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Social Planning Page 1 of 28 pages

SOCIAL PLANNING MOCK EXAM


Practice Questions on Methods of Research, Demography,
Shelter, and Social Services

1. Which is not a key feature of the professional planning process?


(A) Proactive (B) problem-solving (C) algorithmic (D) futuristic (E) people-driven

2. According to the American Institute of Certified Planners, four of the following define
‘environmental planning’ practice except one?
(A) ‘planning process’ (B) ‘post-modern’ (C) ’professional level’
(D) ‘public interest’ (E) ‘comprehensive’

3. This pertains to the process wherein large numbers of people, driven by demographic factors,
live together in important locations -- a process that is always accompanied by economic
agglomeration, spatial alteration, and socio-cultural change.
(A) Industrialization (B) Urbanization (C) Social Transformation
(D) Modernization

4. In causal order, which should come first in this series or chain of intertwined, multi-dimensional
problems?.
(A) Climate Change (D) Land Use Changes
(B) Unmanaged Population Growth (E) Pollution and Environmental Degradation
(C) Poverty (F) Carbon Footprint

5. According to David Satterthwaite, 95% of deaths and serious injuries from major disasters in the
period 1950-2007 occurred in low-income to middle-income countries, and 90% of these deaths
happened to the poorest people. Which conclusion is supported by this information?
(A) poverty, which means low income and low education, is the major cause of disaster
(B) countries in typhoon belts and Ring-of-Fire region of the world tend to be poor because of
frequent disasters
(C) poverty and its physical dimensions, i.e. location of homes and livelihoods, increases
people’s vulnerability to disaster
(D) the poorer a country, the higher the illiteracy rate, hence the less informed and less
prepared people tend to be.

6. In Michael P. Todaro’s Labor Migration Model of Urbanization (1976), the central pull factor or
main attraction of Third World cities to rural migrants even when these cities are unprepared to
accept migration, is
(A) “bright lights effect” or lure of city life and neon-lit entertainment
(B) possible benefits derived from proximity to seat of power and prestige of central city
address
(C) abundance and plenitude in cities versus hunger and famine due to insurgency wars in the
countryside
(D) substantial wage differentials between urban labor and rural labor for the same level of
skill, task, or occupation
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7. Based on the 2010 NSO Census of Population and Housing, the total urban population of the
Philippines is
(A) larger than the total rural population
(B) plateauing at a steady growth rate
(C) stabilizing at the level almost equal to the rural population
(D) fluctuating because of numerous urban calamities and terrorist attacks

8. In Francis Stuart Chapin’s Venn diagrams (1965), land use is shaped by a confluence of factors
emanating from Economy, Nature, and Society, which are profit-making values, public interest
values, and socially-rooted values. “Environmental services” or the functions of environmental
elements to ensure livable conditions for humankind fall under
(A) ‘profit-making values’ (B) ‘public interest’ values
(C) ‘socially-rooted values’ (D) ‘spiritual & other-worldly values’

9. In Third World countries where majority of people have low purchasing power, the biggest
pressure to alter current ‘land use’ comes from
(A) transport system layout (B) natural hazards (C) GDP growth
(D) population growth (E) popularity of automobile

10. Urban planning is “concerned with providing the right place at the right site at the right time” for
the right people.
(A) John Ratcliffe (B) Lewis Keeble (C) Brian McLoughlin
(D) George Chadwick (E) Alan Wilson

11. The following are the stated goals of ‘urban development policy’ (NUDHF) in the Philippines,
except one:
(A) to achieve a more balanced urban-rural interdependence
(B) to slow down rural-to-urban movement by means of migration control and population
management
(C) to optimally utilize land and resources to meet the requirements of housing and urban
development
(D) to undertake a comprehensive and continuing program of urban development which will
make available housing and services at affordable cost

12. This refers to the wise and prudent use of any resource that is held in trust.
(A) technocracy (B) shepherding (C) protectionism
(D) championing (E) stewardship

13. Related to Thomas Malthus’ concept of ‘k’ as the population size constrained by whatever
resource is in shortest supply, this principle refers to “the maximum population of a given species
that can be supported indefinitely in a defined habitat without causing negative impacts that
permanently impair the productivity of that same habitat.”
(A) limits to growth (B) tipping point (C) range and threshold
(D) carrying capacity
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14. Which basic principle of ‘Sustainable Development’ means responsibility and accountability to
future populations?
(A) Common Heritage of Humankind (B) Inter-generational Equity
(C) Caring Capacity (D) Parity of Compeers

15. Which principle of ‘Sustainable Development’ most directly supports the saying “Think Global,
Act Local.”
(A) Principle of Subsidiarity (C) Common but Differentiated Responsibilities
(B) Polluter Pays Principle (D) Duty to Care and Not Cause Environmental Harm

16. According to theorists of ‘Social Development‘ and ‘Sustainable Development,’ what is the
relationship between the concepts of ‘Growth’ and ‘Development’?
(A) these two realities are essentially similar, hence, interchangeable in use.
(B) growth refers to the entire macro-economy while development refers to people and
society
(C) growth is a pre-condition to development but not enough in itself; it is necessary but not
sufficient condition.
(D) growth is merely quantitative while development is thoroughly qualitative
(E) growth is indicated by income and infrastructure, while development is indicated by
tranquility, peace and order

17. The following are the central questions of planning and management. Which question seeks to
determine efficacy or success of a chosen option or course of action?
(A) “where are we now?” (D) ”how do we get there?”
(B) “where are we going?” (E) “what resources do we need to get there?”
(C) “where do we want to be?” (F) “how do we know if it is working?”

18. The development of planning theory after World War II as influenced by the schools of policy
planning, advocacy or equity planning, transactive planning, and communicative planning has
emphasized the core principle that
(A) A plan should be a clear, concise, and user-friendly document
(B) A plan can only indicate piecemeal and incremental changes in a process called ‘muddling
through’
(C) Planning process is as important as planning output.
(D) The poor and the marginalized always know what is best for society.

19. Which school of thought maintains that planners should abandon their presumed neutral stance
and instead adopt the side of ‘the poor and the disadvantaged’ to demand for corrective or
remedial measures from the State and from the Market through ‘pressure from below’ by way of
conflict confrontation, creative mass actions and backroom negotiations?
(A) Equity or Activist or Advocacy Planning (C) Liberal Pluralistic Planning
(B) Communicative Planning (D) Disjointed Incrementalism

20. “First we shape our buildings; thereafter, our buildings shape us.” This quotation is attributed to
(A) Winston Churchill (B) George Washington (C) Theodore Roosevelt
(D) Napoleon Bonaparte
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21. He proposed the ‘neighborhood unit’ (1929) as a self-contained ‘garden suburb’ bounded by
major streets, with shops at intersections and a school in the middle; its size would be defined by
school’s catchment area with a radius of quarter-mile or 402 meters. This incorporated Garden
City ideas and attempted at some kind of social engineering.
(A) Clarence Perry (B) Clarence Stein (C) Clarence Thomas (D) Clarence McKay

22. ‘Social Engineering’ refers to


(A) designing and building social facilities and infrastructure for the public
(B) manipulating age, sex, ethnicity, and other demographic factors of social groups
(C) implementing service-oriented social programs to marginalized social sectors
(D) changing values, mindsets, habits, and behaviors of people towards desired societal goals

23. ‘It is the merchant’s ethos, with our consent, that sustains the slumlord and the land rapist, the
polluters of rivers and atmosphere. In the name of profit they pre-empt the seashore and sterilize
the landscape, fell the great forests, fill protective marshes, build cynically in the flood plain. It is
the claim of convenience – or its illusion – that drives the expressway through neighborhoods,
homes, and priceless parks, a taximeter of indifferent greed.’
(A) Jane Jacobs (B) Ian McHarg (C) Konstantinos Doxiadis
(D) Rachel Carson (E) Arne Naess

24. This started as a US federal program in 1949 which aimed to rehabilitate the outworn or
decaying sections of any town by extending fund assistance to LGUs to undertake improvements
in streetscapes, parks, greenways, housing, community centers, etc based on anticipation that
future tax revenues from real estate will pay for present costs.
(A) land re-adjustment (B) urban restructuring
(C) infill and densification (D) urban renewal

25. In “Death and Life of Great American Cities” (1961) and “Economy of Cities” (1969), this
planner maintains that ‘diversity’ promotes innovation among proximate firms and spurs the
growth of cities, thus s/he advocated for heterogeneity, variety, and mixture in the geographic
clustering of firms as well as in the composition of city districts and neighborhoods.
(A) Herbert Gans (B) James Howard Kunstler
(C) Joel Garreau (D) Jane Jacobs

26. All of the following schemes are associated with ‘New Urbanism’ except:
(A) Mixed Use Zoning (B) Neo-Traditional Design (C) Exclusionary Zoning
(D) Pedestrianization

27. The following planners were most concerned about “human scale and the social usage of urban
space”
(A) David Harvey, Manuel Castells, Ray Pahl
(B) Jane Jacobs, Kevin Lynch, William H. Whyte
(C) Robert Moses, William Levitt, Richard King Mellon
(D) TJ Kent, Edwin C. Banfield, Albert Z. Guttenberg
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28. Edge Cities’ have been described as the “tenements of the Information Age” because they have
(A) been built around clusters of dilapidated townhouses and ghettoes in the edges of the
cities
(B) many high-density condominium developments designed for people working in nearby
office towers
(C) sprung up in grayfields, brownfields, and abandoned industrial or commercial sites
(D) populations made up mostly of recent immigrants

29. According to Edward Soja of UCLA (2000), the term ‘carceral cities’ in post-industrial era refers
to fortress-like enclosures or settlements which are seemingly obsessed about their security and
their ‘privatopia,’ which can be seen in
(A) gated subdivisions (B) cybercities (C) skyscrapers
(D) medium-security correctionals (E) gang-based communities

30. A 21st century innovation in New York City wherein a private building can earn 20% additional
“floor space incentive” if it can create and maintain a large open space around it, is called--
(A) Landscape Concordat (B) Public-Private Partnership
(C) Quid Pro Quo (D) Privately-Owned Public Spaces

31. A 21st innovation in New York City wherein a private building can earn 33% additional “floor
space incentive” if it can allocate 20% of its dwelling units to low-income households, is called--
(A) ‘Philantrophic Shelter’ (B) ‘Habitat for Humanity’
(C) ‘Inclusionary Housing’ (D) ‘Preferential Housing’

32. What key words are not part of vision “Plan NYC 2030” of New York City, the financial capital
of the world?
(A) ‘business-oriented’ (B) ‘bottom-up’ (C) ‘street-level’ (D) ‘pedestrian-oriented’
(E) ‘neighborhood-based (F) ‘human scale’

33. This school of thought holds that settlements form in a balanced manner; they tend to be spread
evenly and symmetrically in isotropic space, displaying both hierarchy and equilibrium arising
from the interdependence between big and small settlements and from the complementation
between their respective scope of functions.
(A) Galaxy of Settlements Theory (B) Central Place Theory
(C) Geographic Determinism (D) Dependency Theory

34. In Walter Christaller’s Central Place Theory, the catchment area of a central place takes the
shape of a hexagon rather than a perfect circle. If a particular service or function such as
elementary school enrolment is represented by the formula, “C = 2.6r²d,” what would be the
catchment area of elementary school if its radius is 0.50 km and diameter is one (1) km?
(A) 0.65 sq.km (B) 0.75 sq.km (C) 0.85 sq.km (D) 0.95 sq.km

35. A chart-like tool to measure ‘centrality’ of a place particularly its range of economic and social
functions, is called
(A) Matrix (B) Isotims (C) Isodapanes (D) Scalogram
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36. All of the following are practical applications of Central Place Theory in the Philippines, except
one.
(A) location of health centers (B) location of trial courts
(C) location of beach resorts (D) location of police stations

37. What Christallerian principles form the basis why a state university, a consumer mall, a huge
sports stadium, or a tertiary-level hospital can not be established in each and every Philippine
municipality?
(A) spatial equity and bio-geographic equity (B) specialization and concentration
(C) market range and threshold population (D) profitability and pecuniary interest

38. The weakness of applying Central Place Theory in a simplistic way on the Philippines is that
(A) unlike other countries, Philippines does not have compact land mass with homogenous
features
(B) archipelagic nature creates natural discontinuities that render movement & economic
exchange difficult
(C) spatial integration between urban and rural areas is impeded by poor transport that inflates
prices
(D) all of the above

39. According to economists Theodore Schultz, Jacob Mincer, and Gary S.Becker, this collective
term for people’s “embodied” assets such as knowledge, skills, good health, attitudes, and
entrepreneurial qualities, determines how a local community or region absorbs new technologies,
expands productive capacity, and generates own progress.
(A) Seven Domains of Intelligence (B) Intellectual Quotient
(C) Managerial Aptitude (D) Human Capital

40. RA 7916 reiterates Sec. 12, Art XII of Philippine Constitution, "The State shall promote the
preferential use of Filipino labor, domestic materials and locally produced goods and adopt
measures that help make them competitive." What technical planning concept pertains most aptly
to this?
(A) inflow - outflow - backflow (C) economic nationalism or Filipinism
(B) trickle up and trickle down (D) forward linkages and backward linkages in production

41. “Development process should be redefined in such a way that urban development promotes rural
development while rural development supports urban development.” (John Friedmann)
(A) agropolis / agropolitan approach (C) agro-based countryside development
(B) rurban interlink (D) Michael Lipton model

42. In HLURB Guidelines, which of the following does not fall under the ‘social sector’?
(A) Education (B) Tourism (C) Health
(D) Police Protective Services (E) Sports and Recreation

43. In HLURB Guidelines, which of the following does not fall under the ‘economic sector’?
(A) Housing (B) Mining (C) ICT and Business Process Outsourcing
(D) Mariculture (E) Small Scale Industries
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44. This refers to any large-scale master-planned development which includes housing, work places,
and related facilities within a self-contained set-up, based on the assumption that it can be built
from zero, more or less.
(A) Freiburg or Freetown (B) Borough (C) New Town
(D) Country Estate (E) Eco-Industrial Park

45. In ideal conditions, constituents are engaged by LGU to participate throughout the entire CLUP-
ZO process, but public hearings and open consultations are mandatory at which step of 12 steps?
(A) after area inventory, profiling, scanning, analysis, and forecasting
(B) after adoption of spatial strategy, land use policies, and zoning plan
(C) after formulation of Vision-Mission-Goals
(D) after completion of opinion poll or survey

46. The “SMART test” by George Doran means that both ‘task objectives’ and ‘process objectives’
have to be specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and ____
(A) tenable (B) truthful (C) time-bound (D) testable (E) treatable

47. A ‘projection’ or ‘prediction’ is a conditional statement about the future based on mathematical
computation or statistical model that uses available data to extrapolate past and present trends into
the future, while _______ is a judgmental statement of what an analyst believes to be the most
likely logical future according to his/her subjective evaluation.
(A) premonition (B) forecast (C) foresight (D) vibration (E) prophecy

48. It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is comprehensively planned as a


unitary entity such that innovations in site design and building design are rewarded by
government with some flexibility in zoning, usually relaxation of standards or their replacement
with negotiated agreement between the developer and the LGU.
(A) Enterprise Zone (B) Sites and Services model
(C) Zonal Improvement Program (D) Planned Unit Development

49. Which of following does not enhance ‘connectivity’ to create sociable, livable, walkable, health-
oriented communities?
(A) cul-de-sacs, curvilinear streets, long blocks, steel gates on road corners; family pets
wander & provide biodiversity excitement
(B) school, church, community assembly center, plaza, and sports facilities are located
relatively close to each other.
(C) 300-m average distance of homes to variety of transport choices like buses, FX vans, and
shuttles to railway stations
(D) bicycle lanes are delineated; strolling and biking promoted, ‘no-car policy’ declared on
selected streets during holidays.
(E) short blocks, frequent four-way intersections, unobstructed sidewalk easements and
pedestrian pathways

50. This broad category refers to land deliberately kept undeveloped for its contribution to the
amenity value of the environment. It offers opportunities for adventure recreation or passive
leisure at low-cost, and at the same time, serves as protection buffer around sensitive areas and
hazardous installations.
(A) Wilderness (B) Tourism & Recreation Zone (C) Rangeland (D) Open Space
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51. These areas are so called because they pose serious dangers to human settlements due to their
high susceptibility to, among others, landslides, subsidence, sinkholes, erosion once their topsoil
is exposed.
(A) ‘geohazards’ (B) ‘brownfields’ (C) ‘environmentally critical’
(D) ‘naturally forbidden’

52. In the National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030, “Settlements,” “Production,”
“Protection,” and “Infrastructure” are discussed as --
(A) Key Economic Functions of any Local Government Unit
(B) Land Use Zones that exclude one another
(C) Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at the local
level
(D) Primary Districts in urban design that have to be delineated in each town or city

53. According to Kevin Andrew Lynch (1961), a good ‘urban design’ is one where residents and
visitors can use a ‘cognitive image’ or ‘mental map’ of the city as they navigate through the
territory in the process of ‘wayfinding’. He identified the elements of legibility of place as:
(A) Circumferentials, arterials, radials, and residuals
(B) Skyscrapers, skyways, multi-nodals, intermodals
(C) Arched gateways, waterfronts, boulevards, and promenades
(D) Paths, edges, nodes, districts, and landmarks

54. “Urban design uses the climate, natural landscape as well as built assets to create distinctive
places that contribute to local identity, structure and meaning. Urban design strengthens the city’s
character by reflecting its cultural layers and by enabling residents and visitors alike to ‘read the
city’ by way of its history, customs, icons, and visual elements.”
(A) ‘Cosmopolitanism’ (B) ‘Semiotics’ (C) ‘Sense of Place’ (D) ‘Symbology’

55. Under the design elements of Kevin Lynch, ‘Quiapo church’ would be a landmark while
Divisoria would be termed as
(A) Flea Market (B) Icon (C) District (D) Nodule (F) Transshipment

56. This refers to the goal or principle of urban design that a place needs to foster a ‘sense of
security and pleasantness’ emanating from vibrant street life, neighborly behavior of residents,
and positive social interaction.
(A) legibility (B) imageability (C) SIR - smooth interpersonal relations
(D) conviviality (E) peace and tranquility
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57. ‘Smart Growth USA,’ with its ten declared principles, deliberately combats ‘amorphic sprawl’
by means of
(A) mixed use zoning rather than conventional exclusionary zoning
(B) design of walkable, bikable, sociable, health-oriented settlements
(C) integrated and clustered commercial-cum-industrial development
(D) interconnected modes of transport
(E) compact development through infilling
(F) All of the above

58. Which goal of “Smart Growth USA” addresses social participation?


(A) Direct growth toward existing population centers, thru public spending on infrastructure
and utilities
(B) Foster distinctive, attractive communities with a strong sense of place by creating
walkable neighborhoods and providing a variety of transportation choices
(C) Make development decisions predictable, fair, and cost effective, and encourage
stakeholder collaboration in development decisions
(D) Create a range of housing choices and opportunities by allowing mixture of land uses
(E) Preserve and protect open space, farmland, natural beauty, and environmentally sensitive
areas

59. Which design can be credited for ‘Community Connectivity’ under LEED of the US Green
Building Council?
(A) greenfield site located within short walking distance to many common amenities
(B) public rental housing connected by on-ramps to a large freeway intersection
(C) seven-storey commercial building linked to a food processing plant at a center a 10
hectare complex
(D) socialized housing site beside academic buildings of a state university
(E) suburban brownfield within 500 meters from light rail public transportation

60. Presidential Decree 2146 defines ‘amenity areas’ as those with high aesthetic values such as the
following, except one.
(A) outstanding landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes
(B) planetarium, space observatory, and science centrum
(C) heritage sites and historic places
(D) municipal plazas and public parks

61. Which is not a benefit from having large greenspace in cities?


(A) absorbs air pollution (B) gives off oxygen (C) cools the air as water transpires
(D) provides habitat to wild beasts (E) provides shade with less electricity required
(F) muffles noise and creates an island of peace

62. An example of positive easement is one that


(A) preserves a certain habitat (C) allows the right to harvest a natural crop
(B) protects a certain stream (D) stipulates not to drain a wetland
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63. The ‘clutter of cities’ consists of disorderly utility lines, crisscrossing electricity/telephone cables,
superfluous signages, political propaganda, oversized advertising billboards which contain
messages of sensualism, fetishism, materialism, and conspicuous consumption all hindering one’s
appreciation of outstanding built structures and cityscapes.
(A) visual blight (B) litter and nuisance (C) aesthetic decay
(D) street anarchy (E) communicative pollution

64. A tool used to create elite landscapes that convey socio-economic identity, characterized by
imitation of rustic estates or feudal-age manors, detailed ornamental iconography, and other
manifestations of conspicuous consumption
(A) millionaires’ row (B) red light boulevard (C) gentrification
(D) yacht and polo club (E) large lot zoning

65. In the Philippines, low density housing development means ______ dwelling units per hectare.
(A) 35 and below (B) 36 to 150 (C) 151 to 210 (D) 211 and above

66. Under the National Building Code, “residence” is not just the home structure per se but can
include accessory structures such as private garage, servants quarter, storehouse, home office,
sari-sari, and --
(A) carinderia (B) farm and poultry (C) day care center
(D) guardhouse (E) warehouse

67. A ‘single detached dwelling unit’ is defined as a house that is


(A) good for one household
(B) intended for ownership
(C) completely surrounded by yard or open space
(D) with one or more of its sides abutting the property line

68. The total area of permitted building space expressed as a proportion of the total site is known as:
(A) Gross Leasable Area (B) Buildable Site
(C) Floor Area Ratio (D) Structure to Site Proportion

69. This refers to population-focused planning that seeks to enhance people’s capacities to meet their
own needs through improvements in ‘social infrastructure’ such as mass shelter, schools,
hospitals, daycare, rehab centers, homes for the aged, etc. and the provision of public utilities,
water, power, sewerage, parks, and cemeteries.
(A) Population Management (B) Social Welfare Development
(C) Infrastructure Planning (D) Social Planning

70. This theory propounded by James S. Coleman (1988), Robert Putnam (1993), Diane Carney
(1998) and adopted by UNDP (1997), looks at collective non-market assets of people such as
trust, solidarity, norms of reciprocity, common purpose, equality, and other resources that are
inherent in social relations and embedded in social networks.
(A) Theory of Social Change (B) Social Mobilization
(C) Theory of Social Learning (D) Theory of Social Capital
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71. ‘Ekistics’ or the ‘science of human settlements’ by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis was built upon the
concept of “basic needs,” which were later categorized by Johann Galtung into “material survival
& security needs,” “social or enabling needs,” and non-material “human needs.” Which grouping
of needs was elaborated on by Abraham Maslow?
(A) food, water, clothing, shelter, sanitation, health care, energy/fuel, employment, peace and
order,
(B) self-expression, sex, procreation, recreation, education, communication, and
transportation
(C) physiological needs, physical safety, love and belongingness, esteem, self-
actualization/self-realization
(D) freedom, security, identity, well-being, ecological balance

72. The following are the basic elements of ‘human settlements’ according to Dr. Konstantinos
Doxiadis. Which one pertains to the built environment or physical capital?
(A) anthropos (B) Nature (C) shells and networks (D) society (E) social structure

73. In the words of PD 933, the “human settlements approach” emphasizes


(A) socialized housing, low-cost housing, economic housing, and cooperative housing
(B) Plato’s ideals of “the true, the good, and the beautiful”
(C) family, employment, community, (folk-work-place), freedom of belief, and ecological
balance
(D) habitability, quality of life, efficiency, economy, social opportunity, convenience, and
beauty

74. In ‘Quality of Life Assessment’, which category of indicators of human ability and well-being
would have a clear spatial dimension?
(A) “to be” (B) “not to be” ( C) “to dream” (D) “to become” (E) “to do”

75. An individual, group, organization, sector, or community who has a direct or indirect interest in
a policy, program, or project, who affects or is affected by -- positively or negatively -- the
implementation and outcome of it, is called
(A) recipient / beneficiary (B) proponent / exponent (C) advocate (D) stakeholder

76. Which of the following – all true! -- about people’s participation in planning, implementation,
and management holds the same meaning as the statement “people are the principal actors, the
subject rather than the object, of development.”
(A) Participation increases the likelihood that policy will be effective and will have long-term
benefit as people provide data and feedback on ground-level needs and concerns to policy-
makers and implementors.
(B) The very process of participating is, in and of itself, educational, liberating, and
empowering for the poor.
(C) People are not passive beneficiaries or mere recipients of dole-outs.
(D) Participation hastens people’s ownership of their problems and builds community
leadership so that they gain control over their own fate and learn to make critical decisions
for their common future.
(E) Community participation contributes to institutionalizing positive reforms envisioned by
changes in policy.
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77. World Bank describes this process as the “expansion of assets and capabilities of poor people, as
well as the expansion of their freedom of choice and action, to participate in, negotiate with,
influence, control, and hold accountable institutions that affect their lives.”
(A) Self-Reliance (B) Needs Achievement (C) Entitlement (D) Empowerment

78. A member of the advocacy/activist/equity school of planning, this planner wrote the classic
“Eight Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation” which describes the varying degrees of
people’s involvement in policies, plans, and programs.
(A) Ralph Nader (B) Susan S. Fainstein
(C) Dr. Martin Luther King Jr (D) Sherry Arnstein

79. The process of obtaining from people technical advice or opinion which may or may not be
followed is called
(A) Consultation (B) Cooptation (C) Cooperation (D) Collaboration

80. The process of facilitating and arranging activities and action-plans of different interest-groups or
sectors for the purpose of harmonizing, synchronizing, and consolidating inputs and outputs is
called
(A) Input-Output process (B) Mainstreaming (C) Coordination (D) Faci-pulation

81. It is the international collective term for inclusive, non-State actors whose aims are neither to
generate profit nor to seek governing power but to unite people around the broadest public
interest based on ethical, cultural, religious, scientific, professional, or philanthropic
considerations.
(A) Cause-Oriented Groups (B) Charities (C) Social Movements (D) Civil Society

82. Because ‘environmental planning’ as a multi-disciplinary field utilizes the methods of social
sciences, the following research approaches are more appropriate except one:
(A) Experimental (B) Correlational (C) Causal-Comparative (D) Historical-Descriptive

83. This refers to the broad type of social research whose central objective is to solve urgent
problems, develop a tool or social technology, explain effects of policies or actions, and evaluate
the impact of plans and programs on people.
(A) Exploratory Research (B) Pure / Basic Research
(C) Evaluation Research (D) Applied Research

84. What is meant by ‘theory’ in urban and regional planning as a multi-disciplinary field of social
science?
(A) an educated guess being tested by numerous experiments
(B) outcome or proof to establish causal connection among key actors and factors
(C) a set of principles derived from envisioned future state of society
(D) a set of interrelated propositions or hypotheses that have been supported by several
studies in the past
Social Planning Page 13 of 28 pages

85. In scientific research, it refers to attribute of data that can take on different values; it may be a
characteristic, trait or dimension of a person, object, process, or event that can be classified,
measured, and studied.
(A) Variable (B) Frequency (C) Facet (D) Metrics (E) Degree

86. An environmental chemist in a laboratory reports a new discovery based on experimental results.
If the experimental results are to be ‘valid’, environmental chemists in other laboratories should
be able to
(A) repeat the experiment with a different variable and obtain the same results
(B) perform the same experiment and obtain different results
(C) repeat the same experiment and obtain roughly the same results
(D) perform the same experiment under different experimental conditions and obtain the same
results

87. An investigation was designed to determine the effect of ultraviolet light on mold spore growth.
Two groups of mold spores were grown under identical conditions, except one group was exposed
only to ultraviolet light, while the other group was grown in total darkness. In this investigation,
the group of mold spores grown in total darkness is known as the
(A) experimental group (B) pilot group (C) control group (D) test group
(E) manipulated group (F) focus group

88. Two test tubes were filled with a solution of bromthymol blue. A technician exhaled through a
straw into each tube, and the bromthymol blue turned yellow. An aquatic green plant was placed
into each tube, and the tubes were corked. One tube was placed in the dark, and one was placed in
direct sunlight. The yellow solution in the tube in sunlight turned blue, while the one in the dark
remained yellow. Which statement best explains why the solution in the tube placed in sunlight
returned to a blue color?
(A) Oxygen was used for photosynthesis.
(B) Oxygen was removed by respiration.
(C) Carbon dioxide was removed by photosynthesis.
(D) Carbon dioxide was produced by respiration.

89. Which of the following is not a research method?


(A) questionnaire (B interview (C) appraisal (D) case study (E) survey

90. A ‘problem tree’ is


(A) a kind of tree that grows in the wrong place
(B) a method of environmental impact assessment
(C) a tool to understand cause and effect relations among problems
(D) used to trace ancient roots of intractable development problems

91. In the structure of informant interviews, the acronym “STAR” method stands for
(A) Select, Talk, Articulate, Relate (D) Salaries, Travels, Add-ons, Refunds
(B) Solve, Test, Analyze, Repeat (E) Simple, True, Action, Reflection
(C) Situation, Task, Action, Result
Social Planning Page 14 of 28 pages

92. The strength of survey questionnaire as research instrument lies in


(A) ability to provide baseline data
(B) ability to measure quantitative variables
(C) ability to reveal potential relations between different sets of data
(D) ability to draw out the most sincere responses from informants

93. In using descriptive statistics to study population and society, the three measures of central
tendency are:
(A) midpoint, minimum, and maximum (C) occurrence, convergence, and divergence
(B) range, frequency, and threshold (D) mean, median, mode

94. This measures the degree to which two variables are related but not necessarily in a cause-and-
effect manner:
(A) Coefficient of Correlation (B) Coefficient of Variation
(C) Multivariate Function (D) Chi-Squared Statistic

95. In all distributions of data, the ‘median’ is equivalent to the:


(A) Average (B) variance (C) 50th percentile (D) quartile (E) quintile

96. Probability is at times used in relation to natural cycles with mean return period or recurrence
interval. If a flood that recurs once in 100 years has an annual probability of one percent (0.01),
what would be the annual probability of a 475- year earthquake?
(A) 0.475 (B) 0.2375 (C) 0.0438 (D) 0.002105

97. This branch of statistics aims to predict and draw conclusions concerning a population or its
characteristics from mere sample chosen to represent the whole population.
(A) descriptive statistics (B) deductive statistics
(B) (C) analytic statistics (D) inferential statistics

98. Probability sampling is selecting samples randomly to reduce bias in data collection such that
chosen sample would contain the same variations that exist in the larger population. Which is not
an example of random sampling?
(A) systematic sampling (B) stratified sampling
(C) convenience sampling (D) cluster sampling

99. Ratio and Proportion. In 2008, the Philippines had 68 million cell phone units, of which 63
million were used. If 35% of population in urban areas have buying power to own and use a cell
phone while only 15% of population in rural areas can do the same, what would be the
approximate number of cellphone users in a rural barangay with 4,000 people.
(A) 80 (B) 400 (C) 600 (D) 1,200

100. In a non-parametric test of correlation to determine if amount of fertilizer has anything to do


with quantity of farm yield, the following crops were computed to have their respective
‘difference of ranks squared’ (d2): rice = 1; corn = 0; wheat = 0; beans = 0; mongo = 1. Given
‘Spearman rho’ formula “r = 6Vd2 ⁄ n(n2-1)” what would be the ‘r’ value?
(A) 1.1 (B) 1.2 (C) 0.9 (D) 0.2
Social Planning Page 15 of 28 pages

101. In a linear regression exercise where “x = distance in km from Stock Exchange building” and “y
= price in pesos of land per square meter,” the line of best fit (LOBF) equation is “y = -1000x +
16,000” where -1,000 is the slope and 16,000 is the intercept. What would be the value of land
per square meter if it were 15 kms from Stock Exchange?
(A) 1,010 (B) 1,100 (C) 1,600 (D) 1,000

102. This error in logic means that conclusions drawn from analysis of a group are applied to the
group’s members without regard for individual variation or unknown ‘x,y’ factors that can come
from human attitude and idiosyncratic behavior.
(A) sweeping generalization ( B) argumentum ad hominem
(C) ecological fallacy (D) equivocation (E) begging the question
(F) fallacy of affirming the disjunct or the consequent

103. How many square meters are there in one acre?


(A) 328 (B) 1,250 (C) 4,047 (D) 8,700 (E) 43,560

104. How many acres are there in one hectare?


(A) 2.47 (B) 0.96 (C) 3.28 (D) 10 (E) 100

105. How many hectares are there in one square kilometer?


(A) 10 (B) 100 (C) 1,000 (D) 10,000

106. This refers to amount of energy necessary to raise one gram of water one degree Celsius; its
approximate equivalent in Systeme Internationale metric measurements is 1055 joules
(A) calorie (B) Kelvin (C) BTU – British Thermal Unit
(D) kilojoule (E) PSI – pounds per square inch

107. The use of a variety of methods, sources, or field team members, at least three in kind or
category, to cross check and to validate information inorder to limit possible biases in a research
study is called
(A) corroboration (B) confirmatory test (C) triangulation
(D) reconnaisance (E) cross-disciplinary control

108. This method uses ‘words’ rather than numbers to describe and measure classifiable data. Words
are then arranged on a descriptive scale and given approximate numeric values for analytic
purposes, but such scale can not accurately reflect magnitude or intensity of variables or
dimensions.
(A) Multi-variate Analysis (B) Qualitative Analysis
(C) Muddling Through (D) Phenomenology

109. This is an intuitive method of demand analysis, needs assessment, or forecasting which gathers
the independent views and judgments of recognized experts in panel discussion; or polls and
consolidates their expert opinions thru a survey.
(A) Crystal Ball (B) Knowledge Management (C) Delphi Technique
(D) Oracle Method E) Authoritative Approach
Social Planning Page 16 of 28 pages

110. This family of cross-disciplinary, cross-sectoral approaches in research engages communities to


share their indigenous knowledge, analyze their local conditions, in order to plan and to act on
their own problems, through dialogic and participatory processes such as cross-walking, transect,
semi-structured interviews, community mapping, preference ranking, seasonal and historical
diagrams, and other tools of rapid rural appraisal (RRA).
(A) Interactive Andragogy (B) Participatory Action Research
C) Virtual Learning Network (D) Social Anthropology

111. This qualitative method from ethnography immerses the observer into the same conditions as
those s/he is observing so that, in an uncontrolled environment, participants can surface their own
ideas, mental categories, concerns, and behaviors as naturally and as spontaneously as possible.
(A) Quasi-Experiment (B) Naturalism
(C) Direct Observation (D) Participant Observation

112. Demography’ is the study of human population using statistical methods. The demographic
concepts described as sources of change in the size and magnitude of population are:
(A) copulation, procreation, and reproduction (C) transition, stagnation, progression
(B) births, deaths, and migration (D) famine, war, and disease

113. An enumerative method of study which covers all the units of a population is called
(A) holism (B) Gestalt (C) sociology (D) census

114. This demographic concept refers to any age-group that is observed through time as its members
are assumed, for the purpose of analysis, to go through roughly similar experiences.
(A) consort (B) cohort (C) ensemble (D) array (E) connivance

115. This refers to amount of population increase attributable to greater number of births than deaths
per thousand population without considering in-migration and out-migration.
(A) Reproductive Rate (B) Average Growth Rate Per Annum
(C) Population Shift (D) Natural Increase
116. The simplified “Rule of 69” to determine population ‘doubling time’ gives the formula ‘dt =
0.693÷r’; such that if the Philippines AGR in 2000-2007 is 2.04%, the total Philippine population
is expected to double in approximately
(A) 32 years (B) 34 years (C) 36 years (D) 38 years

117. A country currently has a population of 100 million and an annual growth rate of 3.5 percent. If
the growth rate remains constant, what will be the population of this country in 40 years?
(A) 150 million (B) 200 million (C) 300 million (D) 400 million (E) 600 million

118. A remote village with 200 all-indigent households engaged in rainfed farming, with an average
household size of 6, would likely grow arithmetically, due to isolation, poverty, disease, and lack
of food. With their births-minus-deaths average of 30 persons per year, what would be the
village’s projected total population in 3 years?
(A) 1,230 (B) 1,090 (C) 1,180 (D) 1,290
Social Planning Page 17 of 28 pages

119. Town ABCDE had a total year-end population of 20,000 in 2008, 20,400 in 2009, 20,808 in
2010. Using geometric growth formula of Pt= Po(1+r)t at uniform r=2% per annum, what would
be its total year-end population by 2011?
(A) 21,224 (B) 21,400 (C) 21,820 (D) 22,130

120. This pattern of rapid population growth expressed by the formula Pt = Po ert is “seemingly
without bounds” and is called “Malthusian,” but is premised on the widespread abundance of
food, which is not true in all places.
(A) polynomial growth rate (B) parabolic growth rate
(C) logistic growth rate (D) exponential growth rate

121. The main difference between the “economic method” of projecting population growth and the
“mathematical methods” (arithmetic, geometric formulae, etc.) is that
(A) The former takes into account movement of people while the latter only considers
reproduction and deaths.
(B) The former forecasts varying rates of growth of local economic output and creates
alternative scenarios.
(C) The latter does not consider ‘force majeure’ or recurrent natural disasters.
(D) The latter is based upon the assumption of “do nothing” while the former ignores historic
patterns.

122. According to NSO 2009, heart diseases, cerebrovascular diseases, stroke, cancer, and malignant
neoplasms which are degenerative disorders due to lifestyle, together account for 50% of total
deaths, and are called leading causes of
(A) Fatality (B) Terminality (C) Corporeality (D) Mortality

123. ‘Morbidity’ essentially refers to


(A) mental insanity cases per 1000 population
(B) incidence of disease per 1000 population
(C) rate of contagion of epidemic every 72 hours
(D) outbreak of plagues and pandemics every 3 years

124. The whole country has a population growth rate of 2.04% per annum while Town FGHIJ has
growth rate of 1.4% per annum. Using the ‘crude assumption’ method of computing migration
flows, which of following is likely true?
(A) there is more out-migration from Town FGHIJ
(B) there is more in-migration to Town FGHIJ
C) Immigration and Emigration cancel out each other.
(D) Poor transport to Town FGHIJ makes movement difficult.
Social Planning Page 18 of 28 pages

125. Between census years 1990 and 2007, the lowest population growth rates per annum in Metro
Manila occurred in San Juan, -0.03%; City of Manila, 0.09%; Pasay, 0.22%; Makati, 0.3%;
Mandaluyong, 0.53% (versus highest rate at 2.12% in Taguig City). Which of the following
statements, all valid, most considers sustainable capacity and livability?
(A) These NCR areas have higher daytime population than nighttime population.
(B) These NCR areas are likely approaching their viable population limits.
(C) These NCR areas tend to physically decay with population density beyond a tolerable
range.
(D) New or young families in these NCR areas are likely to settle somewhere else.

126. Based on National Statistics Office’s definition, women of this age range are presumed to be
fertile and child-bearing.
(A) 12 yrs to 42 yrs (B) 14 yrs to 44 yrs
(C) 15 yrs to 49 yrs (D) 16 yrs to 36 yrs (E) 17 yrs to 37 yrs

127. The central difference between ‘birth rate’ and ‘fertility rate’ is
(A) ‘birth rate’ pertains to fecundity of a woman while ‘fertility rate’ pertains to quantity &
intensity of her sexual activity
(B) ‘birth rate’ pertains to babies who survive while ‘fertility rate’ includes pregnancies
which may or may not succeed
(C) ‘birth rate’ refers to births in relation to total population while ‘fertility rate’ is in relation
to average childbearing woman
(D) ‘birth rate’ pertains to live births while ‘fertility rate’ includes still births, premature
deliveries, abortions & miscarriages (B) ‘birth rate’ pertains to babies who survive while
‘fertility rate’ includes pregnancies which may or may not succeed
(C) ‘birth rate’ refers to births in relation to total population while ‘fertility rate’ is in relation
to average childbearing woman
(D) ‘birth rate’ pertains to live births while ‘fertility rate’ includes still births, premature
deliveries, abortions & miscarriages

128. 17% of surveyed women wanted 2.7 average births in contrast to aggregate fertility rate of 3.5
births per woman; 50% of women don’t want any more children; 9% of women wanted to space
births but could not do so, and nearly 50% of women between ages 15 and 24 have had pre-
marital sex and have experienced unwanted pregnancies. Which rational conclusion is supported
by above data from ESCAP study1998?
(A) Filipinos’ fondness for babies is waning.
(B) Government and social institutions like family, church, and school need to be stricter
about people’s sexual behavior
(C) the women in the survey do not accurately represent the overall picture of Filipino
womenfolk
(D) there is apparently an unmet need for contraceptives and family planning among Filipino
women
(E) Filipino women are more burdened compared to men when it comes to birth control
Social Planning Page 19 of 28 pages

129. The declared population policy of the Philippine government 2001-2010 aimed to
(A) uplift ‘reproductive health’ of women as basis of population management
(B) support couples in making decisions on the timing, spacing, and the number of children
they want in accordance with their cultural and religious beliefs
(C) encourage use of contraception among married couples
(D) enforce one-child rule for all couples

130. The central difference between a ‘census’ and a ‘survey’ is that


(A) census makes use of questionnaires while surveys make use of telephone interviews
(B) census involves complete enumeration while survey involves sampling
(C) census is done every 10 years while survey can be done by anyone anytime anywhere
(D) only qualified demographers and statisticians ought to conduct a census

131. Because census age-groupings do not coincide with school-going ages for primary, secondary
and tertiary schools, this method is used to disaggregate school-age population within a bracket
into workable components.
(A) sprague multiplier (B) sprengler multiplier
(C) survival and dropout rate (D) disambiguation

132. Which method uses population of larger geographic area to ‘interpolate’ population of a smaller
geographic area?
(A) ‘step down’ or area ratio method (B) logistic method
(C) component method (D) shift share

133. The historic shift of birth and death rates from high to low levels, signaling the tendency of total
population to decline after replacement-level fertility (1.1% to 1.5%) has been attained, is called
(A) Population Reversal (B) Demographic Transition
(C) Population Shift (D) Demographic Deceleration

134. ‘Labor Force’ is more accurately defined as comprising all persons


(A) age 18 to 65 years currently employed, underemployed, or active in the informal sector
or underground economy
(B) age 16 to 64 years regardless of gender, economic status, qualification, physical fitness,
mental health condition
(C) age 15 to 64 years not in school nor under special care and actively seeking productive
work or employment
(D) age 14 years and above with demonstrated literacy, numeracy, writing, and analytical
skills

135. All of the following are of productive age, but only one is strictly counted as part of the ‘Labor
Force.’
(A) 16-year-old who dropped out of school and became a houseboy
(B) 67-year-old BSC degree-holder who owns and operates a neighborhood variety or sari-
sari store
(C) 20 year old on his third year of the course, Bachelor of Science in Information
Technology Management
(D) 32-year old virgin entering the nunnery as a religious novice.
Social Planning Page 20 of 28 pages

136. The law that provides for a comprehensive and continuing urban development and housing
program and establishes the mechanisms for the implementation of socialized housing in the
Philippines
(A) RA 7279 (B) RA 7160 (C) RA 1010 (D) RA 6969

137. What color is used to represent residential areas in zoning map?


(A) Yellow (B) Brown (C) Aqua Marine (D) Red

138. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the LogFrame?
(A) Results define the objective and activities contribute to goals.
(B) The goal leads to objectives, which contribute to results, which define activities
(C) The results of objectives lead to activities that contribute to the goal
(D) Activities lead to results, which lead to the objective, which contributes to a goal

139. The hierarchic logic in LogFrame or “Z.O.P.P” starts with broad goals which are subsequently
broken down into purposes, objectives, outputs, and activities.
(A) Horizontal (B) vertical (C) lateral (D) diagonal

140. Which essential elements of LogFrame or “Z.O.P.P” are used for plan monitoring and
evaluation?
(A) targets and quotas (C) milestones and signposts
(B) indicators and means of verification (MOV) (D) gauges and benchmarks

141. An analytical, presentational, and management tool that involves problem analysis, stakeholder
analysis, developing a ladder like chain of objectives, and selecting a preferred implementation
strategy, usually taking the form of a four-by-four table that summarizes what the project intends
to do and how, what the key assumptions are, and how outputs and outcomes will be monitored
and evaluated .
(A) Primavera (B) Force Field Analysis
(C) Logical Framework (D) Logical Decision Window

142. What is the central difference between ‘monitoring and evaluation’?


(A) There is no difference between ‘monitoring and evaluation’ that’s why they always go
together.
(B) Monitoring looks at objective quantifiable data while evaluation weighs subjective
judgments and perceptions.
(C) Evaluation looks into the ‘why’ question while monitoring looks into ‘how much’.
(D) Monitoring assesses the performance of project staff; evaluation assesses performance of
project management
(E) Monitoring is done within the control of project management while evaluation is done by
higher management

143. What does ‘ex post facto’ evaluation seek to do?


(A) describe conditions under which an undertaking is effective
(B) identify any unanticipated effects of an undertaking
(C) determine whether stated goals have been achieved
(D) all of the above
Social Planning Page 21 of 28 pages

144. Which of the following statements on evaluation is false?


(A) ‘Efficiency’ criterion asks whether results were achieved at reasonable costs
(B) ‘Effectiveness’ criterion assesses how results impacted on the objective
(C) ‘Relevance’ criterion assesses if the project fitted into the wider social context and
priorities of government.
(D) ‘Sustainability’ criterion assesses whether the issuance of CNC or ECC was justified
(E) ‘Impact’ criterion assesses whether project has made a dent on real-life conditions &
needs of target beneficiaries

145. What are the four principles to guide evaluation?


(A) time, talent, treasure, trust
(B) outputs, outcomes, results, effects
(C) adequacy, anticipation, timeliness, responsiveness
D) impartiality, stakeholder participation, credibility and usefulness

146. What does an ‘impact evaluation’ measure that is not clearly described in ‘terminal evaluation’
at project’s end?
(A) key outputs or outcomes of a project
(B) indicators, benchmarks, and milestones
(C) immediate results of an undertaking
(D) long-term consequences on people, society, and nature

147. An indicator of “Quality of Life” developed by Nobel Prize Laureate Amartya Sen, this
composite measure combines life expectancy at birth, school enrolment rate, adult literacy rate,
per capita income, and incidence of poverty.
(A) Millennium Development Goals (C) Human Development Index
(B) Index of Sustainability (D) GPI – Genuine Progress Indicator

148. Incidence of families below poverty line stood at 39.9% in 1990 and averaged 33% between
2001 and 2010. Did the administration of President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo attain its
Millennium Development Goal in poverty reduction?
(A) Yes (C) Answer depends on one’s level of information, political bias, and personal
loyalty
(B) No (D) Attainment would have been substantial were it not for the global economic
recession of 2008-2009
149. Under Millennium Development Goals, what is the official target of government in terms of
reducing family poverty below the food threshold or subsistence threshold by the year 2015?
(A) 0.3% (B) 5.4% (C) 10.2% (D) 15.6%

150. Under which of the following Millennium Development Goals has the Philippines achieved the
greatest accomplishment in the period 2000-2010, according to official UNDP reports?
(A) “Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger (E) “Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other
diseases”
(B) “Promote gender equality and empower women (F) “Improve women’s reproductive
health”
(C) “Achieve universal primary education (G) “Reduce child mortality”
(D) “Ensure environmental sustainability (H) “develop global partnership for development”
Social Planning Page 22 of 28 pages

151. “It gets worse before it gets better.” According to Nobel Prize laureate Simon Kuznets, as an
economy experiences growth, income distribution first worsens before it gradually improves in
the long run.
(A) wealth residual dichotomy (B) inverted ‘U’ hypothesis
(C) the ‘J’ curve (D) Dismal Theory

152. The saying “the rich get richer and the poor get poorer” is related to concepts of ‘spread’ and
‘backwash’ in a regional economy that were first articulated by this Nobel Prize laureate for
economics.
(A) Milton Friedman (B) Paul Krugmann
(B) (C) Robert Solow (D) Gunnar Myrdal

153. A gauge of income inequality, it is measured graphically by dividing the area between the
perfect equality line and the Lorenz curve by the total area lying to the right of the equality line in
a Lorenz curve diagram
(A) absolute poverty barometer (B) Gini coefficient
(C) Kuznets curve (D) human deprivation index

154. Of 145,382 informal settler households in Metro Manila in 2004-2010, 6,802 households settled
along Pasig River, 21,047 settled along esteros, 34,367 settled along the ‘riles’, and 82,896
households occupied public and private lands. What is the primary ‘mode’ of informal settlement
in Metro Manila?
(A) ‘along da riles’ (B) ‘along esteros’
(C) ‘along the Pasig’ (D) ‘occupation of public and private lands’

155. The following reasons underlie locational motivation of urban poor to live in slum colonies and
shantytowns. Which reason is socio-cultural in nature and serves to compensate for the lack of
livelihood and employment opportunities in cities?
(A) proximity to low-skill jobs and sources of income in the urban services sector, both
formal and informal
(B) zero to low land rents and occupancy fees in marginal lands, residual public lands,
easements, and danger zones
(C) kinship-based, ethnic-related personal networks serving as safety nets that provide social
solidarity and reciprocity
(D) alternative modes of access to squatter areas by water through rivers, canals, and coasts
(E) ease of disposal of solid wastes and liquid wastes into esteros, creeks, and ditches.
(F) coddling by traditional patronage politicians because of voting power of large
concentrations of urban poor

156. Commonwealth Act 383 of 1938 punishes the dumping of any refuse, waste matter, or pollutive
substances into rivers with at least 6-months imprisonment, while PD 296 of 1973 penalizes
illegal encroachment, improvement upon, occupation, or reclamation of any portion of rivers,
creeks, esteros, and drainage channels, that result in the constriction, partial or complete closure
of said waterways, with a prison term of
(A) at least 2 to at most 10 years (B) at least 1 year
(C) 3 to 5 years (D) 5 to 7 years
Social Planning Page 23 of 28 pages

157. Of the following solutions to address urban slums, which one adopts an ‘as is, where is’
approach and hence not conducive to ‘land assembly’ for an integrated holistic settlement?
(A) off-site resettlement (C) land readjustment
(B) in-city relocation (D) medium-rise tenements as temporary shelter
(C) on-site slum upgrading (E) collaborative models such as ‘Gawad Kalinga’ and
‘Habitat for Humanity’

158. Why is a mass housing project in the watershed area of La Mesa Reservoir Dam unsound and
environmentally dangerous?
(A) because a declared watershed is a protected area and hence not alienable and disposable
(B) because domestic solid wastes and leachate from septic tanks can contaminate water
supply for 12 million people
(C) because trees to capture precipitation, not housing and impervious structures, are the
priority in a catchment reserve
(D) all of the above

159. In welfare-oriented societies, this is a shelter program designed to help homeless individuals and
families progress toward self-sufficiency in an environment of security and support, serving as a
middle point between emergency shelter and permanent housing for a timeframe of six months to
two years.
(A) Mass Housing (B) Transitional Housing
(C) Public Row housing (D) Cooperative Housing

160. In the absence of an operational Local Housing Board, which unit ought to prepare the local
shelter plan of an LGU?
(A) Planning and Development Office (C) Subdivision Homeowners Association
(B) Local Development Council (D) Association of Barangay Captains

161. Specific principle contained in RA 7279 UDHA that “developers of proposed subdivision
projects shall be required to develop an area for socialized housing equivalent to at least 20% of
total subdivision area or total subdivision project cost, at the option of the developer, within the
same city or municipality, whenever feasible,” so that both government and market can jointly
provide for the needs of lower socio-economic classes.
(A) Public Private Resources Exchange (C) Balanced Housing Development
(B) Cooperative Housing Development (D) Corporate Social Responsibility

162. In RA 9397’s amendment to expand socialized housing options of national/local government


under RA 7279 UDHA, which common mode/program is being remedied for its uneven
effectiveness in addressing homelessness?
(A) transfer of homelot ownership in fee simple
(B) public rental housing
(C) usufruct or lease with option to purchase
(D) time-share arrangements and communal shelter
Social Planning Page 24 of 28 pages

163. ‘Land Banking’ refers to the right of government to acquire land in advance of actual need
through
(A) eminent domain, expropriation, confiscation
(B) readjustment, re-alignment, re-platting
(C) raising revenues through Land Bank LBP bonds & treasury bills
(D) sale, purchase, swap, exchange, negotiation, & similar techniques

164. A house financing program of the National Home Mortgage Finance Corporation which “assists
legally organized associations of underprivileged and homeless citizens to purchase and develop a
tract of land under the concept of community ownership so that residents of blighted or depressed
areas can own the lots they occupy, or where they choose to relocate to, and eventually improve
their homes to the extent of their affordability”
(A) Zonal Improvement Program (B) Slum Upgrading
(C) Unified Home Lending Program (D) Community Mortgage Program

165. As per HUDCC circular dated September 27, 2006, a dwelling unit with total value of P300,000
or less is called
(A) Low-Cost Housing (B) Socialized Housing
(C) Economic Housing (D) Gawad Kalinga

166. A condemned building is torn down to give way to an ‘infill’ housing project to keep labor force
in the inner city. Which of following important HLURB parameters would have the least and
most minor issues in comparative terms?
(A) past and present land use
(B) suitability of terrain, environmental thresholds and natural geohazards
(C) demographic, socio-economic and political considerations
(D) locational motivation towards place or neighborhood

167. According to Batas Pambansa 220, the affordability level of housing is based on that portion of
total gross family income that an average household would regularly allocate for shelter, which is
(A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60%

168. Under BP 220, the design of housing projects has to prioritize physical needs in the following
order of importance.
(A) electricity, recreation, transport vehicles, market for foodstuffs, water supply, solid waste
facility
(B) health center, daycare center, church, public school, assembly hall, basketball court, and
cellsites
(C) water, roads for circulation, stormwater drainage, disposal of solid and liquid wastes,
power, park/playground
(D) police station, fire station, government office, jail, cemetery, telephone and cable trunk
lines

169. What is minimum gross lot area of a row-house unit of socialized housing under Batas
Pambansa 220?
(A) 32 sqm (B) 36 sqm (C) 18 sqm (D) 22 sqm
Social Planning Page 25 of 28 pages

170. What is minimum gross lot area for single-detached family dwelling unit of open market
housing under PD 957?
(A) 90 sqm (B) 100 sqm (C) 110 sqm (D) 120 sqm

171. According to PD 957 Sec. 28, when a government office or public institution is located inside a
private subdivision, the rights of access of which group should take precedence?
(A) the rights of property owners over the rights of the taxpayers
(B) the rights of the general public over the rights of the subdivision homeowners
(C) the rights of government officials over the rights of businessmen
(D) the rights of public utility vehicle operators over the rights of private car owners

172. According to BP 220, at what scale or minimum number of family dwelling units would it be
appropriate to allocate space for an elementary school as part of a socialized housing project?
(A) 4,000-5,000 (B) 3,000-2,500 (C) 2,000-2,499 (D) 1,500-1,999

173. According to BP 220, high-density residential structures can be allowed in flatlands with slope
0-5%, but low to medium density residential development would be ideally located in areas with
slope of
(A) 5% to 10% (B) 5% to 15%
(C) 5% to 18% (D) 5% to 20% (E) 5% to 25%

174. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 104, a residential dwelling unit or
“Group A” building shall have one side adjoin or have direct access to a public space, yard, street,
or alley; shall not occupy more than 90% of a corner lot or 80% of an inside lot; and be built in
such a way that its exterior wall is at least ____ from the property line.
(A) 2.0 m (B) 4.0 m (C) 6.0 m (D) 8.0 m

175. In the GRZ or R-1 zone, what is the maximum height of a residential structure as measured from
the highest natural grade line on the property or from sidewalk level up to its roof?
(A) 5 m (B) 7 m (C) 9 m (D) 11 m

176. If the sidewalk is 3 meters in width, what should be the minimum distance of building exterior
wall from the curb of street?
(A) 5 m (B) 6 sm (C) 7 m (D) 8 m

177. According to PD 1096 Nat’l Building Code of 1977 Sec 806, a habitable room in a residential
dwelling unit should have a minimum area of 6 sq.m (14 m3) and ceiling height or headroom
clearance, as measured from floor to ceiling, of at least
(A) 2.40 m (B) 2.80 m (C) 3.40 m (D) 3.80 m

178. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 808, room ventilation in a dwelling
unit without air conditioning or mechanical ventilation is based on the ratio that area of window
opening should be at least ______ of floorspace.
(A) one-fifth (B) one-sixth (C) one-eighth (D) one-tenth
Social Planning Page 26 of 28 pages

179. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 1003, projections such as balconies
or appendages of a dwelling unit should have this vertical distance between the established
street/sidewalk grade and the lowest undersurface of balcony
(A) 2 meters (B) 3 meters (C) 3.5 meters (D) 4 meters

180. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 1207, this is the maximum vertical
distance between two landings (not steps) of a stairway.
(A) 2.4 meters (B) 2.6 meters (C) 3.6 meters (D) 4.5 meters

181. According to BP 220, if the minimum distance between 2 two-storey houses is 4 meters, and the
minimum horizontal clearance between their respective roof eaves or overhang is 1.50 m, what
would be the horizontal length of each building’s overhang from exterior wall up to the edge of
roof?
(A) 0.25 meters (B) 0.50 meters (C) 1.50 meters (D) 1.75 meters

182. The setback of a septic tank from a residential wall should be at least 1.5 meters or 5 feet while
the setback of a disposal field or leach field is 2.5 meters or 8 feet. What should be the minimum
distance between your septic tank and leach field from your neighbor’s exterior wall?
(A) 2 meters (B) 3 meters (C) 4 meters (D) 5 meters (E) 6 meters

183. What should be the minimum distance between a drinking water-well or spring from the
drainfield of a septic tank?
(A) 15 m (B) 25 m (C) 35 m (D) 45 m (E) 55 m

184. According to RA 6541 National Building Code of 1972, the minimum parking requirement is
‘one parking slot for every...’
(A) 100-125 m2 of floorspace
(B) 100-125 m2 of business and customer service area
(C) 100-125 m2 of titled property
(D) 100-125 m2 of front yard

185. Lower than US standards by 10%, this is the ratio between saleable and non-saleable portions of
an open-market subdivision as required under PD 957 or the Subdivision and Condominium
Buyers Protection Act?
(A) minimum of 60% open space (C) 60% saleable and 40% non-saleable
(B) minimum of 50% open space (D) 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable

186. By Philippine standards, how far should a striptease joint, beerhouse, casa, or place of ill-repute
be allowed to locate in relation to a school?
(A) 50 meters away or more (B) 100 meters away or more
(C) at least 200 meters away (D) at least 500 meters away

187. By Philippine standards, how much open space should an ideal elementary or high school
campus have, out of its total land area?
(A) 60% or more (B) 50% or more (C) 40% or more (D) 30% or more
Social Planning Page 27 of 28 pages

188. To compute for standard size of classroom, 1.40m2 (HLURB) or 3 cu.m ‘bubble’ per pupil
(PD1096 NBC) is multiplied by the ideal number of pupils per classroom as determined by
DepEd. This use in design of average measurements of body and bodily movements is an
application of the field of
(A) biomechanics (B) bionics (C) physiometrics (D) anthropometrics

189. A University or Institution of Higher Learning with total enrolment of 10,000 or more, should
have a campus area of at least seven hectares. What would be the required open space?
(A) at least 2,500 m2 (B) at least 5,000m2
(C) at least 10,000m2 (D) at least 25,000m2

190. By Philippine standards, the minimum total area for a tertiary-level general hospital with 300
beds is
(A) 4.5 hectares (B) 3.5 hectares (C) 2.5 hectares (D) 1.5 hectares

191. As per PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975, what should be acquired individually by all food
workers, processors, preparers, vendors, servers in all food establishments, whether formal or
informal businesses?
(A) lung X-ray & HIV-AIDS test from public hospital
(B) health clearance from local health office
(C) food testing report from Bureau of Food and Drugs lab
(D) face mask and hairnet from Department of Health

192. As per PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975 Sec.13a, washing of clothes and bathing cannot take
place within what distance from any public well or public source of drinking water?
(A) 25 meters (B) 100 meters (C) 150 meters (D) 200 meters

193. Which ‘environmental management’ practice by households is broadest of the four enumerated
below?
(A) Re-use (B) Reduce (C) Recycle (D) Reform lifestyles

194. Which ‘environmental management’ practice by firms is most encompassing of the four
enumerated below?
(A) ‘Disperse and Dilute’ (B) End-of-Pipe Treatment
(C) Product Life Cycle Assessment (D) factory waste-exchange

195. Apart from taxes, incentives, and property rights approaches, the major approach of the
National Government to manage the environment by means of policies, rules, and standards is
called--
(A) Coerce and Compel (B) Contain and Constrain
(C) Command and Control (D) Cash and Checks

196. According to RA 9710 Magna Carta of Women of 2009 Sec. 4g, this refers to policies,
instruments, programs, services and actions that address the disadvantaged position of women in
society by providing preferential treatment and affirmative action such as measures aimed to
accelerate de facto equality between men and women.
(A) Sexual Equality (B) Gender Equity (C) Women’s Liberation
(D) Gender Parity (E) Feminist Empowerment
Social Planning Page 28 of 28 pages

197. This is the first law that marked the mainstreaming of gender issues into the agenda of
development by promoting the “Integration of Women as Full and Equal Partners of Men in
Development and Nation Building.”
(A) RA 1010 (B) RA 7192 (C) RA 6969 (D) RA 8010

198. Conventional ‘Euclidean’ or exclusionary zoning is faulted for the following valid reasons.
Which reason comes from the feminist perspective of Jane Jacobs, et al?
(A) rigid segregation of land uses unnecessarily lengthens travel distance to meet other needs
and discourages walking, social interaction, and neighborly behavior essential to local
community-building
(B) self-contained, balanced, sociable communities deter crime, reduce anomie, lessen
psychological distress caused by movement to/from work or school, increase quality
family time, and prevent other social problems.
(C) exclusionary land use encourages satellite bedroom communities where work and other
needs are not available
(D) increased Vehicle Miles Traveled (VMT) correlates with traffic jams, accidents, labor
productivity losses, more GHG emissions aggravating air pollution, and huge external
economic costs borne by society in general
(E) mothers with infants and young children are ‘zoned out’ of production as jobs in the CBD
or in factory district are too far from home to enable women to successfully carry out both
domestic duties and formal employment

199. RA 8371 IPRA grants to Indigenous Cultural Communities and Indigenous Peoples the right to
own and possess their tribal lands as a limited form of private ownership that does not include the
right to alienate the same lands.
(A) Regional Autonomy (B) Ancestral Domain
(C) Self-Government (D) Tribal Ownership

200. Of the following forms of evidence that Indigenous Peoples can use to claim aboriginal land,
which category of evidence needs substantial assistance from a planner with extensive
background in anthropology?
(A) Tax declarations and proof of payment of taxes; survey plans and/or sketch maps;
(B) Old improvements such as planted trees, stone walls, rice fields, water systems,
orchards, farms, monuments, houses and other old structures, or pictures thereof;
(C) Historical accounts, Spanish Documents, ancient documents;
(D) Genealogical surveys; written and oral testimonies of living witnesses made under oath;
written records of customs and traditions
(E) Burial grounds or pictures thereof; religious sites and/or artifacts in the area;

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