: Cellular Telephone and Satellite
Networks
1. A ________ is computerized center that is 8. D-AMPS used ________ for multiplexing.

responsible for connecting calls, recording a. CDMA
call information, and billing. b. TDMA
a. base station c. FDMA
b. mobile switching center d. b and c
c. cell
d. mobile station 9. GSM uses _________ for multiplexing.
a. CDMA
2. In _______, a mobile station always b. TDMA
communicates with just one base station. c. FDMA
a. roaming d. b and c
b. a hard handoff
c. a soft handoff 10. DSSS is used by the _______ cellular phone
d. a roaming handoff systems.
a. AMPS
3. ________ is a first generation cellular phone b. D-Amps
system. c. GSM
a. AMPS d. IS-95
b. D-AMPS
c. GSM 12. ________ base stations uses GPS for
d. IS-95 synchronization.
a. AMPS
4. ________ is a second generation cellular b. D-Amps
phone system c. GSM
a. D-AMPS d. IS-95
b. GSM
c. IS-95 13. IS-95 has a frequency reuse factor of
d. All of the above _________.
a. 1
5. AMPS uses _________ for modulation. b. 5
a. FM c. 7
b. FSK d. 95
c. PM
d. a and b 14. The path that a satellite makes around the
world is called?
6. ________ separates AMPS voice channels a. a period
a. CDMA b. a footprint
b. TDMA c. an orbit
c. FDMA d. an uplink
d. b and c
15. A GEO satellite has _______ orbit.
7. ________ is a cellular telephone systems a. an equatorial
popular in Europe. b. a polar
a. AMPS c. an inclined
b. D-AMPS d. an equilateral
c. GSM
d. IS-95
Chapter 17: Cellular Telephone and Satellite
Networks
16. The signal from a satellite is aimed at a 23. Teledesic is a _________ LEO satellite system
specific area called the __________. a. little
a. period b. big
b. footprint c. passband
c. orbit d. broadband
d. uplink
24. __________ has 66 satellites in six LEOs.
17. Which orbit has the highest altitude? a. Globalstar
a. GEO b. Iridium
b. MEO c. Teledesic
c. LEO d. GPS
d. HEO
25. __________ has 48 satellites in six polar
18. MEO satellites orbit _______ Van Allen belts. orbits.
a. in the a. Globastar
b. between the b. Iridium
c. above both c. Teledesic
d. below both d. GPS
19. Transmission from the earth to the satellite 26. __________ will have 288 satellites in 12
is called _________. polar orbits.
a. footlink a. Globalstar
b. up print b. Iridium
c. downlink c. Teledesic
d. uplink d. GPS
20. The __________ is not used for voice

communication
a. IS-95 system
b. Globalstar system
c. GPS
d. Iridium system
21. _________ is often used for navigation

purposes.
a. AMPS
b. IS-95
c. Iridium
d. GPS
22. A LEO satellite has ________ orbit.

a. an equatorial
b. an inclined
c. a polar
d. all of the above
Chapter 18: Virtual Circuit Switching (Frame
Relay and ATM)
1. Frame Relay operates in the _______. 8. _______ is a protocol to control and manage
a. Physical layer interfaces in Frame Relay networks.
b. Data link layer a. LMI
c. Physical and data link layers b. VOFR
d. Physical, data link, and network layers c. FRAD
d. DLCI
2. In the data link layer, Frame Relay uses
_____________. 9. _______ is a Frame Relay option that
a. BSC protocol transmits voice through the network.
b. A simplified HDLC protocol a. LMI
c. LAPB b. VOFR
d. Any ANSI standard protocol c. FRAD
d. DLCI
3. Routing and switching in Frame Relay are
performed by the _______ layer. 10. In data communications, ATM is an
a. Physical acronym for _______.
b. Data link a. Automated Teller Machine
c. Network b. Automatic Transmission Model
d. (b) and (c) c. Asynchronous Telecommunication
Method
4. Frame Relay is unsuitable for ________ due to d. Asynchronous Transfer Mode
possible delays in transmission resulting from
variable frame sizes. 11. Because ATM _______, which means that
a. Real-time video cells follow the same path, the cells do not
b. File transfers usually arrive out of order.
c. Fixed-rate data communication a. Is asynchronous
d. All the above b. Is multiplexed
c. Is a network
5. Frame relay provides _____ connections. d. Uses virtual circuit routing
a. PVC
b. SVC 12. Which layer in ATM protocol reformats the
c. (a) and (b) data received from other networks?
d. None of the above a. Physical
b. ATM
6. The Frame Relay address field is _______ in c. Application adaptation
length. d. Data adaptation
a. 4 bytes
b. 2 bytes 13. Which layer in ATM protocol has a 53-byte
c. 3 bytes cell as an end product?
d. Any of the above a. Physical
b. ATM
7. A device called a(n) _______ allows frames c. Application adaptation
from an ATM network to be transmitted across d. Cell transformation
a Frame Relay network.
a. LMI 14. Which AAL type is designed to support a
b. VOFR data stream that has a constant bit rate?
c. FRAD a. AAL1
d. DLCI b. AAL2
c. AAL3/4
d. AAL5
Chapter 18: Virtual Circuit Switching (Frame
Relay and ATM)
15. Which AAL type is designed to support

SEAL?
a. AAL1
b. AAL2
c. AAL3/4
d. AAL5
16. In an ATM network, all cells belonging to a

single message follow the same _______ and
remain in their original order until they reach
their destination.
a. Transmission path
b. Virtual path
c. Virtual circuit
17. A _______ provides a connection or a set of

connections between switches.
b. Virtual path
c. Virtual circuit
18. A _________ is the physical connection

between an endpoint and a switch or between
two switches.
b. Virtual path
c. Virtual circuit
19. The VPI of a UNI is _________ bits in length.

a. 8
b. 12
c. 16
d. 24
20. The VPI of an NNI is _________ bits in

length.
a. 8
b. 12
c. 16
d. 24
Chapter 19: Host-To-Host Delivery
(Internetworking, Addressing and Routing)
1. In which type of switching do all the packets 8. A subnet mask in class B can have _______
of a message follow the same channels of a 1s with the remaining bits 0s.
path? a. Nine
a. Datagram packet switching b. Fourteen
b. Virtual circuit packet switching c. Seventeen
c. Message switching d. Three
9. A subnet mask in class C can have _______
2. In _______, each packet of a message need 1s with the remaining bits 0s.
not follow the same path from sender to a. Ten
receiver. b. Twenty-five
a. Message switching c. Twelve
b. The virtual approach to packet switching d. Seven
c. The datagram approach to packet
switching 10. A subnet mask in class A has fourteen 1s.
d. None of the above How many subnets does it define?
a. 32
3. An IP address consists of _______ bits. b. 8
a. 4 c. 64
b. 8 d. 128
c. 32
d. Any of the above 11. A subnet mask in class B has nineteen 1s.
How many subnets does it define?
4. Identify the class of IP address 4.5.6.7. a. 8
a. Class A b. 32
b. Class B c. 64
c. Class C d. 128
d. Class D
12. A subnet mask in class C has twenty-five
5. Identify the class of IP address 229.1.2.3. 1s. How many subnets does it define
a. Class A a. 2
b. Class B b. 8
c. Class C c. 16
d. Class D d. 0
6. Identify the class of IP address 191.1.2.3. 13. Given the IP address 201.14.78.65 and the
a. Class A subnet mask 255.255.255.224, what is the
b. Class B subnet address?
c. Class C a. 201.14.78.32
d. Class D b. 201.14.78.65
c. 201.14.78.64
7. A subnet mask in class A can have _______ d. 201.14.78.12
1s with the remaining bits 0s.
a. Nine 14. Given the IP address 180.25.21.172 and the
b. Four subnet mask 255.255.192.0, what is the
c. Thirty-three subnet address?
d. Three a. 180.25.21.0
b. 180.25.0.0
c. 180.25.8.0
d. 180.0.0.0
Chapter 19: Host-To-Host Delivery
(Internetworking, Addressing and Routing)
15. Given the IP address 18.250.31.14 and the 21. In _______ routing, the full IP address of a
subnet mask 255.240.0.0, what is the subnet destination is given in the routing table.
address? a. Next-hop
a. 18.0.0.14 b. Network-specific
b. 18.31.0.14 c. Host-specific
c. 18.240.0.0. d. Default
d. 18.9.0.14
22. In _______ routing, the mask and
16. Class _________ has the greatest number of destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the
hosts per given network address. routing table.
a. A a. Next-hop
b. B b. Network-specific
c. C c. Host-specific
d. D d. Default
17. _______ is a client-server program that 23. In _______ routing, the destination address
provides an IP address, subnet mask, IP is a network address in the routing table.
address of a router, and IP address of a name a. Next-hop
server to a computer. b. Network-specific
a. NAT c. Host-specific
b. CIDR d. Default
c. ISP
d. DHCP
18. On a network that uses NAT, the __________

has a translation table.
a. Switch
b. Router
c. Server
19. On a network that uses NAT, _______

initiates the communication.
a. An external host
b. An internal host
c. The router
d. (a) or (b)
20. On a network that uses NAT, the router can

use _______ global address(es).
a. One
b. Two
c. A pool of
Chapter 20: Network Layer Protocols
(ARP, IPV4, ICMP, IPV6 AND ICMPV6)
1. _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in 8. An HLEN value of decimal 10 means

which a physical address is found for a given IP _________.
address. a. There is 10 bytes of options
a. ARP b. There is 40 bytes of options
b. RARP c. There is 10 bytes in the header
c. ICMP d. There is 40 bytes in the header
9. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length
2. A router reads the _______ address on a field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the
packet to determine the next hop. data field is 400 bytes?
a. MAC a. 428
b. Source b. 407
c. IP c. 107
d. ARP d. 427
3. The target hardware address on an Ethernet 10. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field
is _______ in an ARP request. given an HLEN value of 12 and total length
a. 0x000000000000 value of 40,000?
b. 0.0.0.0 a. 39,998
c. Variable b. 40,012
d. Class-dependent c. 40,048
d. 39,952
4. An ARP reply is _______ to _______.
a. Broadcast; all hosts 11. A datagram is fragmented into three smaller
b. Multicast; one host datagrams. Which of the following is true?
c. Unicast; one host a. The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all
d. Unicast; one host three datagrams.
b. The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all
5. An ARP request is _______ to _______. three datagrams.
a. Broadcast; all hosts c. The identification field is the same for
b. Multicast; one host all three datagrams.
c. Unicast; one host d. The offset field is the same for all three
d. Unicast; one host datagrams
6. What is the maximum size of the data 12. If the fragment offset has a value of 100, it
portion of the IP datagram? means that ______________.
a. 65,535 bytes a. The datagram has not been fragmented
b. 65,515 bytes b. The datagram is 100 bytes in size
c. 65,475 bytes c. The first byte of the datagram is byte 100
d. 65,460 bytes d. The first byte of the datagram is byte
800
7. A best-effort delivery service such as IP does
not include _______. 13. What is needed to determine the number of
a. Error checking the last byte of a fragment?
b. Error correction a. Identification number
c. Datagram acknowledgment b. Offset number
d. All the above c. Total length
d. (b) and (c)
Chapter 20: Network Layer Protocols
(ARP, IPV4, ICMP, IPV6 AND ICMPV6)
14. The IP header size ___________. 21. Errors in the header or option fields of an IP
a. Is 20 to 60 bytes long datagram require a ______ error message
b. Is 20 bytes long a. Parameter-problem
c. Is 60 bytes long b. Source-quench
d. Depends on the MTU c. Router-solicitation
d. Redirection
15. If a host needs to synchronize its clock with 22. A ______ can learn about network ______ by
another host, it sends a _______ message. sending out a router-solicitation packet.
a. Time-stamp request a. Router; routers
b. Source-quench b. Router; hosts
c. Routert-advertisement c. Host; hosts
d. Time-exceeded d. Host; routers
16. Which of the following types of ICMP 23. One method to alert a source host of
messages needs to be encapsulated into an IP congestion is the _______ message.
datagram? a. Redirection
a. Time-exceeded b. Echo-request
b. Multicasting c. Source-quench
c. Echo reply d. Destination-unreachable
d. All the above
24. A time-exceeded message is generated if
17. The purpose of echo request and echo reply _______.
is to ________________. a. The round-trip time between hosts is
a. Report errors close to zero
b. Check node-to-node communication b. The time-to-live field has a zero value
c. Check packet lifetime c. Fragments of a message do not arrive
d. Find IP addresses within a set time
d. (b) and (c)
18. In error reporting the encapsulated ICMP
packet goes to _______. 25. To determine whether a node is reachable,
a. The sender _____________ message can be sent.
b. The receiver a. An echo-reply
c. A router b. An echo-request
d. Any of the above c. A redirection
d. A source-quench
19. When the hop-count field reaches zero and
the destination has not been reached, a _______ 26. Which of the following is a necessary part of
error message is sent. the IPv6 datagram?
a. Destination-unreachable a. Base header
b. Time-exceeded b. Extension header
c. Parameter-problem c. Data packet from the upper layer
d. Redirection d. (a) and (c)
20. When not all fragments of a message have 27. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header
been received within the designated amount of restricts the lifetime of a datagram.
time, a _______ error message is sent. a. Version
a. Source-quench b. Priority
b. Time-exceeded c. Next-header
c. Parameter-problem d. Hop limit
d. Time-stamp request e. Neighbor-advertisement
Chapter 21: Unicast and Multicast Routing
(Routing Protocols)
1. RIP is based on 8. Dijkstra’s algorithm is used to

a. Link state routing a. Create LSAs
b. Distance vector routing b. Flood an internet with information
c. Dijkstra’s algorithm c. Calculate the routing tables
d. Path vector routing d. Create a link state database
2. In distance vector routing each router 9. An area is _______

receives information directly from _______. a. Part of an AS
a. Every router on the network b. Composed of at least two Ass
b. Every router less than two units away c. Another term for an internet
c. A table stored by the network hosts d. A collection of stub areas
d. Its neighbours only
10. In an autonomous system with n areas,
3. In distance vector routing a router sends out how many areas are connected to the
information backbone?
a. At regularly scheduled intervals a. 1
b. Only when there is a change in its table b. n – 1
c. Only when a new host is added c. n
d. Only when a new network is added d. n + 1
4. A routing table contains 11. An area border router can be connected to

a. The destination network ID a. Only another router
b. The hop count to reach the network b. Another router or another network
c. The router ID of the next hop c. Anly another network
d. All of the above d. Only another area border router
5. Router B receives an update from router A 12. Which of the following usually has the least
that indicates Net1 is two hops away. The next number of connections to othe areas?
update from A says Net1 is five hops away. a. An area
What value is entered in B’s routing table for b. An autonomous system
Net1? Assume the basic RIP is being used. c. A transient link
a. 2 d. A stub link
b. 3
c. 6 13. Which type of network using the OSPF
d. 7 protocol always consists of just two connected
routers?
6. If the routing table contains four new entries, a. Point-to-point
how many updates messages must the router b. Transient
send to its neighbour router? c. Stub
a. 1 d. Virtual
b. 2
c. 3 14. Which type of network using the OSPF
d. 4 protocol is the result of a break in a link
between the two routers?
7. The cost field of a router’s first table form a. Point-to-point
itself always has a value of b. Transient
a. 0 c. Stub
b. 1 d. Virtual
c. Infinity
d. Some positive integer
(Routing Protocols)
15. Which type of network using the OSPF 22. BGP is based on ___________.
protocol can have five routers attached to it? a. Distance vector routing
a. Point-to-point b. Link state routing
b. Transient c. Path vector routing
c. Stub d. a and b
d. All of the above
23. Which type of BGP message creates a
16. A WAN using the OSPF protocol that relationship between two routers?
connects two routers is an example of a a. Open
_________ type of OSPF network. b. Update
a. Point-to-point c. Keep-alive
b. Transient d. Notification
c. Stub
d. Virtual 24. Which type of BGP message announces a
route to a new destination?
17. An Ethernet LAN using the OSPF protocol a. Open
with five attached routers can be called a b. Update
________ network. c. Keep-alive
a. Point-to-point d. Notification
b. Transient
c. Stub 25. Which type of BGP message is sent by a
d. Virtual system to notify another router of the sender’s
existence?
18. Which layer produces the OSPF message? a. Open
a. Data link b. Update
b. Network c. Keep-alive
c. Transport d. Notification
d. Application
26. Which type of BGP message is sent by a
19. Which of the following is an exterior routing router to close a connection?
protocol? a. Open
a. RIP b. Update
b. OSPF c. Keep-alive
c. BGP d. Notification
d. a and b
27. The ________ is an IGMP message.
20. Which of the following is an interior routing a. Query message
protocol? b. Membership report
a. RIP c. Leave report
b. OSPF d. All of the above
c. BGP
d. a and b 28. An IGMP query is sent from a _________ to a
_________.
21. OSPF is based on ____________. a. Host; host
a. Distance vector routing b. Host; router
b. Link state routing c. Router; router
c. Path vector routing d. Router; host or router
d. a and b
(Routing Protocols)
35. A one-to-one communication between a

29. The ________ is used by a router in response source and one destination is classified as a
to a received-leave report. _________ communication.
a. General query message a. Unicast
b. Special query message b. Multicast
c. Membership report c. Broadcast
d. Leave report d. a and b
30. The ________ field of the IGMP message is all 36. ___________ is a multicasting application.
zeros in a query message. a. Teleconferencing
a. Version b. Distance learning
b. Type c. Information dissemination
c. Checksum d. All of the above
d. Group address
37. A __________ is a data structure with nodes
31. The _________ field of the IGMP message is and edges and a hierarchical structure.
0x11 for a query message. a. Tree
a. Version b. Graph
b. Type c. Leaf
c. Checksum d. Root
d. a and b
38. A system uses source-based trees for
32. If four hosts on a network belong to the multicasting. If there are 100 sources and 5
same group, a total of _________ sent in groups, there is a maximum of _________
response to a general query message. different trees.
a. One membership report is a. 5
b. Two membership reports are b. 20
c. Three membership reports are c. 100
d. Four membership reports are d. 500
33. A one-to-all communication between a 39. In a _________ tree approach to

source and all hosts on a network is classified multicasting, the combination of source and
as a _________ communication. group determines the tree.
a. Unicast a. Spanning-source
b. Multicast b. Shortest-group
c. Broadcast c. Source-based
d. a and b d. Group-shared
34. A one-to-many communication between a 40. In a _________ tree approach to

source and a specific group of hosts is classified multicasting, the group determines the tree.
as a ________ communication. a. Spanning-source
a. Unicast b. Shortest-group
b. Multicast c. Source-based
c. Broadcast d. Group-shared
d. a and b
(Routing Protocols)
41. A system uses group-shared trees for 47. A _________ message tells an upstream
multicasting. If there are 100 sources and 5 router to start sending multicast messages for a
groups, there is a maximum of ____________ specific group through a specific router.
different trees. a. Weed
a. 5 b. Graft
b. 20 c. Prune
c. 100 d. Plum
d. 500
48. __________ uses multicast link state routing
42. ___________ is a multicast routing protocol concepts to create source-based trees.
using source-based trees. a. DVMRP
a. DVRMP b. MOSPF
b. MOSPF c. CBT
c. CBT d. BVD
d. a and b
49. In the __________ protocol, a multicast
43. ___________ is a multicast routing protocol packet is encapsulated inside a unicast packet
using group-shared trees. with the core router as the destination.
a. DVRMP a. DVMRP
b. MOSPF b. MOSPF
c. CBT c. CBT
d. a and b d. BVD
44. In _________ a network can receive a 50. ____________ is used in a dense multicast
multicast packet from a particular source only environment while __________ is used in a
through a designated parent router. sparse multicast environment.
a. RPF a. PIM-DM; PIM-SM
b. RPB b. PIM-SM; PIM-DM
c. RPM c. PIM; PIM-DM
d. All of the above d. PIM; PIM-SM
45. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in 51. When a multicast router is not directly
a. RPF connected to another multicast router, a
b. RPB _________ can be formed to connect the two.
c. RPM a. Physical tunnel
d. All of the above b. Logical tunnel
c. Logical core
46. A __________ message tells an upstream d. Spanning tree
router to stop sending multicast messages for a
specific group through a specific router.
a. Weed
b. Graft
c. Prune
d. Plum
Chapter 22: Process-to-Process Delivery
(UDP AND TCP)
1. UDP and TCP are both _____ layer protocols 8. Which of the following is not part of the UDP
a. Physical user datagram header?
b. Data Link a. Length of header
c. Network b. Source port address
d. Transport c. Checksum
d. Destination port address
2. Which of the following functions does UDP
perform? 9. The ______ defines the client program
a. Process-to-process communication a. Ephemeral port number
b. Host-to-host communication b. IP address
c. End-to-end reliable data delivery c. Well-known port number
d. All of the above d. Physical address
3. UDP needs the _____ address to deliver the 10. The _______ defines the server program
user datagram to the correct application a. Ephemeral port number
program. b. IP address
a. Port c. Well-known port number
b. Application d. Physical address
c. Internet
d. Physical 11. IP is responsible for ____ communication
while TCP is responsible for ________
4. Which is a legal port address? communication
a. 0 a. Host-to-host; process-to-process
b. 513 b. Process-to-process; host-to-host
c. 65,535 c. Process-to-process; node-to-node
d. All of the above d. Node-to-node; process-to-process
5. The definition of reliable delivery includes 12. A host can be identified by _______ while a
____ program running on the host can be identified
a. Error-free delivery by _____
b. Receipt of the complete message a. An IP address ; a port number
c. In-order delivery b. A port number ; an IP address
d. All of the above c. An IP address ; a host address
d. An IP address ; a well-known port
6. Which of the following does the UDP
guarantee? 13. The ______ address uniquely identifies a
a. Sequence numbers on each user running application program
datagram a. IP address
b. Acknowledgments to the sender b. Host
c. Flow control c. NIC
d. None of the above d. Socket
7. The source port address on the UDP user 14. The ______ field is used to order packets of a
datagram header defines ___ message.
a. The sending computer a. Urgent pointer
b. The receiving computer b. Checksum
c. The application program on the c. Sequence number
sending computer d. Acknowledgment number
d. The application program on the receiving
computer
Chapter 22: Process-to-Process Delivery
(UDP AND TCP)
15. The _____ field is used for error detection. 22. The _____ timer prevents a long idle
a. Urgent pointer connection between two TCPs
b. Checksum a. Retransmission
c. Sequence number b. Persistence
d. Acknowledgement number c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited
16. Multiply the header length field by _______
to find the total number of bytes in the TCP 23. The ____ timer is needed to handle the zero
header window-size advertisement
a. 2 a. Retransmission
b. 4 b. Persistence
c. 6 c. Keep-alive
d. 8 d. Time-waited
17. Urgent data require the urgent pointer field 24. Karn’s algorithm is used in calculations by
as well as the URG bit in the _____ field the ______ timer
a. Control a. Retransmission
b. Offset b. Persistence
c. Sequence number c. Keep-alive
d. Reserved d. Time-waited
18. In ______, data are sent or processed at a 25. The ____ timer is used in the termination
very inefficient rate, such as one byte at a time phase
a. Nagle’s syndrome a. Retransmission
b. Silly window syndrome b. Persistence
c. Sliding window syndrome c. Keep-alive
d. Delayed acknowledgement d. Time-waited
19. To prevent silly window syndrome created 26. The _____ timer keeps track of the time
by a receiver that processes data at a very slow between the sending of a segment and the
rate, _____ can be used. receipt of an acknowledgment
a. Clark’s solution a. Retransmission
b. Nagle’s algorithm b. Persistence
c. Delayed acknowledgment c. Keep-alive
d. (a) or (c) d. Time-waited
20. To prevent silly window syndrome created 27. Connection establishment involves a
by a sender that processes data at a very slow _______handshake.
rate, _____ can be used. a. One-way
a. Clark’s solution b. Two-way
b. Nagle’s algorithm c. Three-way
c. Delayed acknowledgment d. None of the above
d. (a) or (c)
28. A special segment called a probe is sent by
21. An ACK number of 1000 always means that sending a TCP when the _____ timer goes off.
_____ a. Transmission
a. 999 bytes has been successfully received b. Persistence
b. 1000 bytes has been successfully c. Keep-alive
received d. Time-waited
c. 1001 bytes has been successfully
received
Chapter 23: Congestion Control and Quality
of Service
1. The maximum length of time that traffic is 8. Slow start is used in conjunction with
generated at the peak rate is called the ______as a TCP congestion control strategy
___________. a. Additive increase
a. Average data rate b. Additive decrease
b. Maximum burst size c. Multiplicative increase
c. Effective bandwidth d. Multiplicative decrease
d. Constant bit rate
9. The FECN informs the _____ of congestion
2. The ____ is the maximum data rate of the while the BECN informs the _____ of congestion
traffic a. Destination; interface
a. Average data rate b. Destination ; sender
b. Peak data rate c. Sender; destination
c. Maximum burst size d. Interface; sender
d. Effective bandwidth
10. _____ is a flow characteristic in which the
3. The effective bandwidth is based on delay varies for packets belonging to the same
_________. flow
a. Average data rate a. Choke point
b. Peak data rate b. Throughput
c. Maximum burst size c. Additive increase
d. All of the above d. Jitter
4. _____traffic features sudden data rate 11. In _____ queuing the first packet into the
changes in very short periods of time. queue is the first packet out of the queue
a. Constant-bit-rate a. FIFO
b. Variable-bit-rate b. LIFO
c. Bursty c. Priority
d. Peak-bit-rate d. Weighted fair
5. When the load is greater than the capacity, 12. The ____ traffic shaping method gives a host
the delay _______ credit for its idle time
a. Decreases a. Leaky bucket
b. Increases linearly b. Token bucket
c. Goes to infinity c. Traffic bucket
d. Goes to zero d. Bursty bucket
6. ______ is a closed loop mechanism to alleviate 13. A flow-based QoS model designated for IP is
congestions called________
a. A choke point a. Integrated services
b. Implicit signaling b. Differentiated services
c. Explicit signaling c. RSVP
d. All of the above d. Multicast trees
7. For a system using TCP, the sender window 14. A signaling protocol that helps IP create a
size is determined by the _____ window size flow is called _____
a. Receiver a. Integrated services
b. Sender b. Differentiated services
c. Congestion c. RSVP
d. (a) and (c) d. Multicast trees
of Service
15. RSVP uses _____ messages 22. In Frame Relay the transmission rate can
a. Path never exceed _____.
b. Resv a. Bc
c. Resource b. Be
d. (a) and (b) c. CIR
d. The access rate
16. In a RSVP reservation style called ______
filter, the router creates a single reservation 23. The cell _______ is the difference between
that can be shared by a set of flows. the CTD maximum and minimum
a. Wild card a. Loss ratio
b. Fixed b. Transfer delay
c. Shared explicit c. Delay variation
d. All of the above d. Error ratio
17. Differentiated services was designed to 24. The cell ____ is the ratio of lost cells to cells
handle the ______ problem associated with sent
Integrated Services a. Loss ratio
a. Scalability b. Transfer delay
b. Stability c. Delay variation
c. Reservation d. Error ratio
d. All of the above
25. The _____ service class is particularly
18. A ____ is a Differentiated Services traffic suitable for applications with bursty data
conditioner a. CBR
a. Meter b. VBR
b. Marker c. ABR
c. Shaper d. UBR
d. All of the above
26. The _____ service class is suitable for
19. When added to Be, Bc should be less than customers who need real-time video
the ________ transmission without compression
a. CIR a. CBR
b. Access rate b. VBR
c. Committed burst size c. ABR
d. (a) and (b) d. UBR
20. What is the relationship between the access 27. The ______ is greater than the SCR.
rate and the CIR? a. PCR
a. CIR is always equal to the access rate b. MCR
b. CIR is greater than the access rate c. CVDT
c. CIR is less than the access rate d. All of the above
d. CIR plus Bc is equal to the access rate
28. ________ measures the variation in cell
21. A Frame Relay network is committed to transmission time
transfer ______ bps without discarding any a. SCR
frames b. PCR
a. Bc c. MCR
b. Be d. CVDT
c. CIR
d. (a) and (b)
of Service
29. If the SCR is 60 000, the PCR is 70 000 and

the MCR is 55 000, what is the minimum
number of cells that can be sent per second?
a. 55 000
b. 60 000
c. 70 000
d. 5000
30. The ____ is the fraction of the cells delivered

in error
a. CLR
b. CTD
c. CDV
d. CER
31. If the maximum CTD is 10 µs and the

minimum CTD is 1µs, the _______ is 9µs
a. CLR
b. CTD
c. CDV
d. CER
Chapter 24: Client-Server Model
(Socket Interface)
1. _____ can request a service. 8. A client issues _____ when it needs service
a. A socket interface from a server.
b. A port a. An active open
c. A client b. A passive open
d. A server c. An active request
d. A finite open
2. _____ can provide a service.
a. An iterative server 9. A server program, once it issues ______, waits
b. A concurrent server for clients to request its service.
c. A client a. An active open
d. A and B b. A passive open
c. An actuve request
3. The client program is _____ because it d. A finite open
terminates after it has been served.
a. Active 10. _____ processes requests one at a time.
b. Passive a. An iterative client
c. Finite b. An iterative server
d. Infinite c. A concurrent client
d. A concurrent server
4. The server program is ______ because it is
always available, waiting for a client request. 11. _____ processes many requests
a. Active simultaneously.
b. Passive a. An iterative client
c. Finite b. An iterative server
d. Infinite c. A concurrent client
d. A concurrent server
5. A connection-oriented concurrent server uses
_____ ports. 12. In a connection-oriented concurrent server,
a. Ephemeral the _____ is used for connection only.
b. Well-known a. Infinite port
c. Active b. Ephemeral port
d. A and B c. Well-known port
d. B and C
6. A connectionless iterative server uses _____
ports. 13. A _____ is an instance of a _____.
a. Ephemeral a. Process ; program
b. Well-known b. Program ; process
c. Active c. Process ; service
d. A and B d. Structure ; process
7. Machine A requests service X from machine 14. The _____ socket is used with a connection-
B. Machine B requests service Y from machine oriented protocol.
A. What is the total number of application a. Stream
programs required? b. Datagram
a. One c. Raw
b. Two d. Remote
c. Three
d. Four
Chapter 24: Client-Server Model
(Socket Interface)
15. The _____ socket is used with a

connectionless protocol.
a. Stream
b. Datagram
c. Raw
d. Remote
16. The _____ socket is used with a protocol

that directly uses the services of IP.
a. Stream
b. Datagram
c. Raw
d. Remote
17. A _____ server serves multiple clients,

handling one request at a time.
a. Connection-oriented iterative
b. Connection-oriented concurrent
c. Connectionless iterative
d. Connectionless concurrent
18. A _____ server serves multiple clients

simultaneously.
a. Connection-oriented iterative
b. Connection-oriented concurrent
c. Connectionless iterative
d. Connectionless concurrent
Chapter 25: Domain Name System (DNS)]
1. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _____ 8. How is the lifetime of a name-to-address

is the least specific label. resolution in cache memory controlled?
a. chal a. By the time-to-live field set by the server
b. atc b. By the time-to-live counter set by the
c. fhda server
d. edu c. By the time-to-live field set by the
authoritative server
2. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _____ d. B and C
is the most specific label.
a. chal 9. In the string 219.46.123.107.in-addr.arpa,
b. atc what is the network address of the host we are
c. fhda looking for?
d. edu a. 219.46.123.0
b. 107.123.0.0
3. Which of the following domain names would c. 107.123.46.0
most likely use a country domainto resolve its d. 107.0.0.0
IP address?
a. chal.atc.fhda.edu 10. A host with the domain name
b. gsfc.nasa.gov pit.arc.nasa.gov is on the _____ level of the DNS
c. kenz.acct.sony.jp hierarchical tree. (the root is level 1)
d. mac.eng.sony.com a. Third
b. Fourth
4. A DNS response is classified as _____ if the c. Fifth
information comes from a cache memory. d. Not enough information given
a. Authoritative
b. Unauthoritative 11. A host with the domain name
c. Iterative trinity.blue.vers.inc is on the _____ level of the
d. Recursive DNS hierarchical tree. (the root is level 1)
a. Third
5. In _____ resolution the client is in direct b. Fourth
contact with at most one server. c. Fifth
a. A recursive d. Not enough information given
b. An iterative
c. A cache 12. A DNS _____server gets its data from
d. All of the above another DNS server.
a. Primary
6. In _____ resolution the client could directly b. Secondary
contact more than one server. c. Root
a. A recursive d. All of the above
b. An iterative
c. A cache 13. A DNS _____server creates, maintains, and
d. All of the above updates the zone file.
a. Primary
7. In address-to-name resolution the _____ b. Secondary
domain is used. c. Root
a. Inverse d. All of the above
b. Reverse
c. Generic
d. Country
Chapter 25: Domain Name System (DNS)]
14. A DNS _____ server's zone is the entire DNS

tree.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Root
d. All of the above
15. A resolver is the _____.

a. DNS client
b. DNS server
c. Host machine
d. Root server
16. To find the IP address of a host when the

domain name is known, the _____ can be used.
a. Inverse domain
b. Generic domains
c. Country domains
d. B or C
Chapter 26: Electronic Mail (SMTP) and File
Transfer (FTP)
1. The purpose of the UA is _______. 8. The _______ field in the MIME header has
a. Message preparation type and subtype subfields.
b. Envelope creation a. Content-type
c. Transferral of messages across the b. Content-transfer-encoding
internet c. Content-id
d. (a) and (b) d. Content-description
9. A JPEG image is sent as email. What is the
2. The purpose of the MTA is _______. content-type?
a. Transferral of messages across the a. Multipart/mixed
Internet b. Multipart/image
b. Message preparation c. Image/JPEG
c. Envelope creation d. Image/basic
d. (a) and (b)
10. An email contains a textual birthday
3. Which part of the mail created by the UA greeting, a picture of a cake, and a song. The
contains the sender and receiver names? text must precede the image. What is the
a. Envelope content-type?
b. Header a. Multipart/mixed
c. Address b. Multipart/parallel
d. Body c. Multipart/digest
d. Multipart/alternative
4. In the email address
mackenzie@pit.arc.nasa.gov, what is the 11. An email contains a textual birthday
domain name? greeting, a picture of a cake, and a song. The
a. mackenzie order is not important. What is the content-
b. pit.arc.nasa.gov type?
c. mackenzie@pit.arc.nasa.gov a. Multipart/mixed
d. (a) and (b) b. Multipart/parallel
c. Multipart/digest
5. The _______ field in the MIME header is the d. Multipart/alternative
type of data and the body of the message.
a. Content-type 12. A message is fragmented into three email
b. Content-transfer-encoding messages. What is the content-type?
c. Content-id a. Multipart/mixed
d. Content-description b. Message/RFC822
c. Message/partial
6. The _______ field in the MIME header uses d. Multipart/partial
text to describe the data in the body of the
message. 13. A client machine usually needs _______ to
a. Content-type send email.
b. Content-transfer-encoding a. Only SMTP
c. Content-id b. Only POP
d. Content-description c. Both SMTP and POP
7. The _______ field in the MIME header
describes the method used to encode the data.
a. Content-type
b. Content-transfer-encoding
c. Content-id
d. Content-description
Chapter 26: Electronic Mail (SMTP) and File
Transfer (FTP)
14. Which of the following is true? 21. In FTP, when you _______, it is copied from
a. FTP allows systems with different the client to the server.
directory structures to transfer files. a. Retrieve a file
b. FTP allows a system using ASCII and a b. Store a file
system using EBCDIC to transfer files. c. Retrieve a list
c. FTP allows a PC and a SUN workstation d. (a) and (c)
to transfer files.
d. All the above are true. 22. In anonymous FTP, the user can usually
______.
15. During an FTP session the control a. Retrieve files
connection is opened _______. b. Navigate through directories
a. Exactly once c. Store files
b. Exactly twice d. Do all the above
c. As many times as necessary
d. All of the above
16. During an FTP session the data connection

is opened _______.
a. Exactly once
b. Exactly twice
c. As many times as necessary
d. All of the above
17. In FTP, what attributes must be defined by
the client prior to transmission?
a. Data type
b. File structure
c. Transmission mode
d. All of the above
18. In FTP, there are three types of _______:

stream, block, and compressed.
a. Files
b. Data structures
c. Transmission modes
d. All of the above
19. In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define

an attribute called _______.
a. File type
b. Data structure
c. Transmission mode
d. All of the above
20. In FTP, when you _______, it is copied from

the server to the client.
a. Retrieve a file
b. Store a file
c. Retrieve a list
d. (a) and (c)
Chapter 27: HTTP And WWW
1. HTTP has similarities to both _______ and 8. A user needs to retrieve a document from the
_______. server; the request line contains the _______
a. FTP; SNMP method.
b. FTP; SMTP a. GET
c. FTP; MTV b. HEAD
d. FTP; URL c. POST
d. PUT
2. A request message always contains _______.
a. A header and a body 9. A user needs to send the server some
b. A request line and a header information. The request line method is
c. A status line, a header, and a body ________.
d. A status line and a header a. OPTION
b. PATCH
3. Which of the following is present in both a c. MOVE
request line and a status line? d. POST
a. HTTP version number
b. URL 10. A user needs to move a file to another
c. Status code location. The request line method is _______.
d. Status phrase a. MOVE
b. PUT
4. What does the URL need to access a c. GET
document? d. PATCH
a. Path name 11. A response message always contains
b. Host computer _______.
c. Retrieval method a. A header and a body
d. All the above b. A status line, a header, and a body
c. A request line and a header
5. Which of the following is a retrieval method? d. A status line and a header
a. HTTP
b. FTP 12. The _______ header supplies information
c. TELNET about the body of a document.
d. All of the above a. General
b. Request
6. A user wants to replace a document with a c. Response
newer version; the request line contains the d. Entity
_______ method.
a. GET 13. The _______ header can specify the server
b. POST configuration or provide information about a
c. COPY request.
d. PUT a. General
b. Request
7. A user wants to copy a file to another c. Response
location; the request line contains the _______ d. Entity
method.
a. PUT 14. The _______ header can specify the client
b. PATCH configuration and the client's preferred
c. COPY document format.
d. POST a. General
b. Request
c. Response
d. Entity
15. Hypertext documents are linked through 22. The _______ of a Web page contains the title
___________. and parameters used by the browser.
a. DNS a. Tags
b. TELNET b. Head
c. Pointers c. Body
d. Homepages d. Attributes
16. Which of the following is not a client 23. In < IMG SRC="Pictures/book1.gif"
program in WWW? ALIGN=middle> ALIGN is _______.
a. FTP a. A tag
b. TELNET b. The head
c. HTTP c. The body
d. HTML d. An attribute
17. Which of the following is an interpreter? 24. An ending tag is usually of the form _______.
a. HTTP a. </tagname>
b. HTML b. <\ tagname>
c. CGI c. < tagname >
d. FTP d. < tagname!>
18. What are the components of a browser? 25. Which category of HTML tags allows the
a. Retrieval method, host computer, path listing of documents?
name a. Image
b. Controller, client program, interpreter b. List
c. Hypertext, hypermedia, HTML c. Hyperlink
d. All the above d. Executable contents
19. Which type of Web document is run at the 26. The __________ tags enclose binary code or
client site? byte code.
a. Static a. Image
b. Dynamic b. List
c. Active c. Hyperlink
d. All the above d. Executable contents
20. Which type of Web document is created at 27. A program can use _____ to write a CGI
the server site only when requested by a client? program.
a. Static a. Bourne shell script
b. Dynamic b. Perl
c. Active c. C
d. All the above d. Any of the above
21. Which type of Web document is fixed- 28. An unemployed actor has posted his
content and is created and stored at the server resume on the Web. This is probably a(n)
site? _______ document.
a. Static a. Active
b. Dynamic b. Static
c. Active c. Passive
d. All the above d. Dynamic
29. The server receives input from a browser 36. Stock quotations are posted on the Web.
through _________. This is probably a(n) ____________ document.
a. An attribute a. Active
b. A tag b. Static
c. A form c. Passive
d. Any of the above d. Dynamic
30. Output from a CGI program is _______. 37. Updates for a satellite’s coordinates can be
a. Text obtained on the WWW. This is probably a(n)
b. Graphics ________ document.
c. Binary data a. Active
d. Any of the above b. Static
c. Passive
31. Which type of Web document is transported d. Dynamic
from the server to the client in binary form?
a. Static
b. Dynamic
c. Active
d. All of the above
32. An applet is a small application program

written in _____.
a. C
b. C++
c. Shell script
d. Java
33. _____________ is used to enable the use of

active documents.
a. HTML
b. CGI
c. Java
d. All the above
34. Java is ____________.

a. A programming language
b. A run-time environment
c. A class library
d. All the above
35. An applet is ____________ document

application program.
a. A static
b. An active
c. A passive
d. A dynamic
Chapter 28: Multimedia
1. For streaming stored audio/video, the 8. A _______ changes the format of a high-
_______ holds information about the bandwidth video signal to a lower-quality
audio/video file narrow-bandwidth signal
a. Alpha file a. Timestamp
b. Beta file b. Sequence number
c. Metafile c. Mixer
d. Jitter d. Translator
2. _______ is a control protocol that adds 9. An RTP packet is encapsulated in

functionalities to the streaming process. a(n)_______.
a. RTSP a. UDP user diagram
b. HTTP b. TCP segment
c. TCP/IP c. IP datagram
d. SIP d. RTCP packet
3. The audio/video stream is sent by the media 10. TCP is not suitable for real-time traffic
server to the _______. because _______.
a. Browser a. There is no provision for timestamping
b. Web server b. There is no support for multicasting
c. Media player c. Missing packets are retransmitted
d. None of the above d. All of the above
4. A _______ shows when a packet was 11. JPEG encoding involves _______, a process
produced relative to the first or previous packet. that reveals the redundancies in a block.
a. Timestamp a. Blocking
b. Playback buffer b. The DCT
c. Sequence number c. Quantization
d. Threshold d. Vectorization
5. _______ are used to number the packets of a 12. The last step in JPEG, _______, removes
real-time transmission. redundancies.
a. Timestamps a. Blocking
b. Playback buffers b. Quantization
c. Sequence numbers c. Compression
d. Translators d. Vectorization
6. In a real-time video conference, data from the 13. The RTCP _______ message shuts down a
server are _______ to the client sites. stream.
a. Unicast a. Aplication-specific
b. Multicast b. Bye
c. Broadcast c. Source description
d. None of the above d. Farewell
7. A _______ adds signals from different sources

to create a single signal. 14. The RTCP _______ report informs the sender
a. Timestamp and other receivers about the quality of service.
b. Sequence number a. Sender
c. Mixer b. Receiver
d. Translator c. QoS
d. Passive
Chapter 28: Multimedia
15. Voice over IP is a(n) _______ audio/video

application.
a. Streamin stored
b. Streaming live
c. Interactive
16. _______ is an application layer protocol that

establishes, maintains, and terminates a
multimedia session.
a. SIP
b. RTCP
c. DCT
d. JPEG
17. _______ is a SIP message type.

a. INVITE
b. CANCEL
c. OPTION
d. All of the above
18. A _______ is involved in an SIP mechanism

to find the IP address of a callee.
a. Proxy server
b. Register
c. Media server
d. a and b
19. A standard that allows a telephone

(connected to a public telephone network) to
talk to a computer connected to the Internet is
_______.
a. IEEE 802.3
b. SIP
c. H.323
d. V.90bis
20. _______ is a protocol to set up and terminate

a connection between a computer on the
Internet and a telephone (connected to a public
telephone network).
a. H.323
b. Q.931
c. H.245
d. H.225
Chapter 29: CRYPTOGRAPHY
1. Before a message is encrypted, it is called 8. We use a cryptography method in which the

_______. character Z always substitutes for the character
a. Plaintext G. This is probably ___________.
b. Ciphertext a. Monoalphabetic substitution
c. Cryptotext b. Polyalphabetic substitution
d. Cryptonite c. Transpositional
d. None of the Above
2. After a message is decrypted, it is called
_______. 9. We use a cryptography method in which the
a. Plaintext plaintext AAAAAA becomes the ciphertext
b. Ciphertext BCDEFG. This is probably ____________.
c. Cryptotext a. Monoalphabetic substitution
d. Cryptonite b. Polyalphabetic substitution
c. Transposition
3. A cipher is _______. d. None of the Above
a. An encryption algorithm
b. A decryption algorithm 10. One way to encrypt and decrypt long
c. A private key messages is through the use of the _______.
d. (a) or (b) a. ECB mode
b. CBC mode
4. In the symmetric-key method of c. CFM
cryptography, which key is publicly known? d. All of the Above
a. Encryption key only
b. Decryption key only 11. An initialization vector is needed in the
c. Both _____________.
d. None of the Above a. CSM
b. CBC mode
5. If 20 people need to communicate using c. CVF
symmetric-key cryptography, ____ symmetric d. a and b
keys are needed.
a. 19 12. In the __________, the encryption of each 8-
b. 20 byte block is independent of the other
c. 190 a. ECB mode
d. 200 b. CBC mode
c. CVF
6. The _______ is an example of polyalphabetic d. CSM
substitution.
a. P-box 13. In the public key method of cryptography,
b. S-box which key is publicly known?
c. Product block a. Encryption key only
d. Vigenere cipher b. Decryption key only
c. Both
7. The _________ is a block cipher. d. None of the Above
a. P-box
b. S-box
c. Product block
d. All the above
Chapter 29: CRYPTOGRAPHY
14. In the public-key method of cryptography,

only the receiver has possession of the
__________.
a. Private key
b. Public key
c. Both keys
d. None of the Above
15. The RSA algorithm uses a __________

cryptography method.
a. Public-key
b. Private-key
c. Symmetric-key
d. Denominational
Chapter 30: Message Security, User
Authentication and Key Management
1. If user A wants to send an encrypted 7. In a _______ attack, a message captured by

message to user B, the Plaintext is encrypted an intruder is illegally sent a second time.
with the public key of _______. a. Return
a. User A b. Man-in-the-middle
b. User B c. Bucket brigade
c. The network d. Replay
d. a or b
8. A _______ is a large number used only once
2. When symmetric-key encryption is combined that helps distinguish a fresh authentication
with private-key encryption, the _______ key is request from a repeated one.
encrypted with the public key. a. Ticket
a. Private b. Nonce
b. Public c. Realm
c. Symmetric d. Public key
d. Skeleton
9. In an authentication using symmetric keys, if
3. In the digital signature technique, the sender 10 people need to communicate, we need
of the message uses _______ to create _______ keys.
ciphertext. a. 10
a. His or her own symmetric key b. 20
b. His or her own private key c. 45
c. His or her public key d. 90
d. The receiver’s private key
10. In the _______ protocol, the symmetric key
4. In the digital signature technique, the is K = Gxy mod N, where G and N are public
receiver of the message uses _______ to create numbers.
plaintext. a. Diffie-Hellman
a. His or her own symmetric key b. Needham-Schroeder
b. His or her own private key c. Otway Rees
c. His or her own public key d. Kerberos
d. The sender’s public key
11. In a ________ attack, an intruder comes
5. A _______ is a trusted third party that solves between two communicating parties,
the problem of symmetric-key distribution. intercepting and replying to their messages.
a. CA a. Return
b. KDC b. Man-in-the-Middle
c. TLS c. Bucket-in-the-Middle
d. Firewall d. Replay
6. A _______ certifies the bonding between a 12. A _______ is a trusted third party that
public key and its owner. establishes a symmetric key between two
a. CA parties who wish to communicate.
b. KDC a. KDC
c. TLS b. CA
d. Firewall c. PKI
d. TGS
Chapter 30: Message Security, User
Authentication and Key Management
13. In the _______ protocol, a nonce is

decremented by 1 so that an intruder cannot
send the exact same message a second time.
a. Diffie-Hellman
b. Needham-Schroeder
c. Otway Rees
d. Kerberos
14. _______ is an authentication protocol that

needs an authentication server and a ticket-
granting server.
a. Diffie-Hellman
c. Otway Rees
d. Kerberos
15. The _______ is the KDC in the Kerberos

protocol.
a. AS
b. TGS
c. Real server
d. Data server
16. The _______ issues tickets for the real

server.
a. AS
b. TGS
c. Real server
d. Data server
17. In _______-key cryptography, everyone has

access to all the public keys.
a. Private
b. Symmetric
c. Public
d. Certified
18. A protocol called _______ describes the

certificate issued by a CA in a structural way.
a. X.509
b. CA level 1
c. KDC
d. Kerberos
19. Windows 2000 uses an authentication

protocol called ________.
a. Diffie-Hellman
c. Otway Rees
d. Kerberos
Chapter 31: Virtual Private Network
1. IPSec requires a logical connection between 7. A _____ can forward or block packets based
two hosts using a signalling protocol called on the information in the network layer and the
_____. transport layer headers.
a. AH a. Proxy firewall
b. SA b. Packet-filter firewall
c. PGP c. Message digest
d. TLS d. Private key
2. The handshake protocol and data exchange 8. The _____ field in the authentication header
protocol are part of _____. and the ESP header define the security method
a. CA used in creating the authenication data.
b. KDC a. Padding
c. TLS b. Sequence number
d. SSH c. Authenticatiin data
d. SPI
3. _____ is a collection of protocols that provide
security at the IP layer level. 9. _____ is a transport layer security protocol.
a. TLS a. TLS
b. SSH b. PGP
c. PGP c. IPSec
d. IPSec d. AH
4. _____ is an IP layer security protocol that 10. A method to provide for the security
only provides integrity and authentication. transport of email is called _____.
a. AH a. TLS
b. PGP b. SA
c. ESP c. PGP
d. IPSec d. IPSec
5. _____ is an IP layer security protocol that 11. A _____ can forward or block messages
provides privacy as well as integrity and based on the information in the message itself.
authentication. a. Proxy firewall
a. AH b. Packet filter firewall
b. PGP c. Message digest
c. ESP d. Private key
d. IPSec
12. A _____ network is totally isolated from the
6. An IP datagram carries an authentication global Internet.
header if the _____ field of the IP header has a a. Private
value of 51. b. Hybrid
a. Next-header c. Virtual private
b. Protocol d. Any of the above
c. Security parameter index
d. Sequence number 13. A _____ network can use a leased line for
intraorganization communication and the
Internet for interorganization communication.
a. Private
b. Hybrid
c. Virtual private
d. Any of the above
Chapter 31: Virtual Private Network
14. A VPN uses _____ to guarantee privacy.

a. IPSec
b. Tunneling
c. Both a and b
15. In a VPN, _____ encrypted.

a. The inner datagram is
b. The outer datagram is
c. Both inner and outer diagram are
d. Neither the inner nor the outer datagram
is
16. Tunneling is a technique in which the IP

diagram is first _____ and then _____.
a. Encapsulated in another
datagram;encrypted
b. Encrypted;encapsulated in another
datagram
c. Authenticated;encrypted
d. Encrypted;authenticated
17. An _____ is a private network with no

external access that uses the TCP/IO suite.
a. Internet
b. internet
c. Intranet
d. Extranet
18. An _____ is a private network with limited

external access that uses the TCP/IP suite.
a. Internet
b. internet
c. Intranet
d. Extranet

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DATA COMMUNICATIONS and NETWORKING

3rd Edition by BEHROUZ A. FOROUZAN

4. An unauthorized user is a network 11. In a _______________ connection, more than

5. Which topology requires a central controller 12. In _______________ transmission, the

15. A sine wave is _______________. 21. The ____________ has units of

28. The wavelength of green light in air is

29. Using the Shannon formula to calculate the

18. Block coding can help in __________ at the

19. In ____________ transmission, bits are

20. In ________ transmission, bits are

21. In __________ transmission, a start bit and

27. The bit rate always equal the baud rate in

28. A modulator converts a(n) _________ signal

29. A 56K modem can download at a rate of

13. A new telephone company that provides

14. The telephone service handled between two

15. If the end office receives two bursts of

16. Data from a computer are _____: the local

17. A traditional telephone line has bandwidth

17. In an HFC network, the upstream are

18. The standard for data transmission over an

19. The _____ is an HFC network device

20. SONET is a standard for _____ networks.

17. Which error detection method involves the

18. Which error detection method can detect a

19. Which error detection method can detect a

2. Flow control is needed to prevent ________. 9. HDLC is an acronym for _______.

13. For CHAP authentication, the user takes

14. ___________, an (a) __________ protocol,

1. The most primitive random access method is 8. ____________ is a random-access protocol.

15. When a primary device asks a secondary

16. If an FDMA network has eight stations, the

17. If a TDMA network has eight stations, the

18. If a CDMA network has eight stations, the

19. A Walsh table for 16 stations has a chip

20. In the ______ method, the sender hops from

2. A bridge forwards or filters a frame by 9. A system redundant bridges might have a

15. Which station characteristics can be used

16. In a VLAN, stations are seperated into

1. A ________ is computerized center that is 8. D-AMPS used ________ for multiplexing.

20. The __________ is not used for voice

21. _________ is often used for navigation

22. A LEO satellite has ________ orbit.

15. Which AAL type is designed to support

16. In an ATM network, all cells belonging to a

17. A _______ provides a connection or a set of

18. A _________ is the physical connection

19. The VPI of a UNI is _________ bits in length.

20. The VPI of an NNI is _________ bits in

18. On a network that uses NAT, the __________

19. On a network that uses NAT, _______

20. On a network that uses NAT, the router can

1. _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in 8. An HLEN value of decimal 10 means

1. RIP is based on 8. Dijkstra’s algorithm is used to

2. In distance vector routing each router 9. An area is _______

4. A routing table contains 11. An area border router can be connected to

35. A one-to-one communication between a

33. A one-to-all communication between a 39. In a _________ tree approach to

34. A one-to-many communication between a 40. In a _________ tree approach to

29. If the SCR is 60 000, the PCR is 70 000 and

30. The ____ is the fraction of the cells delivered

31. If the maximum CTD is 10 µs and the

15. The _____ socket is used with a

15. A sine wave is ___. 21. The has units of

2. Flow control is needed to prevent __. 9. HDLC is an acronym for _.

14. _, an (a) protocol,

1. A is computerized center that is 8. D-AMPS used for multiplexing.