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General Subjects Related to Security Apprentice - 6 items


1. It is the condition of being protected against the compromise of classified matter,
espionage, sabotage, surprise attack, annoyance, or observation.

a. Security
b. Power
c. Safety
d. None of the Above

2. It is a person who serves as a standing guard and gives a warning before danger
arrives.

a. Squad Leader
b. Rifleman
c. Grenader
d. Sentinel

3. It is the spot, place, or position where a person performs a duty, as in the tail gunner
was at his post. That person is responsible for this area.

a. Post
b. Perimeter
c. Office
d. All of the above

4. It is a military facility in a fixed or relatively fixed location together with its buildings,
building equipment, and subsidiary facilities.

a. Installation
b. Garrison
c. Building
d. None of the Above

5. It is a structure that circles the area to prevent access. These are frequently made
out of single vertical metal bars connected at the top and bottom with a horizontal
bar. They often have spikes on the top to prevent climbing.

a. Guard House
b. Post
c. Perimeter Fence
d. None of the above

6. It is a force organized and equipped under military discipline, provided with both arms
and services, and responsive both defensively and offensively to the constituted
authority of a nation.

a. Police Force
b. Security Force
c. Military Force
d. None of the Above
Mission, Function and Organization related to Security Apprentice - 9 items

7. Which main section of Air Police Squadron is responsible for accomplishing the
function of the security, law enforcement and retraining?

a. Investigation section
b. Operation section
c. Training section
d. None of the above

8. What is the mission of an Air Policeman?

a. To enforce and maintain military conduct and discipline to all military


personnel and provide internal security to base installation and equipment
b. To conduct prompt and sustained ground forces in defense of the National
Territory.
c. To conduct territorial defense in support to AFP
d. All of the above

9. Which of the following is the main responsibility of security apprentice?

a. Guards Air Force Weapons Systems


b. Defends Installation
c. Protects personnel, equipment and facilities
d. All of the above

10. What are the functions of the Air Police Squadron?

a. Enforcement of Laws, Rules and Regulations


b. Apprehension of absentees and deserters
c. Prevention and investigation of crimes
d. All of the above

11. The protection of the Air Force installation against sabotage, espionages, subversion
or attack by small hostile group is a mission assigned to what section of the Air police
Squadron?

a. Security section
b. Law enforcement section
c. Retraining section
d. Training section

12. A responsible security apprentice must________________;

a. Guard equipment and facilities


b. Allow individuals to pass without proper authority
c. Do not participate in any disaster control and relief operation
d. All of the above

13. The following are the duties and responsibilities of a security apprentice except
___________;

a. Controls restricted entry


b. Maintains internal controls
c. Prevents unauthorized entry to operational resources
d. Talk to anyone even in line of duty

14. While performing the duty as a defend installation, you must _________________.

a. Apprehend offenders
b. Advice persons of his rights
c. Participate in tactical defense postures a member of quick reaction forces to
deny infiltration.
d. None of the above

15. Which of the following is the duty of a security apprentice while performing as a local
ground defense function?

a. Conducts surveillance
b. Use riot control techniques
c. Controls movement of vehicles and personnel
d. Controls terrain in and around Air Force bases located in hostile environment.

Security and Safety Related Security Apprentice-9 Items

16. What AFP regulation pertains to Document Security?

a. AFPR G 200-012
b. AFPR G 200-013
c. AFPR G 200-052
d. AFPR G 200-053

17. What certificate will be given by proper authority to an individual who is cleared to
access classified matters or sensitive positions in the AFP?

a. Security Clearance
b. Final Clearance
c. NBI Clearance
d. A-2 Clearance

18. What type of security clearance will be given to an individual while PBI is still going
on for the purpose of granting immediate access to specified classified matters which
is valid for one (1) year?

a. Interim clearance
b. Final clearance
c. A-2 Clearance
d. Temporary Clearance

19. The type of security clearance given to an individual whose PBI is completed which is
valid up to three (3) years?

a. Interim clearance
b. Final clearance
c. A-2 Clearance
d. Temporary Clearance

20. Clearance granted to an individual for specific purposes upon completion of


prescribed record check and background investigation?
a. Interim clearance
b. Final clearance
c. A-2 Clearance
d. Command Clearance

21. What principle of operational security must an Intelligence Operation Apprentice


possess?

a. Tendency to do things the easy way


b. Keep the true mission secret.
c. Inability to keep secrets
d. None of the above

22. Listed below are the following examples of personal hazards to security, EXCEPT:

a. Faith
b. Conceit
c.Pride
d. Security Conscious

23. What aspect in intelligence is concerned with the detection, prevention, and
neutralization of espionage, sabotage, subversion and other foreign intelligence
activities?

a. Counter-intelligence
b. Surveillance
c. Casing
d. Monitoring

24. In Physical Security, what barriers are constructed by man, regardless of their
original intent, that tends to delay the intruder?

a. Human Barriers
b. Animal Barriers
c. Structural Barriers
d. Natural Barriers

Supply and Publications Related to Training Apprentice – 30 items

25. Form used in issuing non-expendable property from a supply office to the end user.

a. PAF form 447 (Property Turn-In Slip)


b. PAF form 45C (Requisition and Issuance Slip)
c. PAF form 32A (Acknowledgement Receipt of Equipment)
d. None of the above

26. A document used in turning-in of equipment in Beyond Economical Repair (BER)


status to the SAO.

a. PAF form 447 (Property Turn-In Slip)


b. PAF form 45C (Requisition and Issuance Slip)
c. PAF form 32A (Acknowledgement Receipt of Equipment)
d. None of the above
27. This form is used by the unit in requesting supplies from the supply storage.
a. PAF form 447 (Property Turn-In Slip)
b. PAF form 45C (Requisition and Issuance Slip)
c. PAF form 32A (Acknowledgement Receipt of Equipment)
d. None of the above

28. All articles needed to outfit an individual or organization, such as clothing, tools,
utensils, vehicles, weapons and other similar items.

a. Non expendable items


b. Equipment
c. Expendable items
d. All of the above

29. It is a group of items necessary for the equipment maintenance and operation of a
military command.

a. Supply
b. Accountability
c. Expendable items
d. Non-Expendable items

30. It is the sum of money intended for carrying on specific activities in accordance with
the regulations of limitations and constituting an independent fiscal and accounting
entity?

a. Accountability
b. Money
c. Funds
d. All of the above
31. The process of requesting supplies by a consuming unit from a supply source?

a. Logistics
b. Requisition
c. Funds
d. All of the above

32. It is the obligation for proper care, economical use, security, and proper disposition of
supplies and equipment in accordance with the prescribed rules and regulation.

a. Supply Discipline
b. Supply management
c. Requisition
d. All of the above

33. It is a class of supplies that includes material to support non-programmed agricultural


and economic development not included in class I–IX.

a. Equipment
b. Logistics
c. Expendable supplies
d. Class X

34. Supplies which are consumable or perishable in nature, or those which lose their
identities when placed or attached to a major item or property.
a. Equipment
b. Logistics
c. Expendable supplies
d. Class X

35. The standard form used by the military prior to dispatch vehicle which also serves as
a document stating the legitimacy of the vehicle movement is_________.

a. Accident Report
b. Drivers License
c. Gas slip
d. Trip ticket

36. Supplies which are durable in nature that do not suffer any material or substantial
change or alterations in size or form upon utilization.

a. Non-expendable supplies
b. Expendable supplies
c. Class X
d. None of the above

37. Supplies purchased from appropriated or reimbursable funds of the AFP.

a. Non-expendable supplies
b. Expendable supplies
c. Class X
d. Republic supplies

38. Supplies acquired by means other than purchase from appropriated or reimbursable
funds of the AFP.

a. Non-republic supplies
b. Expendable supplies
c. Class X
d. Republic supplies

39. What form is issued when firearms are withdrawn and used for not more than 24
hours?

a. Temporary Receipt
b. Routine Slip
c. Acknowledgement Receipt for Equipment
d. Memorandum Receipt

40. It is an obligation of an individual for the proper custody, care, and safekeeping of
property and funds entrusted to his possession or under his supervision.

a. Accountability
b. Responsibility
c. Custody
d. Management
41. The residue after serviceable components have been reclaimed from condemned
unserviceable property.
a. Captured by enemy property
b. Found in station property
c. Reclaimed property
d. Salvaged property

42. Items used only by one technical service.

a. Ordinance
b. Peculiar
c. Medical
d. Signal

43. It is a general term used in planning and control of supply operations.

a. Operational level
b. Level supply
c. Safety level
d. Requisition level

44. The quantity of materials required to sustain operations in the interval between
requisitions or between the arrivals of successive shipments.

a. Level supply
b. Operational supply
c. Operational level
d. Safety level

45. It is the requisition of supplies, materials or equipment including non-personal


services which are necessary to carry out the program of government by written
order or contract, thru bidding or negotiation or by transfer under prescribed laws,
procedures, rules and regulations.

a. Storage
b. Procurement
c. Distribution
d. Supplies

46. These instruments were created for the defense but are also used for violence.

a. Weapon
b. Topographic map
c. Ammunition
d. Tear gas

47. What is the color of tag when an item is serviceable?

a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Green
d. brown

48. What is the color of tag when an item is repairable?

a. Green
b. Brown
c. Yellow
d. Red

49. What is the color of tag when an item is condemned?

a. Yellow
b. Red
c. Brown
d. Green

50. The following are examples of supply discipline, except:

a. Preventing lost of supplies


b. Using supplies only for intended purpose
c. Enforcing preventive maintenance
d. Delaying repair of supply

51. This is a method of achieving economy by applying and practicing supply economy in
every operation and activities of an individual.

a. Award
b. Discipline
c.Supervision
d. Application and Practice

52. This is used for issuance made to each enlisted man for clothing and equipment on
authorized allowances.

a. Station property book


b. Company property book
c. Record consumption
d. Individual clothing and equipment Record

53. It is used whenever the pay of an officer or EP is to be charged for property lost,
damaged, or destroyed by him through his fault or negligence.

a. Inventory and inspection report


b. Properly Turn-in slip ( PTIS)
c. Invoice receipt
d. Statement of charges

54. Any record document which shows that expendable items have been consumed in
the public service or in the transaction of official business as after encounter/training
reports for ammunition

a. Record of consumption
b. Voucher file
c. Memorandum receipt file
d. None of the above

Training Related to Security Apprentice – 60 items

55. What are the basic fundamentals of soldiery that a duty sentinel must undertake?
a. General Orders
b. Special Order
c. Personnel Order
d. Letter Order

56. The security, the protection of the Air Force installations against sabotage,
espionage, subversion or attack by small hostile groups is a mission assigned to
what section of the Air Police Squadron?

a. Security Section
b. Law Enforcement Section
c. Retraining Section
d. Training Section

57. To quit my post only when properly relieved is what GO nr?

a. GO nr 5
b. GO nr 6
c. GO nr 7
d. GO nr 8

58. How does a Cal .45 pistol operate?

a. Recoil operated
b. Self loading
c. Magazine feed
d. All of the above

59. The three Major Group of the parts of a caliber 45.Pistol are?

a. Slide, receiver and magazine group


b. Slide, grip safety and magazine group
c. Magazine barrel and receiver group
d. All of the above

60. Which of following is a kind of restraining technique that is commonly used by the
Police in unarmed defense and in affecting apprehension?

a. Came along
b. Breakaway
b. Take away
d. All of the above

61. When a military personnel is under arrest he is normally restraint however, if he is


under confinement, the subject is?

a. Physically restraint
c. AWOL
b. Formally restraint
d. Deserter
62. The code which has been designed as guide for Air Policeman To assist them in
performing there in the most efficient manner is knows as:

a. Code Decorum for Air Police


b. Code of Ethics for Air Police
c. Revised Penal Code
d. Civil Code

63. The Air Police work demands the continued use of:

a. Discretion
c. Common sense
b. Good judgment
d. All of the above

64. Air Policeman have the authority to apprehend persons subject to the Article of War
upon reasonable belief that on offence has been committed and the apprehension is
made, the reasonable belief must be evaluated as to determine _________-.

a. The suspect’s connection with offence


b. The custody to be impost
c. The restraint to be impost
d. The liability of the suspect

65. Normally, Air Policeman may use necessary force to secure to custody of an
offender. What is mean by “necessary force?

a. Incident to apprehension
b. Situation requiring immediate section
c. If the consents to a search of his or property
d. all of the above

66. What necessary force may an Air Policeman use to serve the custody of an offender?

a. The amount of force necessary to overcome the resistance of the offender


b. The amount of force necessary to hospitalize the offender
c. The amount of force necessary to kill the offender
d. None of the above
67. The use of firearms by Air Policeman is authorized under what circular instances?

a. If self defense
b. Prevent a minor crime
c. In the apprehension of a non- resisting offender
d. All of the above

68. Handcuffs are used for keeping a dangerous or violent offender secure. One of the
commonly used positions in the application of handcuffs is:

a. hand in front, palm out


b. Hand between legs of hands under knees when a vehicle
c. Hands in rear, palm out
d. All of the above
69. When a person is apprehended, the Air Policeman should search his/ her of the
following:

a. Concealed money
b. Concealed documents
c. Concealed weapon
d. All of the above
70. At the firing range, who is the over-all responsible for the operation of the range such
as support, sanction, safety and discipline?

a. Coach
b. Range OIC
c. Firer
d. Instructor

71. One of the basic principles of gun safety is:

a. Never point your gun person or things which you do not intend to shot.
b. Be responsible gun owner
c. Secure permit to carry
d. All of the above

72. As a security apprentice which of the following is a threat to the security of the PAF?

a. Espionage
b. Sabotage
c. Subversion and local attacks
d. All of the above

73. Which of the following is one of the Special Provisions that is used to supplement a
pass and identification system?

a. Sign
b. Code words
c. Counter sign
d. All of the above

74. The most effective way of providing security to a restricted area is by use of
________.

a. Fence
c.Flood light
b. Security Post
d. All of the above

75. A person must secure this prior to grant an access to classified matters.

a. Security clearance
b. Police clearance
c. NBI clearance
d. Local clearance

76. It is the procedure used by PSG in clearing all rifles of the troops prior to arrival of the
president.

a. Inspection Arms
b. Present Arms
c. Parade Rest
d. None of the above
77. A personnel who is absent from his post/ unit without official leave even just an hour
could be charged of _____.

a. AW – 105
b. AW - 62
c. AW – 60
d. AW - 65

78. An apprehended AWOL personnel will be dropped from rolls after how many days of
unauthorized absences?

a. Eleven (11) days


b. Ten (10 ) days
c. Nine (9) days
d. Twenty (20) days

79. Para 4d, of SOP Nr 09 HPAF dtd 16 Jun 99 prohibited the use of:

a. Privately owned firearms in the performance of official duty


b. Unlicensed firearm in the performance of official duty
c. No firearm in the performance of official duty
d. All of the above

80. Anything which maybe admitted in court to prove or disprove facts in issue is
called_______.

a. Testimony
b. Evidence
c. Statement
d. Records

81. The Air Police Club is used in the apprehension of a dangerous, violent offender and
in self defense. In using this, the Air Policeman should strike on what body parts of
the offender?

a. Head
b. Spine
c. Eyes
d. Non-vital or nearby parts of the body

82. The manning of fixed and walking posts of the base, 24 hours a day is a duty
assigned to _________.

a. Security Flight
b. Quick Reaction Team
c. Patrolling
d. Intel and Invest section

83. What is the military term that is equivalent to civilian term for “Arrest”?

a. Confinement
b. Custody
c. Detained
d. Apprehension
84. What are the matters to be established by the Air Policeman upon arrival at the
accident site?

a. To find the cause and circumstances of the accident


b. To gather evidence and identify the violation of law if any
c. To protect the rights and interest of both parties
d. all of the above

85. These orders must be taken religiously and heartedly whenever performing sentinel
duties for it is one of the basic fundamentals of soldiery.

a. 11 General Orders
b. Special Order
c. Personnel Order
d. Letter Order

86. The second mission of OFF- Base patrol is:

a. To apprehend AFP personnel found inside OFF- limit places


b. To apprehend deserters and member of the AFP who are on AWOL
c. To assist the civil police in their function
d. To enforce the Civilian Law

87. This can only be issued by the Judge and there must be mandatory two witnesses
rule to implement this.

a. Search Warrant
b. Arrest
c. Confinement
d. Apprehension

88. The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers and effects
against unreasonable searches and seizures of whatever nature and any purpose
shall be ________.

a. Violable
b. Inviolable
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

89. What benefits can a good firearm registration provide?

a. Insure rapid and positives identification of vehicles and the person who have
responsibility in them.
b. Provide essential information in the follow-up of complaints relating to the
authorized used of firearms
c. Protect the rights and interests of military personnel in regard to possible theft of
their unauthorized use.
d. All of the above

90. To whom is access to classified information limited?

a. To trustworthy person whose official duties require such access?


b. To military personnel whose duties are police in nature
c. To civilian employees with clerical job
d. To criminal investigator

91. It is a type of ceremony which signals the start of the official duty day.

a. Reveille
b. Retreat
c. Guard Mounting
d. Review

92. The most effective way to control entry and movement of personnel in restricted area
is by the use of _________.

a. Foot patrol
b. Motorized patrol
c. Fixed post
d. Use of temporary pass

93. What is the position of national flag on the pole when members of the Armed Forces
of the Philippines organization give a tendered farewell?

a. Below the pole


b. Half of the flag
c. Top of the flag pole
d. None of the above

94. It is the maximum rate of fire of semi-automatic for M14 Rifle

a. 40-60
b. 50-70
c. 30-50
d. 45-65

95. It is the proper relationship between the front sight and the rear sight.

a. Sight picture
b. Aiming
c. Sight alignment
d. Breathing Control

96. It is done by igniting the primer, burning powder and firing the cartridge.

a. Cocking
b. Extracting
c. Unlocking
d. Firing

97. The method of operation of M16A1 rifle is:

a. Water
b. Air
c. Gas
d. All of the above

98. What is the ammunition used by a M16A1 rifle?


a. .45mm
b. 105mm
c. 5.56mm
d. None of the above

99. This weapon is a lightweight, air-cooled, gas operated, magazine fed and shoulder or
hip fired, designed for automatic or semi-automatic firing by usage of a selector level.

a. M16A1 rifle
b. Caliber .45 pistol
c. M14 rifle
d. None of the above

100. It is a disciplinary power of the Commanding Officer:

a. AW 54
b. AW 70
c. AW 105
d. None of the above.

101. This is used to caution an unidentified party or a person to halt and be identified.

a. Challenge
b. Countersign
c. Password
d. All of the above

102. It is the ability of an individual to develop the basic skills necessary to shoot both rifle
and pistol accurately and produce constant shoot groups.

a. Steady Positions
b. Marksmanship
c. The integrated act of shooting
d. None of the above

103. There are how many Articles of war?

a. 95
b. 123
c. 120
d. 125

104. Which of the following is a type of solution commonly used in removing grease, oil,
light rust, or light preventive compounds from a weapon?

a. Solvent
c. Water
b. Kerosene
d. Soap

105. When a military personnel is under arrest he is normally restraint. However, if he


under confinement, the subject is ________

a. Physically restraint
b. formally restraint
c. AWOL
d. Deserter

106. During night time, what is the purpose of challenging person who attempt to enter the
base area of your responsibility?

a. To determine the identity of the person


b. To determine the authority of the person to others
c. To verify the right and need to be there
d. All of the above

107. To talk to no one except in the line of duty is what GO nr?

a. GO nr 5
b. GO nr 6
c. GO nr 7
d. GO nr 8

108. A public exhibition of sympathy with or against some political, economic or social
movement or effect is called __________.

a. Demonstration
b. Riotng
c. Strike
d. Picketing

109. Large restricted areas are usually secured by what kind of security force?

a. Walking guards or patrol


b. Sabotage alert teams
c. Sentry dogs
d. Civil police

110. It is the maximum effective range of US caliber 45.

a. 125 meters
b. 50 meters
c. 1,500 meters
d. 500 meters

111. What is the importance of physical safeguards in the security of restricted areas?

a. Provide protection against unauthorized entry into restricted areas


b. To seal off restricted areas
c. Alert security guards to an attempted penetration into restricted areas
d. All of the above

112. The maximum range of an M16A1 rifle is:

a. 2,800 yards
b. 2,833 yards
c. 2,900 yards
d. 2,700 yards
113. The maximum effective range of an M16A1 rifle is:

a. 500 yards
b. 600 yards
c. 200 yards
d. 400 yards

114. What is the diameter of the bore of a Caliber .45 pistol?

a. 5.56 inches
b. .45 inch
c. 7.62 inches
d. None of the above

EP Career Field Related to Security Apprentice-30 Items

115. Once you are awarded an AFSC of XXX30, which skill level are you in?

a. specialist
b. apprentice
c. journeyman
d. semi advanced

116. If your AFSC has an alpha prefix (AXXX30), this means that you have

a. special type of duty common to more than one AFS.


b. a special type of tasking common to more than one AFS.
c. an additional duty which pertains on the maintenance of the chamber.
d. all.

117. What does the fourth digit of an AFSC XXX30 represent?

a. career field
b. specific AFS
c. skill level of the AFS
d. b and c

118. Meaningful digits used to an AFS.

a. Combination of meaningful digits used to identify an AFS.


b. Grouping of positions which require common qualifications.
c. Identification by means of a title and alphabetical designator.
d. none of the above

119. A grouping of related AFS involving basically similar knowledge and skills which also
includes career field subdivision and ladders.

a. skill
b. career
c. skill level
d. career field

120. In AFSC XXX30, how long is the first evaluation of progression?

a. 6 months
b. 8 months
c. 12 months
d. 18 months

121. Once you failed the first training evaluation of the AFS XXX30, how many months is
the second evaluation once your supervisor decided to continue your training?

a. 4 months
b. 6 months
c. 8 months
d. 12 months

122. Once your OJT on the AFSC XXX30 was approved, your OJT starts with the four (4)
methods “except”

a. lecture
b. discussion
c. demonstration
d. reorientation

123. This is a planned training program designed to qualify an AM to perform on a given


AFS through self study and supervised instruction while actually working in a duty
assignment of the AFS.

a. UJR
b. JPG
c. OJT
d. JPG

124. What is the first procedure in conducting an OJT of the AFS XXX30?

a. introduction
b. orientation/briefing
c. request PAF Form 1098
d. determine training capabilities

125. Which of the following is one of the responsibilities of an AM undergoing an OJT on


the AFSC XXX30?

a. understand the AFS description


b. ask favor from his trainer
c. do his work without supervision
d. prepare his Form 623

126. What does SKT stand for?

a. Specialized Knowledge Test


b. Specialty Knowledge Testing
c. Sponsored Knowledge Testing
d. Specialty Knowledge Test
127. What form is the Consolidated Training Record?

a. AF FPRM 48
b. AF FORM 299
c. AF FORM 623
d. AF FORM 1098

128. When a trainee failed in the normal and second evaluation in the conduct of his OJT,
the Personnel Classification Board decided to give how many months of special
extended training?

a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 8 months

129. What is the last procedure in conducting an OJT of a third skill level in an AFSC
XXX30?

a. review
b. initiate 1098
c. recommend SKT
d. request for award/board action

130. Prior to the awarding of an AFSC XXX30, an AM should pass the __________ which
is a comprehensive multiple choice written test designed to measure technical
knowledge in semi-skilled, skilled/advanced AFSC?

a. aptitude test
b. qualifying exam
c. specialty knowledge test
d. specialty knowledge exam

131. What term is applicable when an AM is awarded an AFSC other than his/her XXX30
as primary AFSC?

a. primary Air Force specialty code


b. additional Air Force specialty
c. both a & b
d. duty Air Force specialty

132. How many steps are there in conducting OJT of AFSC XXX30?

a. 5
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10

133. This test is necessary to evaluate job proficiency development of one (1) trainee
undergoing OJT in AFSC XXX30 “except”

a. oral
b. written
c. multiple choice
d. performance
134. The third skill level of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) represents ____:

a. Technician
b. specialist
c. apprentice
d. helper

135. What represents the third digit in your Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC)?

a. Subdivision of career field


b. Specialty
c. Career field
d. Skill level

136. What method of training is employed to cross-train a person into a related AFSC?

a. Lateral Training
b. Formal Schooling
c. On-The-Job Training
d. Proficiency Training

137. Which of the following phrases refer to On-The-Job Training (OJT)?

a. Listening while doing


b. Learning while doing
c. Learning by listening
d. Doing while learning

138. What GHQ circular pertains to the EP Promotional System in the AFP?

a. GHQ Circular Nr 13 dtd 15 Jul 1991


b. GHQ Circular Nr 01 dtd 02 Jan 2008
c. GHQ Circular Nr 03 dtd 31 Jan 1990
d. GHQ Circular Nr 14 dtd 10 Jul 1990

139. After how many years can an A2C be promoted to the next higher grade?

a. 1 yr
b. 2 yrs
c. 3 yrs
d. 4 yrs

140. What are the mandatory requirements for Special/Meritorious Promotion?

a. PROMEX and SKT


b. At least one-half of the required TIG and Career Course or its equivalent
c. Local Clearances
d. None of the Above

141. Under GHQ Circular Nr 01 dtd 02 Jan 2008, what is the career course requirement
for promotion to the grade of E4?

a. Basic NCO Course


b. Advance NCO Course
c. Sgt Major Course
d. Specialization Course

142. When is the effective date of all EP Regular Promotions?

a. 02 Jan of the calendar year


b. 01 Aug of the calendar year
c. 01 Dec of the calendar year
d. None of the above

143. What are the mandatory requirements for regular promotion?

a. Time-In-Grade
b. SKT & PROMEX
c. Career Course or its equivalent
d. All of the above

144. After how many years can a SSg be promoted to the next higher grade?

a. 2 yrs
b. 3 yrs
c. 4 yrs
d. 5 yrs

Computer Literacy Related to Security Apprentice – 6 items

145. The monitor, keyboard, and Central Processing Unit are computer hardware. How do
you classify Windows, MS Word, MS Power Point, and Excel?

a. Software and applications


b. Output devices
c. Input devices
d. Computer peripheral

146. In a computer, the CPU simply stands for

a. Compatibility Unit
b. Common Procedure for Upgrade
c. Central Processing Unit
d. None of the above

147. In a computer, you _____ your work when you store it so you can come back to it
later.

a. Click
b. Type
c. Save
d. Print

148. The electronic device where you can process and store data is called______

a. Speaker
b. Computer
c. Monitor
d. Printer

149. To close a program, you can:

a. Click the X in the top right hand corner


b. Shut down the computer
c. Click the middle box in the top right hand corner
d. Click the top right hand corner

150. RAM stands for:

a. Really Accessible memory


b. Real access memory
c. Random available mode
d. Random access memory