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Molecular Biology & Ecosystem Test

Molecular Basis of Inheritance (d) four stranded


1. Genetic code consists of [1988] 11. The process of translation is [1993]
(a) cdenine and guanine (a) ribosome synthesis
(b) cytosine and uracil (b) protein synthesis
(c) cytosine and guanine (c) dNA synthesis
(d) all the above (d) rNA synthesis
2. DNA replication is [1989, 2000] 12. During DNA replication, the strands separate by
(a) conservative and discontinuous (a) DNA polymerase
(b) s e m i c o n s e r v a t i v e a n d s e m I (b) topoisomerase
discontinuous (c) unwindase/Helicase
(c) semiconservative and discontinuous (d) gyrase
(d) conservative 13. Because most of the amino acids are represented
3. In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons as by more than one codon, the genetic code is
(a) 64 amino acids are to be coded [1993]
(b) 64 types of tRNAs are present (a) overlapping
(c) there are 44 nonsense codons and 20 sense (b) wobbling
codons (c) degenerate
(d) genetic code is triplet. (d) generate
4. A nucleotide is formed of [1991] 14. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic material?
(a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate (a) Griffith
(b) purine, sugar and phosphate (b) Watson
(c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate (c) Boveri and Sutton
(d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate (d) Hershey and Chase
5. The process of transfer of genetic information 15. The transforming principle of Pneumococus as
from DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from DNA is found out by Avery,MacLeod and McCarty was
[1991] (a) mRNA
(a) transversion (b) DNA
(b) transcription (c) protein
(c) translation (d) polysaccharide
(d) translocation 16. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in
6. Escherichia coli fully labelled with 15N is allowed eucaryotes) is [1993, 94, 99, 2000]
to grow in 14N medium. The two strands of DNA (a) GUA
molecule of the first generation bacteria have (b) GCA
[1992] (c) CCA
(a) different density and do not resemble parent DNA (d) AUG
(b) different density but resemble parent DNA 17. Protein helping in opening of DNA double helix in
(c) same density and resemble parent DNA form of replication fork is [1994]
(d) same density but do not resemble parent DNA (a) DNA gyrase
7. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons of (b) DNA polymerase I
(a) serine and isoleucine (c) DNA ligase
(b) cysteine and valine (d) DNA topoisomerase
(c) tyrosine and tryptophan 18. Which is not involved in protein synthesis?
(d) phenylalanine and methionine (a) Transcription
8. Experimental material in the study of DNA (b) Initition
replication has been [1992] (c) Elongation
(a) Escherichia coli (d) Termination
(b) Neurospora crassa 19. DNA template sequence of CTGATAGC is
(c) Pneumococcus transcribed over mRNA as [1994, 95, 2004]
(d) Drosophila melanogaster (a) GUCTUTCG
9. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by (b) GACUAUCG
(a) X-ray crystallography (c) GAUTATUG
(b) electron microscope (d) UACTATCU
(c) ultracentrifuge 20. In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by
(d) light microscope (a) lactose
10. A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would most (b) promoter gene
probably be [1993] (c) β -galactosidase
(a) single stranded (d) I-gene
(b) double stranded 21. Reverse transcriptase is [1994]
(c) triple stranded (a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
Molecular Biology & Ecosystem Test

(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (b) phenotypic differences between individuals
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (c) availability of cloned DNA
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase (d) knowledge of human karyotype
22. The number of base substitution possible in amino 32. Which step of translation does not consume a high
acid codons is [1994] energy phosphate bond?
(a) 261 (a) Translocation
(b) 264 (b) Amino acid activation
(c) 535 (c) Peptidyl-transferase reaction
(d) 549 (d) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to active ribosomal site
23. Out of A-T, G-C pairing, bases of DNA may exist in 33. Three codons causing chain termination are
alternate valency state owing to arrangement (a) TAG, TAA, TGA
called (b) GAT, AAT, AGT
(a) analogue substitution (c) AGT, TAG, UGA
(b) tautomerisational mutation (d) UAG, UGA, UAA
(c) frame-shift mutation 34. A mutation at one base of the first codon, of a
(d) point mutation gene, produces a nonfuncti onal protein. Such a
24. The wild type E. coli cells are growing in normal mutation is called [1997]
medium with glucose. They are transferred to a (a) nonsense mutation
medium containing only lactose as sugar. Which (b) missense mutation
of the following changes takes place? [1995] (c) frameshift mutation
(a) The lac operon is repressed (d) reverse mutation
(b) All operons are induced 35. If a completely radioactive double stranded DNA
(c) The lac operon is induced molecule undergoes two rounds of replication in a
(d) E.coli cells stop dividing nonradioactive medium, what will be the
25. In split genes, the coding sequences are called radioactive status of the four resulting molecules?
(a) introns [1997]
(b) operons (a) Half the number contain no radioactivity
(c) exons (b) All four still contain radioactivity
(d) cistrons (c) Three out of four contain radioactivity
26. An environmental agent, which triggers (d) Radioactivity is lost from all four
transcription from an operon, is a [1995] 36. Different mutations referrable to the same locus of
(a) regulator a chromosome give rise to [1997]
(b) inducer (a) multiple alleles
(c) depressor (b) pseudoalleles
(d) controlling element (c) polygenes
27. The lac operon is an example of (d) oncogenes
(a) arabinose operon 37. During development of an organism, the product
(b) inducible operon of one gene is required to activate another gene.
(c) repressible operon Such gene products are called
(d) overlapping genes (a) transcription factors
28. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an (b) episomes
exposed position of [1995, 2000] (c) coenzymes
(a) mRNA (d) catalase
(b) rRNA 38. In eukaryotes, after transcription of mRNA, some
(c) tRNA of its nucleotides are removed before it is
(d) sRNA translated into polypeptide. The nucleotides which
29. Okazaki fragments are seen during are removed from mRNA are called
(a) transcription (a) exons
(b) translation (b) upstream sequences
(c) replication (c) unusual bases
(d) transduction (d) introns
30. The translation termination triplet is 39. What base is responsible for hot spots for
(a) UAU spontaneous point mutations? [1998]
(b) UAA (a) Adenine
(c) UAC (b) 5-bromouracil
(d) UGC. (c) 5-methylcytosine
31. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is (d) Guanine
(a) occurrence of restriction fragment length 40. The eukaryotic genome differs from the
polymorphism (RFLP) prokaryotic genome because [1998]
Molecular Biology & Ecosystem Test

(a) genes in the former case are organized into d. pollution


operons 50. River water deposits [1992]
(b) the DNA is complexed with histones in a. loamy soil
prokaryotes b. alluvial soil
(c) repetitive sequences are present in eukaryotes c. laterite soil
(d) the DNA is circular and single stranded in d. sandy soil
prokaryotes 51. Study of inter-relationships between organisms
41. DNA elements which can switch their position are and their environment is [1993]
called [1998] a. ecology
(a) exons b. ecosystem
(b) introns c. phytogeography
(c) cistrons d. ethology
(d) transposons 52. -7. Pyramid of numbers deals with number of
42. Genes that are involved in turning on or off the [1993]
transcription of a set of structural genes are called (a) species in an area
(a) Operator genes (b) individuals in a community
(b) Redundant genes (c) individuals in a tropic-level
(c) Regulator genes (d) subspecies in a community
(d) Polymorphic genes 53. Pyramid of numbers in a pond ecosystem is [1993]
43. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association is as a. irregular
per which of the following pairs? [1999] b. inverted
(a) AG-CT c. upright
(b) AC-GT d. spindle shaped
(c) AT-GC 54. The pyramid which cannot be inverted in a stable
(d) All of these ecosystem is that of [1994]
44. The Pneumococcus experiment proves that a. Biomass
(a) DNA is the genetic material b. Number
(b) Bacteria undergo binary fission c. Energy
(c) Bacteria do not reproduce sexually d. All the above
(d) RNA sometime controls the production of DNA 55. In grass-deer-tiger food chain, grass biomass is
and proteins one tonne. The tiger biomass shall be
45. In operon concept, regulator gene functions as a. 100 kg
(a) repressor b. 10 kg
(b) regulator c. 200 kg
(c) inhibitor d. 1 kg
(d) all of these 56. In a biotic community, the most important factor
for survival of an animal is [1994]
Ecosystem a. day length
46. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland/true ecosystem b. soil moisture
is [1990, 91] c. green food
a. always inverted d. predators
b. always upright 57. Second most important trophic level in a lake is
c. both A and B a. Zooplankton
d. spindle-shaped b. Phytoplankton
47. Food chain in which micro-organisms breakdown c. Benthos
the food formed by primary producers is [1991] d. Neuston
a. parasitic food chain 58. Bulk CO2 fixation occurs in [1994]
b. detritus food chain a. Crop plants
c. consumer food chain b. Oceans
d. predator food chain c. Tropical rain forests
48. Pick up the correct food chain [1991] d. Temperature forests
a. Grass Chamelion Insect Bird 59. Desert plants are generally [1995]
b. Grass Fox Rabbit Bird a. viviparous
c. Phytoplankton Zooplankton Fish b. succulent
d. Fallen leaves Bacteria Insect larvae c. herbaceous
49. Pedology is science of [1991] d. heterophyllus
a. earth 60. Which of the following does not have stomata?
b. soil a. hydrophytes
c. diseases b. mesophytes
Molecular Biology & Ecosystem Test

c. xerophytes b. Mangroves
d. submerged hydrophytes c. Coral reefs
61. If we completely remove the decomposers from an d. Equatorial rain forest
ecosystem, its functioning will be adversely 71. During adverse season, therophytes survive by
affected, because [1995] a. bulbs
a. energy flow will be blocked b. corms
b. herbivores will not receive solar energy c. rhizomes
c. mineral movement will be blocked d. seeds
d. rate of decomposition will be very high 72. The rate at which light energy is converted to the
62. The primary succession refers to the development chemical energy of organic molecules is the
of communities on a [1995] ecosystem‘s [1998]
a. fleshly cleared crop field a. net primary productivity
b. forest clearing after devastating fire b. gross primary productivity
c. pond, freshly filled with water after a dry phase c. net secondary productivity
d. newly-exposed habitat with no record of earlier d. gross secondary productivity
vegetation 73. Warm ocean surge of the Peru Current reoccurring
63. Which of the following is the most stable every 5-8 years or so in the East Pacific of South
ecosystem? [1995] America is widely known as [1998]
a. Forest a. Gulf Stream
b. Desert b. El Nino
c. Mountain c. Aye Aye
d. Ocean d. Magnox
64. In a biotic community, the primary consumers are 74. Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains
a. carnivores a. plankton
b. omnivores b. nekton
c. detritivores c. plankton and nekton
d. herbivores d. benthos
65. Which of the following pairs is a sedimentary type 75. What is true of ecosystem? [1988]
of biogeochemical cycle? [1995] a. Primary consumers are least dependent
a. oxygen and nitrogen upon producers
b. phosphorus and sulphur (b) Primar y consumers out-number producers
c. phosphorus and nitrogen (c) Producers are more than primary consumers
d. phosphorus and carbon dioxide (d) Secondary consumers are the largest and
66. Flamingoes breed in [1996] most powerful
a. rann of Kutch 76. In an ecosystem, which one shows one-way
b. chilka lake passage [1988]
c. sambhar lake a. free energy
d. mansarover Lake b. carbon
67. In a food chain, the largest population is that of c. nitrogen
a. decomposers d. potassium
b. producers 77. Sudden mass killing of fishes is likely in
c. primary consumers a. mesotrophic lake
d. tertiary consumers b. oligotrophic lake
68. The transfer of energy from one trophic level to c. salt lake
another is governed by the 2nd law of d. eutrophic lake
thermodynamics. The average efficiency of energy 78. Pneumatophores are characteristic of plants
transfer from herbivores to carnivores is [1996,99] growing in [2000]
a. 5% a. saline soils
b. 10% b. sandy soils
c. 25% c. marshy places and salt lakes
d. 50% d. dryland regions
69. Niche of a species in an ecosystem refers to its 79. The greatest biomass of autotrophs in the oceans
a. function at its place of occurrence is that of [2000]
b. place of its occurrence a. sea grasses and slime moulds
c. competitive ability b. free floating microalgae, cyanobacteria and
d. centre of origin nanoplankton
70. Which of the following ecosystems has highest c. benthic brown algae,coastal red algae and
rate of gross primary production? daphnids
a. Grasslands d. benthic diatoms and marine viruses
Molecular Biology & Ecosystem Test
80. Bamboo plant is growing in a fir forest then what c. The lake water turned green and stinky
will be the trophic level of it? [2002] d. Phytoplankton populations in the lake declined
a. First trophic level (T1) initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis.
b. Second trophic level (T2) Which two of the above were the main causes of
c. Third trophic level (T3) fish mortality in the lake?
d. Fourth trophic level (T4) 89. About 70% of total global carbon is found in
81. Which of the following is expected to have the a. grasslands
highest value (gm/m2 /yr) in a grassland b. agroecosystems
ecosystem? c. oceans
a. Secondary Production d. forests
b. Tertiary Production 90. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in
c. Gross Production (GP) nature is due to their [2008]
d. Net Production (NP) a. low moisture content
82. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are b. poor nitrogen content
inactivated, then there will be no [2004] c. anaerobic environment around them
a. fixation of nitrogen in legumes d. low cellulose content
b. fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
c. conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes
d. conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil
83. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but
can recover after some time if damaging effect
stops will be having [2004]
a. low stability and high resilience
b. high stability and low resilience
c. low stability and low resilience
d. high stability and high resilience
84. Barophilic prokaryotes: [2005]
a. grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments
b. occur in water containing high concentrations of
barium hydroxide
c. readily grow and divide in sea water enriched in
any soluble salt of barium
d. grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at
high altitudes
85. More than 70% of world‘s freshwater is contained
in: [2005]
a. polar ice
b. glaciers and mountains
c. antarctica
d. greenland
86. Which one of the following is not used for
construction of ecological pyramids? [2006]
a. Number of individuals
b. Rate of energy flow
c. Fresh weight
d. Dry weight
87. Which one of the following ecosystem types has
the highest annual net primary productivity?
[2007]
a. tropical deciduous forest
b. temperate evergreen forest
c. temperate deciduous forest
d. tropical rain forest.
88. A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of
fishes within a few days. Consider the following
reasons for this? [2008]
a. Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in
the crops in the vicinity
b. The area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft